Grade 11 & 12 | NEET

Full Test 3 (TELEGRAM)

Test Date – 14 April 2024
Important Instructions :
1. Fill in the particulars on OMR provided carefully with blue/black ball-point pen only.
2. The test is of 3.20 hours in duration and Test Booklet contains 200 Multiple Choice questions (four options
with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. 50 Questions in Physics and Biology are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per the details given below:
No. Subject(s) Section(s) Number of Marks (Each Type of
Question(s) Question carries 4 Question
Marks)

1 Physics Section A 35 140 MCQ

(Multiple
2 Physics Section B 15 40 Choice
Questions)
3 Chemistry Section A 35 140

4 Chemistry Section B 15 40

5 Biology I Section A 35 140

6 Biology I Section B 15 40

7 Biology II Section A 35 140

8 Biology II Section B 15 40

Note : Correct Option marked will be given (4) marks and Incorrect option marked will be minus one (-1)
mark.
Unattempted / Unanswered Questions will be given no marks.
3. Section A: It will have 35 questions in each Subject. The correct Option marked will be given (4) marks and
the Incorrect option marked will be minus one (-1) mark.
Section B: Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start
attempting them. In the event of a candidate attempting more than 10 questions, then the first ten
questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated. The correct Option marked will be given (4) marks
and the Incorrect option marked will be minus one (-1) mark.
4. Use a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
5. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
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the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. Use of an Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
 NEET - Full Test 3

PHYSICS 3. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass

SECTION - A number curve for nuclei is shown in the
1. What is the value of R so that ammeter reads figure. W, X, Y and Z are four nuclei
zero in the circuit shown below. indicated on the curve. The process that
would release energy is

(a) 600 (b) 300

(c) 250 (d) 150
2. Photoelectric effect experiments are (a) Y → 2 Z (b) W → X + Z
performed using three different metal plates (c) W → 2Y (d) X → Y + Z
p, q and r having work functions 4. For ensuring dissipation of same energy in all
 p = 2.0eV ,q = 2.5eV and r = 3.0eV , three resistors (R1, R2, R3) connected as
shown in figure, their values must be related
respectively. A light beam containing
as
wavelengths of 550 nm, 450 nm and 350 nm
with equal intensities illuminates each of the
plates. The correct I-V graph for the
experiment is

(a) R1 = R2 = R3
(a) (b) R2 = R3 and R1 = 4 R2
1
(c) R2 = R3 and R1 =   R2
4
(d) R1 = R2 + R3
5. Ten capacitors are joined in parallel and
(b) charged with a battery up to a potential V.
They are then disconnected from the battery
and joined in series. Then, the potential of this
combination will be
(a) 1 V (b) 10 V
(c) 5 V (d) 2 V
(c)
6. A coil having an area A0 is placed in a
magnetic field which changes from B0 to 4B0
in time interval t. The emf induced in the coil
will be
(a) 3A0B0/t (b) 4A0B0/t
(c) 3B0/A0t (d) 4B0/A0t
(d)

2
7. There is an electric field E in x-direction. If 11. A photoelectric surface is illuminated
the work done in moving a charge 0.2 C successively by monochromatic light of
through a distance of 2 m along a line making 
wavelength λ and . If the maximum kinetic
an angle 60º with x-axis is 4 J, the value of E 2
is : energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the
(a) 2 3 N / C (b) 5 N/C second case is 3 times that in the first case,
(c) 4 N/C (d) none of these the work function of the surface of the
8. The energy of the em waves is of the order of material is:
15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does it (h = Planck's constant, c = speed of light)
belong? (a)
hc
(b)
2hc
(a) Infra-red rays (b) Ultraviolet rays  
(c) γ-rays (d) X-rays hc hc
(c) (d)
9. An electron moves on a straight-line path XY 3 2
as shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to the 12. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30o
path of electron. What will be the direction of to a non-uniform electric field. The dipole
current if any, induced in the coil? will experience.
(a) translational force only in the direction of
the field
(b) translational force only in a direction
normal to the direction of the field
(c) torque as well as a force
(d) torque only
13. A hydrogen atom in an excited state emits a
photon which is the longest wavelength of the
paschen series. Further emissions (due to
(a) adcb
further transition) from the atom cannot
(b) The current will reverse its direction as the
include the
electron goes past the coil (a) longest wavelength of Lyman series
(c) No current induced (b) second longest wavelength of Lyman
(d) abcd
series
10. In the given figure, a diode D is connected to
(c) longest wavelength of Balmer series
an external resistance R = 100 Ω and an e.m.f.
(d) second longest wavelength of Balmer
of 3.5 V. If the barrier potential developed series
across the diode is 0.5 V, the current in the
circuit will be:

(a) 40 mA (b) 20 mA
(c) 35 mA (d) 30 mA

3
14. If in a p-n junction diode, a square input 18. An electron revolves round a nucleus of
signal as shown is applied, then the value of charge Ze. In order to excite the electron from
output signal across RL will be the state n = 2 to n = 3, the energy required is
47.2 eV. Z is equal to
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 2
19. A piece of semiconductor is connected in
series in an electric circuit. On increasing the
temperature, the current in the circuit will
(a) decrease (b) remain unchanged
(c) increase (d) stop flowing
20. An ac supply gives 30V R.M.S. which passes
(a)
through a 10 resistance. The power
dissipated in it is
(a) 90 2W (b) 90W
(c) 45 2W (d) 45W
21. A coil of area 80 square cm and 50 turns is
(b)
rotating with 2000 revolutions per minute
about an axis perpendicular to a magnetic
field of 0.05 T. The maximum value of the
e.m.f. developed in it is
10
(c) (a) 200 V (b) V
3
4 2
(c) V (d) V
3 3
22. The rectangular coil of area A is in a field B.
Find the torque about the Z-axis when the coil
(d)
lies in the position shown and carries a
15. The magnetic field lines inside a long current
current I.
carrying solenoid are nearly
(a) straight (b) circular
(c) parabolic (d) elliptical
16. When a monochromatic light falls on a
photosensitive material, the number of
photoelectrons emitted per second is n and
their maximum K.E. is (EK)max. If the
intensity of the incident light is doubled, then:
(a) Both n and (EK)max are doubled
(b) Both n and (EK)max are halved (a) IAB in negative Z-axis
(c) n is doubled, but (EK)max remains the same (b) IAB in positive Z-axis
(d) (EK)max is doubled but n remains the same (c) 2IAB in positive Z-axis
17. The retarding potential required to stop the (d) 2IAB in negative Z-axis
emission of photoelectron, when a target
material of work function 1.24eV is irradiated
with light of wavelength 4.36  10−7 m is (use
o
hc = 12375 eV A )
(a) 0.36 V (b) 1.60 V
(c) 2.84 V (d) 4.08 V
4
23. A charged particle is fired perpendicular to a 29. The effective capacitance between A and B in
uniform magnetic field. The field figure will be
(a) changes the momentum and kinetic
energy of the particle
(b) changes the momentum but not the kinetic
energy of the particle
(c) changes the kinetic energy but not the
momentum of the particle
(d) neither changes the momentum nor the (a) 0.5 F (b) 1.5 F
kinetic energy of the particle (c) 2 F (d) 2.5 F
24. Three resistances are connected to form a T- 30. Two infinitely long parallel wires having
shape as showing the figure. Then the current linear charge densities λ1 and λ2 placed at a
in the 4 Ω resistor is distance of R meter. The force per unit length
 1 
on either will be  k = :
 4 0 
2  2 
(a) k . 12 2 (b) k . 1 2
R R
 
