424 :2:

Note : All questions in Part-I relate to the lncome Tax Act, 1961 and Assessment Year 2023-24,
unless stated otherwise.
PART-I

1. What is the time limit for filing updated retum 3. If there is an apparent error in the intimation
of Income U/S 139(8A) of the Income Tax
Act, 1961 ? dated 15.06.2018 issued by the Assessing
(A) Within 12 months from the end of the officer under section 143(1) then the time
Relevant Assessment Year limit for filing application for rectification under
(B) Within 18 months from the end of the Section 154 is available up to :
Relevant Assessment Year
(C) Within 24 months from the end of the
(A) 30.09.2018
Relevant Assessment Year
(B) 31.03.2019
(D) Within 36 months from the end ofthe
Relevant Assessment Year (C) 31.03.2022
2. Any person who has not filed a return of (D) 31.03.2023
Income within the time allowed under Section
4 A buyer purchases goods liable for TCS for
139(1) or within the time allowed under a
notice issued under Section 142(1) may file being used in manufacturing processing. The
a return us 1394):
provisions of TCS shall not apply if the buyer
(A) Before 31st December ofthe relevant
Assessment year or before the gives declaration in duplicate to the seller
completion of the Assessment in FORM NO :
whichever is earlier
(A) 27B
(B) Before three months prior to the end
of the relevant assessment year (B) 27C
(C) Before the completion of the (C) 27E
Assessment
(D) None of the above (D) 28C

2/2023/TL ANSWERSs MARKED IN THE OMRANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. ...
D
 :3: 424
5. An assessee who declares his income in 7. After the receipt of order from Income Tax
accordance with presumptive taxation under Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), the time limit for
Section 44ADA of the Income Tax Act,
filing appeal to the High Court is :
1961 for Assessment Year 2023-24 is liable
(A) 120 days
eto pay advance tax :

(A) In four instalments (B) 90 days

(B) In two instalments (C) 60 days
(C) In one instalment on or before 15th (D) 30 days
March of the Financial Year
8. What is the penalty provided for under
(D) In one instalment on or before 31st
reporting and misreporting of Income
March of the Financial Year
respectively under the Income Tax Act,
6. Interest is payable to the assessee on the
1961?
amount of refund under the Income Tax Act,
1961 where the amount to Refund is : (A) 50%o of tax payable on under reported
income, 200% of tax payable on
(A) 2.5 percent or more of the tax as
determined under section 143(1) of the misreported income
Income Tax Act, 1961 (B) 25% of tax payable on under reported
(B) 5 percent or more of the tax as income, 100% of tax payable on
1oeoa determined under section 143(1) of the misreported income
Income Tax Act, 1961
(C) 10% of tax payable on under reported
(C) 7.5 percent or more of the tax as
income, 50% of tax payable on
determined under section 143(1) of the
misreported income
Income Tax Act, 1961

(D) 10 percent or more of the tax as (D) 5% of tax payable on under reported
determined under section 143(1) of the income, 25% of tax payable on
Income Tax Act, 1961 misreported income
2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMRANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.

D
424 4
9. Advance tax is not required to be paid by : 1,00,000 towards
12. A deduction of
(A) a fim of individuals
unrealised rent was allowed to Z, being the
(B) company giving donations to political
parties owner of a house in the Assessment year
(C) an individual of age 60 years or more
and not having any income from 2018-19.Z sold the house on 14th January,
business profession 2020 and subsequently in the previous year
(D) Limited Liability Partnership
2022-23 he realised 80,000 from the
10. Mr. H has been provided with a servant by
his employer whose salary is 5,000p.m. tenant. If Zspent 10,000 for the realisation
Mr. H is not a specified employee. The
amount taxable for the perquisite in the hands of the rent, the amount taxable out of the
of Mr. H is:
(A) 30,000 realised rent in the Assessment year

(B) 60,000 2023-24 is :

