NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

write the some

C++ programming, Java ,Networking, operating system,DBMS,HTML,IP and
MIS NGAT Exam with answers for CS MSc entrance exam
Sure! Below are some sample questions and answers for various subjects that
might be relevant for a Computer Science MSc entrance exam, including C++,
Java, Networking, Operating Systems, DBMS, HTML, IP, and Management
Information Systems (MIS).
▎C++ Programming
Question 1: What is the output of the following C++ code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int a = 5;
int b = 10;
cout << (a > b ? a : b) << endl;
return 0;
}
Answer: The output will be 10 because the conditional operator returns the second
operand since a is not greater than b.
c++ programming NGAT EXAM with answers
It looks like you're asking for C++ programming questions with answers, possibly
in the context of an exam (NGAT exam). While I don’t have access to a specific
"NGAT Exam," I can help by providing sample C++ questions along with their
answers that could be helpful for studying or practice.
Here are some example C++ programming questions, along with their solutions:
1. Write a C++ program to check if a number is prime or not.
Question:
Write a C++ program that checks if a given number is prime or not.
Answer:
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
bool isPrime(int num) {
if (num <= 1) return false; // Numbers less than or equal to 1 are not prime
for (int i = 2; i * i <= num; i++) {
if (num % i == 0) return false; // If divisible by any number other than 1 and
itself
}
return true;

1
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

}
int main() {
int number;
cout << "Enter a number: ";
cin >> number;
if (isPrime(number)) {
cout << number << " is a prime number." << endl;
} else {
cout << number << " is not a prime number." << endl;
}
return 0;
}
2. Write a C++ program to find the factorial of a number using recursion.
Question:
Write a C++ program to find the factorial of a number using recursion.
Answer:
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int factorial(int n) {
if (n == 0 || n == 1) return 1;
return n * factorial(n - 1);
}
int main() {
int num;
cout << "Enter a number: ";
cin >> num;
cout << "Factorial of " << num << " is: " << factorial(num) << endl;
return 0;
}
3. Write a C++ program to reverse a string.
Question:
Write a C++ program that reverses a given string.
Answer:
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
string reverseString(const string& str) {
string reversed = str;
int n = reversed.length();

2
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

for (int i = 0; i < n / 2; i++) {

swap(reversed[i], reversed[n - i - 1]);
}
return reversed;
}

int main() {
string str;
cout << "Enter a string: ";
getline(cin, str);
cout << "Reversed string: " << reverseString(str) << endl;
return 0;
}
4. Write a C++ program to find the largest of three numbers.
Question:
Write a C++ program to find the largest of three numbers entered by the user.
Answer:
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int a, b, c;
cout << "Enter three numbers: ";
cin >> a >> b >> c;
int largest = a;
if (b > largest) largest = b;
if (c > largest) largest = c;

cout << "The largest number is: " << largest << endl;
return 0;
}
5. Write a C++ program to implement a simple calculator.
Question:
Write a C++ program to implement a simple calculator that can perform addition,
subtraction, multiplication, and division based on the user's input.
Answer:
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
double num1, num2;

3
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

char op;
cout << "Enter first number: ";
cin >> num1;
cout << "Enter an operator (+, -, *, /): ";
cin >> op;
cout << "Enter second number: ";
cin >> num2;
switch (op) {
case '+':
cout << "Result: " << num1 + num2 << endl;
break;
case '-':
cout << "Result: " << num1 - num2 << endl;
break;
case '*':
cout << "Result: " << num1 * num2 << endl;
break;
case '/':
if (num2 != 0) {
cout << "Result: " << num1 / num2 << endl;
} else {
cout << "Error: Division by zero is not allowed." << endl;
}
break;
default:
cout << "Invalid operator!" << endl;
break;
}

return 0;
}
6. Write a C++ program to check whether a string is a palindrome.
Question:
Write a C++ program that checks whether a given string is a palindrome or not.
Answer:
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
bool isPalindrome(const string& str) {

4
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

int left = 0, right = str.length() - 1;

while (left < right) {
if (str[left] != str[right]) return false;
left++;
right--;
}
return true;
}
int main() {
string str;
cout << "Enter a string: ";
getline(cin, str);
if (isPalindrome(str)) {
cout << "The string is a palindrome." << endl;
} else {
cout << "The string is not a palindrome." << endl;
}
return 0;
}
7. Write a C++ program to calculate the sum of digits of a number.
Question:
Write a C++ program to calculate the sum of digits of a number.
Answer:
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;

int sumOfDigits(int num) {

int sum = 0;
while (num > 0) {
sum += num % 10;
num /= 10;
}
return sum;
}
int main() {
int num;
cout << "Enter a number: ";
cin >> num;

5
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

cout << "The sum of digits of " << num << " is: " << sumOfDigits(num) <<
endl;
return 0;
}
8. Write a C++ program to swap two numbers without using a third variable.
Question:
Write a C++ program that swaps two numbers without using a third variable.
Answer:
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int a, b;
cout << "Enter two numbers: ";
cin >> a >> b;
cout << "Before swapping: a = " << a << ", b = " << b << endl;
// Swap using arithmetic operations
a = a + b;
b = a - b;
a = a - b;
cout << "After swapping: a = " << a << ", b = " << b << endl;
return 0;
}
These are just a few sample C++ questions and solutions that could be part of an
exam. They cover fundamental topics like loops, functions, recursion, string
manipulation, and conditionals. You can modify the difficulty and scope of the
questions based on your specific exam requirements.
▎Java
Question 2: What is the purpose of the final keyword in Java?
Answer: The final keyword in Java is used to declare constants, prevent method
overriding, and prevent inheritance. When a variable is declared as final, its value
cannot be changed. When a method is declared as final, it cannot be overridden by
subclasses. When a class is declared as final, it cannot be subclasses.
Java NGAT exam with answers for MIS
It looks like you're asking for Java programming exam questions with answers,
specifically for the MIS (Management Information Systems) domain, possibly in
the context of an NGAT exam. While I don’t have access to a specific "NGAT
Exam," I can create some sample Java questions with answers that would be
relevant for an MIS-focused exam. These questions will cover general Java

6
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

programming concepts that could be useful in MIS, including object-oriented

programming (OOP), data manipulation, and logic.
Here are some example Java programming questions and their solutions:
1. Write a Java program to calculate the sum of an array of numbers.
Question:
Write a Java program to calculate the sum of an array of integers provided by the
user.
Answer:
java
import java.util.Scanner;
public class SumArray {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Scanner scanner = new Scanner(System.in);
System.out.print("Enter the number of elements: ");
int n = scanner.nextInt();
int[] numbers = new int[n];
System.out.println("Enter " + n + " numbers:");
// Input array elements
for (int i = 0; i < n; i++) {
numbers[i] = scanner.nextInt();
}
// Calculate the sum of array elements
int sum = 0;
for (int i = 0; i < n; i++) {
sum += numbers[i];
}
System.out.println("Sum of the array elements: " + sum);
}
}
2. Write a Java program to create and display a simple class with a
constructor.
Question:
Create a Java class called Product that contains properties like product name, price,
and quantity. Include a constructor to initialize these properties. Display the
product details in the main method.
Answer:
java
class Product {
String productName;

7
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

double price;
int quantity;
// Constructor to initialize the product details
public Product(String productName, double price, int quantity) {
this.productName = productName;
this.price = price;
this.quantity = quantity;
}
// Method to display product details
public void displayDetails() {
System.out.println("Product Name: " + productName);
System.out.println("Price: " + price);
System.out.println("Quantity: " + quantity);
}
}
public class Main {
public static void main(String[] args) {
// Create an object of Product and initialize it
Product product = new Product("Laptop", 50000.0, 10);
// Display product details
product.displayDetails();
}
}
3. Write a Java program to implement inheritance.
Question:
Write a Java program that demonstrates inheritance. Create a base class Employee
with properties like name and salary. Then create a derived class Manager that
extends Employee and adds additional properties like department.
Answer:
java
// Base class Employee
class Employee {
String name;
double salary;
// Constructor to initialize Employee details
public Employee(String name, double salary) {
this.name = name;
this.salary = salary;
}

8
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

// Method to display employee details

public void displayDetails() {
System.out.println("Name: " + name);
System.out.println("Salary: " + salary);
}
}
// Derived class Manager
class Manager extends Employee {
String department;
// Constructor to initialize Manager details
public Manager(String name, double salary, String department) {
super(name, salary); // Call the base class constructor
this.department = department;
}
// Method to display Manager details
public void displayManagerDetails() {
displayDetails();
System.out.println("Department: " + department);
}
}
public class Main {
public static void main(String[] args) {
// Create an object of Manager
Manager manager = new Manager("Alice", 75000, "IT");
// Display manager details
manager.displayManagerDetails();
}
}
4. Write a Java program to perform simple database operations (using a
JDBC connection).
Question:
Write a Java program that connects to a MySQL database and performs simple
operations like inserting and displaying records. Assume the database and table
employees already exist.
Answer:
java
import java.sql.*;
public class DatabaseExample {
public static void main(String[] args) {

9
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

// JDBC URL, username, and password for MySQL database

String url = "jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/your_database_name";
String user = "your_username";
String password = "your_password";
try {
// Establishing connection to the database
Connection connection = DriverManager.getConnection(url, user,
password);
Statement statement = connection.createStatement();
// Inserting a record into the employees table
String insertQuery = "INSERT INTO employees (name, position)
VALUES ('John Doe', 'Manager')";
statement.executeUpdate(insertQuery);
// Retrieving records from the employees table
String selectQuery = "SELECT * FROM employees";
ResultSet resultSet = statement.executeQuery(selectQuery);
// Displaying the records
while (resultSet.next()) {
System.out.println("ID: " + resultSet.getInt("id") + ", Name: " +
resultSet.getString("name") + ", Position: " + resultSet.getString("position"));
}
// Closing resources
resultSet.close();
statement.close();
connection.close();
} catch (SQLException e) {
e.printStackTrace();
}
}
}
Note: Make sure to include the MySQL JDBC driver (mysql-connector-java) in
your project dependencies.
5. Write a Java program to implement an interface.
Question:
Create a Java interface Payment with methods payByCreditCard and payByCash.
Implement the interface in two different classes: OnlinePayment and
StorePayment.
Answer:
java

10
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

// Interface Payment
interface Payment {
void payByCreditCard(double amount);
void payByCash(double amount);
}
// OnlinePayment class implementing Payment interface
class OnlinePayment implements Payment {
@Override
public void payByCreditCard(double amount) {
System.out.println("Online payment of " + amount + " using credit card.");
}
@Override
public void payByCash(double amount) {
System.out.println("Online payments do not support cash payment.");
}
}
// StorePayment class implementing Payment interface
class StorePayment implements Payment {
@Override
public void payByCreditCard(double amount) {
System.out.println("Store payment of " + amount + " using credit card.");
}

@Override
public void payByCash(double amount) {
System.out.println("Store payment of " + amount + " using cash.");
}
}
public class Main {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Payment onlinePayment = new OnlinePayment();
onlinePayment.payByCreditCard(200.50);
Payment storePayment = new StorePayment();
storePayment.payByCash(100.75);
}
}
6. Write a Java program to read and write to a text file.
Question:
Write a Java program to read a text file and count the number of words in it.

11
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer:
java
import java.io.*;
public class WordCount {
public static void main(String[] args) {
try {
// Create a FileReader and BufferedReader to read the file
FileReader fileReader = new FileReader("sample.txt");
BufferedReader bufferedReader = new BufferedReader(fileReader);
String line;
int wordCount = 0;
// Read each line of the file
while ((line = bufferedReader.readLine()) != null) {
String[] words = line.split("\\s+");
wordCount += words.length;
}
// Close the file reader
bufferedReader.close();
// Display word count
System.out.println("Total number of words: " + wordCount);
} catch (IOException e) {
e.printStackTrace();
}
}
}
These are a set of Java-based exam questions and answers that cover various
essential topics relevant to an MIS curriculum, including object-oriented
programming (OOP), file handling, database connectivity, interfaces, and basic
algorithms. You can use these questions to practice, prepare, or study for an exam.
▎Networking
Question 3: What is the primary purpose of the Domain Name System (DNS)?
Answer: The primary purpose of DNS is to translate human-readable domain
names (like www.example.com) into IP addresses (like 192.0.2.1) that computers
use to identify each other on the network.
Networking NGAT for MIS with answers
It seems like you're asking for Networking-related exam questions with answers,
particularly for MIS (Management Information Systems) in the context of an
NGAT exam. While there isn't a specific "NGAT" networking exam for MIS, I can
certainly provide a series of relevant networking questions, along with detailed

12
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

answers, that might align with the topics you could expect in an MIS-oriented
exam.
These questions will focus on networking fundamentals, protocols, security, and
how they relate to MIS, given that networks are a core part of Information
Systems.
1. Explain the OSI Model and its layers.
Question:
What is the OSI Model, and briefly explain the seven layers?
Answer:
The OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model is a conceptual framework that
standardizes the functions of a communication system into seven layers. These
layers define how data travels from one device to another over a network.
The seven layers of the OSI Model are:
1. Physical Layer (Layer 1): Deals with the physical connection between
devices, such as cables, switches, and network cards. It transmits raw data as
bits over a physical medium.
2. Data Link Layer (Layer 2): Responsible for node-to-node data transfer and
error detection/correction. It includes protocols like Ethernet and Wi-Fi.
3. Network Layer (Layer 3): Manages routing, addressing, and packet
forwarding. This layer is where IP (Internet Protocol) operates.
4. Transport Layer (Layer 4): Ensures end-to-end communication and
reliability, using protocols like TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and
UDP (User Datagram Protocol).
5. Session Layer (Layer 5): Manages sessions or connections between
applications. It controls dialog between two computers.
6. Presentation Layer (Layer 6): Translates data into a format that the
application layer can understand. This can include data encryption,
compression, or translation.
7. Application Layer (Layer 7): The topmost layer, where end-user
applications and network services (like HTTP, FTP, and DNS) interact.
2. What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
Question:
Compare TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram
Protocol) and explain which one is more suitable for real-time applications like
video streaming.
Answer:
TCP and UDP are both transport layer protocols but have distinct differences:
 TCP (Transmission Control Protocol):

13
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

o Connection-oriented: A connection is established before data

transmission.
o Reliable: Guarantees delivery of data by retransmitting lost packets.
o Flow Control & Error Checking: Ensures that the data arrives in the
correct order and is error-free.
o Slower: Due to error correction, sequencing, and flow control, it can
be slower.
o Use Case: Ideal for applications where reliability is crucial, like web
browsing (HTTP), email (SMTP), and file transfer (FTP).
 UDP (User Datagram Protocol):
o Connectionless: No connection setup before transmission.
o Unreliable: Data is sent without acknowledgment, and packets may
be lost.
o Faster: No flow control or error correction makes it faster but less
reliable.
o Use Case: Suitable for real-time applications where speed is more
important than reliability, such as video streaming (e.g., YouTube),
VoIP (Voice over IP), and online gaming.
For real-time applications like video streaming, UDP is generally preferred
because it allows faster data transmission, even though some data loss may occur,
which is acceptable in most real-time scenarios (e.g., video or voice calls).
3. What is DNS and how does it work?
Question:
What is DNS (Domain Name System), and explain how it works in a network?
Answer:
DNS (Domain Name System) is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system
used to translate domain names (human-readable addresses like
www.example.com) into IP addresses (numerical addresses like 192.168.1.1) that
computers use to identify each other on the network.
How DNS works:
1. User Request: When a user enters a website URL in their browser, the
browser checks the local cache to see if the IP address of the domain is
already stored.
2. Recursive DNS Query: If the address isn't in the cache, the browser sends a
request to a recursive DNS resolver (usually provided by the ISP).
3. Root DNS Servers: The resolver queries the root DNS servers to get the
address of a Top-Level Domain (TLD) server (e.g., .com).
4. TLD DNS Servers: The TLD server (like .com) then points to the
authoritative DNS server for the specific domain.

14
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

5. Authoritative DNS Servers: Finally, the authoritative DNS server for the
domain provides the IP address of the website, allowing the browser to
access the website.
6. Response to User: The IP address is returned to the user's browser, which
then connects to the website using that IP address.
4. What is an IP address, and what is the difference between IPv4 and IPv6?
Question:
What is an IP address, and what is the difference between IPv4 and IPv6?
Answer:
An IP address (Internet Protocol address) is a unique numerical identifier assigned
to each device connected to a network, allowing devices to communicate with each
other over the internet or a local network.
IPv4 (Internet Protocol version 4):
 Format: IPv4 addresses are 32-bit numbers, written in four decimal
numbers separated by periods (e.g., 192.168.1.1).
 Address Space: Can support about 4.3 billion unique addresses.
 Exhaustion: IPv4 addresses are running out due to the growing number of
devices.
IPv6 (Internet Protocol version 6):
 Format: IPv6 addresses are 128-bit numbers, written in eight groups of four
hexadecimal digits (e.g., 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334).
 Address Space: Can support an almost unlimited number of unique
addresses (approximately 340 undecillion addresses).
 Benefits: IPv6 solves the issue of address exhaustion in IPv4 and provides
better security features like mandatory IPsec encryption.
Key Differences:
 IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses, while IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses.
 IPv6 provides a much larger address space compared to IPv4.
 IPv6 has enhanced security features like IPsec support, which is optional in
IPv4.
5. What is a Firewall and how does it help in network security?
Question:
What is a firewall, and how does it contribute to network security?
Answer:
A firewall is a network security system designed to monitor and control incoming
and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. It serves as a
barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted external networks, such as
the internet.
How Firewalls Contribute to Network Security:

15
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

1. Packet Filtering: Firewalls inspect each packet that passes through the
network and determine whether it should be allowed or blocked based on
rules like IP addresses, port numbers, or protocols.
2. Stateful Inspection: Firewalls track the state of active connections and
make decisions based on the context of the traffic (e.g., allowing responses
from initiated connections).
3. Proxying and NAT: Firewalls can act as a proxy, masking the internal
network's IP addresses and providing Network Address Translation (NAT)
to make internal IP addresses private.
4. Access Control: They help in setting rules for what internal users can
access, ensuring that unauthorized users are blocked from accessing
sensitive data or systems.
5. Prevention of Malware and Attacks: Firewalls block malicious traffic,
including viruses, worms, and denial-of-service (DoS) attacks.
Firewalls are a crucial part of an organization's security infrastructure, especially in
protecting data integrity and confidentiality in MIS applications.
6. What is VPN (Virtual Private Network) and how does it work?
Question:
What is a VPN, and how does it work?
Answer:
A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology that creates a secure, encrypted
connection over a less secure network, typically the internet. It allows users to send
data securely over a public network as if they were directly connected to a private
network.
How VPN Works:
1. Encryption: The VPN client encrypts the user's data before it is sent over
the internet to the VPN server, ensuring confidentiality.
2. Tunneling: The encrypted data travels through a "tunnel" between the client
and the server. The tunnel ensures that the data remains secure while
traveling through untrusted networks (like public Wi-Fi).
3. Authentication: The VPN server authenticates the user to ensure they have
access to the network.
4. Data Decryption: Upon reaching the VPN server, the data is decrypted and
then sent to the destination network.
Use Cases for VPNs:
 Secure Remote Access: Employees can securely access the corporate
network from remote locations.
 Data Privacy: VPNs provide privacy by masking the user’s IP address and
location, making it harder for third parties to track online activity.

16
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

These questions cover essential networking concepts and technologies important

for MIS students, with a focus on how networking impacts and integrates with
management information systems.
▎Operating Systems
Question 4: What is a deadlock in operating systems?
Answer: A deadlock is a situation in a multiprogramming environment where two
or more processes are unable to proceed because each is waiting for the other to
release resources. In essence, each process holds a resource that the other needs to
continue execution.
Operating Systems NGAT exam with answer for MIS
It looks like you're asking for Operating System-related exam questions with
answers, particularly for MIS (Management Information Systems) in the context of
an NGAT exam. While there isn't a specific "NGAT Exam," I can provide a set of
Operating System (OS) questions and answers that could be relevant for an MIS-
oriented exam. These questions will focus on core OS concepts and how they
relate to management information systems, which typically involve data
management, multi-tasking, security, and efficient use of resources.
Here are some sample Operating System-related questions with answers:
1. What is an Operating System (OS)? Explain its main functions.
Question:
What is an Operating System, and what are its primary functions?
Answer:
An Operating System (OS) is system software that manages hardware and
software resources on a computer. It acts as an intermediary between the user and
the computer hardware and provides a user interface.
Primary functions of an OS:
1. Process Management: The OS manages processes, ensuring that each
process gets enough resources and that they execute efficiently. It also
handles process scheduling and multitasking.
2. Memory Management: The OS allocates and deallocates memory to
processes. It also ensures that one process cannot interfere with the memory
of another (using techniques like paging or segmentation).
3. File System Management: It organizes, stores, retrieves, and manages files
on storage devices (like hard drives). It provides a hierarchical structure for
file management and security.
4. Device Management: The OS manages input/output devices (like printers,
keyboards, and monitors) by using device drivers, which act as
intermediaries between the hardware and software.

17
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

5. Security and Access Control: The OS enforces security measures like user
authentication, file permissions, and encryption to protect the system from
unauthorized access.
6. User Interface: The OS provides an interface for users to interact with the
computer (such as command-line interface or graphical user interface).
2. What is the difference between Process and Thread in an Operating
System?
Question:
Explain the difference between a process and a thread in an operating system.
Answer:
A process and a thread are fundamental concepts in operating systems related to
execution and resource management. The difference between them is as follows:
1. Process:
o A process is an independent program in execution, which has its own
memory space, data, and resources.
o Each process runs independently and is isolated from other processes.
o A process may contain multiple threads (multi-threading).
o It includes the program code, data, and system resources necessary for
its execution.
o Switching between processes requires more time and system resources
(context switching).
2. Thread:
o A thread is the smallest unit of a CPU’s execution. It is a part of a
process.
o Threads within the same process share the same memory space and
resources.
o Threads are used for parallel execution within a process.
o Threads within the same process can communicate more easily than
processes.
o Switching between threads (thread scheduling) is faster and requires
fewer resources than switching between processes.
Key Differences:
 Processes are independent, while threads share resources within a process.
 Threads are more lightweight than processes and are used for more efficient
execution and parallelism.
3. What is Virtual Memory? Explain its purpose.
Question:
What is virtual memory, and why is it used in modern operating systems?
Answer:

18
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Virtual memory is a memory management technique that allows an operating

system to use hardware storage (like hard drives or SSDs) to simulate additional
memory beyond the physical RAM available on the system. It enables large
applications or multiple programs to run simultaneously by giving each process the
illusion of having its own large and contiguous block of memory.
Purpose and Benefits of Virtual Memory:
1. Memory Isolation: Virtual memory isolates processes from each other,
preventing them from directly accessing each other's memory. This
improves security and stability.
2. Efficient Memory Usage: It allows the OS to use physical memory more
efficiently, even if it’s running multiple large applications that exceed the
available physical RAM.
3. Enables Multitasking: Virtual memory allows multiple processes to run
concurrently, with each process appearing to have access to its own
dedicated memory space, even if physical memory is limited.
4. Swapping: The OS can move data between physical RAM and disk storage
(called swapping or paging), freeing up memory for other processes.
5. Support for Larger Applications: Virtual memory enables applications to
use more memory than physically available by utilizing disk space, making
it possible for large programs to run on smaller machines.
4. What is a Deadlock? How can an Operating System prevent or handle
deadlock situations?
Question:
What is deadlock in an operating system, and how can it be prevented or handled?
Answer:
A deadlock occurs when two or more processes are blocked indefinitely because
they are each waiting for a resource that the other holds. This leads to a situation
where none of the processes can proceed, and the system halts.
Conditions for Deadlock:
1. Mutual Exclusion: At least one resource must be in non-shareable mode
(i.e., it can be used by only one process at a time).
2. Hold and Wait: A process holding one resource is waiting for additional
resources that are held by other processes.
3. No Preemption: Resources cannot be forcibly taken away from a process
holding them until the resource is released voluntarily.
4. Circular Wait: A circular chain of processes exists, where each process
holds at least one resource and is waiting for a resource held by the next
process in the chain.
Methods to Prevent or Handle Deadlock:

19
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

1. Deadlock Prevention:
o Avoid one of the necessary conditions for deadlock (e.g., disallowing
hold and wait by requiring processes to request all resources at once).
2. Deadlock Avoidance:
o Use algorithms like Banker's Algorithm to allocate resources only if
it’s safe (i.e., it ensures no circular wait).
3. Deadlock Detection:
o Allow deadlock to occur, but periodically check for deadlocks and
take action (such as aborting a process or rolling back to a safe state).
4. Deadlock Recovery:
o After deadlock detection, the system may recover by terminating one
or more processes or preempting resources from certain processes.
5. Explain the concept of File System and its types.
Question:
What is a file system, and what are the common types of file systems used in
operating systems?
Answer:
A file system is a way of organizing and storing data on a storage device (such as a
hard drive, SSD, or USB drive). It manages how data is stored, retrieved, and
updated in the form of files and directories.
Common Types of File Systems:
1. FAT (File Allocation Table):
o Used in: Older systems, USB drives, and memory cards.
o Characteristics: Simple structure with limitations in terms of file size
and the number of files supported.
o Subtypes: FAT12, FAT16, FAT32.
2. NTFS (New Technology File System):
o Used in: Windows operating systems (XP, 7, 8, 10, 11).
o Characteristics: Supports large file sizes, file permissions,
encryption, compression, and journaling (for data integrity).
o Advantages: More secure, efficient, and fault-tolerant than FAT.
3. EXT (Extended File System):
o Used in: Linux operating systems.
o Characteristics: EXT is a family of file systems, with EXT4 being
the most commonly used version.
o Advantages: EXT4 supports large file sizes, journaling, and extended
attributes (like file permissions).
4. HFS+ (Hierarchical File System Plus):
o Used in: macOS.

20
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

o Characteristics: A high-performance file system designed by Apple

for macOS, supporting features like journaling and metadata.
5. APFS (Apple File System):
o Used in: Newer versions of macOS and iOS.
o Characteristics: Optimized for solid-state drives (SSDs) with support
for encryption, snapshots, and fast directory sizing.
6. What is a Multitasking Operating System? How does it benefit users?
Question:
What is a multitasking operating system, and what are its benefits?
Answer:
A multitasking operating system is an OS that allows multiple processes or tasks
to run concurrently by managing the system's resources effectively. It creates the
illusion that tasks are running simultaneously by rapidly switching between them
(time-sharing).
Benefits of Multitasking:
1. Improved Efficiency: Multiple programs can run at the same time,
increasing overall system utilization and reducing idle time for the CPU.
2. Better User Experience: Users can switch between applications seamlessly,
allowing them to work on several tasks without waiting for each one to
finish.
3. Resource Optimization: The OS can allocate resources to different tasks
dynamically, ensuring that no single task monopolizes CPU time.
4. Concurrent Execution of Background Tasks: Users can run background
tasks (like file downloads or data backups) while still interacting with the
system for other tasks.
These questions provide a foundation for understanding core operating system
concepts that are directly relevant to an MIS curriculum. An understanding of how
operating systems manage processes, memory, file systems, and resources is
critical for efficiently running and managing information systems.
▎DBMS (Database Management System)
Question 5: What is normalization in databases?
Answer: Normalization is the process of organizing data in a database to
reduce redundancy and improve data integrity. It involves dividing large tables
into smaller ones and defining relationships between them to ensure that
dependencies are properly enforced.
DBMS (Database Management System) NGAT exam for MIS
It looks like you're asking for Database Management System (DBMS) exam
questions with answers, specifically in the context of MIS (Management
Information Systems) for an NGAT exam. While there isn’t a specific "NGAT"

21
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

DBMS exam, I can provide you with a series of sample questions and answers that
are relevant for MIS students. These questions will cover the fundamental DBMS
concepts, SQL, database design, and their application to management information
systems.
Here are some sample DBMS-related questions with answers that would be
suitable for an MIS-oriented exam:
1. What is a Database Management System (DBMS)? Explain its types.
Question:
What is a Database Management System (DBMS), and what are its different
types?
Answer:
A Database Management System (DBMS) is software that facilitates the
creation, management, and manipulation of databases. It provides an interface for
users and applications to interact with databases in an organized and efficient
manner. The DBMS ensures that data is stored securely, retrieved efficiently, and
managed effectively.
Types of DBMS:
1. Hierarchical DBMS:
o Data is organized in a tree-like structure (parent-child relationships).
o Example: IBM's Information Management System (IMS).
o Advantages: Simple structure and fast for certain types of queries.
o Disadvantages: Limited flexibility and difficult to restructure.
2. Network DBMS:
o Data is represented using a graph structure with nodes and
connections, where each record can have multiple parent and child
records.
o Example: Integrated Data Store (IDS).
o Advantages: More flexible than hierarchical models.
o Disadvantages: Complex to design and manage.
3. Relational DBMS (RDBMS):
o Data is organized into tables (relations) with rows (tuples) and
columns (attributes).
o Example: MySQL, Oracle, Microsoft SQL Server.
o Advantages: Simple structure, easy to manage and query using SQL.
o Disadvantages: Can be less efficient for handling very large volumes
of data.
4. Object-Oriented DBMS (OODBMS):
o Data is stored as objects, similar to how objects are represented in
object-oriented programming languages.

22
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

o Example: ObjectDB, db4o.

o Advantages: Better suited for applications that use complex data
types.
o Disadvantages: Less mature and widely used compared to relational
databases.
5. NoSQL DBMS:
o Designed to handle large volumes of unstructured or semi-structured
data (e.g., documents, key-value pairs, wide-column stores).
o Example: MongoDB, Cassandra, Redis.
o Advantages: Highly scalable and flexible for non-relational data.
o Disadvantages: Lack of standardization and consistency in some
models.
2. Explain the concept of Normalization. What are its different forms?
Question:
What is Normalization in DBMS, and what are the different normal forms?
Answer:
Normalization is the process of organizing data in a database to reduce
redundancy and improve data integrity. The goal is to minimize data duplication
and ensure that data dependencies are logical and manageable.
Different Normal Forms:
1. First Normal Form (1NF):
o Each table should have a primary key, and all columns must contain
atomic (indivisible) values. No repeating groups or arrays are allowed.
2. Second Normal Form (2NF):
o Achieved by ensuring that a table is in 1NF and that all non-key
attributes are fully dependent on the entire primary key (eliminating
partial dependencies).
3. Third Normal Form (3NF):
o A table is in 2NF and has no transitive dependencies (i.e., non-key
attributes should not depend on other non-key attributes).
4. Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF):
o A stricter version of 3NF, where every determinant is a candidate key
(i.e., for every functional dependency, the left side must be a
superkey).
5. Fourth Normal Form (4NF):
o A table is in BCNF and has no multi-valued dependencies (i.e., no
attribute sets that depend on another set of attributes, but not on a
primary key).
6. Fifth Normal Form (5NF):

23
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

o A table is in 4NF and has no join dependencies, meaning that data

should be decomposed into smaller tables in such a way that they can
be reconstructed without loss of information.
3. What is SQL? Write a query to retrieve data from multiple tables using
JOIN.
Question:
What is SQL (Structured Query Language), and write an SQL query to retrieve
data from two tables, employees and departments, using a JOIN operation.
Answer:
SQL (Structured Query Language) is a standard programming language used to
manage and manipulate relational databases. It provides commands for querying,
updating, inserting, and deleting data in a database.
SQL JOIN is used to combine rows from two or more tables based on a related
column between them.
SQL Query with JOIN:
sql
SELECT employees.employee_id, employees.name,
departments.department_name
FROM employees
JOIN departments ON employees.department_id = departments.department_id;
Explanation:
 The query retrieves the employee_id, name, and department_name from the
employees and departments tables.
 The JOIN operation combines the two tables based on the matching
department_id field in both tables.
Types of Joins:
1. INNER JOIN: Returns records with matching values in both tables.
2. LEFT JOIN (or LEFT OUTER JOIN): Returns all records from the left
table, and matching records from the right table (if no match, returns
NULL).
3. RIGHT JOIN (or RIGHT OUTER JOIN): Returns all records from the
right table, and matching records from the left table (if no match, returns
NULL).
4. FULL OUTER JOIN: Returns records when there is a match in either left
or right table.
4. What is the ACID property in DBMS? Explain its importance.
Question:
What are the ACID properties in DBMS, and why are they important?
Answer:

24
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

The ACID properties are a set of four properties that ensure database transactions
are processed reliably:
1. Atomicity:
o A transaction is either fully completed or not executed at all. If a
transaction cannot be completed, it is rolled back to maintain
consistency.
o Importance: Ensures that partial updates do not leave the database in
an inconsistent state.
2. Consistency:
o A transaction takes the database from one consistent state to another,
ensuring that all rules, constraints, and integrity checks are followed.
o Importance: Ensures that only valid data is written to the database
and maintains the integrity of the database.
3. Isolation:
o Transactions are executed in isolation from one another. The changes
made by one transaction are not visible to other transactions until it is
committed.
o Importance: Prevents conflicts and ensures that concurrent
transactions do not interfere with each other.
4. Durability:
o Once a transaction is committed, its changes are permanent, even if
the system crashes.
o Importance: Ensures that committed data is not lost and is preserved
across system failures.
Importance of ACID in DBMS:
 ACID properties are essential for maintaining the reliability, integrity, and
correctness of database operations, especially in multi-user environments
like those used in management information systems (MIS).
 They ensure that database operations are secure, consistent, and free from
errors, which is critical for decision-making and accurate reporting in MIS.
5. What is a Primary Key and a Foreign Key? Explain their roles in database
design.
Question:
What is the difference between a Primary Key and a Foreign Key in DBMS?
Explain their roles in database design.
Answer:
 Primary Key:

25
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

o A Primary Key is a field or combination of fields that uniquely

identifies each record in a table. Each table can have only one primary
key, and it cannot have NULL values.
o Role: Ensures that each record in the table is unique and can be
reliably identified.
 Foreign Key:
o A Foreign Key is a field or combination of fields in one table that
refers to the primary key in another table. It creates a relationship
between the two tables.
o Role: Ensures referential integrity by enforcing that every value in the
foreign key field matches a value in the referenced table's primary
key. It links related records across tables.
Example: Consider two tables: employees and departments.
 The employees table has a primary key employee_id.
 The departments table has a primary key department_id.
 In the employees table, there is a foreign key department_id that references
the primary key department_id in the departments table.
sql
Copy code
-- employees table
CREATE TABLE employees (
employee_id INT PRIMARY KEY,
name VARCHAR(100),
department_id INT,
FOREIGN KEY (department_id) REFERENCES departments(department_id)
);
6. Explain what is meant by 'Data Redundancy' and how it can be avoided in
DBMS.
Question:
What is data redundancy in a DBMS, and how can it be avoided?
Answer:
Data Redundancy refers to the unnecessary duplication of data in a database. It
occurs when the same piece of data is stored in multiple places, leading to storage
inefficiency and potential inconsistency.
How Data Redundancy can be Avoided:
1. Normalization:
o By organizing the data into separate tables and minimizing
duplication, normalization reduces data redundancy. Each data item is

26
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

stored only once, and relationships between tables are established

using keys.
2. Data Integrity Constraints:
o Enforcing constraints such as primary keys, foreign keys, and unique
constraints helps prevent redundancy by ensuring that data is
consistent and correctly related.
3. Use of Views:
o Database views can present a logical representation of data from
multiple tables without physically duplicating data.
These questions and answers cover core DBMS topics like normalization, SQL
▎HTML
Question 6: What does HTML stand for and what is its purpose?
Answer: HTML stands for HyperText Markup Language. It is the standard markup
language used to create and design documents on the World Wide Web. HTML
elements are used to structure content on web pages.
HTML exam with answer for MIS MSc entrance exam
Here are some sample HTML questions along with their answers, specifically
tailored for an MSc in Management Information Systems (MIS) entrance exam.
These questions cover the basic to intermediate level of HTML, which is important
for students in MIS who need to understand how to work with web-based
technologies and manage digital content.
1. What is HTML? Explain its basic structure.
Question:
What is HTML (Hypertext Markup Language), and explain its basic structure?
Answer:
HTML (Hypertext Markup Language) is the standard markup language used to
create and design webpages. It structures the content on the web, such as text,
images, links, tables, forms, and multimedia elements.
Basic Structure of an HTML document:
html
<!DOCTYPE html> <!-- Declaration that defines the document type -->
<html> <!-- Root element of the HTML page -->
<head> <!-- Contains metadata and links to external resources like CSS files -->
<title>Page Title</title> <!-- The title of the web page, visible on the browser
tab -->
</head>
<body> <!-- Contains the visible content of the webpage -->
<h1>This is a Heading</h1> <!-- Main heading -->
<p>This is a paragraph of text.</p> <!-- A paragraph of text -->

27
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

</body>
</html>
Explanation:
 <!DOCTYPE html>: Declares the document type and version of HTML
(HTML5 in this case).
 <html>: The root element that contains all other HTML elements.
 <head>: Contains metadata about the HTML document (like title, character
set, CSS, etc.).
 <title>: Defines the title of the webpage, which appears on the browser's tab.
 <body>: Contains the actual content that will be displayed on the webpage.
2. What is the purpose of the <head> and <body> tags in HTML?
Question:
Explain the purpose of the <head> and <body> tags in HTML.
Answer:
1. <head>:
o The <head> tag contains meta-information about the HTML
document. This includes the document’s title, links to external files
(such as CSS, JavaScript), and metadata (like character encoding or
author information).
o Example:
html
Copy code
<head>
<meta charset="UTF-8"> <!-- Specifies the character encoding -->
<title>Page Title</title> <!-- Title of the page -->
<link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="styles.css"> <!-- Link to
external CSS file -->
</head>
2. <body>:
o The <body> tag contains the actual content that will be displayed on
the webpage, such as text, images, links, forms, tables, and other
media.
o Example:
html
Copy code
<body>
<h1>Welcome to My Website</h1> <!-- Heading -->
<p>This is a paragraph.</p> <!-- Text content -->
</body>

28
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Difference:
 <head> is used for metadata and resources that are not directly displayed on
the page.
 <body> contains the content that is visible on the webpage.
3. What are the different types of lists in HTML? Explain with examples.
Question:
What are the different types of lists in HTML, and explain them with examples?
Answer:
In HTML, there are three main types of lists:
1. Ordered List (<ol>):
o An ordered list is used to display a list of items in a specific sequence.
Items in an ordered list are numbered by default.
o Example:
html
Copy code
<ol>
<li>First item</li>
<li>Second item</li>
<li>Third item</li>
</ol>
o Output:
1. First item
2. Second item
3. Third item
2. Unordered List (<ul>):
o An unordered list is used to display a list of items without any specific
order. Items are typically marked with bullets.
o Example:
html
Copy code
<ul>
<li>Apple</li>
<li>Banana</li>
<li>Orange</li>
</ul>
o Output:
 Apple
 Banana
 Orange

29
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

3. Definition List (<dl>):

o A definition list is used to display a list of terms and their definitions.
o Example:
html
Copy code
<dl>
<dt>HTML</dt>
<dd>Hypertext Markup Language</dd>
<dt>CSS</dt>
<dd>Cascading Style Sheets</dd>
</dl>
o Output:
 HTML: Hypertext Markup Language
 CSS: Cascading Style Sheets
4. What is the purpose of the <a> tag in HTML? How can you link an external
webpage?
Question:
What is the <a> tag in HTML, and how can you use it to link to an external
webpage?
Answer:
The <a> tag in HTML is used to define a hyperlink. It allows you to link one
webpage to another, or link to a different section of the same webpage.
To link an external webpage, you use the href attribute to specify the destination
URL.
Example of linking to an external webpage:
html
<a href="https://www.example.com">Visit Example Website</a>
 href stands for "hyperlink reference," and it specifies the URL of the page
you want to link to.
 The text between the opening and closing <a> tags ("Visit Example
Website") will appear as a clickable link.
5. Explain how you can create a form in HTML. Provide an example.
Question:
How do you create a form in HTML? Provide an example.
Answer:
To create a form in HTML, the <form> tag is used, and it can contain various
input elements like text fields, checkboxes, radio buttons, and a submit button.
Basic Form Example:
html

30
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

<form action="/submit_form" method="POST">

<label for="name">Name:</label>
<input type="text" id="name" name="name" required>
<label for="email">Email:</label>
<input type="email" id="email" name="email" required>
<label for="gender">Gender:</label>
<input type="radio" id="male" name="gender" value="male">
<label for="male">Male</label>
<input type="radio" id="female" name="gender" value="female">
<label for="female">Female</label>
<input type="submit" value="Submit">
</form>
Explanation:
 <form>: Defines the form. The action attribute specifies where the form
data will be submitted, and the method attribute defines how data is sent
(GET or POST).
 <input>: Defines various types of inputs. In this example, text fields, email
fields, and radio buttons are used.
 <label>: Provides a label for the form elements to improve accessibility.
 <input type="submit">: Defines the submit button.
6. What is an image tag in HTML? How do you embed an image in a
webpage?
Question:
What is the <img> tag in HTML, and how do you use it to embed an image in a
webpage?
Answer:
The <img> tag in HTML is used to embed an image in a webpage. It does not have
a closing tag and requires the src attribute to specify the path of the image file.
Example:
html
<img src="image.jpg" alt="A sample image" width="300" height="200">
 src: Specifies the source of the image file (either relative or absolute path).
 alt: Provides alternative text that is displayed if the image cannot be loaded
(important for accessibility).
 width and height: Define the dimensions of the image (optional).
7. What is the difference between the <div> and <span> tags in HTML?
Question:
Explain the difference between the <div> and <span> tags in HTML.
Answer:

31
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 <div>:
o A block-level element used to group large chunks of content (such as
paragraphs, images, and other block-level elements). It starts on a new
line and takes up the full width available.
o Example:
html
Copy code
<div>
<h1>Welcome</h1>
<p>This is a paragraph.</p>
</div>
 <span>:
o An inline element used to group a small section of text or other inline
elements for styling or scripting. It does not cause a line break and
only takes up the width of the content inside it.
o Example:
html
Copy code
<p>This is a <span style="color: red;">highlighted</span> text.</p>
Difference:
 <div> is used for larger sections of content and is a block-level element,
while <span> is for smaller parts of content and is an inline element.
These sample questions and answers should help you prepare for the HTML
portion of an MSc MIS entrance exam. They cover basic HTML concepts and will
test your ability to structure and present content on the web.
▎IP (Internet Protocol)
Question 7: What is the difference between IPv4 and IPv6?
Answer: IPv4 (Internet Protocol version 4) uses a 32-bit address scheme allowing
for approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses. IPv6 (Internet Protocol version 6)
uses a 128-bit address scheme, allowing for a vastly larger number of unique
addresses (approximately 340 undecillionth addresses) to accommodate the
growing number of devices connected to the internet.
IP (Internet Protocol) NGAT entrance exam for MIS MSc with answer
Here are some sample questions and answers based on Internet Protocol (IP),
which is essential knowledge for MIS students preparing for an entrance exam,
specifically for an MSc in Management Information Systems (MIS). These
questions focus on networking concepts like IP addressing, routing, and the
differences between IPv4 and IPv6.
1. What is the Internet Protocol (IP)? Explain its function in networking.

32
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question:
What is the Internet Protocol (IP), and what is its primary function in computer
networking?
Answer:
The Internet Protocol (IP) is a set of rules that governs how data is sent and
received over a network, especially the internet. IP defines the format of packets,
including the source and destination addresses, allowing data to travel between
devices on a network.
Primary Functions of IP:
1. Addressing: IP assigns unique addresses to devices on a network. These
addresses are used to route data to the correct destination.
2. Marketization: IP breaks down large amounts of data into smaller packets
for transmission. Each packet is routed independently and reassembled at the
destination.
3. Routing: IP determines the best path for data to travel from the source to the
destination, ensuring data reaches the correct device.
2. Explain the difference between IPv4 and IPv6.
Question:
What is the difference between IPv4 and IPv6 in terms of address format and
capabilities?
Answer:
IPv4 (Internet Protocol version 4) and IPv6 (Internet Protocol version 6) are
both versions of the Internet Protocol, but they differ significantly in terms of
address length and capabilities.
1. IPv4:
o Address Format: IPv4 addresses are 32-bit long, written as four
decimal numbers separated by periods (e.g., 192.168.1.1).
o Number of Addresses: IPv4 can support about 4.3 billion unique
addresses (2^32).
o Address Classes: IPv4 has several address classes (A, B, C, D, E)
used for different purposes (e.g., private addresses, multicast
addresses).
o Limitations: Due to the rapid growth of the internet, IPv4 address
space is running out, leading to the need for IPv6.
2. IPv6:
o Address Format: IPv6 addresses are 128-bit long, written as eight
groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by colons (e.g.,
2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334).

33
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

o Number of Addresses: IPv6 can support a vastly larger number of

addresses—approximately 340 undecillion (3.4 × 10^38).
o Address Types: IPv6 introduces new types of addresses, such as link-
local addresses, multicast addresses, and global addresses.
o Improved Features: IPv6 includes better support for security (IPsec),
auto-configuration, and no need for NAT (Network Address
Translation).
Summary:
 IPv4 has a limited address space (32-bit), while IPv6 has a much larger
address space (128-bit).
 IPv6 addresses are written in hexadecimal format and support more
advanced features, making it the future standard for IP addressing.
3. What is an IP address and how is it structured?
Question:
What is an IP address, and how is it structured in both IPv4 and IPv6?
Answer:
An IP address is a unique identifier assigned to every device connected to a
network. It allows devices to communicate with each other over the internet or a
local network.
1. IPv4 Address Structure:
o Format: An IPv4 address is composed of four 8-bit segments (octets)
separated by periods. Each octet can represent a number from 0 to
255.
o Example: 192.168.1.1
o Classes: IPv4 addresses are often divided into different classes (A, B,
C) based on the range of numbers they represent. These classes are
used to define network sizes.
2. IPv6 Address Structure:
o Format: An IPv6 address consists of eight groups of four
hexadecimal digits separated by colons. Each group represents 16 bits.
o Example: 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
o Shortening: IPv6 allows shorthand notation by omitting leading zeros
in each block and replacing consecutive blocks of zeros with a double
colon (::), but this can only be done once in an address.
Key Points:
 IPv4 has a 32-bit address structure.
 IPv6 has a 128-bit address structure and uses hexadecimal for greater
address space.
4. What is a subnet mask, and why is it important in IP networking?

34
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question:
What is a subnet mask, and how is it used in IP networking?
Answer:
A subnet mask is a 32-bit number used to divide an IP address into two parts: the
network part and the host part. It is used in conjunction with an IP address to
determine which portion of the IP address refers to the network and which part
refers to the device (host) within that network.
Function:
 The network portion of the IP address is determined by the number of 1's in
the subnet mask.
 The host portion is determined by the number of 0's in the subnet mask.
 Subletting allows a network to be broken into smaller sub-networks,
increasing efficiency and security.
Example: For the IP address 192.168.1.10 and subnet mask 255.255.255.0:
 The subnet mask 255.255.255.0 means the first 24 bits (192.168.1) are the
network part, and the remaining 8 bits (.10) are the host part.
 This allows for 256 possible IP addresses (including network address and
broadcast address).
Importance:
 Subnet masks help in determining whether an IP address is within the same
local network or needs to be routed to a different network.
 They enable efficient use of IP address space by creating smaller
subnetworks.
5. What is the role of the IP header in an IP packet?
Question:
What is the role of the IP header in an IP packet, and what information does it
contain?
Answer:
The IP header is the first part of an IP packet and contains crucial information
required to deliver the packet to its destination. It helps routers and devices
understand how to route and process the packet.
Key Fields in the IP Header (IPv4):
1. Version: Specifies the IP version being used (IPv4 or IPv6).
2. Header Length: The length of the IP header in 32-bit words.
3. Type of Service (TOS): Indicates the quality of service required (e.g.,
priority or delay).
4. Total Length: The total size of the IP packet, including header and data.
5. Identification: Used for fragmenting and reassembling packets.
6. Flags: Used to control fragmentation of the packet.

35
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

7. Fragment Offset: Indicates where the fragment belongs in the original

packet.
8. Time to Live (TTL): Limits the lifetime of the packet, preventing it from
circulating indefinitely.
9. Protocol: Indicates the protocol used in the data portion (e.g., TCP, UDP).
10.Source IP Address: The sender's IP address.
11.Destination IP Address: The recipient's IP address.
12.Checksum: Used for error-checking the header.
Importance:
 The IP header provides all necessary information to route and deliver the
data correctly across the network.
 It helps with packet fragmentation and reassembly, ensuring large messages
are transmitted efficiently.
6. What is NAT (Network Address Translation), and how does it work?
Question:
What is Network Address Translation (NAT), and how does it help in managing
IP addresses in a network?
Answer:
Network Address Translation (NAT) is a technique used in networking to map a
private IP address to a public IP address and vice versa. It is commonly used in
routers to enable multiple devices on a local network to share a single public IP
address for communication with external networks (like the internet).
How NAT Works:
 When a device on a local network (e.g., 192.168.1.2) sends a request to the
internet, the router replaces the private IP address with its public IP address.
 The router keeps track of the translation in a NAT table. When a response
comes back, the router uses the table to send the data to the correct device on
the local network.
Types of NAT:
1. Static NAT: One-to-one mapping between private and public IP addresses.
2. Dynamic NAT: A private IP is mapped to a public IP from a pool of
available addresses.
3. PAT (Port Address Translation): A form of dynamic NAT where multiple
private IP addresses share a single public IP address, differentiated by port
numbers.
Benefits of NAT:
 Conserves the number of public IP addresses needed.
 Provides an added layer of security by hiding internal IP addresses from
external networks.

36
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

These questions and answers cover the basics of Internet Protocol (IP),
networking concepts, and their applications. They are designed to help you prepare
for an NGAT (or other entrance exams) focused on Networking for an MSc in
Management Information Systems (MIS).
▎MIS (Management Information Systems)
Question 8: What are the main components of an MIS?
Answer: The main components of a Management Information System (MIS)
include:
1. People: Users who interact with the system.
2. Technology: Hardware and software used to process data.
3. Data: Information that is processed and stored.
4. Procedures: Policies and procedures that govern the operation of the system.
5. Feedback Mechanism: To evaluate system performance and make necessary
adjustments.
These questions cover various topics relevant to a Computer Science MSc entrance
exam. You can expand upon these subjects or create more questions based on
specific areas of interest or focus within your curriculum.
MIS (Management Information Systems) NGAT exam with answers for MIS
MSc entrance exam
Below are sample Management Information Systems (MIS) NGAT (National
Graduate Aptitude Test) exam questions with answers that would be relevant for
an MSc in Management Information Systems (MIS) entrance exam.
1. What is Management Information System (MIS)? Explain its importance in
an organization.
Question:
What is Management Information System (MIS), and why is it important for an
organization?
Answer:
A Management Information System (MIS) is a system used to collect, process,
store, and disseminate information to support decision-making, coordination,
control, analysis, and visualization within an organization. MIS helps organizations
to manage their resources, improve efficiency, and facilitate decision-making
processes.
Importance of MIS in an organization:
1. Decision Support: MIS provides accurate and timely data to managers,
helping them make informed decisions.
2. Operational Efficiency: It automates routine tasks and processes,
increasing productivity and reducing manual effort.

37
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

3. Strategic Planning: MIS helps in analyzing market trends and business

operations, aiding in long-term strategic planning.
4. Improved Communication: It helps improve communication within
different departments and between management levels.
5. Control and Monitoring: MIS provides tools for monitoring performance,
ensuring that the organization’s goals are met.
2. What are the components of an Information System?
Question:
List and explain the key components of an Information System.
Answer:
An Information System (IS) consists of five main components:
1. Hardware: The physical devices and equipment used to collect, process,
store, and disseminate information (e.g., computers, servers, networking
equipment).
2. Software: The programs and applications that process the data and facilitate
communication between hardware components (e.g., operating systems,
database management systems, enterprise software).
3. Data: The raw facts and figures that are processed into useful information.
Data can be in various forms, such as text, numbers, images, and more.
4. People: The users who interact with the information system, including IT
professionals, managers, and end-users. People are responsible for inputting
data, interpreting results, and making decisions based on system outputs.
5. Processes: The procedures or rules followed to process the data and convert
it into useful information. Processes also involve decision-making and the
workflow within the system.
3. What is Decision Support System (DSS)? How does it differ from MIS?
Question:
What is a Decision Support System (DSS), and how does it differ from a
Management Information System (MIS)?
Answer:
A Decision Support System (DSS) is an interactive software-based system
designed to help managers make decisions by analyzing large amounts of data,
often from internal and external sources. It is used to support decision-making in
situations where there is uncertainty or complex variables involved.
Differences between MIS and DSS:
1. Purpose:
o MIS: Primarily designed to provide routine, structured reports and
information to help in day-to-day operations and decision-making.

