Theater nursing AHIBTS 2023

1. Traction is applied directly to the bone using pins under aseptic precautions
A. Skin traction
B. Skeletal traction
C. Pelvic traction
D. Head traction

(B) Skeletal traction

2. The act of manually compressing the heart and ventilating lungs in the event of cardiac arrest is
A. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
B. Defibrillation
C. Mechanical Ventilation
D. Cardiac pacing

(A) Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

3. The ideal method of opening the airway of a patient in cardiac arrest who is suspected to have a
cervical spine injury
A. Head tilt, chin lift
B. Jaw thrust
C. Abdominal thrust
D. Finger sweep

(B) Jaw thrust

4. A non-invasive method of estimating arterial oxygen

A. A B. G. analysis
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Blood examination
D. Pulmonary function test

(B) Pulse oximetry

5. Position preferred for gynaecological examination

A. Anaemia
B. Polycythaemia
C. Leukaemia
D. Positioning

(C) Leukaemia

6. For the examination of the rectum, which is the most suitable position
A. Lithotomy position
B. Knee chest position
C. Supine position
D. Prone position

(B) Knee chest position

7. Moving a point away from the body is called
A. Adduction
B. Abduction
C. Circumduction
D. Rotation

(B) Abduction

8. Sigmoidoscopy is done in
A. Fowler’s position
B. Lithotomy Position
C. Knee chart position
D. Prone position

(C) Knee chart position

9. The period between exposure to a pathogenic organism and onset of symptoms of the
disease (diploma in operation theatre technology question paper)
A. window period
B. prodromal period
C. incubation period
D. None of the above

(C) incubation period

10. Devices used to raise the foot or head end of the patent bed are formed
A. Sandbags
B. Bed cradle
C. Backrest
D. Bed blocks

(B) Bed cradle

11. The definitive treatment for life-threatening arrhythmia, ventricular fibrillation, and pulseless
ventricular tachycardia
A. Defibrillation
B. Cardiac Massage
C. Thrombolysis
D. Angioplasty

(A) Defibrillation

12. An emergency procedure for people in cardiac arrest is

A. C.P.R.
B. Oxygen therapy
C. Suctioning
D. Endotracheal intubation

(A) C.P.R.
13. A Capnography monitor is a device that measures the level of
A. Oxygen
B. CO2
C. Electrolytes
D. E.C.G

(B) CO2

14. Surgically created opening in front of the neck as an emergency measure to relieve airway
obstruction
A. Endotracheal intubation
B. Tracheostomy
C. Oesophagostomy
D. Thyroidectomy

(B) Tracheostomy

15. Glasgow coma Scale has all except

A. verbal response
B. Motor response
C. Serviory impairment
D. Eye-opening

(C) Serviory impairment

16. Snellen’s chart is ended to test

A. Vision
B. Oedema
C. Refraction
D. Colour-blindness

(A) Vision

17. The term anaesthesia means

A. Sensation
B. no sensation
C. pain
D. no pain

(B) no sensation

18. Anaesthesia is very suitable for surgeries involving lower parts of the body
A. General anaesthesia
B. Local anaesthesia
C. Regional block
D. Spinal anaesthesia

(D) Spinal anaesthesia

19. Low spinal anaesthesia is usually given for surgeries of perineal and rectal man
A. Caudal block
B. Epidural
C. Perianal block
D. Nerve blockage

(C) Perianal block

20. Dengue fever is an infection caused by a virus transmitted by the mosquito

A. Aedes Aegypti
B. Anopheles
C. Culex
D. All of the above

(A) Aedes Aegypti

OT technician exam paper

21. The heart is surrounded by an outer covering called
A. pleural membrane
B. meninges
C. pericardium
D. myelin sheath

(C) pericardium

22. Cholecystectomy refers to surgical removal of

A. Kidney
B. Ovary
C. Urinary bladder
D. gall bladder

(D) gall bladder

23. The method of sterilizing an Operating Room using a gas that destroys microorganisms is
called
A. Autoclaving
B. Disinfection
C. Fumigation
D. Infection control

(C) Fumigation

24. Area in an OT complex planned for IV lire insertion, preparation of the patient, catheter/RT
insertion and has facility for O2 and CPR is called
A. Reception
B. Induction Room
C. Storage Room
D. Holding Room
(D) Holding Room

