DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN ANATOMY

FACULTY OF BASIC MEDICAL SCIENCE

COLLEGE OF HEALTH SCIENCE
NIGER DELTA UNIVERSITY
Wilberforce Island, Bayelsa State
PART 1 MBBS PROFESSIONAL (RESIT) EXAMINATION

ANATOMY PAPER 1 (MCQ QUESTIONS)

Date: 15th February 2021 Time allowed 3.00 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:
I. In section A (questions 1-120), choose one best option from A, B, C or D
II. In section B (questions 121-360), choose ‘A” for True and “B” for false
III. There is penalty for any wrong answer in section “B”.

SECTION A (c) pericranium

(d) fibro-fatty connective tissue layer
1. A 21-year-old man presents to the emergency
department with knife lacerations to the face. One 6. The muscle which protrudes the tongue and its tip
laceration is a deep wound to the superior aspect of the toward the opposite side
chin. Identify the artery most likely damaged by this (a) hyoglossus
lesion. (b) genioglossus
(a) Angular artery (c) palatoglossus
(b) Labial artery (d) geniohyoid
(c) Mental artery
(d) Buccal artery 7. The dural venous sinus found on the floor of the middle
cranial fossa is the
2. A 28-year-old woman presents with a throbbing pain (a) sigmoid
and a feeling of pressure in her forehead above her (b) superior petrosal
eyebrows. Examination reveals an infection of the sinus (c) straight
in this region. Which paranasal sinus is most likely (d) cavernous
infected, causing pain in the region the patient
describes?
8. The mucous membrane of the larynx below the vocal
(a) Ethmoid sinuses (ethmoid air cells) folds is supplied by this nerve
(b) Maxillary sinus (a) recurrent laryngeal
(c) Frontal sinus (b) internal laryngeal
(d) Sphenoid sinus (c) external laryngeal
(d) glossopharyngeal
3. If you rotate your head as in indicating a “no” response,
most of the movement occurs at this joint:
9. An 84-year-old patients suffers a stroke to the left facial
(a) atlanto-occipital (skull-C1) motor nucleus of the pons, resulting in the paralysis of
(b) atlanto-axial (C1-C2) facial nerve. Which of the following motor deficits does
(c) C2-C3 he likely experience?
(d) C3-C4 (a) Loss of nasolabial folds on the left
(b) Loss of nasolabial folds on the right
4. The cricoid cartilage lies at this vertebral level (c) Mandible deviates to the left when the mouth is
(a) C2 opened
(b) C4 (d) Mandible deviates to the right when the mouth is
(c) C6 opened
(d) C8

5. The layer of the scalp containing the ramifying arteries, 10. The parotid duct opens into the
veins, and nerves is the (a) floor of the mouth at the sublingual fold
(a) aponeurotic layer (b) floor of the mouth at the sublingual caruncle
(b) loose areolar layer
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 (c) vestibule of the mouth opposite the second c) SA node > AV node > AV bundle of His > Puekinje
maxillary molar tooth fibers > L/R bundle branch
(d) vestibule of mouth opposite the second mandibular d) SA node > AV node > AVbundle of His > L/R
premolar tooth bundle branch > Purkinje fibers
11. Name 2 bones which have parts that form the septum 19. The lingula of the left lung is “similar” to which structure
dividing the nose into right and left passages
of the right lung?
(a) palatine and sphenoid
a) Superior lobe
(b) maxilla and sphenoid
(c) lacrimal and nasal b) Inferior lobe
(d) vomer and ethmoid c) Middle lobe
d) Horizontal fissure
12. Which of these muscles receives its motor supply by 2
cranial nerves? 20. This typical rib landmark includes the most common site
(a) buccinator of rib fracture:
(b) thyrohyoid a) Head
(c) digastric b) Tubercle
(d) omohyoid c) Shaft
d) Neck
13. This (these) structure(s) is (are) found in the jugular
foramen 21. The inferior border of the heart:
(a) internal jugular vein a) Is primarily the left ventricle
(b) vagus nerve b) Is the right atrium
(c) hypoglossal nerve c) Is primarily the eight ventricle
(d) only a and b d) Is the junction where the great vessels leave
and enter the heart
14. The border between the middle and inner ear is formed
by 22. Which passes through the diaphragm with the
(a) incus oesophagus?
(b) oval window a) Right vagus
(c) scala tympani b) Azygos vein
(d) tympanic membrane c) Thoracic duct
d) Phrenic nerves
15. The fovea in the human eye is the centre of the visual
field wherein 23. Following are the contents of inguinal canal in males
(a) the optic nerve exits the eye EXCEPT;
a) ilio-inguinal nerve
(b) only rods are found
b) spermatic cord
(c) more rods than cones are found c) artery to vas deference
(d) no rods but a high density of cones occur d) ilio hypogastric nerve
16. Concerning the diaphragm:
24. Conjoint tendon is formed by
a) Innervated by vagus nerve a) Internal oblique and transverses abdominis
b) The major muscle of expiration b) External and internal oblique
c) Made up of 3 regions: central, sterna and costal c) Internal oblique alone
d) Will “flatten” upon contraction d) External oblique and transverses abdominis