(c) k 1 22 (d) k 1 2
R R
31. When the electron in a hydrogen atom falls
(a) 0.93 A (b) 1.42 A from the second orbit to the first orbit, the
(c) 2.5 A (d) 1.57 A wavelength of the radiation emitted is λ.
25. An electric field of 1000 V /m is applied to an When the electron falls from the third to the
electric dipole at angle of 45°. The value of first orbit, the wavelength of the radiation
electric dipole moment is 10–29 Cm. What is emitted is
the potential energy of the electric dipole? 9 4
(a) –20 × 10–18 J (b) –7 × 10–27 J (a)  (b) 
4 9
–29
(c) –10 × 10 J (d) –9 × 10–20 J 27 32
26. The output of OR gate is 1 (c)  (d) 
32 27
(a) If both inputs are zero 32. If the current sensitivity of a moving coil
(b) If either or both inputs are 1 galvanometer is increased by 20% and its
(c) Only if both inputs are 1 resistance also becomes 1.5 times, the voltage
(d) If either input is zero sensitivity is
27. A capacitor connected to a 10 V battery (a) decreased by 20% (b) Increased by 20%
collects a charge of 40 microcoulomb with air (c) decreased by 40% (d) Increased by 40%
as dielectric and 100 microcoulomb with oil 33. An electron is accelerated from rest through
as dielectric. The dielectric constant of the oil potential difference V. The electron
is experiences force F in uniform magnetic
(a) 4 (b) 0.4 field. On increasing the potential difference
(c) 2.5 (d) 1.0 to V' keeping same magnetic field, force
28. Person ‘A’ is standing at a distance of 10m
V '
from a plane mirror. Another person ‘B’ is becomes 2F.   is equal to
standing at a distance of 15 m from the mirror. V 
Find the distance between Person ‘A’ and the 1
(a) (b) 2
image of Person B. 4
(a) 15m (b) 20m (c)
1
(d) 4
(c) 25m (d) 30m 2

5
34. A 27 mW laser beam has a cross-sectional 38. A beam of light consisting of red, green and
area of 10 mm2. The magnitude of the blue colours is incident on a right-angled
maximum electric field in this prism. The refractive index of the material of
electromagnetic wave is given by: (given the prism for the above red, green and blue
 0 = 9 10−12 SI units, c = 3  108 m/s) wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47,
respectively.
(a) 2 kV/m (b) 0.7 kV/m
(c) 1 kV/m (d) 1.4 kV/m
35. Light of wavelength 589.3 nm is incident
normally on the slit of width 0.1 mm. What
will be the angular width of the central
diffraction maximum at a distance of 1 m
from the slit
(a) 0.68 (b) 1.02
(c) 0.34 (d) None of these
The prism will:
(a) separate all the three colours from one
SECTION - B
another
(b) not separate the three colours at all
36. An inductance of 1 mH a capacitor of 10 μF
(c) separate the red colour part from the green
and a resistance of 50Ω are connected in
and blue colours
series. The reactances of inductor and
(d) separate the blue colour part from the red
capacitor are the same. The reactance of
and green colours
either will be:
39. At the first minimum adjacent to the central
(a) 100Ω (b) 30Ω
maximum of a single-slit diffraction pattern,
(c) 3.2Ω (d) 10Ω
the phase difference between the Huygen's
37. Three charges q1 = 110−6 C, q2 = 2 10−6 C wavelet from the edge of the slit and the
and q3 = −3 10−6 C have been placed as wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is:
shown in figure. Then the net electric flux 
(a) radian (b)  radian
will be maximum for the surface 2
 
(c) radian (d) radian
8 4
40. A proton and an alpha particle both enter a
region of uniform magnetic field B, moving
at right angles to field B. If the radius of
circular orbits for both the particles is equal
(a) S1 (b) S2
and the kinetic energy acquired by proton is 1
(c) S3 (d) Same for all three
MeV the energy acquired by the alpha
particle will be:
(a) 0.5 MeV (b) 1.5 MeV
(c) 1 MeV (d) 4 MeV
41. A series R-C circuit is connected to an
alternating voltage source. Consider two
situations:
(a) When capacitor is air filled.
(b) When capacitor is mica filled.
Current through resistor is i and voltage
across capacitor is V then:
(a) Va > Vb (b) ia > ib
(c) Va = Vb (d) Va < Vb

6
42. Two metal wires of identical dimension are 47. A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and width
connected in series. If σ1 and σ2 are the 0.1 m having 50 turns of wire is suspended
conductivities of the metal wires respectively, vertically in a uniform magnetic field of
the effective conductivity of the combination strength 0.2 weber/m2. The coil carries a
is: current of 2A. If the plane of the coil is
 +2  +2 inclined at an angle of 30° with the direction
(a) 1 (b) 1
21 2 1 2 of the field, the torque required to keep the
1 2 21 2 coil in stable equilibrium will be:
(c) (d) (a) 0.20 Nm (b) 0.24 Nm
1 +  2 1 +  2
(c) 0.12 Nm (d) 0.15 Nm
43. A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into 48. An AC circuit consists of a resistance and a
nuclei of thorium and helium. Then: choke coil in series. The resistance is of
(a) the helium nucleus has less momentum 220 and choke coils is of 0.7 H. The power
than the thorium nucleus absorbed from 220 V and 50 Hz, source
(b) the helium nucleus has more momentum connected with the circuit, is
than the thorium nucleus (a) 55W (b) 110W
(c) the helium nucleus has less kinetic energy
(c) 220W (d) 440W
than the thorium nucleus 49. Light travelling in air falls at an incidence
(d) the helium nucleus has more kinetic angle of 2 on one refracting surface of a
energy than the thorium nucleus
prism of refractive index 1.5 with angle of
44. Two slits in Young’s experiment have widths
prism 4 . The medium on the other side is
in the ratio 1:25. The ratio of intensity at the
water (n = 4/3). Find the deviation produced
maxima and minima in the interference by the prism (in degree).
I (a) 1 (b) 2
pattern, max is:
I min (c) 3 (d) 4
121 49 50. When a glass slab is placed on a cross made
(a) (b)
49 121 on a sheet, the cross appears raised by 1 cm.
4 9 The thickness of the glass is 3 cm. The critical
(c) (d)
9 4 angle for glass is
45. If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed (a) sin −1 ( 0.33) (b) sin −1 ( 0.5)
as V(x, y, z) = 6 xy – y + 2yz, the electric field
(in N/C) at point (1, 1, 0) is:
(c) sin −1 ( 0.67 ) (d) sin −1 ( 3/ 2 )
(
(a) − 6iˆ + 5 ˆj + 2kˆ ) (
(b) − 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + kˆ )
CHEMISTRY
(c) − ( 6iˆ + 9 ˆj + kˆ ) (d) − ( 3iˆ + 5 ˆj + 3kˆ ) SECTION - A
46. In an astronomical telescope in normal 51. The spin only magnetic moment of Cr3+ in
adjustment a straight black line of length L is aqueous solution would be :
drawn on inside part of objective lens. The (a) 3 B.M . (b) 15 B.M .
eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The
(c) 8 B.M . (d) 35 B.M .
length of this image is l. The magnification of
52. When we heat borax strongly then it will
the telescope is:
yield the following compound
L L+I
(a) − 1 (b) (a) NaBO2 (b) B2O3
I L−I
(c) Na2B4O7 (d) Both (a) & (b)
L L
(c) (d) + 1 53. The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al,
I I Ga, ln and Tl increases in the sequence
(a) Tl < ln < Ga < Al (b) ln < Tl < Ga < Al
(c) Ga < ln < Al < Tl (d) Al < Ga < ln < Tl

