SUBJECT : PHYSICS

SECTION-A 3. Which of the following statements is incorrect

Attempt All 35 questions about hysteresis?

1. A cylindrical wire of radius R is carrying current (1) This effect is common to all ferromagnetic
i uniformly distributed overt its cross-section. If substances.
a circular loop of radius r is taken as amperian (2) The hysteresis loop area is proportional to
→ → the thermal energy developed per unit
loop, then the variation value of ∮ B ⋅ dl over
volume of the material.
this loop with radius r of loop will be best
represented by (3) The hysteresis loop area is independent of
the thermal energy developed per unit
volume of the material.
(1) (4) The shape of the hysteresis loop is
characteristic of the material.
4. The figure shows a conducting loop ABCDA
placed in a uniform magnetic field (strength B)
perpendicular to its plane. The part ABC is the
(2)
three-fourth portion of the square of side length ℓ
. The part ADC is a circular arc of radius R. The
points A and C are connected to a battery which
supply a current I to the circuit. The magnetic
(3) force on the loop due to the field B is : -

(4)
(1) zero (2) BI ℓ

BI ℓ R
(3) 2BIR (4)
2. A conducting ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is 1+R
placed on a smooth horizontal plane. The ring 5. A thin circular ring of area A is perpendicular to
carries a current i = 4A. A horizontal magnetic field uniform magnetic field of induction B. A small
B = 10T is switched on at time t = 0 as shown in cut is made in the ring and a galvanometer is
figure. The initial angular acceleration of ring is :- connected across the ends such that the total
resistance of circuit is R. When the ring is
suddenly squeezed to zero area, the charge
flowing through galvanometer is : -
BR AB
(1) 40 π rad/sec2 (2) 20 π rad/sec2 (1) (2)
A R
(3) 5 π rad/sec2 (4) 15 π rad/sec2 B2 A
(3) ABR (4)
R2
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6. An e.m.f. of 12 volts is induced in a given coil 11. The ratio of angular speed of hours hand and
when the current in it changes at the rate of 48 seconds hand of a clock is :-
amperes per minute. The self-inductance of the (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 60
coil is : -
(3) 1 : 720 (4) 3600 : 1
(1) 0.25 henry (2) 15 henry
12. If the radius of the earth is suddenly contracts to
(3) 1.5 henry (4) 9.6 henry half of its present value, then the duration of day
7. The initial velocity of a particle is u and the will be of
acceleration is given by (kt), where k is a positive (1) 6 hours (2) 12 hours
constant. The distance travelled in time t is : (3) 18 hours (4) 24 hours
(1) s = ut2 + kt2 13. While measuring diameter of wire using
(2) s = ut + (kt3/6) screw gauge the following readings were noted.
Main scale reading is 1mm and circular scale
(3) s = ut + (kt3/2) reading is equal to 42 divisions. Pitch of
(4) s = (ut2/2) + (kt3/6) screw gauge is 1mm and it has 100 divisions on
circular Scale. The diameter of the wire is
8. A rocket of mass 1000 kg exhausts gases at a x
mm. The value of x is -
rate of 4 kg/sec with velocity 3000 m/s. The 50
thrust developed on the rocket is :- (1) 142 (2) 71
(1) 12000 N (2) 120 N (3) 42 (4) 21
(3) 800 N (4) 200 N 14. A body crosses the topmost point of a vertical
9. A cricket ball of mass 250 g collides with a bat
circle with a critical speed. Its centripetal
acceleration, when the string is horizontal will be:-
with velocity 10 m/s and returns with the same
(1) 6g (2) 3g
speed within 0.01 second. The force acted on bat
is : – (3) √ 10g (4) g
(1) 25 N (2) 50 N 15. Two identical 5 kg blocks are moving with same
speed of 2 m/s towards each other along a
(3) 250 N (4) 500 N frictionless horizontal surface. The two blocks
10. In the arrangement shown, the pulleys are fixed
collide, stick together and come to rest. Consider
the two blocks as a system. The work done by
and ideal, the strings are light, m1 > m2 and S is external and internal forces are respectively :-
a spring balance which is itself massless. The (1) 0, 0 (2) 0, 20 J
reading of S (in units of mass) is –
(3) 0, – 20 J (4) 20 J, – 20 J
16. The apparent weight of a person inside a lift is w1
when lift moves up with a certain acceleration and is
w2 when lift moves down with same acceleration
The weight of the person when lift moves up with
1
constant speed is :
(1) m1 – m2 (2) (m1 + m2) w1 + w2 w1 − w2
2 (1) (2)
m1 m2 2m1 m2 2 2
(3) m1 + m2 (4) m1 + m2 (3) 2w1 (4) 2w2

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17. A ball A is thrown vertically upwards with 22. A solid cylinder is rolling down on an inclined
speed u. At the same instant another ball B is
dropped from height h. At times t, the speed of plane of inclination 60°. What is its acceleration?
A relative to B is :-
(1) g/3
(1) u (2) u – 2 gt
(2) g/√3
(3) √
2
u − 2gh (4) u – gt
2g
18. A body falls from a height of 16 m and rebounds to (3) √

3
a height of 4 m. The coefficient of restitution is : (4) None of these
(1) 1
4
(2) 1
2
23. A constant torque of 1000 N-m turns a wheel
(3) 3 (4) 1 of moment of inertia 200 kg-m2 about an axis
4 8
19. The force acting on a body moving along x-axis
through its centre. Its angular velocity after 3 sec
varies with the position of the particle as shown in is : -
the figure. The body is in stable equilibrium at -
(1) 1 rad/sec (2) 5 rad/sec
(3) 10 rad/sec (4) 15 rad/sec
24. If masses of blocks A and B are 3 kg and 8 kg
respectively, then normal reaction between A
(1) x = x1 (2) x = x2
and B : -
(3) Both x1 and x2 (4) Neither x1 nor x2
20. Find work done by friction if block reaches to
the end with constant velocity:-

(1) 20N (2) 30N

(3) 35N (4) 115N
25. Two particles A and B having charges 20 μ C
(1) – 50 J (2) −50√3J
and – 5 μ C respectively are held fixed with a
(3) – 100 J (4) None of these
separation of 5 cm. At what position a third
21. Velocity – time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg charged particle should be placed so that it does
moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. not experience a net electric force?
Work done by all the force on the particle is :-