17. The mediastinum contains all of the following EXCEPT: 25. Nerve piercing and lying on psoas major is:
a) Heart a) ilio hypogastric
b) Lungs b) genitofemoral
c) Thymus c) ilio inguinal
d) femoral
d) Oesophagus
26. Which is not a structure of the retroperitoneum?
18. Which of the following correctly describes the a) Kidney
conducting payhway of the heart? b) Adrenal gland
a) SA node > AV bundle of His > AV node > L/R c) Cisterna chili
bundle branch >Purkinje fibers d) Spleen
b) AV node > SA node > L/R bundle branch > AV 27. Which of the following regarding the appendix is
bundle of His > Purkinje fibers FALSE?

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 a) It always lies retro-ilieal in presence of disease 36. All are the contents of supeficial perineal pouch
b) It has a base constant in relation to the EXCEPT;
caecum a) bulbo urethral gland
c) Varies in length between 2 and 25 cm b) superior transverse pereni
d) It has its own mesentery c) dorsal nerve of penis
d) dorsal artery of penis
28. Which is not true of the stomach?
a) Completely invested by peritoneum 37. All of the following structure are attached to perineal
b) Cardia situated at T12 body except:
c) Pyloric opening at L1 a) External anal sphincter
d) Aorta to the left of lesser curve b) Internal anal sphincter
c) Superficial and deep transverse perineal
29. Which is the correct portosystemic anastomosis? muscles
a) Portal = periumbilical vein, systemic = phrenic d) Ischiocavernosus muscle
veins
b) Portal = tributary of inferior mesenteric vein, 38. Glans penis lymph drain to:
systemic = tributary of internal iliac vein a) Internal iliac lymph nodes
c) Portal = intrahepatic portal branches, systemic b) Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
= azygos vein c) Deep inguinal lymph nodes
d) Portal = left gastric vein, systemic = IVC via d) External iliac lymph nodes
oesophageal veins
39. The inferior boundary of the urogenital diaphragm is
30. The ureters are: formed by
a) Widest in diameter at the pelviuretic junction a) the perineal membrane.
b) Innervated by sympathetic nerves T12-L1 b) the sphincter urethrae muscle
c) Lie lateral to the tips of the lumbar transverse c) . the pelvic fascia.
processes d) the Colle's fascia.
d) None of the above are true
40. During the process of micturition (urination), which
31. Regarding the pelvic floor muscle is controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
a) Muscles include obturator internus a) Spincter urethrae
b) Slopes down and forwards b) Bulbospongiosus
c) Is supplied by S2, S3 and S4 c) Pubovesical
d) Is relaxed during quiet respiration d) Detrusor

32. The fascia that separates the retrovesical and prostatic 41. Which structure is intrasynovial at the knee joint:
space from the prerectal space is: a) oblique popliteal ligament
a) Denonvilliers’s b) tendon of popliteus
b) Retzius c) medial and lateral menisci
c) Rectovaginal d) none of the above
d) Cardinal
42. The adductor canal:
33. The posterior urethra in male is composed of the fol- a) contains the femoral artery and nerve
lowing segments Except b) ends distally in the adductor longus hiatus
a) Preprostatic c) contains no muscular nerves
b) Prostatic d) always has the femoral artery lying between the
c) Bulbar saphenous nerve and the femoral vein
d) Membranous
34. The most common site for prostate carcinoma is: 43. The great saphenous vein:
a) Peripheral zone a) joins the femoral vein above the inguinal ligament
b) Transitional zone b) enters the femoral vein on its anteromedial side
c) Central zone c) travels with the saphenous nerve along its course
d) Isthmus d) runs behind the medial malleolus