38
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

o DSS: Aimed at helping managers make non-routine, complex

decisions by analyzing data and providing decision alternatives.
2. Scope:
o MIS: Focuses on generating predefined reports and summaries of past
performance (e.g., sales reports, financial statements).
o DSS: Helps analyze different scenarios, forecast outcomes, and make
decisions based on what-if analysis or simulation.
3. Data Processing:
o MIS: Uses historical data and focuses on summarizing past
performance.
o DSS: Uses current and historical data, and incorporates models and
analytics to support decision-making.
4. What is ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning)? Describe its role in business
operations.
Question:
What is ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning), and how does it help in business
operations?
Answer:
Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) refers to integrated software systems used
by organizations to manage and automate core business processes. These systems
integrate various business functions such as finance, human resources,
manufacturing, supply chain, sales, and inventory into a unified system.
Role of ERP in business operations:
1. Data Integration: ERP consolidates data from different departments,
allowing for seamless communication and decision-making.
2. Efficiency: By automating business processes, ERP reduces manual effort
and streamlines tasks like order processing, inventory management, and
payroll.
3. Real-Time Information: ERP systems provide up-to-date information on
business operations, improving decision-making and response times.
4. Cost Reduction: ERP helps businesses minimize costs by optimizing
resources, improving productivity, and reducing errors.
5. Standardization: It standardizes business practices and ensures compliance
with industry regulations.
5. What are the types of Information Systems used in an organization?
Question:
Explain the various types of Information Systems used in an organization.
Answer:
The key types of Information Systems (IS) used in organizations include:

39
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

1. Transaction Processing System (TPS):

o Used to process and record daily transactions such as sales, purchases,
and payments.
o Example: Point of sale (POS) systems, payroll systems.
2. Management Information System (MIS):
o Provides routine reports to management, focusing on the operational
level of the organization (e.g., monthly sales reports, financial
summaries).
3. Decision Support System (DSS):
o Assists managers in making complex decisions by analyzing data and
presenting various decision alternatives.
o Example: Financial planning systems, forecasting tools.
4. Executive Information System (EIS):
o Provides top-level management with easy access to key performance
indicators (KPIs) and external data.
o Example: Dashboards for CEO/CFO tracking financial health.
5. Knowledge Management System (KMS):
o Helps organizations create, store, and share knowledge to improve
efficiency and innovation.
o Example: Document management systems, collaborative tools like
SharePoint.
6. Expert System (ES):
o A software system that mimics human expert decision-making in
specific fields.
o Example: Medical diagnosis systems, financial advisory systems.
7. Customer Relationship Management (CRM):
o Manages interactions with customers and tracks customer data to
improve sales and customer satisfaction.
o Example: Salesforce, Zoho CRM.
8. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP):
o Integrates core business functions into a unified system.
o Example: SAP, Oracle ERP systems.
6. What are the advantages and disadvantages of Cloud Computing in MIS?
Question:
What are the advantages and disadvantages of using Cloud Computing in MIS?
Answer:
Advantages of Cloud Computing in MIS:

40
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

1. Cost Efficiency: Cloud computing reduces the need for expensive hardware
and maintenance, as services are hosted on the cloud provider's
infrastructure.
2. Scalability: Cloud services can be easily scaled to meet the growing
demands of the business without significant investment.
3. Accessibility: Data and applications are accessible from anywhere with an
internet connection, improving collaboration and flexibility.
4. Automatic Updates: Cloud providers manage updates and software patches,
ensuring that the system is always up to date.
5. Disaster Recovery: Cloud services often include backup and recovery
solutions, ensuring data is protected in case of a disaster.
Disadvantages of Cloud Computing in MIS:
1. Security Concerns: Storing sensitive data on external servers may expose
organizations to data breaches and unauthorized access.
2. Reliability Issues: Cloud service outages or downtime can disrupt business
operations.
3. Limited Control: Organizations have less control over the infrastructure
and software, as they are managed by the cloud provider.
4. Cost Over Time: While initial costs may be lower, ongoing subscription
fees may add up over time, especially for high-demand services.
5. Compliance Issues: Certain industries have strict regulations regarding data
storage and management, which may be challenging to comply with in the
cloud.
7. What is the role of Business Intelligence (BI) in MIS?
Question:
What is Business Intelligence (BI), and how does it contribute to Management
Information Systems (MIS)?
Answer:
Business Intelligence (BI) refers to the technologies, processes, and tools that help
organizations analyze business data and turn it into actionable insights. BI involves
collecting, processing, and analyzing data from various sources to help businesses
make data-driven decisions.
Role of BI in MIS:
1. Data Analysis: BI tools allow managers to analyze large volumes of data
and generate reports and dashboards that highlight key performance
indicators (KPIs).
2. Improved Decision-Making: BI helps in identifying trends, forecasting,
and discovering opportunities for improvement, which supports better
decision-making.

41
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

3. Data Visualization: BI tools provide visual representations (charts, graphs)

of complex data, making it easier for decision-makers to understand insights.
4. Competitive Advantage: By utilizing BI, organizations can better
understand market trends, customer behaviors, and competitor strategies,
giving them a competitive edge.
5. Efficiency: BI improves operational efficiency by providing real-time
insights that support better management of resources, inventory, and
finances.
These sample questions and answers cover a broad spectrum of Management
Information Systems (MIS) topics, which are relevant for the entrance exam to an
MSc in MIS. The questions are designed to assess your understanding of MIS
concepts, technologies, and their application in business environments.
You said:
System testing based NGAT exam for MIS with answers
Here are some sample System Testing questions and answers for an NGAT exam,
specifically designed for students pursuing a Master of Science (MSc) in
Management Information Systems (MIS). These questions will cover various
aspects of system testing, a critical component in software development and
quality assurance.
1. What is System Testing? Explain its objectives.
Question:
What is System Testing in software engineering, and what are its primary
objectives?
Answer:
System Testing is a type of software testing that validates the complete and
integrated software product. It tests the entire system as a whole to ensure that all
components work together as expected, based on the requirements specification.
Objectives of System Testing:
1. Verify System Functionality: Ensure that all system functions work
according to the requirements.
2. Check for Compatibility: Test the system's compatibility with different
hardware, operating systems, and networks.
3. Evaluate Performance: Assess the system’s performance in terms of
response time, load capacity, and scalability.
4. Ensure Security and Reliability: Test the system for vulnerabilities and
ensure that it is secure and reliable under normal and stress conditions.
5. Confirm User Expectations: Validate that the system meets the user’s
needs and expectations by comparing actual results with the user
requirements.

42
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

6. Integration Testing: Ensure that various modules and components of the

system integrate well and work together without conflicts.
2. Differentiate between Functional Testing and Non-Functional Testing.
Question:
What is the difference between Functional Testing and Non-Functional Testing
in system testing?
Answer:
Functional Testing and Non-Functional Testing are two main categories of
system testing. Here's how they differ:
1. Functional Testing:
o Definition: Functional testing focuses on verifying that the system's
features and functions work as specified in the requirements.
o Objective: Ensure that the system behaves according to the expected
outcomes for specific actions or behaviors.
o Example: Testing login functionality, data retrieval, form submission.
o Key Areas: Validations, business logic, user interface functionality.
2. Non-Functional Testing:
o Definition: Non-functional testing checks the non-behavioral aspects
of the system, such as performance, usability, and security.
o Objective: Ensure that the system performs well under various
conditions and meets non-functional requirements.
o Example: Load testing, stress testing, security testing.
o Key Areas: Performance, security, scalability, reliability, and
usability.
3. What is Regression Testing, and why is it important in System Testing?
Question:
What is Regression Testing, and why is it important in System Testing?
Answer:
Regression Testing is the process of re-testing a software system after changes
(such as bug fixes, enhancements, or new features) have been made to ensure that
the existing functionality is not broken by the new changes.
Importance of Regression Testing in System Testing:
1. Verifies Existing Functionality: Ensures that changes or new features do
not negatively impact existing system functionality.
2. Reduces Risk of New Defects: Helps in identifying unintended side-effects
or bugs that may be introduced in areas that were previously working fine.
3. Improves Software Quality: Ensures that the software maintains its quality
and meets all functional and non-functional requirements after
modifications.

43
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

4. Increases Efficiency: Automated regression testing can significantly reduce

testing time and effort when compared to manual testing, especially when
the system undergoes frequent updates.
4. What are the different types of System Testing?
Question:
Explain the various types of System Testing.
Answer:
System testing includes several types, each focused on different aspects of the
system’s behavior. The common types of system testing are:
1. Unit Testing: Tests individual components or modules of the system in
isolation. It is generally done by developers before the system is integrated.
2. Integration Testing: Ensures that multiple components or modules of the
system work together as expected when integrated.
3. Functional Testing: Tests the functionality of the system according to the
requirements. It verifies that the system performs the required tasks as
specified.
4. Performance Testing: Evaluates the speed, responsiveness, and stability of
the system under a specific workload. Types of performance testing include:
o Load Testing: Checks the system’s ability to handle expected user
traffic.
o Stress Testing: Tests the system under extreme conditions, such as
very high traffic or load, to see how it handles stress.
o Scalability Testing: Assesses the system's ability to scale up or down
based on demand.
5. Security Testing: Identifies vulnerabilities and security flaws in the system
to ensure that data is protected and access is secured.
6. Usability Testing: Evaluates the user interface (UI) and user experience
(UX) to ensure that the system is easy to use, intuitive, and accessible.
7. Compatibility Testing: Ensures that the system is compatible with different
environments, such as browsers, operating systems, or devices.
8. Acceptance Testing: Verifies that the system meets the user’s requirements
and is ready for deployment. It is often the final step before the system is
released to production.
5. What is Load Testing, and how is it different from Stress Testing?
Question:
What is Load Testing, and how is it different from Stress Testing?
Answer:

44
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Load Testing and Stress Testing are both types of performance testing, but they
are conducted under different conditions to assess various aspects of the system’s
performance.
1. Load Testing:
o Definition: Load testing involves testing the system under normal or
expected user load to assess its performance and behavior under
typical usage.
o Objective: Ensure the system can handle the expected number of
users and transactions without performance degradation.
o Example: Testing a website with a typical number of users accessing
the site at the same time.
o Goal: Ensure that the system functions well within the specified
capacity and responds quickly to user requests.
2. Stress Testing:
o Definition: Stress testing involves testing the system under extreme
or beyond-normal conditions, such as an unusually high number of
users or requests.
o Objective: Identify the system’s breaking point and understand how it
behaves when it exceeds the normal operating capacity.
o Example: Simulating 10 times the expected number of users to see
how the system responds.
o Goal: Evaluate the system’s robustness, resilience, and ability to
recover from failure under stress.
Key Difference:
 Load Testing focuses on normal load conditions, while Stress Testing
pushes the system beyond its normal operational limits to assess how it
handles failure conditions.
6. Explain the concept of Acceptance Testing in System Testing.
Question:
What is Acceptance Testing, and why is it critical in System Testing?
Answer:
Acceptance Testing is the process of verifying that the system meets the end user's
requirements and is ready for deployment. It typically follows the completion of
functional and non-functional testing and is usually the final step before the system
is released to the production environment.
Importance of Acceptance Testing:
1. Validates Requirements: Ensures that the system aligns with the business
needs and user expectations.

45
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

2. Final Verification: Confirms that all requirements (both functional and non-
functional) have been met.
3. User Involvement: Acceptance testing often involves real end-users,
providing feedback on usability and ensuring the system meets practical
needs.
4. Reduces Risks: By thoroughly testing the system before deployment, it
helps reduce the risk of major issues post-launch.
7. What is the role of Automation in System Testing?
Question:
How does Automation play a role in System Testing?
Answer:
Automation in system testing involves using specialized tools and scripts to
perform tests without manual intervention. It can significantly speed up the testing
process and improve accuracy, especially for repetitive tests.
Role of Automation in System Testing:
1. Efficiency: Automated tests can run faster than manual tests, allowing more
tests to be executed in a shorter period.
2. Reusability: Once automated tests are created, they can be reused for future
releases or regression testing, saving time and effort.
3. Consistency: Automated tests ensure consistent execution, eliminating
human error that may occur in manual testing.
4. Regression Testing: Automation is particularly beneficial for regression
testing, where the same tests need to be run repeatedly after every change to
ensure no new defects are introduced.
5. Cost-Effective in Long Run: Though initial setup for automation can be
expensive, over time, it becomes cost-effective, especially in large and
complex systems.
8. What is the difference between Verification and Validation in System
Testing?
Question:
Explain the difference between Verification and Validation in the context of
System Testing.
Answer:
Verification and Validation are two key aspects of the software testing process,
each serving a different purpose:
1. Verification:
o Definition: Verification ensures that the system is being built
correctly, following the requirements and design specifications.

46
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

o Process: It involves checking if the system's components and

subsystems meet their specifications and standards.
o Activities: Reviews, inspections, and walkthroughs are commonly
used for verification.
o Question answered: "Are we building the product correctly?"
2. Validation:
o Definition: Validation ensures that the system meets the user’s needs
and requirements and that it provides the expected output in real-
world scenarios.
o Process: It involves testing the system with actual users to check if it
fulfills its intended purpose.
o Activities: System testing, acceptance testing, and user testing are
used for validation.
o Question answered: "Are we building the correct product?"
Key Difference:
 Verification checks if the product is built correctly, while Validation
checks if the right product is being built.
These questions and answers are designed to test your knowledge of System
Testing concepts and practices, which are crucial for any MIS MSc entrance
exam. The answers reflect core aspects of software testing that MIS students
should understand when dealing with software quality assurance and management
in information systems.
Hardware and Software based Question NGAT for MIS with answers
Below are some sample Hardware and Software-based questions with answers
for the NGAT (National Graduate Aptitude Test) for Management
Information Systems (MIS).
1. What is the difference between hardware and software in a computer
system?
Question:
Explain the difference between hardware and software in a computer system.
Answer:
 Hardware refers to the physical components of a computer system that you
can touch and see. These are the tangible parts that work together to perform
various tasks. Examples of hardware include the CPU (Central Processing
Unit), monitor, keyboard, motherboard, RAM (Random Access
Memory), hard disk, and printer.
 Software refers to the set of instructions, programs, or data that tell the
hardware what to do. Software is intangible and cannot be physically

47
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

touched. Examples include operating systems like Windows, macOS, and

applications like Microsoft Word or Google Chrome.
Key Difference:
 Hardware: Physical components that perform tasks.
 Software: Programs that provide instructions for hardware to perform tasks.
2. What are the different types of software used in an MIS system?
Question:
What are the different types of software used in an MIS system, and how do they
contribute to the system's functionality?
Answer:
In an MIS (Management Information System), several types of software are
used to manage, process, and store information. These include:
1. System Software:
o Operating System (OS): Provides the basic platform for running
applications and managing hardware resources. Examples include
Windows, Linux, and macOS.
o Utility Software: Supports basic system maintenance, such as
antivirus software, disk management tools, and backup tools.
2. Application Software:
o Database Management System (DBMS): Manages data storage,
retrieval, and manipulation. Examples include Oracle, SQL Server,
and MySQL.
o Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP): Software like SAP and
Oracle ERP integrates business processes such as finance, HR, and
supply chain into one system.
o Customer Relationship Management (CRM): Software like
Salesforce that manages interactions with customers, tracks sales, and
supports marketing efforts.
3. Business Intelligence (BI) Software:
o Software such as Tableau, Power BI, and QlikView that helps in
analyzing data and generating insights for decision-making.
4. Development Software:
o Software like Java, C++, Python, and integrated development
environments (IDEs) such as Eclipse or Visual Studio are used for
creating custom applications or systems within MIS.
Contribution to MIS:
 System Software provides the foundational environment for running all
MIS applications.

48
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Application Software helps manage and process information critical to

business operations.
 BI Software helps turn data into actionable insights.
 Development Software allows the creation of custom solutions tailored to
specific business needs.
3. What is the role of hardware in an MIS system?
Question:
What is the role of hardware in an MIS system?
Answer:
The hardware in an MIS (Management Information System) plays a crucial
role in supporting the functioning and performance of the system. Its role includes:
1. Data Processing: The CPU (Central Processing Unit) is responsible for
executing instructions from software applications and processing the data
that flows through the MIS system.
2. Data Storage: Devices like hard drives, solid-state drives (SSDs), and
cloud storage store large volumes of business data, such as customer
information, financial records, and transaction histories.
3. Input and Output: Input devices like keyboards, mice, and scanners
allow users to interact with the system, while output devices like monitors
and printers display or print reports and information for analysis.
4. Network Connectivity: Routers, switches, and network cards enable
communication between different hardware components of the MIS system,
supporting the sharing of information and collaboration across various
departments or locations.
5. User Interaction: Hardware like workstations, laptops, and mobile
devices allow end-users, managers, and IT staff to access the MIS and work
with the data for decision-making and business operations.
6. Security: Firewalls, biometric devices, and smartcards are used to protect
the system from unauthorized access and data breaches, ensuring the
integrity and confidentiality of business information.
4. What are the components of a computer system's hardware?
Question:
List and explain the main components of a computer system's hardware.
Answer:
A computer system's hardware consists of various components that work together
to process, store, and retrieve data. The main components include:
1. Central Processing Unit (CPU):
o The brain of the computer. It performs calculations, controls the flow
of data, and executes instructions from software programs.

49
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

2. Memory:
o Primary memory (RAM): Temporarily stores data that the CPU
needs while processing. It is fast but volatile (data is lost when power
is turned off).
o Secondary memory (Storage): Devices like hard drives, SSDs, and
optical disks store data permanently.
3. Input Devices:
o Devices like the keyboard, mouse, scanner, and microphone allow
users to input data into the system.
4. Output Devices:
o Devices like monitors, printers, and speakers display or produce the
results of processed data.
5. Motherboard:
o The main circuit board that connects all components of the computer,
including the CPU, memory, and peripheral devices.
6. Power Supply:
o Converts electrical power from an outlet into usable power for the
computer's internal components.
7. Network Interface Card (NIC):
o Allows the computer to connect to a network (e.g., Wi-Fi or
Ethernet) for communication with other systems or the internet.
8. Graphics Processing Unit (GPU):
o Responsible for rendering images, videos, and graphics on the
monitor, especially in high-performance computing or gaming
systems.
9. Peripheral Devices:
o Additional hardware like printers, external hard drives, webcams,
and speakers that extend the system's functionality.
5. What are the major categories of software?
Question:
What are the major categories of software and explain each with an example?
Answer:
Software can be broadly categorized into two major types: System Software and
Application Software. These categories serve different purposes in a computer
system.
1. System Software:
o Definition: System software provides the necessary interface between
the user and the hardware of the system. It manages the computer
hardware and helps run application software.

50
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

o Examples:
 Operating System (OS): Manages hardware resources and
provides a user interface (e.g., Windows, macOS, Linux).
 Device Drivers: Enable communication between the OS and
hardware devices (e.g., printer drivers, graphics card drivers).
 Utilities: Perform basic maintenance and management
functions (e.g., disk cleanup, antivirus software).
2. Application Software:
o Definition: Application software is designed to perform specific tasks
or solve particular problems for the user. It directly assists the user in
carrying out various activities.
o Examples:
 Productivity Software: Helps users perform tasks like writing
documents, creating spreadsheets, and managing databases
(e.g., Microsoft Office, Google Workspace).
 Business Software: Includes ERP systems, CRM software,
and accounting software that help organizations manage
business operations.
 Multimedia Software: Software for creating, editing, or
viewing multimedia files, such as video players, music players,
and design tools (e.g., Adobe Photoshop, VLC Media
Player).
6. Explain the role of operating systems in MIS software.
Question:
What is the role of an Operating System (OS) in MIS software?
Answer:
The Operating System (OS) is a critical component in the functioning of
Management Information Systems (MIS). It plays the following roles:
1. Resource Management:
o The OS manages hardware resources such as CPU, memory, and
storage, ensuring that MIS software runs efficiently and without
conflicts between different system processes.
2. Data Management:
o The OS provides file management systems to organize, store, and
access data. MIS software relies on the OS to handle data storage and
retrieval, especially when interacting with large databases.
3. Security and Access Control:

51
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

o The OS ensures that MIS software and its data are secure. It
implements user authentication, permissions, and access control to
protect sensitive business data from unauthorized access.
4. Multi-Tasking:
o Most MIS systems are used by multiple users simultaneously. The OS
enables multi-tasking by efficiently managing the execution of
multiple processes, ensuring that users can interact with the MIS
system concurrently.
5. User Interface (UI):
o The OS provides the graphical user interface (GUI) or command-
line interface (CLI), allowing users to interact with the MIS software
in a simple and intuitive manner.
6. Network Connectivity:
o The OS ensures the MIS software can connect to other systems,
networks, or databases, which is essential for collaborative work and
the exchange of information across different departments or locations.
These questions and answers cover the essential aspects of Hardware and
Software in an MIS NGAT exam, offering a solid understanding of how these
components play a crucial role in the design, implementation, and operation of
Management Information Systems.
Verbal Reasoning NGAT with answers
Verbal Reasoning sample questions with answers that could be helpful for the
NGAT (National Graduate Aptitude Test) for Management Information
Systems (MIS) students. These questions will test your ability to understand and
reason with written information.
1. Question:
Read the following passage and answer the question based on it.
Passage: "Technology has evolved significantly over the past few decades, with
numerous advancements in software and hardware. The increasing reliance on
technology has reshaped industries, enhanced business processes, and improved
communication globally. However, the rapid growth of technology also comes
with challenges such as cybersecurity risks, privacy issues, and the digital divide.
While technology has brought about significant positive change, it is essential to
address these challenges to ensure equitable access and secure usage for all."
Question:
Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a challenge in the passage?
A) Cybersecurity risks
B) Privacy issues

52
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C) Inequality in access to technology

D) Increased communication efficiency
Answer:
D) Increased communication efficiency
Explanation:
The passage mentions cybersecurity risks, privacy issues, and the digital divide as
challenges. However, it does not mention "increased communication efficiency" as
a challenge.
2. Question:
Select the word or phrase that is most similar in meaning to the word in bold.
Question:
The manager’s cautious approach to the project made her slow to adopt new
technology.
Which of the following words is closest in meaning to "cautious"?
A) Reckless
B) Hesitant
C) Adventurous
D) Daring
Answer:
B) Hesitant
Explanation:
The word "cautious" suggests carefulness and being hesitant. "Hesitant" fits this
meaning, while the other options (reckless, adventurous, daring) have opposite or
unrelated meanings.
3. Question:
In the following sentence, identify the correct meaning of the word underlined.
Sentence:
"Her superficial knowledge of the subject led to misunderstandings during the
meeting."
Question:
What does "superficial" mean in this context?
A) Very deep
B) Lacking depth
C) Thorough and detailed
D) Highly knowledgeable
Answer:
B) Lacking depth

53
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
"Superficial" in this context refers to knowledge that is only surface-level or
lacking in depth, not thorough or detailed.
4. Question:
Read the passage and answer the following question.
Passage: "Globalization has made the world more interconnected than ever before.
Businesses can now operate in multiple countries, and individuals can collaborate
across borders with ease. While globalization has spurred economic growth, it has
also contributed to the rise of inequality, as some regions have benefited more than
others. It has also led to cultural homogenization, as local traditions and customs
are overshadowed by dominant global cultures."
Question:
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
A) Globalization has only positive effects.
B) Inequality has increased because of globalization.
C) Globalization has led to the destruction of local cultures.
D) Globalization has no impact on cultural practices.
Answer:
B) Inequality has increased because of globalization.
Explanation:
The passage mentions that globalization has contributed to the rise of inequality, as
some regions benefit more than others. This is the correct inference. It does not
suggest the total destruction of local cultures, nor does it claim that globalization
only has positive effects.
5. Question:
Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word diligent?
A) Hardworking
B) Lazy
C) Motivated
D) Efficient
Answer:
B) Lazy
Explanation:
"Diligent" means careful and persistent in work or effort. The opposite would be
"lazy," meaning unwilling to work or put in effort.
6. Question:
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word.

54
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question:
Despite facing numerous setbacks, she remained __________ and continued to
pursue her goals with determination.
A) complacent
B) disheartened
C) resolute
D) indifferent
Answer:
C) resolute
Explanation:
"Resolute" means determined or firm in purpose, which fits the context of
continuing to pursue goals despite setbacks. The other options (complacent,
disheartened, indifferent) suggest giving up or lacking effort, which is inconsistent
with the context of determination.
7. Question:
Choose the correct analogy from the options.
Question:
Fire is to burn as water is to:
A) Freeze
B) Evaporate
C) Flow
D) Wet
Answer:
D) Wet
Explanation:
A fire causes burning, and water causes wetness. The analogy here is based on the
effect or result produced by each element.
8. Question:
Which of the following is the best title for the passage below?
Passage: "Information systems are essential in managing the vast amounts of data
that modern businesses generate. These systems help organizations streamline
operations, make better decisions, and improve efficiency. By collecting,
processing, and storing data, information systems ensure that managers have the
information they need to make informed choices. With the advancement of
technology, these systems have evolved, becoming more complex and integral to
day-to-day operations."
Question:
What is the best title for the passage?

55
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A) "The Role of Information in Business"

B) "Managing Data with Information Systems"
C) "The Importance of Technology in Business"
D) "Data Collection in Modern Businesses"
Answer:
B) "Managing Data with Information Systems"
Explanation:
The passage discusses how information systems are used to manage data in
businesses. "Managing Data with Information Systems" directly reflects the focus
of the passage.
9. Question:
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate word.
Sentence:
Her decision to leave the company was __________, given the circumstances.
A) justifiable
B) irrational
C) uncertain
D) questionable
Answer:
A) justifiable
Explanation:
"Justifiable" means reasonable or understandable under the circumstances, making
it the best fit for this sentence. The other options (irrational, uncertain,
questionable) suggest doubts or problems with the decision, which would not
match the tone.
10. Question:
Identify the grammatical error in the following sentence.
Sentence:
She enjoy reading books in her free time.
A) "enjoy" should be "enjoys"
B) "reading books" is incorrect
C) "free time" should be "spare time"
D) There is no error
Answer:
A) "enjoy" should be "enjoys"
Explanation:
The subject "She" is singular, so the verb should be "enjoys" instead of "enjoy."

56
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

These verbal reasoning questions and answers will help you practice for an NGAT
exam. They test comprehension, vocabulary, grammar, analogies, and logical
reasoning, all of which are crucial for success in the exam.
Analytical Reasoning NGAT exam with answers
Below are some Analytical Reasoning sample questions with answers for the
NGAT (National Graduate Aptitude Test), particularly designed for students
pursuing Management Information Systems (MIS). These questions test your
ability to analyze patterns, relationships, and logical reasoning in a systematic
manner.
1. Question:
Direction: Study the following information and answer the question based on it.
Information: There are five people: A, B, C, D, and E. Each of them is working in
a different department: Marketing, Finance, HR, IT, and Operations. The following
clues are given:
1. A works in HR.
2. The person who works in Marketing is either B or D.
3. C works in Finance.
4. E does not work in IT.
5. The person who works in Operations is D.
Question:
Who works in IT?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) E
Answer:
B) B
Explanation:
 From Clue 1, A works in HR.
 From Clue 3, C works in Finance.
 From Clue 5, D works in Operations.
 From Clue 2, either B or D works in Marketing. Since D is already assigned
to Operations, B must work in Marketing.
 Therefore, E works in IT.
2. Question:
Direction: Study the following sequence and answer the question based on it.
Sequence:
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ___

57
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question:
What is the next number in the sequence?
A) 36
B) 42
C) 56
D) 48
Answer:
B) 42
Explanation: The pattern follows the sequence of numbers where the difference
between consecutive numbers increases by 2. Let's break it down:
 6-2=4
 12 - 6 = 6
 20 - 12 = 8
 30 - 20 = 10
The next difference should be 12. So, the next number is:
30 + 12 = 42.
3. Question:
Direction: Study the following information and answer the question based on it.
Information: In a family of six members, P, Q, R, S, T, and U, there are two
married couples and two unmarried individuals. The following information is
given:
1. P is married to Q.
2. R is married to S.
3. T is the brother of U.
4. U is the daughter of Q.
5. P has only one child.
Question:
Who is the mother of U?
A) P
B) Q
C) R
D) S
Answer:
A) P
Explanation:
 From Clue 1, P is married to Q.
 From Clue 4, U is the daughter of Q, which means Q is U’s mother.
However, since Clue 5 tells us that P has only one child, this implies that P
is also U’s mother (P is the mother of only one child, U).

58
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Hence, P is the mother of U.

4. Question:
Direction: Study the following puzzle and answer the question based on it.
Puzzle:
Five friends, A, B, C, D, and E, are sitting in a row facing north. The following
conditions are known:
1. A is sitting at one of the ends.
2. C is sitting second to the left of D.
3. E is sitting next to A.
4. B is sitting to the immediate right of E.
Question:
Who is sitting in the middle?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Answer:
C) C
Explanation:
 From Clue 1, A is sitting at one of the ends.
 From Clue 3, E is sitting next to A.
 From Clue 4, B is sitting to the immediate right of E.
 From Clue 2, C is sitting second to the left of D.
So, the seating arrangement from left to right is: A, E, B, C, D.
Hence, C is sitting in the middle.
5. Question:
Direction: Read the following question and answer it.
Question:
If a word is written in reverse order, then the second letter from the right is
replaced by the fourth letter from the left, and the fifth letter from the right is
replaced by the seventh letter from the left. What would the new word be?
(Consider the word POTATO)
Question:
What is the new word after applying the above transformations to "POTATO"?
A) OTATOP
B) OATOTP
C) OATOTP
D) OTAPOT
Answer:

59
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

B) OATOTP
Explanation:
 Reverse of POTATO is OTATOP.
 The second letter from the right in OTATOP is P, and it is replaced by the
fourth letter from the left, which is T.
So, the word becomes OTATOT.
 The fifth letter from the right is A, and it is replaced by the seventh letter
from the left, which is P. Thus, the final word is OATOTP.
6. Question:
Direction: Answer the following question based on the given clues.
Clues:
1. A is taller than B.
2. B is taller than C.
3. C is shorter than D.
4. D is taller than A.
Question:
Who is the shortest among A, B, C, and D?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Answer:
C) C
Explanation:
 From Clue 1, A is taller than B.
 From Clue 2, B is taller than C.
 From Clue 3, C is shorter than D.
 From Clue 4, D is taller than A.
So, the height order from shortest to tallest is: C, B, A, D.
Thus, C is the shortest.
7. Question:
Direction: Study the following pattern and answer the question based on it.
Pattern:
1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ___
Question:
What is the next number in the sequence?
A) 30
B) 36

60
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C) 40
D) 49
Answer:
B) 36
Explanation: The given numbers are perfect squares:
1 = 121^212, 4 = 222^222, 9 = 323^232, 16 = 424^242, 25 = 525^252.
The next perfect square is 62=366^2 = 3662=36.
8. Question:
Direction: Study the following information and answer the question.
Information: There are five people in a team: P, Q, R, S, and T. Each of them has
a different hobby: Reading, Painting, Traveling, Cooking, and Gardening. The
following information is given:
1. P likes Cooking.
2. Q does not like Painting or Traveling.
3. R likes Gardening.
4. S likes Traveling.
Question:
Who likes Painting?
A) P
B) Q
C) R
D) T
Answer:
D) T
Explanation:
 From Clue 1, P likes Cooking.
 From Clue 2, Q does not like Painting or Traveling, so Q must like Reading.
 From Clue 3, R likes Gardening.
 From Clue 4, S likes Traveling.
 Therefore, T must like Painting.
These Analytical Reasoning questions test your ability to logically deduce
relationships, patterns, and sequences based on the given information. This type of
reasoning is crucial for solving complex problems in Management Information
Systems (MIS).
Logical Reasoning NGAT exam with answers
Here are some Logical Reasoning sample questions with answers for the NGAT
(National Graduate Aptitude Test) for Management Information Systems
(MIS). These questions focus on patterns, relationships, sequences, and logical
deductions, all of which are key to succeeding in logical reasoning exams.

61
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

1. Question:
Direction: Find the next number in the given series.
Series:
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ___
Question:
What is the next number in the series?
A) 36
B) 40
C) 42
D) 56
Answer:
B) 42
Explanation:
The differences between consecutive terms are increasing by 2 each time:
 6-2=4
 12 - 6 = 6
 20 - 12 = 8
 30 - 20 = 10
So, the next difference should be 12. Therefore:
30 + 12 = 42
2. Question:
Direction: Study the following information and answer the question based on it.
Information:
In a group of 7 people, the following conditions are true:
1. P is taller than Q but shorter than R.
2. S is taller than Q but shorter than P.
3. T is taller than R.
4. U is shorter than P but taller than S.
Question:
Who is the tallest among the group?
A) P
B) R
C) T
D) U
Answer:
C) T
Explanation:
 From Clue 1, P is taller than Q but shorter than R.
 From Clue 2, S is taller than Q but shorter than P.

62
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 From Clue 3, T is taller than R.

 From Clue 4, U is shorter than P but taller than S.
Based on these conditions, the height order is:
T > R > P > U > S > Q.
Hence, T is the tallest.
3. Question:
Direction: Choose the odd one out.
A) Dog
B) Lion
C) Elephant
D) Tiger
Answer:
C) Elephant
Explanation:
All the other animals (Dog, Lion, and Tiger) are carnivores, whereas the Elephant
is herbivorous. Hence, Elephant is the odd one out.
4. Question:
Direction: In the following question, there is a certain relationship between the
first two words on the left-hand side of the colon. Choose the word on the right-
hand side that will have the same relationship with the second word.
Question:
Mathematics : Study :: Painting : ___
A) Art
B) Brush
C) Creativity
D) Work
Answer:
A) Art
Explanation:
Mathematics is a subject of study, and Painting is a form of Art. Thus, the correct
analogy is Painting : Art.
5. Question:
Direction: Solve the following puzzle.
Puzzle:
A man is facing east. He turns 90° to his left, then turns 180° to his right, then
turns 90° to his right. In which direction is he now facing?
A) North
B) South

63
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C) East
D) West
Answer:
B) South
Explanation:
1. Initially, the man is facing East.
2. He turns 90° left, so he is now facing North.
3. He then turns 180° right, which brings him to face South.
4. Finally, he turns 90° right, which brings him to face West.
Hence, the final direction is South.
6. Question:
Direction: A word is represented by only one of the following combinations of
numbers/symbols. Choose the correct combination for the word "ORANGE".
Options: A) 15, 18, 1, 14, 7, 5
B) 12, 18, 1, 14, 7, 5
C) 14, 1, 7, 5, 15, 18
D) 1, 14, 7, 5, 15, 18
Answer:
A) 15, 18, 1, 14, 7, 5
Explanation:
The numbers represent the position of the letters in the alphabet:
O = 15, R = 18, A = 1, N = 14, G = 7, E = 5.
So, the correct combination is 15, 18, 1, 14, 7, 5.
7. Question:
Direction: Read the statement and then answer the question based on it.
Statement:
Some cars are bikes. All bikes are vehicles. Some vehicles are fast.
Question:
Which of the following conclusions is logically valid?
A) Some cars are fast.
B) All vehicles are fast.
C) Some cars are not vehicles.
D) Some vehicles are not bikes.
Answer:
D) Some vehicles are not bikes.
Explanation:
From the statement, we know:
 Some cars are bikes.
 All bikes are vehicles.

64
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Some vehicles are fast.

Thus, it's logically valid to conclude that some vehicles are not bikes, because
there are vehicles that are neither cars nor bikes.
8. Question:
Direction: Choose the correct alternative to complete the series.
Series:
Z, X, V, T, R, ___
A) Q
B) P
C) S
D) O
Answer:
A) Q
Explanation:
The pattern alternates between skipping 1 letter and skipping 2 letters in the
alphabet:
 Z → (skip 1) → X → (skip 2) → V → (skip 1) → T → (skip 2) → R →
(skip 1) → Q
Thus, the next letter in the series is Q.
9. Question:
Direction: Choose the option that correctly fits the analogy.
Question:
Cap : Bottle :: Lid : ___
A) Container
B) Box
C) Jar
D) Jar
Answer:
C) Jar
Explanation:
A cap is used to seal a bottle, and similarly, a lid is used to cover a jar. Therefore,
the correct answer is Jar.
10. Question:
Direction: Identify the relationship between the first two words and choose the
word that has the same relationship with the third word.
Question:
Book : Reading :: Knife : ___
A) Cutting
B) Cooking

65
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C) Cutting
D) Eating
Answer:
A) Cutting
Explanation:
A book is used for reading, and a knife is used for cutting. Thus, the relationship
is the same.
11. Question:
Direction: Solve the following question based on the given premises.
Premises:
1. All students are athletes.
2. Some athletes are scholars.
3. All scholars are students.
Question:
Which of the following conclusions is logically valid?
A) All students are scholars.
B) All athletes are students.
C) Some athletes are students.
D) Some students are scholars.
Answer:
D) Some students are scholars.
Explanation:
Based on the premises:
 All students are athletes, and some athletes are scholars.
 Therefore, it is logically valid to conclude that some students are scholars.
These Logical Reasoning questions will help you develop the analytical and
logical thinking needed for the NGAT exam. They test your ability to understand
relationships, patterns, and sequences in data, which are critical skills in
Management Information Systems (MIS).
Aptitude based NGAT exam with answer for MIS
Here are some Aptitude-based sample questions with answers that could be
helpful for the NGAT (National Graduate Aptitude Test), particularly designed
for students pursuing Management Information Systems (MIS). These questions
test basic mathematical and problem-solving abilities, which are important for
many aspects of management and decision-making in MIS.
1. Question:
A man can complete a task in 12 hours. If two men work together, how long
will it take them to complete the same task?

66
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A) 4 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 8 hours
D) 10 hours
Answer:
B) 6 hours
Explanation: If one man can complete the task in 12 hours, his rate of work is
112\frac{1}{12}121 of the task per hour.
When two men work together, their combined rate of work is:
112+112=212=16\frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{12} = \frac{2}{12} = \frac{1}{6}121
+121=122=61
Thus, together, they can complete the task in 6 hours.
2. Question:
A train travels at a speed of 60 km/h for 3 hours. How much distance does it
cover?
A) 120 km
B) 180 km
C) 150 km
D) 200 km
Answer:
B) 180 km
Explanation: The distance covered is given by the formula:
Distance=Speed×Time\text{Distance} = \text{Speed} \times
\text{Time}Distance=Speed×Time
Substituting the values: Distance=60×3=180 km\text{Distance} = 60 \times 3 =
180 \, \text{km}Distance=60×3=180km
So, the train covers 180 km.
3. Question:
A person buys an item for Rs. 500 and sells it at a profit of 20%. What is the
selling price of the item?
A) Rs. 550
B) Rs. 600
C) Rs. 600
D) Rs. 550
Answer:
B) Rs. 600
Explanation: The profit is 20%, so the selling price is calculated as:
Selling Price=Cost Price+Profit\text{Selling Price} = \text{Cost Price} +
\text{Profit}Selling Price=Cost Price+Profit Where:

67
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Profit=20% of 500=20100×500=100\text{Profit} = 20\% \text{ of } 500 =

\frac{20}{100} \times 500 = 100Profit=20% of 500=10020×500=100
Thus, the selling price is: 500+100=600500 + 100 = 600500+100=600
So, the selling price is Rs. 600.
4. Question:
If the cost of 15 pencils is Rs. 45, what is the cost of 25 pencils?
A) Rs. 75
B) Rs. 70
C) Rs. 65
D) Rs. 60
Answer:
A) Rs. 75
Explanation: The cost of 15 pencils is Rs. 45, so the cost of one pencil is:
4515=3\frac{45}{15} = 31545=3
Therefore, the cost of 25 pencils is: 25×3=7525 \times 3 = 7525×3=75
So, the cost of 25 pencils is Rs. 75.
5. Question:
A sum of money amounts to Rs. 4500 in 2 years at 5% simple interest. What is
the principal amount?
A) Rs. 4000
B) Rs. 3500
C) Rs. 5000
D) Rs. 4500
Answer:
A) Rs. 4000
Explanation: The formula for Simple Interest is: A=P+P×R×T100A = P + \frac{P
\times R \times T}{100}A=P+100P×R×T Where:
 AAA = Amount after time
 PPP = Principal
 RRR = Rate of interest
 TTT = Time period
Here, A=4500A = 4500A=4500, R=5%R = 5\%R=5%, and T=2T = 2T=2 years.
Substituting the values in the formula: 4500=P+P×5×21004500 = P + \frac{P
\times 5 \times 2}{100}4500=P+100P×5×2 4500=P+10P1004500 = P +
\frac{10P}{100}4500=P+10010P 4500=P+0.1P4500 = P + 0.1P4500=P+0.1P
4500=1.1P4500 = 1.1P4500=1.1P P=45001.1=4090.91P = \frac{4500}{1.1} =
4090.91P=1.14500=4090.91
Therefore, the closest value is Rs. 4000.
6. Question:

68
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

If the ratio of the ages of two friends is 4:5 and the sum of their ages is 54
years, what are their ages?
A) 20 and 24
B) 24 and 30
C) 20 and 28
D) 22 and 32
Answer:
B) 24 and 30
Explanation: Let the ages of the two friends be 4x and 5x, where x is the common
multiplier.
The sum of their ages is 54 years, so: 4x+5x=544x + 5x = 544x+5x=54 9x=549x =
549x=54 x=6x = 6x=6
Therefore, the ages of the two friends are:
 4x = 4(6) = 24 years
 5x = 5(6) = 30 years
Thus, the ages are 24 and 30.
7. Question:
A person invests Rs. 1000 at an interest rate of 5% per annum compounded
annually. What will be the amount after 2 years?
A) Rs. 1050
B) Rs. 1100
C) Rs. 1102.5
D) Rs. 1051
Answer:
C) Rs. 1102.5
Explanation: The formula for compound interest is: A=P(1+r100)tA = P \left(1 +
\frac{r}{100}\right)^tA=P(1+100r)t Where:
 AAA = Amount after time
 PPP = Principal
 rrr = Rate of interest
 ttt = Time period in years
Here, P=1000P = 1000P=1000, r=5%r = 5\%r=5%, and t=2t = 2t=2.
Substituting the values in the formula: A=1000(1+5100)2A = 1000 \left(1 +
\frac{5}{100}\right)^2A=1000(1+1005)2 A=1000×(1.05)2A = 1000 \times
\left(1.05\right)^2A=1000×(1.05)2 A=1000×1.1025A = 1000 \times
1.1025A=1000×1.1025 A=1102.5A = 1102.5A=1102.5
Thus, the amount after 2 years is Rs. 1102.5.
8. Question:

69
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

The ratio of the present ages of A and B is 5:6. After 4 years, the ratio of their
ages will be 3:4. What are their present ages?
A) 10 and 12
B) 20 and 24
C) 25 and 30
D) 15 and 18
Answer:
B) 20 and 24
Explanation: Let the present ages of A and B be 5x and 6x, respectively.
After 4 years, their ages will be:
 A's age = 5x + 4
 B's age = 6x + 4
According to the given condition, after 4 years, the ratio of their ages is 3:4:
5x+46x+4=34\frac{5x + 4}{6x + 4} = \frac{3}{4}6x+45x+4=43
Cross-multiply:
4(5x+4)=3(6x+4)4(5x + 4) = 3(6x + 4)4(5x+4)=3(6x+4) 20x+16=18x+1220x + 16
= 18x + 1220x+16=18x+12 20x−18x=12−1620x - 18x = 12 - 1620x−18x=12−16
2x=−42x = -42x=−4 x=2x = 2x=2
Thus, the present ages of A and B are:
 A = 5x = 5(2) = 10 years
 B = 6x = 6(2) = 12 years
Thus, their present ages are 10 and 12 years.
9. Question:
A boat travels 30 km upstream and 30 km downstream in a total time of 6
hours. If the speed of the stream is 2 km/h, what is the speed of the boat in still
water?
A) 6 km/h
B) 8 km/h
C) 10 km/h
D) 12 km/h
Answer:
B) 8 km/h
Explanation: Let the speed of the boat in still water be xxx km/h.
The effective speed of the boat upstream is (x−2)(x - 2)(x−2) km/h and
downstream is (x+2)(x + 2)(x+2) km/h.
The time taken to travel upstream is:
30x−2\frac{30}{x - 2}x−230
The time taken to travel downstream is:
30x+2\frac{30}{x + 2}x+230

70
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

The total time is 6 hours, so:

30x−2+30x+2=6\frac{30}{x - 2} + \frac{30}{x + 2} = 6x−230+x+230=6
Simplifying the equation:
30(x+2)+30(x−2)(x−2)(x+2)=6\frac{30(x + 2) + 30(x - 2)}{(x - 2)(x + 2)} =
6(x−2)(x+2)30(x+2)+30(x−2)=6 60xx2−4=6\frac{60x}{x^2 - 4} = 6x2−460x=6
60x=6(x2−4)60x = 6(x^2 - 4)60x=6(x2−4) 60x=6x2−2460x = 6x^2 -
2460x=6x2−24 6x2−60x−24=06x^2 - 60x - 24 = 06x2−60x−24=0 x2−10x−4=0x^2
- 10x - 4 = 0x2−10x−4=0
Solving the quadratic equation gives x=8x = 8x=8.
Thus, the speed of the boat in still water is 8 km/h.
10. Question:
A man can do a piece of work in 15 days, while another man can do the same
work in 20 days. How long will they take if they work together?
A) 8 days
B) 10 days
C) 12 days
D) 7 days
Answer:
B) 8 days
Explanation: The rate of work for the first man is 115\frac{1}{15}151 of the
work per day, and for the second man, it is 120\frac{1}{20}201 of the work per
day.
Together, their combined rate of work is:
115+120=460+360=760\frac{1}{15} + \frac{1}{20} = \frac{4}{60} +
\frac{3}{60} = \frac{7}{60}151+201=604+603=607
Thus, the time taken for them to complete the work together is:
607≈8.57 days\frac{60}{7} \approx 8.57 \, \text{days}760≈8.57days
Therefore, it will take them approximately 8 days to complete the work.
These Aptitude-based questions help assess your mathematical and logical
reasoning abilities, both of which are essential for solving real-world problems in
Management Information Systems (MIS).
NGAT Question book for all candidates for Computer science , IT, IS and MIS
with website
Unfortunately, there is no specific NGAT (National Graduate Aptitude Test)
question book that I can provide, especially tailored for all candidates in the fields
of Computer Science, IT, IS, and MIS. However, there are several online
resources, books, and websites where you can access practice questions and
materials for these domains.

71
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Here are a few recommended resources that may be useful for preparing for the
NGAT and similar entrance exams:
1. Books:
 "Computer Science Engineering: Practice Workbook" by Arihant
Experts: This book covers various topics such as algorithms, data structures,
databases, and networking, which are commonly tested in Computer
Science, IT, and MIS exams.
 "R.S. Aggarwal's Quantitative Aptitude": Useful for aptitude-related
sections and can help in preparation for exams like NGAT which test
mathematical aptitude, logical reasoning, and analytical ability.
 "Objective Computer Science" by P.K. Sinha: This book is a great
resource for understanding basic concepts of computer science and IT topics.
2. Websites for Practice:
 GeeksforGeeks: Offers tutorials, coding problems, and various practice
exercises for computer science students, focusing on algorithms, data
structures, and other CS topics.
 IndiaBix: A platform for practicing online aptitude, logical reasoning, and
verbal ability tests. It has a vast collection of practice questions specifically
tailored for competitive exams.
 Code forces: This website offers coding problems and competitive
programming exercises which are great for practicing coding skills required
for computer science and IT.
 Career Launcher: Provides online test preparation services for various
competitive exams, including ones for Computer Science, IT, IS, and MIS
fields.
3. NGAT Practice Platforms:
 Textbook: Textbook offers mock tests and practice exams for a wide variety
of entrance exams, including those for computer science and related fields.
They provide exams based on various subjects like aptitude, computer
fundamentals, and more.
 Embibe: Provides personalized practice tests, quizzes, and learning
resources for entrance exams related to IT, CS, and other technical fields.
4. Educational Portals for MIS/IT/CS Preparation:
 Coursera: Offers courses in Computer Science, Information Technology,
and Management Information Systems from top universities, which can be
beneficial for understanding the subjects in depth.
 Udemy: Features numerous courses on Computer Science, IT, and MIS,
including exam-specific prep courses.
5. Online Mock Test Websites:

72
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Oliveboard: Offers mock tests and practice papers for various competitive
exams in technical fields like IT, Computer Science, and Management.
 Gradeup: Provides practice questions and mock tests specifically designed
for competitive exams, including for candidates pursuing MIS and
Computer Science.
6. YouTube Channels for Exam Preparation:
 Academy: Offers live classes, video lectures, and educational material for
various competitive exams, including those related to computer science and
IT.
 Khan Academy: Provides free educational videos on many topics, including
mathematics, computer science fundamentals, and logic, which can be useful
for aptitude preparation.
Suggested Study Plan for NGAT Preparation:
1. Conceptual Understanding:
o Focus on understanding the core concepts of computer science, IT,
IS, and MIS, such as data structures, algorithms, networking,
databases, and management principles.
2. Aptitude and Logical Reasoning:
o Practice regularly on platforms like IndiaBix or Oliveboard for
improving aptitude, logical reasoning, and quantitative ability.
3. Mock Tests:
o Take as many mock tests as you can. Use platforms like Gradeup,
Embibe, and Testbook for this.
4. Focus on MIS-related Topics:
o Apart from CS and IT topics, specifically study the concepts related to
Management Information Systems such as information systems
architecture, IT management, business process integration, and
data management in business contexts.
For an NGAT-specific question book tailored to all these fields, I would
recommend checking with local educational bookstores, university websites, or
official examination portals that might provide specific preparatory material based
on the syllabus of the entrance exam.
NGAT exam draft book website for all Computers Sciences and MIS
Unfortunately, there is no official website or draft book specifically for the NGAT
(National Graduate Aptitude Test) exam tailored to all candidates in Computer
Science and Management Information Systems (MIS). However, there are many
reputable resources where you can access study material, practice questions, mock
tests, and preparatory books that cover the topics typically tested in exams related
to Computer Science, IT, and MIS.

73
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Here are some websites and resources that might help you prepare for NGAT and
similar exams:
1. GeeksforGeeks
Website: https://www.geeksforgeeks.org
Overview: GeeksforGeeks is a very popular website for Computer Science and IT-
related topics. It offers tutorials, practice problems, and discussions on key topics
like Data Structures, Algorithms, Networking, Databases, and more.
You can find free resources on various subjects covered in exams related to
Computer Science and MIS here.
2. IndiaBix
Website: https://www.indiabix.com
Overview: IndiaBix is a great platform for practicing aptitude, logical reasoning,
and other subjects commonly tested in competitive exams. They offer hundreds of
practice questions in Quantitative Aptitude, Logical Reasoning, and Verbal
Ability, which are crucial for MIS and Computer Science entrance exams.
3. Embibe
Website: https://www.embibe.com
Overview: Embibe offers personalized learning and exam practice for various
competitive exams. They have specialized content for Computer Science,
Information Technology, and Management Information Systems. Embibe
provides mock tests, quizzes, and detailed performance analysis to help students
prepare effectively.
4. Gradeup
Website: https://gradeup.co
Overview: Gradeup offers mock tests, practice questions, and study material
specifically tailored for various competitive exams, including those in Computer
Science and MIS. The platform provides test series and practice papers on subjects
like Aptitude, Reasoning, Data Structures, and more.
5. CareerLauncher
Website: https://www.careerlauncher.com
Overview: CareerLauncher provides test series, exam preparation books, and
online coaching for various entrance exams, including those for MIS, Computer
Science, and IT fields. They also offer online mock tests and personalized study
plans.
6. Testbook
Website: https://testbook.com
Overview: Testbook provides a wide range of online mock tests and study
materials specifically designed for entrance exams in Computer Science, IT, and
MIS. They offer question banks, live classes, and exam strategies.

74
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

7. Coursera
Website: https://www.coursera.org
Overview: Coursera offers online courses from top universities and institutions.
You can find courses related to Computer Science, IT, and MIS, which will help
you strengthen your understanding of the core concepts in these areas. Though this
is not specifically tailored for the NGAT exam, these courses can significantly
boost your knowledge.
8. Udemy
Website: https://www.udemy.com
Overview: Udemy offers online courses on a variety of topics including Data
Science, Computer Science, IT, and MIS. They also provide exam-specific
preparatory courses and quizzes which can help in enhancing both theoretical and
practical knowledge.
9. Booksellers & Publishers:
 Arihant Publications – They provide books like "Objective Computer
Science", "Computer Science Engineering Practice Workbook", and
others that are perfect for NGAT, MCA, or other related entrance exams.
 R.S. Aggarwal’s Aptitude Series – This is a highly recommended book for
preparing for quantitative aptitude and reasoning sections.
 P.K. Sinha’s "Objective Computer Science" – This book offers a
comprehensive set of questions on topics like Data Structures, Algorithms,
DBMS, and Operating Systems, which are crucial for IT and Computer
Science exams.
10. Online Exam Preparation Websites:
 Oliveboard – Offers online test series for various competitive exams,
including those in Computer Science, MIS, and IT.
 Embibe – Provides personalized learning tools and a test series for various
competitive exams, including MIS and Computer Science.
11. YouTube Channels:
 Unacademy – Offers free video lessons and lectures on various entrance
exams, including Computer Science, IT, and MIS subjects.
 Khan Academy – Provides free tutorials on Math, Computer Science, and
other relevant subjects.
General Preparation Strategy:
1. Understand the Syllabus:
Familiarize yourself with the syllabus of the NGAT or any similar exams.
Focus on subjects like Data Structures, Algorithms, Operating Systems,
Networking, Databases, and Aptitude.