7
54. The number of lone pair(s) in XeOF4 is ? 61. Which of the following is the correct order of
(a) 0 (b) 1 reactivity of chlorides for given compounds?
(c) 2 (d) 3
55. Which of the following is not an example of
molecule with  = 0 ?
(a) SF6 (b) XeF2
(c) PCl5 (d) ClF3
(a) I > II > III > IV > V
56. For the reaction
(b) I > III > II > IV > V
3
Fe2 N ( s ) + H 2 ( g ) 2 Fe ( s ) + NH 3 ( g ) (c) III > I > IV > V > II
2 (d) I > III > IV > V > II
(a) K c = K p ( RT )
1/2
62. The IUPAC name of the following compound
is
(b) Kc = K p ( RT )

(c) K c = K p ( RT )
3/2

−1/2
(d) K c = K p ( RT )
(a) E- 3- iodo -4- chloro -3- pentene
57. Assuming that, water vapour is an ideal gas,
(b) Z -3- chloro -3- iodo-2-pentene
the internal energy change (∆U), when 1 mol
(c) E-2- chloro -3-iodo-2- pentene
of water is vapourized at 1 bar pressure &
(d) Z-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
100°C, (given: molar enthalpy of
63. Tautomerism is exhibited by
vapourization of water at 1 bar and 373 K =
(a) R3CNO2 (b) RCH2NO2
41 kJmol–1 and R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1) will be:
(c) (CH3)3CNO (d) (CH3)3N
(a) 41.00 kJmol–1 (b) 3.7904 kJmol–1
64. Which of the following order is correct
(c) 4.100 kJmol–1 (d) 37.898 kJmol–1
regarding covalent bond character?
58. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be
(a) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4
needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion
(b) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
in acidic solution is
(c) LiCl > BeCl2 > CCl4 > BCl3
2 3
(a) (b) (d) LiCl < BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4
5 5
65. Which of the following compounds has
4
(c) (d) 1 wrong IUPAC name?
5 (a) CH3− CH2− CH2− COO− CH2CH3 →
59. Given that ethyl butanoate
E + = −2.93V ; E 2+ = −0.44V ; (b)
K /K Fe / Fe
E = −0.76V ; E = 0.34V .
Zn2+ / Zn Cu 2+ / Cu
Based on this data, which of the following is
the strongest reducing agent? (c)
(a) Cu( s ) (b) K( s )
+
(c) Zn(2aq ) (d) Fe( s )
(d)
60. Which of the following represents the correct
order of stability of the given carbocations?

(a) III > I > II (b) I > III > II

(c) III > II > I (d) II > III > I
8
66. Which of the following compounds will 73. Which of the following will have the
exhibit geometrical isomerism ? maximum dipole moment?
(a) 1-phenyl-2-butene (a) CH3F (b) CH3Cl
(b) 3-phenyl-1-butene (c) CH3Br (d) CH3I
(c) 2-phenyl-1-butene 74. Iodination of benzene is done using
(d) 1, 1-diphenyl-1-propene (a) I2 (b) KI
67. Which of the following is the correct order of (c) I2/H2SO4 (d) I2/HIO3
stability of the following four distinct 75. Which one of the following has the least
conformations of n-butane? magnetic moment?
(a) Anti > Gauche > Partially eclipsed > Fully (a) Cu2+ (b) Ni2+
eclipsed (c) Co2+ (d) Fe2+
(b) Gauche > Anti > Partially eclipsed > Fully 76. Which one of the following undergoes
eclipsed reaction with 50% sodium hydroxide solution
(c) Anti > Partially eclipsed > Gauche > Fully to give the corresponding alcohol and acid?
eclipsed (a) benzoic acid (b) benzaldehyde
(d) Fully eclipsed > Anti > Partially eclipsed (c) butanol (d) phenol
> Gauche 77. In which of the following pairs, the two
68. In the following carbocation, H/CH3 that is species are isostructural
most likely to migrate to the positively (a) SO32− and NO3− (b) BF3 and NF3
charged carbon is
(c) BrO3− and XeO3 (d) SF4 and XeF4
78. Which of the following potential energy (PE)
diagrams represents the SN1 reaction?

(a) CH3 at C- 4 (b) H at C-4

(c) CH3 at C-2 (d) H at C-2 (a)
69. Among the following, the element which
show inert-pair effect are ?
(1) Bi, (2) Sn, (3) Pb, (4) Tl
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4
70. In which of the following substances will (b)
hydrogen bond be strongest?
(a) HCl (b) H2O
(c) HI (d) H2S
71. Which of the following reactions is an
example of Wurtz reaction?
(a) RX + H 2 ⎯⎯⎯
Ni , Al
→ RH + HX (c)