35. Which of the following structures contribute to both of 44. Fascia lata is not:
the pelvic inlet and outlet? a) attached inferiorly to the tibial condyles and head of
a) Pubic symphysis the fibula
b) Iliopectineal line b) reinforced anteriorly by expansions from the
c) Ischiopubic ramus quadriceps tendon
d) Sacralpromentary c) attached to Scarpa’s fascia above the inguinal
ligament
d) attached superiorly along the external lip of the iliac
crest
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45. Muscles in the floor of the femoral triangle include all 55. What structure pierces the flexor retinaculum?
EXCEPT: a) ulnar nerve
a) adductor longus b) flexor carpi radialis tendon
b) adductor magnus c) palmar branch of median nerve
c) ilacus d) flexor pollicis longus tendon
d) psoas
56. Which lymphatics do not drain the breast?
46. The inferior gluteal nerve supplies: a) subscapular nodes
a) gluteus maximus b) infraclavicular nodes
b) gluteus medius c) lateral axillary nodes
c) gluteus minimus d) parasternal nodes
d) all of the above
57. The metacarpophalangeal joints are:
47. The femoral canal: a) planar
a) is the lateral compartment of the femoral sheath b) ellipsoid
b) lies medial to the pubic tubercle c) hinge
c) contains the femoral nerve d) saddle
d) is medial to the femoral vein
58. Which structure lies in the deltopectoral groove?
48. The upper tibial epiphysis appears at: a) median pectoral nerve
a) birth b) lateral pectoral nerve
b) 2 year c) cephalic vein
c) 3 year d) basilic vein
d) 3 years
59. Simple pronation:
49. The lumbar plexus is formed by ventral primary rami of: a) requires an intact radial nerve
a) T12, L1, L2 and L3 b) requires an intact C8 nerve root
b) L1, L2, L3 and L4 c) occurs without movement of the ulna
c) L2, L3, L4 and L5 d) requires the action of anconeus
d) L2, L4, L5 and S1
60. The brachial artery:
50. Emerging from lesser sciatic foramen: a) commences at the upper border of teres major
a) piriformis b) is in direct contact with the humerus
b) superior gemellus c) has biceps tendon lying medial to it
c) obturator internus d) is readily compressible
d) inferior gemellus
61. Which of these is not a function of the placenta?
51. Identify the incorrect innervation: A. exchange of gases
a) subclavius – own nerve from the brachial plexus B. hormone production
b) serratus anterior – long thoracic nerve C. production of nutrients
c) clavicular head of pectoralis major – medial pectoral D. transmission of maternal antibodies.
nerve
d) latissimus dorsi – dorsal scapular nerve 62. In Humans, the ovum is liberated from ovary in
A. secondary oocyte stage.
52. Regarding the brachial plexus: B. primary oocyte stage.
a) the dorsal scapular nerve is the only branch from the C. oogonial stage.
trunks D. mature ovum stage.
b) the axillary nerve is derived from C5, 6, 7, 8, T1
c) the thoracodorsal nerve supplies lateral dorsi 63. The gonads develop from the embryonic
d) the axillary nerve passes below teres major A. ectoderm.
B. endoderm.
53. Which nerve does NOT make contact with periosteum? C. mesoderm.
a) radial nerve D. both mesoderm and endoderm.
b) axillary nerve
c) median nerve 64. Freshly released human egg has
d) ulnar nerve A. one Y-chromosome.
B. one X-chromosome.
54. An example of secondary cartilaginous joint include: C. two X-chromosome.
a) hip joint D. one X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome.
b) manubrio-sternal joint
c) costochondral joint 65. The Location and secretion of Leydig’s cells are
d) epiphysis joint A. liver-cholesterol.
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 B. ovary-estrogen. A. the superior mesenteric artery is the axis for clockwise
C. testis-testosterone. rotation of the midgut loop
D. pancreas-glucagon. B. the persistence of part of the vitelline duct leads to
urachal fistula
66. The ureteric bud appears as an outgrowth from the: C. a vitelline cyst may result from abnormal remodeling
A. metanephric mass of the vitelline veins
B. mesonephric duct D. an omphalocele is not synonymous with congenital
C. urogenital sinus umbilical hernia.
D. allantoic duct.
76. Which of the following structures does not turn under
67. Which of the following describe the DNA content of a onto the ventral surface of the embryo during folding of
female’s gametes during her childhood? the head?
A. 46 chromosomes, 46 chromatids. A. prochordal plate
B. 46 chromosomes, 92 chromatids B. heart
C. 23 chromosomes, 46 chromatids C. notochord
D. 23 chromosomes, 23 chromatids. D. pericardial cavity.