75
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

2. Concept Clarity:
Use resources like GeeksforGeeks and Khan Academy to understand the
basic concepts in Computer Science and MIS.
3. Mock Tests and Practice:
Regularly take mock tests available on platforms like Testbook, Embibe,
and IndiaBix to build confidence and improve speed.
4. Time Management:
Practice solving questions within a time limit to simulate real exam
conditions. This will help you manage time effectively during the actual test.
5. Revise Key Concepts:
Make sure to revise key topics, especially for subjects like Aptitude,
Reasoning, and MIS Management concepts.
By using these resources, you can prepare effectively for the NGAT exam and
other similar competitive exams. For specific NGAT-related content, you might
want to check with official sources like university portals or exam conducting
bodies for exact details about the exam syllabus and pattern.
Comprehension - Section 1
I felt the wall of the tunnel shiver. The master alarm squealed through my
earphones. Almost simultaneously, Jack yelled down to me that there was a
warning light on. Fleeting but spectacular sights snapped into ans out of view, the
snow, the shower of debris, the moon, looming close and big, the dazzling
sunshine for once unfiltered by layers of air. The last twelve hours before re-entry
were particular bone-chilling. During this period, I had to go up in to command
module. Even after the fiery re-entry splashing down in 81o water in south pacific,
we could still see our frosty breath inside the command module.
1. The word 'Command Module' used twice in the given passage indicates perhaps
that it deals with
A. an alarming journey
B. a commanding situation
C. a journey into outer space
D. a frightful battle.
Answer: Option C
2. Which one of the following reasons would one consider as more as possible for
the warning lights to be on?
A. There was a shower of debris.
B. Jack was yelling.
C. A catastrophe was imminent.
D. The moon was looming close and big.
Answer: Option C

76
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

3. The statement that the dazzling sunshine was "for once unfiltered by layers of
air" means
A. that the sun was very hot
B. that there was no strong wind
C. that the air was unpolluted
D. none of above
Answer: Option D
Comprehension - Section 2

Mahatma Gandhi believed that industrialization was no answer to the problems

that plague the mass of India's poor and that villagers should be taught to be self-
sufficient in food, weave their own cloth from cotton and eschew the glittering
prizes that the 20th century so temptingly offers. Such an idyllic and rural paradise
did not appear to those who inherited the reins of political power.
1. The meaning of 'glittering prizes that the 20th century so temptingly offers is
A. pursuit of a commercialized material culture
B. replacement of rural by urban interests
C. complete removal of poverty
D. absence of violence and corruption
Answer: Option C
2. The basis of 'an idyllic and rural paradise' is
A. rapid industrialization of villages
B. self-sufficiency in food clothes and simplicity of the lifestyle
C. bringing to the villages the glittering prizes of the 20th century
D. supporting those holdings powerful political positions
Answer: Option B
3. Which one of the following best illustrates the relationship between the phrases:
(i) 'eschew the glittering prizes' and
(ii) 'idyllic and rural paradise'?
A. unless you do (i), you cannot have (ii)
B. (i) and (ii) are identical in meaning
C. First of all you must have (ii) in order to do (i)
D. the meaning of (i) is directly opposite to (ii)
Answer: Option D
4. Mahatma Gandhi's views opposed industrialization of villages because
A. it would help the poor and not the rich
B. it would take away the skill of the villagers
C. it would affect the culture of the Indians
D. it would undermine self-sufficiency and destroy the beauty of life of the villager

77
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: Option B
5. Mahatma Gandhi's dream of 'an idyllic and rural paradise' was not shared by
A. those who did not believe in the industrialization of the country
B. those who called him the Father of Nation
C. those who inherited political powers after independence
D. those who believed that villages should be self-sufficient in food and cloth
Answer: Option A
To get more GAT Questions
Verbal reasoning: reading compressions, sentence completion, vocabulary
Questions, sentence Equivalence Question with answers
Here’s a set of verbal reasoning practice questions covering reading
comprehension, sentence completion, vocabulary, and sentence equivalence, with
answers provided:
1. Reading Comprehension
Read the passage and answer the question:
Passage:
The ability to adapt to new environments is a hallmark of human resilience. This
adaptability stems from the brain's capacity to form and reorganize synaptic
connections, particularly in response to learning or experience. While this
neuroplasticity diminishes with age, studies suggest that maintaining cognitive
engagement can slow its decline.
Question:
What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Human brains lose the ability to form new synaptic connections over time.
B. Neuroplasticity enables humans to adapt to new environments, but it declines
with age.
C. Cognitive engagement is a natural ability that all humans possess.
D. Synaptic connections in the brain are fixed and unchangeable after a certain age.
Answer: B
2. Sentence Completion
Choose the word or set of words that best completes the sentence:
Question:
Despite her extensive experience in the field, her suggestions were often dismissed
as ______ by her colleagues, who were reluctant to accept any ideas that
challenged the status quo.
A. pragmatic
B. insightful
C. radical

78
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

D. predictable
E. indispensable
Answer: C
3. Vocabulary Questions
Question:
Which of the following words is closest in meaning to "ephemeral"?
A. Eternal
B. Transient
C. Obvious
D. Impressive
Answer: B
Question:
Which word is the opposite of "ostentatious"?
A. Subtle
B. Lavish
C. Magnificent
D. Pretentious
Answer: A
4. Sentence Equivalence
Select two words that best complete the sentence and produce sentences that are
alike in meaning:
Question:
The scientist’s theory was regarded as ______ by many of her peers, who
dismissed it as speculative and unsupported by empirical data.
A. innovative
B. dubious
C. plausible
D. questionable
E. credible
F. redundant
Answer: B and D
Would you like more practice questions or detailed explanations for the answers?
yes
Here are detailed explanations for the answers, along with additional practice
questions for each category:
1. Reading Comprehension Explanation
Question Recap:
The passage discusses how humans adapt to environments through neuroplasticity,
which declines with age but can be maintained with cognitive engagement.

79
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: B. Neuroplasticity enables humans to adapt to new environments,

but it declines with age.
 Why not A? The passage acknowledges the decline of neuroplasticity but
emphasizes adaptation, not a total loss.
 Why not C? Cognitive engagement is a strategy to maintain neuroplasticity,
but it is not the main focus.
 Why not D? This is incorrect as the passage highlights the brain’s ability to
reorganize.
Additional Reading Comprehension Question
Passage:
The recent surge in electric vehicle (EV) sales is attributed to rising environmental
awareness and significant advancements in battery technology. However,
challenges remain, particularly in the form of limited charging infrastructure and
the high initial cost of EVs, which hinder widespread adoption.
Question:
What is the author’s primary purpose in writing the passage?
A. To promote the use of electric vehicles.
B. To highlight both the progress and obstacles in the adoption of electric vehicles.
C. To argue that battery technology alone cannot drive EV adoption.
D. To criticize the lack of charging infrastructure.
Answer: B
2. Sentence Completion Explanation
Question Recap:
The sentence implies that her ideas challenged the status quo, and her colleagues
dismissed them.
Answer: C. Radical
 Why not A? Pragmatic suggests practicality, which doesn’t align with the
sentence context.
 Why not B? Insightful would make the colleagues' reaction seem
unreasonable, which the sentence doesn’t imply.
 Why not D? Predictable contradicts the idea of challenging the status quo.
 Why not E? Indispensable would imply her ideas were highly valued,
which they weren’t.
Additional Sentence Completion Question
Question:
The artist’s latest work is both ______ and thought-provoking, blending traditional
techniques with contemporary themes.
A. mundane
B. innovative

80
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. derivative
D. groundbreaking
E. uninspired
Answer: B and D
3. Vocabulary Questions Explanation
Question Recap:
 Ephemeral → B. Transient
o Ephemeral means lasting for a short time, which aligns with
"transient."
 Opposite of Ostentatious → A. Subtle
o Ostentatious means showy or extravagant, so the opposite is "subtle."
Additional Vocabulary Questions
Synonym Question:
Which of the following is closest in meaning to "ameliorate"?
A. Worsen
B. Improve
C. Abandon
D. Preserve
Answer: B. Improve
Antonym Question:
Which word is the opposite of "obstinate"?
A. Stubborn
B. Flexible
C. Determined
D. Persistent
Answer: B. Flexible
4. Sentence Equivalence Explanation
Question Recap:
The sentence suggests the theory was speculative and dismissed, which aligns with
dubious (B) and questionable (D).
 Why not A (innovative)? Innovative suggests positive reception, which
doesn’t fit the context.
 Why not C (plausible)? Plausible suggests the theory was considered
likely, contradicting the peers' dismissal.
 Why not E (credible)? Credible implies believability, which contradicts the
peers' skepticism.
 Why not F (redundant)? Redundant suggests repetitiveness, unrelated to
the dismissal.
Additional Sentence Equivalence Question

81
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question:
The politician’s speech was so ______ that even his critics found it difficult to
disagree with his points.
A. inflammatory
B. persuasive
C. compelling
D. biased
E. objective
F. convincing
Answer: C and F
Would you like more practice questions, or would you prefer deeper explanations
for a specific section?
Let’s dive into more practice questions with detailed explanations for each
category.
1. Reading Comprehension (Practice Question)
Passage:
In recent years, urban planners have emphasized the concept of "smart cities,"
which integrate technology and data to improve infrastructure, governance, and
quality of life. However, critics argue that an over-reliance on technology could
lead to privacy concerns, increased inequality, and potential misuse of data by
corporations or governments.
Question:
Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude toward smart cities?
A. Entirely optimistic about their potential benefits.
B. Cautiously optimistic but mindful of potential drawbacks.
C. Strongly critical of the reliance on technology.
D. Neutral and uninterested in the debate.
Answer: B. Cautiously optimistic but mindful of potential drawbacks.
Explanation:
 The passage acknowledges the benefits (improved infrastructure and quality
of life) but also discusses concerns (privacy and inequality). This shows
cautious optimism.
 Why not A? The passage includes criticisms, making "entirely optimistic"
incorrect.
 Why not C? While criticisms are mentioned, the tone isn’t strongly
negative.
 Why not D? The author is engaged, not neutral or uninterested.
2. Sentence Completion (Practice Question)

82
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question:
Although the book received critical acclaim for its innovative narrative structure,
many readers found its dense prose and unconventional style ______.
A. enthralling
B. accessible
C. perplexing
D. mundane
E. invigorating
Answer: C. Perplexing
Explanation:
 The sentence contrasts critical acclaim with reader difficulty. "Dense prose
and unconventional style" suggest confusion, making "perplexing" the best
fit.
 Why not A? Enthralling implies excitement, which contradicts the readers'
reaction.
 Why not B? Accessible means easy to understand, which doesn’t align with
the description.
 Why not D? Mundane means boring, unrelated to the described difficulty.
 Why not E? Invigorating suggests energy, which doesn’t fit the context.
3. Vocabulary (Synonym and Antonym Practice)
Synonym Question
Which of the following is closest in meaning to "lucid"?
A. Confusing
B. Clear
C. Vague
D. Complex
Answer: B. Clear
Explanation:
"Lucid" means easy to understand or clear in thought.
Antonym Question
Which word is the opposite of "gregarious"?
A. Friendly
B. Sociable
C. Introverted
D. Outgoing
Answer: C. Introverted
Explanation:
"Gregarious" means sociable, so the opposite is "introverted," which refers to
someone who prefers solitude.

83
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

4. Sentence Equivalence (Practice Question)

Question:
The candidate’s explanation was so ______ that it left the audience feeling more
confused than before.
A. convoluted
B. straightforward
C. incoherent
D. transparent
E. perplexing
F. simplistic
Answer: A and C (convoluted and incoherent).
Explanation:
The sentence highlights confusion, making "convoluted" (complex and hard to
follow) and "incoherent" (lacking clarity) the best fits.
 Why not B (straightforward)? This suggests clarity, the opposite of
confusion.
 Why not D (transparent)? This also implies clarity.
 Why not E (perplexing)? Perplexing describes the effect, not the
explanation itself.
 Why not F (simplistic)? Simplistic suggests oversimplification, which
doesn’t align with the context.
Would you like even more questions, deeper explanations for these answers, or
help with a specific type of verbal reasoning question? 😊
Here’s an extended set of verbal reasoning questions with detailed explanations
for each type. Let’s continue with diverse questions to build a comprehensive
understanding.
1. Reading Comprehension (Practice Question)
Passage:
The 20th century saw unprecedented advances in medical science, including the
discovery of antibiotics, the development of vaccines, and the advent of modern
surgical techniques. However, these achievements have also led to new challenges,
such as the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria and the ethical dilemmas
surrounding genetic engineering. Despite these obstacles, the progress in
healthcare has undeniably improved the quality and longevity of human life.
Question:
Which of the following statements is best supported by the passage?
A. Modern surgical techniques have eradicated all major health challenges.
B. The discovery of antibiotics has created no complications in healthcare.
C. Advances in healthcare have significantly enhanced human life, though they

84
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

bring challenges.
D. Ethical dilemmas in medicine have stalled progress in healthcare innovation.
Answer: C. Advances in healthcare have significantly enhanced human life,
though they bring challenges.
Explanation:
 The passage emphasizes the positive impacts of medical progress while
acknowledging challenges like antibiotic resistance and ethical dilemmas.
 Why not A? The passage does not claim that all health challenges have been
eradicated.
 Why not B? Antibiotic resistance is explicitly mentioned as a complication.
 Why not D? Ethical dilemmas are a concern, but there’s no indication
they’ve stalled progress.
2. Sentence Completion (Practice Question)
Question:
The artist’s work, though initially dismissed as ______, eventually gained
recognition for its profound originality and emotional depth.
A. derivative
B. innovative
C. groundbreaking
D. simplistic
E. obscure
Answer: A. Derivative
Explanation:
 The word "dismissed" suggests a negative perception of the artist’s work,
and "profound originality" contrasts with this perception. "Derivative"
(lacking originality) fits this contrast.
 Why not B or C? Both imply originality, which contradicts the initial
dismissal.
 Why not D? While negative, "simplistic" doesn’t align with the eventual
recognition for depth.
 Why not E? "Obscure" refers to being unknown, not the quality of the
work.
3. Vocabulary (Synonym and Antonym Practice)
Synonym Question
Which of the following is closest in meaning to "prodigious"?
A. Tiny
B. Extraordinary
C. Ordinary
D. Insignificant

85
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: B. Extraordinary
Explanation:
 "Prodigious" means remarkably great in size, degree, or extent, aligning with
"extraordinary."
Antonym Question
Which word is the opposite of "benevolent"?
A. Malevolent
B. Generous
C. Kind
D. Compassionate
Answer: A. Malevolent
Explanation:
 "Benevolent" means kind and charitable, while "malevolent" means having
ill will or evil intentions.
4. Sentence Equivalence (Practice Question)
Question:
Although the professor’s lectures were often ______, they were undeniably
thorough, covering every detail of the subject matter.
A. engaging
B. tedious
C. illuminating
D. monotonous
E. captivating
F. dull
Answer: B and D (tedious and monotonous).
Explanation:
 The lectures were thorough but described negatively, implying they were
boring. "Tedious" and "monotonous" both mean boring or repetitive.
 Why not A or E? These imply the lectures were interesting, contradicting
the negative tone.
 Why not C? "Illuminating" suggests enlightening, which doesn’t fit the
tone.
 Why not F? "Dull" could work in meaning but lacks the precise nuance of
"tedious" or "monotonous."
Bonus Challenge Question (Mixed Verbal Reasoning)
Question:
The advent of social media has been both a blessing and a curse. While it enables
instant communication and fosters global connections, it also contributes to the

86
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

spread of misinformation and can lead to addictive behaviors. In this context, the
role of digital literacy becomes paramount.
Which of the following inferences is best supported by the passage?
A. Social media is inherently harmful and should be avoided.
B. The benefits of social media far outweigh its drawbacks.
C. Digital literacy is crucial for mitigating the negative effects of social media.
D. Social media is primarily responsible for addictive behaviors in modern society.
Answer: C. Digital literacy is crucial for mitigating the negative effects of
social media.
Explanation:
 The passage highlights both positives and negatives of social media but
emphasizes the importance of digital literacy to address challenges.
 Why not A or B? These represent extreme views not supported by the
passage.
 Why not D? Addictive behaviors are mentioned but not identified as the
primary issue.
Would you like further clarifications, more advanced practice, or tips for
improving verbal reasoning? 😊
Let’s go deeper with advanced practice questions, detailed clarifications, and tips
to sharpen your verbal reasoning skills.
1. Advanced Reading Comprehension Practice
Passage:
The rapid pace of technological innovation has transformed the job market, leading
to the creation of new roles while rendering others obsolete. Many experts argue
that this shift necessitates a fundamental rethinking of education systems to equip
students with the skills required for future careers. However, critics caution that
focusing solely on technical skills could undermine the development of critical
thinking and creativity, which are equally essential in a rapidly evolving world.
Question 1:
What is the primary concern of critics regarding education systems adapting to
technological changes?
A. The overemphasis on technical skills might compromise other important
abilities.
B. Creativity and critical thinking are no longer relevant in modern careers.
C. Education systems are evolving too quickly to meet technological demands.
D. Students should not be taught technical skills until later in life.
Answer: A. The overemphasis on technical skills might compromise other
important abilities.
Explanation:

87
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The passage mentions critics' concern about balancing technical skills with
critical thinking and creativity.
 Why not B? The passage states these skills are essential, not irrelevant.
 Why not C or D? These issues are not discussed in the passage.
2. Advanced Sentence Completion Practice
Question 2:
The journalist’s investigation revealed widespread corruption in the administration,
but her report was criticized for being overly ______, lacking the depth and
analysis necessary to fully understand the issue.
A. thorough
B. superficial
C. groundbreaking
D. convoluted
E. transparent
Answer: B. Superficial
Explanation:
 The phrase "lacking depth and analysis" suggests the report was shallow,
making "superficial" the correct choice.
 Why not A? "Thorough" contradicts the idea of lacking depth.
 Why not C? "Groundbreaking" implies innovation, unrelated to criticism.
 Why not D or E? These don’t match the context of the report being
shallow.
3. Advanced Vocabulary Practice
Synonym Question
Question 3:
Which of the following is closest in meaning to "recalcitrant"?
A. Compliant
B. Defiant
C. Ambiguous
D. Eager
Answer: B. Defiant
Explanation:
 "Recalcitrant" means resistant to authority or control, closely aligned with
"defiant."
Antonym Question
Question 4:
Which word is the opposite of "exacerbate"?
A. Aggravate
B. Worsen

88
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Alleviate
D. Prolong
Answer: C. Alleviate
Explanation:
 "Exacerbate" means to make worse, so "alleviate" (to lessen) is the opposite.
4. Advanced Sentence Equivalence Practice
Question 5:
The scientist’s hypothesis was initially dismissed as ______, but subsequent
experiments provided compelling evidence to support its validity.
A. radical
B. implausible
C. unorthodox
D. improbable
E. ingenious
F. groundbreaking
Answer: B and D (implausible and improbable).
Explanation:
 The hypothesis was dismissed, suggesting skepticism about its validity.
"Implausible" and "improbable" fit this meaning.
 Why not A or C? While "radical" and "unorthodox" suggest unconventional
ideas, they don’t align with being dismissed for lack of validity.
 Why not E or F? These are positive descriptors, which contradict the idea
of initial dismissal.
Tips for Sharpening Verbal Reasoning Skills
1. Active Reading Practice
o When reading passages, identify the main idea, the author’s tone,
and any contrasts or shifts in opinion.
o Summarize paragraphs in your own words to ensure comprehension.
2. Context Clues for Vocabulary
o Pay attention to surrounding words in a sentence to infer the meaning
of unfamiliar terms.
o Look for signal words like "but," "although," and "however" to
determine contrasts.
3. Answer Elimination
o For multiple-choice questions, eliminate obviously incorrect options
first to narrow down choices.
4. Practice with Timed Sets
o Set a timer to simulate test conditions, as verbal reasoning often
requires quick thinking under time constraints.

89
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

5. Expand Your Vocabulary

o Use flashcards, apps like Quizlet, or word lists (e.g., GRE/GMAT
word lists) to build a stronger vocabulary base.
6. Analyze Errors
o After practicing, review wrong answers to understand why they were
incorrect and learn from mistakes.
Would you like additional resources, more challenging questions, or specific
strategies for a verbal reasoning test you're preparing for? 😊
4o
Let’s delve into targeted resources, advanced strategies, and additional
challenging questions to refine your verbal reasoning skills. Here's a structured
approach:
1. Advanced Reading Comprehension
Passage:
Historically, the relationship between art and politics has been contentious. While
some argue that art should remain separate from political discourse, others contend
that art is inherently political, reflecting and shaping societal values. For instance,
during the Renaissance, artists often relied on patronage from political leaders,
embedding political messages within their works. Similarly, modern street art often
critiques political systems, revealing the enduring entanglement of art and politics.
Question 1:
What is the primary purpose of the passage?
A. To argue that art and politics should remain separate.
B. To highlight examples of how art has intersected with politics.
C. To critique the use of art as a political tool.
D. To explore how modern art has become apolitical.
Answer: B. To highlight examples of how art has intersected with politics.
Explanation:
 The passage provides historical and modern examples of art's relationship
with politics.
 Why not A or C? The passage doesn’t take a stance for or against the
intersection of art and politics.
 Why not D? Modern street art is explicitly described as political,
contradicting D.
2. Advanced Sentence Completion
Question 2:
The critic’s review was so ______ that readers were left unsure whether she
considered the film a masterpiece or an utter failure.
A. equivocal

90
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

B. laudatory
C. scathing
D. unambiguous
E. verbose
Answer: A. Equivocal
Explanation:
 "Equivocal" means ambiguous or unclear, matching the confusion described
in the sentence.
 Why not B or C? These suggest clear opinions, either positive or negative,
which don’t align with the reader’s uncertainty.
 Why not D? Unambiguous is the opposite of what’s needed.
 Why not E? Verbose describes wordiness, not lack of clarity.
3. Advanced Vocabulary
Synonym Question
Question 3:
Which word is closest in meaning to "inscrutable"?
A. Transparent
B. Mysterious
C. Predictable
D. Obvious
Answer: B. Mysterious
Explanation:
 "Inscrutable" means impossible to understand or interpret, aligning with
"mysterious."
Antonym Question
Question 4:
Which word is the opposite of "ameliorate"?
A. Worsen
B. Improve
C. Enhance
D. Strengthen
Answer: A. Worsen
Explanation:
 "Ameliorate" means to make better, so the opposite is "worsen."
4. Advanced Sentence Equivalence
Question 5:
The new employee’s ______ approach to problem-solving impressed her
colleagues, who appreciated her ability to think creatively in challenging
situations.

91
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. pragmatic
B. innovative
C. dogmatic
D. unorthodox
E. conventional
F. resourceful
Answer: B and D (innovative and unorthodox).
Explanation:
 The sentence highlights creativity, which aligns with "innovative" and
"unorthodox."
 Why not A, C, or E? Pragmatic and conventional suggest practical or
traditional methods, not creativity. Dogmatic implies rigidity, which is the
opposite of creativity.
 Why not F? While "resourceful" can involve creativity, it focuses more on
using available resources effectively.
5. Expert Strategies for Verbal Reasoning Success
Step 1: Decode the Question
 Identify key phrases: Look for indicators of tone (e.g., "despite,"
"although").
 Understand the question type: Is it asking for the main idea, tone, or an
inference?
Step 2: Eliminate Wrong Answers
 Use process of elimination to remove choices that are too extreme,
irrelevant, or unsupported by the text.
Step 3: Read Actively
 Annotate passages if permitted. Highlight key points like the author’s
opinion, contrasts, and examples.
 Summarize as you read: Ask yourself, “What is the point of this paragraph?”
Step 4: Vocabulary Mastery
 Learn root words: Understanding prefixes, suffixes, and roots can help you
deduce meanings of unfamiliar words.
o Example: "bene-" (good) in "benevolent" means kind, while "mal-"
(bad) in "malevolent" means harmful.
 Practice word relationships: Study synonyms, antonyms, and nuanced
differences between similar words.
Step 5: Simulate Test Conditions
 Practice verbal reasoning questions with time constraints to build speed and
accuracy.
6. Additional Resources

92
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

1. Word Power Made Easy by Norman Lewis: A classic for building

vocabulary.
2. Barron’s GRE or GMAT Verbal Workbooks: Excellent for advanced
verbal reasoning practice.
3. Free Online Resources:
o Websites like Vocabulary.com for word games and quizzes.
o ETS GRE practice sets for sentence equivalence and reading
comprehension.
4. Apps for Vocabulary:
o Magoosh GRE Vocabulary App.
o Quizlet for custom flashcards.

Would you like further assistance with any specific part (e.g., reading
comprehension tips, vocabulary building), or should I create a custom verbal
reasoning study plan for you? 😊
Here’s a custom verbal reasoning study plan to help you improve systematically.
This plan is structured into three levels (Beginner, Intermediate, and Advanced)
and covers all critical areas: reading comprehension, vocabulary, sentence
completion, and sentence equivalence.
Week 1: Building Foundations (Beginner Level)
Day 1: Vocabulary Basics
1. Objective: Learn 15-20 common GRE/GMAT vocabulary words and their
usage.
o Use resources like Quizlet or the Magoosh Vocabulary App.
o Focus on synonyms, antonyms, and example sentences for each word.
2. Practice Activity:
o Write 5 sentences using newly learned words.
o Quiz yourself with flashcards.
Day 2: Reading Actively
1. Objective: Practice active reading skills.
o Read a short editorial or article (from newspapers like The Guardian,
The New York Times, or The Hindu).
o Identify the main idea, author’s tone, and key supporting details.
2. Practice Activity:
o Summarize the article in 2-3 sentences.
o Answer: What is the author arguing? Is there a bias?
Day 3: Sentence Completion Practice
1. Objective: Focus on filling gaps with context clues.
o Practice 10 beginner-level sentence completion questions.

93
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

2. Strategies to Follow:
o Look for signal words (e.g., “but,” “although”) to understand
contrasts.
o Eliminate choices that don’t match the sentence tone or structure.
Day 4: Sentence Equivalence Basics
1. Objective: Focus on recognizing pairs of words with similar meanings.
o Practice 5-10 beginner-level sentence equivalence questions.
2. Tips:
o Look for synonym pairs.
o Understand the overall tone of the sentence.
Day 5: Revision & Quizzes
1. Objective: Reinforce learning.
o Review vocabulary from Days 1-4.
o Retake sentence completion and sentence equivalence practice
questions.
2. Extra Practice:
o Try a short 5-question reading comprehension quiz (easy level).
Week 2: Strengthening Skills (Intermediate Level)
Day 1: Vocabulary Expansion
1. Objective: Learn 20-25 intermediate-level words.
o Focus on word roots, prefixes, and suffixes (e.g., "bene-" = good;
"mal-" = bad).
2. Practice Activity:
o Group words with similar meanings to build clusters (e.g., “happy” =
elated, jubilant, ecstatic).
Day 2: Advanced Reading Comprehension
1. Objective: Practice multi-paragraph passages.
o Read articles from The Atlantic or Scientific American.
2. Practice Activity:
o Answer questions like:
 What’s the author’s primary argument?
 Are there any assumptions or biases?
Day 3: Sentence Completion (Intermediate)
1. Objective: Tackle longer, more nuanced sentence completion questions.
2. Practice Tips:
o Identify the logical flow of the sentence.
o Focus on understanding tone: Is it positive, negative, or neutral?
Day 4: Sentence Equivalence (Intermediate)
1. Objective: Practice identifying subtle differences in word meaning.

94
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

o Solve 10 intermediate-level questions.

2. Key Focus:
o Ensure both selected words fit seamlessly in the sentence.
Day 5: Mixed Practice
1. Objective: Combine reading comprehension, sentence completion, and
sentence equivalence.
o Complete 10 mixed questions.
2. Reflection: Review your mistakes and categorize them (e.g., vocabulary
gap, misunderstanding tone, etc.).
Week 3: Mastery (Advanced Level)
Day 1: Vocabulary Mastery
1. Objective: Learn 30 advanced words, focusing on nuanced meanings.
2. Practice Activity:
o Use new words in complex sentences.
o Pair words with opposites to reinforce antonyms.
Day 2: Advanced Reading Comprehension
1. Objective: Focus on dense or abstract passages (e.g., philosophy,
economics).
2. Practice Activity:
o Practice inference-based questions: What is implied but not directly
stated?
o Answer: What is the author’s tone? (e.g., critical, neutral, optimistic).
Day 3: Sentence Completion (Advanced)
1. Objective: Tackle complex sentence structures with multiple blanks.
2. Tips:
o Fill one blank at a time, ensuring it aligns with the tone of the
sentence.
o Look for clue words that connect blanks logically.
Day 4: Advanced Sentence Equivalence
1. Objective: Focus on nuanced or rare synonym pairs.
2. Challenge Practice:
o Try GRE/GMAT-level sentence equivalence questions with abstract
topics.
Day 5: Simulated Test Practice
1. Objective: Take a timed verbal reasoning test (20-30 questions).
o Use online practice platforms or ETS sample tests.
2. Post-Test Review:
o Identify weak areas (e.g., vocabulary, inference questions) and
strategize improvements.

95
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Additional Resources for Each Week

1. Practice Platforms:
o Magoosh GRE/GMAT question banks.
o Khan Academy SAT/GMAT verbal reasoning sections.
2. Mobile Apps:
o Vocabulary.com (daily quizzes).
o Elevate (for reading comprehension and vocabulary).
3. Books:
o Barron’s GRE/GMAT Verbal Workbooks for detailed practice.
o Word Power Made Easy by Norman Lewis for vocabulary.
Would you like me to customize this further, provide more resources, or share
additional advanced-level practice questions? 😊
4o
Here’s a more detailed customization and additional resources to align with
advanced-level preparation for verbal reasoning.
Advanced-Level Focus Areas
1. Reading Comprehension
2. Vocabulary Building and Application
3. Sentence Completion and Sentence Equivalence Mastery
4. Test Simulation and Performance Analysis
Let’s dive deeper into each section:
1. Advanced Reading Comprehension
Daily Practice Routine (30–45 minutes)
 Choose Complex Passages:
o Philosophy: Works by Nietzsche, Plato (The Republic).
o Economics: Articles from The Economist or Paul Krugman essays.
o Science/Technology: Scientific American, Nature.
 Activity:
o Identify the main idea and author’s tone.
o Highlight any contrasts (e.g., however, although).
o Write a brief summary (50–75 words) to condense ideas.
Challenge Practice Questions
Passage:
In the digital age, the boundaries between public and private life have blurred
significantly. Social media platforms encourage users to share intimate details of
their lives, often leading to unforeseen consequences. While proponents argue that
such openness fosters community and connection, critics point to the erosion of
privacy and the potential misuse of personal information by corporations and

96
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

governments. The debate raises fundamental questions about the trade-offs

between connectivity and individual autonomy.
Question 1:
The author’s tone in the passage can best be described as:
A. Optimistic and hopeful.
B. Objective with a hint of skepticism.
C. Indifferent and detached.
D. Alarmist and dramatic.
Answer: B. Objective with a hint of skepticism.
Explanation:
 The author discusses both sides objectively but subtly critiques privacy
erosion.
Question 2:
According to the passage, critics are primarily concerned with:
A. The lack of community fostered by social media.
B. The commercialization of public life.
C. The negative impact of openness on privacy.
D. The inability of governments to regulate technology.
Answer: C. The negative impact of openness on privacy.
2. Vocabulary Building and Application
Daily Vocabulary Goals
1. Learn 15–20 new words daily.
o Use word lists: Barron’s 333 High-Frequency Words or Magoosh
GRE.
o Focus on contextual learning—understand usage in sentences.
Challenge Exercises
1. Synonym Practice:
o Word: Ephemeral
 Synonym: Transient
 Sentence: The beauty of the sunset was ephemeral, fading
within minutes.
2. Antonym Practice:
o Word: Ardent
 Antonym: Apathetic
 Sentence: While she was an ardent supporter of the cause, many
remained apathetic.
3. Multiple Contexts:
o Word: Prosaic
 Context 1: Ordinary or dull.

97
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Sentence: The lecture was criticized for being overly

prosaic.
 Context 2: Relating to prose.
 Sentence: His writing style is prosaic compared to poetic
works.
Resources:
 Quizlet Decks: Create custom decks for GRE/GMAT vocabulary.
 Books: Manhattan GRE Advanced Vocabulary Flashcards.
3. Sentence Completion and Sentence Equivalence Mastery
Daily Practice (20–30 minutes)
 Solve 10 advanced-level sentence completion and sentence equivalence
questions daily.
 Use timed sets to simulate test conditions (average: 1–1.5 minutes per
question).
Challenge Practice Questions
Question 1: Sentence Completion
Although his argument initially appeared ______, upon closer examination, it
became evident that it was supported by rigorous research and logical reasoning.
A. cogent
B. tenuous
C. ambiguous
D. ingenious
E. feeble
Answer: B. Tenuous
Explanation:
 Clue: “Initially appeared” suggests initial doubt; “closer examination”
indicates it was later proven solid.
Question 2: Sentence Equivalence
The professor’s lecture on quantum physics was so ______ that even students with
no background in the subject found it fascinating and easy to follow.
A. convoluted
B. accessible
C. impenetrable
D. lucid
E. obtuse
F. clear
Answer: B and D (accessible and lucid).
Explanation:

98
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The sentence highlights ease of understanding, so “accessible” and “lucid”

fit.
Resources for Sentence Completion/Equivalence Practice:
 ETS GRE Official Guide
 Kaplan GRE/GMAT Verbal Workbooks
4. Test Simulation and Performance Analysis
Weekly Full-Length Practice Tests
1. Schedule 1–2 full-length verbal reasoning practice tests per week.
o Use: ETS Power Prep, Manhattan Prep, or GMAT Official Practice
Tests.
2. Time yourself strictly to replicate actual test conditions.
Post-Test Review
 Categorize errors into:
1. Vocabulary gaps.
2. Misinterpretation of passage tone/intent.
3. Failure to recognize contrast or logical flow.
Test-Taking Tips:
 Prioritize: Answer straightforward questions first; mark difficult ones for
review.
 Eliminate: Use process of elimination aggressively.
 Contextualize: For vocabulary, plug options into the sentence for the best
fit.
Bonus Resources for Advanced Learners
1. Websites and Platforms:
o Magoosh GRE Blog for strategies and quizzes.
o Khan Academy SAT/GMAT Verbal Practice.
2. Podcasts for Verbal Skills:
o The Vocabulary Builder Podcast by Magoosh.
o Grammar Girl Quick and Dirty Tips.
3. Mobile Apps:
o Elevate: Improves reading comprehension and focus.
o Anki Flashcards: For custom vocabulary decks.
Would you like me to provide additional practice questions, focus on specific weak
areas, or help with another verbal reasoning component? 😊
Let’s narrow the focus to address specific weak areas or provide more targeted
practice questions in verbal reasoning. Please let me know which area you’d like
to concentrate on:
1. Reading Comprehension:
o Inference-based, tone identification, or multi-paragraph questions.

99
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

2. Vocabulary Building:
o Synonyms, antonyms, word roots, or nuanced word usage.
3. Sentence Completion:
o Single-blank or multi-blank complex sentences.
4. Sentence Equivalence:
o Finding nuanced synonym pairs or advanced-level questions.
5. Test Strategies:
o Time management, eliminating incorrect answers, or handling
difficult passages.
Feel free to mention any other verbal reasoning skill you’d like to improve, and I’ll
provide tailored practice and resources!
Verbal reasoning: reading compressions, sentence completion, vocabulary
Questions, sentence Equivalence Question with answers

Verbal reasoning: reading compressions, sentence completion, vocabulary

Questions, sentence Equivalence Question with answers with Source books
websites
Certainly! Here’s an overview of verbal reasoning components such as
reading comprehension, sentence completion, vocabulary questions, and
sentence equivalence questions, along with sample questions and answers. For
further study, I will also recommend some source books and websites.
1. Reading Comprehension
**Sample Question:**
Read the following passage and answer the question:
*Passage:* "Despite the challenges faced during the economic downturn, the
company managed to innovate and expand its product line, ultimately leading to
increased market share."
**Question:** What was the primary strategy the company used to overcome
economic challenges?
- A) Reducing the workforce
- B) Innovating and expanding product lines
- C) Cutting prices
- D) Merging with competitors
**Answer:** B) Innovating and expanding product lines
### 2. Sentence Completion
**Sample Question:**
The scientist's groundbreaking research was met with __________ from the
traditionalists, who were reluctant to accept new ideas.

100
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

- A) enthusiasm
- B) skepticism
- C) indifference
- D) support
**Answer:** B) skepticism
3. Vocabulary Questions
**Sample Question:**
Choose the word that is most similar in meaning to "abundant":
- A) Scarce
- B) Plentiful
- C) Insufficient
- D) Rare
**Answer:** B) Plentiful

4. Sentence Equivalence Question

**Sample Question:**
Select two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, will create
sentences that are alike in meaning.
*Sentence:* The author’s latest novel is both __________ and __________,
appealing to a wide audience.
- A) mundane
- B) innovative
- C) tedious
- D) captivating
- E) derivative
**Answer:** B) innovative and D) captivating
Recommended Source Books and Websites:
1. **Books:**
- *The Official GRE Super Power Pack* by ETS
- *Manhattan Prep GRE Set of 8 Strategy Guides*
- *Kaplan GRE Prep Plus 2022*
2. **Websites:**
- [Khan Academy](https://www.khanacademy.org/test-prep/gre)
- [ETS GRE Official Website](https://www.ets.org/gre)
- [Magoosh GRE Blog](https://magoosh.com/gre/)
- [PrepScholar GRE](https://prepscholar.com/gre/)

101
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

These resources will provide you with a wide range of practice materials for verbal
reasoning skills. Good luck with your preparation!
DBMS NGAT questions with answers
Management Systems (DBMS) questions tailored for NGAT (National
Graduate Aptitude Test) or similar competitive exams. These questions cover
concepts, SQL, normalization, and transaction management with answers and
explanations.
Section 1: Conceptual Questions
Question 1:
Which of the following is a key characteristic of a primary key in a relational
database?
A. It must be unique.
B. It can have NULL values.
C. It must be a foreign key.
D. It can contain duplicate values.
Answer: A. It must be unique.
Explanation:
 A primary key uniquely identifies each record in a table and cannot contain
NULL or duplicate values.
Question 2:
What is the purpose of normalization in DBMS?
A. To improve query performance.
B. To reduce redundancy and avoid anomalies.
C. To create multiple copies of the database.
D. To increase the size of the database.
Answer: B. To reduce redundancy and avoid anomalies.
Explanation:
 Normalization organizes data to minimize redundancy and avoid update,
insertion, and deletion anomalies.
Question 3:
Which of the following is an example of a DML (Data Manipulation Language)
command?
A. SELECT
B. CREATE
C. UPDATE
D. DROP
Answer: C. UPDATE.
Explanation:

102
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 DML includes commands like SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE

to manipulate data. CREATE and DROP are DDL (Data Definition
Language) commands.
Section 2: SQL Questions
Question 4:
Consider a table Students with the following structure:
StudentID Name Age
101 John 22
102 Alice 23
103 Robert 22
What will the following query return?
sql
SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT Age) FROM Students;
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
Answer: B. 2
Explanation:
 The DISTINCT keyword counts unique values in the Age column. Here, the
unique ages are 22 and 23, so the result is 2.
Question 5:
Which SQL clause is used to filter rows based on aggregate functions?
A. WHERE
B. HAVING
C. GROUP BY
D. ORDER BY
Answer: B. HAVING.
Explanation:
 The HAVING clause is used to filter data after aggregation, while WHERE
is used before aggregation.
Section 3: Normalization
Question 6:
Which normal form ensures that there are no partial dependencies in a relation?
A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. BCNF

103
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: B. 2NF
Explanation:
 A relation is in 2NF if it is in 1NF and all non-prime attributes are fully
functionally dependent on the primary key, eliminating partial dependencies.
Question 7:
What is a transitive dependency in a relational schema?
A. A dependency between two non-prime attributes.
B. A dependency on a foreign key.
C. A dependency that involves only the primary key.
D. A dependency between two tables.
Answer: A. A dependency between two non-prime attributes.
Explanation:
 Transitive dependency occurs when a non-prime attribute depends on
another non-prime attribute, leading to redundancy.
Section 4: Transaction Management
Question 8:
Which ACID property ensures that a transaction is completed fully or not at all?
A. Atomicity
B. Consistency
C. Isolation
D. Durability
Answer: A. Atomicity
Explanation:
 Atomicity ensures that a transaction is treated as a single unit, either fully
executed or not executed at all.
Question 9:
What is a dirty read in the context of database transactions?
A. Reading data that is uncommitted by another transaction.
B. Reading outdated data from the database.
C. Reading corrupted data from the database.
D. Reading the same data multiple times in a transaction.
Answer: A. Reading data that is uncommitted by another transaction.
Explanation:
 A dirty read occurs when one transaction reads uncommitted changes made
by another transaction.
Section 5: Advanced Questions
Question 10:
Which of the following schedules is conflict-serializable?
1. T1: Read(A), T2: Write(A), T1: Write(B), T2: Read(B)

104
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

2. T1: Read(A), T1: Write(A), T2: Read(B), T2: Write(B)

A. Schedule 1 only
B. Schedule 2 only
C. Both schedules
D. Neither schedule
Answer: B. Schedule 2 only.
Explanation:
 A schedule is conflict-serializable if it can be transformed into a serial
schedule by swapping non-conflicting operations. Schedule 2 maintains such
order, but Schedule 1 involves conflicting operations.
Would you like more questions on any specific area like SQL, ER diagrams, or
transaction management? 😊
Here are additional DBMS questions covering topics such as SQL queries, ER
diagrams, and transaction management, tailored to NGAT and similar exams.
Section 1: SQL Queries
Question 1:
Consider the following table Employees:
EmpID Name Dept Salary
1 Alice HR 5000
2 Bob IT 6000
3 Charlie HR 4500
4 Dave IT 7000
What is the result of the following query?
sql
SELECT Dept, AVG(Salary) FROM Employees GROUP BY Dept;
A. HR, 4750
B. HR, 4500, IT, 6500
C. HR, 4750, IT, 6500
D. HR, 5000, IT, 6500
Answer: C. HR, 4750, IT, 6500
Explanation:
 The query calculates the average salary per department.
o HR: (5000 + 4500) / 2 = 4750
o IT: (6000 + 7000) / 2 = 6500
Question 2:
Which of the following is NOT a valid SQL JOIN type?
A. INNER JOIN
B. LEFT JOIN

105
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. RIGHT JOIN
D. OUTER JOIN
Answer: D. OUTER JOIN
Explanation:
 While INNER JOIN, LEFT JOIN, and RIGHT JOIN are valid, OUTER
JOIN is not a specific SQL join type. Instead, it's a general term referring to
both LEFT OUTER JOIN and RIGHT OUTER JOIN.
Section 2: Entity-Relationship (ER) Diagrams
Question 3:
Which of the following is a correct relationship type in an ER diagram?
A. One-to-One
B. One-to-Many
C. Many-to-Many
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 An ER diagram can represent one-to-one, one-to-many, or many-to-many
relationships between entities.
Question 4:
In an ER diagram, an entity set is represented by a:
A. Rectangle
B. Diamond
C. Oval
D. Double oval
Answer: A. Rectangle
Explanation:
 In ER diagrams, entities are represented by rectangles, relationships by
diamonds, and attributes by ovals.
Question 5:
What is the correct notation for a weak entity in an ER diagram?
A. A rectangle with double lines
B. A rectangle with a single line
C. A diamond with double lines
D. A double oval
Answer: A. A rectangle with double lines
Explanation:
 A weak entity is represented by a rectangle with double lines in an ER
diagram, and it has a partial key.
Section 3: Transaction Management

106
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 6:
Which of the following is NOT an ACID property of transactions?
A. Atomicity
B. Consistency
C. Integrity
D. Durability
Answer: C. Integrity
Explanation:
 The ACID properties are Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, and
Durability. Integrity is not part of ACID but is a broader concept related to
data validity.
Question 7:
What is the primary purpose of the Isolation property in ACID?
A. Ensures that a transaction is completed fully or not at all.
B. Prevents other transactions from accessing data being modified by a transaction
until it is committed.
C. Ensures that once a transaction is committed, it cannot be rolled back.
D. Guarantees that the database is in a consistent state after a transaction is
complete.
Answer: B. Prevents other transactions from accessing data being modified by
a transaction until it is committed.
Explanation:
 Isolation ensures that intermediate transaction states are invisible to other
transactions, preventing conflicts like dirty reads, non-repeatable reads, or
phantom reads.
Question 8:
Which of the following schedules is serializable?
1. T1: Read(A), T2: Read(A), T1: Write(B), T2: Write(B)
2. T1: Read(A), T2: Write(A), T1: Write(B), T2: Read(B)
A. Schedule 1 only
B. Schedule 2 only
C. Both schedules
D. Neither schedule
Answer: C. Both schedules
Explanation:
 Both schedules are serializable as they can be rearranged to form a serial
schedule. Serialization means that the results of executing transactions
concurrently are equivalent to executing them one after another in some
order.

107
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Section 4: Normalization
Question 9:
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Boyce-Codd Normal Form
(BCNF)?
A. Every determinant is a candidate key.
B. It is a stricter version of 3NF.
C. There are no transitive dependencies.
D. All attributes are functionally dependent on the primary key.
Answer: C. There are no transitive dependencies.
Explanation:
 BCNF eliminates functional dependencies that violate the rule that every
determinant must be a candidate key. In 3NF, transitive dependencies are
allowed as long as they do not involve non-prime attributes.
Question 10:
In a 3NF database, which of the following holds true?
A. No transitive dependency exists between non-prime attributes.
B. All non-prime attributes are fully dependent on the primary key.
C. The relation must be in BCNF.
D. The database does not contain any multivalued attributes.
Answer: A. No transitive dependency exists between non-prime attributes.
Explanation:
 3NF ensures that there is no transitive dependency between non-prime
attributes. It requires that non-prime attributes are functionally dependent
only on the primary key.
Would you like more practice questions on these topics or explanations of any
concepts? Let me know how I can assist further! 😊
Here are more DBMS questions with answers and explanations, focusing on SQL
queries, Entity-Relationship (ER) diagrams, transaction management, and
normalization:
Section 1: SQL Queries
Question 1:
Consider the following Orders table:
OrderID CustomerID Product Quantity
101 C001 Apple 10
102 C002 Banana 5
103 C001 Cherry 15
104 C003 Apple 20
What will the following query return?

108
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

sql
SELECT CustomerID, SUM(Quantity) FROM Orders GROUP BY CustomerID;
A. C001, 25; C002, 5; C003, 20
B. C001, 30; C002, 5; C003, 20
C. C001, 25; C002, 15; C003, 20
D. C001, 10; C002, 5; C003, 15
Answer: B. C001, 30; C002, 5; C003, 20
Explanation:
 The SUM(Quantity) function calculates the total quantity for each customer.
o C001: 10 (Apple) + 15 (Cherry) = 30
o C002: 5 (Banana)
o C003: 20 (Apple)
Question 2:
What will the following SQL query do?
sql
SELECT DISTINCT Product FROM Orders;
A. Returns all products including duplicates
B. Returns unique products only
C. Returns all rows from the Orders table
D. Returns the first product in the Orders table
Answer: B. Returns unique products only
Explanation:
 The DISTINCT keyword filters out duplicate values, returning only unique
products.
Section 2: Entity-Relationship (ER) Diagrams
Question 3:
In an ER diagram, which shape is used to represent a relationship between two
entities?
A. Rectangle
B. Oval
C. Diamond
D. Double oval
Answer: C. Diamond
Explanation:
 A relationship in an ER diagram is represented by a diamond shape, while
entities are represented by rectangles.
Question 4:
What does the crow's foot notation in an ER diagram represent?
A. One-to-one relationship

109
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

B. One-to-many relationship
C. Many-to-many relationship
D. Attribute of an entity
Answer: B. One-to-many relationship
Explanation:
 Crow's foot notation is used to represent a one-to-many relationship in ER
diagrams, where one entity can be related to multiple instances of another
entity.
Question 5:
What does a weak entity in an ER diagram require in addition to its own
attributes?
A. A primary key
B. A relationship with another entity
C. A foreign key
D. A primary key from another entity
Answer: D. A primary key from another entity
Explanation:
 A weak entity depends on a strong entity for its existence, and it cannot be
uniquely identified by its own attributes alone. It requires a primary key
from another entity in the form of a composite key.
Section 3: Transaction Management
Question 6:
Which ACID property guarantees that a transaction is isolated from other
transactions and does not allow concurrent transactions to interfere?
A. Atomicity
B. Consistency
C. Isolation
D. Durability
Answer: C. Isolation
Explanation:
 Isolation ensures that transactions are executed independently of each other,
preventing issues like dirty reads, non-repeatable reads, and phantom reads.
Question 7:
Which of the following anomalies is avoided by the Durability property of a
transaction?
A. Dirty reads
B. Lost updates
C. System crashes after a transaction commit
D. Non-repeatable reads

110
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: C. System crashes after a transaction commit

Explanation:
 Durability ensures that once a transaction is committed, its changes are
permanent, even if there is a system failure after the commit.
Question 8:
What is the read uncommitted isolation level in transaction management?
A. Transactions can read only committed data.
B. Transactions can read data that is being modified by other transactions.
C. Transactions cannot read any data until another transaction is committed.
D. Transactions cannot be rolled back.
Answer: B. Transactions can read data that is being modified by other
transactions.
Explanation:
 Read uncommitted allows transactions to read uncommitted data,
potentially leading to dirty reads.
Section 4: Normalization
Question 9:
Which of the following is true for a relation to be in 1NF (First Normal Form)?
A. It must have no partial dependencies.
B. It must have atomic (indivisible) values.
C. It must have no transitive dependencies.
D. It must be in BCNF.
Answer: B. It must have atomic (indivisible) values.
Explanation:
 A relation is in 1NF if it has atomic (indivisible) values and no repeating
groups. This eliminates multi-valued attributes and ensures that each field
contains only one value.
Question 10:
In 2NF (Second Normal Form), which of the following must hold?
A. There must be no partial dependency of any column on the primary key.
B. All non-prime attributes must depend on the whole primary key.
C. There must be no transitive dependency.
D. The table must be in 3NF.
Answer: B. All non-prime attributes must depend on the whole primary key.
Explanation:
 2NF requires that there are no partial dependencies, meaning every non-
prime attribute is fully dependent on the entire primary key, and not just a
part of it.

111
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Would you like more questions or explanations on any of these topics? Feel free to
ask! 😊
Here are more DBMS questions with answers and explanations to help you
prepare for NGAT or similar exams. These questions cover SQL queries, ER
diagrams, transaction management, and normalization.
Section 1: SQL Queries
Question 1:
Given the following Customers table:
CustomerID Name Country
C001 John USA
C002 Alice UK
C003 Bob USA
C004 Mike UK
What will the following query return?
sql
SELECT Country, COUNT(CustomerID) FROM Customers GROUP BY
Country;
A. USA, 2; UK, 2
B. USA, 3; UK, 1
C. USA, 1; UK, 3
D. USA, 2; UK, 1
Answer: A. USA, 2; UK, 2
Explanation:
 The query counts the number of customers in each country.
o USA: 2 customers (John and Bob)
o UK: 2 customers (Alice and Mike)
Question 2:
Which of the following SQL queries will display all employees who are not
assigned to a department from the Employees table?
A.
sql
SELECT * FROM Employees WHERE Department IS NULL;
B.
sql
SELECT * FROM Employees WHERE Department = 'NULL';
C.
sql
Copy code

112
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

SELECT * FROM Employees WHERE Department != NULL;

D.
sql
SELECT * FROM Employees WHERE Department <> 'Not Assigned';
Answer: A.
Explanation:
 NULL values are not equivalent to any value, and special handling is
required to check for them.
o IS NULL is the correct operator to check for NULL values in SQL.
Section 2: Entity-Relationship (ER) Diagrams
Question 3:
In an ER diagram, which of the following is used to represent attributes of an
entity?
A. Rectangle
B. Diamond
C. Oval
D. Double rectangle
Answer: C. Oval
Explanation:
 Attributes in an ER diagram are represented by ovals, connected to their
respective entities (rectangles).
 Entities are represented by rectangles, and relationships by diamonds.
Question 4:
Which of the following is a many-to-many relationship in an ER diagram?
A. One employee works in one department.
B. One student can enroll in many courses, and one course can have many
students.
C. One customer can place many orders.
D. One teacher teaches one subject.
Answer: B. One student can enroll in many courses, and one course can have
many students.
Explanation:
 A many-to-many relationship occurs when multiple instances of one entity
relate to multiple instances of another entity. For example, a student can
enroll in many courses, and each course can have many students.
Section 3: Transaction Management
Question 5:
Which of the following is a characteristic of a serializable schedule?

113
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Transactions execute in parallel.

B. The final state of the database is the same as if the transactions had been
executed one by one, in some order.
C. The transactions can commit or abort independently.
D. The transactions are executed without any lock.
Answer: B. The final state of the database is the same as if the transactions
had been executed one by one, in some order.
Explanation:
 A serializable schedule ensures that the final outcome of concurrent
transactions is equivalent to a serial execution of the transactions. In other
words, the result is the same as if the transactions were executed one after
another in some order.
Question 6:
In a transaction, what does the write-ahead log (WAL) protocol ensure?
A. All updates are immediately committed to the database.
B. Changes are written to the database only after being logged.
C. Transactions can be rolled back at any time.
D. Transactions are executed in parallel.
Answer: B. Changes are written to the database only after being logged.
Explanation:
 The write-ahead log (WAL) ensures that before any changes are made to
the database, the changes are first written to a log file. This guarantees data
integrity and supports recovery in case of a crash.
Section 4: Normalization
Question 7:
Which of the following is a primary objective of Third Normal Form (3NF)?
A. Eliminate transitive dependencies.
B. Ensure that every attribute depends on the primary key.
C. Eliminate partial dependencies.
D. Eliminate multi-valued attributes.
Answer: A. Eliminate transitive dependencies.
Explanation:
 3NF requires that there are no transitive dependencies between non-prime
attributes and the primary key. This ensures that all attributes depend
directly on the primary key and not through another attribute.
Question 8:
Which of the following is not true for a relation to be in Boyce-Codd Normal
Form (BCNF)?

