Environmental Studies (BESK508/BCS508)

Module-5 – Latest Developments in Environmental Pollution

Mitigation Tools
Objective type questions & answers:

1. Remote sensing uses which of the following waves in its

procedure?
a) Electric field
b) Sonar waves
c) Gamma- rays
d) Electro-magnetic waves
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2. The relation between velocity, wavelength and frequency

can be given as
a. λ = c / r
b. λ = c / f
c. λ = c / h
d. λ = h*c / f
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3. Which of the following is not a principle of remote sensing?
a) Interaction of energy with satellite
b) Electromagnetic energy
c) Electro-magnetic spectrum
d) Interaction of energy with atmosphere
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4. Which among the following waves is having less wavelength
range?
a) 0.03mm
b) 0.03nm
c) 0.03m
d) 0.03km
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5. In visible region, the blue light is having a wave length range
of
a) 0.42-0.52 micrometer
b) 0.24-0.52 micrometer
c) 0.42-0.92 micrometer
d) 0.22-0.32 micrometer
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6. Which of the following is not a classification of scattering
principle?
a) Faraday scattering
b) Rayleigh scattering
c) Mie scattering
d) Non-selective scattering
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7. Polar orbiting satellites are generally placed at an altitude
range of
a) 7-15km
b) 7000-15000km
c) 700-1500km
d) 70-150km
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8. Which of the following field is used by the EM waves?
a) Solar field
b) Polarized field
c) Electric field
d) Micro field
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9. Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding
the electromagnetic radiation?
a) These are produced by the motion of electric charge
b) The oscillation of charged particles sets up changing electric fields
c) The changing electric fields induce the changing magnetic fields in the
surrounding medium
d) None of these
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10. The changes in the reflectivity/emissivity with time, is
called:
a) Spectral variation
b) Spatial variation
c) Temporal variation
d) None of these
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11. For interpolation of satellite data used for monitoring
dynamic changes that occurs on the earth surface, the most
suitable orbit for the satellite is:
a) Circular orbit
b) Sun-synchronous orbit
c) Near polar orbit
d) None of these
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12. The altitudinal distance of a geostationary satellite from
the earth is about
a) 26,000 km
b) 30,000 km
c) 36,000 km
d) 44,000 km
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13. Remote sensing includes gathering of
a. Images
b. Changes
c. Movements
d. Sounds
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14. GIS stands for
a) Geographic Information System
b) Generic Information System
c) Geological Information System
d) Geographic Information Sharing
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15. GIS deals with which kind of data
a) Numeric data
b) Binary data
c) Spatial data
d) Complex data
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16. Which of the following statements is true about the
capabilities of GIS
a) Data capture and preparation
b) Data management, including storage and maintenance
c) Data manipulation and analysis
d) Data presentation
e) All of the above
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17. By ‘spatial data’ we mean data that has
a) Complex values
b) Positional values
c) Graphic values
d) Decimal values
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18. ‘Spatial databases’ are also known as

a) Geodatabases
b) Monodatabases
c) Concurrent databases
d) None of the above
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19. Successful spatial analysis needs
a) Appropriate software
b) Appropriate hardware
c) Competent user
d) All of the above
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20. Electromagnetic radiation
a) produces a time varying magnetic field and vice versa
b) once generated, remains self-propagating
c) is capable to travel across space
d) consists of magnetic and electric fields
e) All of these

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21. Electromagnetic spectrum contains
a) Gamma rays (wave length < 10-10 m)
b) Ultraviolet rays (wave length < 10-6 m)
c) Infrared rays (wave length < 10-4 m)
d) All of these
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22. The code based GPS receivers are generally used for
a) Vehicle tracking
b) Land navigation
c) Trans movement
d) All of these
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23. Among the following can be expressed as an example of
hardware component
a) Keyboard
b) Arc GIS
c) Auto CAD
d) Digitalization
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24. Which of the following formats can be used for GIS output?
a) DXF
b) PDF
c) GIF
d) HTML
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25. Among the following, which do not come under the