68. The Human eye lens is formed from 77. The brain flexure which develops between the
A. ectoderm. metencephalon and the myelencephalon is called the:
B. mesoderm. A. pontine
C. endoderm. B. hindbrain
D. ectoderm and mesoderm. C. cervical
D. midbrain.
69. The termination of gastrulation is marked by
A. obliteration of blastocoel.
B obliteration of archenteron. 78. Many facial malformations are believed to be due to:
C. closure of blastopore. A. a failure of the oral membrane to rupture
D. closure of neural tube. B. a failure of neural crest cells to migrate into the facial
processes
70. In the 28 day human ovarian cycle, the ovulation takes C. a failure in growth of the head fold
place typically on D. an abnormal persistence of the pharyngeal clefts.
A. day 5 of the cycle.
B. day 28 of the cycle. 79. The foramen cecum of the adult tongue:
C. day 1 of the cycle. A. marks the point of embryonic evagination of the
D. day 14 of the cycle. thymus gland
B. divides the tongue into two parts, an anterior one-third
71. Which of these is produced by the corpus luteum and a posterior two-thirds
A. luteotrophic hormone. C. marks the point of embryonic evagination of the
B. luteinizing hormone. thyroid gland
C. Oestrogen. D. develops into taste buds.
D. progesterone.
80. Which of the following is the most closely associated
72. Fetal sex can be determined by examining cells from the with the ligamentum teres hepatis :
amniotic fluid by looking for A. umbilical vein
A. chiasmata. B. umbilical artery
B. kinetochore. C. vitelline vein
C. barr bodies. D. 3rd aortic arch
D. autosomes.
81. One of these is not a component of glomerular filtration
73. Grey crescent is the area apparatus
A. at the point of entry of sperm into ovum. a) Fenestrated capillary endothelia cells
B. Just opposite to the site, of entry of sperm into ovum. b) Glomerular basement membrane
C. at the animal pole. c) Bowman’s capsule
D. at the vegetal pole. d) Pedicels

74. The definitive kidney of man is from: 82. Which of the portion of sarcomere contain both thick and
A. pronephros thin filaments
B. metanephros a) A band
C.mesonephros b) H zone
D. allantois. c) I band
d) M line
75. In the development of the midgut:

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83. Loss of function of which cell/subcellular structure will d) Ependymal
likely cause chronic sinusitis
a) Basal cells 92. One the following is not a characteristic features of
b) Cilia hepatocytes
c) Goblets cells a) Polyhedral cells with rounded nuclei
d) Mucous glands b) Prominent nucleoli
c) Binucleate cells
84. Which of the following cytologic features characterises d) Canals of Hering
the epithelia lining of the efferent ductules
a) Cilia 93. Which lymphoid organ or tissue lacks lymph follicles
b) Glycogen rich vacuoles a) Spleen
c) Lamellar bodies b) Gut-associated lymphoid tissue
d) Intracellular lipid droplets c) Lymph node
d) Thymus
85. Which of the following cells is found within tertiary
chorionic villi of the placenta
a) Amnioblasts 94. Uterine tube is lined by
b) Capillary endothelia cells a) Simple cubodal
c) Decidual cells b) Simple columnar
d) Ig-A secreting plasma cells c) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
86. Which is the dominant cell type in lymph follicles? d) Simple columnar ciliated
a) Reticular cells
b) Plasma cells 95. Identify the correct statement
c) B-lymphocyte a) Blood plasma can freely pass through the walls of
d) T-lymphocyte fenestrated capillaries
b) Smooth muscle cells form the extracellular fibrous
87. In the CNS, the term ‘’Nucleus’’ refers to which of the tissue components in tunica media of blood vessels
following? c) Lymph ducts empty into a network of irregularly
a) Aggregates of pyramidal cell in the cerebral cortex shaped lymph capillaries
b) Bundle of functionally related axon d) The external elastic lamina delimits the tunica
c) Bundle of functionally related dendrites intima from the tunica media
d) Cluster of functionally related neuronal cell bodies
96. Which cell type form the connective tissue component of
88. Which of these best describe the average epithelia lymphoid tissue/organ?
morphology of hypoactive thyroid gland? a) B-lymphocyte
a) Pseudostratified columnar b) Reticular cells
b) Simple columnar c) Intraepithelial lymphocyte
c) Simple squamous d) T-lymphocyte
d) Stratified cuboidal
97. The mucosa of the GIT consist of all except?
a) Epithelium
89. Which type of vessel does the aorta represent?
b) Lamina propria
a) Capillary
c) Muscularis mucosae
b) Elastic artery
d) Tunica muscularis
c) Muscular artery
d) Tunica media 98. Which of the following is MISMATCHED?
A. pneumocyte (alveolar cell) type I--cytoplasm through
90. Which organ or tissue is the site of lymphoid stem cell which gaseous exchange occurs
proliferation? B. pneumocyte type II--secretes pulmonary surfactant
a) Young thymus C. pneumocyte type II--stem cell for more pneumocyte
b) Bone marrow types I & II
c) Cold thymus D. pulmonary surfactant--increases surface tension
d) Tonsil within alveoli