(C) 45,000
(A) ? s6,000
(D) Ni
11. Amar, a resident but not ordinarily resident (B) 80,000
in India, eamed the following incomes during
the previous year 2022-23 : (C) 70,000
) Capital gain of ? 5,00,000 on sale of
a building located in Agra but received (D) Nl
in Australia.
(i) Interest of 4,00,000 from Canada 13. Section 2(24) of the Income Tax Act, 1961
Development Bonds, 25% of which is
received in India. defines income as it is:

The amount of income chargeable to tax in (A) Exhaustive

India for the Assessment year 2023-24 is:
(A) ? 9,00,000 (B) Exchusive
B) ? 6,00,000
(C) ? 5,00,000 (C) Descriptive

(D) ? 4,00,000 (D) Inclusive

2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMRANSWERSHEET SHALLONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .

D
 :5: 424
14. An Individual to be an Ordinary Resident 17, Which of the following Incomes of a Political
must satisfy the conditions in Section 6(6)
Party is exempt from Income Tax under
of the Income Tax Act, 1961. What are
Section 13A of the Income Tax Act ?
they ?
(A) Only the First Condition in Section 6(6) (A) Income from Other Sources Only

(B) Only the Second Condition in Section (B) Income from House Property Only
6(6)
(C) Either the First or the Second Condition
(C) Voluntary Contributions and Capital
in Section 6(6) Gains Only
(D) Both the Conditions as mentioned in (D) All the above
Section 6(6)
18. Partial Integration of Agricultural Income with
15. The effective rate of tax on winning from Non-Agricultural Income arises when both
lotteries under Section 115BB is :
Incomes in case of Senior Citizen are as
(A) 31.2%
follows:
(B) 41.6%
(C) 20.8% (A) Agricultural Income Nil, Non
(D) 159% Agicultural Income is above 1,00,000

16. Albert aged 75 years mortgages his property (B) Agricultural Income is above 5,000,
with Housing Finance Corporation under Non-Agricultural Income is above
6'Reverse Mortgage Scheme". During the
Financial Year 2022-23 he received R.2,50,000
730,000 p.m. from the mortgage. Calculate
(C) Agricultural Income is above?5,000,
the amount which is taxable under Income
Non-Agricultural Income is above
Tax Act, 1961.
73,00,000
(A) Nil
(B) 3,60,000 (D) Agricultural Income is above 1,000,
(C) ? 2,52,000 Non-Agricultural Income is above

(D) 60,000 7 5,00,000

2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.
D
424 :6:

19. Exemption U/S 10(48C) of the Income Tax 22. Leave encashment at the time of retirement
Act, 1961 is available to :
of an employee is exempted for Govemment
(A) Oil and Natural Gas Co. Ltd. Employee under Section 10(10AA). Here
(B) Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Government Employee means:
Limited
(A) Central Govermment Employee only
(C) Gas Authority of India Ltd.
(D) All the above
o (B) Central and State Government
Employee
20. From the following in which case, Employer
Employee relationship exists and therefore (C) Central and State Government
the Income is taxable under the head
Employees and Employees of local
"Income from Salary" ?
Authorities
(A) Partner of a Firm
(D) Central and State Government
(B) Official Liquidator
Employees and Employees of local
(C) Member of Parliament
Authorities and Employees of statutory
(D) Director of a company receiving fees
corporations
for attending the board meetings
21. As per Section 10(14) of the Incomne Tax 23. Professional Tax if paid byy the Employer on
Act read with Rule 2BB of the Income tax behalf of employee is:
Rules, the extent to which Compensatory
(A) Allowed as deduction
Modified Field Area Allowance is exempt:
(B) Not Allowed as deduction
(A) Up to ? 200 p.m.
B) Up to 800 p.m. (C) Added to the Income of the Employee
and then allowed as deduction
(C) Up to 1,000 p.m.
(D) Up to ? 1,600 p.m. (D) None of the above
2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALLONLY BE EXAMINED Contd.
D
 :7: 424
24. Out of the following which will be deducted 26. Motor buses, motor lorries and motor taxies
B from GAV (Gross Annual Value) of ahouse oeoused in a business of running them on hire
property ? acquired on or after 23.08.2019 but before
01.04.2021 and is put to use before
(A) Municipal Taxes of previous years and
current year paid by landlord but
1.04.2021 willbe entitled to aDepreciation
reimbursed by the tenant
l (A) 15%
(B) Municipal taxes of current year paid
(B) 30%
by the tenant
(C) 40%
(C) Municipal taxes of curent year payable
(D) 45%
D) Municipal taxes of Previous Years and
2s ic current year paid by the owner during
27. ABLtd is intrading business. It bought out
a new machinery for the purpose of its
the current previous year
business on 15.09.2022. The additional
25. Income Computation and Disclosure amount of depreciation available to AB Ltd.
Standards (1CDS) notified by the Central will be:
Government are compulsorily required to be (A) Nil
maintained by all assessees following
mercantile system of accounting while (B) ?3,00,000

