SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

PHYSICS
Subject Code – 042
CLASS – XII
Academic Session 2024 – 25

Maximum Marks: 70 Time Allowed: 3 hours

General Instructions

(1) There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.

(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
(3) All the sections are compulsory.
(4) Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark
each, Section B contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of
three marks each, Section D contains two case study-based questions of four marks each and
Section E contains three long answer questions of five marks each.
(5) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question in Section
B, one question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section D and all three questions in
Section E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
(6) Use of calculators is not allowed.
(7) You may use the following values of physical constants where ever necessary
i. c = 3 x 108 m/s
ii. me = 9.1 x10-31 kg
iii. mp = 1.7 x10-27 kg

iv. e = 1.6 x 10-19 C

v. µ0 = 4π x 10-7 T m 𝑨−𝟏
vi. h = 6.63 x10-34 J s
vii. ε0 = 8.854 x10-12 𝑪𝟐 𝑵−𝟏 𝒎−𝟐
viii. Avogadro’s number = 6.023 X 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑 per gram mole
 [SECTION – A] (16x1=16 marks)

Q1. A uniform electric field pointing in positive X-direction exists in a region. Let A be the origin, B be the
point on the X-axis at x = +1 cm and C be the point on the Y-axis at y = +1 cm. Then the potential at
points A, B and C satisfy.

(A) VA < VB (B) VA > VB. (C) VA < VC (D) VA > VC

Q2. A conducting wire connects two charged conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2 such that they attain
equilibrium with respect to each other. The distance of separation between the two spheres is very large
as compared to either of their radii.

The ratio of the magnitudes of the electric fields at the surfaces of the spheres of radii r1 and r2 is
𝑟 𝑟2 𝑟2 2 𝑟1 2
(A) 𝑟1 (B) (C) (D)
2 𝑟1 𝑟1 2 𝑟2 2

Q3. A long straight wire of circular cross section of radius ҅a᾿ carries a steady current I. The current is
uniformly distributed across its cross section. The ratio of magnitudes of the magnetic field at a point
a/2 above the surface of wire to that of a point a/2 below its surface is
(A) 4:1 (B) 1:1 (C) 4: 3 (D) 3 :4

Q4. The diffraction effect can be observed in

(A) sound waves only (B) light waves only
(C) ultrasonic waves only (D) sound waves as well as light waves

Q5. A capacitor consists of two parallel plates, with an area of cross-section of 0.001 m2, separated by a
distance of 0.0001 m. If the voltage across the plates varies at the rate of 108 V/s, then the value of
displacement current through the capacitor is

(A) 8.85 × 10−3 𝐴 (B) 8.85 × 10−4 𝐴 (C) 7.85 × 10−3 𝐴 (D) 9.85 × 10−3 𝐴

Q6. In a series LCR circuit, the voltage across the resistance, capacitance and inductance is 10 V each. If
the capacitance is short circuited the voltage across the inductance will be

(A) 10 V (B) 10√2 V (C) 10/√2 V (D) 20 V

Q7. Correct match of column I with column II is

C-l (waves) C-ll (Production)

(1) Infra-red P . Rapid vibration of electrons in aerials

(2) Radio Q . Electrons in atoms emit light when they move from higher to
lower energy level.

(3) Light R . Klystron valve

(4) Microwave S . Vibration of atoms and molecules

(A) 1-P, 2-R, 3-S, 4-Q (B) 1-S, 2-P, 3-O, 4-R

(C) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R (D) 1-S. 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q

Q8. The distance of closest approach of an alpha particle is d when it moves with a speed V towards a
nucleus.
Another alpha particle is projected with higher energy such that the new distance of the closest
approach is d/2. What is the speed of projection of the alpha particle in this case?

(A) V /2 (B) √2 V (C) 2 V (D) 4 V

Q9. A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm and refractive index 1.5. The
distance of virtual image from the surface of the sphere is

(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 12 cm

Q10. Colours observed on a CD (Compact Disk) is due to

(A) Reflection (B) Diffraction (C) Dispersion (D) Absorption

Q11. The number of electrons made available for conduction by dopant atoms depends strongly upon
(A) doping level (B) increase in ambient temperature
(C) energy gap (D) options (A) and (B) both

Q12. If copper wire is stretched to make its radius decrease by 0.1%, then the percentage change in its
resistance is approximately
 (A) –0.4% (B) +0.8% (C) +0.4% (D) +0.2%

For Questions 13 to 16, two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.