25. The doors of each OT should ideally be

A. made of wood
B. sliding doors
C. hinge doors
D. None of the above

(B) sliding doors

26. Suffix denoting surgical renewal of an organ

A. -ectomy
B. –ostomy
C. -scopy
D. -otomy

(A) -ectomy

27. Accumulation of blood within the tissues, which clots to form solid swelling
A. haemothorax
B. haemolysis
C. hematoma
D. haemorrhage

(C) hematoma

28. Abnormal communication between two hollow organs or between a hollow organ and skin
A. Fascia
B. Fistula
C. Anastomosis
D. Tissue

(B) Fistula

29. Proper positioning during surgery is important because

A. prevents prolonged pressure on boney prominences
B. adds comfort
C. appropriate access to the surgical site
D. all of the above

(D) adds comfort

30. Patient’s bony prominence at the elbow, heels are supported while positioning using
A. Pillows
B. Donut pads
C. Arm strap
D. Boards

(B) Donut pads

OT technician question paper pdf
31. What should be the size of a general surgery O. T.?
A. 18 feet x 20 feet
B. 18 feet x 24 feet
C. 18 feet x 22 feet
D. 16 feet x 20 feet

(A) 18 feet x 20 feet

32. Surgery scheduled in advance, as it is not a medical emergency is called anaesthesia The most
preferred for caesarean section is
A. General Anaesthesia
B. Spinal Anaesthesia
C. Regional Nerve Block
D. Local Anaesthesia

(B) Spinal Anaesthesia

33. A device used to deliver anaesthesia medications in a controlled manner by setting drops per
minute is called
A. Boyle’s apparatus
B. Off-pump devices
C. Infusion pump
D. All of the above

(C) Infusion pump

34. Identify the term that describes disinfection can kill bacteria
A. Bacteriostatic
B. Bactericidal
C. Pathogenic
D. Aseptic

(B) Bactericidal

35. In preventing and controlling the transmission of infections, the single most important
technique is- (diploma in operation theatre technology question paper)
A. hand hygiene
B. use of disposable gloves
C. use of isolation precaution
D. sterilization

(A) hand hygiene

36. The absence of pathogenic (disease-producing) microorganisms is called

A. Aerobic
B. Anaerobic
C. Asepsis
D. Bacteriostatic
(C) Asepsis

37. A type of hospital-acquired infection from a diagnosis or therapeutic procedure is termed

A. nosocomial infection
B. iatrogenic infection
C. airborne infection
D. opportunistic infection

(B) iatrogenic infection

38. Microorganisms that reside on the surface and deep layers of skin is saliva and oral mucosa
and in gastro interlineal and genitor urinary tracts that do not cause disease
A. Pathogen
B. Vector
C. Normal flora
D. Phagocyte

(C) Normal flora

39. When a patient is on droplet infection precaution, what should the patient and others wear
before he is transported?
A. mask
B. gown
C. gloves
D. goggles

(A) mask

40. Immunity obtained as a result of experience illness is called

A. Active, natural immunity
B. passive natural immunity
C. Active acquired immunity
D. Passively acquired immunity

(A) Active, natural immunity

41. Which device could be used when place placing a patient in the operative position for a
thyroidectomy?
A. shoulder roll
B. chart roll
C. bean bag
D. axillaries roll

(A) shoulder roll

42. Which of the following is MOST resistant to the sterilization process?

A. Virus
B. Spore
C. Spirochete
D. Fungus
(B) Spore

43. Immediately before haemorrhoidectomy which of the following procedures might be performed
on the patient in the operating room?
A. Cystoscopy
B. Culdoscopy
C. Proctoscopy
D. laparoscopy

(C) Proctoscopy

MCQs 44. Which of the following is a chemical sterilant usually used for sharp instruments?
A. alcohol
B. glutaraldehyde
C. Merthiolate
D. sodium hypochlorite

(B) glutaraldehyde

45. What is the recommended temperature in an operating room?

A. 15 – 19ºC
B. 20 – 24ºC
C. 25 – 29ºC
D. 30 – 34ºC

(B) 20 – 24ºC

MCQs 46. Which of the following increases air contamination in the operating room?
A. Restricting air traffic in and out
B. damp dusting with germicidal solution
C. maintaining air pressure lower than the outside hall
D. using pneumatic surgical equipment

(C) maintaining air pressure lower than the outside hall

47. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of shock?