computing Income under the head "Profits (C) ? 1,50,000

.and Gains from Business or Profession" and 75,000
(D)
Income from Other Sources" except :
28. PLtd an infra company issued Zero Coupon
(A) Individual Bonds the Face value of whichis? 5,00,000
(B) HUF wloky for 3,60,000 which will be matured after
4 years. What willbe the deduction p.a. be
(C) Individuals and HUF who are not
available to the company ?
covered under the tax audit provisions
(A) 1,25,000
under Section 44AB
(D) Individuals and HUF who are covered
(B) ? 90,000
under the tax audit provisions under (C) 35,000
Section 44AB D) ? 2,15,000
2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMRANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.

D
 424 :8:
· 29. Mr., X solda building for 5,00,000 as 32. Section 50C of the Income Tax Act makes
part of his business. The stamp duty authorty
a Special Provision for determining the full
valued that building for 5,20,000. The
valuation officer determines the value for value of consideration in case of transfer of :
? S,70,000. Assessing officer at the time of (A) Plant and Machinery
assessment took the value as per his
(B) Land
discretion as 6,00,000. What will be the
corect value for sale consideration for the
(C) Building
purpose ofcomputation of business Income ?
(D) Land or Building or both
(A). ? 5,00,000
(B) ? 5,20,000 33. Under which Section, the assessee has to
(C) ? S,70,000 reinvest the entire net consideration to claim

(D) 6,00,000 full exemption on long term capital gains

30. What is the Cost Inflation Index for Financial
earned from transfer of long-term capital
Year 2022-23 ? assets other than a residential house during
(A) 328 the previous year:
(B) 329 (A) 54F

() 331 (B) 54E

(D) 335 (C) 54D
31.. AB Ltd has a building purchased on (D) 54C
12.03.2009 and that building was used for
the company's business. The WDV of the 34. Interest on securities shall be taxable under
0building was 45,250 (Depreciation rate Income from other sources :
10%) and sold for 1,10,000. Calculate
the Capital Gain in this case ? (The building (A) On Due basis
is the only assets in the block): (B) On Receipt basis
(A) LTCG ? 64,750
(C) As per the direction of the Assessing
(B) LTCG ? 55,000 Officer
(C) STCG ? 64,750
(D) On the basis of method of accounting
(D) Nil being business Assets
regularly employed by the assessee
2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMRANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. ..
D
 :9: 424
35. Mr. Mithun employed in a Firm where he 38. Mr. P has interest accrued from NSC
is regularly receiving consolidated salary of (maturity date is after twoyears) ? 15,600.
?25,000 per month during the year
2022-23 and also received family pension During the current year 2022-23 he invested
@15,000 p.m. during the year. His total ?1,00,000 and his wife invested ? 50,000
income for the Financial Year 2022-23 taking in NSC. What will be the deduction under
that he does not have any deduction under
section 80C assuming that. no other
Chapter VI A:
investments are made by Mr. P :
(A) 4,80,000
(B) 4,30,000 (A) 1,00,000
(C) ?4,15,000
(D) 4,20,000 (B) ? 1,15,600