(1) At 5 cm from 20 μ C on the left side of system

(2) At 5 cm from – 5 μ C on the right side
(1) 400 J (2) – 400 J (3) At 1.25 cm from – 5 μ C between two charges
(3) – 200 J (4) 200 J (4) At midpoint between two charges

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26. Shown in the figure are two point charges +Q 29. Statement 1 : It is not possible to make a sphere
and – Q inside the cavity of a spherical shell. of capacity 1 farad using a conducting material.
The charges are kept near the surface of the
cavity on opposite sides of the centre of the
Statement 2 : It is possible for earth as its radius
is 6.4 × 106 m.
shell. If σ 1 is the surface charge on the inner
surface and Q1 net charge on it and σ 2 the (1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
surface charge on the outer surface and Q2 net Statement 2 is the correct explanation of
Statement 1.
charge on it then : -
(2) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
Statement 1.
(1) σ 1 ≠ 0, Q1 = 0 (2) σ 1 ≠ 0, Q1 = 0 (4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
σ 2 = 0, Q2 = 0 σ 2 ≠ 0, Q2 = 0 30. The electric current through a wire varies with
(3) σ 1= 0, Q1 = 0 (4) σ 1 ≠ 0, Q1 ≠ 0 time as I = I0 + β t, where I0 = 20 A and β = 3
σ 2 = 0, Q2 = 0 σ 2 ≠ 0, Q2 ≠ 0
A/s. The amount of electric charge crossed
through a section of the wire in 20s is : -
27. Consider the force F on a charge 'q' due to a
(1) 1600 C (2) 800 C
uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R
(3) 80 C (4) 1000 C
carrying charge Q distributed uniformly over it.
Which one of the following statements is true 31. A Copper (Cu) rod of length 25 cm and cross-
sectional area 3 mm2 is joined with a similar
for F, if 'q' is placed at distance r from the centre Aluminium (Al) rod as shown in figure. Find the
of the shell? resistance of the combination between the ends A
1 Qq and B. (Take Resistivity of Copper = 1.7 × 10 – 8
(1) F= for r < R
4 π ε 0 R2 Ω m Resistivity of Aluminium = 2.6 × 10 – 8 Ω m )
1 Qq
(2) > F > 0 for r < R
4 π ε 0 R2
1 Qq (1) 2.170 m Ω (2) 1.420 m Ω
(3) F= for r > R
4 π ε 0 r2
1 Qq
(3) 0.0858 m Ω (4) 0.858 m Ω
(4) F=
4 π ε 0 R2
for all r
32. Two cells are connected in opposition as shown.
28. The equivalent capacitance of the combination Cell E1 is of 8V emf and 2 Ω internal resistance;
shown is : - the cell E2 is of 2V emf and 4 Ω internal
resistance. The terminal potential difference of
cell E2 is _________ V.

(1) C (2) 4C
2
5 (1) 6V (2) – 8V
(3) 2C (4) C
3 (3) – 6V (4) 8V

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33. Given below are two statements : One is SECTION-B
labelled as This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
R. these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
Assertion A : Alloys such as constantan and more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
manganin are used in making standard
resistance coils.
36. For c = 2a, and a < b < c, the magnetic field at
point P will be zero when
Reason R : Constantan and manganin has very
small value of temperature coefficient of
resistance.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 3
(1) a = b (2) a= b
5
explanation of A.
5 1
(3) a= b (4) a= b
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the 3 3

correct explanation of A. 37. Two magnets A and B are identical and these are
arranged as shown in the figure Their length is
(3) A is true but R is false. negligible in comparison to the separation between
them. A magnetic needle is placed between the
(4) A is false but R is true. magnets at point P which gets deflected through an
34. The values of kinetic energy (K) and potential angle θ under the influence of magnets. The ratio
of distance d1 and d2 will be. :-
energy (U) are measured as follows
K = (100.0 ± 2.0) J and U = (200.0 ± 1.0) J
then the percentage error in the measurement of
mechanical energy is : (1) (2 tan θ )1/3 (2) (2 tan θ ) – 1/3
(1) 2.5% (2) 0.5% (3) (2 cot θ )1/3 (4) (2 cot θ ) – 1/3
(3) 1.0% (4) 1.5% 38. The north and south poles of two identical
35. Least count of a vernier caliper is 1
cm. The
magnets approach a coil containing a condenser,
with equal speeds from opposite sides. Then : -
20N
value of one division on main scale is 1mm.
Then the number of divisions of main scale that
coincide with N divisions of vernier scale is -
(1) Plate 1 will be negative and plate 2 positive
2N − 1 2N − 1
(1) (
20N
) (2) (
2
)
(2) Plate 1 will be positive and plate 2 negative
2N − 1 (3) Both the plates will be positive
(3) (2N − 1) (4) ( )
2N
(4) Both the plates will be negative
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39. If P represents radiation pressure, c represents 42. A rod of length 3m and its mass per unit length
speed of light and Q represents radiation energy is directly proportional to the distance x from its
striking a unit area per second, then non-zero one end. The center of gravity of the rod from
integers x, y and z such that PxQycz is
that end will be at
dimensionless, can be :-
(1) 1.5 m (2) 2 m
(1) x = 1, y = 1, z = – 1
(3) 2.5 m (4) 3.0 m
(2) x = 1, y = – 1, z = 1
(3) x = – 1, y = 1, z = 1
43. Two spheres each of mass M and radius R/2 are
connected with massless rod of length 2R as
(4) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
shown in the figure.
40. A girl finds herself stuck with her back to the
wall of a cylinder rotating about its axis. Which
diagram correctly shows the forces acting on
her?

The moment of inertia of the system about an

axis passing through the centre of one of the
spheres and perpendicular to the rod is
21 2
(1) MR2 (2) MR2
5 5
(1) (2) 5
5 MR2
(3) MR2 (4) 21
2

44. For a ball thrown vertically upwards and

returning back to ground, which will be its
distance-time graph.
(3) (4)

(1) (2)
41. Water falling from a 50 m high fall is to be used
for generating electric energy. If 1.8 × 105 kg of
water falls per hour and half the gravitational
potential energy can be converted into electric
(3) (4)
energy, how many 100 W lamps can be lit :-
(1) 75 (2) 100
(3) 125 (4) 150
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45. In Fig. shown, the block of mass m is at rest 48. A source of potential difference V is connected to
relative to the wedge of mass M and the wedge the combination of two identical capacitors as
is at rest with respect to ground. This implies shown in the figure. When key 'K' is closed, the
total energy stored across the combination is E1.
that :-
Now key 'K' is opened and dielectric of dielectric
constant 5 is introduced between the plates of the
capacitors. The total energy stored across the
combination is now E2. The ratio E1/E2 will be : -

(1) Net force applied by m on M is mg.

