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Plant Operations - Boma

The document is a pre-quiz for plant operations focusing on boiler systems and related equipment. It contains multiple-choice questions covering topics such as boiler fittings, safety valves, feedwater systems, and combustion efficiency. The quiz is designed to assess knowledge relevant to operating and maintaining high-pressure boilers.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
39 views15 pages

Plant Operations - Boma

The document is a pre-quiz for plant operations focusing on boiler systems and related equipment. It contains multiple-choice questions covering topics such as boiler fittings, safety valves, feedwater systems, and combustion efficiency. The quiz is designed to assess knowledge relevant to operating and maintaining high-pressure boilers.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Name:_ _ _ _ _ _ _ __

Plant Oprrations
ROMA Pre-Quiz
1. How may fittings be attached to a high pressure boiler?
a. Threaded
b. Cenified welds
C. Flanges
d. Any of the above

2. Which test determines the relieving capacity of safety valves?


a. Hydrostatic test
b. Accumulation test
C. Orsat test
d. Evaporation test

3. Flue gasses can leave at high temperatures. We can recovers some of this heat using a(n):
a. Flash tank
b. Open feedwater heater
c. Economizer
d. Air compressor

4. Feed water is typically heated with:


a. Commercial hot water heaters
b. Waste or extracted steam
c. Another burner
d. Superheaters

5. Whal is the maximum pounds of steam per hour of a boiler called?


a. Boiler capacity
b. Steaming rate
c. Heating surface
d. Water tube

6. What is a steam condenser's reservoir called?


a. Surge tank
b. Hot well
c. Flash tank
d. Vacuum

7. When inspecting a boiler, main steam valves are:


a. Open
b. Closed
c. Depends on the boiler
d. Closed, locked, and tagged
8. Boiler draft is the difference in _ _ _ _ _ between two points:
a. gas flow
b. water flow
c. pressure
d. wind

9. Boilers are required 10 have how many pressure gauges?


L l
b. 2
C. 3
d. 1 for low pressure and 2 for high pressure

10. Feed water pumps take water from the:


a. Hotwell
b. Open feedwater heater
c. Flash tank
d. Boiler

11. High vibrations in a feed water pump could be caused by:


a. High pressure in the DA tank
b. Cold feed water
c. Hot feed water
d. Those things always vibrate

12. Which type of pump is best for handling diny water?


a. Chemical
b. Centrifugal
c. Gear
d. Positive displacement

13. Which is not a pan of a centrifugal pump?


a. Volute
b. Impeller
c. Piston ring
d. Vanes

14. Why have check valves on multiple feedwater pumps?


a. Quick s1an up
b. Efficency
c. Reduce the number of valves
d. Prevent it from going clockwise

15. May dynamic displacement pumps be staned with the discharge valve closed or throttled?
a. True
b. False
16. Lubricating oil pumps are typically:
a. A waste of money
b. Rotary
c. Centrifugal
d. Dynamic displacement

17. Centrifugal pumps differ from reciprocating in that they are:


a. Positive displacement
b. Dynamic displacement
c. Steam driven
d. Bell driven

18. Most codes restrict the temperature of water entering the sewer 10 a max of:
a. 115 F
140 F
t 165 F
d. 212 F

19. Why do compressors have unloaders?


a. Decrease efficiency
b. Increase motor staning load
c. Capacity control
d. All of the above

20. Compressors require:


a. High viscosity oil
b. Low sulfur oil
C. Low temperature oil
d. Detergent free oil

21. What could you do to test an air receiver for leaks?


a. Accumulation test
b. Hydrostatic test
c. Pressure test
d. Evaporation test

22. A three element feedwater regulator measures:


a. Drum water level
b. Steam flow
C. Water flow
d. All of the above
23. Safety valves require what percentage of their operating pressure 10 be lifted by hand:
a. 25%
b. 50%
C. 75%
d. 100%

24. The D.A. tanks are typically:


a. 10' above a feedwater pump
b. 10' below a feedwater pump
C. After the economizer
d. Cleaned daily

25. A draft gauges measure:


a. PSIG
b. PSIA
C. Inches of H2O
d. Inches of Hg

26. Carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and oxygen are measured with a(n)?
a. Orsa1 analyzer
b. TSS transducer
C. Rankin Monitor
d. Rheostat

27. When putting a cold boiler back in service, open the vent until:
a. You gel 25psi in the boiler
b. The boiler is warm
C. The steam stops are open
d. Never leave it open

28. Low pressure steam boilers have maximum allowable working pressures of:
a. 5 psig
b. 15 psig
C. 55 psig
d. NoMAWP

29. In wa1enube boilers, heat and gases of combustion pass:


a. Through the tubes
b. Around the tubes
c. In the tubes of the closed feedwater heater
d. All of the aboveb
30. The type of boiler wilh lhe largest capacity of energy is:
a. A water tube boiler
b. A fire tube boiler
C. Either a water tube of fire tube boiler
d. Boilers cannot explode