114
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Every determinant must be a candidate key.

B. The relation must be in 3NF.
C. Every non-prime attribute must be fully functionally dependent on the primary
key.
D. There must be no partial dependencies in the relation.
Answer: C. Every non-prime attribute must be fully functionally dependent
on the primary key.
Explanation:
 BCNF goes beyond 3NF by ensuring that every determinant in a relation is
a candidate key, even for relations that are already in 3NF. Option C is
more relevant to 2NF, not BCNF.
Question 9:
What does Fourth Normal Form (4NF) address in a relational database?
A. Elimination of transitive dependencies.
B. Elimination of multi-valued dependencies.
C. Elimination of partial dependencies.
D. Ensuring all attributes are atomic.
Answer: B. Elimination of multi-valued dependencies.
Explanation:
 4NF deals with multi-valued dependencies, ensuring that no multi-valued
dependency exists in a relation. A multi-valued dependency occurs when
one attribute in a table determines multiple independent attributes.
Section 5: Advanced DBMS Concepts
Question 10:
What is the purpose of an Index in a database?
A. To speed up data retrieval operations.
B. To enforce data integrity constraints.
C. To store data permanently.
D. To ensure the consistency of transactions.
Answer: A. To speed up data retrieval operations.
Explanation:
 Indexes are used to speed up the retrieval of rows from a database by
providing a fast lookup mechanism, allowing the database to find data more
efficiently, especially for large datasets.
Would you like further questions or explanations on any of the topics? Let me
know! 😊
Here are additional DBMS questions with answers and explanations to continue
your preparation.
Section 1: SQL Queries

115
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 1:
Consider the following Employees table:
EmpID Name DeptID Salary
1 Alice 101 5000
2 Bob 102 6000
3 Charlie 101 4500
4 David 103 7000
What will be the result of the following query?
sql
SELECT DeptID, AVG(Salary) FROM Employees GROUP BY DeptID;
A. 101, 4750; 102, 6000; 103, 7000
B. 101, 5000; 102, 6000; 103, 7000
C. 101, 4750; 102, 6000
D. 101, 4750; 102, 6000; 103, 6750
Answer: A. 101, 4750; 102, 6000; 103, 7000
Explanation:
 The query calculates the average salary per department:
o DeptID 101: (5000 + 4500) / 2 = 4750
o DeptID 102: 6000
o DeptID 103: 7000
Question 2:
Which of the following is a correct SQL statement to find all employees whose
salary is between 3000 and 7000?
A.
sql
SELECT * FROM Employees WHERE Salary > 3000 AND Salary < 7000;
B.
sql
SELECT * FROM Employees WHERE Salary BETWEEN 3000 AND 7000;
C.
sql
SELECT * FROM Employees WHERE Salary >= 3000 AND Salary <= 7000;
D.
sql
SELECT * FROM Employees WHERE Salary IN (3000, 7000);
Answer: B.
Explanation:

116
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The BETWEEN operator is used in SQL to select values within a range,

and it is inclusive of the boundary values. Option B correctly selects
employees with salaries between 3000 and 7000.
Section 2: Entity-Relationship (ER) Diagrams
Question 3:
Which of the following relationships is typically represented by a diamond shape
in an ER diagram?
A. Entity-Attribute
B. Entity-Relationship
C. Relationship-Attribute
D. Entity-Entity
Answer: B. Entity-Relationship
Explanation:
 In an ER diagram, entities are represented by rectangles, attributes by
ovals, and relationships between entities by diamonds.
Question 4:
What does a many-to-many relationship imply in an ER diagram?
A. One instance of Entity A is related to one instance of Entity B.
B. One instance of Entity A can be related to many instances of Entity B and vice
versa.
C. One instance of Entity A can be related to many instances of Entity B, but not
vice versa.
D. One instance of Entity A can be related to exactly one instance of Entity B.
Answer: B. One instance of Entity A can be related to many instances of
Entity B and vice versa.
Explanation:
 In a many-to-many relationship, one entity can have multiple relationships
with another entity, and vice versa. For example, a student can enroll in
many courses, and a course can have many students.
Question 5:
Which of the following correctly describes a weak entity in an ER diagram?
A. It is represented by a double rectangle.
B. It does not require any relationship with other entities.
C. It is represented by a rectangle with a single line.
D. It can be uniquely identified by its attributes.
Answer: A. It is represented by a double rectangle.
Explanation:

117
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 A weak entity is represented by a double rectangle in an ER diagram, and

it cannot be uniquely identified by its own attributes. It depends on a strong
entity for its identification, typically with a composite key.
Section 3: Transaction Management
Question 6:
Which of the following isolation levels in DBMS allows dirty reads?
A. Read Uncommitted
B. Read Committed
C. Repeatable Read
D. Serializable
Answer: A. Read Uncommitted
Explanation:
 Read Uncommitted allows dirty reads, where a transaction can read data
that is modified by another transaction but not yet committed. This can lead
to inconsistent or incorrect data.
Question 7:
Which of the following is the correct order of ACID properties in a transaction?
A. Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
B. Consistency, Atomicity, Isolation, Durability
C. Isolation, Atomicity, Consistency, Durability
D. Durability, Atomicity, Isolation, Consistency
Answer: A. Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
Explanation:
 The ACID properties of transactions are always listed in the order:
o Atomicity: Ensures transactions are fully completed or not at all.
o Consistency: Ensures the database transitions from one valid state to
another.
o Isolation: Ensures that transactions do not interfere with each other.
o Durability: Ensures that committed transactions are permanent, even
in the case of a system crash.
Section 4: Normalization
Question 8:
Which of the following is true about First Normal Form (1NF)?
A. There are no partial dependencies.
B. Every attribute in the relation is atomic.
C. There are no transitive dependencies.
D. The relation must be in Second Normal Form (2NF).
Answer: B. Every attribute in the relation is atomic.
Explanation:

118
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 1NF requires that all attributes in a table be atomic, meaning each field
contains only a single value, and there are no repeating groups of data.
Question 9:
Which of the following describes a partial dependency in database
normalization?
A. A non-prime attribute depends on part of the primary key.
B. A non-prime attribute depends on the entire primary key.
C. A non-prime attribute depends on another non-prime attribute.
D. A primary key depends on non-prime attributes.
Answer: A. A non-prime attribute depends on part of the primary key.
Explanation:
 Partial dependency occurs when a non-prime attribute is dependent on only
a part of a composite primary key. In 2NF, partial dependencies must be
removed.
Question 10:
Which of the following is the main goal of Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF)?
A. To eliminate partial dependencies.
B. To ensure every determinant is a candidate key.
C. To remove multi-valued attributes.
D. To ensure every non-prime attribute is fully dependent on the primary key.
Answer: B. To ensure every determinant is a candidate key.
Explanation:
 BCNF is a stricter version of 3NF and ensures that every determinant in a
relation is a candidate key. This eliminates issues where a non-prime
attribute could function as a determinant.
Would you like more questions, or do you need further explanations on any of
these topics? Feel free to ask! 😊
Operating system NGAT questions with answers
Here are some Operating System (OS) questions with answers and explanations
for NGAT (or similar exams):

Section 1: Process Management

Question 1:
What is the primary function of the Process Control Block (PCB) in an operating
system?
A. It stores the process’s state, priority, and memory management information.
B. It stores the process’s code and data.
C. It stores information related to the CPU scheduling algorithm.
D. It stores the process’s system calls.

119
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: A. It stores the process’s state, priority, and memory management

information.
Explanation:
 The Process Control Block (PCB) contains information such as the process
state, process ID, priority, CPU registers, memory management data,
and I/O information. It acts as a data structure that helps the OS manage
processes.
Question 2:
Which of the following scheduling algorithms can lead to starvation?
A. Round Robin
B. Shortest Job First (SJF)
C. First Come First Serve (FCFS)
D. Priority Scheduling
Answer: D. Priority Scheduling
Explanation:
 Priority Scheduling can lead to starvation because processes with lower
priority may never get executed if higher priority processes are constantly
arriving. This is called starvation.
Question 3:
What is the state of a process when it is waiting for an event to occur, such as an
I/O operation to complete?
A. Running
B. Blocked
C. New
D. Ready
Answer: B. Blocked
Explanation:
 A process is in the Blocked state when it cannot proceed because it is
waiting for some event, like the completion of an I/O operation.
Question 4:
Which of the following is a non-preemptive scheduling algorithm?
A. Round Robin
B. Shortest Job First (SJF)
C. Priority Scheduling
D. Multilevel Queue Scheduling
Answer: B. Shortest Job First (SJF)
Explanation:

120
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Shortest Job First (SJF) is a non-preemptive scheduling algorithm where

the CPU is allocated to the process with the shortest burst time. Once the
CPU is allocated, the process is allowed to run to completion.
Section 2: Memory Management
Question 5:
Which of the following is not a part of virtual memory?
A. Paging
B. Segmentation
C. Swapping
D. Cache Memory
Answer: D. Cache Memory
Explanation:
 Cache Memory is used to store frequently accessed data to speed up
processing, but it is not part of virtual memory. Virtual memory uses
paging and segmentation to give the illusion of a large continuous memory
space.
Question 6:
What is the purpose of paging in memory management?
A. To divide memory into fixed-size blocks and map them into physical memory.
B. To divide memory into variable-sized blocks and map them into physical
memory.
C. To eliminate fragmentation by using large contiguous blocks of memory.
D. To map virtual memory directly into physical memory.
Answer: A. To divide memory into fixed-size blocks and map them into
physical memory.
Explanation:
 Paging divides virtual memory into fixed-size blocks, called pages, and
maps them into physical memory, using a page table. This method
eliminates fragmentation and allows efficient memory utilization.
Question 7:
Which of the following is a consequence of external fragmentation in memory
management?
A. Processes are unable to get contiguous blocks of memory.
B. The operating system has to move processes between different memory
segments.
C. The memory is fully utilized, but some regions are inaccessible to processes.
D. The operating system suffers from slow process execution due to page
swapping.
Answer: A. Processes are unable to get contiguous blocks of memory.

121
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 External fragmentation occurs when free memory is scattered in small
blocks throughout the system, making it impossible to allocate contiguous
memory to processes, even if the total free memory is sufficient.
Question 8:
What is thrashing in the context of memory management?
A. The process of swapping pages in and out of the disk continuously.
B. The allocation of memory to all processes at the same time.
C. The process of placing the least recently used pages into memory.
D. A situation where multiple processes are waiting for memory allocation.
Answer: A. The process of swapping pages in and out of the disk continuously.
Explanation:
 Thrashing occurs when the system spends more time swapping pages in
and out of memory than executing processes. This results in a drastic
decrease in system performance due to excessive paging.
Section 3: File Systems
Question 9:
Which of the following is true about the inode in a file system?
A. It contains the actual data of the file.
B. It stores information about the file, such as its permissions, owner, and location.
C. It is the physical location where the file is stored on the disk.
D. It is a file extension that helps the operating system recognize file types.
Answer: B. It stores information about the file, such as its permissions, owner,
and location.
Explanation:
 An inode is a data structure that stores information about a file, including its
permissions, owner, size, and disk block location. However, it does not
contain the actual data of the file itself.
Question 10:
Which of the following file systems is used by Linux?
A. NTFS
B. FAT32
C. ext4
D. HFS+
Answer: C. ext4
Explanation:
 ext4 is a widely used file system in Linux. It supports large files, journaling,
and efficient allocation of disk space. NTFS and FAT32 are typically used
by Windows, and HFS+ is used by MacOS.

122
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Section 4: Input/Output (I/O) Systems

Question 11:
What is the purpose of an interrupt in an operating system?
A. To allow the CPU to execute user programs faster.
B. To stop a process from running and return control to the user.
C. To signal the CPU that an event needs immediate attention.
D. To suspend a process until resources are available.
Answer: C. To signal the CPU that an event needs immediate attention.
Explanation:
 An interrupt is a mechanism that allows hardware or software to signal the
CPU to stop its current task and handle a more urgent event, like input from
a keyboard or a completed I/O operation.
Question 12:
Which of the following I/O scheduling algorithms is used to minimize the seek
time of a disk?
A. First Come First Serve (FCFS)
B. Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF)
C. Round Robin
D. Priority Scheduling
Answer: B. Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF)
Explanation:
 Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF) is an I/O scheduling algorithm that
selects the request that requires the least movement of the disk head,
minimizing seek time.
Would you like more questions or further clarifications on any of the topics? Let
me know!
Yes
Here are some more Operating System (OS) questions with answers and
explanations to help you continue your preparation:
Section 5: Deadlock Management
Question 13:
Which of the following conditions is not necessary for deadlock to occur in an
operating system?
A. Mutual Exclusion
B. Hold and Wait
C. Circular Wait
D. Non-preemption
Answer: D. Non-preemption
Explanation:

123
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 While Mutual Exclusion, Hold and Wait, and Circular Wait are
necessary conditions for deadlock to occur, Non-preemption is not
required. A deadlock can still occur even if resources can be preempted.
Question 14:
Which of the following methods can be used to prevent deadlock?
A. Allowing circular wait
B. Disabling mutual exclusion
C. Resource allocation graph
D. Allowing hold and wait
Answer: C. Resource allocation graph
Explanation:
 The Resource Allocation Graph (RAG) method is a useful tool to prevent
deadlock. It helps to detect and avoid situations where processes request
resources in a manner that could potentially lead to a deadlock.
Question 15:
In the Banker's Algorithm, which of the following does the safe state represent?
A. The state in which no process is requesting resources.
B. A state where all processes can proceed without entering a deadlock situation.
C. The state when all processes hold the resources they need.
D. A state where some processes are in a circular waiting state.
Answer: B. A state where all processes can proceed without entering a
deadlock situation.
Explanation:
 The safe state in the Banker's Algorithm refers to a state in which there is
at least one sequence of processes that can execute without causing a
deadlock. If no process can proceed without causing a deadlock, the system
is in an unsafe state.
Question 16:
Which of the following is a deadlock avoidance technique?
A. Wait-Die Scheme
B. Banker's Algorithm
C. Resource Allocation Graph
D. Both B and C
Answer: D. Both B and C
Explanation:
 Both the Banker's Algorithm and the Resource Allocation Graph are
techniques for deadlock avoidance. They ensure that resource allocation
happens in such a way that deadlock cannot occur.
Section 6: System Calls and Process Control

124
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 17:
Which system call is used to create a new process in Unix-based operating
systems?
A. exec()
B. fork()
C. exit()
D. wait()
Answer: B. fork()
Explanation:
 The fork() system call creates a new process by duplicating the current
process. The new process is a child process, and it inherits the parent
process's resources.
Question 18:
What is the purpose of the exec() system call?
A. It creates a new process by duplicating the current one.
B. It suspends the current process until the child process completes.
C. It replaces the current process image with a new program.
D. It terminates the current process.
Answer: C. It replaces the current process image with a new program.
Explanation:
 The exec() system call is used to replace the current process image with a
new program. It loads a different program into the current process, but the
process ID remains the same.
Question 19:
Which system call is used to terminate a process?
A. kill()
B. exit()
C. wait()
D. fork()
Answer: B. exit()
Explanation:
 The exit() system call is used to terminate a process. When a process
finishes its execution, it calls exit() to terminate itself and return a status
code to the parent process.
Question 20:
Which of the following system calls is used to wait for a process to complete in
Unix?
A. fork()
B. exec()

125
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. exit()
D. wait()
Answer: D. wait()
Explanation:
 The wait() system call is used by a parent process to wait for the
termination of a child process. It allows the parent to receive information
about the child's exit status.
Section 7: Scheduling Algorithms
Question 21:
Which of the following scheduling algorithms is preemptive?
A. First Come First Serve (FCFS)
B. Shortest Job First (SJF)
C. Round Robin (RR)
D. Priority Scheduling (Non-Preemptive)
Answer: C. Round Robin (RR)
Explanation:
 Round Robin (RR) is a preemptive scheduling algorithm in which each
process gets a fixed time quantum to execute. If a process does not finish
within that time, it is preempted and placed at the end of the ready queue.
Question 22:
In the Shortest Job First (SJF) scheduling algorithm, which of the following can
occur?
A. Starvation
B. Deadlock
C. Race condition
D. Memory fragmentation
Answer: A. Starvation
Explanation:
 Starvation can occur in Shortest Job First (SJF) because processes with
long burst times may never get executed if shorter processes keep arriving.
This leads to a situation where long processes wait indefinitely.
Question 23:
Which scheduling algorithm is considered optimal in terms of average waiting
time?
A. First Come First Serve (FCFS)
B. Shortest Job First (SJF)
C. Round Robin (RR)
D. Priority Scheduling
Answer: B. Shortest Job First (SJF)

126
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 Shortest Job First (SJF) is optimal in terms of average waiting time
because it always selects the process with the shortest burst time,
minimizing the time each process waits in the ready queue.
Section 8: File Management
Question 24:
Which of the following file access methods allows sequential access to the file?
A. Direct Access
B. Random Access
C. Sequential Access
D. Indexed Access
Answer: C. Sequential Access
Explanation:
 Sequential Access requires reading the file from the beginning to the end,
processing each record in sequence. It does not allow for random access to
specific parts of the file.
Question 25:
Which file system organization supports the fastest search by using an index?
A. Linked List
B. Contiguous Allocation
C. Indexed Allocation
D. Non-contiguous Allocation
Answer: C. Indexed Allocation
Explanation:
 Indexed Allocation uses an index table to store pointers to file blocks,
allowing fast search and direct access to any part of the file. It avoids the
need for sequential search.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or any further clarifications on any of
these topics!
Section 9: Synchronization and Concurrency
Question 26:
Which of the following synchronization techniques is used to prevent race
conditions?
A. Semaphore
B. Mutex
C. Monitor
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:

127
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 All the listed synchronization techniques—Semaphore, Mutex, and

Monitor—are used to prevent race conditions. They allow processes to
synchronize their access to shared resources, ensuring that no two processes
can modify the resource at the same time.
Question 27:
What is the main purpose of a semaphore in process synchronization?
A. To prevent a process from accessing shared resources.
B. To manage mutual exclusion.
C. To allow processes to execute in parallel.
D. To signal a process when a resource becomes available.
Answer: D. To signal a process when a resource becomes available.
Explanation:
 A semaphore is a synchronization tool that is used to manage access to
shared resources by signaling when a resource is available or unavailable. It
can be used for counting or for mutual exclusion.
Question 28:
Which of the following is a necessary condition for a deadlock to occur?
A. Circular Wait
B. No Preemption
C. Mutual Exclusion
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 Deadlock occurs when all four necessary conditions are met:
1. Mutual Exclusion – Resources are non-shareable.
2. Hold and Wait – A process is holding one resource and waiting for
others.
3. No Preemption – Resources cannot be forcibly taken away.
4. Circular Wait – A circular chain of processes exists where each
process holds a resource and is waiting for another.
Question 29:
What is the purpose of the monitor in synchronization?
A. To allow only one process to execute in a critical section at a time.
B. To handle signals from processes requesting synchronization.
C. To provide a higher-level synchronization mechanism that combines mutex and
condition variables.
D. To track the system resources.
Answer: C. To provide a higher-level synchronization mechanism that
combines mutex and condition variables.

128
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 A monitor is a higher-level synchronization mechanism that combines
mutexes (for mutual exclusion) and condition variables (for process
synchronization). It allows only one process to execute in a critical section at
a time and facilitates safe access to shared resources.
Question 30:
What does the producer-consumer problem illustrate?
A. How to allocate memory for processes.
B. How to synchronize processes that share resources.
C. How to prevent deadlocks in resource allocation.
D. How to manage system input and output operations.
Answer: B. How to synchronize processes that share resources.
Explanation:
 The producer-consumer problem illustrates how two processes (a
producer and a consumer) synchronize access to a shared resource, such as a
buffer. The producer generates data and the consumer consumes it, and
proper synchronization is necessary to avoid race conditions and data
inconsistency.
Section 10: Virtual Memory and Paging
Question 31:
What is the primary advantage of virtual memory?
A. It allows programs to run faster by using physical memory more efficiently.
B. It eliminates the need for swapping.
C. It enables a program to use more memory than the system physically has
available.
D. It ensures that processes do not interfere with each other.
Answer: C. It enables a program to use more memory than the system
physically has available.
Explanation:
 Virtual memory allows programs to use more memory than what is
physically available by swapping data in and out of disk storage. This gives
the illusion of having a larger amount of memory than the system actually
possesses.
Question 32:
Which memory management technique divides the memory into fixed-size blocks?
A. Paging
B. Segmentation
C. Contiguous Allocation
D. Swapping

129
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: A. Paging
Explanation:
 Paging divides memory into fixed-size blocks, called pages, which are
mapped into physical memory. This helps eliminate fragmentation and
enables efficient memory usage.
Question 33:
Which of the following is a disadvantage of segmentation?
A. It can cause external fragmentation.
B. It leads to a complex memory management system.
C. It wastes memory space.
D. It reduces the performance of the system.
Answer: A. It can cause external fragmentation.
Explanation:
 Segmentation divides memory into variable-sized segments. While it
provides a more logical division of memory, it can cause external
fragmentation, making it difficult to allocate contiguous memory for new
segments.
Question 34:
What is the role of a page table in virtual memory?
A. To map virtual pages to physical memory frames.
B. To store the actual data of a process.
C. To manage the process’s CPU registers.
D. To store the location of the process in secondary memory.
Answer: A. To map virtual pages to physical memory frames.
Explanation:
 A page table is used to map virtual memory pages to physical memory
frames. It allows the operating system to translate the virtual addresses used
by processes into the physical addresses in memory.
Question 35:
Which of the following strategies can be used to minimize thrashing?
A. Increasing the degree of multiprogramming.
B. Increasing the size of each page.
C. Implementing a page replacement algorithm.
D. Decreasing the size of physical memory.
Answer: C. Implementing a page replacement algorithm.
Explanation:
 Thrashing occurs when the system spends most of its time swapping pages
in and out of memory rather than executing processes. Implementing an

130
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

efficient page replacement algorithm can help minimize thrashing by

selecting the best pages to keep in memory.
Section 11: Security and Protection
Question 36:
Which of the following is an example of authentication?
A. The use of encryption to protect data.
B. The process of verifying the identity of a user.
C. The control of access to resources.
D. The method of tracking user activity on a system.
Answer: B. The process of verifying the identity of a user.
Explanation:
 Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a user or a system.
This can involve passwords, biometric verification, or tokens. It ensures that
only authorized users gain access to the system.
Question 37:
What is the purpose of an access control list (ACL)?
A. To encrypt sensitive data.
B. To define which users or processes have access to resources.
C. To monitor system activity.
D. To prevent unauthorized access to the system.
Answer: B. To define which users or processes have access to resources.
Explanation:
 An access control list (ACL) is used to define and manage the permissions
of users or processes for accessing system resources, such as files and
directories. It helps protect resources from unauthorized access.
Question 38:
Which of the following is not a method of data encryption?
A. Symmetric key encryption
B. Asymmetric key encryption
C. Hashing
D. Access Control
Answer: D. Access Control
Explanation:
 Access control refers to managing who can access resources and is not
directly related to encryption. Symmetric key encryption and Asymmetric
key encryption are methods for encrypting data, while hashing is used for
integrity checking but not encryption.
Let me know if you'd like additional questions or explanations on any topics!

131
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Here are some more Operating System (OS) questions with answers and
explanations to continue your preparation:
Section 12: I/O Systems
Question 39:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of block I/O operations?
A. Data is transferred in fixed-size blocks.
B. It typically involves slower devices such as hard disks.
C. It is less efficient for interactive I/O.
D. It allows for random access to the data blocks.
Answer: C. It is less efficient for interactive I/O.
Explanation:
 Block I/O operations are typically used for large data transfers involving
slower devices like hard disks. They work in fixed-size blocks and allow for
random access. However, they are generally efficient for bulk data transfers,
which might not be ideal for interactive I/O where responsiveness is key.
Question 40:
In which type of I/O system does the kernel manage the transfer of data
between the device and the buffer?
A. Programmed I/O (PIO)
B. Interrupt-driven I/O
C. Direct Memory Access (DMA)
D. Buffered I/O
Answer: B. Interrupt-driven I/O
Explanation:
 Interrupt-driven I/O allows the CPU to perform other tasks until an
interrupt signals that the I/O operation is complete. In this mode, the kernel
handles the transfer of data between the device and buffer upon receiving the
interrupt.
Question 41:
Which of the following is an advantage of Direct Memory Access (DMA) over
programmed I/O?
A. It requires more CPU intervention.
B. It speeds up data transfer between memory and peripheral devices.
C. It allows multiple processes to access the memory at the same time.
D. It is simpler to implement than programmed I/O.
Answer: B. It speeds up data transfer between memory and peripheral
devices.
Explanation:

132
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 DMA allows direct data transfer between peripheral devices and memory
without involving the CPU, which speeds up data transfer and reduces the
CPU’s workload compared to programmed I/O, where the CPU is heavily
involved.
Question 42:
Which of the following I/O devices is most likely to use spooling?
A. Mouse
B. Disk
C. Printer
D. Keyboard
Answer: C. Printer
Explanation:
 Spooling is used for devices like printers to manage print jobs in a queue.
This allows for efficient management of tasks that take time, like printing,
by allowing multiple tasks to be handled sequentially while the printer works
on one job at a time.
Question 43:
Which I/O scheduling algorithm is used to optimize disk head movement?
A. First Come First Serve (FCFS)
B. Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF)
C. Round Robin (RR)
D. Elevator (SCAN)
Answer: B. Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF)
Explanation:
 SSTF selects the I/O request that is closest to the current position of the disk
head, reducing the total seek time. While it may cause starvation in some
cases, it helps optimize disk head movement and improve efficiency.
Section 13: File System
Question 44:
What does the inode in a file system contain?
A. File content and metadata.
B. The file’s name and path.
C. File metadata, including permissions, ownership, and location of data blocks.
D. The entire content of the file.
Answer: C. File metadata, including permissions, ownership, and location of
data blocks.
Explanation:

133
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 An inode is a data structure that stores metadata about a file, such as its
permissions, ownership, size, and the pointers to the data blocks where the
file’s actual data is stored.
Question 45:
Which of the following is a type of file allocation method?
A. First Fit
B. Best Fit
C. Contiguous Allocation
D. Least Recently Used (LRU)
Answer: C. Contiguous Allocation
Explanation:
 Contiguous Allocation is a file allocation method where files are stored in
contiguous blocks of memory. This ensures fast access, but can lead to
fragmentation over time.
Question 46:
Which of the following file access methods allows for direct access to specific
parts of the file?
A. Sequential Access
B. Direct Access
C. Indexed Access
D. Hierarchical Access
Answer: B. Direct Access
Explanation:
 Direct Access allows the process to access specific parts of a file directly,
without needing to read through all the preceding data. It provides a faster
method to access data compared to sequential access.
Question 47:
Which of the following is the main advantage of indexed file allocation?
A. It reduces external fragmentation.
B. It provides efficient storage of small files.
C. It allows for direct access to any file block.
D. It simplifies the file system structure.
Answer: C. It allows for direct access to any file block.
Explanation:
 Indexed file allocation uses an index to point to each block of the file,
enabling direct access to any block without needing to read through the
entire file, improving efficiency.
Section 14: Networking and Distributed Systems
Question 48:

134
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following protocols is used for reliable, connection-oriented

communication in a TCP/IP network?
A. UDP (User Datagram Protocol)
B. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
C. FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
D. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)
Answer: D. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)
Explanation:
 TCP is a reliable, connection-oriented protocol used in TCP/IP networks.
It ensures that data is delivered in the correct order and without errors by
establishing a connection between the sender and receiver.
Question 49:
Which of the following protocols is used for non-connection-oriented
communication?
A. TCP
B. HTTP
C. FTP
D. UDP
Answer: D. UDP
Explanation:
 UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is non-connection-oriented and does not
guarantee reliable communication or ordering of packets. It is faster than
TCP but may result in lost or out-of-order packets.
Question 50:
What is the primary advantage of distributed systems?
A. They increase the cost of hardware.
B. They provide better security for data.
C. They allow for the sharing of resources and fault tolerance.
D. They allow only a single user to access resources.
Answer: C. They allow for the sharing of resources and fault tolerance.
Explanation:
 Distributed systems allow multiple systems to share resources, work
together on tasks, and provide fault tolerance. This ensures that if one part of
the system fails, the rest of the system can continue to function normally.
Question 51:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a client-server model?
A. The server provides services to the client.
B. The server is a centralized system.

135
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. The client is responsible for providing services.

D. Clients send requests to the server.
Answer: C. The client is responsible for providing services.
Explanation:
 In the client-server model, the server provides services or resources to the
client, and the client makes requests. The client is not responsible for
providing services.
Let me know if you'd like to explore more topics or need clarification on any of the
answers!
Here are more Operating System (OS) questions with answers and explanations
to further aid your preparation:
Section 15: Process Management
Question 52:
What is the purpose of a process control block (PCB)?
A. To keep track of the resources allocated to a process.
B. To store the process state and control information.
C. To manage the input/output operations of a process.
D. To monitor the execution time of a process.
Answer: B. To store the process state and control information.
Explanation:
 A Process Control Block (PCB) is a data structure used by the operating
system to store information about a process, such as its state (running,
waiting, etc.), program counter, CPU registers, memory allocation, and other
control information required for process management.
Question 53:
Which of the following is true about a zombie process?
A. It is a process that has completed execution but still has an entry in the process
table.
B. It is a process that is stuck in an infinite loop.
C. It is a process that is waiting for a resource.
D. It is a process that is actively using CPU time.
Answer: A. It is a process that has completed execution but still has an entry
in the process table.
Explanation:
 A zombie process occurs when a process has finished executing, but its
entry remains in the process table because its parent has not read its exit
status. This can lead to resource leakage if not cleaned up.
Question 54:
What does context switching refer to in process management?

136
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Moving a process from one CPU to another.

B. Saving and restoring the state of a CPU to allow multiple processes to share a
single CPU.
C. Moving processes between main memory and secondary storage.
D. Changing the priority of a process.
Answer: B. Saving and restoring the state of a CPU to allow multiple
processes to share a single CPU.
Explanation:
 Context switching is the process of saving the state of a currently running
process and restoring the state of another process so that multiple processes
can share a CPU. This enables multitasking in an operating system.
Question 55:
Which of the following is an example of preemptive scheduling?
A. First-Come, First-Served (FCFS)
B. Shortest Job Next (SJN)
C. Round Robin (RR)
D. Priority Scheduling
Answer: C. Round Robin (RR)
Explanation:
 Round Robin (RR) is an example of preemptive scheduling, where the
CPU is allocated to each process for a fixed time slice. If a process doesn't
finish in its time slice, it is preempted and the next process is scheduled.
Question 56:
Which of the following scheduling algorithms can lead to starvation?
A. Round Robin
B. First-Come, First-Served (FCFS)
C. Shortest Job First (SJF)
D. Priority Scheduling
Answer: D. Priority Scheduling
Explanation:
 Priority Scheduling can cause starvation because low-priority processes
may never get a chance to execute if higher-priority processes are always
available. This results in the low-priority processes waiting indefinitely.

Section 16: Memory Management

Question 57:
What is compaction in memory management?
A. Moving processes to adjacent memory locations to reduce fragmentation.
B. Swapping processes between primary memory and secondary storage.

137
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Assigning memory blocks to processes based on their size.

D. Allocating memory to processes in a fixed-size partition.
Answer: A. Moving processes to adjacent memory locations to reduce
fragmentation.
Explanation:
 Compaction is a memory management technique used to reduce external
fragmentation. It involves shifting the memory contents to consolidate free
memory spaces, allowing for more efficient memory usage.
Question 58:
What is the primary purpose of the memory management unit (MMU) in a
system?
A. To schedule processes for execution.
B. To manage input and output devices.
C. To map virtual addresses to physical addresses.
D. To allocate memory blocks to processes.
Answer: C. To map virtual addresses to physical addresses.
Explanation:
 The Memory Management Unit (MMU) is responsible for translating
virtual addresses used by programs into physical addresses in memory,
enabling the use of virtual memory.
Question 59:
Which of the following paging algorithms replaces the page that has not been
used for the longest period of time?
A. Least Recently Used (LRU)
B. First-In, First-Out (FIFO)
C. Optimal Page Replacement
D. Clock Algorithm
Answer: B. First-In, First-Out (FIFO)
Explanation:
 The FIFO (First-In, First-Out) paging algorithm replaces the oldest page
in memory, which may not always be the optimal choice. LRU replaces the
least recently used page, which is usually more efficient than FIFO.
Question 60:
Which of the following best describes segmentation?
A. Dividing memory into fixed-size pages.
B. A memory allocation technique that divides memory into varying-sized
segments based on the logical divisions of a process.
C. Mapping virtual memory addresses to physical memory addresses.
D. Storing data in contiguous blocks in memory.

138
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: B. A memory allocation technique that divides memory into varying-

sized segments based on the logical divisions of a process.
Explanation:
 Segmentation is a memory management technique that divides a program
into logical segments such as code, data, and stack. Unlike paging, which
uses fixed-size blocks, segmentation uses variable-sized units based on the
process's needs.
Section 17: File Systems and I/O
Question 61:
Which of the following file systems is most commonly used in Linux?
A. FAT32
B. NTFS
C. ext4
D. HFS+
Answer: C. ext4
Explanation:
 ext4 (fourth extended file system) is the most widely used file system in
Linux distributions. It provides a balance of performance, reliability, and
support for large file sizes and volumes.
Question 62:
What does mounting a file system mean?
A. Allocating memory for file system data.
B. Connecting a physical device to the file system.
C. Assigning a logical drive letter to a disk partition.
D. Initializing a file system on a storage device.
Answer: B. Connecting a physical device to the file system.
Explanation:
 Mounting a file system refers to the process of making a storage device
(such as a hard disk or USB drive) accessible to the operating system by
connecting it to the file system hierarchy, allowing files on that device to be
accessed.
Question 63:
Which of the following file allocation methods is most prone to fragmentation?
A. Contiguous Allocation
B. Linked Allocation
C. Indexed Allocation
D. Segmented Allocation
Answer: A. Contiguous Allocation
Explanation:

139
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Contiguous Allocation stores files in contiguous blocks in memory. This

can lead to external fragmentation, where free space becomes scattered
and large files cannot be allocated, even though there might be enough total
free space.
Question 64:
What is direct file access?
A. Accessing files sequentially, one record at a time.
B. A method where files are accessed in a specific order.
C. A file access method that allows random access to any location in the file.
D. The process of creating a new file in the system.
Answer: C. A file access method that allows random access to any location in
the file.
Explanation:
 Direct file access (also known as random access) allows the program to
jump to a specific location within a file without reading the entire file
sequentially. This provides faster access to data.
Question 65:
Which of the following is not a part of the file control block (FCB)?
A. File name
B. File size
C. File content
D. File attributes
Answer: C. File content
Explanation:
 The File Control Block (FCB) is a data structure used to store metadata
about a file, such as its name, size, and attributes. It does not store the file's
actual content; rather, it stores information necessary to manage the file.
Let me know if you'd like further explanations or more questions!
MIS NGAT Exam with answers
Here are some Management Information Systems (MIS) questions with answers
and explanations that could help you in your NGAT exam preparation:
Section 1: Basic Concepts of MIS
Question 1:
Which of the following is a key objective of a Management Information System
(MIS)?
A. To collect raw data from external sources.
B. To convert data into meaningful information for decision-making.
C. To store data permanently for future use.
D. To protect sensitive data from unauthorized access.

140
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: B. To convert data into meaningful information for decision-making.

Explanation:
 The primary purpose of an MIS is to provide meaningful information to
management to aid in decision-making. It does this by processing raw data
and turning it into useful information that helps in planning, controlling, and
decision-making activities.
Question 2:
What is the primary difference between Data and Information?
A. Data is unprocessed and Information is processed.
B. Data is used only for statistical analysis, while Information is used for decision-
making.
C. Data is more valuable than Information.
D. Data is stored in databases, while Information is stored in spreadsheets.
Answer: A. Data is unprocessed and Information is processed.
Explanation:
 Data refers to raw facts and figures, whereas Information is processed,
organized, or structured data that is meaningful and useful for decision-
making.
Question 3:
Which of the following is a component of an Information System?
A. Software
B. Hardware
C. People
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 An Information System (IS) consists of several components, including
hardware, software, people, data, and procedures. These components
work together to collect, process, store, and disseminate information.
Section 2: Types of MIS
Question 4:
Which type of MIS provides routine information and is used by lower-level
managers for daily operations?
A. Decision Support System (DSS)
B. Executive Information System (EIS)
C. Transaction Processing System (TPS)
D. Expert System (ES)
Answer: C. Transaction Processing System (TPS)
Explanation:

141
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 A Transaction Processing System (TPS) is used by operational-level

management to process routine transactions. It helps in recording daily
operations and ensuring the smooth flow of business activities.
Question 5:
Which system helps in strategic decision-making at the top management level
and provides key performance indicators (KPIs) through graphical data
representation?
A. Decision Support System (DSS)
B. Executive Information System (EIS)
C. Transaction Processing System (TPS)
D. Management Reporting System (MRS)
Answer: B. Executive Information System (EIS)
Explanation:
 Executive Information Systems (EIS) are designed to provide top-level
managers with immediate access to summarized information on the
company’s performance. These systems use visual tools like graphs,
dashboards, and key performance indicators (KPIs) to help in strategic
decision-making.
Question 6:
Which of the following is not a feature of a Decision Support System (DSS)?
A. It helps in analyzing complex data.
B. It supports non-routine decision-making.
C. It uses historical data and modeling tools for analysis.
D. It provides real-time transactional data.
Answer: D. It provides real-time transactional data.
Explanation:
 A Decision Support System (DSS) helps managers make non-routine
decisions by analyzing complex data and using models. It does not focus on
real-time transactional data, which is the domain of Transaction Processing
Systems (TPS).
Question 7:
Which of the following describes the purpose of an Expert System (ES)?
A. To support decision-making through simulations and forecasting.
B. To process routine transaction data.
C. To replicate the decision-making ability of a human expert.
D. To analyze and manage large amounts of raw data.
Answer: C. To replicate the decision-making ability of a human expert.
Explanation:

142
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 An Expert System (ES) is designed to emulate the decision-making process

of a human expert in a specific field. It uses a knowledge base and inference
rules to make decisions and provide solutions in areas like medical
diagnosis, troubleshooting, and legal advice.
Section 3: MIS Design and Implementation
Question 8:
What does the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) represent?
A. A step-by-step method to develop and maintain an information system.
B. A process to evaluate the performance of a current information system.
C. A set of instructions for users to follow while using an information system.
D. A training program for staff to learn how to use an information system.
Answer: A. A step-by-step method to develop and maintain an information
system.
Explanation:
 The System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is a structured approach to
designing, developing, and maintaining an information system. It includes
stages such as planning, analysis, design, implementation, and maintenance.
Question 9:
Which of the following is not a phase of the System Development Life Cycle
(SDLC)?
A. Planning
B. Design
C. Development
D. Maintenance
E. Production
Answer: E. Production
Explanation:
 The SDLC includes phases like planning, design, development, and
maintenance. Production is not a phase of the SDLC, though it might refer
to the system being in operation after development.
Question 10:
What is the purpose of a feasibility study during the planning phase of SDLC?
A. To evaluate the user interface design of the system.
B. To analyze the risks associated with the system.
C. To determine if the system can be developed and operated successfully within
budget, time, and technical constraints.
D. To identify and fix bugs in the system.
Answer: C. To determine if the system can be developed and operated
successfully within budget, time, and technical constraints.

143
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 A feasibility study assesses whether the proposed system is viable in terms
of technical, operational, and financial constraints. This is done during the
planning phase of SDLC to ensure that the system can be realistically
developed and implemented.
Section 4: Security and Ethical Issues in MIS
Question 11:
Which of the following is not considered a security threat in an information
system?
A. Virus attacks
B. Phishing
C. Data encryption
D. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attacks
Answer: C. Data encryption
Explanation:
 Data encryption is a security measure, not a threat. It protects data from
unauthorized access by encoding it. On the other hand, virus attacks,
phishing, and Denial-of-Service (DoS) attacks are examples of security
threats.
Question 12:
What is the primary goal of data governance in an organization?
A. To ensure that data is shared only among authorized users.
B. To manage how data is collected, stored, processed, and used within an
organization.
C. To protect data from unauthorized access through encryption.
D. To eliminate unnecessary data in the system.
Answer: B. To manage how data is collected, stored, processed, and used
within an organization.
Explanation:
 Data governance is a framework for ensuring that an organization's data is
accurate, consistent, secure, and used effectively across various departments
and systems.
Question 13:
Which of the following is a key ethical issue related to Management Information
Systems (MIS)?
A. Data security and privacy concerns.
B. System reliability and performance.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Speed of transaction processing.

144
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: A. Data security and privacy concerns.

Explanation:
 Data security and privacy are critical ethical issues in MIS because
organizations handle sensitive personal and business data. Protecting this
data from unauthorized access, misuse, or leaks is a fundamental
responsibility of organizations.
Let me know if you'd like more questions, explanations, or any further assistance!
Yes
Here are additional Management Information Systems (MIS) questions with
answers and explanations to further aid your preparation:
Section 5: MIS and Decision-Making
Question 14:
Which of the following types of decisions are supported by Management
Information Systems (MIS)?
A. Routine, structured decisions
B. Complex, unstructured decisions
C. Both routine and unstructured decisions
D. Only complex, unstructured decisions
Answer: A. Routine, structured decisions
Explanation:
 MIS is designed to support routine, structured decisions by providing
regular, predefined reports and information to assist managers in making
decisions related to day-to-day operations. For complex or unstructured
decisions, systems like Decision Support Systems (DSS) or Executive
Information Systems (EIS) are used.
Question 15:
Which of the following is a non-routine decision type often made by higher
management?
A. Analyzing employee performance
B. Deciding on market expansion strategies
C. Approving budget allocations
D. Reviewing operational reports
Answer: B. Deciding on market expansion strategies
Explanation:
 Non-routine decisions, like market expansion strategies, involve complex
problem-solving and may not have predefined solutions. These decisions are
typically made by higher management, often with the help of tools like
Decision Support Systems (DSS) or Executive Information Systems
(EIS).

145
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 16:
Which of the following is an example of a strategic decision?
A. Determining the price of a product
B. Setting employee salaries
C. Deciding on the long-term direction of the company
D. Evaluating the quality of a product
Answer: C. Deciding on the long-term direction of the company
Explanation:
 Strategic decisions relate to the long-term goals and direction of an
organization, like entering new markets or determining growth strategies.
These decisions are typically made by top-level management and involve
significant risk and uncertainty.
Question 17:
Which Information System (IS) is most helpful for supporting tactical decision-
making?
A. Transaction Processing System (TPS)
B. Decision Support System (DSS)
C. Executive Information System (EIS)
D. Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
Answer: B. Decision Support System (DSS)
Explanation:
 A Decision Support System (DSS) assists in tactical decision-making by
analyzing complex data and presenting it in a way that helps mid-level
managers make decisions. It provides flexible, interactive, and analytical
support for decision-making.
Section 6: Data and Information Management
Question 18:
Which of the following is not a feature of a Database Management System
(DBMS)?
A. Data redundancy elimination
B. Data consistency enforcement
C. Data centralization
D. Data isolation from applications
Answer: D. Data isolation from applications
Explanation:
 A DBMS is designed to manage and centralize data, reduce redundancy,
enforce consistency, and provide easy access to data for applications. It does
not isolate data from applications, as data must be accessible for
applications to function effectively.

146
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 19:
What is data normalization in the context of databases?
A. Encrypting sensitive data before storage
B. Organizing data to reduce redundancy and improve integrity
C. Combining data from different sources into one database
D. Creating backup copies of the database
Answer: B. Organizing data to reduce redundancy and improve integrity
Explanation:
 Data normalization is the process of organizing a database's schema to
minimize redundancy and ensure data integrity. It involves splitting large
tables into smaller, related tables and ensuring that each piece of data is
stored only once.
Question 20:
Which of the following is a primary key in a relational database?
A. A field that uniquely identifies each record in a table
B. A field used to categorize data
C. A field that links two tables together
D. A field that is used to sort records
Answer: A. A field that uniquely identifies each record in a table
Explanation:
 A primary key is a field (or combination of fields) in a table that uniquely
identifies each record. It ensures that no two rows in the table have the same
value for the primary key field.
Question 21:
Which of the following is an example of data mining?
A. Using SQL queries to retrieve data
B. Analyzing patterns in customer purchasing behavior
C. Encrypting data to ensure security
D. Backing up data to prevent loss
Answer: B. Analyzing patterns in customer purchasing behavior
Explanation:
 Data mining involves analyzing large sets of data to identify patterns,
trends, and relationships. In this case, analyzing customer purchasing
behavior is an example of using data mining to derive useful insights.
Section 7: Cloud Computing and Modern Technologies in MIS
Question 22:
Which of the following describes cloud computing?
A. Storing data on physical servers located within an organization's premises
B. Using shared resources, software, and information over the internet

147
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Installing software on a local server to access remotely

D. Using hardware-based solutions to manage IT infrastructure
Answer: B. Using shared resources, software, and information over the
internet
Explanation:
 Cloud computing allows organizations and individuals to access computing
resources such as storage, processing power, and software over the internet,
eliminating the need for physical infrastructure.
Question 23:
Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing for businesses?
A. Increased hardware maintenance costs
B. Increased flexibility and scalability
C. Limited access to software applications
D. Increased IT infrastructure investment
Answer: B. Increased flexibility and scalability
Explanation:
 Cloud computing offers businesses increased flexibility and scalability,
allowing them to scale resources up or down as needed and pay only for the
services they use, leading to cost savings.
Question 24:
What is big data in the context of Management Information Systems?
A. Data that is too large to be managed by traditional databases
B. Data that is structured and organized in a tabular format
C. Data that is collected from small, local databases
D. Data that is stored in the cloud for remote access
Answer: A. Data that is too large to be managed by traditional databases
Explanation:
 Big data refers to extremely large datasets that are too complex or
voluminous to be processed using traditional database management systems.
Big data requires specialized technologies like Hadoop and NoSQL
databases to handle, process, and analyze.
Question 25:
What is the purpose of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in modern MIS?
A. To automate repetitive tasks
B. To replace human decision-making entirely
C. To manage data storage and retrieval
D. To improve the speed of hardware components
Answer: A. To automate repetitive tasks
Explanation:

148
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Artificial Intelligence (AI) in MIS is used to automate tasks that would

typically require human intervention, such as data analysis, decision-making,
and pattern recognition. AI helps improve efficiency and reduce human error
in decision-making processes.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or if there's anything specific you'd like
help with!
Here are more Management Information Systems (MIS) questions with answers
and explanations to continue your preparation:
Section 8: Information Systems and Technology Integration
Question 26:
Which of the following is the primary function of a Transaction Processing
System (TPS)?
A. To support decision-making processes by analyzing data
B. To process routine transactions in an organization
C. To track strategic goals and performance indicators
D. To manage large volumes of unstructured data
Answer: B. To process routine transactions in an organization
Explanation:
 A Transaction Processing System (TPS) is responsible for processing and
recording the routine transactions that occur within an organization, such as
sales, purchases, payroll, and inventory updates. It ensures the smooth flow
of day-to-day operations.
Question 27:
Which of the following is not a common type of Information System in an
organization?
A. Knowledge Management System (KMS)
B. Transaction Processing System (TPS)
C. Expert System (ES)
D. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
Answer: D. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
Explanation:
 Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) is a method of exchanging business
documents between organizations electronically. It is not an information
system itself, but rather a technology used for data exchange, unlike
Knowledge Management Systems (KMS), Transaction Processing
Systems (TPS), and Expert Systems (ES), which are types of information
systems.
Question 28:

149
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following is a key benefit of integrating different information

systems within an organization?
A. Increased data redundancy
B. Improved decision-making capabilities
C. Reduced complexity in business operations
D. Isolated functional operations
Answer: B. Improved decision-making capabilities
Explanation:
 Integrating different information systems within an organization allows
for seamless data flow and better collaboration across departments, leading
to more informed and timely decision-making. It ensures that management
has access to consistent and accurate information across the organization.
Section 9: Security, Privacy, and Ethical Issues in MIS
Question 29:
What is the primary concern of information security in an organization?
A. Preventing unauthorized access to data
B. Increasing the amount of data storage
C. Minimizing the cost of software applications
D. Simplifying the process of data retrieval
Answer: A. Preventing unauthorized access to data
Explanation:
 Information security aims to protect sensitive data from unauthorized
access, modification, disclosure, or destruction. This includes protecting data
from hacking, fraud, and theft, ensuring that only authorized personnel can
access the data.
Question 30:
Which of the following is an ethical issue related to data privacy in MIS?
A. Ensuring that data is readily available for decision-making
B. Protecting personal and sensitive information from misuse
C. Maximizing system uptime and availability
D. Streamlining data storage and retrieval processes
Answer: B. Protecting personal and sensitive information from misuse
Explanation:
 Data privacy is an ethical issue because it involves protecting personal and
sensitive information from being misused, accessed without authorization, or
exploited for purposes beyond the consent of the individuals involved.
Question 31:
What does data encryption ensure in an organization's MIS?

150
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Protection of data during transmission

B. Increased speed of data processing
C. Easy access to data for all employees
D. Centralization of data storage
Answer: A. Protection of data during transmission
Explanation:
 Data encryption is used to convert data into an unreadable format, making
it difficult for unauthorized individuals to interpret the information. It is a
critical measure for protecting sensitive data during transmission and
ensuring privacy and security.
Section 10: Emerging Technologies in MIS
Question 32:
Which of the following best describes Block chain technology in the context of
MIS?
A. A method for organizing and storing data in hierarchical structures
B. A distributed ledger technology for secure, transparent, and tamper-proof
transactions
C. A cloud computing platform for hosting information systems
D. A software tool for processing large datasets in real-time
Answer: B. A distributed ledger technology for secure, transparent, and
tamper-proof transactions
Explanation:
 Block chain technology is a distributed ledger that securely records
transactions across multiple computers, ensuring that the data is transparent,
tamper-proof, and immutable. It is increasingly being used for secure
transactions, especially in financial systems.
Question 33:
How does Artificial Intelligence (AI) contribute to Business Intelligence (BI) in
MIS?
A. By processing large volumes of data without human intervention
B. By automating routine business processes
C. By generating reports based on historical data trends
D. By enhancing decision-making through predictive analytics
Answer: D. By enhancing decision-making through predictive analytics
Explanation:
 Artificial Intelligence (AI) enhances Business Intelligence (BI) by using
predictive analytics to analyze past data and provide insights into future
trends, helping organizations make better, more informed decisions.
Question 34:

151
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

What does Big Data analytics primarily focus on?