(2) Normal force applied by m on M is mg.
(3) Force of friction applied by m on M is mg. 1 2
(1) (2)
10 5
(4) None of above 5 5
(3) (4)
46. 13 26
The blocks A and B are arranged as shown in
the figure. The pulley is frictionless. The mass
49. In the given figure, a battery of emf E is connected
across a conductor PQ of length 'ℓ ' and different area
of A is 10 kg. The coefficient of friction
of cross-sections having radii r1 and r2 (r2 < r1).
between block A and horizontal surface is 0.20.
Choose the correct option as one moves from P to Q : -
The minimum mass of B to start the motion will
be : -

(1) Drift velocity of electron increases.

(1) 2 kg (2) 0.2 kg (2) Electric field decreases.
(3) 5 kg (4) 10 kg (3) Electron current decreases.
47. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a (4) All of these.
positive charge q distributed uniformly over it. 50. The current flowing through R2 is : -
The net field E→ at the centre O is : -

q ^ q ^
(1) j (2) − j 2 1
4π 2 ε 0 r2 4π 2 ε 0 r2 (1) A (2) A
3 4
q ^ q ^
(3) − j (4) j 1 1
2π 2 ε 0r
2 2π 2 ε 0 r2 (3) A (4) A
2 3

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 SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 56. Total number of optically active compounds

Attempt All 35 questions from the following is :-
51. Which of the following nitrogen containing
compound does not give Lassaigne’s test ?
(1) Phenyl hydrazine (2) Glycine
(3) Urea (4) Hydrazine
52. The adsorbent used in adsorption chromatography
(1) 4 (2) 3
is/are (3) 2 (4) 6
(1) silica gel (2) quick lime 57. Example of Vinylic halide is :
(3) magnesia (4) None of above
(1) (2)
53. Total No. of stereoisomer possible for the given
structure :

(3) (4)

(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 6 58. Which among the following halide will not show
54. SN1 reaction
The absolute configuration of is : (1) CH2=CH—CH2—Cl
(2) CH3—CH=CH—Cl
(1) (2S, 3S) (2) (2R, 3R)
(3) (2R, 3S) (4) (2S, 3R) (3)
55. Assertion [A] : SN2 reaction of C6H5CH2Br
occurs more readily than the SN2 reaction of (4)
CH3CH2Br.
Reason [R] : The partially bonded unhybridized 59. Which of the following compound is inactive
p-orbital that develops in the trigonal
bipyramidal transition state is stabilized by towards SN1 reaction
conjugation with the phenyl ring.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(1) (2)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (3) (4)

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

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60. Which one of the following compound will 64. Given below are two statements :
readily react with dilute NaOH ? Statement (I) : Aminobenzene and aniline are
same organic compounds.
(1) (2) CH3 – CH2 – OH
Statement (II) : Aminobenzene and aniline are
different organic compounds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(3) (4)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

61. The increasing order of acidity of the following

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
carboxylic acid is :-
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
65. Which of the following characteristic property of
KMnO4 is/are correct ?
(1) III < II < IV < I
(1) KMnO4 forms dark purple crystals
(2) I < III < II < IV
(2) SO2 is oxidised to SO42 – with KMnO4 in
(3) IV < II < III < I acidic medium
(4) II < IV < III < I (3) Purple colour to MnO4¯ ion is due to charge
62. The increasing order of the rate of HCN addition transfer
to compound A to D is (4) All of these
A. HCHO B. CH3COCH3 66. Which of the following belongs to the actinoids
C. PhCOCH3 D. PhCOPh series of elements ?
(1) A < B < C < D (1) Y (2) Ta

(2) C < D < B < A (3) U (4) Yb

(3) D < C < B < A 67. Which element do you expect to have the highest
melting point ?
(4) D < B < C < A
(1) La (2) W
63. Tollen’s reagent and Fehling solutions are used
to distinguish between. (3) Os (4) Pt

(1) Acid and Alcohol 68. Potassium dichromate reacts with potassium
iodide in acidic medium. What is oxidation state
(2) Alkane and Alcohol of product formed from reductant ?
(3) n-alkane and branched alkane (1) +1 (2) zero
(4) Ketones and Aldehydes (3) +3 (4) +5

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69. Which of the following configurations of ions 76. In Arrhenius equation k = Ae−Ea /RT , as
have zero CFSE in both strong and weak field lim log10 K equals to :
T→∞
ligands in octahedral complex ?
(1) lnA (2) A
(1) d8 (2) d4
(3) log10A (4) none of these
(3) d6 (4) d10
77. Statement-1: Time taken for the completion of
70. Facial-meridional isomerism is associated with 75% of a Ist order reaction is double that its t1/2.
which one of the following complexes ? Statement-2: Time taken for completion of any
(1) [Pt(py)2(NH3)2Cl]SO4 fraction of a Ist order reaction is a constant value.
(2) [Cr(gly)3] (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
(3) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl Statement-1.
(4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
71. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is : Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement-1.
(1) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two
"N" donor atoms (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

(2) Unidentate ligand (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(3) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms 78. Statement-1: A catalyst provides an alternative
path to the reaction in which conversion of
(4) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor reactants into products take place quickly.
atoms Statement-2: The catalyst forms an activated
72. Which of the following is not an ionic carbide :- complex of lower potential energy, with the
reactants by which more number of molecules
(1) CaC2 (2) Al4C3 are able to cross the barrier per unit of time.
(3) SiC (4) Be2C (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
73. Order of relative stability of +1 oxidation state Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
in Boron family :- Statement-1.
(1) Al < Ga < In < Tl (2) Al > Ga > In < Tl (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation
(3) Al = Ga = In = Tl (4) Al < Ga > In < Tl for Statement-1.
74. Which of the following compound does not (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
show Hydrolysis :- (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(1) NF3 (2) CCl4 79. Correct statements about a voltaic (galvanic) cell
(3) SF6 (4) All of these include which of the following?
75. Which of the following oxy acids of sulphur P. Oxidation occurs at the anode.
contains a sulphur-sulphur single bond ? Q. Electrons flow from the cathode to the anode.
(1) H2S2O7 (2) H2S2O8 (1) P only (2) Q only
(3) H2S2O5 (4) H2SO5 (3) Both P and Q (4) Neither P nor Q