91. Which cell type forms the myelin sheath around 99. The transition zone between the vagina and cervix is a
myelinated axons in the CNS? common site of cervical dysplasia and cancer. What
a) Oligodendrocyte epithelial transition is seen in this zone?
b) Schwann cell a) Vaginal simple squamous to cervical simple
columnar
c) Astrocyte

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 b) Vaginal simple squamous to cervical stratified
columnar 108.Which of the following is not a clinical sign of cerebella
c) Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple dysfunction?
columnar A. Hypotonia
d) Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical stratified B. Clasp knife rigidity
columnar C.dysdiadochokinesia
D. Ataxia
100.One of the followings is characteristic for the secretory
phase of the endometrium:
a) Glands are straight with narrow lumen 109.One of the cells bellow is the only excitatory cell of the
b) Glands accumulate glycogen. cerebella cortex;
c) Controlled by estrogen secreted by ovarian follicles.
d) Constriction of the spiral vessels A. Purkinje cell
B. Stellate cell
101.The following arteries constitute the circle of Willis C. Granule cell
D. Golgi cell
except.
A. Posterior cerebral artery 110. The second layer of the cerebral cortex is dominated
B. Posterior communicating artery by;
C. Anterior cerebral artery. A. Medium size pyramidal cells
D. Superior cerebellar artery B. Small size pyramidal cells
C. Large pyramidal cells
102.The anterior cerebral artery is a branch of; D. Giant pyramidal
A. Basilar artery
B. Vertebral artery 111. The following cells of the cerebral cortex are
C. Internal carotid artery associative in function except;
D. Middle cerebral artery.
A. Pyramidal cells
103.The propriorceptive pathway has its first relay station at B.stellate cells
the; C. Horizontal cells
A. Dorsal horn of spinal cord D. Cells of martinotti
B. Ventral horn of spinal cord
C. Midbrain 112. Hydrocephalus means;
D. Medullar A. Increase in intracranial pressure
B. Increase in the volume of csf in the cranial cavity
104.Which of the following order of arrangement about the C. Big head
deep cerebella nuclei from medial to lateral is correct? D. All of the above
A. Fastigeal ,glose, dentate and emboliform
113. Information leaves the cerebellum through one of the
B. Fastigeal, emboliform, globose and dentate
cells below;
C. Globose, emboliform, dentate and fastigeal
A. Basket cells
D. Fastigeal, globose, emboliform and dentate B. Golgi cells
C. Purkinje cells
105.Which of the cerebella peduncles consist primarily of D. Granule cells
efferent fibers?
A. Brachium pontis 114.The spinal part of the accessory nerve arises from:
B. Brachium conjuctivum A. C2-C5
C. Restiform body B. C1-C3
D. All of the above C. C2-C4
D. C2&C3
106.The cell bodies of the corticopontine tract is located in
the; 115. The smallest of the cranial nerves is the:
A. Pons A. Olfactory
B. Medullar B. Occulomotor
C. Cerebral cortex C. Trochlear
D. Pons and cerebellum D. Abducen

107.Which of these neurons is/are present in the outer layer 116. At what point decussation occurs in the corticospinal
of the cerebella cortex? tract?
A. Stellate cells A. Upper aspect of midbrain
B. Pyramidal cells B. Middle aspect of midbrain
C. Purkinje cells C. Upper aspect of pons
D. Stellate and basket cells D. Middle aspect of medullar

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117. Aboutemissary veins; Passing forward in the lateral wall of the cavernous
A. Link intercerebral system of veins with facial veins of sinus are the following nerves:
the scalp 137. trochlear CrVI
B. They are valveless, so clinically important 138. maxillary CrV
C. Blood can flow in either direction 139. mandibular CrV
D. All of the above 140. abducent CrVI

118. Which of the statements below is true? Crossing the upper border of superior constrictor is:
A. Axons conduct impulses away from the cell body 141. tensor veli palatini
B. Conducts towards the cell body 142. the cartilaginous part of the auditory tube
C. Dendrides carry information towards the cell body 143. levator palati
D. A & C are true 144. the ascending palatine branch of the facial artery