(b) 2 RX + 2 Na ⎯⎯⎯→ R − R + 2 NaX

Ether

(c) RX + KCN → RCN + KX

(d) RX + Mg ⎯⎯⎯
Ether
→ RMgX
72. Correct statement for chlorobenzene is (d)
(a) Less reactive than benzyl chloride
(b) More reactive than ethyl bromide
(c) Nearly as reactive as methyl chloride
(d) More reactive than isopropyl chloride
9
79. For the following molecules predict the order 87. The magnetic moment of the complex
of reactivity for SN2 reaction [Cr(C2O4)2(NH3)2]– is -
(a) 4.90 BM (b) 3.87 BM
(c) 2.82 BM (d) 1.73 BM
88. The oxidation number of nitrogen atoms in
ammonium nitrate are ?
(a) III < II < I (b) II < III < I (a) -3, +5 (b) -3, -3
(c) I < II < III (d) I < II = II (c) +5, +5 (d) +2, -3
80. Which of the following compounds does not 89. The main reason that SiCl4 is easily
undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions ? hydrolysed as compared to CCl4 is that
(a) Vinyl chloride (b) Ethyl bromide (a) Si – Si bond is weaker
(c) propyl chloride (d) Isopropyl chloride (b) SiCl4 can form hydrogen bonds
81. 1 mol of CH4 contains (c) SiCl4 is covalent
(a) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of H (d) Si can extend its coordination number
(b) 4 g atoms of hydrogen beyond four, due to vacant d-orbitals
(c) 1.81 × 1023 molecules of CH4 90. Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
(d) 3.0 g of carbon (a) O2− (b) CN −
82. 44 grams of CO2 contains
(a) 2 moles of oxygen atoms. (c) CO (d) NO 
(b) 1 mole of oxygen atoms. 91. Structural formula of
(c) 1.5 moles of oxygen atoms. tetraaquadichloridochromium(III) chloride
(d) none of these (a) [(H2O)4Cl2Cr]Cl2 (b) [Cl2(H2O)4Cr]Cl3
83. Calculate the mass of magnesium oxide (c) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl (d) [Cr(H2O)4Cl3]
possible if 2.40 g Mg reacts with 10.0 g O2 92. On mixing ethyl acetate with aqueous NaCl,
Mg + O2 → MgO the composition of the resultant solution is:
(a) 3.98g (b) 25.2g (a) CH 3Cl + C2 H 5COONa
(c) 1.58g (d) 8.42g (b) CH 3COONa + C2 H 5OH
84. If 50 ml of 0.2 M KOH is added to 40 ml of (c) CH 3COCl + C2 H 5OH + NaOH
0.5 M HCOOH, the pH of the resulting
(d) CH 3COOC2 H 5 + NaCl
(
solution is K a = 1.8  10−4 ) 93. In the preparation of HNO3, we get NO gas
(a) 3.4 (b) 7.5 by catalytic oxidation of ammonia. The moles
(c) 5.6 (d) 3.75 of NO produced by the oxidation of two
85. Which of the following contains greatest moles of NH3 will be _____?
number of atoms ? (a) 2 (b) 3
(a) 0.17 g of ammonia (c) 4 (d) 6
(b) 34 mL of ammonia at STP 94. Molarity of a solution obtained by mixing
(c) 11.2 L of ammonia vapours at 1 atm and 800 mL of 0.6 M HCl with 200 mL of 1M
273 K HCl will be ?
(d) All have equal number of atoms. (a) 0.4 M (b) 1.6 M
(c) 0.68 M (d) 1.68 M
SECTION - B 95. For the same alkyl group correct order of
86. Potassium manganate (K2MnO4) is formed boiling point is:
when (a) RF > RBr > RCl > RI
(a) Cl2 is passed into an aqueous KMnO4 (b) RF > RCl > RBr > RI
(b) MnO2 is fused with KOH in air (c) RI > RBr > RCl > RF
(c) Formaldehyde reacts with KMnO4 in (d) RI > RBr > RF > RCl
presence of strong alkali
(d) KMnO4 reacts with concentrated H2SO4

10
96. Which of the following is an example of 102. Statement 1: Stomata are found on the surface
Super octet molecule ? of leaves in gymnosperms.
(a) ClF3 (b) PCl5 Statement 2: In gymnosperms, cuticle of
(c) lF7 (d) All the three leaves is thick.
97. Cr2O72− is orange red colored due to: (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(a) d-d transition (b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is
(b) Resonance incorrect
(c) Charge transfer spectra (c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2
(d) Hydration is correct
98. The point of dissimilarity between (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
lanthanides and actinides is 103. Study the following statements regarding the
(a) three outermost shells are partially filled anatomy of isobilateral leaf.
(b) common oxidation state of +3 (i) Stomata are equally distributed on both the
(c) they are called inner-transition elements surfaces.
(d) radioactive nature (ii) Certain adaxial epidermal cells are
99. Which of the following sets of elements have modified into bulliform cells in grasses.
almost same atomic size? (iii) The vascular bundles are radial.
(a) Sc, Ti, V (b) Ni, Cu, Zn (iv) Phloem is adaxially placed.
(c) Fe, Co, Ni (d) V, Ni, Cu Which of the above statements are correct?
100. As compared to pure atomic orbitals, hybrid (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
orbitals have (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) All are correct
(a) Low energy (b) Same energy 104. The type of alternation of generation shown
(c) High energy (d) None of these by Spirogyra
(a) haplontic, i.e., gametophyte is dependent
BIOLOGY – I on sporophyte
SECTION - A (b) diplontic, i.e., sporophyte is dependent on
101. Bryophytes include the various plants that are gametophyte
found commonly growing in moist shaded (c) haplodiplontic, i.e., both gametophyte and
areas in the hills. Some of the examples of sporophyte are independent
bryophytes are given below: (d) haplontic, i.e., sporophyte is represented
only by one-celled zygote and gametophyte is
dominant.
105. Plants having little or no secondary growth
are
(a) grasses
(b) deciduous angiosperms
(c) conifers
(d) cycads
Select the incorrect statement.
(a) The predominant stage of the life cycle of
X is gametophyte whereas Y is sporophyte.
(b) The sporophyte of X, Y and Z are
differentiated into a foot, seta and capsule.
(c) The sporophyte of Z is more elaborate
than X.
(d) After meiosis spores are produced in the
capsule of X, Y and Z.