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80. A gas Cl2 at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution 84. The index for the gold number is
containing a mixture of 1 M Br – 1 and 1 M F – 1 (1) Protective power of lyophilic colloid
at 25°C.If the reduction potential order is F > Cl
> Br. then : (2) Purity of gold

(1) Cl2 will oxidise Br – and not F – (3) Metallic gold

(2) Cl2 will oxidise F – and not Br – (4) Electroplated gold

(3) Cl2 will oxidise both Br – and F – 85. Phenolphthalein color in basic medium is

(4) Cl2 will reduce both Br2 and F2 (1) Pink

81. There is AB3 and sucrose solution with 0.1 M (2) Orange
concentration each. If osmotic pressure of AB3 (3) Yellow
and sucrose solution is 0.72 atm and 0.24 atm
(4) Colourless
respectively at same temperature. The fraction
of AB3 dissociated will be : SECTION-B
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.50 This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
(3) 0.67 (4) 0.90 these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
82. FeCl3 on reaction with K4 [Fe(CN)6] in aq. more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
solution gives blue colour. These are separated questions will be considered for marking.
by a semipermeable membrane PQ as shown.
Due to osmosis there is :
86. Match the following :
Column-I Column-II
(Test/Method) (Reagent)
C6H5SO2Cl/aq.
(I) Lucas Test (A)
KOH
Dumas
(1) blue colour formation in side X (II) (B) HNO3/AgNO3
method
(2) blue colour formation in side Y Kjeldahl’s
(3) blue colour formation in both of the sides X and y (III) (C) CuO/CO2
method
(4) no blue colour formation Conc. HCl and
83. Moles of K2SO4 to be dissolved in 12 mol water (IV) Hinsberg test (D)
ZnCl2
to lower its vapour pressure by 10 mm Hg at a
temperature at which vapour pressure of pure (E) H2SO4
water is 50 mm is : (Assume complete
(1) (I)-(D), (II)-(C), (III)-(B), (IV)-(A)
dissociation)
(2) (I)-(B), (II)-(D), (III)-(E), (IV)-(A)
(1) 3 mol (2) 2 mol
(3) (I)-(D), (II)-(C), (III)-(E), (IV)-(A)
(3) 1 mol (4) 0.5 mol
(4) (I)-(B), (II)-(A), (III)-(C), (IV)-(D)
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87. Identify the product A and product B in the 90. Cannizzaro’s reaction is not given by :
following set of reactions.
(1) (2)

(3) CH3—CHO (4) HCHO

(1) A = CH3 – CH2 – CH3, B = CH3 – CH2 – CH3 91. Given below are two statements :
(2) A = CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH,
Statement (I) : The NH2 group in Aniline is ortho
and para directing and a powerful activating
group.
(3) A = CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH, Statement (II) : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-
Craft’s reaction (alkylation and acylation).
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) , B = CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
88. Assertion (A) :- Alcohols act as both
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
nucleophiles and electrophiles.
Reason (R) :- Alcohols react with active metal (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
sodium, potassium and aluminium to form
alkoxides and Hydrogen gas. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct explanation of (A).
incorrect

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
92. KMnO4 acts as an oxidizing agent in :
the correct explanation of (A). (1) Acidic medium only
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (2) Neutral and acidic media
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (3) Neutral and alkaline media
89. In Cannizzaro reaction given below : (4) Neutral, acidic, and alkaline media

2PhCHO PhCH2OH + PhCOO – 93. Statement-I :- Geometrical isomers of the

complex [M(NH3)4Br2] are optically inactive.
the slowest step is : Statement-II : Both geometrical isomers of
(1) The transfer of hydride to the carbonyl [M(NH3)4Br2] have plane of symmetry.
group (1) Both Statements are true and statement-2 is
(2) The removal of proton from the carboxylic the correct explanation for statement-1
group (2) Both Statements are true but statement-2 is
(3) The deprotonation of PhCH2OH not the correct explanation for statement-1
(4) The attack of OH⊝ at the carboxylic (3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
group. (4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

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94. Which of the following complexes has magnetic 98. Given that,
moment of 2.83 BM ? EFo e2+ /F e = −0.44V ; EFo e3+ /F e2+ = 0.77V

(1) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ If Fe3+ and Fe solid are kept together then :

(2) [CoCl6]3 – (1) Fe3+ increases
(3) [Ni(CN)4]2 – (2) Fe3+ decreases
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (3) Fe2+/Fe3+ remains unchanged
95. 3 centered 2 electron bond is present in :- (4) Fe2+ decreases
(1) Be2H4 99. For 0.1 m aq. solution of given electrolytes
correct order of their increasing order of boiling
(2) Al2(CH3)6 point :
(3) B2H6 (1) CH3COOH < HCOOH < NaCl < Na2SO4
(4) All of these (2) HCl < HCOOH < NaCl < Na2SO4
96. For the reaction; H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g), the (3) HCOOH < CH3COOH < NaCl < Na2SO4
rate law is Rate = k[H2][I2] .
Which of the mechanisms given is consistent (4) Na2SO4 < NaCl < HCOOH < CH3COOH
with this rate law? 100. 10 ml of 10 M H2SO4 is mixed to 100 ml 1M
I II NaOH solution. The resultant solution will be
I2 ⇌ I + I (fast) I2 ⇌ I + I (slow) (1) Acidic
H2 + I + I → 2HI H2 + I + I → 2HI (2) Neutral
(slow) (fast)
(3) Weakly alkaline
(1) I only
(4) Strongly alkaline
(2) II only
(3) Either I or II
(4) Neither I nor II
97. Electrode potential data are given below:
Fe3+(aq) + e – → Fe2+(aq) ; E° = + 0.77 V
Al3+(aq) + 3e – → Al(s) ; E° = – 1.66 V
– –
Br2(aq) + 2e → 2Br (aq) ; E° = + 1.08 V
Based on the data given above reducing power
of Fe2+, Al and Br – will increase in the order :
(1) Br – < Fe2+ < Al
(2) Fe2+ < Al < Br –
(3) Al < Br – < Fe2+
(4) Al < Fe2+ < Br –

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 SUBJECT : BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A 106. Identify the incorrect statement(s) :-

Attempt All 35 questions (1) In compound leaves, the leaf blade is
101. Statement-I : All living organisms possess divided into leaflets.
metabolic reactions. (2) The outer covering of endosperm separates
Statement-II : Each name have two components the embryo by a proteinous layer called
generic name and the specific epithet. aleurone layer.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true. (3) Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are chambered due to the formation of the false
false. septum in tomato.