36. A person has loss from House Property in (C) 1,50,000

the current year. It can be set off against
(D) ? 1,65,600
Income from:
(A) Any other head of Income up to a 39. For claiming deduction under Section
maximum of 2,00,000 80JJAA the assessee must obtain audit report
B) Only from Income from House
in Form Number 10DA from a Chartered
Property without any monetary limit
(C) Both (A) and (B) Accountant on or before the :

(D) None of the above

(A) End of Previous Year
37. Public Provident Fund Account can be
(B) Duedate of filing Return
opened by an individual for the purpose of
deduction under Section 80C in the name
(C) Due date of filing of Tax Audit Report
of: under Section 44AB of the Income Tax
(A) Self
Act, 1961
(B) Spouse
(D) 31st of December of the relevant
(C) Children
Assessemt Year
(D) All the above

ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMRANSWER SHEET

SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.
22023/TL
D
 424
40. Contributions made other than by way of
':10:
43. Which of the following is a company under
cash by an Indian Company in the previous the Income Tax Act, 1961 for income tax
year to any political party shall be allowed purposes ?
as deduction to the extent of ..... % of
(A) Foreign Company
contribution made.
B) Indian Company
(A) 25%
obrc (c) Closely held Company
(B) 50%
(D) All the above
(C) 759%
44. Section 2(22Xe) of the Income Tax Act,
(D) 100%
which deems certain payments as dividend,
41. Relief under Section 89 of the Income Tax is applicable to the shareholders of :
Act, 1961 is available except :
(A) A closely-held Company
(A) Amount received/receivable on
(B) A private Company
Voluntary Retirement
(C) A widely held Company
(B) Advance Salary received
(D) ANidhi Companyint
(C) Arear of Salary received
45. As per Section 115BG of the Income Tax
D) Gratuity Received
Act, where the total Income of the assessee
42. The amount of rebate of Income tax U/S includes any Income from the transfer of
87A of the Income Tax Act, available to carbon credit then such income shall be
a resident Individual whose total Income does taxable at a concessional rate of ......plus
not exceed 5,00,000 for the Financial Year cess on such income tax.
2022-23 will be :
(A) 59% on the gross amount of
such
(A) ? 12,500 or 100% income tax income
whichever is less
(B) 5% on the net amount of such
income
(B) 5,000 (C) 10% on the gross
amount of such
(C) ? 2,500 income
(D) 10,000 (D) 10% on the net amount of such
income
2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED INTHE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd.
D
 :11: 424
46. Normal tax liability for a company
assessee49.The provisions of section 139AA of the
is 5,00,000 and tax liability under MAT
is 8,00,000. In this case the tax payable Income Tax Act, 1961 shall not apply to
and MAT Credit c/f will be : which of the following individuals if they do
aul (A) ? 3,00,000, ? 0 not possess the Aadhaar or enrolment ID :
(B) 8,00,000, ? 3,00,000
(A) The age of the Individual is 80 years
(C) 5,00,000, 3,00,000
or more during the Previous Year
D) 5,00,000, 0
47. Equalization levy in case of e-commerce (B) A Non-Resident
operators is deductible if the aggregate
boz amount of consideration for a specified (C) Non-Citizen
RU service in a previous year exceeds :
(D) All the above
(A) ? 25,000
50. Form No 12BA of Income Tax Act contains
(B) 50,000
(C) ? 75,000 which of the following :

(D) None of the above (A) Details of the Tax Deducted by the
48. In case of issue of shares at premium by
Employer be
listed companies, Share Premium is:
(A) Considered as an Income under the (B) Details of Perquisites and Profits in lieu
Head Capital Gain of Salary chargeable U/S 17(3) of
(B) Considered as an Income under the Income Tax Act
Head Income from Other Sources

(C) Considered as an Income Under the (C) Details of Salary paid to Foreign
Head Profits and Gains from Business/
National by Indian Employer
Profession

(D) Not con_idered as Income at all D) Details of tax collected at source

2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMRANSWER SHEET SHALLONLY BEEXAMINED P.T.O.