A. tachycardia
B. hypertension
C. cold, clammy skin
D. increased respiration

(B) hypertension

48. Surgical removal of the uterus is called.

A. gastrectomy
C. cholecystectomy
C. colectomy
D. hysterectomy

(D) hysterectomy
49. An example of an opioid analgesic is
A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Ibuprofen
D. Fentanyl

(D) Fentanyl

50. Gamma knife is used in surgery of

A. Abdomen
B. Brain
C. Lungs
D. Heart

(B) Brain

51. System of storage and transport of vaccines at low temperature from the manufacturer to
actual vaccination, the site is called
A. Cold chain
B. Deep freeze
C. Cold room
D. Vaccine container

(A) Cold chain

52. Mantoux test is done to diagnose

A. Diphtheria
B. AIDS
C. Tuberculosis
D. Measles

(C) Tuberculosis

53. The term that refers to the presence of stones in the urinary tract is
A. Urolithiasis
B. Cholelithiasis
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. Ureter ectasis

(A) Urolithiasis

54. Surgical Removal of the entire lung is called: (diploma in operation theatre technology question
paper)
A. Lobectomy
B. Pneumonectomy
C. Pleurectomy
D. Segmentectomy

(B) Pneumonectomy
55. Tiny air sacs in the lungs
A. Bronchus
B. Bronchioles
C. Alveoli
D. Glottis

(C) Alveoli

Antibiotic drug invented by Alexander Fleming

A. Cephalosporin
B. Penicillin
C. Aminoglycosides
D. None of the above

(B) Penicillin

57. Reduced level of Sodium in the blood causes an electrolyte imbalance called
A. hypovolemia
B. hyponatremia
C. hypokalaemia
D. hypocalcaemia

(B) hyponatremia

58. Bluish discolouration of the skin and mucous membranes

A. cyanosis
B. ecchymosis
C. ischaemic
D. erythema

(A) cyanosis

59. Low blood glucose level (less than 60 mg/dl) is called

A. hypotension
B. hypoglycaemia
C. hypovolemia
D. hypoxemia

(B) hypoglycaemia

60. The process of removing all the microorganisms along with their spores is called
A. disinfection
B. fumigation
C. sterilization
D. isolation

(C) sterilization

61. Before reaching the operation theater, how many zones exist?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7

Answer: B
62. How many sections are there in the operation table?
A. 1 – 3
B. 4 – 5
C. 6 – 7
D. 7 – 8

Answer: B
Clarification: The table is divided in such a way that during an operation a certain area of the body can be
elevated and it allows better access to the area to the surgeon. The main four divisions of the bed are for
the head, thorax, thigh and then legs. Sometimes, there is a support for the waist in the abdomen and leg
pelvic region.
63. What kind of lights exists in the OT?
A. Fluorescent Lamps
B. LED lights
C. Tungsten Light
D. LCD

Answer: B
Clarification: LED lights are also called shadow less lights. This is the reason they are widely used in
operations as the shadow of the surgeon and nurse is not cast on the patient then. They can also produce
an illumination of 70,000 – 1,20,000 lumen which ensures sufficient brightness in the theater.
64. When a baby is born, why are they placed under UV lamps?
A. To reduce the possibility of skin disease
B. To reduce the possibility of jaundice
C. To ensure proper blood flow
D. To allow the bones to absorb nutrients

Answer: B
Clarification: After birth, the liver of an infant becomes very active. This is because the environment of the
child changes completely and to ensure that the body is under no harm, the activity of the liver increases.
This increased activity causes a rise in the production of bile pigments and causes jaundice. To ensure
that jaundice does not harm the baby, a baby after birth is placed under mild UV light and kept for
monitoring.
65. What is all usually present in an OT trolley?
i. Bandages ii.Basic Medicines iii. Disinfectants iv. Antiseptic v. Cannula vi. Syringe vii. Catheter
A. i, ii, iii, iv
B. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, vii
C. ii, iii, iv
D. iii, iv, vi

Answer: B
Clarification: An OT trolley is used to carry all the things that are needed in surgery. Most of the products
are brought in from the CSSD but some like medicines, antiseptics etc are already there in the trolley.
66. What is the ratio of the gases in medical air?
A. 78% Nitrogen, 21 % oxygen
B. 75 % Oxygen, 25 % Carbon dioxide
C. 60% Nitrogen, 20% Oxygen, 20% Carbon Di oxide
D. 50% Nitrogen, 50% Oxygen
67. How are the OT ventilated?
A. Air is blown in from the lower part of the wall
B. Air is sucked out from the upper region of the wall
C. Air is blown in from the lower part and sucked out from the upper part
D. Air is blown in from the upper part and sucked out from the lower part