11
106. Select the correct statements. 109. Given are a few peculiar parts/structures
A. Stamens are said to be epipetalous when found in plants. Sunflower stem, Grass
they are attached to petals. mesophyll, walnut shell, jute fibres. Identify
B. Stamens are said to be epiphyllous when tissue responsible for the distinguishing
they are attached to perianth. feature in each part respectively and select the
C. In China rose, stamens are correct option.
monoadelphous. (a) Collenchymatous hypodermis,
D. In Citrus, stamens are diadelphous. Parenchyma, Sclerenchyma, Phloem
E. Filaments are varied in length in Salvia. (b) Collenchymatous hypodermis,
(a) A, B and C are correct. Sclerenchyma, Parenchyma, Phloem
(b) C, D and E are correct. (c) Parenchymatous hypodermis,
(c) A, C and E are correct. Parenchyma, Sclerenchyma, Xylem
(d) A, B, C and E are correct (d) Collenchymatous hypodermis,
107. Match column I with column II. Parenchyma, Sclerenchyma, Xylem
Column I Column II 110. Consider the above given figure and select
A. Plant virus (i) Mad cow disease the option that can be best concluded from it.
B. Animal virus (ii) Potato spindle
tuber
C. Viroids (iii) Small pox
D. Prions (iv) Tobacco
mosaic
(a) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(b) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(c) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
108. Match column I with column II. (a) The action spectrum shows a graphic
Column I Column II representation of amount of light of different
A. Primata (i) Felidae wavelengths absorbed by a pigment.
(b) Absorption spectrum depicts the relative
B. Carnivora (ii) Anacardiaceae
rates of photosynthesis at different
C. Diptera (iii) Hominidae
wavelengths of light.
D. Sapindales (iv) Muscidae
(c) Action spectrum corresponds closely to
(a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii) absorption spectra of chl a.
(b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) (d) None of these
(c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) 111. Assertion: Dark reactions are called
(d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv) biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis.
Reason: Dark reactions do not directly
depend on the presence of light but are
dependent on the products of the light
reaction, i.e., ATP and NADPH.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is
incorrect.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
12
112. During Z scheme, electrons excited by 116. A farmer while growing grape plants in his
absorption of light in PS I are transferred to garden observes the following:
the primary acceptors, and therefore must be (i) Fruit size normally remained small.
replaced. The replacements come directly (ii) Natural seed abortion.
from (iii) Reduced stern and leaf growth.
(a) NADP (b) ATP Which problems could be solved by
(c) PS II (d) Water application of gibberellic acid during the
113. Statement 1: Calvin cycle occurs in the development of fruits?
stroma of chloroplast (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
Statement 2: Oxygen in released during (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) None of these
Calvin cycle 117. A farmer grows cucumber plants in his field.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct He wants to increase the number of female
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is flowers in them. Which plant growth
incorrect regulator can be applied to achieve this?
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 (a) ABA (b) Ethylene
is correct (c) GA (d) Cytokinins
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect 118. Identify the labelled parts and select incorrect
114. Identify X, Y and Z. statement regarding them.

(a) X-GTP, Y-NADH2, Z-FADH2

(b) X-FADH2, Y-NADH2, Z-GTP
(c) X-NADH2, Y-FADH2, Z-GTP (a) P extend longitudinally throughout the
(d) X-CO2, Y-NADH2, Z-ADP length of an anther and are packed with Q.
115. Which one is paired incorrectly? (b) R is long and slender stalk, attached
(a) Auxin – Isolated from human urine proximally to thalamus or petals.
(b) Zeatin – Isolated from corn kernels and (c) Q represents the male gametophyte.
coconut milk (d) None of these.
(c) Gibberellins – Isolated from fungus G.
fujikuroi
(d) Abscisic acid –Isolated from ripened
oranges

13
119. Assertion: Although geitonogamy is 124. Which of the following is correct for the
functionally cross-pollination involving a condition when plant YyRr is crossed with
pollinating agent, genetically it is similar to the double recessive parent?
autogamy. (a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio of phenotypes only
Reason: In geitonogamy, pollen grains from (b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio of genotypes only
anthers of one flower are transferred to the (c) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio of phenotypes only
stigma of another flower borne on the same (d) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio of phenotypes and
plant. genotypes
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and 125. Which of the following are reasons for
Reason is the correct explanation for Mendel's success?
Assertion. (i) Usage of purelines or pure breeding
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and varieties.
Reason is not the correct explanation for (ii) Consideration of one character at a time
Assertion. (iii) Maintenance of statistical records of
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is experiments.
incorrect. (iv) Knowledge of linkage and incomplete
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect. dominance.
120. True embryo develops as a result of fusion of (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(a) two polar nuclei of embryo sac (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) an egg cell and a male gamete 126. Statement 1 : Secondary treatment of sewage
(c) synergid and male gamete is also called biological treatment while
(d) a male gamete and antipodals primary treatment is called physical
121. Which of the following pairs in angiosperms treatment.
are diploid and triploid, respectively? Statement 2: Primary sewage treatment
(a) Polar nucleus and secondary nucleus depends only upon filteration and
(b) Microspore mother cell and egg cell sedimentation properties of materials in
(c) Secondary nucleus and endosperm sewage.
(d) Endosperm and antipodal cells (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
122. The cross over percentage between linked (b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is
genes J and M is 20%, J and L is 35%, J and incorrect
N is 70%, L and K is 15%, M and N is 50%, (c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2
and M and L is 15%. Thus, the sequences of is correct
genes on the chromosomes is (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
(a) J, N, M, L, K (b) J, M, L, N, K
(c) J, M, L, K, N (d) M, J, L, K, N
123. Statement 1: Human skin colour is controlled
by 3 pairs of genes.
Statement 2: Skin colour in humans show
pleiotropic inheritance.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is
incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2
is correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

14
127. Select the option that correctly fills the given 130. In laboratory experiments, two species
blanks. Paramecium (species 1 and 2) were grown
(i) _____ serve as an important biofertiliser in alone and in the presence of the other species.
paddy field. The following graphs show growth of species
(ii) _____ form mycorrhiza to facilitate 1 and species 2, both alone and when in
overall increase in plant growth. mixed culture with the other species.
(iii) _____ symbiotically fix atmospheric
nitrogen into organic forms.
(iv) _______ is a free living nitrogen fixing
bacteria.
(a) (i)-Glomus, (ii)-Rhizobium, (iii)-
Azotobacter, (iv)-Cyanobacteria Which of the following conclusions can be
(b) (i)-Cyanobacteria, (ii)-Glomus, (iii)- drawn from the graphs?
Azotobacter, (iv)-Rhizobium (a) Competitive exclusion occurred in these
(c) (i)-Cyanobacteria, (ii)-Glomus, (iii)- experimental.
Rhizobium, (iv)-Azotobacter (b) Both species are affected by interspecific
(d) (i)-Glomus, (ii)-Azotobacter, (iii)- competition but species 1 is affected less.
Rhizobium, (iv)-Cyanobacteria (c) Both species are affected by interspecific
128. When a natural predator (living organism) is competition but species 2 is affected less.
applied on the other pathogen organisms to (d) Both species are affected equally by
control them, this process is called as interspecific competition.
(a) biological control 131. The given figure represents different factors
(b) genetic engineering affecting population density (N). If B =
(c) artificial control natality, D = mortality, E = emigration and I
(d) confusion technique = immigration; then select the incorrect
129. _____ occurs in equatorial regions where option regarding these.
rainfall and warmth are abundant, while
_____ biome lacks rain
(a) Desert, temperate
(b) Tropical rainforest, desert
(c) Tundra, savannah
(d) Desert, chapparal

(a) B and D are most influential factors under

normal conditions while I and E become
important in special conditions.
(b) If a new habitat just being colonised, I
becomes more important than B.
(c) B and I cause positive changes in N.
(d) I is generally equal to E.