(3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is (4) The style connects the ovary to the stigma.
false. 107. The type of inflorescence wherein the main axis
(4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is has limited growth and ends in a flower is
true. termed :-

102. Who is known as the "Father of Taxonomy"? (1) Racemose (2) Cymose

(1) Aristotle (2) Linnaeus (3) Hypanthodium (4) Cyathium

(3) Darwin (4) Lamarck 108. In a monocot stem, which of the following
structures is absent?
103. Identify the incorrect statement(s) :-
(1) Ground tissue (2) Epidermis
(I) Growth is a defining feature of living
organisms. (3) Vascular bundles (4) Cambium
(II) All living organisms show cellular 109. Statement-I : When xylem and phloem within a
organization. vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate
(III) Reproduction is a defining characteristic of manner along the different radii, the arrangement
all living organisms. is called radial such as in stem.
(IV) All living organisms exhibit metabolism. Statement-II : The conjoint vascular bundles
(1) I and II (2) III only usually have the phloem located only on the
(3) II and IV (4) I, II, and III outer side of xylem.

104. In which type of phyllotaxy each node bear two (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct.
leaves?
(1) Alternate (2) Opposite (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Whorled (4) Spiral
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
105. Which part of a flower develops into fruit? incorrect.
(1) Ovule (2) Ovary (4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(3) Petal (4) Anther correct.

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110. Identify the correct statement :- 115. Identify the incorrect statement about Z scheme :-
(1) Initiation of lateral roots and vascular (1) Z shaped is formed when all the carriers are
cambium during the secondary growth placed in sequence on a redox potential
takes place in hypodermal cells. scale.
(2) The pith is small or inconspicuous in (2) PS I are excited when they receive red light
monocot root. of wavelength 700 nm.
(3) As compared to the monocot root, dicot (3) PS II absorbs 680 nm of blue light causing
root have fewer xylem bundles. electrons to become excited.
(4) The tangential as well as radial walls of the (4) Addition of electron (downhill) reduces
endodermal cells have a deposition of NADP+ to NADPH + H+
water-impermeable, waxy material suberin
in the form of conjunctive tissue.
116. _______________ is the synthesis of ATP from
ADP and inorganic phosphate in the presence of
111. The four elements called "Big-four" which make light.
up 95% of all elements found in a living system
are :- (1) Phosphorylation
(1) C, H, O, N (2) Photo phosphorylation
(2) C, H, O, P (3) Light reaction
(3) C, H, O, S (4) Dark reaction
(4) C, N, O, P 117. Photophosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flows
112. Macromolecules are :- of electrons when only PS I is functional in :-
(1) Nucleic acids, proteins and polysaccharides (1) Stroma lamellae (2) Grana lamellae
(2) Nucleic acids and monosaccharides (3) Stroma (4) Lumen
(3) Amino acids and polysaccharides 118. Which of the following is a first product of the
Calvin cycle?
(4) Amino acids, lipids and nucleotides
113. Fructose is a ketose sugar and also called :-
(1) Glucose
(2) Sucrose
(1) An aldose (2) Fruit sugar
(3) ATP
(3) Cane sugar (4) Corn sugar
114. Invert sugar is mixture of :-
(4) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

(1) Maltose and fructose

119. How many ATP are formed in ETS from
reduced NAD generated in one turn cycle of
(2) Glucose and galactose krebs' cycle?
(3) Glucose and fructose (1) 3 (2) 6
(4) All of the above (3) 12 (4) 9

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120. Chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP synthesis in 123. The unicellular eukaryotic organisms were placed in :-
respiration based on :- (1) Protista (2) Monera
(1) Proton gradient between lumen and stroma. (3) Fungi (4) Animalia
(2) Proton gradient between matrix and inner 124. Fungi differ from algae in having :-
membrane.
(1) Mainly cellulosic cell wall
(3) Proton gradient between matrix and inner
membrane space. (2) Mainly cell wall of chitin
(4) Proton gradient between matrix and inter (3) Unicellular nonjacketed sex organ
membrane space. (4) Starch as reserve food
121. What is shown in the figure :- 125. Match the following :-
Column-I Column-II
(i) Phaeophyceae (A) Fucoxanthin
(ii) Cyanophyceae (B) Phycoerythrin
(iii) Rhodophyceae (C) Chl a, b
(iv) Diatoms (D) Chrysolaminarin
(1) i – A, ii – B, iii – C, iv – D
(2) i – A, ii – C, iii – B, iv – D
(1) A → Heterocyst, B → Mucilaginous sheath (3) i – C, ii – B, iii – A, iv – D
(2) A → Akinete, B → Filament (4) i – B, ii – A, iii – D, iv – C
(3) A → Akinete, B → Hormogonia 126. Characteristic of angiosperms which distinguish
them from gymnosperms :-
(4) A → Akinete, B → Trichome
(1) Presence of fruits and flowers
122. Match the column and find the correct answer :-
Column-I Column-II (2) Double fertilization and triploid endosperm
formed after double fertilization
(A) Streptomyces (i) Food poisoning (3) Companion cells in phloem and vessels in xylem
Source of (4) All of the above
(B) Rhizobium (ii)
antibiotics
(C) Nitrosomonas (iii) Nitogen fixation
127. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to
represent a significant step toward evolution of
(D) Acetobacter (iv) Nitrification seed habit because :-
(v) Vinegar synthesis (1) Female gametophyte is free and gets
dispersed like seeds.
(1) A – iv, B – v, C – i, D – iii (2) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia.
(2) A – v, B – i, C – iii, D – iv (3) Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo
surrounded by seed coat.
(3) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – v
(4) Embryo develops in female gametophyte
(4) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – v which is retained on parent sporophyte.
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128. Assertion : In Eukaryotic cells there is an 131. In disjunction (separation) of sister chromatids at
anaphase :-
extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm.
(1) Centromere moves first and arms trail behind.
Reason : There is a presence of membrane
(2) Arms move first and centromere trails behind.
bound organelles in eukaryotic cells. (3) Any of the above cases.
(1) Assertion and Reason are correct and (4) Centromere does not move in anaphase.
Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
132. The sequence of substages of prophase-I are :-