119. Which of the structures below is not part of the posterior On the skull the:
aspect of the pons? 145. Anterior fontanelle is at the junction of the sagittal and
A. Hypoglossal trigone frontal sutures
B. Facial colliculus 146. Lambdoid suture lies between the occipital bone and
C. Brachium conjuctivum the parietal bones
D. Superior medullary velum 147. Vertex is the highest point
148. External occipital protruberance marks the level of the
attached margin of the tentorium cerebelli
120. Clinical signs of cerebellar dysfunction manifesting as
slow and sluggish speech is known as; The pituitary gland:
A. Dysmetria 149. Lies near the maxillary sinuses
b. Dysarthria 150. Has vascular and nervous connexions with the
C. Ataxia hypothalamus
D. Hypotonia 151. Is intimately related to the dura
152. Is completely surrounded by cerebrospinal fluid
SECTION B
Traversing the superior orbital fissure is the:
 Choose “A” for True or “B” for False 153. Ophthalmic nerve
 There is a penalty any wrong answer in this 154. Superior ramus of the oculomotor nerve
section 155. Superior ophthalmic vein
156. Frontal nerve
Concerning the thyroid gland and parathyroid glands:
121. The thyroid gland lies at the level of C5 to T1 In the infratemporal fossa the:
121. The thyroid gland has external laryngeal nerve lying on 157. Medial pterygoid has a smaller lower head
its medial aspect 158. Buccal nerve emerges from between the head of the
123. Parathyroids IV are drawn caudally by the developing medial pterygoid
thymus 159. Lateral pterygoid has a partial attachment to the
124. The parathyroids develop from the primitive pharynx palatine bone
160. Lateral pterygoid has a smaller head
The cervical plexus:
125. Supplies infrahyoid muscles Regarding the Arch of the aorta
126. Supplies motor branches to trapezius 161. Located above the brachiocaphalic vein
127. Provides sensory branches for the diaphragm 162. Connected to the pulmonary trunk by ligamentum
128. Provides sensory branches for the front of the scalp arteriosum
163. It is arches over the Lt main bronchus
With regard to the muscles of mastication: 164. The Rt recurrent laryngeal nerves hocks around it
129. They are supplied by the mandibular nerve
130. The parotid duct crosses superficially to the masseter The parasympathetic innervation of the oesophagus is
131. The maxillary artery lies deep to the temporalis done by the?
132. The medial pterygoid is related laterally to the 165. Recurrent laryngeal nerves
styloid muscles 166. Vagus nerves
167. Phrenic nerves
In the posterior triangle of the neck structures lying 168. Postganglionic fibres of the upper 4–6 thoracic spinal
superficial to the prevertebral fascia are the: cord segments
133. spinal accessory nerve
134. suprascapular artery
Regarding the pleura the incorrect statement is:
135. inferior belly of omohyoid
169. diaphragmatic pleura supplied by intercostal nerves
136. dorsal scapular nerve only
170. cervical pleura is crossed by subclavian vessels