15
132. Two insect species were used in a laboratory 134. Match column I with column II.
experiment. For one treatment, both species Column I Column II
were grown by themselves (in separate A. Vertical (i) Small
chambers) on a suitable food source. For the distribution of phytoplankton
second treatment, the two species were grown different species
together (in the same chamber) on the same occupying different
type and amount of food as in the first levels
treatment. The given figure shows the results B. Dead remains of (ii) Stratification
(the number of individuals of each species in plants and animals
the two treatments) at the end of the C. Man made (iii) Detritus
experiment. Based on these results the two ecosystem
species should be classified as D. Pioneer in (iv) Aquarium
hydrosere
(a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(c) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
135. Sacred groves are found in Khasi and Jaintia
hills of (i) _____, Aravalli hills of (ii) ____,
Western ghats of (iii) _____ .
(a) (i)-Meghalaya, (ii)-Rajasthan, (iii)-
Karnataka and Maharashtra
(b) (i)-Meghalaya and Maharashtra, (ii)-
(a) competitors Rajasthan, (iii)-Madhya Pradesh
(b) mutualists (c) (i)-Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, (ii)-
(c) predators or pathogens Rajasthan, (iii)-Meghalaya
(d) commensalists (d) (i)-Rajasthan, (ii)-Meghalaya, (iii)-
133. Amensalism is an association between two Karnataka and Maharashtra
species where SECTION - B
(a) one species is harmed and other is 136. When domestic sewage mixes with river
benefitted water
(b) one species is harmed and other is (a) small animals like rats will die after
unaffected drinking river water
(c) one species is benefitted and other is (b) the increased microbial activity releases
unaffected micro-nutrients such as iron
(d) both the species are harmed (c) the increased microbial activity uses up
dissolved oxygen
(d) the river water is still suitable for drinking
as impurities are only about 0.1%
137. If the centromere is situated close to its end
forming one extremely short and one very
long arm, the chromosome is
(a) Acrocentric (b) Submetacentric
(c) Telocentric (d) Metacentric
138. The primary acceptor of CO2 in Hatch &
Slack pathway and in Calvin cycle
respectively are
(a) RuBP & PEP (b) PEP & PGA
(c) OAA & PGA (d) PEP & RuBP

16
139. 144. Which one of the following is not a part of a
transcription unit in DNA?
(a) The inducer
(b) A terminator
(c) A promoter
(d) The structural gene
145. To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a
diseased one by tissue culture technique,
which part/parts of the diseased plant will be
taken?
(a) Apical meristem only
A plant growth pattern is shown in above
(b) Palisade parenchyma
figure.
(c) Apical and axillary meristems
If in this pattern cells that lose capacity to
(d) Epidermis
divide can regain the capacity of division
146. Match the following column and select the
under certain conditions then this
correct option.
phenomenon is termed as
Column I Column II
(a) Differentiation
A. Pituitary (i) Steroid
(b) Redifferentiation
hormone
(c) Dedifferentiation
B. Epinephrine (ii) Neuropeptides
(d) Closed form of growth
140. Bark includes C. Endorphins (iii) Peptides,
proteins
(a) Secondary phloem and Periderm
(b) Secondary Phloem and secondary xylem D. Cortisol (iv) Biogenic
amines
(c) Only secondary xylem
(d) Secondary xylem and Periderm (a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
141. Diplotene of meiosis-I in marked by (b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(a) Formation of synaptonemal complex (c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(b) Terminalisation of chiasmata (d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(c) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex 147. Which of the following structures or regions
begins is incorrectly paired with its functions?
(d) Crossing over take place (a) Hypothalamus: production of releasing
142. Among the following statements, which is hormones and regulation of temperature,
“true” about bivalent chromosomes? hunger and thirst
(i) Bivalents are tetrads (b) Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that
(ii) A bivalent means 4 chromatids and 2 interconnect different regions of brain;
centromeres. controls movement
(iii) One bivalent consists of 2 homologous (c) Medulla oblongata: controls respiration
chromosomes and cardiovascular reflexes
(iv) Bivalents are formed in zygotene but (d) Corpus callosum: band of fibers
clearly appear as tetrads in pachytene. connecting left and right cerebral
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (iii) only hemispheres
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv) only
143. How many amino acids can be translated
from the given sequence of nucleotides in
mRNA if 6th nucleotide undergoes deletion?
AUG UGC ACU AUA GCG UAA
(a) Two (b) One
(c) Four (d) Three