A. Analyzing small datasets for operational purposes
B. Storing data securely in traditional relational databases
C. Analyzing and processing large volumes of unstructured data
D. Simplifying data access through user-friendly interfaces
Answer: C. Analyzing and processing large volumes of unstructured data
Explanation:
 Big Data refers to large volumes of data that are too complex and
voluminous for traditional database systems. Big Data analytics focuses on
processing, analyzing, and deriving insights from this data, including both
structured and unstructured data.
Question 35:
Which of the following describes Cloud Computing in terms of its impact on
MIS?
A. Reduces the need for hardware and physical data centers
B. Increases the complexity of database management
C. Limits data access to on premise locations
D. Decreases scalability of information systems
Answer: A. Reduces the need for hardware and physical data centers
Explanation:
 Cloud computing allows organizations to access computing resources like
storage, processing power, and software applications over the internet. It
reduces the need for maintaining physical data centers, offering scalable
resources and cost-efficiency.
Question 36:
Which of the following technologies is commonly used in IoT (Internet of
Things) in an MIS context?
A. Block chain
B. Machine Learning
C. RFID (Radio Frequency Identification)
D. Cloud Computing
Answer: C. RFID (Radio Frequency Identification)
Explanation:
 RFID is commonly used in IoT systems to track and identify objects in real-
time using radio waves. It helps in managing inventory, assets, and supply
chains, making it an integral part of modern MIS in industries such as retail
and logistics.
Section 11: Applications of MIS
Question 37:

152
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following is an example of how MIS can be used in Customer

Relationship Management (CRM)?
A. Storing customer personal information securely
B. Analyzing customer data to improve service and engagement
C. Processing customer payments
D. Managing employee payroll
Answer: B. Analyzing customer data to improve service and engagement
Explanation:
 Customer Relationship Management (CRM) systems use MIS to analyze
customer data and improve engagement, service, and sales strategies. By
understanding customer preferences and behaviors, businesses can tailor
their offerings to increase customer satisfaction and loyalty.
Question 38:
What is the purpose of a Supply Chain Management System (SCM) in MIS?
A. To track employee performance
B. To manage customer interactions and sales
C. To optimize the flow of goods and materials in the supply chain
D. To manage organizational finances
Answer: C. To optimize the flow of goods and materials in the supply chain
Explanation:
 A Supply Chain Management (SCM) system helps organizations manage
the flow of goods, materials, and information across the supply chain. It
aims to optimize production, reduce costs, and improve delivery times by
integrating the activities of suppliers, manufacturers, and distributors.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or any other assistance in your studies!
Response 1
Here are more Management Information Systems (MIS) questions with answers
and explanations to enhance your understanding and prepare you for your NGAT
exam:
Section 12: Project Management and Systems Development
Question 39:
What is the primary objective of the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
A. To automate routine business processes
B. To manage risks and control project costs
C. To ensure that information systems are developed systematically and efficiently
D. To integrate multiple databases into a single system
Answer: C. To ensure that information systems are developed systematically
and efficiently
Explanation:

153
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 SDLC is a structured framework used to develop, maintain, and manage

information systems systematically. It includes phases such as planning,
analysis, design, implementation, and maintenance.
Question 40:
Which phase of the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) involves gathering
detailed requirements from users?
A. Planning
B. Analysis
C. Design
D. Implementation
Answer: B. Analysis
Explanation:
 In the analysis phase, requirements are gathered by analyzing the needs of
users and the organization. It involves understanding user needs, identifying
system requirements, and creating a detailed system specification.
Question 41:
Which project management tool is often used to represent project tasks and their
dependencies visually?
A. Gantt chart
B. Pie chart
C. Histogram
D. Flowchart
Answer: A. Gantt chart
Explanation:
 A Gantt chart is a visual representation of a project schedule, where tasks
are listed on the vertical axis, and time periods are shown on the horizontal
axis. It shows task dependencies, durations, and progress, making it useful
for tracking project timelines.
Question 42:
Which of the following is a key characteristic of waterfall model in system
development?
A. Iterative and incremental development
B. Non-linear and flexible phases
C. Sequential and rigid phases
D. Regular user feedback during each phase
Answer: C. Sequential and rigid phases
Explanation:
 The waterfall model follows a linear and sequential approach, with each
phase of development (planning, analysis, design, implementation, and

154
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

maintenance) completed before moving to the next. It is a rigid and

structured method, commonly used in projects with clear, well-defined
requirements.
Question 43:
Which of the following is a benefit of using a Prototype model in system
development?
A. Helps minimize costs in the long run
B. Allows for early user feedback and refinement
C. Ensures the system is completed on time
D. Simplifies project management with a clear structure
Answer: B. Allows for early user feedback and refinement
Explanation:
 The Prototype model allows for iterative development, where users can
interact with an early version of the system and provide feedback before
finalizing the design and functionality. It helps in refining requirements and
making adjustments early in the development process.
Section 13: Performance Evaluation and Metrics in MIS
Question 44:
Which metric is commonly used to measure system availability in MIS?
A. Response time
B. Throughput
C. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)
D. Processing speed
Answer: C. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)
Explanation:
 MTBF measures the average time between system failures, indicating
system reliability and availability. Higher MTBF values suggest better
system availability and reliability.
Question 45:
Which of the following is an example of a Key Performance Indicator (KPI) for
Customer Satisfaction in MIS?
A. Average time to process orders
B. Percentage of on-time deliveries
C. Customer complaints per month
D. Total sales revenue
Answer: C. Customer complaints per month
Explanation:

155
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Monitoring the number of customer complaints provides insight into

customer satisfaction levels and helps identify areas for improvement.
Lower complaints indicate higher customer satisfaction.
Question 46:
What is the primary focus of a Balanced Scorecard in MIS?
A. Focusing on financial metrics only
B. Measuring performance across multiple perspectives
C. Providing detailed project timelines
D. Analyzing historical data trends only
Answer: B. Measuring performance across multiple perspectives
Explanation:
 The Balanced Scorecard provides a comprehensive view of organizational
performance by measuring metrics across four perspectives: financial,
customer, internal processes, and learning and growth. It allows for a holistic
assessment of business performance.
Question 47:
Which of the following describes a performance metric for evaluating the
efficiency of a Supply Chain Management System (SCM)?
A. Inventory turnover ratio
B. Employee absenteeism rate
C. Gross profit margin
D. Employee satisfaction survey results
Answer: A. Inventory turnover ratio
Explanation:
 The inventory turnover ratio measures how quickly inventory is used and
replaced over time. It reflects the efficiency of inventory management within
the supply chain, indicating how well products are moving and stocked.
Section 14: Organizational and Functional Applications
Question 48:
Which of the following is an example of Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)?
A. A customer database management system
B. A payroll system used by HR
C. An integrated system that manages various business processes across
departments
D. A system specifically designed for marketing campaigns
Answer: C. An integrated system that manages various business processes
across departments
Explanation:

156
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) integrates core business processes

like finance, supply chain, HR, and procurement into a unified system,
allowing for streamlined operations and improved data flow across the
organization.
Question 49:
Which type of MIS is most commonly used in Marketing to analyze customer
behavior and preferences?
A. Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
B. Marketing Information System (MkIS)
C. Supply Chain Management (SCM)
D. Transaction Processing System (TPS)
Answer: B. Marketing Information System (MkIS)
Explanation:
 A Marketing Information System (MkIS) helps marketers analyze
customer data, identify market trends, and optimize marketing campaigns by
providing insights into customer behavior and preferences.
Question 50:
Which of the following is a key function of a Human Resource Information
System (HRIS)?
A. Managing customer data and interactions
B. Processing payroll and managing employee records
C. Optimizing supply chain logistics
D. Analyzing financial performance
Answer: B. Processing payroll and managing employee records
Explanation:
 A Human Resource Information System (HRIS) automates and manages
various HR functions such as payroll, recruitment, benefits administration,
and employee records management, making HR processes more efficient
and streamlined.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or if there are other areas you'd like to
focus on!
Response 2
Here are additional Management Information Systems (MIS) questions with
answers and explanations:
Section 12: Advanced MIS Concepts
Question 39:
Which of the following is a primary characteristic of a Data Warehouse in an MIS
environment?

157
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Real-time transaction processing

B. Aggregated historical data storage
C. Localized data storage
D. Routine operational data handling
Answer: B. Aggregated historical data storage
Explanation:
 Data Warehousing focuses on storing aggregated and historical data from
multiple sources to support decision-making processes. It is optimized for
querying and analysis, unlike real-time transaction processing which is
typical of Transactional Systems.
Question 40:
Which of the following is an example of Business Process Management (BPM)
in MIS?
A. Automating routine business tasks
B. Analyzing customer behavior through data mining
C. Managing financial transactions
D. Storing documents securely in a centralized repository
Answer: A. Automating routine business tasks
Explanation:
 Business Process Management (BPM) focuses on automating, managing,
and optimizing business processes to improve efficiency and reduce manual
effort. It automates tasks and workflows to streamline operations and
improve productivity.
Question 41:
Which of the following technologies is used for Predictive Analytics in MIS?
A. Relational Databases
B. Machine Learning
C. Data Encryption
D. Virtualization
Answer: B. Machine Learning
Explanation:
 Predictive Analytics involves using Machine Learning algorithms to
analyze historical data and forecast future outcomes. It helps organizations
make data-driven decisions by identifying trends and patterns.
Question 42:
Which of the following describes Unified Communication (UC) in an MIS
context?
A. Integrating various communication channels into a single system
B. Using multiple databases for storage

158
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Automating routine financial reporting

D. Securing sensitive customer data through encryption
Answer: A. Integrating various communication channels into a single system
Explanation:
 Unified Communication (UC) integrates multiple communication methods
(e.g., email, voice calls, video conferencing, instant messaging) into a
unified system, improving collaboration and communication within
organizations.
Question 43:
Which of the following is an advantage of Serverless Computing in MIS?
A. Increased hardware management
B. Reduced operational overhead
C. Higher upfront costs for server setup
D. Lower scalability for application deployment
Answer: B. Reduced operational overhead
Explanation:
 Server less Computing abstracts the underlying infrastructure, allowing
organizations to focus on building applications without worrying about
managing physical or virtual servers. This reduces operational overhead and
simplifies scaling resources based on demand.
Section 13: Case Studies and Real-world Applications
Question 44:
Which of the following companies successfully implemented Big Data Analytics
to enhance their supply chain operations?
A. Amazon
B. Microsoft
C. IBM
D. Oracle
Answer: A. Amazon
Explanation:
 Amazon has extensively used Big Data Analytics to optimize its supply
chain, manage logistics, and improve delivery times. Their use of advanced
analytics helps in demand forecasting, inventory management, and customer
satisfaction.
Question 45:
Which company is known for leveraging Cloud Computing to provide enterprise
solutions globally?
A. Apple
B. Salesforce

159
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Google
D. Adobe
Answer: B. Salesforce
Explanation:
 Salesforce has become a leader in providing Cloud Computing solutions
for enterprise businesses, offering tools for CRM, marketing, and customer
service on a scalable, cloud-based platform.
Question 46:
In what way did Netflix use Machine Learning to enhance its MIS capabilities?
A. Automating video editing
B. Personalizing content recommendations for users
C. Managing financial transactions
D. Storing customer data securely
Answer: B. Personalizing content recommendations for users
Explanation:
 Netflix uses Machine Learning algorithms to analyze user behavior and
preferences, enabling the personalization of content recommendations. This
enhances the user experience by suggesting relevant movies and shows,
improving viewer engagement.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or explanations on any specific topic! 😊
Data communication and Networking NGAT Exam with answers
Here are Data Communication and Networking questions with answers and
explanations to help you prepare for the NGAT exam:
Section 1: Basics of Data Communication
Question 1:
Which of the following is the primary purpose of data communication?
A. To improve system performance
B. To enable transmission of data between devices
C. To increase storage capacity
D. To enhance system security
Answer: B. To enable transmission of data between devices
Explanation:
 Data communication refers to the exchange of data between devices (like
computers, servers, and routers) through transmission media such as cables,
radio waves, or optical fibers. The main goal is to facilitate the exchange of
data over various distances and networks.
Question 2:
Which of the following is the correct definition of bandwidth in a data
communication system?

160
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. The total amount of data transmitted per second

B. The capacity of a communication channel to transmit data
C. The distance over which data can be transmitted
D. The protocol used for data transmission
Answer: B. The capacity of a communication channel to transmit data
Explanation:
 Bandwidth refers to the data transfer capacity of a communication channel,
typically measured in bits per second (bps). A higher bandwidth allows more
data to be transmitted in a given amount of time.
Question 3:
Which of the following transmission modes sends data in both directions, but not
simultaneously?
A. Simplex
B. Half-Duplex
C. Full-Duplex
D. Bidirectional
Answer: B. Half-Duplex
Explanation:
 In half-duplex mode, data can be sent in both directions, but not at the same
time. An example is walkie-talkies, where one person speaks while the other
listens, but they cannot speak simultaneously.
Question 4:
Which of the following is the main function of a modem in data communication?
A. To route packets between networks
B. To amplify signals for long-distance transmission
C. To convert digital signals into analog signals and vice versa
D. To encrypt data during transmission
Answer: C. To convert digital signals into analog signals and vice versa
Explanation:
 A modem (modulator-demodulator) converts digital signals from a
computer into analog signals for transmission over telephone lines or vice
versa. It allows digital devices to communicate over analog channels.
Section 2: Networking Fundamentals
Question 5:
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for providing end-to-end
communication and error handling?
A. Physical Layer
B. Data Link Layer

161
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Network Layer
D. Transport Layer
Answer: D. Transport Layer
Explanation:
 The Transport Layer (Layer 4) of the OSI model ensures reliable
communication by managing end-to-end data transmission, error detection,
and correction. It provides flow control and guarantees that data is delivered
correctly.
Question 6:
Which of the following is the most common network topology used in local area
networks (LAN)?
A. Star
B. Bus
C. Ring
D. Mesh
Answer: A. Star
Explanation:
 Star topology is the most common LAN topology, where all devices are
connected to a central device (such as a hub or switch). This topology
simplifies management and troubleshooting.
Question 7:
In a client-server network model, what role does the server play?
A. The server provides resources and services to the client
B. The server acts as the main communication channel
C. The server is responsible for data transmission
D. The server sends requests to the client
Answer: A. The server provides resources and services to the client
Explanation:
 In a client-server model, the server provides resources, services, and data
to the clients, which request the services. Servers are typically more
powerful machines, and clients are the devices that access these services.
Question 8:
Which protocol is primarily used for sending emails over the internet?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. SNMP
Answer: C. SMTP
Explanation:

162
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the protocol used for sending
emails across the internet. It defines how email messages are transferred
from a sender's email client to the mail server and from the server to the
recipient's email server.
Section 3: IP Addressing and Subletting
Question 9:
What is the purpose of a subnet mask in IP addressing?
A. To define the range of IP addresses a network can use
B. To map a hostname to an IP address
C. To separate the network part from the host part of an IP address
D. To encrypt data sent over the network
Answer: C. To separate the network part from the host part of an IP address
Explanation:
 A subnet mask is used to divide an IP address into two parts: the network
part and the host part. It helps in identifying which portion of the IP
address refers to the network and which refers to the individual device
(host).
Question 10:
What is the class of the IP address 192.168.1.10?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: C. Class C
Explanation:
 The IP address 192.168.1.10 belongs to Class C, which covers IP addresses
in the range of 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255. Class C addresses are
commonly used for small to medium-sized networks.
Question 11:
Which of the following is the correct format for a valid IPv6 address?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 255.255.255.255
C. 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
D. 10.0.0.1
Answer: C. 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
Explanation:
 IPv6 addresses use a hexadecimal format separated by colons, such as
2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334. This format allows for a
larger address space compared to IPv4.

163
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Section 4: Routing and Switching

Question 12:
Which routing protocol is known for using distance vector routing?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
Answer: B. RIP
Explanation:
 RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is a distance vector routing protocol
that determines the best path to a destination based on the number of hops. It
uses hop count as the metric for routing decisions.
Question 13:
Which of the following devices operates at the Data Link Layer of the OSI
model?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Hub
D. Bridge
Answer: B. Switch
Explanation:
 A switch operates at the Data Link Layer (Layer 2) and is used to connect
devices within a network. It uses MAC addresses to forward frames between
devices.
Question 14:
Which of the following IP routing protocols is classified as a link-state protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. EIGRP
Answer: B. OSPF
Explanation:
 OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a link-state routing protocol that uses
the state of the links (network interfaces) to calculate the shortest path to a
destination.
Section 5: Wireless Networking
Question 15:
Which IEEE standard is used for Wi-Fi networks?

164
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. 802.5
B. 802.11
C. 802.3
D. 802.16
Answer: B. 802.11
Explanation:
 The IEEE 802.11 standard defines the specifications for Wi-Fi networks,
including wireless LAN (Local Area Networks). It covers various frequency
bands and communication protocols for wireless communication.
Question 16:
Which technology is used to connect devices wirelessly over short distances (up to
100 meters)?
A. Bluetooth
B. ZigBee
C. Wi-Fi
D. LTE
Answer: A. Bluetooth
Explanation:
 Bluetooth is a wireless communication technology designed for short-range
communication (up to 100 meters) between devices, such as smartphones,
headsets, and laptops.
Question 17:
What does the term SSID stand for in wireless networking?
A. Security Service Identifier
B. Standardized System Information
C. Service Set Identifier
D. Secure Set Information
Answer: C. Service Set Identifier
Explanation:
 The SSID (Service Set Identifier) is the name of a wireless network. It is
used to uniquely identify a wireless LAN, allowing devices to connect to the
appropriate network.
Let me know if you need more questions or if you'd like to explore any other
topics!
Here are more Data Communication and Networking questions with answers
and explanations to continue your preparation for the NGAT exam:
Section 6: Network Security
Question 18:
Which of the following is the primary goal of encryption in data communication?

165
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. To compress data for faster transmission

B. To prevent unauthorized access to the data during transmission
C. To reduce the number of data errors
D. To increase the bandwidth of the network
Answer: B. To prevent unauthorized access to the data during transmission
Explanation:
 Encryption is used to convert plaintext data into an unreadable format
(ciphertext) to protect it from unauthorized access during transmission. Only
the intended recipient can decrypt the data back into its original form.
Question 19:
Which of the following protocols is used to secure communication over the
internet by encrypting data?
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Answer: B. HTTPS
Explanation:
 HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is the secure version of
HTTP. It uses encryption protocols such as SSL/TLS to secure data
communication over the web, ensuring that sensitive information (like
passwords and credit card details) is transmitted securely.
Question 20:
Which type of firewall inspects the entire data packet, including the header and
content, before allowing it to pass through?
A. Packet-filtering firewall
B. Stateful inspection firewall
C. Proxy firewall
D. Deep packet inspection firewall
Answer: D. Deep packet inspection firewall
Explanation:
 A deep packet inspection (DPI) firewall examines the entire data packet,
including both the header and the payload (content), to identify malicious
content or unauthorized access attempts.
Question 21:
Which of the following is an authentication method used to verify the identity of
a user or device in a network?
A. Symmetric key encryption
B. Two-factor authentication

166
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Packet filtering
D. Data compression
Answer: B. Two-factor authentication
Explanation:
 Two-factor authentication (2FA) requires two forms of identification from
the user, typically something they know (password) and something they
have (a code sent to their phone or generated by an app). This adds an extra
layer of security.
Question 22:
Which of the following is the main purpose of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
A. To improve the speed of internet connections
B. To encrypt internet traffic and secure communication over public networks
C. To increase the bandwidth of a local network
D. To manage network traffic
Answer: B. To encrypt internet traffic and secure communication over public
networks
Explanation:
 A VPN (Virtual Private Network) creates a secure, encrypted connection
over the internet, allowing users to transmit data securely, even over public
networks. It ensures privacy and security by masking the user's IP address
and encrypting the data.
Section 7: Network Devices and Topologies
Question 23:
Which network device is used to connect multiple devices in a LAN and is
responsible for forwarding data based on MAC addresses?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Hub
D. Bridge
Answer: B. Switch
Explanation:
 A switch operates at the Data Link Layer and forwards data based on MAC
addresses. It is used to connect multiple devices in a LAN and efficiently
route traffic to the correct destination.
Question 24:
Which of the following is a router's primary function in a network?
A. To connect devices within a local area network
B. To forward data packets between different networks

167
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. To amplify signals over long distances

D. To provide power to connected devices
Answer: B. To forward data packets between different networks
Explanation:
 A router is responsible for forwarding data packets between different
networks, often between a local network (LAN) and the internet (WAN). It
uses IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding data.
Question 25:
Which of the following topologies is the most fault-tolerant, where each device is
connected to every other device in the network?
A. Bus
B. Star
C. Ring
D. Mesh
Answer: D. Mesh
Explanation:
 In a mesh topology, each device is directly connected to every other device.
This provides high fault tolerance because if one connection fails, data can
still be routed through other paths.
Question 26:
Which of the following network devices is used to extend the range of a wireless
network by repeating the signal?
A. Access point
B. Router
C. Wireless repeater
D. Bridge
Answer: C. Wireless repeater
Explanation:
 A wireless repeater extends the range of a wireless network by receiving
and amplifying the signal, then retransmitting it to cover areas with weak or
no signal.
Section 8: Internet Protocols
Question 27:
Which protocol is used for dynamic IP addressing in a network?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Answer: B. DHCP

168
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automatically assigns IP
addresses to devices on a network. It simplifies IP address management and
reduces the likelihood of address conflicts.
Question 28:
Which of the following is used to map a domain name (like www.example.com)
to an IP address?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Answer: A. DNS
Explanation:
 DNS (Domain Name System) translates human-readable domain names (like
www.example.com) into machine-readable IP addresses, allowing users to
access websites using easy-to-remember names instead of numeric IP
addresses.
Question 29:
What does the ARP protocol do in a network?
A. Resolves domain names to IP addresses
B. Resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses
C. Encrypts data before transmission
D. Manages routing tables in routers
Answer: B. Resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses
Explanation:
 ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is used to map an IP address to a
corresponding MAC address in a local network. It helps devices locate each
other in a local network segment.
Section 9: Data Link Layer and Physical Layer
Question 30:
Which of the following devices operates at the Physical Layer of the OSI model?
A. Switch
B. Hub
C. Router
D. Gateway
Answer: B. Hub
Explanation:
 A hub operates at the Physical Layer of the OSI model. It simply forwards
electrical signals between devices without any processing of data. It

169
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

transmits data to all connected devices, unlike a switch, which forwards data
only to the intended recipient.
Question 31:
Which of the following is a characteristic of fiber-optic cables?
A. They use electrical signals to transmit data
B. They have a higher data transfer rate and longer range compared to copper
cables
C. They are inexpensive and easy to install
D. They are typically used for short-range, low-speed communication
Answer: B. They have a higher data transfer rate and longer range compared
to copper cables
Explanation:
 Fiber-optic cables transmit data as light signals and offer high bandwidth,
longer transmission distances, and immunity to electromagnetic interference
compared to copper cables (e.g., coaxial or twisted pair).
Let me know if you need additional questions or help with any other topics!
Here are more Data Communication and Networking questions with answers
and explanations for your NGAT exam preparation:
Section 10: Transmission Media
Question 32:
Which of the following is an advantage of using fiber-optic cables over twisted
pair cables in data communication?
A. Fiber-optic cables are more susceptible to interference
B. Fiber-optic cables have a lower bandwidth capacity
C. Fiber-optic cables are more expensive and difficult to install
D. Fiber-optic cables offer higher bandwidth and longer transmission distances
Answer: D. Fiber-optic cables offer higher bandwidth and longer
transmission distances
Explanation:
 Fiber-optic cables use light to transmit data, which allows for much higher
bandwidth and longer transmission distances compared to traditional twisted
pair cables that use electrical signals. Fiber-optic cables are immune to
electromagnetic interference, making them ideal for high-speed data
communication over long distances.
Question 33:
Which transmission medium is most commonly used for Wi-Fi communication?
A. Fiber-optic
B. Coaxial cable

170
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Radio waves
D. Twisted pair cable
Answer: C. Radio waves
Explanation:
 Wi-Fi communication uses radio waves as the transmission medium.
Wireless routers and devices communicate with each other through
electromagnetic waves, which are transmitted over the air.
Question 34:
What is the primary characteristic of coaxial cables?
A. They use light to transmit data
B. They have high bandwidth and long transmission range
C. They consist of a central conductor, insulating layer, metallic shield, and outer
jacket
D. They are used for local area networks only
Answer: C. They consist of a central conductor, insulating layer, metallic
shield, and outer jacket
Explanation:
 Coaxial cables consist of a central conductor (usually copper), an insulating
layer, a metallic shield to reduce interference, and an outer protective jacket.
This construction helps to protect the signal from external noise and reduces
interference.
Section 11: Error Detection and Correction
Question 35:
Which of the following methods is used for detecting errors in data transmission by
adding a check value to the transmitted data?
A. CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check)
B. RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol)
C. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)
D. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)
Answer: A. CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check)
Explanation:
 CRC is an error-detecting code that appends a check value (remainder of a
division) to transmitted data. It is used to detect accidental changes to raw
data in digital networks and storage devices.
Question 36:
Which of the following techniques is used for error correction during data
transmission?
A. Parity bit
B. Cyclic Redundancy Check

171
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Hamming code
D. ARQ (Automatic Repeat Request)
Answer: C. Hamming code
Explanation:
 Hamming code is an error-correcting code used to detect and correct errors
in data transmission. It adds redundancy bits to the data, which can be used
to correct errors at the receiving end.
Question 37:
Which of the following is a forward error correction method that allows the
receiver to detect and correct errors without needing to request retransmission?
A. Stop-and-wait protocol
B. ARQ (Automatic Repeat Request)
C. Hamming code
D. Acknowledgments and negative acknowledgments
Answer: C. Hamming code
Explanation:
 Hamming code is a forward error correction method that adds redundancy
bits to data, allowing the receiver to detect and correct errors on its own
without needing retransmission.
Section 12: Networking Protocols
Question 38:
Which protocol is used to retrieve and display web pages from a server to a client?
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
Answer: C. HTTP
Explanation:
 HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring web pages
from web servers to web browsers. It defines how messages are formatted
and transmitted on the web.
Question 39:
Which protocol is used to securely transfer files over a network?
A. FTP
B. SSH
C. HTTPS
D. SFTP
Answer: D. SFTP
Explanation:

172
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is used for securely transferring files
over a network. It uses SSH (Secure Shell) for encryption, ensuring that data
is transferred securely.
Question 40:
Which of the following is the correct purpose of ICMP in the TCP/IP protocol
suite?
A. To transfer files between computers
B. To route packets between different networks
C. To monitor network errors and send error messages
D. To enable email transfer
Answer: C. To monitor network errors and send error messages
Explanation:
 ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for network diagnostics
and error reporting. It is most commonly associated with the ping command,
which checks connectivity between devices.
Section 13: IP Routing and Subletting
Question 41:
Which of the following is the default subnet mask for a Class A IP address (e.g.,
10.0.0.1)?
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: A. 255.0.0.0
Explanation:
 The default subnet mask for Class A IP addresses (ranging from 1.0.0.0 to
127.255.255.255) is 255.0.0.0. This allows for many devices within the same
network.
Question 42:
What is the process of subletting used for in networking?
A. To create larger networks from smaller ones
B. To divide a network into smaller, more manageable segments
C. To assign IP addresses to all devices
D. To secure the network from unauthorized access
Answer: B. To divide a network into smaller, more manageable segments
Explanation:
 Subletting involves dividing a larger network into smaller sub-networks
(subnets) to improve performance and security. Each subnet has its own

173
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

address range, which helps in organizing and managing networks more

efficiently.
Question 43:
Given the IP address 192.168.1.0/24, how many usable host addresses are
available?
A. 254
B. 128
C. 256
D. 2540
Answer: A. 254
Explanation:
 A /24 subnet mask corresponds to 255.255.255.0, which means the network
portion is 24 bits, leaving 8 bits for hosts. The number of usable host
addresses is 2^8 - 2 = 254, as 2 addresses are reserved for the network
address and the broadcast address.
Section 14: LAN Technologies
Question 44:
Which of the following is a standard for wired Ethernet networks?
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.5
D. IEEE 802.15
Answer: A. IEEE 802.3
Explanation:
 IEEE 802.3 is the standard for Ethernet networks, which is the most
commonly used wired LAN technology. It defines the physical layer and
data link layer protocols for Ethernet.
Question 45:
Which of the following is a wireless LAN technology standard?
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.5
C. IEEE 802.11
D. IEEE 802.16
Answer: C. IEEE 802.11
Explanation:
 IEEE 802.11 is the standard for Wi-Fi (wireless LAN) networks. It defines
protocols for wireless communication in local area networks (LANs).
Let me know if you'd like more questions or need further explanations!

174
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Here are more Data Communication and Networking questions with answers
and explanations to continue your NGAT exam preparation:
Section 15: OSI Model and TCP/IP Model
Question 46:
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing data between different
networks?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: C. Network
Explanation:
 The Network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model is responsible for routing
data between different networks. It handles logical addressing, routing, and
forwarding data across multiple networks.
Question 47:
In the TCP/IP model, which layer is equivalent to the Transport layer in the OSI
model?
A. Application layer
B. Network layer
C. Internet layer
D. Transport layer
Answer: D. Transport layer
Explanation:
 The Transport layer in the TCP/IP model corresponds directly to the
Transport layer in the OSI model. It is responsible for end-to-end
communication, reliability, and flow control (e.g., TCP, UDP).
Question 48:
Which of the following protocols operates at the Application layer of the OSI
model?
A. IP
B. Ethernet
C. HTTP
D. TCP
Answer: C. HTTP
Explanation:
 HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) operates at the Application layer of
the OSI model. It is used for transferring web pages and content over the
internet.

175
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 49:
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for ensuring that data is transmitted
error-free and in the correct sequence?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Transport
D. Network
Answer: C. Transport
Explanation:
 The Transport layer (Layer 4) is responsible for ensuring reliable data
transfer, error correction, and sequencing of data packets. It ensures that data
is received correctly and in the proper order at the destination.
Section 16: Wireless Networking
Question 50:
Which of the following is a wireless communication standard that operates in the
2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands?
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.5
D. IEEE 802.16
Answer: B. IEEE 802.11
Explanation:
 IEEE 802.11 is the standard for Wi-Fi and defines wireless networking
protocols for local area networks (LANs). It operates on the 2.4 GHz and 5
GHz frequency bands, providing wireless connectivity for devices.
Question 51:
Which of the following wireless technologies is used for communication over
short distances (typically up to 100 meters)?
A. Wi-Fi
B. Bluetooth
C. Zigbee
D. Cellular
Answer: B. Bluetooth
Explanation:
 Bluetooth is a short-range wireless communication technology used for
exchanging data over short distances (typically up to 100 meters). It is
commonly used for connecting devices like smartphones, headphones, and
peripherals.
Question 52:

176
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following is a limitation of Wi-Fi networks?

A. High speed
B. Limited range
C. High security
D. Large bandwidth
Answer: B. Limited range
Explanation:
 Wi-Fi networks have a limited range, typically up to a few hundred meters
depending on the technology and environment. This range can be affected
by physical barriers, interference, and the type of router used.
Section 17: IP Addressing
Question 53:
What is the maximum number of hosts that can be assigned within a Class C
network with a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0?
A. 254
B. 256
C. 510
D. 512
Answer: A. 254
Explanation:
 A Class C network with a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask has 256 total IP
addresses (from 0 to 255), but the first address is reserved as the network
address, and the last address is reserved as the broadcast address. Therefore,
254 IP addresses are available for hosts.
Question 54:
Which of the following IP address ranges belongs to Private IP Addresses?
A. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
B. 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
C. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 Private IP addresses fall within the following ranges:
o 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
o 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
o 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
These IP addresses are used for private networks and are not routable
on the internet.
Question 55:

177
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address format?

A. 192.168.0.1
B. 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
C. 172.16.254.1
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: B. 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
Explanation:
 An IPv6 address consists of 8 groups of 4 hexadecimal digits, separated by
colons. Example: 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.
IPv6 addresses are much longer than IPv4 addresses and are used to
overcome the limitation of the IPv4 address space.
Question 56:
What is the purpose of the IP subnet mask?
A. To divide a network into smaller subnets
B. To assign IP addresses to hosts
C. To encrypt data packets
D. To control the flow of traffic between networks
Answer: A. To divide a network into smaller subnets
Explanation:
 The IP subnet mask is used to divide an IP network into smaller sub-
networks (subnets). It helps determine which portion of an IP address refers
to the network and which portion refers to the host.
Section 18: Routing and Switching
Question 57:
Which type of router is used to connect different networks with different
technologies or protocols?
A. Core router
B. Edge router
C. Border router
D. Layer 3 switch
Answer: C. Border router
Explanation:
 A border router connects different networks, often using different
technologies or protocols. It is used at the network boundary to connect a
local network to external networks such as the internet.
Question 58:
Which device operates at the Data Link Layer and makes decisions based on
MAC addresses?

178
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Router
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Gateway
Answer: C. Switch
Explanation:
 A switch operates at the Data Link Layer and makes forwarding decisions
based on MAC addresses. It intelligently forwards data only to the device
that needs it, unlike a hub, which broadcasts data to all devices on the
network.
Question 59:
What does a router do in a network?
A. It filters network traffic
B. It connects multiple networks and forwards data based on IP addresses
C. It switches packets based on MAC addresses
D. It amplifies signals to extend network range
Answer: B. It connects multiple networks and forwards data based on IP
addresses
Explanation:
 A router connects different networks and forwards data between them. It
uses IP addresses to make decisions on how to route data packets across
networks.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or further clarification!
Here are more Data Communication and Networking questions with answers
and explanations to continue your NGAT exam preparation:
Section 19: Network Security
Question 60:
Which of the following is the primary purpose of a firewall in a network?
A. To increase network speed
B. To block malicious or unauthorized traffic
C. To allocate IP addresses dynamically
D. To provide wireless access to users
Answer: B. To block malicious or unauthorized traffic
Explanation:
 A firewall is a network security device designed to monitor and control
incoming and outgoing network traffic. It blocks potentially harmful traffic
based on a set of security rules, preventing unauthorized access to or from
private networks.
Question 61:

179
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following is an encryption standard commonly used to secure

internet communications?
A. DES (Data Encryption Standard)
B. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
C. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 DES, SSL, and AES are all encryption standards used to secure data. AES is
currently the most widely used encryption standard, while SSL (and its
successor TLS) are used to secure communications over the internet, such as
in HTTPS connections.
Question 62:
Which of the following protocols is used for secure communication over a
computer network?
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
Answer: B. HTTPS
Explanation:
 HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is the secure version of
HTTP. It uses encryption protocols like SSL/TLS to encrypt data between a
web browser and a web server, ensuring secure communication.
Question 63:
What is the purpose of a VPN (Virtual Private Network)?
A. To extend the physical network across multiple locations
B. To enable encrypted communication over an unsecured network
C. To prevent unauthorized access to the local network
D. To speed up data transmission across the network
Answer: B. To enable encrypted communication over an unsecured network
Explanation:
 A VPN allows users to securely connect to a network over the internet by
encrypting data traffic. It is commonly used to protect sensitive data and
provide remote access to private networks.
Section 20: Data Transmission Techniques
Question 64:
Which of the following is a serial data transmission method?

180
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Sending data one bit at a time over a single channel

B. Sending data in parallel over multiple channels
C. Sending data in frames with error-checking
D. Sending data over radio waves
Answer: A. Sending data one bit at a time over a single channel
Explanation:
 Serial transmission involves sending data one bit at a time over a single
communication channel, as opposed to parallel transmission, where
multiple bits are sent simultaneously over multiple channels.
Question 65:
What is multiplexing in data communication?
A. Combining multiple signals into one to improve bandwidth usage
B. Dividing a large file into smaller packets for transmission
C. Encrypting data before transmission
D. Reducing the error rate in data transmission
Answer: A. Combining multiple signals into one to improve bandwidth usage
Explanation:
 Multiplexing is a technique used in data communication to combine
multiple signals into one channel, allowing multiple data streams to share
the same transmission medium, thus improving bandwidth efficiency.
Question 66:
Which of the following is an example of asynchronous transmission?
A. Ethernet
B. Serial Port Communication
C. Sending data over a shared cable
D. USB transmission
Answer: B. Serial Port Communication
Explanation:
 Asynchronous transmission sends data one byte at a time, with start and
stop bits marking the beginning and end of each byte. It is commonly used in
serial port communication, where data is sent without a clock signal.
Question 67:
In which type of modulation is the amplitude of the carrier signal varied?
A. Frequency Modulation (FM)
B. Amplitude Modulation (AM)
C. Phase Modulation (PM)
D. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)
Answer: B. Amplitude Modulation (AM)
Explanation:

181
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Amplitude Modulation (AM) involves varying the amplitude (strength) of

the carrier signal in proportion to the data being transmitted. It is commonly
used in radio broadcasting.
Section 21: Switching Techniques
Question 68:
Which of the following switching techniques is used in packet-switched
networks?
A. Circuit switching
B. Message switching
C. Packet switching
D. Hybrid switching
Answer: C. Packet switching
Explanation:
 Packet switching is the technique used in packet-switched networks (such
as the internet), where data is divided into packets, and each packet is sent
independently across the network. This method allows efficient use of
network resources.
Question 69:
In which of the following switching methods is a dedicated path established for the
duration of the transmission?
A. Circuit switching
B. Packet switching
C. Message switching
D. Hybrid switching
Answer: A. Circuit switching
Explanation:
 In circuit switching, a dedicated communication path is established between
the sender and receiver for the entire duration of the communication. This
method is commonly used in traditional telephone systems.
Question 70:
Which type of network topology is characterized by a central device that connects
all the other devices in the network?
A. Bus topology
B. Star topology
C. Ring topology
D. Mesh topology
Answer: B. Star topology
Explanation:

182
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 In a star topology, all devices in the network are connected to a central

device (such as a hub or switch). The central device acts as the focal point
for communication, and if one device fails, the rest of the network remains
operational.
Section 22: Network Addressing
Question 71:
Which of the following IP addresses is a Class B address?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 10.0.0.1
C. 172.16.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1
Answer: C. 172.16.0.1
Explanation:
 The Class B address range is from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255, so
172.16.0.1 is within this range. Class B addresses are used for medium-sized
networks.
Question 72:
What is the maximum number of subnets that can be created from a Class C IP
address using a /30 subnet mask?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B. 4
Explanation:
 A /30 subnet mask provides 4 IP addresses in each subnet, including 2
usable host addresses, 1 network address, and 1 broadcast address.
Therefore, it allows the creation of 4 subnets.
Question 73:
Which of the following subnet masks corresponds to a /24 network?
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: B. 255.255.255.0
Explanation:
 A /24 subnet mask corresponds to 255.255.255.0, which provides 256 IP
addresses (254 usable addresses) in the network.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or further explanations!

183
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C++ programming and Algorithms NGAT Exam with answers

Here are some C++ Programming and Algorithms NGAT exam questions with
answers and explanations to help with your preparation:
Section 1: C++ Basics
Question 1:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for declaring a pointer in C++?
A. int ptr;
B. int* ptr;
C. pointer int ptr;
D. ptr int*;
Answer: B. int* ptr;
Explanation:
 In C++, a pointer is declared using the * symbol. int* ptr; declares a pointer
ptr to an integer.

Question 2:
What is the output of the following C++ code?
int main() {
int x = 10;
int y = 5;
cout << x / y;
return 0;
}
A. 10
B. 2
C. 5
D. Compilation error
Answer: B. 2
Explanation:
 The code divides x by y (10 divided by 5), so the output will be 2.
Question 3:
Which of the following is the correct way to define a constant variable in C++?
A. constant int x = 10;
B. const int x = 10;
C. int const x = 10;
D. Both B and C
Answer: D. Both B and C
Explanation:

184
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Both const int x = 10; and int const x = 10; are correct ways to define a
constant in C++. The const keyword can be placed before or after the data
type.
Section 2: Functions
Question 4:
What is the output of the following C++ code?
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
void display(int a, int b = 10) {
cout << a + b;
}
int main() {
display(5);
return 0;
}
A. 10
B. 5
C. 15
D. Compilation error
Answer: C. 15
Explanation:
 The display function has a default value for b, which is 10. Since display(5)
is called, it uses the default value for b and outputs 5 + 10 = 15.
Question 5:
What does the following C++ code do?
int square(int n) {
return n * n;
}
A. It calculates the square root of n
B. It squares the number n
C. It returns the cube of n
D. It multiplies n by 2
Answer: B. It squares the number n
Explanation:
 The function square(int n) takes an integer n and returns the result of n * n,
which is the square of n.
Section 3: Object-Oriented Programming
Question 6:
What is the output of the following C++ program?

185
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class Circle {
public:
int radius;
Circle(int r) {
radius = r;
}
void area() {
cout << 3.14 * radius * radius;
}
};
int main() {
Circle c(5);
c.area();
return 0;
}
A. 78.5
B. 3.14
C. 25
D. Compilation error
Answer: A. 78.5
Explanation:
 The class Circle has a constructor that initializes the radius. The area()
function calculates and outputs the area of the circle using the formula π *
radius^2. For radius = 5, the result is 3.14 * 5 * 5 = 78.5.
Question 7:
What is the purpose of the this pointer in C++?
A. To point to the current object
B. To point to the base class
C. To point to the constructor
D. To point to the static members of the class
Answer: A. To point to the current object
Explanation:
 The this pointer is an implicit pointer in C++ that points to the current object
of the class.
Section 4: Data Structures and Algorithms
Question 8:
What is the time complexity of binary search in a sorted array of size n?

186
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n log n)
D. O(1)
Answer: B. O(log n)
Explanation:
 Binary search works by repeatedly dividing the search interval in half,
making it a logarithmic algorithm with a time complexity of O(log n).
Question 9:
What is the worst-case time complexity of the Bubble Sort algorithm?
A. O(n)
B. O(n log n)
C. O(n^2)
D. O(log n)
Answer: C. O(n^2)
Explanation:
 The worst-case time complexity of Bubble Sort occurs when the array is
sorted in reverse order. The algorithm has to compare each element with all
the others, resulting in a time complexity of O(n^2).
Question 10:
Which data structure is commonly used in implementing Depth First Search
(DFS)?
A. Queue
B. Stack
C. Priority Queue
D. Linked List
Answer: B. Stack
Explanation:
 Depth First Search (DFS) uses a stack to explore the nodes of a graph or
tree. The stack helps keep track of the nodes to be explored.
Question 11:
Which of the following is the correct implementation of recursive factorial
function in C++?
A.
int factorial(int n) {
if (n == 0) return 1;
else return n * factorial(n-1);
}
B.

187
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

int factorial(int n) {
return n * factorial(n-1);
}
C.
int factorial(int n) {
if (n == 0) return 1;
return n * factorial(n+1);
}
D.
int factorial(int n) {
if (n == 0) return 1;
return n + factorial(n-1);
}
Answer: A.
Explanation:
 The correct implementation of a recursive factorial function is in option A.
The base case is when n == 0, which returns 1. Otherwise, the function calls
itself with n-1.
Section 5: C++ Advanced Topics
Question 12:
What is the purpose of the virtual function in C++?
A. To enable static polymorphism
B. To enable dynamic polymorphism
C. To allow function overloading
D. To ensure a function is always overridden in derived classes
Answer: B. To enable dynamic polymorphism
Explanation:
 Virtual functions enable dynamic polymorphism, allowing a function in a
base class to be overridden in a derived class. The decision of which
function to call is made at runtime (dynamic binding).
Question 13:
Which of the following is true about friend functions in C++?
A. Friend functions have access to private and protected members of the class
B. Friend functions are a type of member function
C. Friend functions can be called using an object of the class
D. Friend functions can be inherited by derived classes
Answer: A. Friend functions have access to private and protected members of
the class
Explanation:

188
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Friend functions in C++ are not member functions but have access to
private and protected members of the class they are friends with.
Let me know if you would like more questions or further clarification!
Here are more C++ Programming and Algorithms NGAT exam questions with
answers and explanations to help with your preparation:
Section 6: Arrays and Strings
Question 14:
What is the output of the following C++ code?
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int arr[5] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
cout << arr[3];
return 0;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. Compilation error
Answer: C. 4
Explanation:
 Arrays in C++ are zero-indexed, so arr[3] accesses the fourth element of the
array, which is 4.
Question 15:
What is the time complexity of accessing an element in an array?
A. O(1)
B. O(n)
C. O(n^2)
D. O(log n)
Answer: A. O(1)
Explanation:
 Accessing an element in an array is a constant time operation, meaning it
takes the same amount of time regardless of the size of the array. Therefore,
its time complexity is O(1).
Question 16:
What is the output of the following C++ code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {

189
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

string str = "Hello, World!";

cout << str[7];
return 0;
}
A. H
B. W
C. o
D. ,
Answer: B. W
Explanation:
 The string "Hello, World!" is indexed starting from 0. The character at index
7 is 'W'.
Question 17:
Which of the following is the correct way to declare a dynamic array in C++?
A. int arr[] = new int[10];
B. int* arr = new int[10];
C. int arr(10);
D. int arr[10] = new int[];
Answer: B. int* arr = new int[10];
Explanation:
 To declare a dynamic array in C++, we use the new keyword. The syntax is
int* arr = new int[10]; where arr is a pointer to the dynamically allocated
array of size 10.
Question 18:
Which of the following C++ functions is used to find the length of a string?
A. length()
B. size()
C. strlen()
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 The C++ string class provides both length() and size() methods to find the
length of the string. strlen() is a C-style function that works with null-
terminated character arrays (C strings).
Section 7: Pointers and Memory Management
Question 19:
What is the output of the following C++ code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;

190
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

int main() {
int a = 10;
int* ptr = &a;
*ptr = 20;
cout << a;
return 0;
}
A. 10
B. 20
C. Compilation error
D. Undefined behavior
Answer: B. 20
Explanation:
 The pointer ptr holds the address of a, and *ptr = 20; changes the value at
that address. So, a becomes 20, and the output is 20.
Question 20:
What is the purpose of the delete operator in C++?
A. To allocate memory dynamically
B. To free memory allocated dynamically
C. To initialize a variable
D. To allocate stack memory
Answer: B. To free memory allocated dynamically
Explanation:
 The delete operator is used to deallocate memory that was previously
allocated with the new operator. This prevents memory leaks in C++
programs.
Question 21:
Which of the following is true about pointers in C++?
A. Pointers can only point to integers
B. A pointer is a variable that stores the memory address of another variable
C. Pointers must always be initialized before use
D. Pointers cannot be used with arrays
Answer: B. A pointer is a variable that stores the memory address of another
variable
Explanation:
 A pointer is a variable that holds the memory address of another variable.
It can point to any data type, not just integers, and is commonly used with
arrays in C++.
Section 8: Algorithms

191
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 22:
What is the time complexity of selection sort?
A. O(n log n)
B. O(n^2)
C. O(n)
D. O(log n)
Answer: B. O(n^2)
Explanation:
 Selection sort works by finding the minimum element from the unsorted
part of the array and swapping it with the first unsorted element. It requires
two nested loops, resulting in a time complexity of O(n^2).
Question 23:
Which of the following is the correct recursive implementation of the factorial
function?
A.
int factorial(int n) {
if (n == 0) return 1;
return factorial(n-1) * n;
}
B.
int factorial(int n) {
return n * factorial(n+1);
}
C.
int factorial(int n) {
if (n == 0) return 1;
return n + factorial(n-1);
}
D.
int factorial(int n) {
return n * factorial(n-2);
}
Answer: A.
Explanation:
 The correct recursive factorial function is implemented in option A. The
base case is n == 0, and the function calls itself with n-1, multiplying the
result by n.
Question 24:
What is the best-case time complexity of Quick Sort?

192
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. O(n log n)
B. O(n)
C. O(n^2)
D. O(1)
Answer: A. O(n log n)
Explanation:
 The best-case time complexity of Quick Sort occurs when the pivot element
divides the array into two equal halves, resulting in a time complexity of
O(n log n).
Question 25:
Which of the following algorithms is based on divide and conquer strategy?
A. Merge Sort
B. Quick Sort
C. Binary Search
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 Merge Sort, Quick Sort, and Binary Search are all examples of algorithms
that use the divide and conquer strategy. They break down the problem into
smaller sub problems, solve each recursively, and combine the results.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or further clarification!
Here are some more C++ Programming and Algorithms NGAT exam questions
with answers and explanations:
Section 9: Advanced C++ Concepts
Question 26:
What is the result of the following C++ code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class Base {
public:
virtual void display() {
cout << "Base class display function" << endl;
}
};
class Derived : public Base {
public:
void display() override {
cout << "Derived class display function" << endl;
}

193
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

};
int main() {
Base* ptr;
Derived obj;
ptr = &obj;
ptr->display();
return 0;
}
A. Base class display function
B. Derived class display function
C. Compilation error
D. Undefined behavior
Answer: B. Derived class display function
Explanation:
 Since display () is a virtual function in the Base class, and it is overridden
in the Derived class, dynamic dispatch occurs. The ptr is a pointer to the
base class, but it points to a Derived class object. So, the Derived class
display function is called.

Question 27:
What is the output of the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int x = 5;
int* ptr = &x;
*ptr = 10;
cout << x;
return 0;
}
A. 5
B. 10
C. Undefined behavior
D. Compilation error
Answer: B. 10
Explanation:
 The pointer ptr points to the variable x. By dereferencing ptr with *ptr = 10;,
the value of x is changed to 10. Therefore, the output is 10.
Question 28:

194
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

What is the purpose of the new[] and delete[] operators in C++?

A. new[] is used for memory allocation, and delete[] is used to deallocate arrays
B. new[] is used to allocate memory for a single object, and delete[] is used for
deallocating it
C. new[] and delete[] are used for stack memory
D. new[] is used to allocate memory for multiple objects, and delete[] is used to
free them
Answer: A. new[] is used for memory allocation, and delete[] is used to
deallocate arrays
Explanation:
 new[] is used to allocate memory for arrays dynamically, while delete[] is
used to deallocate the memory allocated for arrays. It's crucial to use delete[]
instead of delete when deallocating arrays to avoid undefined behavior.
Question 29:
Which of the following statements about constructors in C++ is true?
A. A constructor can have a return type
B. A constructor can be called explicitly
C. A constructor cannot be inherited
D. A constructor can be declared private to prevent object creation
Answer: D. A constructor can be declared private to prevent object creation
Explanation:
 A constructor in C++ can be made private to prevent the direct creation of
objects of a class. This is useful in situations like implementing singleton
design patterns.
Section 10: Algorithms and Complexity
Question 30:
What is the time complexity of the binary search algorithm in a sorted array?
A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n log n)
D. O(1)
Answer: B. O(log n)
Explanation:
 Binary search divides the search interval in half with each iteration, making
it a logarithmic search algorithm. Thus, its time complexity is O(log n).
Question 31:
What is the time complexity of insertion sort in the worst case?
A. O(n)
B. O(n log n)

195
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. O(n^2)
D. O(log n)
Answer: C. O(n^2)
Explanation:
 In insertion sort, the worst-case scenario occurs when the array is in reverse
order. In this case, the algorithm must shift all elements for each insertion,
resulting in a time complexity of O(n^2).
Question 32:
Which of the following algorithms uses the divide and conquer strategy?
A. Merge Sort
B. Quick Sort
C. Binary Search
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 Merge Sort, Quick Sort, and Binary Search all use the divide and
conquer strategy. They break a problem into subproblems, solve each
subproblem recursively, and combine the solutions.

Question 33:
What is the time complexity of Merge Sort?
A. O(n)
B. O(n log n)
C. O(n^2)
D. O(log n)
Answer: B. O(n log n)
Explanation:
 Merge Sort divides the array into two halves, recursively sorts them, and
then merges them. Both the division and merging processes take O(n log n)
time.
Question 34:
Which of the following is the correct time complexity for bubble sort in the best
case?
A. O(n)
B. O(n log n)
C. O(n^2)
D. O(log n)
Answer: A. O(n)
Explanation:

196
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 In the best case, the array is already sorted. The algorithm can make a single
pass and determine that no swaps are needed, resulting in a time complexity
of O(n).
Section 11: Memory Management and C++ Features
Question 35:
What is the size of a pointer in C++ on a 64-bit system?
A. 2 bytes
B. 4 bytes
C. 8 bytes
D. It depends on the data type being pointed to
Answer: C. 8 bytes
Explanation:
 On a 64-bit system, the size of a pointer is 8 bytes, as it stores the memory
address, which is typically 64 bits (8 bytes) long.
Question 36:
What will the following C++ code output?
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int a = 10;
int* ptr = &a;
cout << *ptr << endl;
return 0;
}
A. 10
B. Memory address of a
C. Compilation error
D. Undefined behavior
Answer: A. 10
Explanation:
 The pointer ptr holds the address of a. The dereferencing operator *ptr
retrieves the value stored at that address, which is 10.
Question 37:
Which of the following is a feature of C++?
A. C++ does not support object-oriented programming
B. C++ supports function overloading
C. C++ does not allow operator overloading
D. C++ does not support inheritance
Answer: B. C++ supports function overloading

197
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 C++ supports several features like function overloading, operator
overloading, and inheritance. Function overloading allows you to define
multiple functions with the same name but different parameter lists.
Question 38:
What is the output of the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class A {
public:
A() {
cout << "Constructor A\n";
}
};
class B : public A {
public:
B() {
cout << "Constructor B\n";
}
};
int main() {
B obj;
return 0;
}
A. Constructor B
B. Constructor A
C. Constructor A \n Constructor B
D. Compilation error
Answer: C. Constructor A \n Constructor B
Explanation:
 When an object of class B is created, the constructor of the base class A is
called first, followed by the constructor of class B. Hence, the output is
Constructor A followed by Constructor B.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or further clarification!
Here are more C++ Programming and Algorithms NGAT exam questions with
answers and explanations to continue your preparation:
Section 12: Object-Oriented Programming (OOP) Concepts
Question 39:
What is the main purpose of encapsulation in C++?

198
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. To hide the internal implementation details and only expose the necessary
functionality
B. To allow objects to be easily created
C. To inherit properties from a base class
D. To avoid the use of pointers in C++
Answer: A. To hide the internal implementation details and only expose the
necessary functionality
Explanation:
 Encapsulation is one of the core concepts of Object-Oriented
Programming (OOP). It involves hiding the internal workings of a class
(data and implementation) and only exposing the necessary interfaces
(methods) to interact with the object.
Question 40:
Which of the following is true about constructors in C++?
A. Constructors must have a return type
B. Constructors are used to initialize object properties when they are created
C. A class can only have one constructor
D. Constructors can be private but never protected
Answer: B. Constructors are used to initialize object properties when they are
created
Explanation:
 A constructor is a special member function that is automatically called
when an object is created. It is used to initialize the properties of the object.
A class can have multiple constructors (constructor overloading).
Question 41:
What will be the output of the following C++ code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class A {
public:
A() {
cout << "Class A Constructor\n";
}
virtual ~A() {
cout << "Class A Destructor\n";
}
};
class B : public A {
public:

199
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

B() {
cout << "Class B Constructor\n";
}
~B() override {
cout << "Class B Destructor\n";
}
};
int main() {
A* ptr = new B();
delete ptr;
return 0;
}
A. Class A Constructor \n Class B Constructor \n Class B Destructor \n Class A
Destructor
B. Class B Constructor \n Class A Constructor \n Class A Destructor \n Class B
Destructor
C. Compilation error
D. Undefined behavior
Answer: A. Class A Constructor \n Class B Constructor \n Class B Destructor
\n Class A Destructor
Explanation:
 When an object of class B is created, the constructor of class A (the base
class) is called first, followed by the constructor of class B. Similarly, when
the object is deleted, the destructor of B is called first (since it's a derived
class), followed by the destructor of A. Virtual destructors ensure that the
derived class destructor is called before the base class destructor.
Question 42:
What will happen if a class does not have a destructor in C++?
A. The program will not compile
B. The memory occupied by objects will not be freed, leading to memory leaks
C. The constructor will be automatically called when the object is destroyed
D. The object will be deleted without any problems
Answer: B. The memory occupied by objects will not be freed, leading to
memory leaks
Explanation:
 If a class does not have a destructor, the memory allocated dynamically
inside that class will not be properly released, leading to memory leaks. It's
important to provide a destructor if your class uses dynamic memory
allocation.