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171. pleural cavity is a potential space
172. the visceral & parietal pleurae are continuous around Cavernous sinus
the root of the lung 209. Receives blood from the middle superficial cerebral vein
210. Lies in the attached border of the cerebellar falx
Concerning the broncho pulmonary segment 211. Drains into the transverse sinus
173. wedge shape mass of lung 212. Runs in the free edge of the cerebral falx
174. contains segmental artery
175. contains segmental vein Occipital sinus
176. aerated by tertiary bronchus 213. Receives blood from the middle superficial cerebral vein
214. Lies in the attached border of the cerebellar falx
Regarding the spleen 215. Drains into the transverse sinus
177. It lies between the 7th and 9th ribs 216. Runs in the free edge of the cerebral falx
178. The tail is contained in the lienorenal ligament
179. The head is immediately anterior to the aorta Superior petrosal sinus
180. lympatic drainage is to coeliac nodes 217. Receives blood from the middle superficial cerebral vein
218. Lies in the attached border of the cerebellar falx
Regarding the kidneys: 219. Drains into the transverse sinus
181. the right kidney lies at a lower level to the left kidney 220. Runs in the free edge of the cerebral falx
182. they lie inferior to the pleura
183. The long axis is parallel with the lateral border of psoas Inferior petrosal sinus
184. Retroperitoneal organ 221. Receives blood from the middle superficial cerebral vein
222. Lies in the attached border of the cerebellar falx
Regarding the ovaries 223. Drains into the transverse sinus
185. Ovarian vessels pass in through the suspensory 224. Runs in the free edge of the cerebral falx
ligament
186. Is suspended by the infundibulopelvic ligament The pallidum projects to the cerebral cortex through
187. Their lateral walls are in contact with parietal 225. The VPL of thalamus
peritoneum 226. The VPM of the thalamus
188. ovarian fimbria applies to the tubal pole of the ovary 227. The reticular nucleus of the thalamus
228. The ventral anterior nucleus of the thalamus
Regarding the pudendal (Alcock's) canal The corticomedial part of the amygdala receives input
189. It is in the deep fascia of the obturator internus muscle from the
190. The vessels and nerves in the canal supply the 229. Thalamus
perineum. 230. Hypothalamus
191. It is in the medial wall of the ischiorectal fossa. 231. Reticular formation
192. It is in the lateral wall of the ischiorectral fossa 232. Olfactory stria
The following structures are found in both male and Guillain‐Barre syndrome typically affects the
females 233. Posterior horns
193. Deep transversus perineal muscle. 234. Lateral horns
194. Dorsal neurovascular structure of deep perineal pouch 235. Anterior horns
195. External urethral sphincter muscles 236. Internal capsule
196. Superficial perineal fascia (of Colle’s)
Neurons of the nucleus dorsalis of Clarke give origin to
Concerning the prostate gland the
197. Transitional zone is the most common site for prostate 237. Spinothalamic tract
carcinoma 238. Gracile fasciculus
198. Central zone is the most common site of benign 239. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
prostatic hypertrophy 240. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
199. Prostatic ducts open in sides of urethral crest
Which is true of neuromeres?
200. Prostatic ducts open in prostatic sinuses
241. They are formed from somitomeres in the head region
It is the terminal branch of the basilar artery in association with segmentation of the neural plate
201. Anterior cerebral 242. They are the somitomeres of the occipital region only
202. Middle cerebral 243. Neuromeres consist of the first 20 somitomeres
203. Posterior cerebral The embryonic diaphragm is formed from:
204. Anterior cerebellar 244. Septum transversum
245. Two pleuroperitoneal membranes
Inferior sagittal sinus 246. Muscular component from the body wall and
205. It receives blood from the middle superficial cerebral messentery of the oesophagus
vein
206. Lies in the attached border of the cerebellar falx Concerning bilaminar germ disc:
207. Drains into the transverse sinus 247. It refers to a 3 layered embryo
208. Runs in the free edge of the cerebral falx 248. It is a 2 layered germ disc
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249. It is made up of the hypoblast and the epiblast 278. It is necessitated as a result of the rapid expansion of
250. The hypoblast is a layer of columnar cells adjacent to the liver
the amniotic cavity 279. Intestinal loops enters the extraembryonic cavity in the
About gastrulation: umbilical cord.
251. It leads to the formation of ectoderm, mesoderm and 280. It occurs approximately around the 14th week
endoderm
252. The primitive streak marks the beginning of the process Nissl bodies are found in
253. The mesodermal layer is formed before the endodermal 281. Synapse
layer 282. Axon hillocks
Which is true about the fetal circulation? 283. Cell bodies and dendrites
254. There are 2 umbilical veins and 1 umbilical artery 284. Axon
before birth. Regarding microvilli
255. There are 2 umbilical arteries and 1 umbilical vein 285. Microvilli are finger-like cytoplasmic projections on
before birth
apical surface of most epithelial cells
256. Only 2 umbilical arteries exist after birth
286. The number and shape of a given cell type correlate
During the formation of the respiratory system: with the cell’s absorptive capacity
257. The respiratory diverticulum appears around the 10th 287. The immotile microvilli with an unusual length is known
week of development as stereocillia
258. The respiratory diverticulum appears about the 4th
week of development 288. Microvilli are cytoplasmic process containing bundles of
259. Oesephageal atresia is a common defect during its microtubules
development Eccrine sweat glands
260. The development of the respiratory system begins after 289. Eccrine sweat glands are not present in thick skin
the embryonic period 290. Eccrine sweat glands have secretory portion that
In the development of the pancreas: contains myoepithelia cell
261. The ventral pancreatic bud is more important 291. Eccrine sweat glands release their secretion by
262. The dorsal pancreatic bud is more important mechanism of holocrine secretion
263. Both pancreatic buds are equally important 292. Eccrine sweat glands have a narrow striated duct
264. The accessory pancreatic duct originates from the
dorsal pancreatic duct Which of the following statement concerning prostate
is/are correct?
Which is correct about gastroschisis? 293. The lumen of the prostatic urethra is lined by
265. It involves herniation of abdominal viscera not covered transitional epithelium
by amnion in to the amniotic cavity 294. The thin mucous membrane of the utricle is lined by
266. It involves herniation of abdominal viscera covered by pseudostratified epithelium
amnion through enlarged umbilical ring
267. Its increase in the rate of occurrence among women is 295. Prostatic sinuses are seen on each side of the
associated with cocaine use colliculusseminalis