D
424 : 12 :
PART-II

S1. To whom registration under CGST Act, 53. Gail Ltd. of Mumbai supply gas to Copper
2017 is compulsory ? Ltd. In this supply the supplier is not able
to ascertain the quantity at the time of
() P is a person making reverse charge removal from the place of business. In this
case the document to be accompanied with
supplies only
the gas supply is :
i) Qis a person required to pay tax under (A) Tax Invoice
reverse charge (B) Delivery Challan
(ii) R, a casual taxable person making (C) Bill of supply
(D) Payment voucher
inter-state supply of notified goods upto 54. Consignment value of goods which is used
7 20 lakhs in E-Way Bill includes .......apart from
the value declared in invoice.
(iv) S an input service distributor
(A) Central tax
(A) For P only (B) State tax
(B) For P and Q only (C) Cess charged
(C) ForQand S only (D) All the above
55. Consulate or Embassy of foreign countries
.(D) For Q, R and Sonly or any other perSon or class of persons
52. Tax invoice under GST may not be issued notified UIS 55 of the CGST Act entitled
to a refund of tax paid by it on inward
if the value of goods or services or both supplies may make an application for such
is less than : refund before the expiry of. from the
last day of the quarter in which such supply
(A) ? 100 was received.

(B) 200 (A) One month

(B) Three months
(C) 500
(C) Six months
) 1,000 D) Twelve months

2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. ....
D
 : 13: 424
56. A general audit conducted U/S 65 of the
59. The important purpose of implementation of
CGST Act is required to be completed within
3 months from the date of Commencement. the Customs Act is to :
This period is extendable for another:
(A) Regulate levy and collection of customs
(A) One month
duty
(B) Three months
(C) Six months (B) Regulating Imports and Exports
D) Additional period as required by the (C) Conservation and augmentation of
proper officer
57. The State Jammu and Kashmir has been foreign exchange
divided into two Union Territories namely (D) Allthe a b o v e O
Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh in 2019.
After the reorganisation, the Jammu and 60.Goods for customs duty levy which cannot
Kashmir Goods and Services Tax Act is be classified in accordance with Rules 1, 2
applicable to :
or 3 shall be classified under :
(A) The Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir (A) Character principle
(B) The Union Territory of Ladakh (B) Latter and Better principle
(C) The Union Teritories of Jammu &
Kashmir and Ladakh (C) Akin principleuN on .
(D) None of the Union Territories (D).Closest principle
58. The input tax credit in respect of GST 61. Which of the following statements is not true
compensation to States Cess on supply of in case of GST?
goods and services shall be utilised towards
(A) GST is a' Destination based
the payment of:
consumption tax
(A) The cess only
(B) GST ensures seamless flow of ITC
(B) CGST only
(C) GST is levied on goods and services
(C) IGST only at equal rates
(D) Al the above
D) GST adorns dual taxation model

2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMRANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.
D
424 :14:
62. was the first State in India to
65. Transactions which are outside the ambit of
pass the State GST Bill.
supply are provided in of the
(A) Telangana
CGST Act, 2017.
(B) Maharashtra N
(C) Assam
(A) Schedule I

(D) West Bengal (B) Schedule II

63. The important parameter that constitute (C) Schedule III 4
supply under CGST Act is/are :
o (D) Table I
xote(A) It involved supply of goods or supply
of service or both 66. Integrated Goods and Services Tax is payable
on
(B) It is for a consideration

(C) It is made in the course of or (A) Interstate supply.

furtherance of business
(B)Intra state supply
(D) Allthe above
(C) Both of (A) and (B)
64. What would be the rate of tax applicable
in case of mixed supply ? (D) Deemed supply

(A) Average of applicable tax rates on 67.. Value of supply under Section 15(1) of the
various items in the supply. CGST Act is the:
(B) Flat @ 28% (A) -Wholesale price
(C) Tax rate applicable on supply attracting
(B) Maximum retail price
highest rate of tax
(C) Transaction value
(D) Tax ate applicable on supply atracting
lowest rate of tax (D) Assessable yalue

212023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMRANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd.
D
 : 15 : 424
68. Mr. A is an air travel agent, has provided 71. Input tax credit (ITC) is available in respect
the following details : of tax paid on:

Basic air fair collected for domestic (A) Goods used for personal consumption
booking 5,00,000 (B) Fre samples
(C) Services on which tax has been paid
Basic air fair collected for international
under composition levy
booking R 10,00,000 (D) None of the above
Determine the total value of taxable supply 72. E-Way Bill is generated electronically in Fom
of services : No. on the common portal.
(A) 1,25,000 (A) EWB GST 01
(B) EWB GST 02.
(B) 1,75,000
(C) GST EWB 01
(C) ? 2,00,000áa
(D) GST EWB 02
(D) 3,25,000oi
73. E-Invoice is not mandatoryin case of which
69. Which of the following is treated as incidental of the following category of persons
expense under Section 15(2Xc) of the CGST irrespective of their turnover ?
Act ? (A) Banking company
(A) Packing expenses (B) Insurer
(C) Person supplying passenger
(B) Weighment charges transportation services
(C) Commission (D) All the above
(D) All the above "74. If there is no business activities during the
70. Which of the following is the Rule for residual tax period, then as per the CGST Act :
method of determination of value of supply (A) No return need to be filed
of goods or services or both ? (B) Nil return is to be filed
(A) Rule-28 (C) Return may be filed on receipt of the
(B) Rule-29 notice from authority
(C) Rule-30. (D) Matter of no business activities should
(D) Rule-31 he informed by a letter to the authority

2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMRANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLYBE EXAMINED P.[.O.
D
424 :16:

75. The power to make rules is given to the 79. If a registered person has claimed
Central Govemment in. . . o fthe GST depreciation on the ....of the capital
(Compensation to States) Act, 2017.
goods and plant and machinery under the
(A) Section 12
provisions of the Income Tax Act, the input
(B) Section 13
(C) Section 14 tax credit on the said tax component shall
not be allowed in CGST Act.
D) Section 15
76. The time limit for pronouncing the Advance (A) Cost
Ruling under the Customs Act is :
(B) Tax component of the cost
(A) 30 days
(C) WDV
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days (D) Realisable value

D) 120 days 80. Transportation of by a goods

77. The classification of car without tyres as car transportr agency in a goods carriage is
is a classification according to the principles exempt from GST.
of ..........of Interpretation Rules under the
Customs Tariff Act. (A) Agricultural produce
(A) Rule 2 (B) Organic Manure
(B) Rule 3 (C) Milk
(C) Rule 4
(D) All the above
(D) Rule 5
81. When can a claim for ITC under GST be
78. In terms of Section 17(5) of CGST Act,
Blocked credit means the inward supply of made under the reverse charge ?
goods or services on which ITC:
(A) After payment of tax liability
(A) Shall be allowed provisionally
(B) After issue of invoice
(B) Shall be allowed fully
(C) Shall not be allowed forever (C) Earlier of (A) and (B)

(D) Shall not be allowed provisionally (D) Later of (A) and (B)
ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED
212023/TL Contd....
D
 : 17: 424
82. As per Article 279A who is empowered to 86. Out of the following, who is not eligible for
constitute GST council: the composition scheme under the CGST
Act, 2017 ?
(A) Prime Minister
(A) Casual Taxable Person (CTP)
B) President (B) Person engaged in inter State outward
(C) Central Govermment supplies of goods
(D) Parliament (C) Non-Resident taxable person
(D) All the above
83. Which of the following State Tax have been
87. The prime purpose of place of supply is to
subsumed in GST ?
determine:
(A) Central Sales Tax (A) Whether a supply in inter/intra State
(B) Central Excise Duty (B) Whether CGST+SGST,or IGST or
(C) Service Tax UTGST to be charged
(D) All the above, (C) Which State/Union Territory will get
the tax revenue
84. The higher eligibility turnover limit of ? 1.5
(D) All the aboves
Crore under composition scheme is not
applicable to : 88. Mr. R is supplying only services which are
(A) Assam exclusively taxable under RCM. The value
(B) Himachal Pradesh of such supplies is 51,00,000. Which of
(C) Utarakhand the following statenments is true ?