Answer: D
Clarification: This kind of ventilation system should actually exist throughout the hospital. The air which
passes through various filters is pumped in and the air in the room is pulled out from the lower regions.
This forms a steady air current and fresh, treated air is constantly circulated. This reduces the chances of
nosocomial infections and wound festering.
68. What is the general equipment found in OT?
i) OT Trolley ii) Heart Lung Machine iii) Pendant iv) Ventilator v) Electron Microscope vi) Medical Air Tank
vii) Intubation Equipment viii) Fire Extinguisher
A. i, iii, iv, vi, vii
B. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, vii, viii
C. ii, iii, vi, vii
D. i, iii, iv, vii, viii

Answer: A
Clarification: In a general OT room, there is a trolley, a pendant (it sockets for connections and shelves to
hold things) a ventilator, medical air tank and intubation equipment. Sophisticated machines like the heart
lung machine or the electron microscope are present in OTs that specialize in cardiac surgery or
neurosurgery. A fire extinguisher may be found outside in the hallways but not necessarily in an OT.
69. What is the resolution of the microscopes used in neurosurgery?
A. 1 μm
B. 1 nm
C. 1 Åm
D. 1 pm

Answer: B
Clarification: A scanning electron microscope (SEM) is used in neurosurgery. It can give a good resolution
up to 1 nm. Neurosurgery deals with nerves and neurons and it needs good magnification and resolution
to look into the structures properly.
70. For how long can a heart lung machine be used?
A. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 10 hours

Answer: B
Clarification: A heart lung machine or rather a cardiopulmonary bypass machine is used during a cardiac
surgery. The machine acts like the heart, it receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and sends it to the
body. It receives deoxygenated blood from the body and sends it to the lungs. However, since its a
machine, various problems like clotting, leakage, air bubble etc may happen so it is recommended that the
machine is not used for more than six hours. Under extreme precautions and severely critical cases, it can
be used for ten hours.
71. In which of the following is not used for suturing?
A. Silk
B. Nylon
C. Polyester
D. Bakelite

Answer: D
Clarification: Suturing is the process of closing the wound. It is either stitched back or stapled back.
Various different materials are used to suture the wound. Bakelite is hard, non flexible material so it cannot
be used as a suture thread but recent trials are being made to develop a suturing needle from Bakelite.
72. What are all precautions taken for a patient directly out of surgery?
A. The injury should not be infected
B. The person must take a bath
C. The blood pressure should go down
D. The blood sugar should go up

Answer: A
Clarification: For a person directly out of surgery, the main concern is that the site of operation and injury
should not be infected. An operated person is given a sponge bath if the need arises but mostly after
surgery, they should keep away from water. The parameters that were observed before and during the
surgery, the same parameters are monitored even after the surgery.

73. The following steps are for

i. Alcohol with Chlorhexidine ii. Alcohol without Chlorhexidine iii. Chlorhexadine 2% iv. Chlorhexadine 4%
v. Povidone with Iodine 7.5% – 10% vi. Triclosan 1% vii. Phenolics viii. Quarternary Ammonium Compound
ix. 3% hexachlorophane
A. sterilization
B. disinfection
C. antiseptic
D. hand washing

Answer: D
Clarification: Before and after surgery it is important to wash hands properly. The above given steps are
used to wash hands properly with procedure and chemicals that are used. The movements of washing the
hands also need to be followed carefully.

A. T = 20 – 26 ℃, H = 20% – 30% air exchanges = 7 – 8 per hour

74. What are the temperature and humidity maintained in an OT?

B. T = 18 – 22 ℃, H = 40% – 50% air exchanges = 10 – 12 per hour

C. T = 10 – 12 ℃, H = 10% – 30% air exchanges = 9 – 10 per hour
D. T = 30 – 35 ℃, H = 50% – 60% air exchanges = 15 – 20 per hour

Answer: B
Clarification: An OT is normally cool without being cold. The humidity and temperature need to be
maintained so that the body does not go into any other kind of shock. Once under anaesthesia, the normal
functions like homeostasis of the body can also get disrupted thus an external maintenance is needed. It is
important for fresh air to keep circulating in the room so that the risk of infection goes down. The number of
exchanges can’t be too high to avoid cooling nor can they be too low or else infectious particles may settle
down.