(2) Assertion and Reason are correct and (1) Leptotene — Zygotene — Pachytene —
Reason is not the correct explanation Diplotene — Diakinesis
of Assertion.
(2) Leptotene — Zygotene — Pachytene —
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is
Diakinesis — Diplotene
incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is (3) Leptotene — Zygotene — Pachytene —
correct. Diakinesis
129. Which statement is not correct about integral (4) Leptotene — Pachytene — Diplotene —
and peripheral proteins :- Zygotene — Diakinesis
(1) They are considered as a membrane protein. 133. The phenomenon of apical dominance can be
(2) They are classified based on ease of overcome by exogenous application of :-
extraction.
(1) ABA (2) Gibberellins
(3) Peripharal proteins lie on the surface of
(3) Cytokinins (4) Ethylene
membrane while integral proteins are
134. The first natural cytokinin of plants is :-
partially buried in the membrane.
(1) Zeatin
(4) Peripharal proteins lie on the surface while
(2) Kinetin
integral proteins are partially or totally
(3) Dihydrooxyzeatin
buried in the membrane.
(4) Riboxylzeatin
130. What is the cause of cell division?
(1) Increase in surface area/volume ratio due to
135. Bakanae disease in japan was due to a fungus
known as :-
growth of cell.
(1) Gibberella fujikori
(2) Nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio decreases due to
increase in size of cell. (2) Aspergillus flavus
(3) Disturbance in lipid and protein ratio. (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) All of the above (4) Plasmopara viticola

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 SECTION-B 139. Amino acids usually exist in the form of Zwitter
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate ions. This means that they consist of :-
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of (1) The basic NH2 group and acidic COOH
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts group.
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted (2) The basic NH3+ group and acidic COO –
questions will be considered for marking. group.
136. Assertion : Nomenclature provides each (3) Basic COO – group and acidic NH3 – group.
organism a scientific name.
Reason : Scientific names are universally (4) None of the above
accepted. 140. Cellulose in plant cell wall is made up of :-
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and (1) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. linked by α , 1→6 glycosidic bond.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason (2) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. linked by β , 1→4 glycosidic bond.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. (3) Branched chain of glucose molecules linked
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. by α , →6 glycosidic bond in straight chain
& β →1,4 at the site of branching.
137. Out of four aestivations of petals given below,
which one is found in Malvaceae :- (4) Branched chains have α →1,4 bond
and β →1,6 glycosidic bonds both.
141. Which statement is incorrect with respect of
splitting of water :-
(1) Splitting of water is associated with PS II
(1) 1 (2) 2 (2) Water is splits into 2H+, [O] and electrons
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) Oxygen is one of the net products of
138. Statement-I : Sclerenchyma cells are dead at splitting of water
maturity. (4) Splitting of water process occurs on the
Statement-II : Sclerenchyma cells have lignified outer side of the membrane of thylakoid
cell walls that provide rigidity. 142. Pyruvic acid + CoA + NAD+
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct. Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH + H+
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is A is →
incorrect. (1) Coenzyme A
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (2) Mg+2
incorrect. (3) K+
(4) Only Statement-II is correct. (4) ATP

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143. Match the following and select the correct 147. Assertion : The cell wall provides a strong
combination from the options given below :- structural support to prevent the bacterium from
Column-I Column-II bursting or collapsing.
(Kingdom (Class) Reason : Cell envelope including cell wall act
together as a single protective unit.
(A) Plantae (1) Archaebacteria
(1) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason
(B) Fungi (2) Euglenoids
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) Protista (3) Phycomycetes
(2) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason
(D) Monera (4) Algae is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1 (3) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect.
(2) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4 (4) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
(3) A – 3, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1 148. Which is not a function of endoplasmic reticulum :
(4) A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1 (1) Endoplasmic reticulum form endoskeleton of cell
144. Mycorrhizae are symbiotic association of fungi (2) Endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for
with roots of higher plants. these are useful for synthesis of lipid.
plants due to their following attribute. (3) Endoplasmic reticulum is concerned with
(1) Fixing atmospheric nitrogen. detoxification of drugs, pollutants and steroids.
(2) Enhancing absorption of nutrients from (4) Endoplasmic reticulum perform the function
soil. of packaging material.
(3) Killing atmospheric nitrogen in nearby 149. Bivalents are formed in :-
area. (1) Diplotene (2) Pachytene
(4) Providing susceptibility against abiotic (3) Zygotene (4) Interkinesis
stress.
150. Go through the following figure :-
145. Select the mismatch :-
(1) Pinus – Coralloid roots
(2) Cycas – Unbranched stem
(3) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(4) Equisetum – Homosporous
146. Which one is wrongly matched? Choose the correct labelling.
(1) Unicellular organism — Chlorella (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Gemma cups — Marchantia (1) Log phase Exponential phase Stationary phase

(3) Biflagellate zoospores — Brown algae (2) Lag phase Exponential phase Stationary phase

(4) Uniflagellate gametes — Polysiphonia (3) Exponential phase Log phase Stationary phase

(4) Stationary phase Exponential phase Log phase

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 SUBJECT : BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A 156. All of the following factors are favourable for

Attempt All 35 questions dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin at tissues level,
except :
151. Body covered by calcareous shell and
(1) High pCO2
unsegmented with distinct head, muscular foot
(2) Lower temperature
and visceral hump is seen in :-
(3) Low pO2
(1) Mollusca (2) Echinodermata
(4) Higher H+ concentration
(3) Hemichordata (4) Chordata
152. 157. Mark the correct pair of muscles involved in the
Incomplete digestive system that has a single normal breathing in humans -
opening to outside of body that serves as both (1) External and internal intercostal muscles
mouth and anus is present in member of which
(2) Diaphragm and abdominal muscles
phylum ?
(3) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
(1) Porifera (2) Coelentrata
(4) Diaphragm, external and internal intercostal
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Aschelminthes muscles
153. Compound epithelium is found in all except : 158. Respiratory process is regulated by certain
(1) Dry surfaces of skin specialized centres in the brain. One of the
following listed centres can reduce the
(2) Moist surface of vagina
inspiratory duration upon stimulation –
(3) Inner lining of arteries
(1) Medullary inspiratory centre
(4) Moist surface of buccal cavity.
(2) Pneumotaxic centre
154. Simple squamous epithelium
(3) Chemosynthetic centre
(1) Is absent in thin part of loop of Henle
(4) Apneustic centre
(2) Is found in the walls of blood vessels and
air sacs of lungs
159. How many Antigen is present on the surface of
RBC in blood group AB positive ?
(3) Has no role in filtration (1) One (2) Two
(4) All are incorrect (3) Three (4) Four
155. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of 160. Fibrins are formed by conversion of ______ in
microvilli is found in :- ______ by the enzyme _______.
(1) Eustachian tube (1) Fibrinogen, Serum, Thrombokinase
(2) Lining of intestine (2) Prothrombin, Plasma, Thrombin
(3) Ducts of salivary gland (3) Fibrinogen, Plasma, Thrombin
(4) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron (4) Prothrombin, blood, Thrombokinase