31. The burner box of a firetube boiler is:


a. Inside lhe boiler
b. Outside lhe boiler
C. Either
d. Neither

32. On a boiler, lhe water column:


a. Measures Inches of H2O
b. Reduces turbulence in lhe gauge glass
C. Allows lhe hydrostatic test
d. Feeds water into lhe boiler

33. The fitting which is most critical in stopping a boiler explosion is:
a. Low water cut off
b. Feed water control valve
c. Automatic Cutoff
d. Safety Valves

34. The _ _ _ _ _ has water on one side and gasses of combustion on lhe other:
a. Water surface
b. Steam surface
C. Fire side
d. Heating surface

35. Which will not be found on a safety valves nameplate?


a. Temperature setting
b. ASMA stamp
c. Capacity
d. Blow down rate

36. To keep oil liquified we run !his line with our fuel line:
a. Supply line
b. Tracer line
c. Propane line
d. Diesel line
37. Closed feedwater heaters are fed by the:
a. Boiler
b. Condenser
c. Open Feed water heater
d. Make up water line

38. In a watertube boiler, what tubes feed water 10 the muddrum?


a. Downcomers
b. Generating tubes
C. Waterwall tubes
d. Feedwater tubes

39. Boiler efficiency is increased by?


A. Open feedwater heaters
b. Air preheaters
c. Closed feedwater heaters
d. All of the above

40. The boiler vents are installed:


a. On the header
b. On superheater inlets
C. Steam side of the mud drum
d. Highest part of the steam side

41. Oil separators are needed when:


a. Oil is in the water
b. Superheaters feed a turliine
C. High pressure boilers feed a turliine
d. All of the above

42. Steam stop valves should be ____ valves:


a. OS & Y gate
b. OS & Y globe
c. Blowdown valves
d. Needle valves

43. Steam lines expand and contract, so we install


a. Expansion bends and loops
b. Rigid pipe hangers
c. External braces
d. Nothing
44. How many tricocks are on large boilers?
a. I
b. 2
c. 3
d. I for low pressure and 3 for high pressure

45. What type of blower pushes air through the boiler?


a. Forced draft
b. Induced draft
c. Natural draft
d. Tertiary air

46. We install blowers to:


a. Increase steam pressure
b. Reduce thermal shock
C. Increase the combustion efficiency
d. Increase the mechanical efficiency

47. A flame scanner monitors:


a. The pilot and the main flame
b. The pilot only
C. The main flame only
d. The boiler water level

48. A cushioned check valve is used for:


a. A safety valve
b. An automatic non-return valve
c. A pressure relief valve
d. AandC

49. When a fluid is flowing through a restriction:


a. Pressure and speed increase
b. Pressure and speed decrease
c. Pressure increases and speed decreases
d. Pressure decreases and speed increases

50. Natural draft can be increased by:


a. Increasing the diameter of the chimney
b. Increasing the height of the chimney
c. Decreasing the diameter of the chimney
d. Decreasing the height of the chimney
51. Feedwater pumps need to be isolated with what type of valve?
a. Globe valve
b. Check valve
C. Gate valve
d. Pressure relief valve

52. A deaerator tank 10 feet high has how much head pressure?
a. 0.433 psig
b. 4.33 psig
C. 43.3 psig
d. 10 psig

53. We mechanically treat boiler water to reduce:


a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen
c. Acidity
d. Scale

54. What is removed by a i.eolite water softner?


a. Sodium and calcium
b. Calcium and magnesium
c. Magnesium and sodium
d. Zeolite and calcium

55. What are the steps in regenerating a water softner?


a. Backwash, salt/brine solution, rinse
b. Backwash, rinse, salt/brine solution
c. Rinse, backwash, calcium chloride
d. Backwash, rinse, backwash

56. Which chemical is used to bind to solids to form non-adhering sludge?


a. Phosphates
b. Phosphinates
c. Organic Boiler Treatment
d. Any of these chemicals

57. Mechanical treatment of boiler feedwater is:


a. Performed in the D.A. Tank
b. External treatment
c. Is at approximately 220 F
d. All of the above
58. Which of the following would NO'.[ stop boiler tube corrosion?
a. Slightly acidic boiler water
b. Open Feedwater heater
c. Proper chemical treatment
d. T.D.S at 3000 ppm

59. Fires that are burning liquids are class _ _ fires:


a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

60. When should you take your conductivity readings?


a. Before blowing down
b. After blowing down
c. At high firing rate
d. At low firing rate

61. A PH of 7.2 would be:


a. Slightly acid
b. Slightly alkaline
C. Neutral
d. Very acid

62. What is a good T.D.S. Reading for a steam boiler?


a. lOOOppm
b. 1500ppm
C. 3000ppm
d. 5000ppm

63. Steam pressure gauges should have a range of:


a. The safety valve setting
b. 1 1/2 to 2 times the safety valve setting
c. 3 times the safety valve setting
d. 110''/4 of the MAWP

64. Condensate return water should be maintained at a PH of:


a. 7-8
b. 10 - 11
C. Neutral
d. 5-7
65. The dissolved solids in water can be measured by:
a. A hydrostatic test
b. An evaporation test
c. Electrical conductivity
d. An accumulation test