200
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 43:
Which of the following C++ features allows a class to take on multiple forms?
A. Inheritance
B. Polymorphism
C. Encapsulation
D. Abstraction
Answer: B. Polymorphism
Explanation:
 Polymorphism allows objects of different classes to be treated as objects of
a common base class. It allows for different implementations of the same
interface (e.g., method overriding) and enables dynamic method dispatch.
Section 13: STL (Standard Template Library)
Question 44:
Which of the following C++ containers is most suitable for fast random access?
A. vector
B. list
C. deque
D. set
Answer: A. vector
Explanation:
 The vector container provides fast random access with constant time
complexity O(1) for accessing elements using the index. It is implemented
as a dynamic array, making it efficient for random access.
Question 45:
Which of the following methods is used to add an element at the end of a vector in
C++?
A. push_back()
B. insert()
C. emplace()
D. add()
Answer: A. push_back()
Explanation:
 The push_back() method is used to add an element at the end of a vector in
C++. The insert() method can add an element at a specific position, and
emplace() allows for constructing the element directly at the end.
Question 46:
What is the time complexity of searching an element in a set in C++?
A. O(1)
B. O(log n)

201
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. O(n)
D. O(n log n)
Answer: B. O(log n)
Explanation:
 A set in C++ is typically implemented as a self-balancing binary search
tree (e.g., Red-Black tree). The time complexity of searching for an element
in a set is O(log n), where n is the number of elements in the set.
Question 47:
What is the purpose of the map container in C++?
A. To store elements as key-value pairs
B. To store elements in a sorted order
C. To implement a hash table
D. To store only unique elements
Answer: A. To store elements as key-value pairs
Explanation:
 The map container stores elements as key-value pairs, where each key is
unique. It automatically keeps the keys sorted in ascending order, and you
can access the value associated with a key efficiently.
Section 14: File Handling in C++
Question 48:
What will the following C++ code do?
#include <iostream>
#include <fstream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
ofstream outFile("example.txt");
outFile << "Hello, File!";
outFile.close();
return 0;
}
A. Write "Hello, File!" to the console
B. Create a new file example.txt and write "Hello, File!" in it
C. Write "Hello, File!" to the standard output
D. Compile-time error
Answer: B. Create a new file example.txt and write "Hello, File!" in it
Explanation:
 The code uses an of stream (output file stream) to create a new file
example.txt and write the string "Hello, File!" into the file. The file is then
closed using close ().

202
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 49:
Which of the following C++ classes is used for file input and output operations?
A. ifstream
B. ofstream
C. fstream
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 C++ provides ifstream (input file stream) for reading from files, ofstream
(output file stream) for writing to files, and fstream for both input and
output operations on files.
Question 50:
What is the difference between cin and getline() in C++?
A. cin reads an entire line, while getline() reads a single character
B. cin stops at whitespace characters, while getline() reads an entire line
C. cin is used for file input, while getline() is used for console input
D. cin is faster than getline()
Answer: B. cin stops at whitespace characters, while getline() reads an entire
line
Explanation:
 cin reads input up to the first whitespace character (space, tab, newline). On
the other hand, getline() reads the entire line, including spaces, until it
encounters a newline character.
Let me know if you need further clarification or more questions!
Here are additional C++ Programming and Algorithms NGAT exam questions
with answers and explanations:
Section 15: Pointers and Dynamic Memory Management
Question 51:
What is the output of the following C++ code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int* ptr1 = new int(10);
int* ptr2 = ptr1;
*ptr2 = 20;
cout << *ptr1;
delete ptr1;
return 0;
}

203
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. 10
B. 20
C. Undefined behavior
D. Compilation error
Answer: B. 20
Explanation:
 A pointer ptr1 is allocated dynamic memory and initialized with the value
10. Then, ptr2 is set to point to the same location as ptr1. Modifying the
value through ptr2 also affects ptr1 since they point to the same memory
location. The value of *ptr1 is now 20. Therefore, the output is 20.
Question 52:
What does the delete operator do in C++?
A. It deallocates memory for objects created with new
B. It deletes an array
C. It deallocates memory for objects created with malloc
D. It allocates memory for objects created with new
Answer: A. It deallocates memory for objects created with new
Explanation:
 The delete operator is used to deallocate memory that was previously
allocated using new. To deallocate memory for arrays created with new [],
the delete [] operator should be used.
Question 53:
Which of the following correctly deallocates memory allocated with new[]?
A. delete ptr
B. delete[] ptr
C. ptr.delete[]
D. delete ptr[]
Answer: B. delete[] ptr
Explanation:
 When memory is allocated using new[] for an array, the memory must be
deallocated using delete[]. Using delete without the square brackets is
incorrect and will cause undefined behavior.
Question 54:
What is the correct way to declare a pointer to an array of 10 integers in C++?
A. int* ptr[10];
B. int (*ptr)[10];
C. int ptr[10];
D. int* ptr = new int[10];
Answer: B. int (*ptr)[10];

204
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 The correct way to declare a pointer to an array of 10 integers is int
(*ptr)[10];. This means that ptr is a pointer to an array of 10 integers.
 int* ptr[10]; declares an array of 10 pointers to integers.
 int ptr[10]; declares an array of 10 integers, not a pointer to an array.
Question 55:
What will the following C++ code output?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int* ptr = new int(5);
cout << *ptr << endl;
delete ptr;
return 0;
}
A. 0
B. 5
C. Undefined behavior
D. Memory leak
Answer: B. 5
Explanation:
 The code dynamically allocates memory for an integer, initializes it with the
value 5, and outputs the value. The value of the integer pointed to by ptr is 5,
which is printed. The memory is then deallocated using delete, so there is no
memory leak.
Section 16: Function Overloading and Templates
Question 56:
Which of the following is a valid example of function overloading in C++?
A.
int add(int a, int b) { return a + b; }
float add(float a, float b) { return a + b; }
B.
int add(int a, int b) { return a + b; }
void add(int a, int b) { return a + b; }
C.
int add(int a, int b) { return a + b; }
int add(int a, float b) { return a + b; }
D.
int add(int a, int b) { return a + b; }

205
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

int add(float a, float b) { return a + b; }

Answer: A.
int add(int a, int b) { return a + b; }
float add(float a, float b) { return a + b; }
Explanation:
 Function overloading occurs when multiple functions with the same name
but different parameter types or numbers are defined. The function is
selected based on the types of arguments passed during the call.
 Option A correctly defines two overloaded versions of the add function, one
for integers and one for floating-point numbers.
Question 57:
What is the purpose of templates in C++?
A. To create functions or classes that can operate with any data type
B. To specify the size of arrays at compile time
C. To declare function prototypes
D. To handle exceptions in C++
Answer: A. To create functions or classes that can operate with any data type
Explanation:
 Templates in C++ allow you to write generic functions or classes that work
with any data type. This avoids the need for code duplication and makes the
code more flexible.
Question 58:
Which of the following statements is not valid regarding function templates in
C++?
A. A template function can have multiple return types based on template
specialization
B. Templates allow type-safe generic programming
C. Function templates cannot be overloaded
D. A function template is a blueprint for creating functions
Answer: C. Function templates cannot be overloaded
Explanation:
 Function templates can indeed be overloaded, just like regular functions.
You can have different template functions based on the number or type of
arguments passed, similar to how regular functions are overloaded.
Question 59:
What will be the output of the following template function in C++?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
template <typename T>

206
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

T add(T a, T b) {
return a + b;
}
int main() {
cout << add(5, 3) << endl;
cout << add(3.5, 4.5) << endl;
return 0;
}
A. 8 \n 8
B. 8 \n 8.0
C. 8 \n 7
D. Compilation error
Answer: B. 8 \n 8.0
Explanation:
 The template function add works for any data type (T), so it works with both
integers and floating-point numbers. For integers, it outputs 8, and for
floating-point numbers, it outputs 8.0.
Question 60:
Which of the following is an example of a template specialization in C++?
A.
template <typename T>
T add(T a, T b) {
return a + b;
}
B.
template <>
int add<int>(int a, int b) {
return a + b;
}
C.
template <typename T>
T add(int a, int b) {
return a + b;
}
D.
template <typename T>
T add(T a, T b) {
return a + b;
}

207
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

template <>
double add<double>(double a, double b) {
return a + b;
}
Answer: B.
template <>
int add<int>(int a, int b) {
return a + b;
}
Explanation:
 Template specialization allows you to define a specific version of a
template for a particular data type. Option B is an example of specializing
the add function template for the int data type.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or further clarification on any topics!
Here are more C++ Programming and Algorithms NGAT exam questions with
answers and explanations:
Section 17: Arrays and Strings
Question 61:
What will the following C++ code output?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int arr[] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
cout << arr[2] << endl;
return 0;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C. 3
Explanation:
 Arrays in C++ are 0-indexed. So, arr[2] refers to the third element in the
array, which is 3.
Question 62:
What is the correct way to declare an array of 10 integers in C++?
A. int arr[10];
B. int[10] arr;

208
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. int arr();
D. int arr;
Answer: A. int arr[10];
Explanation:
 The correct syntax for declaring an array of 10 integers in C++ is int
arr[10];. This creates an array with 10 elements, each of type int.
Question 63:
What is the output of the following C++ code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
char str[] = "Hello, World!";
cout << str[7] << endl;
return 0;
}
A. H
B. e
C. l
D. W
Answer: D. W
Explanation:
 The string "Hello, World!" is an array of characters, where each character is
stored in consecutive memory locations. str[7] corresponds to the 8th
character, which is 'W'.
Question 64:
What will be the output of the following C++ code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int arr[5] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
int* ptr = arr;
cout << *(ptr + 2) << endl;
return 0;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C. 3

209
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 The pointer ptr points to the first element of the array. The expression *(ptr
+ 2) dereferences the third element of the array, which is 3.
Question 65:
What is the correct way to pass a 2D array to a function in C++?
A. void func(int arr[3][3])
B. void func(int arr[][3])
C. void func(int arr[3][3], int rows, int cols)
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 All of the options correctly declare ways to pass a 2D array to a function in
C++. You can specify the number of columns (but not rows) in the function
parameters or pass the array with its dimensions.
Section 18: Recursion
Question 66:
What will be the output of the following recursive C++ function?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
void print(int n) {
if (n == 0) return;
cout << n << " ";
print(n - 1);
}
int main() {
print(5);
return 0;
}
A. 5 4 3 2 1
B. 1 2 3 4 5
C. 5 4 3 2 1 0
D. Compilation error
Answer: A. 5 4 3 2 1
Explanation:
 The function print is a recursive function that prints the value of n and then
calls itself with n - 1. It prints the values from 5 down to 1 before the base
case is reached (n == 0).
Question 67:
What is the time complexity of the following recursive function in C++?

210
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

int recursive(int n) {
if (n <= 1) return 1;
return recursive(n - 1) + recursive(n - 2);
}
A. O(n)
B. O(n^2)
C. O(2^n)
D. O(log n)
Answer: C. O(2^n)
Explanation:
 This recursive function is a naive implementation of the Fibonacci sequence.
It has exponential time complexity O(2^n) because it makes two recursive
calls for each value of n.
Question 68:
What is the output of the following C++ code involving recursion?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int factorial(int n) {
if (n == 0) return 1;
return n * factorial(n - 1);
}
int main() {
cout << factorial(5) << endl;
return 0;
}
A. 15
B. 120
C. 5
D. 25
Answer: B. 120
Explanation:
 The function factorial computes the factorial of 5. It recursively multiplies 5
* 4 * 3 * 2 * 1, resulting in 120.
Question 69:
What will happen if a base case is not provided in a recursive function in C++?
A. The function will run indefinitely and cause a stack overflow
B. The function will terminate immediately
C. The function will always return a default value
D. The function will run and produce garbage values

211
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: A. The function will run indefinitely and cause a stack overflow
Explanation:
 If a base case is not provided in a recursive function, the function will keep
calling itself indefinitely, resulting in a stack overflow error due to too
many function calls being pushed onto the stack.
Section 19: Sorting and Searching Algorithms
Question 70:
Which of the following is the time complexity of Bubble Sort in the worst case?
A. O(n log n)
B. O(n^2)
C. O(n)
D. O(log n)
Answer: B. O(n^2)
Explanation:
 Bubble Sort is a simple sorting algorithm with a time complexity of O(n^2)
in the worst case because it involves comparing adjacent elements and
swapping them, which results in quadratic behavior when the input is sorted
in reverse order.
Question 71:
Which of the following algorithms is the most efficient for large datasets?
A. Bubble Sort
B. Quick Sort
C. Selection Sort
D. Insertion Sort
Answer: B. Quick Sort
Explanation:
 Quick Sort is a highly efficient sorting algorithm with an average time
complexity of O(n log n), making it suitable for large datasets. Other
algorithms like Bubble Sort, Selection Sort, and Insertion Sort have time
complexities of O(n^2) in the worst case, making them less efficient for
large datasets.
Question 72:
What is the time complexity of Binary Search on a sorted array?
A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n log n)
D. O(1)
Answer: B. O(log n)
Explanation:

212
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Binary Search works by repeatedly dividing the search space in half,

leading to a logarithmic time complexity of O(log n). This makes it much
more efficient than linear search (O(n)) for large datasets.
Question 73:
Which of the following algorithms is not a comparison-based sorting algorithm?
A. Merge Sort
B. Heap Sort
C. Quick Sort
D. Counting Sort
Answer: D. Counting Sort
Explanation:
 Counting Sort is not a comparison-based sorting algorithm. It sorts
elements by counting the number of occurrences of each distinct element
and uses this information to place elements in the correct position. The other
algorithms (Merge Sort, Heap Sort, and Quick Sort) are comparison-
based.
Let me know if you need further clarification or more questions!
Here are more C++ Programming and Algorithms NGAT exam questions with
answers and explanations:
Section 20: Object-Oriented Programming (OOP) Concepts
Question 74:
What is the output of the following C++ program?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class Base {
public:
void display() {
cout << "Base class display function" << endl;
}
};
class Derived : public Base {
public:
void display() {
cout << "Derived class display function" << endl;
}
};
int main() {
Derived d;
d.display();

213
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

return 0;
}
A. Base class display function
B. Derived class display function
C. Compilation error
D. Runtime error
Answer: B. Derived class display function
Explanation:
 The Derived class has its own version of the display function, so when
d.display() is called, the Derived class version is invoked, overriding the
Base class version. This is an example of function overriding in C++.
Question 75:
Which of the following is an example of polymorphism in C++?
A. Function overloading
B. Operator overloading
C. Function overriding
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 Polymorphism in C++ refers to the ability of a function, operator, or object
to take different forms. All of the mentioned options are examples of
polymorphism:
o Function overloading: Multiple functions with the same name but
different parameters.
o Operator overloading: Customizing the behavior of operators for
user-defined types.
o Function overriding: Redefining a base class function in a derived
class.
Question 76:
Which keyword is used in C++ to prevent a class from being inherited?
A. final
B. private
C. static
D. sealed
Answer: A. final
Explanation:
 The final keyword in C++ is used to prevent a class from being inherited. If
a class is marked as final, no class can inherit from it.
Question 77:

214
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

What is the purpose of the virtual keyword in C++?

A. To define a virtual constructor
B. To ensure that the class cannot be inherited
C. To allow runtime polymorphism
D. To define a constant member function
Answer: C. To allow runtime polymorphism
Explanation:
 The virtual keyword is used in C++ to allow runtime polymorphism. It
enables the correct function to be called when a derived class object is
referenced via a base class pointer or reference.
Question 78:
Which of the following is not true about constructors in C++?
A. Constructors are called automatically when an object is created
B. Constructors have the same name as the class
C. Constructors can be inherited
D. Constructors cannot return values
Answer: C. Constructors can be inherited
Explanation:
 Constructors are not inherited by derived classes. However, a derived class
can call a base class constructor using the base-class constructor.
Question 79:
What is the purpose of destructors in C++?
A. To initialize objects
B. To allocate memory for objects
C. To clean up and release resources when an object is destroyed
D. To define the behavior of operators for a class
Answer: C. To clean up and release resources when an object is destroyed
Explanation:
 A destructor is a special member function that is called when an object is
destroyed. It is used to release any dynamically allocated memory or
resources that were acquired during the lifetime of the object.
Section 21: Advanced C++ Concepts
Question 80:
What will be the output of the following C++ program that uses new and delete
operators?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int* ptr = new int(20);

215
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

cout << *ptr << endl;

delete ptr;
return 0;
}
A. 0
B. 20
C. Undefined behavior
D. Compilation error
Answer: B. 20
Explanation:
 The program allocates memory dynamically for an integer using new and
initializes it with the value 20. The program then outputs the value stored at
the memory location pointed to by ptr, which is 20, before deallocating the
memory with delete.
Question 81:
Which of the following will cause a memory leak in C++?
A. Allocating memory with new but not deallocating with delete
B. Allocating memory with malloc but not freeing it with free
C. Using delete on a pointer that points to a memory block allocated with new
D. Both A and B
Answer: D. Both A and B
Explanation:
 A memory leak occurs when memory is allocated dynamically (using new
or malloc) but is not properly deallocated (using delete or free). This results
in the loss of access to the allocated memory, which is never returned to the
system.
Question 82:
What does the mutable keyword do in C++?
A. Allows the constant data members of a class to be modified
B. Prevents modification of member variables
C. Makes a class member variable constant
D. Makes a member function constant
Answer: A. Allows the constant data members of a class to be modified
Explanation:
 The mutable keyword in C++ allows a data member of a class to be
modified even if the object is const. This is useful when you want to modify
an internal state that doesn't affect the logical state of the object.
Question 83:
What will be the output of the following C++ code?

216
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class Test {
public:
Test() {
cout << "Constructor called!" << endl;
}

~Test() {
cout << "Destructor called!" << endl;
}
};
int main() {
Test t;
return 0;
}
A. Constructor called!
B. Destructor called!
C. Constructor called! Destructor called!
D. Compilation error
Answer: C. Constructor called! Destructor called!
Explanation:
 When the object t is created, the constructor is called. When the program
ends and t goes out of scope, the destructor is called.
Question 84:
What is the result of using delete on a pointer that was not allocated using new?
A. Undefined behavior
B. The program will crash
C. It will deallocate memory correctly
D. A runtime error will occur
Answer: A. Undefined behavior
Explanation:
 Using delete on a pointer that was not allocated with new results in
undefined behavior, which may lead to unpredictable results, including
program crashes.
Question 85:
Which of the following features does C++ provide that C does not?
A. Classes and Objects
B. Structs

217
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Functions
D. Pointers
Answer: A. Classes and Objects
Explanation:
 C++ is an object-oriented programming language that provides features like
classes and objects, which are not available in C. C is a procedural
programming language and does not have object-oriented features.
Let me know if you would like more questions or explanations on any topics!
Let me know if you would like more questions or explanations on any topics! 😊
Here are more C++ Programming and Algorithms NGAT exam questions with
answers and explanations:
Section 22: Templates and Exception Handling
Question 86:
Which of the following C++ features allows writing generic code?
A. Polymorphism
B. Templates
C. Inheritance
D. Operator overloading
Answer: B. Templates
Explanation:
 Templates in C++ allow you to write generic code. A template is a blueprint
for creating functions or classes that can work with any data type.
Question 87:
What is the output of the following C++ code using template functions?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
template <typename T>
T add(T a, T b) {
return a + b;
}
int main() {
cout << add(10, 20) << endl;
cout << add(2.5, 3.5) << endl;
return 0;
}
A. 30 6
B. 10 3
C. 10 6
D. 30 2.5

218
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: A. 30 6
Explanation:
 The add function is a template function that works with any data type. The
first call adds two integers 10 + 20 and the second call adds two floating-
point numbers 2.5 + 3.5.
Question 88:
What will happen if an exception is thrown and not caught in a C++ program?
A. The program will continue execution normally
B. The program will terminate with an error message
C. The program will catch the exception automatically
D. The program will enter an infinite loop
Answer: B. The program will terminate with an error message
Explanation:
 If an exception is thrown and not caught, the program will terminate, and the
runtime system will print an error message indicating that an unhandled
exception occurred.
Question 89:
What is the purpose of the throw keyword in C++?
A. To specify the type of exception
B. To define a custom exception
C. To trigger an exception
D. To catch an exception
Answer: C. To trigger an exception
Explanation:
 The throw keyword is used to trigger an exception. It is followed by an
object (exception) that describes the error, which can be caught by a catch
block.
Question 90:
Which of the following C++ features is used to handle errors at runtime?
A. Classes
B. Templates
C. Exception Handling
D. Function Overloading
Answer: C. Exception Handling
Explanation:
 Exception Handling in C++ is used to manage errors or exceptional
situations that occur during the runtime of a program. The primary
mechanism is try, throw, and catch blocks.
Question 91:

219
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

What does the following C++ code do?

#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int divide(int a, int b) {
if (b == 0) {
throw "Division by zero exception!";
}
return a / b;
}
int main() {
try {
cout << divide(10, 0) << endl;
} catch (const char* msg) {
cout << msg << endl;
}
return 0;
}
A. It prints 10
B. It prints Division by zero exception!
C. It results in a runtime error
D. It prints nothing
Answer: B. It prints Division by zero exception!
Explanation:
 The divide function throws an exception when dividing by zero. The catch
block catches the exception and prints the error message "Division by zero
exception!".
Question 92:
What is the correct syntax for a function template in C++?
A. template <typename T> return_type function_name(T parameter)
B. template <T> return_type function_name(T parameter)
C. template return_type function_name(T parameter)
D. template <T> function_name(T parameter)
Answer: A. template <typename T> return_type function_name(T parameter)
Explanation:
 The correct syntax for a function template is template <typename T>
return_type function_name(T parameter), where T is the template parameter,
which can represent any data type.
Question 93:
What does the following code output?

220
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
template <typename T>
T multiply(T a, T b) {
return a * b;
}
int main() {
cout << multiply(4, 5) << endl;
cout << multiply(2.5, 3.5) << endl;
return 0;
}
A. 20 6
B. 20 8.75
C. 10 6
D. 20 10
Answer: B. 20 8.75
Explanation:
 The multiply function is a template function. The first call multiplies two
integers, 4 * 5 = 20, and the second call multiplies two floating-point
numbers, 2.5 * 3.5 = 8.75.
Question 94:
Which keyword is used to specify the return type of a function template in C++?
A. return
B. auto
C. typename
D. template
Answer: B. auto
Explanation:
 The auto keyword is often used in function templates to specify the return
type of a function, allowing it to be inferred based on the arguments passed
to the function.
Section 23: File Handling
Question 95:
Which of the following is the correct way to open a file in C++ for reading?
A. ifstream file("filename.txt");
B. ofstream file("filename.txt");
C. fstream file("filename.txt", ios::in);
D. file.open("filename.txt", ios::in);
Answer: A. ifstream file("filename.txt");

221
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 To open a file for reading in C++, we use the ifstream class. ifstream
file("filename.txt"); opens the file in input mode.
Question 96:
Which of the following C++ statements is used to write data to a file?
A. ofstream
B. ifstream
C. fstream
D. ofstream <<
Answer: D. ofstream <<
Explanation:
 The ofstream class is used for output file stream operations, and the <<
operator is used to write data to the file.
Question 97:
What happens when a file is opened in ios::app mode in C++?
A. Data is written to the beginning of the file
B. Data is written to the end of the file
C. The file is opened for reading and writing
D. The file is opened in binary mode
Answer: B. Data is written to the end of the file
Explanation:
 When a file is opened in ios::app mode, data is written to the end of the file,
preserving the existing contents.
Question 98:
How do you close a file in C++?
A. close(file)
B. file.close()
C. file.end()
D. file.closefile()
Answer: B. file.close()
Explanation:
 The correct way to close a file in C++ is by calling the close() method on the
file object, i.e., file.close().
Question 99:
What will happen if a file does not exist when trying to open it in ifstream mode?
A. The file will be created
B. The program will throw an error
C. The program will continue execution
D. The file will remain empty

222
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: B. The program will throw an error

Explanation:
 If the file does not exist when trying to open it with ifstream, an error will
occur. The file stream object will fail to open, and you can check if the file is
open successfully using if (file.is_open()).
Let me know if you'd like more questions or further clarification on any topic!
Here are more C++ Programming and Algorithms NGAT exam questions with
answers and explanations:
Section 24: Advanced C++ Concepts
Question 100:
Which of the following is a valid C++ function declaration?
A. void func(int x, int y) { return x + y; }
B. int func(int x, int y);
C. int func(x, y);
D. void func(int x, y);
Answer: B. int func(int x, int y);
Explanation:
 A valid function declaration specifies the return type, function name, and
parameter types. In this case, int func(int x, int y); correctly declares a
function named func that takes two int arguments and returns an int.
Question 101:
What is the purpose of the const keyword in C++?
A. To define constant variables
B. To define a function that does not modify the object
C. To define a pointer that cannot change the address
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 The const keyword in C++ can be used in multiple contexts:
o To define constant variables that cannot be modified.
o To define constant member functions that cannot modify the object.
o To define constant pointers that cannot point to a different address.
Question 102:
What is the result of the following C++ program?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;

class Base {
public:

223
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

virtual void show() {

cout << "Base class" << endl;
}
};
class Derived : public Base {
public:
void show() override {
cout << "Derived class" << endl;
}
};

int main() {
Base* b = new Derived();
b->show();
return 0;
}
A. Base class
B. Derived class
C. Compilation error
D. Runtime error
Answer: B. Derived class
Explanation:
 The show() function is virtual, meaning the function call is resolved at
runtime. The object b is of type Base*, but it points to a Derived object.
Hence, the Derived class version of the show() function is invoked.
Question 103:
Which of the following C++ features allows dynamic memory allocation?
A. new and delete
B. malloc and free
C. resize and dealloc
D. Both A and B
Answer: D. Both A and B
Explanation:
 C++ provides two options for dynamic memory allocation:
o new and delete (C++ specific).
o malloc and free (C-style memory management, but still supported in
C++).
Question 104:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for defining a constructor in C++?

224
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. void ClassName() {}
B. ClassName() {}
C. ClassName() {return 0;}
D. ClassName() : {}
Answer: B. ClassName() {}
Explanation:
 The correct syntax for defining a constructor is ClassName() with no return
type. Constructors are special member functions used to initialize objects.
Question 105:
Which of the following C++ operators is used to dynamically allocate memory
for an object?
A. malloc
B. calloc
C. new
D. alloc
Answer: C. new
Explanation:
 The new operator in C++ is used to dynamically allocate memory for an
object. It allocates memory on the heap and returns a pointer to the allocated
memory.
Question 106:
Which of the following statements is false about destructors in C++?
A. A class can have only one destructor
B. A destructor can be overloaded
C. A destructor is called automatically when an object is destroyed
D. A destructor has the same name as the class, prefixed with ~
Answer: B. A destructor can be overloaded
Explanation:
 A destructor cannot be overloaded in C++. It has a single form for each
class, with no parameters, and it is automatically called when an object goes
out of scope or is explicitly deleted.
Question 107:
What is the output of the following C++ program that uses references?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
void swap(int& x, int& y) {
int temp = x;
x = y;
y = temp;

225
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

}
int main() {
int a = 5, b = 10;
swap(a, b);
cout << "a = " << a << ", b = " << b << endl;
return 0;
}
A. a = 5, b = 10
B. a = 10, b = 5
C. a = 5, b = 5
D. Compilation error
Answer: B. a = 10, b = 5
Explanation:
 The function swap uses references to swap the values of a and b. As a
result, the values of a and b are swapped, and the output is a = 10, b = 5.
Question 108:
Which of the following statements is true regarding operator overloading in
C++?
A. Operator overloading can be done for all operators
B. You can overload operators that already exist in C++
C. Operator overloading allows you to define the behavior of operators for user-
defined types
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Operator overloading allows you to define the behavior of
operators for user-defined types
Explanation:
 Operator overloading allows you to define the behavior of operators (e.g.,
+, -, *, etc.) for user-defined types. However, not all operators can be
overloaded (e.g., ::, sizeof, .).
Question 109:
Which of the following correctly defines a static member variable in C++?
A. static int x;
B. int static x;
C. static x int;
D. int x static;
Answer: A. static int x;
Explanation:

226
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 A static member variable in C++ is declared using the static keyword,

followed by the data type and the variable name. The variable is shared
among all instances of the class.
Question 110:
What will the following C++ program output?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int* ptr = nullptr;
cout << (ptr == nullptr) << endl;
return 0;
}
A. 0
B. 1
C. Null
D. Undefined behavior
Answer: B. 1
Explanation:
 The pointer ptr is initialized to nullptr. The condition (ptr == nullptr)
evaluates to true, which in C++ is represented by the integer 1. Therefore,
the output is 1.
Let me know if you need further questions or clarification on any topic!
Here are more C++ Programming and Algorithms NGAT exam questions with
answers and explanations:
Section 25: Advanced C++ Topics
Question 111:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for declaring a pointer to a function
in C++?
A. int* func(int x, int y);
B. int (*func)(int x, int y);
C. int func*(int x, int y);
D. int func(int* x, int* y);
Answer: *B. int (func)(int x, int y);
Explanation:
 To declare a pointer to a function in C++, you use int (*func)(int x, int y),
where (*func) denotes a pointer to a function that takes two int arguments
and returns an int.
Question 112:
What is the output of the following C++ code?

227
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class Base {
public:
void show() {
cout << "Base class" << endl;
}
};
class Derived : public Base {
public:
void show() {
cout << "Derived class" << endl;
}
};
int main() {
Derived d;
Base* b = &d;
b->show();
return 0;
}
A. Base class
B. Derived class
C. Compilation error
D. Runtime error
Answer: A. Base class
Explanation:
 The Base class has a show() function that is not virtual, so the function call
is resolved at compile-time. Even though the object is of type Derived, the
base class version of show() is called because the pointer is of type Base*.
Question 113:
What does the virtual keyword in C++ do?
A. Defines a function that cannot be overridden
B. Allows a function to be overridden in derived classes
C. Declares a function to be static
D. Enables polymorphism in classes
Answer: B. Allows a function to be overridden in derived classes
Explanation:
 The virtual keyword in C++ allows a member function in the base class to be
overridden in derived classes and enables runtime polymorphism.

228
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 114:
Which of the following C++ operators cannot be overloaded?
A. +
B. -
C. []
D. ::
Answer: D. ::
Explanation:
 The :: (scope resolution operator) cannot be overloaded in C++. Only
operators that are part of the C++ language syntax (like +, -, [], etc.) can be
overloaded.
Question 115:
What is the output of the following C++ code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
void func(int x = 10) {
cout << "x = " << x << endl;
}
int main() {
func();
func(20);
return 0;
}
A. x = 10, x = 20
B. x = 20, x = 10
C. x = 10, x = 10
D. Compilation error
Answer: A. x = 10, x = 20
Explanation:
 The function func() has a default argument x = 10. When called without
arguments, it uses the default value 10. When called with an argument, it
uses the provided value (20).
Question 116:
Which of the following statements about C++ classes is true?
A. A class can only have private members
B. A class can only have public members
C. A class can have both private and public members
D. A class cannot have static members
Answer: C. A class can have both private and public members

229
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 In C++, a class can have private, public, and protected members. By
default, class members are private unless otherwise specified.
Question 117:
Which of the following is the correct way to define a destructor in a class?
A. void ~ClassName();
B. ~ClassName();
C. ~ClassName(void);
D. ~ClassName() {}
Answer: D. ~ClassName() {}
Explanation:
 A destructor has the same name as the class, prefixed with ~, and does not
return anything. The body of the destructor can be empty or contain code to
release resources.
Question 118:
What is the output of the following C++ code that uses dynamic memory
allocation?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int* ptr = new int(5);
cout << *ptr << endl;
delete ptr;
return 0;
}
A. 0
B. 5
C. Memory leak
D. Undefined behavior
Answer: B. 5
Explanation:
 The code dynamically allocates memory for an integer and initializes it with
the value 5. The value is printed, and then the memory is freed using delete.
Question 119:
Which of the following C++ data types has the largest size?
A. int
B. double
C. long
D. long long

230
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: D. long long

Explanation:
 The long long data type typically has the largest size, usually 8 bytes (64
bits), compared to int (usually 4 bytes), double (8 bytes), and long (depends
on the system, but often 4 or 8 bytes).
Question 120:
What is the purpose of the inline keyword in C++?
A. To make a function call faster by directly inserting the function code
B. To declare a constant variable
C. To define an array
D. To prevent function overloading
Answer: A. To make a function call faster by directly inserting the function
code
Explanation:
 The inline keyword tells the compiler to insert the code of the function at the
point where it is called, which can reduce the overhead of a function call and
improve performance.
Question 121:
Which of the following is the correct way to declare a function template that
accepts two different types of arguments in C++?
A. template <typename T1, typename T2> void func(T1 x, T2 y);
B. template <typename T> void func(T x, T y);
C. template <T1, T2> void func(T1 x, T2 y);
D. template <typename T> void func(T1 x, T2 y);
Answer: A. template <typename T1, typename T2> void func(T1 x, T2 y);
Explanation:
 To declare a function template that accepts two different types, you specify
two template parameters like this: template <typename T1, typename T2>.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or further clarifications!
Here are more C++ Programming and Algorithms NGAT exam questions with
answers and explanations:
Section 26: C++ Data Structures & Algorithms
Question 122:
What is the output of the following C++ program that uses recursion?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int factorial(int n) {
if (n == 0) return 1;
return n * factorial(n - 1);

231
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

}
int main() {
cout << factorial(5) << endl;
return 0;
}
A. 5
B. 10
C. 120
D. 25
Answer: C. 120
Explanation:
 The factorial function is implemented recursively. It calculates the factorial
of 5, which is 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 = 120.
Question 123:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for declaring a vector in C++?
A. vector<int> vec;
B. int vector vec;
C. vector(vec, int);
D. vector = new int[10];
Answer: A. vector<int> vec;
Explanation:
 In C++, a vector is declared using the vector keyword, followed by the type
of elements it will hold in angle brackets, e.g., vector<int> vec;.
Question 124:
What does the following C++ code do?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int arr[] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
cout << sizeof(arr) << endl;
return 0;
}
A. Outputs the number of elements in the array
B. Outputs the size of a single element
C. Outputs the total size of the array in bytes
D. Compilation error
Answer: C. Outputs the total size of the array in bytes
Explanation:

232
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The sizeof(arr) expression returns the total size of the array in bytes. If the
array is of type int and has 5 elements, the output will be 5 * sizeof(int)
(typically 20 bytes on a system where int is 4 bytes).
Question 125:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for a for-each loop in C++?
A. for (int x : arr) {}
B. foreach(int x : arr) {}
C. for (int x = 0; x < arr.size(); x++) {}
D. for (arr each int x) {}
Answer: A. for (int x : arr) {}`
Explanation:
 In C++, the range-based for loop (or for-each loop) is used to iterate
through elements of an array or container, using the syntax for (int x : arr).
Question 126:
Which of the following C++ containers provides the fastest random access to
elements?
A. vector
B. list
C. deque
D. set
Answer: A. vector
Explanation:
 A vector provides constant time access to elements by index (O(1)). Other
containers like list provide linear-time access (O(n)), while deque is slower
for random access than vector.
Question 127:
What is the time complexity of accessing an element in a vector by index in C++?
A. O(1)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n)
D. O(n log n)
Answer: A. O(1)
Explanation:
 Accessing an element by index in a vector is done in constant time, O(1),
since vectors store elements contiguously in memory.
Question 128:
Which of the following algorithms is typically used to search for an element in a
sorted array?

233
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Linear Search
B. Binary Search
C. Merge Sort
D. Quick Sort
Answer: B. Binary Search
Explanation:
 Binary search is an efficient algorithm that searches for an element in a
sorted array. It repeatedly divides the search interval in half, making it more
efficient than linear search, which checks each element sequentially.
Question 129:
What is the space complexity of the recursive version of the factorial function?
A. O(1)
B. O(n)
C. O(log n)
D. O(n^2)
Answer: B. O(n)
Explanation:
 The recursive factorial function calls itself n times, so the space complexity
is O(n), due to the function calls being stored on the call stack.
Question 130:
What is the output of the following C++ code that uses pointers?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
void func(int* ptr) {
*ptr = 10;
}
int main() {
int x = 5;
int* p = &x;
func(p);
cout << x << endl;
return 0;
}
A. 5
B. 10
C. Undefined behavior
D. Compilation error
Answer: B. 10
Explanation:

234
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The pointer p is passed to the function func, which dereferences it and

modifies the value of x. Thus, the output is 10, as the function changes the
value of x through the pointer.
Question 131:
Which of the following is the correct way to declare a dynamic array in C++?
A. int arr[] = new int[10];
B. int* arr = new int[10];
C. int* arr(10);
D. int arr[10];
Answer: B. int arr = new int[10];*
Explanation:
 To create a dynamic array in C++, you use the new operator. The correct
syntax is int* arr = new int[10];, which dynamically allocates memory for an
array of 10 integers.
Question 132:
Which of the following C++ containers stores elements in a sorted order?
A. vector
B. list
C. set
D. deque
Answer: C. set
Explanation:
 A set in C++ automatically stores elements in sorted order. Unlike other
containers like vector or list, the elements in a set are kept in a sorted
sequence by default.
Question 133:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for declaring a map in C++?
A. map<int, string> m;
B. map(string, int) m;
C. int map<string, m;
D. map<int: string> m;
Answer: A. map<int, string> m;
Explanation:
 In C++, a map is a container that stores key-value pairs. The syntax for
declaring a map with integer keys and string values is map<int, string> m;.
Question 134:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for defining a C++ class template?
A. template <typename T> class MyClass {};
B. class template <typename T> MyClass {};

235
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. MyClass template <typename T> {};

D. template class <typename T> MyClass {};
Answer: A. template <typename T> class MyClass {};
Explanation:
 The correct syntax to define a class template in C++ is template <typename
T> class MyClass {};, where T is the type parameter.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or further clarifications!
Java programming NGAT Exam with answers
Here are some Java Programming NGAT exam questions with answers and
explanations:
Section 1: Java Basics
Question 1:
Which of the following is the correct way to declare a variable in Java?
A. int x;
B. int x = 5;
C. x = 5;
D. Both A and B
Answer: D. Both A and B
Explanation:
 Both int x; and int x = 5; are valid declarations in Java. The first one
declares the variable x, and the second one declares the variable x and
initializes it with the value 5.
Question 2:
Which of the following data types are primitive in Java?
A. String
B. int
C. boolean
D. Both B and C
Answer: D. Both B and C
Explanation:
 int and boolean are primitive data types in Java, while String is an object
type (non-primitive).
Question 3:
What is the default value of a boolean variable in Java?
A. true
B. false
C. 0
D. null
Answer: B. false

236
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 The default value of a boolean variable in Java is false when declared as an
instance variable.
Question 4:
Which of the following statements is true about Java arrays?
A. The size of an array can be changed after its creation
B. Arrays are zero-indexed
C. Arrays can hold elements of different types
D. Arrays must be initialized with values during creation
Answer: B. Arrays are zero-indexed
Explanation:
 In Java, arrays are zero-indexed, meaning the first element is accessed with
index 0. The size of an array is fixed once created and cannot be changed,
and arrays hold elements of the same type.
Section 2: Control Flow and Loops
Question 5:
What is the output of the following Java code?
java
Copy code
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
int x = 10;
if (x > 5) {
System.out.println("Greater");
} else {
System.out.println("Smaller");
}
}
}
A. Greater
B. Smaller
C. Compilation error
D. Runtime error
Answer: A. Greater
Explanation:
 The condition x > 5 evaluates to true, so the output is "Greater".
Question 6:
Which loop is guaranteed to execute at least once in Java?

237
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. for loop
B. while loop
C. do-while loop
D. for-each loop
Answer: C. do-while loop
Explanation:
 The do-while loop guarantees that the code inside the loop will execute at
least once, because the condition is checked after the loop body executes.
Question 7:
What is the output of the following Java code?
java
Copy code
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) {
if (i == 2) {
continue;
}
System.out.println(i);
}
}
}
A. 0 1
B. 0 1 2
C. 1 2
D. 0 2
Answer: A. 0 1
Explanation:
 The continue statement is used to skip the current iteration when i == 2, so 2
is not printed. Therefore, the output is 0 1.
Section 3: Object-Oriented Concepts
Question 8:
Which of the following is a valid way to create an object of a class in Java?
A. MyClass obj = new MyClass();
B. obj = new MyClass();
C. new MyClass();
D. MyClass obj;
Answer: A. MyClass obj = new MyClass();
Explanation:

238
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The correct way to create an object in Java is by using the new keyword and
assigning the object to a variable of the appropriate type, as in MyClass obj
= new MyClass();.
Question 9:
What is the result of the following Java code?
java
Copy code
class Animal {
void sound() {
System.out.println("Animal sound");
}
}

class Dog extends Animal {

void sound() {
System.out.println("Bark");
}
}
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Animal a = new Dog();
a.sound();
}
}
A. Animal sound
B. Bark
C. Compilation error
D. Runtime error
Answer: B. Bark
Explanation:
 The code demonstrates polymorphism in Java. The reference a is of type
Animal, but it points to a Dog object. Since the sound() method is
overridden in the Dog class, Bark is printed.
Question 10:
What is the output of the following Java code that involves method overloading?
java
Copy code
public class Test {
public void display(int a) {

239
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

System.out.println("Integer: " + a);

}

public void display(String a) {

System.out.println("String: " + a);
}

public static void main(String[] args) {

Test obj = new Test();
obj.display(5);
obj.display("Hello");
}
}
A. Integer: 5, String: Hello
B. Integer: 5
C. String: Hello
D. Compilation error
Answer: A. Integer: 5, String: Hello
Explanation:
 This code uses method overloading. The method display is defined for both
int and String types, and the correct version is called based on the argument
type.
Section 4: Java Collections
Question 11:
Which of the following is the correct way to declare a List in Java?
A. List<int> list = new ArrayList<>();
B. List<Integer> list = new ArrayList<>();
C. ArrayList<Integer> list = new List<>();
D. List<Integer> list = new List<>();
Answer: B. List<Integer> list = new ArrayList<>();
Explanation:
 In Java, List is an interface, and ArrayList is a concrete implementation. You
use List<Integer> list = new ArrayList<>(); to declare a List of Integer
objects.
Question 12:
Which of the following methods is used to add an element to a List in Java?
A. addElement()
B. append()

240
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. add()
D. insert()
Answer: C. add()
Explanation:
 In Java, the add() method is used to add an element to a List.
Question 13:
Which of the following collections does not allow duplicate elements in Java?
A. ArrayList
B. HashSet
C. LinkedList
D. PriorityQueue
Answer: B. HashSet
Explanation:
 A HashSet does not allow duplicate elements. The other collections, such as
ArrayList, LinkedList, and PriorityQueue, allow duplicates.
Section 5: Exception Handling
Question 14:
What is the output of the following Java code?
java
Copy code
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
try {
int[] arr = new int[2];
arr[5] = 10;
} catch (ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException e) {
System.out.println("Exception caught");
} finally {
System.out.println("Finally block executed");
}
}
}
A. Exception caught
B. Finally block executed
C. Exception caught and Finally block executed
D. Runtime error
Answer: C. Exception caught and Finally block executed
Explanation:

241
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The code throws an ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException because the index 5

is out of bounds for the array. The catch block handles the exception, and the
finally block is always executed.
Let me know if you need more questions or explanations!
Here are more Java Programming NGAT exam questions with answers and
explanations:
Section 6: Java Methods and Constructors
Question 15:
What is the output of the following Java code?
java
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Test obj = new Test();
obj.show(5);
}
public void show(int x) {
System.out.println(x);
}
}
A. Compilation error
B. 5
C. Test
D. Runtime error
Answer: B. 5
Explanation:
 The method show(int x) takes an integer argument and prints it. The value 5
is passed to it in the main method, so the output is 5.
Question 16:
Which of the following is a valid constructor in Java?
A. public Test() {}
B. private Test(int a) {}
C. Test() {}
D. void Test() {}
Answer: A. public Test() {}`
Explanation:
 A constructor in Java must have the same name as the class and cannot
have a return type. Test() is a valid constructor, while the others are either
missing the class name or have a return type.
Question 17:

242
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

What is the output of the following Java code?

java
Copy code
public class Test {
int x;
Test(int x) {
this.x = x;
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
Test obj = new Test(10);
System.out.println(obj.x);
}
}
A. 10
B. x
C. Compilation error
D. Runtime error
Answer: A. 10
Explanation:
 The constructor Test(int x) assigns the value of x to the instance variable x.
The object obj is created with the value 10, and the value of obj.x is printed.
Question 18:
Which of the following is the correct way to call a method from another class in
Java?
A. methodName();
B. ClassName.methodName();
C. this.methodName();
D. methodName.this();
Answer: B. ClassName.methodName();
Explanation:
 To call a method from another class, you need to use the syntax
ClassName.methodName(), provided the method is static or you have an
object instance to call the non-static method.
Section 7: Java Inheritance and Polymorphism
Question 19:
Which of the following is true about inheritance in Java?
A. A subclass can inherit methods and variables from its superclass
B. A subclass can inherit constructors from its superclass

243
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. A subclass can access private members of the superclass

D. A subclass cannot override a method of its superclass
Answer: A. A subclass can inherit methods and variables from its superclass
Explanation:
 In Java, a subclass inherits methods and variables from its superclass.
However, it cannot inherit constructors or access private members of the
superclass. A subclass can override a method of its superclass.
Question 20:
What will be the output of the following Java code?
java
class Animal {
void sound() {
System.out.println("Animal sound");
}
}

class Dog extends Animal {

@Override
void sound() {
System.out.println("Bark");
}
}

public class Test {

public static void main(String[] args) {
Animal a = new Dog();
a.sound();
}
}
A. Animal sound
B. Bark
C. Compilation error
D. Runtime error
Answer: B. Bark
Explanation:
 The program demonstrates method overriding. The reference a is of type
Animal but points to a Dog object. The overridden sound() method of the
Dog class is called, so the output is "Bark".
Question 21:

244
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following is the correct way to declare a final method in Java?
A. public final void methodName() {}
B. final void methodName() {}
C. void final methodName() {}
D. public methodName() final {}
Answer: A. public final void methodName() {}`
Explanation:
 A final method is declared by adding the final keyword before the return
type. The correct syntax is public final void methodName().
Section 8: Java Interfaces
Question 22:
Which of the following statements is true about interfaces in Java?
A. An interface can have constructors
B. An interface can have instance variables
C. An interface can have abstract methods
D. An interface can be instantiated
Answer: C. An interface can have abstract methods
Explanation:
 An interface in Java can have abstract methods (methods without a body). It
cannot have constructors, instance variables, or be instantiated directly. All
methods in an interface are by default public abstract unless specified
otherwise.
Question 23:
What is the output of the following Java code that involves an interface?
java
interface Animal {
void sound();
}
class Dog implements Animal {
public void sound() {
System.out.println("Bark");
}
}
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Animal a = new Dog();
a.sound();
}
}

245
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Compilation error
B. Bark
C. Animal sound
D. Runtime error
Answer: B. Bark
Explanation:
 The Dog class implements the Animal interface and provides an
implementation for the sound() method. When a.sound() is called, it invokes
the Dog's overridden sound() method, which prints "Bark".
Section 9: Java Collections
Question 24:
Which of the following collections guarantees insertion order in Java?
A. HashSet
B. LinkedHashSet
C. TreeSet
D. HashMap
Answer: B. LinkedHashSet
Explanation:
 LinkedHashSet guarantees that elements are stored in the order they were
inserted, whereas HashSet does not maintain any specific order. TreeSet
stores elements in sorted order, and HashMap stores key-value pairs.
Question 25:
Which of the following methods is used to remove an element from a List in
Java?
A. remove()
B. delete()
C. pop()
D. erase()
Answer: A. remove ()
Explanation:
 The remove () method is used to remove an element from a List in Java,
either by specifying the index or by passing the element to be removed.
Let me know if you need further questions or clarifications!
Here are additional Java Programming NGAT exam questions with answers and
explanations:
Section 10: Java Advanced Concepts
Question 26:
What is the output of the following Java code?
java

246
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

public class Test {

public static void main(String[] args) {
int[] arr = new int[5];
System.out.println(arr[2]);
}
}
A. 0
B. Compilation error
C. NullPointerException
D. Runtime error
Answer: A. 0
Explanation:
 In Java, when you declare an array of integers, all elements are initialized to
0 by default. Hence, the value of arr[2] will be 0.
Question 27:
Which of the following methods is used to start a thread in Java?
A. run()
B. start()
C. begin()
D. execute()
Answer: B. start()
Explanation:
 To start a thread in Java, the start() method must be invoked. The run()
method is overridden in the thread class and is executed when the thread
starts.
Question 28:
Which of the following keywords is used to prevent a class from being subclassed
in Java?
A. abstract
B. final
C. private
D. static
Answer: B. final
Explanation:
 The final keyword is used to prevent a class from being subclassed. If a class
is declared as final, it cannot be extended.
Question 29:
Which of the following is the correct way to create an immutable class in Java?

247
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Make the class final, and all fields private and final
B. Make the class abstract
C. Use the synchronized keyword
D. Make all fields protected
Answer: A. Make the class final, and all fields private and final
Explanation:
 To create an immutable class in Java, the class is declared as final to prevent
subclassing, and all fields are private and final to ensure they cannot be
modified after initialization. The class should provide a constructor for
initialization.
Question 30:
What is the output of the following Java code?
java
Copy code
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String s = "Hello";
s.concat(" World");
System.out.println(s);
}
}
A. Hello
B. Hello World
C. World
D. Compilation error
Answer: A. Hello
Explanation:
 In Java, String objects are immutable. The concat() method returns a new
string, but it does not modify the original string. Therefore, the output is the
original string "Hello".
Question 31:
Which of the following methods is used to synchronize a block of code in Java?
A. synchronized
B. lock()
C. wait()
D. sync()
Answer: A. synchronized
Explanation:

248
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The synchronized keyword is used in Java to ensure that a method or block

of code is accessed by only one thread at a time, providing synchronization.
Section 11: Java Exception Handling
Question 32:
Which of the following is the correct syntax to handle an exception in Java?
A. try { // code } catch(Exception e) { // handle }
B. try { // code } catch(Exception e) { }
C. try { // code } finally { // code }
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 All the options represent valid ways to handle exceptions in Java. The try-
catch block is used to handle exceptions, and the finally block is executed
regardless of whether an exception was thrown.
Question 33:
What is the output of the following Java code?
java
Copy code
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
try {
int a = 10 / 0;
} catch (ArithmeticException e) {
System.out.println("ArithmeticException caught");
}
System.out.println("End of program");
}
}
A. ArithmeticException caught
B. End of program
C. ArithmeticException caught End of program
D. RuntimeException caught
Answer: C. ArithmeticException caught End of program
Explanation:
 The code tries to divide by zero, which throws an ArithmeticException. The
exception is caught in the catch block, and the program continues executing
after that, printing "End of program".
Question 34:
Which of the following exceptions is checked in Java?

249
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. NullPointerException
B. ArithmeticException
C. FileNotFoundException
D. IndexOutOfBoundsException
Answer: C. FileNotFoundException
Explanation:
 A checked exception is an exception that must be explicitly caught or
declared in the method signature. FileNotFoundException is a checked
exception, while the others are unchecked exceptions.
Question 35:
What is the output of the following Java code?
java
Copy code
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
try {
String str = null;
System.out.println(str.length());
} catch (NullPointerException e) {
System.out.println("NullPointerException caught");
}
}
}
A. NullPointerException caught
B. null
C. 0
D. Compilation error
Answer: A. NullPointerException caught
Explanation:
 The code attempts to call length() on a null reference, which throws a
NullPointerException. The exception is caught in the catch block, printing
"NullPointerException caught".
Section 12: Java Streams and Lambda Expressions
Question 36:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for using a lambda expression in
Java?
A. (x, y) -> x + y
B. x, y -> x + y

250
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. () -> { return x + y; }
D. -> (x, y) x + y
Answer: A. (x, y) -> x + y
Explanation:
 A lambda expression is a shorthand for defining an anonymous method. The
correct syntax is (x, y) -> x + y.
Question 37:
Which of the following is the correct way to use Java Streams to filter a list of
integers and print the result?
java
List<Integer> list = Arrays.asList(1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
list.stream().filter(i -> i > 2).forEach(System.out::println);
A. stream().filter() is incorrect
B. forEach(System.out::println) is incorrect
C. The code will compile and output integers greater than 2
D. The code will throw a compilation error
Answer: C. The code will compile and output integers greater than 2
Explanation:
 The code uses the stream() method to convert the list into a stream, then
filter() to filter values greater than 2, and forEach() to print the filtered
values. This code is correct and will output 3, 4, and 5.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or further explanations!
Here are more Java Programming NGAT exam questions with answers and
explanations:
Section 13: Java Memory Management and Garbage Collection
Question 38:
Which of the following is true about Garbage Collection in Java?
A. Garbage Collection is done manually by the programmer.
B. Objects in Java can be explicitly deleted using delete keyword.
C. The garbage collector frees memory occupied by unreachable objects.
D. Garbage Collection is done by the JVM only when the system runs out of
memory.
Answer: C. The garbage collector frees memory occupied by unreachable
objects.
Explanation:
 In Java, Garbage Collection is done automatically by the JVM. It frees
memory by removing objects that are no longer reachable by any live
threads. Programmers do not need to manually delete objects, and the
garbage collector does not run only when the system is out of memory.