About the permanent kidney: Which of the following concerning the epithelia in the
268. It develops from the mesonephros thin segment of Henle is/are correct?
269. The permanent kidney develops from the metenephros 296. Type I→ thin descending and ascending limbs of loop
270. It develops from both the mesonephros and of Henle of short loop nephron
metanephros 297. Type II→ thin descending limb of long-looped nephrons
in cortical labyrinth
298. Type III→ thin descending limb in the inner medulla
Defects in the female reproductive system include the 299. Type IV→ the cell possess few organelle with microvilli
followings:
271. Uterus didelphys, Uterus arcuatus, uterus bicornis and The red pulps of the spleen compose:
vaginal atresia 300. Lymphatic nodules
272. Uterus didelphys, Crytorchydism, hypospadias and 301. B-cells
uterus bicornis 302. Venous sinuses and reticular fiber
273. Uterus arcuatus, double uterus, Epispadias and 303. Elastic fiber
Klinefelter's syndrome
The renal pelvis:
The following are derivatives of the first branchial arch: 304. Is lined by transitional epithelium
274. Upper part of hyoid 305. Surrounded by fat of the renal sinus
275. Malleus 306. Have striated muscles in its wall
276. Mandibular process 307. Associate with adventitia
277. Stapes
Concerning seminiferous tubules:
Umbilical herniation of the intestinal loops: 308. Leydig cell lies within a seminiferous tubule
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309. Sertoli cells serve endocrine function 336. Inversion and eversion both take place at ankle joint.
310. Leydig cells has cytoplasmic entention into the lumen of
the tubule Regarding nerves of the lower limb,
337. Foot drop occurs due to damage in the tibial nerve
Concerning blood and immunity: 338. Pectineus is supplied by femoral nerve
311. Leukocytes don’t have organelles 339. Both knee joint & hip joint are supplied by obturator
312. Neutrophils have a single lobed nucleus nerve
313. T-cells are factories for antibody production 340. Saphenous nerve crosses femoral artery medial to
314. B-cell are made in the thymus lateral in the adductor canal
In the respiratory bronchioles
315. Cartilage is absent The peripheral nerve arising directly from the upper
316. Glands are absent trunk of the brachial plexus is the:
317. Epithelium is simple ciliated columnar 341. Dorsal scapular
342. Thoracodorsal
In the colon: 343. Suprascapular
318. There are no villi 344. Upper subscapular
319. Paneth cells are present in crypts
320. Columnar cells secrets IgA Giving attachment to both flexor and extensor retinacula
of the hand:
Concerning the Brachial plexus: 345. Scaphoid
321. The suprascapular nerve arises from C5 anterior ramus 346. Trapezoid
322. The medial cord has fibres from C8 and T1 347. Hamate
323. The posterior cord has fibers from C5, 6, 7, 8 & T1. 348. Pisiform
324. The nerve to serratus anterior comes from the anterior
rami of C5-7. Branches from the 2nd part of the axillary artery
349. Superior thoracic artery
Regarding hamstring muscles 350. Thoracoacromial
325. All arise from the ischial tuberosity. 351. Lateral thoracic
326. All are inserted to the bones of the leg. 352. Subscapular
327. They flex the knee joint and extend the hip joint.
328. All are innervated by tibial nerve. Content of cubital fossa
Sciatic nerve 353. Radial nerve
329. Is formed by the ventral and dorsal divisions of sacral 354. Brachial artery
ventral rami 355. Median nerve
330. Emerges from the pelvis through the lesser sciatic 356. Bicep tendon
foramen
331. It divides at a constant level Concerning femoral hernias:
332. Is related to the upper lateral quadrant of gluteal region 357. Femoral Hernias - Appear Inferior and Lateral to the
Regarding joints of lower limb pubic tubercle
333. Main abductors of hip joint are supplied by superior 358. Femoral Hernias - Descend into the thigh anterior to the
gluteal nerve inguinal ligament
334. Tendon of popliteus is intracapsular 359. Femoral Hernias have contents that are restricted
335. Tensor fascia lata stabilises the knee joint in the laterally by the lacunar ligament
extended position 360. Femoral Hernias are located in the vascular lacunae.

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