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161. Rh antibodies from Rh -ve mother can be fatal 165. Which of the following is correct statement ?
to :- (1) Sternum is a flat bone on the dorsal side
(1) 1st Rh ⊕ child (2) The spinal cord protects the
(2) Subsequent foetus which is Rh ⊖ ve vertebrae column
(3) Subsequent foetus which is Rh ⊕ ve (3) Cervical vertebrae are seven in all mammals
(4) Not fatal to any foetus with no exception
162. Which one of the following statement is correct ?
(4) Vertebrae column serves as the point of
(1) Adult human excretes, on an average 3 to attachment for the musculature of the back
3-5 litres of urine per day
(2) In micturition relaxation of urethral
166. The cerebrum wraps around a structure called
sphincter cause release of urine ___. Which is major coordinating centre for
(3) Analysis of urine have least important role sensory and motor signaling.
in clinical diagnosis of metabolic disorders
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Corpus callosum
(4) Urine is slightly basic in nature
(3) Thalamus (4) Epithalamus
163. Match the column I with column II
167. Find out the incorrect statement from the options
Column-I Column-II given below :-
A Nephridia I Prawn
(1) Neurotransmitter bind to their specific
B Malpighian tubules II Earthworm receptors, present on the post synaptic
C Green glands III Cockroach membrane.

(1) A - I, B - II, C - III (2) A canal called the cerebral aqueduct

possesses through the midbrain.
(2) A - III, B - II, C - I
(3) Association areas of brain are responsible for
(3) A - II, B - III, C - I
complex functions like intersensory association,
(4) A - II, B - I, C - III memory and communication.
164. Which of the following is incorrect statement
(4) Electrical synapses pass electrical signal
about cardiac muscles?
between cells with the use of Ach.
(1) Found in heart and intestine
(2) Based on appearance, cardiac muscles are
168. Select the correct statement w.r.t brain stem
non-striated (1) It connects two cerebellar hemispheres
(3) They are voluntary in nature as the nervous (2) It includes midbrain and parts of hindbrain
system does not control their activities (3) Neural structure responsible for maintaining
directly
temperature of body
(4) All are incorrect
(4) It includes midbrain and complete hindbrain

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169. Which of the following statement is false ? 173. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates
(1) The endocrine system provides chemical erythropoiesis is secreted by :-
integration through hormones. (1) β cells of pancreas
(2) The neural system provides an organised (2) cells of Neurohypophysis
network of point-to-point connections for (3) Red bone marrow
quick coordination.
(4) Juxta glomerular cells of kidneys
(3) In our body neural system and endocrine
system jointly coordinate and integrate all
174. In amphibians, respiration occurs through -
the activities of the organs so that they (1) Gills
function in a synchronised fashion. (2) Lungs
(4) In Hydra a brain is present along with a (3) Skin
number of ganglia and neural tissue. (4) All of these
170. The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' 175. The following statement are associated with the
endocrine gland because occurrence of notochord. Identify the incorrect
(1) It is provided with a duct statement.
(2) It only stores and releases hormones (1) It is present only in larval tail in ascidians.
(3) It is under the regulation of hypothalamus (2) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult
frog.
(4) It secretes enzymes
(3) It is absent throughout the life in humans
171. Which of the following hormones can play a from the very beginning.
significant role in osteoporosis?
(4) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus.
(1) ADH 176. Refer the figures A, B and C and choose the
(2) Aldosterone correct option which shows animals that regulate
(3) Parathyroid hormone buoyancy with the help of air bladder.

(4) Prolactin
172. Statement I: Oxytocin is called milk ejecting
hormone.
Statement II: Epinephrine is a catecholamine.
(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) A and B
incorrect
(2) A and C
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct (3) B and C
(4) Both statements I and II are correct (4) All of the above

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177. The following figure shows the external features 180. During muscle contraction.
of cockroach with few structures labelled as A, (1) Chemical energy is changed to electrical
B, C, D, and E. Identify A to E . energy.
(2) Mechanical energy is changed to chemical
energy.
(3) Chemical energy is changed to physical
energy.
(4) Chemical energy is changed to mechanical
energy.
181. ‘X’ is an important part of ‘Y’ which lies at the
base of the structure which is a major
(1) A- Mesothorax, B-Pronotum, C-Metathorax, coordinating centre for sensory and motor
D-Tegmina, E-Anal style signalling. It contains a number of centre which
(2) `A- Pronotum, B-Metathorax, C-Mesothorax- control body temperature, urge for eating and
Tegmina, E-Sterna drinking.
(3) A- Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax, Identify X and Y from the options given below -
D-Tegmina, E-Anal cerci (1) X -Cerebellum; Y – Hindbrain
(4) A- Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax, (2) X -Hypothalamus; Y - Forebrain
D-Tegmina, E-Anal style
(3) X -Corpora quadrigemina; Y – Midbrain
178. Most oxygen is carried by the blood __(i)__.
(4) X -Pituitary gland; Y – Forebrain
Most carbon dioxide is carried by the blood
__(ii)__. 182. In hormone action, if receptor molecules are
removed from target organ, the target organ will -
(1) (i) attached to haemoglobin, (ii) in the form
of bicarbonate ions. (1) Continue to respond to hormone.
(2) (i) dissolved in plasma, (ii) dissolved in (2) Not respond to hormone.
plasma. (3) Continue to respond but requires higher
(3) (i) in the form of H+ ions, (ii) in the form of concentration.
bicarbonate ions. (4) Continue to respond but in the opposite way.
(4) (i) attached to haemoglobin, (ii) attached to 183. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism
haemoglobin. are -
179. Contraction of the ventricle in the heart begins (1) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and calcitonin
by the command from -
(2) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and
(1) Purkinje fibres glucocorticoids
(2) AV node (3) Insulin, glucagon, cortisol and melatonin
(3) Chordae tendinae (4) Insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and
(4) SA node melatonin