251
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 39:
Which of the following methods can be used to force garbage collection in Java?
A. System.gc()
B. gc()
C. runtime.gc()
D. forceGC()
Answer: A. System.gc()
Explanation:
 The System.gc() method is used to suggest to the JVM that garbage
collection should be performed. However, it's important to note that calling
this method does not guarantee that garbage collection will actually occur.
Question 40:
What will happen if a reference variable is set to null in Java?
A. The object it refers to will be removed from memory immediately.
B. The reference variable becomes a null pointer and causes an error.
C. The object becomes eligible for garbage collection if there are no other
references to it.
D. The object will become immutable.
Answer: C. The object becomes eligible for garbage collection if there are no
other references to it.
Explanation:
 When a reference variable is set to null, the object it was referring to
becomes eligible for garbage collection if no other reference to the object
exists. It doesn't get immediately removed from memory, as garbage
collection runs at the JVM's discretion.
Section 14: Java Multithreading
Question 41:
Which of the following statements is true about multithreading in Java?
A. Every Java application has at least one thread, the main thread.
B. A thread can be created only by extending the Thread class.
C. Thread class cannot be used to create threads; only the Runnable interface can
be used.
D. The main thread cannot create new threads.
Answer: A. Every Java application has at least one thread, the main thread.
Explanation:
 Every Java application has at least one thread, called the main thread.
While a thread can be created by extending the Thread class or
implementing the Runnable interface, the Thread class can indeed be used to
create threads.

252
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 42:
What is the purpose of the sleep() method in Java?
A. To suspend the execution of the current thread for a specified time.
B. To stop the current thread completely.
C. To pause the JVM for the specified duration.
D. To resume a suspended thread.
Answer: A. To suspend the execution of the current thread for a specified
time.
Explanation:
 The sleep() method causes the current thread to pause its execution for a
specified number of milliseconds. It does not stop the thread, but it makes it
temporarily inactive.
Question 43:
Which method is used to start a thread in Java?
A. start()
B. run()
C. execute()
D. begin()
Answer: A. start()
Explanation:
 To start a thread in Java, the start() method is used. This invokes the run()
method of the thread in a new thread of execution. The run() method
contains the code that defines the thread’s task.
Question 44:
Which of the following is true about synchronization in Java?
A. It allows multiple threads to execute a block of code simultaneously.
B. It prevents race conditions by ensuring only one thread can execute a
synchronized block of code at a time.
C. It is used to improve the performance of multithreaded programs.
D. It automatically handles deadlocks.
Answer: B. It prevents race conditions by ensuring only one thread can
execute a synchronized block of code at a time.
Explanation:
 Synchronization in Java ensures that only one thread can access a
synchronized block of code at a time, thus preventing race conditions where
multiple threads may try to modify shared data simultaneously.
Section 15: Java File Handling
Question 45:
Which of the following classes is used to read data from a file in Java?

253
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. FileReader
B. FileWriter
C. BufferedReader
D. Both A and C
Answer: D. Both A and C
Explanation:
 The FileReader class is used to read data from a file, and BufferedReader
can be used to read data more efficiently by buffering the input. You can use
both in combination to read data from a file in Java.
Question 46:
Which of the following classes is used for writing data to a file in Java?
A. FileWriter
B. FileReader
C. BufferedWriter
D. Both A and C
Answer: D. Both A and C
Explanation:
 The FileWriter class is used to write characters to a file, and BufferedWriter
is used to write data more efficiently by buffering the output. You can use
both classes together to write data to a file.
Question 47:
Which method is used to close a file stream in Java?
A. closeStream()
B. close()
C. flush()
D. exit()
Answer: B. close()
Explanation:
 The close() method is used to close a file stream in Java. It is important to
call this method after you're done reading or writing to a file to free up
system resources.
Question 48:
What is the output of the following Java code?
java
import java.io.*;
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException {
File file = new File("test.txt");
if (!file.exists()) {

254
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

file.createNewFile();
}
BufferedWriter writer = new BufferedWriter(new FileWriter(file));
writer.write("Hello, World!");
writer.close();
}
}
A. Creates an empty file
B. Writes "Hello, World!" to the file test.txt
C. Throws an IOException
D. No file is created
Answer: B. Writes "Hello, World!" to the file test.txt
Explanation:
 The code creates a file test.txt if it does not exist, then writes "Hello,
World!" to it using a BufferedWriter. After writing, the file stream is closed.
Section 16: Java Advanced Topics
Question 49:
What does the volatile keyword do in Java?
A. It marks a variable for garbage collection.
B. It allows a variable to be modified by multiple threads simultaneously without
synchronization.
C. It ensures that a variable's value is read from and written to the main memory
directly, ensuring visibility across threads.
D. It marks a class as immutable.
Answer: C. It ensures that a variable's value is read from and written to the
main memory directly, ensuring visibility across threads.
Explanation:
 The volatile keyword ensures that updates to a variable are visible across all
threads. It prevents caching of the variable's value in thread-local memory,
ensuring that the latest value is always read from and written to main
memory.
Let me know if you'd like more questions or explanations!
Microsoft office, MS Excell, power point based NGAT Exam with answers
Here are some Microsoft Office (MS Excel, PowerPoint) NGAT exam
questions with answers and explanations:
Section 1: Microsoft Excel
Question 1:
Which of the following formulas will give you the sum of cells A1 to A5 in
Microsoft Excel?

255
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. =SUM(A1:A5)
B. =SUM(A1, A5)
C. =ADD(A1:A5)
D. =A1 + A2 + A3 + A4 + A5
Answer: A. =SUM(A1:A5)
Explanation:
 The SUM() function in Excel is used to calculate the total of a specified
range of cells. The correct syntax to sum cells from A1 to A5 is
=SUM(A1:A5).
Question 2:
In Excel, what is the result of the formula =A1+B1 if A1 = 10 and B1 = 20?
A. 30
B. 10
C. 200
D. 1020
Answer: A. 30
Explanation:
 The formula =A1+B1 simply adds the values of cells A1 and B1. So, 10 +
20 = 30.
Question 3:
Which of the following functions in Excel is used to find the largest number in a
range of cells?
A. =MAX()
B. =MIN()
C. =LARGE()
D. =SUM()
Answer: A. =MAX()
Explanation:
 The MAX() function returns the largest value in a given range of cells. For
example, =MAX(A1:A5) will return the highest number in cells A1 to A5.
Question 4:
What is the correct way to lock a cell in Excel to prevent it from being edited when
the worksheet is protected?
A. Right-click the cell, select "Format Cells," and check "Locked"
B. Right-click the cell, select "Format Cells," and uncheck "Locked"
C. Right-click the cell, select "Protect," and check "Locked"
D. Right-click the cell, select "Edit" and check "Locked"
Answer: A. Right-click the cell, select "Format Cells," and check "Locked"
Explanation:

256
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 To prevent a cell from being edited when the worksheet is protected, you
need to select the cell, right-click, choose "Format Cells," and ensure the
"Locked" option is checked. After that, protect the sheet to enforce the lock.
Question 5:
In Excel, which of the following would be the result of the formula =IF(A1>50,
"Pass", "Fail") if A1 = 40?
A. Pass
B. Fail
C. 40
D. Error
Answer: B. Fail
Explanation:
 The IF() function tests whether a condition is true or false. If the condition
A1 > 50 is false, the result will be "Fail." Since A1 = 40, the result is "Fail."
Section 2: Microsoft PowerPoint
Question 6:
In PowerPoint, what is the default layout for a new slide?
A. Title Slide
B. Title and Content
C. Blank Slide
D. Two Content
Answer: B. Title and Content
Explanation:
 By default, a new slide in PowerPoint is created with the "Title and Content"
layout. This layout allows for a title and a content placeholder (for text,
images, etc.).
Question 7:
Which of the following is the correct way to insert a picture into a PowerPoint
slide?
A. Insert → Clip Art → Picture
B. Insert → Picture
C. Format → Picture
D. View → Insert Picture
Answer: B. Insert → Picture
Explanation:
 To insert a picture into a slide, you use the "Insert" tab and then select
"Picture." You can choose to insert a picture from your computer or from
online sources.
Question 8:

257
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following features in PowerPoint allows you to add transitions

between slides?
A. Animations
B. Slide Show
C. Transitions
D. Design
Answer: C. Transitions
Explanation:
 The "Transitions" tab in PowerPoint allows you to add and customize the
effect that occurs when moving from one slide to another.
Question 9:
What is the purpose of Slide Master in PowerPoint?
A. To create custom animations
B. To apply the same layout and style across all slides
C. To add sound effects to a slide
D. To format individual slide content
Answer: B. To apply the same layout and style across all slides
Explanation:
 The Slide Master in PowerPoint is used to apply consistent layouts, designs,
and styles across multiple slides. Any changes made to the Slide Master will
affect all slides that use that master layout.
Question 10:
In PowerPoint, which of the following would be the best method to duplicate a
slide?
A. Right-click on the slide and select "Duplicate Slide"
B. Press Ctrl+D
C. Both A and B
D. Click "Copy" and then "Paste" the slide
Answer: C. Both A and B
Explanation:
 You can duplicate a slide in PowerPoint by either right-clicking on the slide
and selecting "Duplicate Slide" or by pressing Ctrl+D. Both methods will
create a copy of the slide.
Section 3: Microsoft Excel Advanced Topics
Question 11:
What is the purpose of the VLOOKUP function in Excel?
A. To return the largest value in a range
B. To look up a value in a vertical column

258
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. To sum a range of cells

D. To count the number of cells that meet a condition
Answer: B. To look up a value in a vertical column
Explanation:
 The VLOOKUP() function is used in Excel to search for a value in the first
column of a range and return a value in the same row from another column.
Question 12:
In Excel, what does the IFERROR function do?
A. Returns a value if an error occurs in a formula
B. Returns a value if there is no error
C. Ignores errors in formulas
D. Returns a specific error message when a formula fails
Answer: A. Returns a value if an error occurs in a formula
Explanation:
 The IFERROR() function is used to catch and handle errors in formulas. It
returns a specified value if the formula results in an error, and the result of
the formula if there is no error.
Question 13:
Which of the following is used to combine multiple cells into one cell in Excel?
A. CONCATENATE()
B. TEXTJOIN()
C. MERGE CELLS
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 Excel offers several methods to combine cells. You can use the
CONCATENATE() function, the TEXTJOIN() function, or the "Merge
Cells" option to combine multiple cells.
Section 4: Microsoft PowerPoint Advanced Topics
Question 14:
Which of the following actions can be performed on a SmartArt graphic in
PowerPoint?
A. Change its layout
B. Add text
C. Apply styles and effects
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:

259
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 You can change the layout, add text, and apply different styles and effects to
a SmartArt graphic in PowerPoint, providing flexibility in how the graphic is
presented.
Question 15:
What is the function of the Slide Show tab in PowerPoint?
A. To apply slide transitions
B. To preview the slides in full-screen mode
C. To rehearse timings for automated slide transitions
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 The Slide Show tab allows you to preview the presentation, rehearse
timings, and apply settings related to the slideshow, such as transitions and
animations.
These are sample questions related to Microsoft Excel and PowerPoint. Let me
know if you need more questions or any further assistance!
Here are more Microsoft Office (Excel and PowerPoint) NGAT exam questions
with answers and explanations:
Section 5: Microsoft Excel - Advanced Features
Question 16:
What does the COUNTIF function in Excel do?
A. Counts the number of cells that contain numbers
B. Counts the number of cells that meet a specific condition
C. Sums the values in a range
D. Returns the average of a range of numbers
Answer: B. Counts the number of cells that meet a specific condition
Explanation:
 The COUNTIF() function counts the number of cells in a range that meet a
specified condition or criteria. For example, =COUNTIF(A1:A10, ">10")
will count the cells where the value is greater than 10.
Question 17:
Which Excel function is used to find the average of a group of numbers?
A. SUM()
B. AVERAGE()
C. COUNT()
D. MEDIAN()
Answer: B. AVERAGE()
Explanation:

260
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The AVERAGE() function in Excel is used to calculate the average (mean)

of a range of numbers. For example, =AVERAGE(A1:A10) will return the
average value of the numbers in cells A1 to A10.
Question 18:
What is the result of the following formula in Excel? =NOW()
A. Returns the current date
B. Returns the current time
C. Returns the current date and time
D. Returns the current day of the week
Answer: C. Returns the current date and time
Explanation:
 The NOW() function returns the current date and time. For example, if the
current date and time is January 13, 2025, 10:00 AM, =NOW() will return
1/13/2025 10:00 AM.
Question 19:
Which of the following Chart Types is best for showing relationships between
two variables in Excel?
A. Line Chart
B. Pie Chart
C. Scatter Plot
D. Column Chart
Answer: C. Scatter Plot
Explanation:
 A Scatter Plot chart is best for showing relationships between two
variables. It displays data points on the X and Y axes and is ideal for
identifying correlations between variables.
Question 20:
Which of the following Excel functions would you use to return the value of the
cell at the intersection of a specific row and column?
A. INDEX()
B. VLOOKUP()
C. MATCH()
D. HLOOKUP()
Answer: A. INDEX()
Explanation:
 The INDEX() function in Excel is used to return the value of a cell at the
intersection of a specific row and column within a range. For example,
=INDEX(A1:C5, 2, 3) returns the value in the second row and third column
of the range A1:C5.

261
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Section 6: Microsoft PowerPoint - Advanced Features

Question 21:
In PowerPoint, what is the function of the Animation Pane?
A. To apply transitions between slides
B. To add and customize animations for objects within a slide
C. To change the design template of the presentation
D. To manage slide timings
Answer: B. To add and customize animations for objects within a slide
Explanation:
 The Animation Pane in PowerPoint allows you to add and customize
animations for objects within a slide. You can adjust the timing, order, and
effects of animations using the pane.
Question 22:
How can you apply a custom animation effect to an object in PowerPoint?
A. Select the object and choose "Slide Show" → "Animations"
B. Select the object, go to the "Animations" tab, and choose an effect
C. Right-click the object and choose "Apply Animation"
D. Use the "Design" tab to apply animations
Answer: B. Select the object, go to the "Animations" tab, and choose an effect
Explanation:
 To apply a custom animation effect, you select the object you want to
animate, go to the "Animations" tab, and choose the animation effect you
want to apply.
Question 23:
Which of the following is the correct order of steps to rehearse timings for a
PowerPoint presentation?
A. Slide Show → Rehearse Timings
B. View → Rehearse Timings
C. File → Options → Rehearse Timings
D. Home → Rehearse Timings
Answer: A. Slide Show → Rehearse Timings
Explanation:
 To rehearse timings for a PowerPoint presentation, you go to the "Slide
Show" tab and select "Rehearse Timings." This allows you to practice your
presentation while PowerPoint records the time spent on each slide.
Question 24:
In PowerPoint, which of the following is the best method to create a hyperlink in a
slide?

262
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Click "Insert" → "Hyperlink"

B. Right-click and select "Create Link"
C. Use "Format" → "Hyperlink"
D. Click "Design" → "Insert Hyperlink"
Answer: A. Click "Insert" → "Hyperlink"
Explanation:
 The easiest way to create a hyperlink in PowerPoint is by selecting the text
or object, going to the "Insert" tab, and then clicking "Hyperlink."
Question 25:
In PowerPoint, which of the following allows you to insert a new slide with a
custom layout?
A. Click "New Slide" → "Layout" → Select the desired layout
B. Right-click on the slide pane and select "New Slide"
C. Press Ctrl+M to add a new slide
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 You can insert a new slide in PowerPoint using multiple methods, including
clicking "New Slide" → "Layout" to choose a custom layout, right-clicking
on the slide pane to select "New Slide," or pressing Ctrl+M.
Question 26:
What is the Slide Sorter view used for in PowerPoint?
A. To view slides in a single large preview
B. To rearrange, delete, and organize slides in a presentation
C. To apply slide transitions
D. To view a presentation in full screen
Answer: B. To rearrange, delete, and organize slides in a presentation
Explanation:
 The Slide Sorter view in PowerPoint shows thumbnails of all slides in a
presentation. This view allows you to easily rearrange, delete, and organize
slides.
Question 27:
Which of the following is a valid keyboard shortcut to start the slideshow in
PowerPoint?
A. F5
B. Shift + F5
C. Ctrl + F5
D. Both A and B
Answer: D. Both A and B

263
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 You can start the slideshow from the beginning by pressing F5 or start it
from the current slide using Shift + F5.
Section 7: Microsoft Excel & PowerPoint - Miscellaneous
Question 28:
Which feature in Excel allows you to highlight cells that meet specific conditions?
A. Conditional Formatting
B. Data Validation
C. Cell Styles
D. Find and Replace
Answer: A. Conditional Formatting
Explanation:
 Conditional Formatting in Excel allows you to apply formatting to cells
that meet specific criteria or conditions. This feature is commonly used to
highlight cells that contain certain values, dates, or other conditions.
Question 29:
In PowerPoint, which of the following actions can you perform using the Slide
Master?
A. Apply consistent formatting across multiple slides
B. Insert new slides into the presentation
C. Edit the content of individual slides
D. Add transitions between slides
Answer: A. Apply consistent formatting across multiple slides
Explanation:
 The Slide Master allows you to apply consistent formatting (such as
background, fonts, and colors) across multiple slides in the presentation.
Any changes made to the Slide Master affect all slides using that layout.
Question 30:
In Excel, how do you freeze the top row to keep it visible while scrolling?
A. View → Freeze Panes → Freeze Top Row
B. Home → Freeze Row
C. Insert → Freeze Top Row
D. Data → Freeze Panes → Freeze Row
Answer: A. View → Freeze Panes → Freeze Top Row
Explanation:
 To freeze the top row in Excel, you go to the "View" tab, click "Freeze
Panes," and then select "Freeze Top Row." This keeps the top row visible as
you scroll down the worksheet.

264
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

These questions cover various Microsoft Excel and PowerPoint topics to help you
prepare for an NGAT exam. Let me know if you'd like more questions or further
clarification on any topic!
Visual Basic based NGAT Exam with answers
Here are some Visual Basic (VB) NGAT exam questions with answers and
explanations:
Section 1: Basic Concepts
Question 1:
What is the correct way to declare a variable in Visual Basic?
A. Dim x as Integer
B. Dim Integer x
C. Integer x Dim
D. Variable x as Integer
Answer: A. Dim x as Integer
Explanation:
 In Visual Basic, variables are declared using the Dim keyword followed by
the variable name and data type. The correct syntax is Dim x as Integer,
where x is the variable name and Integer is the data type.
Question 2:
Which of the following statements correctly outputs "Hello, World!" to the
console in Visual Basic?
A. Console.Write("Hello, World!")
B. Print("Hello, World!")
C. Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!")
D. Output("Hello, World!")
Answer: C. Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!")
Explanation:
 In Visual Basic, Console.WriteLine() is used to output text to the console,
followed by a new line. The correct syntax for outputting "Hello, World!" is
Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!").
Question 3:
Which of the following data types is used to store a single character in Visual
Basic?
A. String
B. Char
C. Integer
D. Boolean
Answer: B. Char
Explanation:

265
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The Char data type in Visual Basic is used to store a single character. A
String is used to store a sequence of characters, but Char is specifically for
one character.
Question 4:
What is the purpose of the If...Then statement in Visual Basic?
A. To create a loop
B. To execute code based on a condition
C. To define a function
D. To handle errors
Answer: B. To execute code based on a condition
Explanation:
 The If...Then statement is used to execute code based on whether a specified
condition is true. If the condition is true, the code within the If block is
executed.
Question 5:
Which of the following will raise an error in Visual Basic?
A. Dim x As Integer = 5
B. Dim y As Integer
C. Dim z As Integer = "hello"
D. Dim a As String = "text"
Answer: C. Dim z As Integer = "hello"
Explanation:
 In Visual Basic, you cannot assign a string ("hello") to an integer variable
(z). The data types must match. This will cause a compile-time error.
Section 2: Control Structures and Loops
Question 6:
What will the following For loop do?
For i As Integer = 1 To 5
Console.WriteLine(i)
Next
A. Print 1 to 5
B. Print 0 to 5
C. Print 1 to 4
D. Print an error
Answer: A. Print 1 to 5
Explanation:
 The For loop in Visual Basic iterates from the starting value (1) to the
ending value (5), inclusive. Therefore, it will print the numbers 1 through 5.
Question 7:

266
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following loops is used to execute a block of code while a condition
is true in Visual Basic?
A. For...Next
B. While...End While
C. Do...Loop
D. If...Then
Answer: B. While...End While
Explanation:
 The While...End While loop is used to execute a block of code as long as the
specified condition is true.
Question 8:
What will the following code snippet print?
Dim count As Integer = 10
Do
Console.WriteLine(count)
count -= 1
Loop While count > 0
A. Print 10 to 1
B. Print 10
C. Print an error
D. Print 1 to 10
Answer: A. Print 10 to 1
Explanation:
 The Do...Loop While loop executes the block of code and checks the
condition (count > 0) after each iteration. The loop will print the value of
count from 10 down to 1.
Question 9:
What is the correct syntax to exit a loop prematurely in Visual Basic?
A. End
B. Exit
C. Exit For
D. Exit Loop
Answer: C. Exit For
Explanation:
 The Exit For statement is used to exit a For loop prematurely in Visual
Basic. Similarly, Exit Do can be used to exit a Do loop.
Question 10:
Which of the following is used to handle errors in Visual Basic?

267
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Try...Catch
B. If...Then
C. Do...Loop
D. Select Case
Answer: A. Try...Catch
Explanation:
 The Try...Catch block in Visual Basic is used to handle runtime errors. If an
error occurs within the Try block, it is caught by the Catch block, where
appropriate handling can be applied.
Section 3: Functions and Procedures
Question 11:
What is the correct way to declare a subroutine (procedure) in Visual Basic?
A. Function MySub()
B. Sub MySub()
C. MySub Sub()
D. Def Sub MySub()
Answer: B. Sub MySub()
Explanation:
 In Visual Basic, procedures (subroutines) are declared using the Sub
keyword, followed by the procedure name and parentheses. The correct
syntax is Sub MySub().
Question 12:
What will the following code do?
Function AddNumbers(a As Integer, b As Integer) As Integer
Return a + b
End Function
A. Adds two numbers and returns the result
B. Displays the sum of two numbers
C. Causes an error because of incorrect syntax
D. Adds numbers without returning the result
Answer: A. Adds two numbers and returns the result
Explanation:
 The AddNumbers function takes two integers (a and b) as parameters, adds
them together, and returns the result as an integer.
Question 13:
Which of the following keywords is used to define a function in Visual Basic?
A. Sub
B. Function

268
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Def
D. Procedure
Answer: B. Function
Explanation:
 In Visual Basic, functions are defined using the Function keyword.
Functions return a value, while subroutines (Sub) do not return a value.
Question 14:
What will the following code return?
Function Multiply(a As Integer, b As Integer) As Integer
Return a * b
End Function
A. The product of a and b
B. The sum of a and b
C. The quotient of a and b
D. An error because the function is incomplete
Answer: A. The product of a and b
Explanation:
 The Multiply function multiplies the two input values (a and b) and returns
the product.
Question 15:
Which of the following statements correctly calls the function AddNumbers with
arguments 3 and 5?
A. AddNumbers(3, 5)
B. Call AddNumbers(3, 5)
C. AddNumbers(3, 5) = result
D. result = AddNumbers(3, 5)
Answer: D. result = AddNumbers(3, 5)
Explanation:
 To call a function and store its result, the correct syntax is to assign the
result to a variable. In this case, result = AddNumbers(3, 5) will call the
function and store the returned value in the result variable.
Section 4: Arrays and Collections
Question 16:
What is the correct way to declare a one-dimensional array of integers in Visual
Basic?
A. Dim arr(10) As Integer
B. Dim arr(10) As Integer[]
C. Dim arr(1 To 10) As Integer
D. Dim arr(1 To 10) Integer

269
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: A. Dim arr(10) As Integer

Explanation:
 In Visual Basic, an array is declared using the Dim keyword, followed by
the array name and the number of elements in parentheses. Dim arr(10) As
Integer creates an array with 11 elements, indexed from 0 to 10.
Question 17:
Which of the following methods is used to add an item to a List in Visual Basic?
A. List.Add()
B. Add.Item()
C. AddElement()
D. Insert.Item()
Answer: A. List.Add()
Explanation:
 The Add() method is used to add an item to a List in Visual Basic. For
example, List.Add("item") adds the string "item" to the list.
These questions cover a range of topics in Visual Basic programming including
basic syntax, loops, control structures, functions, arrays, and collections. Let me
know if you need additional questions or explanations!
Here are more Visual Basic (VB) NGAT exam questions with answers and
explanations:
Section 5: Object-Oriented Concepts in Visual Basic
Question 18:
What is the purpose of the Class keyword in Visual Basic?
A. To define a method
B. To define a new data type
C. To create an object
D. To store variable values
Answer: B. To define a new data type
Explanation:
 The Class keyword is used in Visual Basic to define a new data type or
blueprint for objects. A class contains properties, methods, and events,
which are used to define the behavior and attributes of an object.
Question 19:
How do you create an object of a class named Car in Visual Basic?
A. Dim myCar As Car = New Car()
B. Dim myCar As New Car()
C. Dim myCar = Car()
D. Create myCar As Car()
Answer: B. Dim myCar As New Car()

270
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 The correct syntax to create an object of a class in Visual Basic is Dim
myCar As New Car(). This creates an instance of the Car class, initializing it
and assigning it to the myCar variable.
Question 20:
Which of the following is the correct way to define a property in a Visual Basic
class?
A. Public Property CarColor As String
B. Public String CarColor
C. Property CarColor() As String
D. Public Function CarColor As String
Answer: A. Public Property CarColor As String
Explanation:
 The correct way to define a property in a Visual Basic class is Public
Property PropertyName As DataType. In this case, Public Property CarColor
As String defines a property named CarColor with the data type String.
Question 21:
What is the correct keyword used to define a method in Visual Basic?
A. Procedure
B. Function
C. Method
D. Sub
Answer: D. Sub
Explanation:
 In Visual Basic, methods that do not return a value are defined using the Sub
keyword. If a method returns a value, the Function keyword is used.
Question 22:
Which of the following is used to inherit from a base class in Visual Basic?
A. Inherits
B. Implements
C. Extends
D. Overrides
Answer: A. Inherits
Explanation:
 The Inherits keyword is used in Visual Basic to derive a new class from a
base class. This allows the new class to inherit the properties, methods, and
events of the base class.
Question 23:
What does the Overridable keyword in Visual Basic signify?

271
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. It allows a method to be called without an instance

B. It allows a method to be overridden in a derived class
C. It prevents a method from being overridden
D. It specifies that a method should return a value
Answer: B. It allows a method to be overridden in a derived class
Explanation:
 The Overridable keyword indicates that a method in a base class can be
overridden in a derived class. This allows the derived class to provide its
own implementation of the method.
Question 24:
What is the purpose of the Overrides keyword in Visual Basic?
A. To define a new class
B. To call a base class constructor
C. To override a method inherited from a base class
D. To create a new object of the base class
Answer: C. To override a method inherited from a base class
Explanation:
 The Overrides keyword is used in a derived class to override a method that
was inherited from a base class. This allows the derived class to provide its
own implementation of the method.
Section 6: Advanced Concepts
Question 25:
Which of the following data types is used to store a null value in Visual Basic?
A. Null
B. Nothing
C. Empty
D. Void
Answer: B. Nothing
Explanation:
 In Visual Basic, the Nothing keyword is used to represent the absence of a
value or an uninitialized object. It can be used with reference types and
nullable value types.
Question 26:
What is the purpose of the With statement in Visual Basic?
A. To declare a variable within a block
B. To initialize an array
C. To execute multiple statements on a single object
D. To handle exceptions within a block
Answer: C. To execute multiple statements on a single object

272
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 The With statement is used to execute multiple statements on a single object
or structure without repeatedly specifying the object name. It simplifies the
code when working with objects.
Question 27:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for a try-catch block in Visual Basic?
A.
vb
Copy code
Try
' Code
Catch
' Exception handling
End Try
B.
vb
Copy code
Try
' Code
Catch ex As Exception
' Exception handling
End Try
C.
vb
Copy code
Try
' Code
Finally
' Final code
End Try
D.
vb
Copy code
Try
' Code
Catch ex
' Exception handling
End Try
Answer: B.

273
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

vb
Copy code
Try
' Code
Catch ex As Exception
' Exception handling
End Try
Explanation:
 The correct syntax for a try-catch block in Visual Basic is shown in option
B. It allows you to execute code within the Try block and handle exceptions
in the Catch block. The As Exception part specifies the type of exception to
catch, though it can be omitted to catch all exceptions.
Question 28:
Which of the following is used to terminate the execution of a program
immediately in Visual Basic?
A. Exit
B. End
C. Exit Program
D. Stop
Answer: B. End
Explanation:
 The End keyword is used in Visual Basic to immediately stop the execution
of a program. This is often used in specific situations, such as in debugging,
to halt the program.
Question 29:
Which of the following statements is true about delegates in Visual Basic?
A. A delegate is a type that defines references to methods with a particular
parameter list and return type.
B. A delegate is a type of function that can be executed independently.
C. A delegate is used for defining classes in object-oriented programming.
D. A delegate is a method that can be executed multiple times.
Answer: A. A delegate is a type that defines references to methods with a
particular parameter list and return type.
Explanation:
 A delegate in Visual Basic is a type that holds references to methods with a
specific signature. It allows methods to be passed as parameters and called
dynamically.
Question 30:
Which of the following is used to invoke an event in Visual Basic?

274
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. InvokeEvent
B. RaiseEvent
C. TriggerEvent
D. EventHandler
Answer: B. RaiseEvent
Explanation:
 The RaiseEvent keyword is used in Visual Basic to trigger an event that has
been defined for a class or object. This invokes the event and any associated
event handlers.
These questions provide a deeper look into object-oriented programming,
exception handling, delegates, and other advanced concepts in Visual Basic. Let
me know if you'd like further elaboration or additional questions!

IP NGAT Exam with answers

Here are some IP (Internet Protocol) NGAT exam questions with answers and
explanations:
Section 1: Basics of IP
Question 1:
What is the main purpose of the Internet Protocol (IP)?
A. To physically connect devices on a network
B. To assign unique addresses to each device on a network
C. To transfer data between devices using wireless communication
D. To encrypt data transmitted over the internet
Answer: B. To assign unique addresses to each device on a network
Explanation:
 IP is responsible for assigning unique addresses (IP addresses) to devices on
a network, ensuring that data can be routed to the correct destination.
Question 2:
Which of the following is an IPv4 address?
A. 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
B. 192.168.0.1
C. fe80::d4a8:6435:d2d8:42b5
D. abcd:1234:efgh:5678
Answer: B. 192.168.0.1
Explanation:
 IPv4 addresses are written in the form of four decimal numbers separated by
periods, each ranging from 0 to 255. 192.168.0.1 is a valid IPv4 address.
Question 3:

275
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which protocol does IPv4 use to assign IP addresses dynamically to devices on a

network?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP
Answer: B. DHCP
Explanation:
 The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) dynamically assigns
IP addresses to devices on a network, allowing devices to automatically
receive an IP address when they join a network.
Question 4:
Which of the following is the size of an IPv6 address?
A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Answer: C. 128 bits
Explanation:
 IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long, compared to the 32-bit length of IPv4
addresses.
Question 5:
What is the broadcast address for the network 192.168.10.0/24?
A. 192.168.10.0
B. 192.168.10.255
C. 192.168.10.1
D. 192.168.10.254
Answer: B. 192.168.10.255
Explanation:
 The broadcast address for a subnet is the last address in that range. For the
192.168.10.0/24 network, the broadcast address is 192.168.10.255.
Section 2: Subnetting
Question 6:
What is the subnet mask for a network with the IP range 192.168.1.0 to
192.168.1.255?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255

276
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: A. 255.255.255.0
Explanation:
 The subnet mask 255.255.255.0 allows for a network with 256 IP addresses
(from 192.168.1.0 to 192.168.1.255), where the first three octets are fixed
and the last one is for host addresses.
Question 7:
In a subnet 10.0.0.0/24, how many usable host addresses are available?
A. 254
B. 256
C. 512
D. 2540
Answer: A. 254
Explanation:
 A /24 subnet has 256 total addresses, but 2 addresses are reserved: one for
the network address and one for the broadcast address. Therefore, there are
254 usable host addresses.
Question 8:
What is the network address of the subnet 172.16.56.0/22?
A. 172.16.56.1
B. 172.16.56.0
C. 172.16.59.255
D. 172.16.60.0
Answer: B. 172.16.56.0
Explanation:
 The network address is the first address of the subnet. For the
172.16.56.0/22 subnet, the network address is 172.16.56.0.
Question 9:
What is the first usable host address in the subnet 192.168.20.0/24?
A. 192.168.20.0
B. 192.168.20.1
C. 192.168.20.255
D. 192.168.20.254
Answer: B. 192.168.20.1
Explanation:
 The first usable host address is the address immediately following the
network address. In the 192.168.20.0/24 subnet, the network address is
192.168.20.0, and the first usable host address is 192.168.20.1.
Section 3: Routing and IP Addressing
Question 10:

277
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

What is the purpose of the default gateway in a network?

A. To assign IP addresses to devices
B. To route packets within a local network
C. To allow devices to communicate outside the local network
D. To manage DHCP leases
Answer: C. To allow devices to communicate outside the local network
Explanation:
 The default gateway is used to route traffic from devices on a local network
to devices on other networks or the internet. It serves as an access point for
outgoing traffic.
Question 11:
Which type of IP address is used for loopback testing?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 255.255.255.255
C. 0.0.0.0
D. 192.168.1.1
Answer: A. 127.0.0.1
Explanation:
 127.0.0.1 is the loopback address, used to test the network stack on the
local machine without accessing external networks.
Question 12:
Which routing protocol is classless, supporting variable length subnet masking
(VLSM)?
A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. OSPF
D. IGRP
Answer: B. RIP v2
Explanation:
 RIP v2 is a classless routing protocol that supports VLSM (Variable Length
Subnet Masking), allowing more flexible IP address allocation.
Question 13:
What does the TTL (Time To Live) value in an IP packet signify?
A. The maximum number of hops a packet can make before being discarded
B. The total number of packets that can be transmitted
C. The expiration time of an IP address
D. The time it takes for a packet to reach the destination
Answer: A. The maximum number of hops a packet can make before being
discarded

278
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 The TTL value limits the lifetime of a packet. Each router that forwards the
packet decreases the TTL by 1. If the TTL reaches 0, the packet is discarded.
Question 14:
What is the purpose of NAT (Network Address Translation)?
A. To assign IP addresses dynamically to devices
B. To allow multiple devices to share a single public IP address
C. To route traffic within a local network
D. To encrypt IP addresses for security
Answer: B. To allow multiple devices to share a single public IP address
Explanation:
 NAT enables multiple devices on a private network to share a single public
IP address, conserving the number of public IP addresses needed.
Section 4: IPv6 and Future of IP
Question 15:
Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. fe80::d4a8:6435:d2d8:42b5
C. 10.0.0.1
D. 300.400.500.600
Answer: B. fe80::d4a8:6435:d2d8:42b5
Explanation:
 IPv6 addresses are written using hexadecimal numbers separated by colons.
The address fe80::d4a8:6435:d2d8:42b5 is a valid IPv6 address.
Question 16:
Which IPv6 feature allows multiple addresses to be assigned to a single network
interface?
A. Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC)
B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
C. Multiple Address Interface (MAI)
D. Prefix Delegation
Answer: A. Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC)
Explanation:
 SLAAC allows a device to automatically configure its IPv6 address using
information from the local router, enabling multiple addresses to be assigned
to a single network interface.
These questions cover basic and advanced concepts of IP addressing, subnetting,
routing, and IPv6. Let me know if you need more detailed explanations or
additional questions!

279
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Here are additional IP NGAT Exam questions with answers to help you further:
Section 5: Advanced IP Routing and Network Configuration
Question 17:
Which of the following is a key difference between IPv4 and IPv6?
A. IPv6 addresses are 32 bits long, whereas IPv4 addresses are 128 bits long
B. IPv6 supports broadcast communication, while IPv4 does not
C. IPv6 uses hexadecimal numbers, whereas IPv4 uses decimal numbers
D. IPv4 uses a simpler header format than IPv6
Answer: C. IPv6 uses hexadecimal numbers, whereas IPv4 uses decimal
numbers
Explanation:
 IPv4 addresses are written in decimal format (e.g., 192.168.1.1), whereas
IPv6 addresses are written in hexadecimal format (e.g.,
2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334).
Question 18:
Which of the following protocols is used to resolve an IPv4 address to a MAC
address on a local network?
A. DNS
B. ARP
C. DHCP
D. ICMP
Answer: B. ARP
Explanation:
 ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is used to map a known IPv4 address
to its corresponding MAC address on a local network, facilitating proper
packet delivery.
Question 19:
In an IPv4 private address range, which of the following addresses is valid?
A. 10.15.20.30
B. 172.16.50.250
C. 192.168.300.1
D. 225.0.0.1
Answer: B. 172.16.50.250
Explanation:
 Private IPv4 address ranges are defined as:
o 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
o 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
o 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
 172.16.50.250 falls within the private IP range.

280
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 20:
Which IPv6 address type is used for sending data to all devices in a local
network?
A. Unicast
B. Multicast
C. Anycast
D. Broadcast
Answer: B. Multicast
Explanation:
 Multicast is used in IPv6 to send data to multiple devices on a network. In
contrast, unicast sends data to a single device, and broadcast is not
supported in IPv6.
Question 21:
Which of the following is a valid link-local IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0db8::/32
B. fe80::1
C. 192.168.1.1
D. ff00::1
Answer: B. fe80::1
Explanation:
 Link-local addresses in IPv6 start with fe80:: and are used for
communication within a single local network. They are not routable on the
global internet.
Section 6: IP Security and Troubleshooting
Question 22:
Which tool can be used to test the connectivity between two devices on a network
using ICMP?
A. ping
B. traceroute
C. netstat
D. ipconfig
Answer: A. ping
Explanation:
 The ping command sends ICMP Echo Request messages to another device
to check network connectivity and measure round-trip time.
Question 23:
What is the purpose of NAT (Network Address Translation) in a network?
A. To encrypt all outgoing traffic
B. To assign private IP addresses to devices

281
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. To allow a router to translate private IP addresses to a public address

D. To provide routing information between networks
Answer: C. To allow a router to translate private IP addresses to a public
address
Explanation:
 NAT allows devices within a private network to share a single public IP
address when communicating with external networks, effectively hiding
internal IP addresses from the public internet.
Question 24:
Which of the following is the default gateway in the IP configuration of a device?
A. The first usable host IP in the subnet
B. The last IP address in the subnet
C. The IP address used to route traffic to other networks
D. The IP address of the DNS server
Answer: C. The IP address used to route traffic to other networks
Explanation:
 The default gateway is the IP address of the device (usually a router) used
to route traffic from a local network to devices outside the local network or
to the internet.
Question 25:
Which of the following ICMP message types is used by a router to notify the
sender of a problem with packet delivery?
A. Echo Request
B. Echo Reply
C. Destination Unreachable
D. Time Exceeded
Answer: C. Destination Unreachable
Explanation:
 The Destination Unreachable message is used by routers to inform the
sender that the destination of the packet is unreachable due to various
reasons (e.g., network down, host unreachable).
Question 26:
Which of the following is a valid multicast IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0db8::1
B. ff02::1
C. fe80::1
D. 2001:0db8:85a3::
Answer: B. ff02::1
Explanation:

282
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Multicast IPv6 addresses start with ff00::/8. ff02::1 is the address used for
all devices on a local network (link-local multicast).
Question 27:
What does the TTL (Time-to-Live) value in an IP packet represent?
A. The number of hops the packet has made
B. The number of bytes remaining in the packet
C. The maximum amount of time the packet can live in the network
D. The destination address of the packet
Answer: A. The number of hops the packet has made
Explanation:
 The TTL field is a counter that decrements by 1 each time the packet is
forwarded by a router. When it reaches 0, the packet is discarded, preventing
it from circulating indefinitely.
Question 28:
What is CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing) used for in IP networking?
A. To assign static IP addresses
B. To support variable-length subnet masking (VLSM)
C. To encrypt IP traffic
D. To define broadcast addresses
Answer: B. To support variable-length subnet masking (VLSM)
Explanation:
 CIDR allows the use of variable-length subnet masks (VLSM) and provides
more flexibility than traditional class-based IP addressing. It helps in
efficient IP address allocation.
Section 7: IPv4 and IPv6 Coexistence
Question 29:
Which technology allows IPv4 and IPv6 to coexist on the same network?
A. NAT64
B. Dual Stack
C. Tunneling
D. Proxy ARP
Answer: B. Dual Stack
Explanation:
 Dual Stack allows devices to run both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols
simultaneously, enabling communication across both types of networks.
Question 30:
Which of the following is used to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets and
vice versa?

283
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. NAT64
B. RIPng
C. DHCPv6
D. MPLS
Answer: A. NAT64
Explanation:
 NAT64 is used to translate between IPv6 and IPv4 addresses, allowing
IPv6-only clients to communicate with IPv4-only servers.
These questions cover advanced topics related to IPv4, IPv6, subnetting, routing,
NAT, and network troubleshooting. Let me know if you'd like to focus on
specific areas or need additional questions!
Here are additional IP NGAT Exam questions with answers to help you practice:
Section 8: IPv6 Configuration and Management
Question 31:
What is the default prefix length for an IPv6 address in most networks?
A. /16
B. /24
C. /64
D. /128
Answer: C. /64
Explanation:
 The default prefix length for most IPv6 subnets is /64. This means the first
64 bits of the IPv6 address are used for the network portion, and the
remaining 64 bits are used for the host portion.
Question 32:
Which of the following IPv6 address types is used to represent a single device,
one-to-one communication?
A. Anycast
B. Multicast
C. Unicast
D. Broadcast
Answer: C. Unicast
Explanation:
 Unicast refers to a one-to-one communication between a single sender and a
single receiver in both IPv4 and IPv6.
Question 33:
What is the purpose of Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) in IPv6?
A. To manually assign static IP addresses
B. To automatically configure an IPv6 address without the need for a DHCP server

284
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. To ensure that only one device per network can use a specific address
D. To create multicast addresses for communication
Answer: B. To automatically configure an IPv6 address without the need for a
DHCP server
Explanation:
 SLAAC allows devices to automatically configure their own IPv6 address
based on the network prefix provided by the router, without needing a
DHCP server.
Question 34:
Which of the following IPv6 address types is used for communication to a
specific group of devices?
A. Unicast
B. Multicast
C. Anycast
D. Link-local
Answer: B. Multicast
Explanation:
 Multicast addresses are used for one-to-many or many-to-many
communication, allowing data to be sent to a specific group of devices on
the network.
Question 35:
Which IPv6 address is used as a link-local address?
A. 2001:0db8::1
B. fe80::/10
C. ff02::1
D. ::1
Answer: B. fe80::/10
Explanation:
 Link-local addresses in IPv6 begin with the fe80::/10 prefix. These
addresses are used for communication within the local network segment and
are not routed outside of it.
Section 9: IP Security and Routing
Question 36:
Which of the following routing protocols is used to exchange routing information
within a local network (autonomous system)?
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. IS-IS

285
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: B. OSPF
Explanation:
 OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is an interior gateway protocol used to
exchange routing information within a single autonomous system (AS). It is
commonly used in large enterprise networks.
Question 37:
Which of the following types of NAT (Network Address Translation) allows for
multiple devices on a local network to share a single public IP address?
A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. PAT (Port Address Translation)
D. NAT64
Answer: C. PAT (Port Address Translation)
Explanation:
 PAT, also known as NAT overload, allows multiple devices to share a
single public IP address by mapping multiple private IP addresses to
different ports of the public IP.
Question 38:
What does the icmp message type "Time Exceeded" indicate?
A. The TTL (Time To Live) field has expired
B. The destination host is unreachable
C. The packet was fragmented
D. The packet exceeded its maximum transmission unit (MTU)
Answer: A. The TTL (Time To Live) field has expired
Explanation:
 The Time Exceeded ICMP message is sent when a packet's TTL value
reaches zero, indicating that it has been forwarded through too many routers
and has not yet reached its destination.
Question 39:
Which of the following is the primary function of NAT64?
A. Translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
B. Translate IPv4 packets into IPv6 packets
C. Allow devices to have multiple IP addresses
D. Dynamically assign IP addresses to devices
Answer: A. Translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
Explanation:
 NAT64 is used to enable communication between IPv6-only and IPv4-only
networks by translating IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets and vice versa.
Question 40:

286
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following protocols is used to ensure reliable data transfer in

TCP/IP networks?
A. IP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C. TCP
Explanation:
 TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) ensures reliable data transfer by
establishing a connection and using acknowledgments and retransmissions
to guarantee data delivery.
Section 10: Troubleshooting and Network Analysis
Question 41:
Which of the following commands is used to view the current IP configuration
on a Windows device?
A. ipconfig
B. netstat
C. traceroute
D. nslookup
Answer: A. ipconfig
Explanation:
 The ipconfig command is used on Windows systems to display the current
network configuration, including the device's IP address, subnet mask, and
default gateway.
Question 42:
Which of the following tools is commonly used to trace the route that packets
take from the source device to the destination device across a network?
A. ping
B. traceroute
C. netstat
D. nslookup
Answer: B. traceroute
Explanation:
 Traceroute is used to trace the path packets take from a source device to a
destination across a network, showing the intermediate hops and their
response times.
Question 43:
What type of IPv4 address is used to reach all devices in a network?

287
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Unicast
B. Broadcast
C. Multicast
D. Anycast
Answer: B. Broadcast
Explanation:
 Broadcast addresses are used to send packets to all devices within a
network. The broadcast address in an IPv4 network is typically the last
address in the subnet.
Question 44:
Which of the following IPv4 address classes is used for multicast
communication?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: D. Class D
Explanation:
 Class D addresses are used for multicast communication. These addresses
range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.
Question 45:
Which of the following ICMP message types is used by a router to notify the
sender that the packet has exceeded its time limit?
A. Echo Request
B. Destination Unreachable
C. Time Exceeded
D. Redirect
Answer: C. Time Exceeded
Explanation:
 The Time Exceeded message is sent by a router when a packet's TTL (Time
to Live) field reaches zero, indicating that the packet has been discarded.
These additional questions cover advanced IP concepts, IPv6, network security,
NAT, and troubleshooting tools. Let me know if you need more practice or
additional explanations on any of the topics
Here are additional IP NGAT Exam questions with answers to help you continue
your preparation:
Section 11: IP Addressing and Subnetting
Question 46:
What is the network address for the subnet 192.168.10.128/25?

288
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. 192.168.10.128
B. 192.168.10.0
C. 192.168.10.64
D. 192.168.10.255
Answer: C. 192.168.10.64
Explanation:
 The subnet 192.168.10.128/25 has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128, which
means the network address for the subnet is 192.168.10.64. The /25 indicates
that the first 25 bits are used for the network portion of the address, and the
rest are for host addresses.
Question 47:
What is the broadcast address for the subnet 10.10.10.0/29?
A. 10.10.10.1
B. 10.10.10.7
C. 10.10.10.31
D. 10.10.10.0
Answer: B. 10.10.10.7
Explanation:
 A /29 subnet has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248, and it allows for 8 IP
addresses in total (6 usable). The broadcast address is the last address in the
subnet, which is 10.10.10.7.
Question 48:
If you have a subnet with the IP range 192.168.1.0/24, how many usable IP
addresses are available for hosts?
A. 254
B. 256
C. 128
D. 512
Answer: A. 254
Explanation:
 A /24 subnet has a total of 256 addresses. The first address is reserved as the
network address, and the last address is reserved as the broadcast address.
This leaves 254 usable IP addresses for hosts.
Question 49:
What is the subnet mask for the network 172.16.0.0/20?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.240.0
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.128

289
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: B. 255.255.240.0
Explanation:
 A /20 subnet mask corresponds to 255.255.240.0. This means that the first
20 bits are used for the network portion, and the remaining 12 bits are used
for hosts.
Question 50:
What is the network range of the subnet 192.168.50.64/26?
A. 192.168.50.64 - 192.168.50.127
B. 192.168.50.64 - 192.168.50.95
C. 192.168.50.64 - 192.168.50.63
D. 192.168.50.0 - 192.168.50.63
Answer: B. 192.168.50.64 - 192.168.50.95
Explanation:
 A /26 subnet has 64 IP addresses, with 62 usable for hosts. The network
range for 192.168.50.64/26 is from 192.168.50.64 to 192.168.50.95.
Section 12: IP Routing
Question 51:
Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Routing Table in a router?
A. To store DNS information
B. To store the MAC addresses of devices in the network
C. To store IP address mappings for network interfaces
D. To store routing paths to reach various networks
Answer: D. To store routing paths to reach various networks
Explanation:
 The Routing Table is used by routers to store information about how to
reach different networks. It contains the destination network, the next hop,
and other relevant routing information.
Question 52:
Which of the following routing protocols is considered an interior gateway
protocol (IGP)?
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. Both B and C
Answer: D. Both B and C
Explanation:
 OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) and EIGRP (Enhanced Interior
Gateway Routing Protocol) are both IGPs, used for routing within an
autonomous system (AS). BGP is an EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol),

290
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

used to exchange routing information between different autonomous

systems.
Question 53:
Which of the following is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
A. 90
B. 110
C. 120
D. 1
Answer: B. 110
Explanation:
 The default administrative distance for OSPF is 110. Administrative
distance is a measure of trustworthiness for a routing protocol; lower values
indicate higher trust.
Question 54:
What is the purpose of the Next Hop value in a routing table?
A. It defines the destination network address
B. It specifies the IP address of the next router to forward the packet to
C. It is used to calculate the shortest path to the destination
D. It identifies the subnet mask of the destination network
Answer: B. It specifies the IP address of the next router to forward the packet
to
Explanation:
 The Next Hop field in a routing table specifies the next router or destination
device to which the packet should be forwarded to reach its destination.
Question 55:
Which of the following protocols uses the Hops Count metric for path selection?
A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. RIP
D. BGP
Answer: C. RIP
Explanation:
 RIP (Routing Information Protocol) uses hop count as its metric, with a
maximum of 15 hops allowed before a route is considered unreachable.
Section 13: Network Security
Question 56:
Which protocol is used to securely manage network devices by encrypting both
the authentication and the data?

291
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. HTTP
D. FTP
Answer: B. SSH
Explanation:
 SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol used for securely accessing and managing
network devices. It encrypts both the authentication process and the data
transmitted over the network.
Question 57:
Which of the following is the primary function of a Firewall?
A. To route packets between different networks
B. To assign IP addresses to devices on the network
C. To monitor and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic
D. To ensure all devices have valid IP addresses
Answer: C. To monitor and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic
Explanation:
 A Firewall monitors and filters traffic based on predefined security rules,
either allowing or blocking traffic to prevent unauthorized access to or from
a network.
Question 58:
Which of the following is a common attack that targets IP networks by sending
an excessive amount of traffic to overwhelm the network's bandwidth or the target
device?
A. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS)
C. DNS Spoofing
D. Phishing
Answer: B. Denial-of-Service (DoS)
Explanation:
 A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack involves overwhelming a network or
device with excessive traffic, rendering it unresponsive to legitimate
requests.
Question 59:
Which of the following security protocols is used to protect data integrity and
authenticate communication in IPSec VPNs?
A. SSL/TLS
B. ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)

292
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. HTTP
D. TCP/IP
Answer: B. ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
Explanation:
 ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) is used in IPSec to provide data
integrity, authentication, and encryption for secure communication over a
network.
Question 60:
What does the IPSec protocol suite primarily provide for securing network
traffic?
A. Data integrity and confidentiality
B. Encryption of DNS requests
C. Routing information protection
D. Secure wireless communication
Answer: A. Data integrity and confidentiality
Explanation:
 IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) provides security services, such as data
integrity, authentication, and confidentiality, for IP packets traveling over
the internet or private networks.
These additional questions focus on IP subnetting, routing protocols, network
security, and IPv6. Let me know if you'd like to focus on specific topics or need
further explanations!
Here are additional IP NGAT Exam questions with answers to help you continue
your preparation:
Section 14: Advanced Routing and Switching
Question 61:
Which of the following routing protocols uses the Link-State method to
determine the best path for data transmission?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
Answer: B. OSPF
Explanation:
 OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) uses the Link-State method, where
routers exchange information about the state of their links to create a
complete map of the network topology, allowing them to determine the
shortest path.
Question 62:

293
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

What is the primary difference between Static Routing and Dynamic Routing?
A. Static routing automatically adjusts to network changes; dynamic routing
requires manual configuration.
B. Static routing requires manual configuration; dynamic routing automatically
adjusts to network changes.
C. Static routing is used only in small networks, while dynamic routing is used in
large networks.
D. Static routing and dynamic routing are essentially the same.
Answer: B. Static routing requires manual configuration; dynamic routing
automatically adjusts to network changes.
Explanation:
 Static routing requires manual configuration of the routes, whereas
dynamic routing uses algorithms to automatically adjust routes based on
network changes and topology.
Question 63:
What is the maximum hop count in RIP (Routing Information Protocol)?
A. 16
B. 15
C. 32
D. 256
Answer: B. 15
Explanation:
 RIP uses a hop count metric, with a maximum of 15 hops. If a route has 16
hops, it is considered unreachable.
Question 64:
In which layer of the OSI model does routing primarily occur?
A. Physical Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Transport Layer
Answer: C. Network Layer
Explanation:
 Routing occurs at the Network Layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model, where
devices such as routers forward packets based on their destination IP
address.
Question 65:
Which of the following commands is used to view the routing table on a Cisco
router?