17
148. Unidirectional transmission of a nerve BIOLOGY – II
impulse through a nerve fibre is due to the SECTION - A
fact that 151. Which one of the following statements about
(a) Nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary certain given animals is correct?
sheath (a) Round worms are pseudo-coelomates
(b) Sodium pump starts operating only at the (b) Molluscs are acoelomates
cyton and then continues into the nerve fibre (c) Insects are pseudo-coelomates
(c) Neurotransmitters are released by (d) Flatworms are coelomates
dendrites and not by axon endings 152. Which of the following exhibits radial
(d) Neurotransmitters are released by the symmetry?
axon endings and not by dendrites (a) Unio (b) Asterias
149. Match the following joints with the bones (c) Taenia (d) Schistosoma
involved. 153. Match the column and choose the correct
Column I Column II option
a. Gliding joint (i) Between carpal Column I Column II
and metacarpal of (i) Annelida a. Calcarerous
thumb exoskeleton
b. Hinge joint (ii) Between Atlas (ii) Arthropoda b. Parapodia
and Axis (iii) Mollusca c. Anus dorsally
c. Pivot joint (iii) Between the located
Carpals (iv) Echinodermata d. Ambulacral
d. Saddle joint (iv) Between system
Humerus and Ulna e. Book gills, book
(a) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i) lungs
(b) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(ii), d-(iii) f. Radula
(c) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i) (a) i - a; ii - b; iii - e; iv - c, d
(d) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv) (b) i - b; ii - e; iii - a, f; iv - c, d
150. Assertion: Special venous connection (c) i - b; ii - e; iii - a, c; iv - d
between liver and intestine as well as the (d) i - b; ii - a; iii - c, d; iv – e
kidney and lower parts of the body are present 154. Given below are three statements regarding
in frogs. Aschelminthes.
Reason: RBCs of frogs are nucleated and i. They are bilaterally symmetrical and
contain red coloured pigment namely triploblastic.
haemoglobin. ii. They are dioecious.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and iii. All are plants or animal parasites.
the Reason is the correct explanation of the Select the option that has both the correct
Assertion statements.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but (a) i and ii (b) i and iii
the Reason is not the correct explanation of (c) ii and iii (d) None of these
the Assertion 155. Which of the following is applicable to
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false tendons but not to ligaments?
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false (a) Dense regular tissues attach skeletal
muscles to bones
(b) Dense irregular tissues attach bones to
bones
(c) Dense regular tissues attach bones to
bones
(d) Dense irregular tissues attach skeletal
muscles to bones
18
156. Enzymes catalyzing removal of groups and 161. In the tissues, high concentrations of carbon
formation of double bond are dioxide
(a) Transferases (b) Ligases (a) Increases the affinity of haemoglobin to
(c) Lyases (d) Oxidoreductases both oxygen and hydrogen
157. Select the incorrectly matched pair. (b) Increases the affinity of haemoglobin to
(a) Phragmoplast – Persistent spindle oxygen but decreases its affinity to hydrogen
(b) Reductional division – Meiosis - I (c) Decreases the affinity of haemoglobin to
(c) Equational division – Meiosis - II oxygen but increases its affinity to hydrogen
(d) Crossing over – Non-homologous (d) Decreases the affinity of haemoglobin to
chromosomes both oxygen and hydrogen
158. In which of the following ways are mitosis 162. Which of the following condition will shift
and meiosis similar? the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve
(a) Both have pairing of homologous to the right?
chromosomes (a) High pO2 (b) Low pH
(b) Both are preceded by DNA replication (c) Low pCO2 (d) Low temperature
(c) Both occur in all kinds of cells 163. Read the following statements A and B and
(d) Both include separation of paired choose the correct option
chromosomes (A) Relaxation of the diaphragm and inter-
159. Select the mis-matched pair. costal muscles reduces the pulmonary
(a) Leptotene - Compaction of chromosomes volume to decrease intra pulmonary pressure
continued (B) During normal respiration, a healthy man
(b) Zygotene - Appearance of recombination can inspire or expire 500 ml of air per minute
nodules (a) Both A and B are correct
(c) Diplotene - beginning of dissolution of (b) Both A and B are incorrect
synaptonemal complex (c) Only A is correct
(d) Diakinesis - complete terminalisation of (d) Only B is correct
chiasmata 164. Which of the following sequences is correct
160. Match Column-I with Column-II: regarding the regulation of kidney function
Column I Column II when excessive loss of fluid from the body
I. Chromosomes are A. Pachytene has occurred?
moved to spindle (a) excessive loss of body fluid →
equator Osmoreceptors → Adenohypophysis →
II. Centromere splits B. Zygotene ADH release→ facilitates water reabsorption
and chromatids apart → Prevention of diuresis
III. Pairing between C. Anaphase (b) excessive loss of body fluid →
homologous Osmoreceptors → Hypothalamus →
chromosomes takes Neurohypophysis → vasopressin release →
place facilitates water reabsorption → Prevention
IV. Crossing between D. Metaphase of diuresis
homologous (c) excessive loss of body fluid →
chromosomes Adenohypophysis → Osmoreceptors →
(a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D ADH release→ facilitates water reabsorption
(b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A → prevention of diuresis
(c) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A (d) excessive loss of body fluid →
(d) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B Osmoreceptors → Hypothalamus →
Neurohypophysis → vasopressin release →
facilitates water reabsorption → stimulates
diuresis

19
165. Which one of the following is the correct 169. Consider the following statements and select
description of a certain part of a normal the option stating which ones are true (T) and
human skeleton? which ones are false (F).
(a) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the (i) There are many side effects of tubectomy
skull are joined by fibrous joint and vasectomy.
(b) First vertebra is axis which articulates (ii) Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg
with the occipital condyles formation.
(c) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called (iii) Contraceptive oral pills help in birth
the floating ribs control by preventing ovulation.
(d) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which (iv) Genital warts is not a sexually
the thigh bone articulates transmitted disease.
166. Ovulation in females does not involve (v) In India, there is rapid decline in infant
(a) Decrease in estrogen mortality rate and MMR.
(b) Full development of Graafian follicle (a) (i) - T; (ii) - F; (iii) - T; (iv) - F; (v) - F
(c) Release of secondary oocyte (b) (i) - F; (ii) - F; (iii) - F; (iv) - T; (v) - T
(d) LH surge (c) (i) - T; (ii) - T; (iii) - T; (iv) - F; (v) - F
167. Given below are three statements (A-C) each (d) (i) - F; (ii) - F; (iii) - T; (iv) - F; (v) - T
with one or two blanks. Select the option 170. Which of the following is not a salient
which correctly fills up the blanks in any two feature of HGP?
statements. (a) More than two percent of genome codes
A. Diseases or infections which are for proteins
transmitted through sexual intercourse are (b) The average gene consists of 3000 bases
collectively called (i) diseases. (c) Chromosome 1 has most genes i.e., 2968
B. Genital herpes is (ii) disease (d) 1.4 million locations has SNPs
C. Sterilization in males is (iii) while in 171. Which of the following is NOT true about
females is (iv) Watson and Crick’s DNA double helix
(a) (i) venereal; B-(ii) incurable model?
(b) (i) venereal; (ii) curable (a) The two strands are anti-parallel to each
(c) (i) non-communicable; (iii) tubectomy, other
(iv) vasectomy (b) The anti-parallel nature of the strands
(d) (ii) bacterial (iii) tubectomy, (iv) makes them form a right-handed helix
vasectomy (c) A large-sized purine always binds to a
168. Which of the following techniques has the small-sized pyrimidine
highest success rate of fertilization? (d) The DNA backbone is formed of sugar-
(a) Amnioscentesis phosphate groups, with the nitrogenous
(b) GIFT bases pointing outwards
(c) ICSI
(d) Artificial insemination

20
172. Assertion: The backbone in a polynucleotide 177. Which of the following statements is
chain is formed due to sugar and nitrogenous correct?
bases. 1. A stirred-tank reactor is usually
Reason: The nitrogenous bases on the two cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate
strands are bonded through phosphodiester the mixing of the reactor contents.
bonds, which stacks the nucleotides in a 2. The downstream processing and quality
DNA molecule. control testing vary from product to product.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and 3. If any protein-encoding gene is expressed
the Reason is the correct explanation of the in a heterologous host, is called a
Assertion. recombinant protein.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
the Reason is not the correct explanation of (c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
the Assertion. 178. Match the organism with its related
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. contribution in the field of Biotechnology.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false. Column -I Column -II
173. The reverse transcriptase in HIV acts 1. Escherichia coli I. Polymerase used
on____. in PCR
(a) viral DNA (b) Host RNA 2. Agrobacterium II. pBR322
(c) viral RNA (d) both (a) and (b) tumefaciens
174. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often 3. Thermus III. Ti plasmid
due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. aquaticus
Which type of immune-response is (a) 1-I, 2 – III, 3 – II (b) 1- II, 2- III, 3- I
responsible for such rejections? (c) 1- II, 2 - I,3 – III (d) 1- III, 2- II, 3 – I
(a) Autoimmune response 179. In India, the organisation responsible for
(b) Cell-mediated immune response assessing the safety of introducing
(c) Hormonal immune response genetically modified organisms for public
(d) Physiological immune response use is
175. Which one of the following is a case of (a) Research Committee on Genetic
wrong matching? Manipulation (RCGM)
(a) Somatic hybridisation-Fusion of two (b) Council for Scientific and Industrial
different protoplasts Research (CSIR)
(b) Vector DNA - Site for host tRNA (c) Indian Council of Medical Research
synthesis (ICMR)
(c) Micropropagation -In vitro production of (d) Genetic Engineering Approval
plants in large numbers Committee (GEAC)
(d) Callus - Unorganised mass of cells 180. C-peptide of human insulin is:
produced in tissue culture (a) A part of mature insulin molecule
176. Which of the following is not a feature of (b) Responsible for its biological activity
the plasmids used in genetic engineering? (c) Responsible for formation of disulphide
(a) Independent replication bridges
(b) Circular structure (d) Removed during maturation of
(c) Transferable proinsulin to insulin
(d) Single-stranded