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184. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian 187. Statement-1 :- The skin of Aves is unique in
nephron which of the following event is to be possessing hairs.
expected? Statement-2 :- Most unique mammalian
(1) There will be no urine formation. character is presence of mammary glands.
(2) There will be hardly any change in the (1) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is
quality and quantity of urine formed. correct.
(3) The urine will be more concentrated. (2) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
(4) The urine will be more dilute. incorrect.
185. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
correct.
(1) Counter-current flow of blood in vasa recta
helps to retain the reabsorbed sodium in the (4) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
renal medulla. incorrect.
(2) Glomerular filtrate is protein free plasma. 188. Given below are some statements :
(3) Vasa recta carry glomerular filtrate from I. Members of this class are ectoparasite on some
distal convoluted tubule to the collecting duct. fishes.
(4) Glomerular filtrate in Bowman’s capsule is II. Bearing 6-15 pairs of gill slits.
isotonic to the plasma. III. Circular mouth without jaw.
SECTION-B IV. Member of this class are marine but migrate
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate for spawning to fresh water.
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of How many statements belong to class
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted cyclostomata ?

questions will be considered for marking. (1) Only two (2) Only three

186. Read the following terminology of column-I & (3) Only one (4) All four
II and identify their correct match :- 189. Which of the following statements is correct for
Column-I Column-II the organism shown in the given figure.
(A) Dorsal hollow nerve cord (i) Echinodermata
(B) Stomochord (ii) Porifera
(C) Radial symmetry (iii) Platyhelminthes
(D) Feather like gills (iv) Annelida
(v) Chordata
(vi) Mollusca
(vii) Hemichordata (1) It does not shows sexual dimorphism
(1) (A)-(v), (B)-(vii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv) (2) Body divisible into Head, Trunk and Tail
(2) (A)-(v), (B)-(vii), (C)-(vi), (D)-(ii) (3) Tadpole undergoes metamorphosis to form
(3) (A)-(v), (B)-(vii), (C)-(i), (D)-(vi) the adult.

(4) (A)-(vii), (B)-(v), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i) (4) Female lays 20000 – 22000 ova at a time

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190. Match the following columns 194.
Place pO2 pCO2
A Alveoli P 95 I 40
B Oxy. Blood Q 40 II 45
C Tissue R 104 III 40
(1) A - R - I, B - P - III, C - Q - II
Where among the following, one can find the
(2) A - P - II, B - Q - I, C - R - III
given tissue
(3) A - Q - I, B - P - II, C - R - III (1) Stomach, intestine, heart
(4) A - R - III, B - Q - II, C - P - I (2) Intestine, stomach, biceps
191. Find out the correct statement about human (3) Anterior 1/3rd of oesophagus, diaphragm
circulatory system ?
(4) Stomach, uterus, urinary bladder
(1) Opening between right atrium and right
ventricle is guarded by tricuspid valve 195. Match the list-I with list-II :-
(2) Heart is ectodermally derived organ List-I List-II
(3) Not all vertebrates posses muscular chambered Site of information
Somatic
heart A. processing and I.
neural system
(4) All molluscs have closed network of blood control
vessels
Relays impulses from
192. In which one of the following options Column I B. the CNS to skeletal II.
Autonomic
is correctly matched with Column II? neural system
muscles
Column I Column
II Comprises of all the
Reabsorption of glucose, amino acids, nerves of the body Central
(1)
Na+
Passive C. III.
associated with the neural system
(2) Reabsorption of urea Active CNS
(3) Tubular secretion of H+ Active Transmits impulses
+
Conditional reabsorption of Na and
Peripheral
(4) PCT D. from the CNS to the IV.
water neural system
involuntary organs
193. Which of the given regulatory mechanisms can be
observed once there is an increase in volume of body Choose the correct answer from the option given
fluid ?
a. Osmoreceptors on hypothalamus switch off below :-
b. Vasopressin from neurohypophysis is released (1) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)
c. Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and water (2) A-(III), B-(II), C-(IV), D-(I)
d. Constriction of blood vessels occur
(3) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(II), D-(III)
(1) a, c only (2) b, c, d only
(4) A-(I), B-(II), C-(III), D-(IV)
(3) a, d only (4) Only a
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196. How many statement are correct regarding 199. Thoracic chamber is formed (A) by the vertebral
hormones produced by β cells of "islet of column, (B) by the sternum, (C) by the ribs and
Langerhans" :- on the (D) side by the dome shaped diaphragm.
(a) It is a peptide hormone. Identify A, B, C and D.
(b) It mainly act on hepatocytes and enhance cellular
glucose uptake and utilisation. (1) A – dorsally, B – ventrally, C – laterally,
(c) Stimulate conversion of glucose to glycogen. D – lower
(d) Deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes (2) A – ventrally, B – laterally, C – dorsally,
mellitus.
D – upper
(1) (a), (b) is correct but (c), (d) are incorrect.
(3) A – laterally, B - ventrally, C – dorsally, D
(2) (a), (b), (c) are correct but (d) is incorrect. – lower
(3) (a), (b) is incorrect but (c), (d) is correct. (4) A – dorsally, B - laterally, C – ventrally, D
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct. – upper

197. Read the following statements. 200. Which one of the following statements is correct
Statement I : Parathyroid hormone acts on bones regarding blood pressure?
and structure the process of bone resorption. (1) 190/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like
Statement II : Parathyroid hormone also stimulates brain and kidney.
reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules and
(2) 130/90 mmHg is considered high and
increases Ca2+ absorption from the digested food.
requires treatment.
(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) 120/80 mmHg is considered an ideal blood
(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. pressure.
(3) Both statement I and II are correct. (4) 105/50 mmHg makes one very active.
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
198. The diagram given below represents the
reproductive organ of male cockroach. Choose
the correct labelling of the part of marked as A,
B, C and D.

(1) A – 8th sternum, B - Anal cercus, C - 10th

tergum, D - Anal style
(2) A - 10th tergum, B - Anal cercus, C - Anal
style, D - 8th sternum
(3) A - Anal style, B - Anal cercus, C - 10th
tergum, D- 8th sternum
(4) A - Anal cercus, B - 8th sternum, C - 10th
tergum, D - Anal style

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