294
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. show ip route
B. show ip config
C. show ip interface
D. show routes
Answer: A. show ip route
Explanation:
 The show ip route command displays the routing table on a Cisco router,
providing information about available routes and their metrics.
Section 15: IP Subnetting and Addressing
Question 66:
Given the network address 192.168.5.0/24, how many subnets can you create if
you borrow 2 bits from the host portion?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B. 4
Explanation:
 Borrowing 2 bits from the host portion of a /24 subnet creates 4 subnets (2^2
= 4). This results in a new subnet mask of /26, allowing 4 subnets.
Question 67:
What is the broadcast address for the subnet 192.168.1.128/26?
A. 192.168.1.127
B. 192.168.1.192
C. 192.168.1.255
D. 192.168.1.191
Answer: D. 192.168.1.191
Explanation:
 A /26 subnet mask divides the 192.168.1.128 network into four subnets. The
broadcast address for 192.168.1.128/26 is 192.168.1.191.
Question 68:
If an IP address belongs to the Class C network, which of the following would be
the default subnet mask?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.0.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: A. 255.255.255.0
Explanation:

295
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The default subnet mask for a Class C IP address is 255.255.255.0. This

allows for 256 total addresses (254 usable).
Question 69:
How many usable IP addresses can be assigned to hosts in a subnet with the
network 10.10.0.0/22?
A. 1022
B. 1024
C. 1023
D. 2046
Answer: 1022
Explanation:
 A /22 subnet has a total of 1024 addresses, but 2 are reserved (network
address and broadcast address), leaving 1022 usable addresses for hosts.
Question 70:
Which of the following IP address classes is used for multicast communication?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: D. Class D
Explanation:
 Class D addresses, ranging from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, are reserved
for multicast communication.
Section 16: IPv6 and Transition Mechanisms
Question 71:
What is the purpose of NAT64 in an IPv6 network?
A. It allows IPv4-only devices to communicate with IPv6-only devices.
B. It allows IPv6-only devices to communicate with IPv4-only devices.
C. It is used to assign IPv6 addresses to devices.
D. It converts IPv6 multicast addresses to IPv4 multicast addresses.
Answer: B. It allows IPv6-only devices to communicate with IPv4-only
devices.
Explanation:
 NAT64 enables communication between IPv6-only devices and IPv4-only
devices by translating IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.
Question 72:
Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
B. 192.168.1.1

296
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. ::192.168.1.1
D. 2001:xyz:abcd::
Answer: A. 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
Explanation:
 The address 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334 is a valid IPv6
address. It follows the correct format of eight groups of four hexadecimal
digits.
Question 73:
Which of the following is the prefix for IPv6 link-local addresses?
A. fe80::/10
B. 2001::/32
C. ff00::/8
D. ::1
Answer: A. fe80::/10
Explanation:
 IPv6 link-local addresses are in the range fe80::/10. These addresses are
used for communication within the local network segment and are not routed
outside of it.
Question 74:
In IPv6, which of the following is the purpose of the Global Unicast Address
(GUA)?
A. It is used for communication within the local network.
B. It is used for communication across different IPv6 networks on the internet.
C. It is used for multicast communication.
D. It is used to identify private networks.
Answer: B. It is used for communication across different IPv6 networks on
the internet.
Explanation:
 Global Unicast Addresses (GUA) are routable addresses that are used for
communication across the IPv6 internet.
Question 75:
What does the IPv6 prefix length /64 indicate?
A. 64 bits for the host portion and 64 bits for the network portion
B. 64 bits for the network portion and 64 bits for the host portion
C. 128 bits for the network portion
D. 128 bits for the host portion
Answer: B. 64 bits for the network portion and 64 bits for the host portion
Explanation:

297
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 A /64 prefix means that the first 64 bits are used for the network portion, and
the remaining 64 bits are used for the host portion.
These advanced questions focus on routing, subnetting, IPv6, and security
protocols. Let me know if you need further clarification on any of these topics!
HTML NGAT Exam with answers
Here are some HTML NGAT Exam questions with answers to help you prepare:
Section 1: Basic HTML Tags
Question 1:
Which HTML tag is used to define the largest heading?
A. <h1>
B. <h6>
C. <head>
D. <title>
Answer: A. <h1>
Explanation:
 The <h1> tag is used to define the largest heading in HTML. It is followed
by <h2>, <h3>, etc., where <h6> defines the smallest heading.
Question 2:
What is the purpose of the <meta> tag in HTML?
A. To create a table
B. To specify meta information about the document
C. To insert images
D. To create links to external CSS files
Answer: B. To specify meta information about the document
Explanation:
 The <meta> tag is used to provide metadata about the HTML document,
such as character encoding, author, description, and keywords.
Question 3:
Which HTML tag is used to create a hyperlink?
A. <a>
B. <link>
C. <href>
D. <anchor>
Answer: A. <a>
Explanation:
 The <a> tag is used to create hyperlinks in HTML. The href attribute
specifies the URL.
Question 4:
Which of the following HTML tags is used to display an image?

298
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. <image>
B. <src>
C. <img>
D. <picture>
Answer: C. <img>
Explanation:
 The <img> tag is used to display images. The src attribute defines the source
of the image.
Question 5:
What is the correct HTML tag for the bold text?
A. <strong>
B. <b>
C. <bold>
D. <em>
Answer: B. <b>
Explanation:
 The <b> tag is used to make text bold in HTML. The <strong> tag is used to
give text strong emphasis (often appearing bold).
Section 2: HTML Forms
Question 6:
Which HTML element is used to define an input field in a form?
A. <input>
B. <button>
C. <form>
D. <textarea>
Answer: A. <input>
Explanation:
 The <input> element is used to create input fields in forms. It can be used
with various types like text, password, checkbox, etc.
Question 7:
Which HTML tag is used to define a form?
A. <form>
B. <input>
C. <fieldset>
D. <button>
Answer: A. <form>
Explanation:
 The <form> tag is used to define an HTML form, which allows users to
input data and submit it to a server.

299
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 8:
What is the purpose of the action attribute in the <form> tag?
A. To specify the method to use when sending form data
B. To specify where to send the form data
C. To create input fields in the form
D. To define the title of the form
Answer: B. To specify where to send the form data
Explanation:
 The action attribute in the <form> tag defines the URL where the form data
will be sent upon submission.
Question 9:
Which of the following HTML elements is used to create a dropdown menu in a
form?
A. <select>
B. <option>
C. <input>
D. <menu>
Answer: A. <select>
Explanation:
 The <select> tag is used to create a dropdown menu, while the <option> tag
is used to define the individual options inside the dropdown.
Question 10:
Which HTML tag is used to define a textarea for user input?
A. <input>
B. <text>
C. <textarea>
D. <form>
Answer: C. <textarea>
Explanation:
 The <textarea> tag is used to define a multi-line text input field for user
input in forms.
Section 3: HTML Lists and Tables
Question 11:
Which HTML tag is used to define an unordered list?
A. <ul>
B. <ol>
C. <li>
D. <list>
Answer: A. <ul>

300
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 The <ul> tag is used to create an unordered list, where each item is marked
with a bullet point. The <ol> tag is used for an ordered (numbered) list.
Question 12:
Which HTML element is used to define a table row?
A. <tr>
B. <td>
C. <table>
D. <th>
Answer: A. <tr>
Explanation:
 The <tr> tag is used to define a row in a table. The <td> tag is used for table
data (cells), and <th> is used for table headers.
Question 13:
Which HTML tag is used to define a table header?
A. <th>
B. <td>
C. <tr>
D. <thead>
Answer: A. <th>
Explanation:
 The <th> tag is used to define a header cell in a table. It is typically
displayed in bold and centered.
Question 14:
What is the correct HTML tag to define bold and centered text?
A. <strong>
B. <center>
C. <b>
D. <h1>
Answer: D. <h1>
Explanation:
 The <h1> tag defines the largest heading, which is typically bold and
centered (depending on the browser's default styles). If you're looking for
both bold and centered explicitly, you can use CSS to style <b> or <strong>
tags.
Section 4: HTML Attributes and Links
Question 15:
Which of the following is the correct HTML tag to open a link in a new tab?

301
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. <a href="url" target="_blank">

B. <a href="url" target="new">
C. <link href="url" target="_blank">
D. <a href="url" new="_blank">
Answer: A. <a href="url" target="_blank">
Explanation:
 The target="_blank" attribute in the <a> tag specifies that the linked
document will open in a new tab or window.
Question 16:
Which of the following is the correct way to link an external CSS file in HTML?
A. <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="styles.css">
B. <css src="styles.css">
C. <style src="styles.css">
D. <link rel="stylesheet" href="styles.css">
Answer: A. <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="styles.css">
Explanation:
 The correct way to link an external CSS file is by using the <link> tag with
rel="stylesheet" and href pointing to the CSS file.
Question 17:
What does the alt attribute in the <img> tag define?
A. The link of the image
B. The text description for an image when it is not found or displayed
C. The size of the image
D. The source of the image
Answer: B. The text description for an image when it is not found or displayed
Explanation:
 The alt attribute provides an alternative text description of an image, which
is displayed when the image cannot be loaded or if the user is using a screen
reader.
Question 18:
Which HTML tag is used to display line breaks in text?
A. <br>
B. <break>
C. <lb>
D. <hr>
Answer: A. <br>
Explanation:
 The <br> tag is used to insert a line break in text. It is a self-closing tag and
does not require a closing tag.

302
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 19:
Which HTML tag is used to create a horizontal line?
A. <line>
B. <hr>
C. <hline>
D. <divider>
Answer: B. <hr>
Explanation:
 The <hr> tag creates a horizontal line, typically used to separate sections of
content.
Section 5: HTML Semantic Elements
Question 20:
Which HTML tag is used to define the navigation links section of a webpage?
A. <footer>
B. <header>
C. <nav>
D. <aside>
Answer: C. <nav>
Explanation:
 The <nav> tag is used to define a section of a webpage dedicated to
navigation links.
These are some HTML NGAT Exam questions designed to test your knowledge
of basic and advanced HTML concepts. Let me know if you need further
clarification or more questions!
Here are more HTML NGAT Exam questions with answers to continue your
preparation:
Section 6: HTML Forms and Input Elements
Question 21:
Which HTML tag is used to create a submit button in a form?
A. <button>
B. <submit>
C. <input type="submit">
D. <formbutton>
Answer: C. <input type="submit">
Explanation:
 The <input type="submit"> tag is used to create a submit button in a form.
When clicked, it submits the form data to the server.
Question 22:
Which HTML attribute is used to specify the action for a form submission?

303
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. method
B. action
C. submit
D. type
Answer: B. action
Explanation:
 The action attribute in the <form> tag specifies the URL to which the form
data should be sent for processing when the form is submitted.
Question 23:
Which of the following is the correct HTML syntax for creating a checkbox in a
form?
A. <input type="checkbox">
B. <checkbox>
C. <input type="check">
D. <checkbox type="checkbox">
Answer: A. <input type="checkbox">
Explanation:
 The <input type="checkbox"> tag is used to create a checkbox input field in
a form.
Question 24:
Which HTML element is used to define a label for an input element?
A. <input>
B. <label>
C. <form>
D. <field>
Answer: B. <label>
Explanation:
 The <label> tag is used to define a label for an input element. It provides a
user-friendly description of the input field.
Question 25:
What is the correct HTML tag to create a radio button?
A. <radio>
B. <input type="radio">
C. <radio-button>
D. <input radio="true">
Answer: B. <input type="radio">
Explanation:
 The <input type="radio"> tag is used to create a radio button. When multiple
radio buttons share the same name, only one can be selected at a time.

304
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Section 7: HTML Document Structure

Question 26:
Which of the following is the correct HTML document structure?
A. <html><head><body></body></html>
B. <html><head><body></html></body>
C. <html><head></head><body></body></html>
D. <html><body><head></head></html>
Answer: C. <html><head></head><body></body></html>
Explanation:
 The correct structure for an HTML document starts with the <html> tag,
followed by <head> (for metadata and links) and <body> (for the page
content).
Question 27:
Which HTML tag is used to define the title of a webpage?
A. <title>
B. <head>
C. <meta>
D. <name>
Answer: A. <title>
Explanation:
 The <title> tag defines the title of the webpage, which appears in the
browser’s title bar or tab.
Question 28:
Which HTML tag is used to define the header section of a webpage?
A. <head>
B. <header>
C. <h1>
D. <title>
Answer: B. <header>
Explanation:
 The <header> tag is used to define the header section of a webpage, which
typically contains navigation links, logo, and introductory content.
Question 29:
Which of the following HTML tags is used to define a footer section of a
webpage?
A. <footer>
B. <footersection>
C. <bottom>
D. <foot>

305
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: A. <footer>
Explanation:
 The <footer> tag defines the footer section of a webpage, which typically
contains information such as copyright, links, or contact info.
Question 30:
What does the <main> tag represent in an HTML document?
A. It represents the primary content of the document.
B. It defines a sidebar section of the page.
C. It defines the footer section of the page.
D. It contains meta information about the page.
Answer: A. It represents the primary content of the document.
Explanation:
 The <main> tag is used to wrap the main content of a webpage. This content
is unique to the page and excludes elements like headers, footers, or
navigation.
Section 8: HTML Media Elements
Question 31:
Which HTML tag is used to embed audio content in a webpage?
A. <media>
B. <audio>
C. <sound>
D. <music>
Answer: B. <audio>
Explanation:
 The <audio> tag is used to embed audio content in a webpage. It can include
the controls attribute to allow users to play, pause, and adjust the volume.
Question 32:
Which HTML element is used to embed a video in a webpage?
A. <video>
B. <media>
C. <movie>
D. <vid>
Answer: A. <video>
Explanation:
 The <video> tag is used to embed video content in an HTML document. It
allows users to play video directly in the browser.
Question 33:
Which of the following is the correct way to embed a YouTube video using the
<iframe> tag?

306
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. <iframe src="https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=videoid"></iframe>
B. <iframe link="https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=videoid"></iframe>
C. <iframe video="https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=videoid"></iframe>
D. <embed src="https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=videoid"></embed>
Answer: A. <iframe
src="https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=videoid"></iframe>
Explanation:
 To embed a YouTube video, you can use the <iframe> tag with the correct
src URL pointing to the YouTube video.
Section 9: HTML Attributes and Styling
Question 34:
Which HTML tag is used to style text color directly?
A. <style>
B. <font>
C. <color>
D. <text>
Answer: B. <font>
Explanation:
 The <font> tag was historically used to define text color, though it is now
deprecated in favor of using CSS styles.
Question 35:
Which of the following is the correct HTML tag for adding background color to a
webpage?
A. <bgcolor>
B. <style>
C. <body style="background-color: color;">
D. <background>
Answer: C. <body style="background-color: color;">
Explanation:
 To change the background color of a webpage, the style attribute is used
within the <body> tag. CSS should be used to define the background color.
Question 36:
Which HTML tag is used to create a line break in a block of text?
A. <br>
B. <break>
C. <line>
D. <lb>
Answer: A. <br>
Explanation:

307
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The <br> tag creates a line break, making the text appear on the next line.
Question 37:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for linking to an external CSS file?
A. <link rel="stylesheet" href="styles.css">
B. <css src="styles.css">
C. <style href="styles.css">
D. <stylesheet link="styles.css">
Answer: A. <link rel="stylesheet" href="styles.css">
Explanation:
 The <link> tag with rel="stylesheet" and href points to the external CSS file.
These HTML NGAT Exam questions cover a wide range of topics from basic
tags to forms, media, and styling in HTML. Let me know if you'd like more
questions or further explanation!
Here are additional HTML NGAT Exam questions with answers to continue your
preparation:
Section 10: Advanced HTML Elements
Question 38:
Which HTML tag is used to define a definition list?
A. <dl>
B. <ol>
C. <ul>
D. <list>
Answer: A. <dl>
Explanation:
 The <dl> tag is used to define a definition list. The <dt> tag defines a term
in the list, and the <dd> tag defines the definition of that term.
Question 39:
Which HTML tag is used to define a table heading?
A. <th>
B. <td>
C. <tr>
D. <thead>
Answer: A. <th>
Explanation:
 The <th> tag is used to define a table heading. Text within the <th> tag is
bold and centered by default.
Question 40:
Which HTML tag is used to define the rows in a table?

308
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. <row>
B. <tr>
C. <th>
D. <td>
Answer: B. <tr>
Explanation:
 The <tr> tag is used to define a row in a table. It contains <td> elements
(table data cells).
Question 41:
What does the colspan attribute do in a table?
A. It defines the number of rows a cell should span.
B. It defines the width of the column.
C. It defines the number of columns a cell should span.
D. It creates a table column.
Answer: C. It defines the number of columns a cell should span.
Explanation:
 The colspan attribute is used in the <td> or <th> tags to specify how many
columns a cell should span across in a table.
Question 42:
Which of the following elements can be used to group form elements in HTML?
A. <group>
B. <fieldset>
C. <formgroup>
D. <inputgroup>
Answer: B. <fieldset>
Explanation:
 The <fieldset> element is used to group related elements in a form, and it
often contains a <legend> tag to describe the group.
Section 11: HTML Accessibility
Question 43:
What is the purpose of the alt attribute for images in HTML?
A. To define the image source
B. To provide alternative text for the image for accessibility
C. To add a hyperlink to the image
D. To define the image dimensions
Answer: B. To provide alternative text for the image for accessibility
Explanation:
 The alt attribute is used to provide alternative text that describes an image,
which is useful for screen readers and when the image cannot be loaded.

309
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 44:
Which HTML element should be used to represent a navigation menu?
A. <nav>
B. <menu>
C. <navigation>
D. <ul>
Answer: A. <nav>
Explanation:
 The <nav> tag is used to define a section of the page dedicated to navigation
links.
Question 45:
Which attribute should be added to a form element to improve accessibility and
allow for keyboard focus?
A. focus
B. tabindex
C. accesskey
D. tabkey
Answer: B. tabindex
Explanation:
 The tabindex attribute specifies the tab order of elements in a form, allowing
users to navigate through form fields using the keyboard.
Question 46:
Which tag is used to embed external content like advertisements or other
resources into a page?
A. <embed>
B. <iframe>
C. <object>
D. <embedresource>
Answer: B. <iframe>
Explanation:
 The <iframe> tag is used to embed external content, such as a webpage or
advertisement, within a webpage.
Section 12: HTML Forms Advanced Features
Question 47:
Which HTML input type is used to create a password field?
A. <input type="password">
B. <input type="text">
C. <input type="secure">
D. <input type="hidden">

310
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: A. <input type="password">

Explanation:
 The <input type="password"> creates a password field where the characters
typed by the user are hidden.
Question 48:
Which of the following HTML tags is used to create a file upload field in a form?
A. <input type="upload">
B. <input type="file">
C. <input type="document">
D. <upload>
Answer: B. <input type="file">
Explanation:
 The <input type="file"> tag is used to create a file input field, allowing users
to select files for uploading.
Question 49:
What does the required attribute do in a form input field?
A. It makes the input field optional.
B. It specifies the input field’s default value.
C. It specifies the maximum number of characters allowed.
D. It makes the input field mandatory for form submission.
Answer: D. It makes the input field mandatory for form submission.
Explanation:
 The required attribute ensures that the form cannot be submitted unless the
field is filled in by the user.
Question 50:
What is the purpose of the method attribute in the <form> tag?
A. To specify the action for the form submission
B. To specify how the form data is submitted
C. To validate the form
D. To define the form layout
Answer: B. To specify how the form data is submitted
Explanation:
 The method attribute specifies how the form data will be sent to the server.
The most common methods are GET (for appending data to the URL) and
POST (for sending data in the request body).
Section 13: HTML Semantic Tags
Question 51:
What is the purpose of the <aside> tag in HTML?

311
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. To define the main content of the page

B. To define supplementary content that is related but not central to the page
C. To create a navigation menu
D. To define the footer of the page
Answer: B. To define supplementary content that is related but not central to
the page
Explanation:
 The <aside> tag is used for content that is tangentially related to the content
around it, such as sidebars or related links.
Question 52:
Which HTML tag is used to display a block of code?
A. <code>
B. <pre>
C. <blockquote>
D. <sample>
Answer: B. <pre>
Explanation:
 The <pre> tag is used to display preformatted text, preserving whitespace
and formatting. It’s often used for displaying code snippets.
Question 53:
Which HTML element is used to define a section in the document?
A. <section>
B. <div>
C. <article>
D. <header>
Answer: A. <section>
Explanation:
 The <section> tag defines a thematic grouping of content, which can be an
individual section of a webpage, like an article or part of a blog.
Section 14: HTML Miscellaneous
Question 54:
Which of the following is the correct way to specify a class attribute in HTML?
A. <element class="classname">
B. <element id="classname">
C. <element name="classname">
D. <element class='classname'>
Answer: A. <element class="classname">
Explanation:

312
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The class attribute is used to assign a class name to an HTML element,

which can then be used to apply CSS styles or target the element with
JavaScript.
Question 55:
What does the href attribute define in the <a> tag?
A. The location to which the link will navigate
B. The text of the link
C. The color of the link
D. The border of the link
Answer: A. The location to which the link will navigate
Explanation:
 The href attribute in the <a> tag specifies the URL or location that the link
will point to.
These are more HTML NGAT Exam questions that cover a broad spectrum of
HTML concepts. Let me know if you'd like further clarification or more questions!
Fundamental of Programming NGAT Exam with answers
Here are some Fundamentals of Programming NGAT Exam questions with
answers to help with your preparation:
Section 1: Basic Concepts in Programming
Question 1:
Which of the following is the correct definition of a variable in programming?
A. A variable is a container that holds a value.
B. A variable is a fixed value in a program.
C. A variable is used to perform mathematical operations.
D. A variable is a type of function in a program.
Answer: A. A variable is a container that holds a value.
Explanation:
 A variable is a symbolic name for a value in a program that can be changed
during execution.
Question 2:
What is the purpose of a loop in programming?
A. To store data for later use
B. To execute a block of code repeatedly
C. To end the program
D. To define variables
Answer: B. To execute a block of code repeatedly
Explanation:
 A loop is used to repeat a block of code multiple times, either a fixed
number of times or while a certain condition is true.

313
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Question 3:
Which of the following is a data type in programming?
A. int
B. while
C. for
D. return
Answer: A. int
Explanation:
 int is a data type used to represent integer values. Other data types include
float, char, string, etc.
Question 4:
What does the return statement do in a function?
A. Ends the program
B. Returns a value to the function caller
C. Loops the function
D. Defines the function’s parameters
Answer: B. Returns a value to the function caller
Explanation:
 The return statement is used to send a result from a function back to where it
was called, often used to provide the function's output.
Question 5:
Which of the following is an example of a conditional statement in
programming?
A. if
B. while
C. int
D. for
Answer: A. if
Explanation:
 An if statement allows a program to make decisions by executing different
blocks of code based on a condition being true or false.
Section 2: Functions and Procedures
Question 6:
What is a function in programming?
A. A block of code that runs when invoked and performs a specific task.
B. A type of loop that iterates over data.
C. A way to store a value temporarily.
D. A type of variable that holds multiple values.

314
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Answer: A. A block of code that runs when invoked and performs a specific
task.
Explanation:
 A function is a block of reusable code that performs a specific task when
called.
Question 7:
Which of the following is the correct way to define a function in most
programming languages?
A. function add(x, y) { return x + y; }
B. add(x, y) = x + y;
C. def add(x, y) { return x + y; }
D. function add(x, y): x + y
Answer: A. function add(x, y) { return x + y; }
Explanation:
 In many programming languages (e.g., JavaScript), the function definition
follows the syntax function functionName(parameters) { body }.
Question 8:
What is the difference between functions and procedures?
A. Functions return a value, while procedures do not.
B. Functions can only accept parameters, while procedures cannot.
C. Procedures are faster than functions.
D. There is no difference between functions and procedures.
Answer: A. Functions return a value, while procedures do not.
Explanation:
 A function returns a value to the caller, while a procedure does not return
any value; it simply performs an operation.
Section 3: Algorithms and Problem Solving
Question 9:
Which of the following is an example of a searching algorithm?
A. Bubble Sort
B. Linear Search
C. Quick Sort
D. Merge Sort
Answer: B. Linear Search
Explanation:
 Linear Search is a searching algorithm that checks each element in a list to
find a target value.
Question 10:
Which of the following is a sorting algorithm?

315
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. Merge Sort
B. Binary Search
C. Depth-First Search
D. Breadth-First Search
Answer: A. Merge Sort
Explanation:
 Merge Sort is a sorting algorithm that divides the list into smaller sub-lists
and merges them in sorted order.
Question 11:
What is the time complexity of the Linear Search algorithm?
A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n^2)
D. O(1)
Answer: A. O(n)
Explanation:
 Linear Search has a time complexity of O(n), as it checks each element in
the list one by one until the target is found.
Question 12:
Which of the following is the correct flowchart symbol for representing a decision
or condition?
A. Rectangle
B. Parallelogram
C. Diamond
D. Circle
Answer: C. Diamond
Explanation:
 A diamond shape in a flowchart is used to represent decision points, where
the program splits into different paths based on a condition.
Section 4: Object-Oriented Programming (OOP)
Question 13:
Which of the following is a key concept in Object-Oriented Programming?
A. Functions
B. Classes and Objects
C. Variables
D. Arrays
Answer: B. Classes and Objects
Explanation:

316
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Object-Oriented Programming is based on the concept of creating classes

that represent objects with properties and methods.
Question 14:
What is encapsulation in Object-Oriented Programming?
A. Hiding the internal state of an object and providing access through methods.
B. Inheriting properties and methods from another class.
C. Organizing code into classes and functions.
D. The process of creating multiple objects from a single class.
Answer: A. Hiding the internal state of an object and providing access
through methods.
Explanation:
 Encapsulation is the concept of restricting direct access to some of an
object's components and providing access only through specified methods.
Question 15:
What is the purpose of inheritance in Object-Oriented Programming?
A. To avoid repetition by allowing a new class to take properties from an existing
class.
B. To allow a class to be converted into another class.
C. To hide the implementation details of a class.
D. To group related classes together.
Answer: A. To avoid repetition by allowing a new class to take properties
from an existing class.
Explanation:
 Inheritance allows a new class to inherit properties and methods from an
existing class, reducing redundancy and enhancing code reuse.
Section 5: Debugging and Error Handling
Question 16:
What is a syntax error?
A. An error that occurs during runtime due to invalid operations.
B. An error due to incorrect logic in the program.
C. An error caused by incorrect use of the programming language’s syntax.
D. An error that occurs when there is not enough memory to run the program.
Answer: C. An error caused by incorrect use of the programming language’s
syntax.
Explanation:
 A syntax error occurs when the code violates the rules or syntax of the
programming language, causing it to fail before execution.
Question 17:
Which of the following is used to handle errors in most programming languages?

317
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. throw
B. catch
C. try
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 In many programming languages, try is used to start a block of code that
might throw an error, and catch is used to handle the error. throw is used to
manually raise an error.
Question 18:
What is the purpose of debugging in programming?
A. To check the program’s syntax
B. To test the program for performance issues
C. To find and fix errors in the program
D. To enhance the program's user interface
Answer: C. To find and fix errors in the program
Explanation:
 Debugging is the process of identifying and fixing errors (bugs) in the code
to ensure the program works as expected.
These Fundamentals of Programming NGAT Exam questions provide a wide
range of topics, from basic concepts to error handling. Let me know if you need
more information or further clarification!
Here are more Fundamentals of Programming NGAT Exam questions with
answers for your preparation:
Section 6: Programming Concepts and Constructs
Question 19:
Which of the following data structures is used to store elements in a LIFO (Last
In, First Out) order?
A. Queue
B. Stack
C. Linked List
D. Array
Answer: B. Stack
Explanation:
 A stack is a data structure that follows the LIFO principle, meaning that the
last element added is the first one to be removed.
Question 20:
Which of the following is an example of a primitive data type?

318
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. String
B. List
C. Integer
D. Object
Answer: C. Integer
Explanation:
 Primitive data types represent basic values and include types like int, float,
char, and boolean. In contrast, String and List are considered non-primitive
or reference types.
Question 21:
Which keyword is used to define a constant in many programming languages like
C and Java?
A. constant
B. const
C. final
D. immutable
Answer: B. const
Explanation:
 In languages like C, C++, and JavaScript, const is used to define a variable
that cannot be reassigned once initialized. In Java, final is also used to define
constants.
Question 22:
What is the purpose of the break statement in a loop?
A. To skip the current iteration of the loop.
B. To end the loop entirely and exit from it.
C. To continue the loop from the next iteration.
D. To pause the loop for a given amount of time.
Answer: B. To end the loop entirely and exit from it.
Explanation:
 The break statement is used to terminate the loop or switch statement
prematurely, regardless of the condition.
Question 23:
Which of the following control structures is used to perform different actions
based on different conditions?
A. if...else
B. while
C. for
D. do...while
Answer: A. if...else

319
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 The if...else control structure allows you to execute different blocks of code
based on whether a condition is true or false.
Section 7: Algorithms and Problem Solving
Question 24:
What is the time complexity of the Bubble Sort algorithm?
A. O(n)
B. O(n log n)
C. O(n^2)
D. O(log n)
Answer: C. O(n^2)
Explanation:
 Bubble Sort has a time complexity of O(n^2) because it repeatedly
compares adjacent elements and swaps them if they are in the wrong order,
leading to nested loops.
Question 25:
Which of the following algorithms is known for its divide and conquer approach?
A. Selection Sort
B. Merge Sort
C. Linear Search
D. Bubble Sort
Answer: B. Merge Sort
Explanation:
 Merge Sort is a divide and conquer algorithm, which splits the data into
smaller parts, sorts them, and then merges them back together.
Question 26:
What is the time complexity of Binary Search?
A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n log n)
D. O(1)
Answer: B. O(log n)
Explanation:
 Binary Search works by repeatedly dividing the search space in half, so its
time complexity is O(log n), making it much faster than linear search for
large datasets.
Section 8: Object-Oriented Programming (OOP)
Question 27:

320
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following is not a feature of Object-Oriented Programming

(OOP)?
A. Abstraction
B. Encapsulation
C. Inheritance
D. Global variables
Answer: D. Global variables
Explanation:
 OOP focuses on the principles of Abstraction, Encapsulation,
Inheritance, and Polymorphism, but Global variables are generally
avoided in OOP because they can create dependencies and reduce
modularity.
Question 28:
What is polymorphism in Object-Oriented Programming?
A. A mechanism for hiding the implementation details of an object.
B. A way to allow objects of different classes to respond to the same method call.
C. A method to create a new class based on an existing one.
D. The ability to group related classes together.
Answer: B. A way to allow objects of different classes to respond to the same
method call.
Explanation:
 Polymorphism allows methods to have the same name but behave
differently based on the object calling them, enabling flexibility in how
methods are executed.
Question 29:
In OOP, what is method overloading?
A. Defining multiple methods with the same name but different parameter types.
B. Creating multiple methods with the same name and parameters in different
classes.
C. Changing the implementation of a method in the same class.
D. Assigning different types of values to a method.
Answer: A. Defining multiple methods with the same name but different
parameter types.
Explanation:
 Method overloading allows a class to have multiple methods with the same
name, but with different parameters, enabling flexibility in method calls.
Section 9: Error Handling and Debugging
Question 30:
What is the purpose of the try-catch block in programming?

321
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. To define variables within a scope.

B. To handle exceptions and errors that occur during program execution.
C. To repeat code until a condition is met.
D. To call functions within a program.
Answer: B. To handle exceptions and errors that occur during program
execution.
Explanation:
 The try-catch block is used to handle exceptions in programming. The code
in the try block is executed, and if an error occurs, the catch block is used to
handle the exception.
Question 31:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for handling exceptions in Java?
A. try { code } catch (Exception e) { handleException() }
B. try { code } except { handleException() }
C. try { code } catch Exception as e { handleException() }
D. try { code } onError { handleException() }
Answer: A. try { code } catch (Exception e) { handleException() }
Explanation:
 In Java, the correct syntax for exception handling is using try and catch
blocks, where the exception is caught and handled appropriately.
Question 32:
What is the purpose of the assert statement in some programming languages?
A. To check the validity of a condition during program execution.
B. To define a constant value.
C. To terminate the program.
D. To repeat a block of code.
Answer: A. To check the validity of a condition during program execution.
Explanation:
 The assert statement is used to verify that a condition is true during
execution. If the condition is false, an error is raised.
Section 10: Advanced Concepts
Question 33:
What does the recursion technique in programming refer to?
A. A method that calls itself in order to solve a problem.
B. A technique to handle large data sets.
C. A way of optimizing code by removing repeated logic.
D. A method of sorting data using iterations.
Answer: A. A method that calls itself in order to solve a problem.
Explanation:

322
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Recursion occurs when a function calls itself to solve a problem in smaller

parts. It is often used in algorithms like factorial calculation, tree
traversal, and divide and conquer algorithms.
Question 34:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a well-designed algorithm?
A. Efficiency
B. Correctness
C. Simplicity
D. Redundancy
Answer: D. Redundancy
Explanation:
 A well-designed algorithm should be efficient, correct, and simple.
Redundancy in an algorithm can lead to inefficiency and unnecessary
complexity.
These additional Fundamentals of Programming NGAT Exam questions cover
various topics such as data structures, algorithms, OOP principles, and error
handling. Let me know if you'd like further elaboration on any topic!
Here are more Fundamentals of Programming NGAT Exam questions with
answers to help you prepare even further:
Section 11: Memory Management and Optimization
Question 35:
What is the purpose of garbage collection in programming languages like Java?
A. To manually manage memory allocation
B. To recycle unused memory automatically
C. To optimize the performance of the program
D. To remove unused variables from code
Answer: B. To recycle unused memory automatically
Explanation:
 Garbage collection is an automatic memory management process that frees
memory occupied by objects that are no longer in use, thus preventing
memory leaks.
Question 36:
Which of the following refers to a memory leak in programming?
A. Memory used by active variables and objects
B. Unused memory that the program fails to release
C. Memory shared between multiple processes
D. Memory allocated dynamically
Answer: B. Unused memory that the program fails to release
Explanation:

323
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 A memory leak occurs when a program allocates memory but fails to

deallocate it, leading to wasted memory that is not reclaimed.
Question 37:
What is dynamic memory allocation in C or C++?
A. Allocating memory at compile-time
B. Allocating memory during runtime
C. Automatically freeing memory
D. Sharing memory across multiple functions
Answer: B. Allocating memory during runtime
Explanation:
 Dynamic memory allocation allows memory to be allocated at runtime
using functions like malloc and free, enabling programs to handle varying
amounts of memory based on runtime needs.
Question 38:
What is the stack used for in memory management?
A. To store global variables
B. To manage local function calls and variables
C. To allocate memory for arrays
D. To hold data being transferred between processes
Answer: B. To manage local function calls and variables
Explanation:
 The stack is used to store local variables and function calls. It operates on
a LIFO (Last In, First Out) principle and is crucial for managing function
calls and their corresponding local data.
Section 12: Algorithmic Complexity
Question 39:
Which of the following is the time complexity of an O(n log n) algorithm?
A. Linear time complexity
B. Quadratic time complexity
C. Logarithmic time complexity
D. Linearithmic time complexity
Answer: D. Linearithmic time complexity
Explanation:
 O(n log n) is called linearithmic time complexity. It grows faster than
linear time (O(n)) but slower than quadratic time (O(n^2)), and is
commonly found in efficient sorting algorithms like Merge Sort and Quick
Sort.
Question 40:
What is the time complexity of the insertion sort algorithm in the worst case?

324
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. O(n)
B. O(n log n)
C. O(n^2)
D. O(log n)
Answer: C. O(n^2)
Explanation:
 Insertion Sort has a O(n^2) time complexity in the worst case, which
occurs when the input is sorted in reverse order. It compares and shifts
elements one by one.
Question 41:
What is the space complexity of the Merge Sort algorithm?
A. O(1)
B. O(n)
C. O(n log n)
D. O(log n)
Answer: B. O(n)
Explanation:
 Merge Sort has a space complexity of O(n) because it requires extra space
to store temporary subarrays during the merging process.
Section 13: Input/Output Operations
Question 42:
Which function is used in C to read a line of text from standard input?
A. scanf()
B. fscanf()
C. gets()
D. getline()
Answer: C. gets()
Explanation:
 In C, the gets() function is used to read a line of text from the standard input.
However, it should be avoided due to potential buffer overflow issues, and
fgets() is a safer alternative.
Question 43:
In Java, which class is used to read data from the console?
A. Scanner
B. BufferedReader
C. FileReader
D. Console
Answer: A. Scanner
Explanation:

325
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 In Java, the Scanner class is used to read input from various sources,
including the console, with methods like nextLine() for strings and nextInt()
for integers.
Question 44:
What is the function of file handling in programming?
A. To sort data stored in memory
B. To allow a program to read, write, and manipulate files
C. To manage the execution of multiple threads
D. To perform memory allocation for variables
Answer: B. To allow a program to read, write, and manipulate files
Explanation:
 File handling refers to the functionality that allows programs to open, read,
write, and modify files stored on the disk, enabling persistent data storage.
Section 14: Advanced Concepts
Question 45:
What is the concept of multithreading in programming?
A. Running multiple programs simultaneously
B. Running multiple threads (tasks) within the same program
C. Handling multiple user inputs at the same time
D. Managing memory usage for multiple programs
Answer: B. Running multiple threads (tasks) within the same program
Explanation:
 Multithreading allows multiple threads (small units of a program) to
execute simultaneously, improving performance, especially in programs that
require concurrent tasks like network communication or GUI interactions.
Question 46:
Which of the following design patterns is used to create a single instance of a
class?
A. Factory
B. Singleton
C. Observer
D. Decorator
Answer: B. Singleton
Explanation:
 The Singleton design pattern ensures that only one instance of a class is
created and provides a global point of access to that instance.
Question 47:
Which of the following design principles encourages keeping the software loosely
coupled and easily extendable?

326
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. DRY (Don't Repeat Yourself)

B. SOLID
C. KISS (Keep It Simple, Stupid)
D. YAGNI (You Aren't Gonna Need It)
Answer: B. SOLID
Explanation:
 SOLID is a set of design principles that helps in writing maintainable,
flexible, and scalable software. It stands for Single Responsibility
Principle, Open/Closed Principle, Liskov Substitution Principle,
Interface Segregation Principle, and Dependency Inversion Principle.
Question 48:
In Object-Oriented Programming, what is the purpose of abstraction?
A. To hide the complexity and show only essential features of an object
B. To allow one class to inherit the properties of another class
C. To group related classes together
D. To allow a function to work with different data types
Answer: A. To hide the complexity and show only essential features of an
object
Explanation:
 Abstraction is a concept in OOP that involves hiding the internal workings
of an object and exposing only the essential features. This helps in managing
complexity and making the system easier to understand.
Section 15: Software Development Lifecycle
Question 49:
Which of the following phases is part of the Software Development Life Cycle
(SDLC)?
A. Requirement gathering
B. Code testing
C. Design
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 The SDLC consists of several phases, including requirement gathering,
design, coding, testing, and deployment, among others, to ensure the
successful development and maintenance of software.
Question 50:
What does Agile methodology emphasize in software development?
A. Rigorous documentation and planning
B. Flexibility, iterative progress, and collaboration

327
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Linear approach and rigid processes

D. Large-scale projects with fixed deadlines
Answer: B. Flexibility, iterative progress, and collaboration
Explanation:
 Agile methodology emphasizes flexibility, iterative development, and
regular collaboration between developers and stakeholders, allowing for
adjustments and improvements throughout the software development
process.
These additional Fundamentals of Programming NGAT Exam questions cover
key topics like memory management, algorithmic complexity, input/output,
advanced concepts, and more. Let me know if you'd like further elaboration or if
you need additional practice questions!
Here are more Fundamentals of Programming NGAT Exam questions with
answers to enhance your preparation:
Section 16: Advanced Programming Concepts
Question 51:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for defining a function in Python?
A. function myFunc():
B. def myFunc[]:
C. def myFunc():
D. function: myFunc()
Answer: C. def myFunc():
Explanation:
 In Python, functions are defined using the def keyword, followed by the
function name and parentheses. The function body is indented beneath the
def line.
Question 52:
Which of the following will return the largest element in a Python list?
A. max(list)
B. list.max()
C. list[0]
D. largest(list)
Answer: A. max(list)
Explanation:
 The built-in max() function in Python returns the largest element in a list.
Question 53:
Which of the following is a valid constructor in Java?
A. public void MyClass()
B. public MyClass()

328
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. private MyClass()
D. public MyClass() {} class
Answer: B. public MyClass()
Explanation:
 In Java, a constructor is a method with the same name as the class, and it
does not have a return type. It is used to initialize objects of the class.
Question 54:
In C++, which operator is used to allocate memory dynamically?
A. malloc
B. new
C. allocate
D. malloc()
Answer: B. new
Explanation:
 In C++, the new operator is used to dynamically allocate memory for
variables or objects at runtime. The corresponding operator to deallocate
memory is delete.
Question 55:
Which of the following is an example of polymorphism in Object-Oriented
Programming?
A. Overloading a method with different parameters
B. Using inheritance to create a new class
C. Using the final keyword to make a method non-overrideable
D. Hiding the details of an object and exposing only necessary parts
Answer: A. Overloading a method with different parameters
Explanation:
 Polymorphism allows objects to be treated as instances of their parent class.
One form is method overloading, where the same method name is used
with different parameter lists.
Section 17: Data Structures
Question 56:
Which of the following data structures is most suitable for implementing a
priority queue?
A. Array
B. Stack
C. Heap
D. Linked List
Answer: C. Heap
Explanation:

329
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 A heap is the most suitable data structure for implementing a priority queue.
It allows efficient retrieval of the highest or lowest priority element.
Question 57:
Which of the following is a characteristic of a linked list?
A. Random access to elements
B. Elements are stored in contiguous memory locations
C. Each element contains a reference to the next element
D. Size is fixed after initialization
Answer: C. Each element contains a reference to the next element
Explanation:
 In a linked list, each element (node) contains data and a reference (or
pointer) to the next element in the list. This structure allows for dynamic
memory allocation.
Question 58:
Which of the following is the time complexity of accessing an element in an array
by index?
A. O(n)
B. O(n log n)
C. O(1)
D. O(log n)
Answer: C. O(1)
Explanation:
 Array access by index is an O(1) operation, meaning it takes constant time
to retrieve an element at a specific index.
Question 59:
Which search algorithm is best used for searching an element in a sorted array?
A. Linear Search
B. Binary Search
C. Jump Search
D. Ternary Search
Answer: B. Binary Search
Explanation:
 Binary Search is the most efficient algorithm for searching an element in a
sorted array, with a time complexity of O(log n).
Section 18: Recursion and Dynamic Programming
Question 60:
Which of the following problems is best suited for a recursive solution?
A. Searching for an element in a list
B. Finding the greatest common divisor (GCD)

330
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

C. Sorting a list
D. Traversing a graph in breadth-first manner
Answer: B. Finding the greatest common divisor (GCD)
Explanation:
 Finding the GCD can be efficiently solved using recursion (Euclid’s
algorithm). Recursion is often used for problems that have smaller
subproblems that resemble the original problem.
Question 61:
What is the primary characteristic of Dynamic Programming (DP)?
A. Breaking the problem into smaller subproblems and solving them once
B. Using recursion to solve problems
C. Using a divide and conquer approach
D. Solving problems by brute force
Answer: A. Breaking the problem into smaller subproblems and solving them
once
Explanation:
 Dynamic Programming (DP) is a technique where complex problems are
broken down into simpler subproblems, and the results of these subproblems
are stored to avoid redundant calculations.
Question 62:
What is the time complexity of the Fibonacci sequence when implemented using
Dynamic Programming (bottom-up approach)?
A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n^2)
D. O(2^n)
Answer: A. O(n)
Explanation:
 Using Dynamic Programming to solve the Fibonacci sequence reduces the
time complexity to O(n) because it stores intermediate results and avoids
redundant calculations.
Section 19: Error Handling and Exceptions
Question 63:
In Python, what does the finally block do in an exception handling mechanism?
A. It handles the exception if one occurs
B. It executes code only if no exception occurs
C. It always executes code, regardless of whether an exception occurs
D. It prints the exception message
Answer: C. It always executes code, regardless of whether an exception occurs

331
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 The finally block in Python always executes after the try and except blocks,
regardless of whether an exception was raised. It is typically used for
cleanup operations, such as closing files.
Question 64:
What will happen if an exception is not caught in a try-except block in Python?
A. The program will continue running normally
B. The program will terminate and display the exception traceback
C. The program will skip the exception and move to the next block
D. The program will execute the finally block
Answer: B. The program will terminate and display the exception traceback
Explanation:
 If an exception is not caught by any except block, Python will terminate the
program and display the traceback, which provides details about the
exception.
Question 65:
Which of the following is used to raise a custom exception in Python?
A. raise Exception
B. throw Exception
C. catch Exception
D. new Exception
Answer: A. raise Exception
Explanation:
 In Python, you can raise a custom exception using the raise keyword
followed by the exception class.
Section 20: Software Development and Best Practices
Question 66:
Which of the following is an example of agile software development?
A. Waterfall methodology
B. Iterative development with frequent releases
C. Complete documentation before starting the project
D. Fixed scope and timeline
Answer: B. Iterative development with frequent releases
Explanation:
 Agile emphasizes iterative development and frequent releases. It focuses
on flexibility and continuous feedback, which contrasts with the rigid
structure of traditional models like the Waterfall methodology.
Question 67:
What is version control used for in software development?

332
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

A. To manage different versions of the source code and track changes

B. To encrypt the source code for security purposes
C. To optimize the execution of code
D. To test the software for bugs
Answer: A. To manage different versions of the source code and track
changes
Explanation:
 Version control systems like Git are used to track changes in the source
code over time, allowing developers to manage and collaborate on software
projects effectively.
These additional Fundamentals of Programming NGAT Exam questions cover
topics like advanced programming concepts, recursion, dynamic programming,
error handling, and software development methodologies. Let me know if you need
further questions or explanations!
Here are more Fundamentals of Programming NGAT Exam questions with
answers to help you continue your preparation:
Section 21: Object-Oriented Programming (OOP)
Question 68:
Which of the following is NOT a principle of Object-Oriented Programming
(OOP)?
A. Abstraction
B. Encapsulation
C. Inheritance
D. Compilation
Answer: D. Compilation
Explanation:
 Compilation is a process in programming but is not an OOP principle. The
core principles of OOP are Abstraction, Encapsulation, Inheritance, and
Polymorphism.
Question 69:
What is encapsulation in OOP?
A. The process of hiding internal states and requiring all interaction to be
performed through object methods
B. The process of organizing related classes
C. The ability of an object to take on different forms
D. The act of creating new classes from existing ones
Answer: A. The process of hiding internal states and requiring all interaction
to be performed through object methods
Explanation:

333
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 Encapsulation involves bundling the data (variables) and methods that

operate on the data into a single unit, and restricting direct access to some of
the object's components.
Question 70:
What is method overloading in Java?
A. Defining methods in different classes with the same name
B. Defining a method that can accept different types of arguments
C. Defining a method that performs different tasks
D. Defining a method with the same name but different parameter counts or types
Answer: D. Defining a method with the same name but different parameter
counts or types
Explanation:
 Method overloading in Java refers to the ability to define multiple methods
with the same name but different parameter lists. This allows a method to
perform different tasks based on the parameters passed to it.
Question 71:
Which of the following is a benefit of inheritance in OOP?
A. It allows methods to be inherited and reused by subclasses
B. It hides the complexity of an object from the user
C. It allows the creation of a new object with no reference to the original class
D. It improves the execution speed of the program
Answer: A. It allows methods to be inherited and reused by subclasses
Explanation:
 Inheritance allows a class (subclass) to inherit properties and behaviors
(methods) from another class (superclass), facilitating code reuse and
creating a hierarchy of classes.
Question 72:
Which keyword is used to refer to the parent class in Java?
A. super
B. this
C. parent
D. base
Answer: A. super
Explanation:
 In Java, the keyword super refers to the parent class. It can be used to call
methods or constructors from the parent class.
Section 22: Databases and SQL
Question 73:

334
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following is the correct SQL statement to retrieve all records from
the "Employees" table?
A. SELECT * FROM Employees;
B. SELECT ALL FROM Employees;
C. GET * FROM Employees;
D. FETCH * FROM Employees;
Answer: A. SELECT * FROM Employees;
Explanation:
 The SELECT * statement is used to retrieve all columns from the
"Employees" table in SQL. The asterisk (*) represents all columns.
Question 74:
What is the purpose of a primary key in a database table?
A. To ensure each record is unique
B. To link two tables together
C. To store large amounts of data
D. To restrict user access to the table
Answer: A. To ensure each record is unique
Explanation:
 A primary key uniquely identifies each record in a table. No two records
can have the same value in the primary key column.
Question 75:
Which SQL statement is used to remove a table from a database?
A. DROP TABLE table_name;
B. DELETE TABLE table_name;
C. REMOVE TABLE table_name;
D. CLEAR TABLE table_name;
Answer: A. DROP TABLE table_name;
Explanation:
 The DROP TABLE statement is used to delete a table and all of its data
from the database permanently.
Question 76:
Which SQL command is used to modify existing records in a table?
A. UPDATE
B. INSERT
C. ALTER
D. MODIFY
Answer: A. UPDATE
Explanation:

335
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

 The UPDATE statement is used to modify existing records in a database

table. You specify which records to update using the WHERE clause.
Section 23: Algorithms and Data Structures
Question 77:
Which of the following sorting algorithms is considered the most efficient for
large datasets?
A. Bubble Sort
B. Merge Sort
C. Insertion Sort
D. Selection Sort
Answer: B. Merge Sort
Explanation:
 Merge Sort is a divide-and-conquer algorithm that is more efficient for
large datasets, with a time complexity of O(n log n) in all cases, compared
to the O(n^2) time complexity of algorithms like Bubble Sort and Insertion
Sort.
Question 78:
Which of the following is the best data structure for implementing a LIFO (Last
In, First Out) structure?
A. Queue
B. Array
C. Stack
D. Linked List
Answer: C. Stack
Explanation:
 A stack follows the LIFO (Last In, First Out) principle, where the most
recently added element is the first one to be removed.
Question 79:
What is the time complexity of binary search in a sorted array?
A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n^2)
D. O(1)
Answer: B. O(log n)
Explanation:
 Binary Search is an efficient searching algorithm that works on sorted
arrays. Its time complexity is O(log n) because it repeatedly divides the
search interval in half.
Question 80:

336
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Which of the following is an example of a recursive algorithm?

A. Quick Sort
B. Merge Sort
C. Fibonacci sequence calculation
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation:
 Recursive algorithms call themselves with smaller instances of the
problem. Quick Sort, Merge Sort, and the Fibonacci sequence calculation
are all examples of recursive algorithms.
Section 24: Networking and Communication
Question 81:
Which of the following protocols is used to send emails over the internet?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. TCP
Answer: C. SMTP
Explanation:
 SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails over the
internet.
Question 82:
Which of the following layers of the OSI model is responsible for routing packets
between devices?
A. Application Layer
B. Transport Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Data Link Layer
Answer: C. Network Layer
Explanation:
 The Network Layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing packets
from the source device to the destination device across different networks.
Question 83:
What does IP address stand for?
A. Internet Provider Address
B. Internet Protocol Address
C. Internal Protocol Address
D. Interface Protocol Address
Answer: B. Internet Protocol Address

337
 NGAT FOR STUDY /EDITED BY:WAKTOLA L JAN 13 2025

Explanation:
 An IP address is a unique identifier assigned to each device on a network to
allow it to communicate with other devices using the Internet Protocol.
Question 84:
What is the purpose of DNS (Domain Name System)?
A. To provide unique IP addresses to devices
B. To map domain names to IP addresses
C. To encrypt communication between devices
D. To transfer files over the internet
Answer: B. To map domain names to IP addresses
Explanation:
 DNS (Domain Name System) is responsible for translating human-readable
domain names (like www.example.com) into IP addresses, which computers
use to communicate with each other.
These additional Fundamentals of Programming NGAT Exam questions cover
more concepts related to Object-Oriented Programming, Databases,
Algorithms, Networking, and more. Let me know if you need further clarification
or more questions!

338