components of GIS?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Compiler
d) Data
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26. Which of the following doesn’t determine the capability of
GIS?
a) Defining a map
b) Representing cartographic feature
c) Retrieving data
d) Transferring data
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27. Which of the following acts a benefit of GIS?
a) Maintaining geo spatial data
b) Data sharing
c) Accurate data information
d) Presence of data retrieval service
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28. Which among the following is a server based hardware
platform of GIS?
a) Autodesk Revit
b) STAAD Pro
c) Arc GIS
d) Google-maps
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29. Mapmakers use GIS to
A) store geographic information
B) use geographic information
C) view geographic information
D) store, use and view geographic information
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30. The information in GIS is entered and stored as
A) panels
B) layers
C) single panel
D) dual-panel
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31. The user can use GIS to make
A) complex analyses only
B) display maps only
C) complex analyses and display maps
D) none of these
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32. Melting of polar ice is expected to cover a sea level rise of
approximately
a) 10 metre
b) 20 metre
c) 60 metre
d) 100 metre
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33. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a greenhouse gas
(GHG) is a factor comparing the global warming impacts of
a) 1 m3 of GHG with 1 m3 of CO2
b) 1 kg of GHG with 1 kg of CO2
c) 1 gram mole of GHG with 1 gram mole of CO2
d) 1 kg of GHG with 1 mole of CO2
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34. The term B10 implies
a) Blending of 10 percent biodiesel with 90 percent conventional diesel.
b) Blending of 90 percent biodiesel with 10 percent conventional diesel.
c) Blending of 50 percent biodiesel with 50 percent conventional diesel.
d) Blending of 1 percent biodiesel with 10 percent conventional diesel.
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35. The validity period of Environmental Clearance after
Environmental Impact Assessment is least for
a) Mining projects
b) River valley projects
c) Harbor projects
d) Area development projects
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36. In Environmental assessment study, interpretation and
evaluation should consider
a) Uncertainty of possible impacts
b) Significance of measured impacts
c) Comparison of alternatives
d) All of the above
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37. Who are responsible for the public consultation process of

EIA?
a) State Pollution Control Board
b) State Pollution Control Board and District Collector
c) State Pollution Control Board and CPCB Chairman
d) State Pollution Control Board and Civil Society
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38. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory
under which one of the following India legislations:
a) Indian Forest Act
b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
c) Wildlife Protection Act
d) Environment (Protection) Act
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39. What is Eutrophication?
a) thermal change in water
b) filling up of water body with aquatic plants due to excessive nutrients
c) pollution of water due to solid waste
d) none of the above
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40. In which year EIA was started in India?
a) 1967-68
b) 1976-77
c) 1986-87
d) 1972-73
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40. ISO 14000 standards are for the
a. Quality Management System
b. Environmental Management System
c. Administration
d. Supply chain
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41. Which is the first environmental management system
standard?
a. BS 7750
b. ISO 9000
c. ISO 9001
d. ISO 9004
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42. In which year did the current revision of ISO 14001 get
published?
a) 2010
b) 2011
c) 2015
d) 2016
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42. Which one of the following is not within the purview of ISO
14000 family of standards?
a) Environmental management system
b) Environment auditing
c) Life-cycle assessment
d) Quality management system
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43. What is the full form of NGOs?
a) Non-Governmental Organizations
b) Non Governance Organizations
c) No Governance Organizations
d) Null Governmental Organizations
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44. In which of the following sector NGOs are playing an
important role?
a) In governing the police force
b) In framing the policy related to laws
c) In framing the environmental policy
d) In deforestation
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45. Which one of the following does not belong to the area of
Organization Evaluation Standards in ISO 14000 series?
a) Environmental management system
b) Environmental auditing
c) Environmental performance evaluation
d) Environmental labels and declarations
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46. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall
under the category of Environmental Management System?
a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004
b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14001
c) ISO 14011 and ISO 14001
d) ISO 14011 and ISO 14004
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47. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall

under the category of Environmental Auditing?
a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004
b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14011
c) ISO 14011 and ISO 14001
d) ISO 14012 and ISO 14004
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48. Which ISO 14000 series standard refers to the guidelines

on Environmental Performance Evaluation?
a) ISO 14001
b) ISO 14004
c) ISO 14010
d) ISO 14031