(D) Bihar (A) Compulsory registration is required as

supplies are taxable
85. Intimation for withdrawal from composition
scheme should be informed by submitting (B) Compulsoryregistration is required as
form turnover exceeds 50 lalkh
(A) GST CMP-07
(C) Registration is not required in this case
(B) GST CMP-06
(C) GST CMP-05. (D) Compulsory registration is required as
(D) GST CMP-04
the person engaged in supply of services
only
-2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMRANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.
D
424
89. In IGST Act a supply of service is considered
:18:
92. Actionable claims are neither products nor
as "Import of Service" when: services, hence they are dealt by .... of
() The supplier of service is located the Central Goods and Services Tax Act.
outside India
(A) Schedule I
i) The recipient of service is located in
(B) Schedule II
India
(C) Schedule II
(ii) The place of supply of service is in
India (D) None of the above.
(A) () only 93. Which of the following is a mixed supply ?
(B) () and (ii) (A) A soap manufacturer offers a free
(C) ) and (ii) bucket with detergent.
(D) ). (i) and (ii) (B) A five star hotel provides four days
90. The Goods and Services Tax Network and three night package with breakfast
(GSTN), a special purpose vehicle, set up (C) As per a sales contract goods are
by the Government primarily to provide
packed and transported with insurance
information technology infrastructure is a: by the seller
(A) Public Limited Company
(D) All the above
(B) Government Company
94. Krishnan a registered dealer in Karnataka
(C) Private Limited Company
has opted for composition scheme. He has
(D) Statutory Corporation a taxable turnover of goods for 20 lakhs
91. Which of the following activities is a supply
and exenmpted turnover of goods for 15
of service ?
lakhs within Karnataka in a tax period. If
(A) Transfer of title in goods Krishnan is a trader, the GST to be paid
B) Transfer of right in goos without by him for the tax period is :
transfer of title in goods
(A) 15,000
(C) Transfer of title in goods with a
(B) ? 20,000
condition that property shall pass at
a future data (C) ? 35,000

(D) Allthe above (D) Ni

2/2023/TL ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED
Contd.....
D
 :19: 424
95. Input Tax Credit can be availed on the GST 98. AVM Sounds Ltd. entered into a contract
to purchase the copyright of a musicalbum
paid under :
of Priyam, a music composer. The composer
(A) Composition scheme finished the work and gave the CD to the
music company on, 20th July and issued
(B) Forward charge mechanism invoice on 24th July. The consideration for
the contract?2.4 crores was received by
(C) Reverse charge mechanism. the composer on 4th September. If GST is
(D) Both Forward and Reverse charge payable under reverse charge basis for this,
the time of supply shall be :
mechanism.
(A) 4th September
96. Nathan is a resident of Chennai working in (B) 23rd September
Hyderabad travelled to Cochin for business (C) 20th July
purposes and booked a ticket for an event (D) 24th July.
99. A an advocate provided legal consultancy
there in Cochin performed by a team from
services toBfor aconsideration of? 50,000
Delhi. In this case the place of supply is: on 14th August, 2023. There was a change
in the rate of GST from 20th August, 2023.
(A) Chennai
In this case, if the invoice and the payment
(B) Hyderabad for the supply were received after 20th
August, 2023, the time of supply shall be:
(C) Cochin,
(A) The date of receipt of payment
(D) Delhi (B) The date of issue of invoice
(C) The date of change of rate of tax.
97. In case of goods supplied on "approval for
(D) (A) or (B) whichever is earlier
sale/returm basis'", the due date for issue of 100. Which of the following can avail of, every
invoice is : month, an amount equal to 50% of the eligible
input tax credit on inputs, capital goods and
(A) Before the time of supply input services of that month ?
B) At the time of supply (A) Banking Company
(B) Non-banking financial company
(C) Six months from the date of removal
(C) Financial institution
(D) Earliest of the above three (D) Allthe above
2/2023/TL ANSWERSMARKED IN THE OMRANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.
D