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181. Read the given features SECTION - B
I. Segmented body 186. The statement that "Evolution is gradual,
II. Bilateral symmetry slow and directional" was given by
III. Open circulatory system (a) Hugo DeVries (b) Wallace
IV. Presence of coelom (c) Lamarck (d) Darwin
Which of the above features is generally 187. Assertion: Forelimbs of human, whale and
found in Arthropoda but not in Annelida? bats are examples of homologous organs.
(a) I, II and IV (b) I only Reason: Whales use their forelimbs to swim,
(c) III only (d) I and III while humans use them for grasping and
182. Carbonic anhydrase accelerate the rate of bats use them for flying - hence these are
reaction by about examples of divergent evolution.
(a) 200 times (b) 6,00,000 times (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and
(c) 10 million times (d) 10 billion times the Reason is the correct explanation of the
183. Which statements constitute pulmonary Assertion.
circulation? (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
(A) The blood pumped by the right ventricle the Reason is not the correct explanation of
enters the pulmonary artery, whereas the left the Assertion.
ventricle pumps blood into the aorta (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(B) The oxygenated blood entering the aorta (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
is carried by a network of arteries, arterioles 188. Ringworm is a disease caused by
and capillaries to the tissue (a) Protozoan (b) Virus
(C) The deoxygenated blood pumped into (c) Bacterium (d) Fungus
the pulmonary artery is passed on to the 189. Assertion: In EcoRI, the letter R represents
lungs from where the oxygenated blood is the species from which the restriction
carried by the pulmonary veins into the left endonuclease has been isolated.
atrium Reason: In the restriction endonuclease
(a) A and B (b) B and C EcoRI, the Roman numeral I represents the
(c) A, B and C (d) A and C type of restriction enzyme, whether it is of
184. Which one of the following pairs of type I, II or III.
hormones are examples of those that can (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and
easily pass through the cell membrane of the the Reason is the correct explanation of the
target cell and bind to a receptor inside it Assertion.
(mostly in the nucleus)? (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
(a) Insulin, glucagon the Reason is not the correct explanation of
(b) Thyroxine, insulin the Assertion.
(c) Somatostatin, oxytocin (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Cortisol, testosterone (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
185. Capping of RNA is necessary as_______
(a) It helps us distinguish 5’ from 3’ end
(b) It has a rolling action and condenses the
transcript as it is produced
(c) To protect the transcript from
exonuclease
(d) To prevent the transcript from sticking to
DNA

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190. Assertion: The presence of a chromogenic 194. The figures given here represent three
substrate does not give any colour if the different conditions of sarcomeres. Identify
plasmid in the bacteria does not have an these conditions and select the correct
insert. option.
Reason: Presence of insert results into
insertional inactivation of the β-
galactosidase and the colonies it produces
are blue in colour, these are identified as
recombinant colonies.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and
the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion. (a) A-Contracting; B-Relaxed; C-Maximally
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. contracted
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (b) A-Relaxed; B-Contracting; C-Maximally
191. Mast cells of connective tissue contain contracted
(a) Vasopressin and relaxin (c) A-Maximally contracted; B-Contracting;
(b) Heparin and histamine C-Relaxed
(c) Heparin and calcitonin (d) A-Relaxed; B-Contracted; C-Contracting
(d) Serotonin and melanin 195. Read the given statements and select the
192. The transfer vesicle from RER fuse with correct option.
which region of the golgi complex Statement 1: Inflammation of a skeletal joint
(a) Cis (b) Medial may immobilize the movements of the joint.
(c) Trans (d) Protein arms Statement 2: This is caused due to uric acid
193. Following is the graph related to enzyme crystals in the joint cavity and ossification of
activity: articular cartilage.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and
statement 2 is the correct explanation of
statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but
statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
statement1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is
(a) A = pH, B = Enzyme activity, C = Km incorrect.
constant, D = Vmax (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
(b) A = Velocity of reaction, B = pH, C = 196. Select the two statements out of the four (A-
Vmax./2, D = Concentration of substrate D) given below about lac operon that are
(c) A = Concentration of substrate, B = correct.
Vmax./2, C = Km constant, D = Velocity of (A) Glucose or galactose may bind with the
reaction repressor and inactivate it
(d) A = Concentration of substrate, B = (B) In the absence of lactose, the repressor
Vmax./2, C = Km constant, D = Vi binds with the operator region
(C) The z-gene codes for permease
(D) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob
and Jacques Monad
(a) (B) and (C) (b) (A) and (C)
(c) (B) and (D) (d) (A) and (B)

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197. Wild type Escherichia coli growing on 199. Match column-I with column-II and select
medium having glucose is transferred to the correct answer from codes given below.
lactose containing medium. Which change Column I Column II
occurs? A. amp’ (i) Artificial
(a) Lac operon is induced plasmid
(b) Lac operon is suppressed B. Macromolecule (ii) Selectable
(c) All operons are induced marker
(d) The bacterium stops dividing C. Hind III (iii) Electrophoresis
198. Choose wrong statement with respect to D. pBR322 (iv) Haemophilus
RNA interference influenzae
(a) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic (a) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
organisms as a method of cellular defense. (b) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(b) RNAi involves silencing of a specific m- (c) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
RNA due to a complementary ds DNA. (d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(c) Source of complementary RNA may be 200. Find the incorrect statement regarding
mobile genetic elements (Transposons) that plasma membrane.
replicate via an RNA intermediate. (a) It serves as a selectively permeable
(d) Introduction of specific DNA fragment barrier to the external environment.
can produce specific ds RNA which can (b) It serves as a mediator between the
cause RNA interference in the target cell of internal and external environments
the host. (c) It contains phospholipids as a structural
compound
(d) In eukaryotes, it contains the cytochrome
chain of oxidative phosphorylation

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