66. Corrosion in condensate lines is cause by:


a. OandCO2
b. Nitrogen
c. Amine
d. Condensed steam

67. Before firing a boiler, it must flRSI:


a. Ignite Pilot
b. Prove the pilot
c. Prepurge
d. Prove the main flame

68. Which of the following do you NQI do when firing a cold boiler?
a. Open blowdown valves
b. Set water level to about 1/3 glass
c. Open vent
d. Prepurge

69. Why bring up heat slowly on a cold boiler?


a. To stop all expansion
b. To prevent steam generation
c. To control refractory contraction
d. To prevent thermal shock

70. Steam-atomizing burners work by?


a. Gravity
b. Steam crossing the jets of oil
C. Arcing
d. Slowdown

71. To bum one pound of natural gas, about how many pounds of air are needed?
a. 1
b. 5.5
C. 14.7
d. 144
72. For control of efficient combustion, we have:
a. Balanced draft
b. Perfect combustion
c. Natural draft
d. Air-tight setting

73. The carbon dioxide level of flue gases should be:


a. O104%
b. 10 to 12%
C. 19.5 10 21.5%
d. 24 to 28%

74. Scale is:


a. Alkaline boiler water
b. Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate deposits
c. Gases in the water
d. Sodium deposits which decrease boiler efficiency

75. With a broken gauge glass, the water level is checked by:
a. Blowing down the glass
b. Blowing down the water column
c. Using the tricocks
d. Never check the water level; secure the boiler during repairs

76. The lowest visible level of water in a boiler must be ___ above the top row of tubes:
a. l"
b. 3"
C. 6"
d. 12"

77. When is the safest time to blow down watertube boilers?


a. Lowest firing rate
b. Boiler is secured
c. High firing rate
d. Low steaming rate

78. The biggest fuel safety factor is it's:


a. Fire point
b. Flash point
c. Pour point
d. Service factor
79. Which two ways do we tell the water level inside a steam boiler?
a. Water column and gauge glass
b. Tricocks and gauge glass
c. Highwater alarm and low water alarm
d. Audible alarm and automatic shut down

80. Steam pressure gauges are protected from high temperature of steam by:
a. Welded flanges
b. Heat exchangers
c. Siphon tubes
d. Nubs

81. Draft is measured by receiving pressure across:


a. Venturi
b. Orifice plate
c. Flow nozzle
d. Any one of the above

82. How is an oil's viscosity affected by heating?


a. Lowers oil's viscosity
b. Flow rate is decreased
C. Increases oil's viscosity
d. Flow-rate is unaffected

83. We would use Inches of Hg to measure:


a. Boiler draft
b. Boiler pressure
c. Condenser vacuum
d. Condenser flow

84. How often should motor bearing be greased?


a. 3 months
b. 6 monthss
c. 12 months
d. Manufacturers specifications

85. 10 psig is equal to:


a. -4.7 psia
b. 14.7 psia
c. 24.7 psia
d. 29.4 psia
86. Air over the stoicometric amount of air is called:
a. Control
b. Excess
c. Secondary
d. Primary

87. PH level of the boiler water should be:


a. 5-7
b. Neutral
C. 8-10
d. 11-13

88. Impurities on the surface of the water cause increase in surface tension and then:
a. Foaming
b. Carryover
c. Priming
d. Scaling

89. The low water alarm should be tested:


a. Each shift
b. Daily
c. Weekly
d. Monthly

90. Heat transferred by the movement of a fluid is:


a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Sensible

91. The total heat in BTU's required to conven 10 lbs. of ice at 32 degrees Fahrenheit to water at 82
degrees Fahrenheit is:
a. 1440 btu's
b. 1940 btu's
C. 2300 btu's
d. 500 btu's

92. The boiling point of water at 125 psia is ___ than the boiling point at 14.7 psia:
a. Higher
b. Lower
C. ls equal to 72.7 C
d. ls equal to 460 R
93. The heat needed to convert l lb. of water at 212 F to steam at 212 F:
a. 970.4 btu's
b. 144 btu's
c. 212.1 btu's
d. 460.0 Stu's

94. The point at which a vapor changes to liquid is called the:


a. Latent heat
b. Sublimation
C. Dew point
d. Specific humidity

95. The Rankine scale starts at:


a. 0 F
b. 460 below freezing point of water
C. 492 below freezing point of water
d. 273 C

96. The freezing point of water on the kelvin scale is:


a. 460 Kelvin
b. 273 Kelvin
c. 32 Kelvin
d. 0 Kelvin

97. Heat resulting in temperature changes is:


a. Latent heat
b. Specific heat
c. Potential heat
d. Sensible heat

98. Boyles law deals with:


a. Solids and liquids
b. Temperature and liquids
C. Expansion and contraction of gases
d. Fission vs. Fusion

99. Liquid glass thermometers measure:


a. High temperatures
b. Low temperatures!
c. Both high and low temperatures
d. None of the above
100. The BTU's necessary to raise I lb. of substance, 1 Fis the:
a. Specific heat
b. Co-efficient linear expansion
c. Sensible heat
d. Latent heat

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