A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Q13. Assertion (A): On increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer by increasing the number of
turns may not necessarily increase its voltage sensitivity.
Reason(R) : The resistance of the coil of the galvanometer increases on increasing the number of
turns.

Q14. Assertion (A): In a hydrogen atom there is only one electron but its emission spectrum shows many
lines.
Reason (R): In a given sample of hydrogen there are many atoms each containing one electron;
hence many electrons in different atoms may be in different orbits so many transitions from higher
to lower orbits are possible.

Q15. Assertion (A): Nuclei having mass number about 60 are least stable..
Reason (R): When two or more light nuclei are combined into a heavier nucleus then the binding
energy per nucleon will decrease.

Q16. Assertion (A): de Broglie's wavelength of a freely falling body keeps decreasing with time.
Reason (R): The momentum of the freely falling body increases with time.

[SECTION – B] (05x2=10 marks)

Q17. A platinum surface having work function 5.63 eV is illuminated by a monochromatic source of 1.6
x 10 15 Hz. What will be the minimum wavelength associated with the ejected electron.
 Q18. (I) A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 4000 Å and 6000 Å, is used to obtain
interference fringes in a Young’s double-slit experiment. What is the least distance from the
central maximum where the dark fringe is obtained?

OR
(II) In Young’s double-slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensities
of two sources are I. What is the intensity of light at a point where path difference between
wavefronts is λ/4?

Q19. P and Q are two identical charged particles each of mass 4 × 10–26 kg and charge 4.8 × 10–19 C,
each moving with the same speed of 2.4 × 105 m/s as shown in the figure. The two particles are
equidistant (0.5 m) from the vertical Y -axis. At some instant, a magnetic field B is switched on so
that the two particles undergo head-on collision.

Find –
(I) the direction of the magnetic field and
(II) the magnitude of the magnetic field applied in the region.

(for VI candidates)

A proton is moving with speed of 2 x 105 m s–1 enters a uniform magnetic field B = 1.5 T. At the
entry velocity vector makes an angle of 30° to the direction of the magnetic field. Calculate
(a) the pitch of helical path described by the charge
(b) Kinetic energy after completing half of the circle.

Q.20. Binding energy per nucleon vs mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y and Z
are four nuclei indicated on the curve. Identify which of the following nuclei is most likely to undergo
(i) Nuclear Fission
 (ii) Nuclear Fusion.
Justify your answer.

(for V.I. Candidates)

Binding energy per nucleon and mass number of the following nuclei are given in the below table

Nuclei Binding energy per nucleon (MeV) Mass number

W 7.5 190
X 8.0 90
Y 8.5 60
Z 5.0 30
Identify which of the following nuclei is most likely to undergo
(i) Nuclear Fission
(ii) Nuclear Fusion.
Justify your answer.

Q21. A cylindrical conductor of length l and cross-section area A is connected to a DC source. Under the
influence of electric field set up due to source, the free electrons begin to drift in the opposite direction
of the electric field.
(I) Draw the curve showing the dependency of drift velocity on relaxation time.
 (II) If the DC source is replaced by a source whose current changes its magnitude with time such
that I = Io sin 2πνt , where ν is the frequency of variation of current, then determine the average drift
velocity of the free electrons over one complete cycle.
[SECTION – C ] (07x3=21 marks)

Q22. (I) Identify the circuit elements X and Y as shown in the given block diagram and draw the output
waveforms of X and Y.

(II) If the centre tapping is shifted towards Diode D1 as shown in the diagram, draw the output
waveform of the given circuit.

(for V.I. candidates)

Which device is used to convert AC into DC. State it’s underlying principle and explain its working. If
the frequency of input AC to this device is 60 Hz, then what will be frequency of the output of this
device.

Q23. Find the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plate separation
d when (I) a dielectric slab of thickness t and (II) a metallic slab of thickness t, where (t < d) are
introduced one by one between the plates of the capacitor. In which case would the capacitance be
more and why?

Q24. (I) Draw a ray diagram for the formation of image by a Cassegrain telescope.
(II)Why these types of telescopes are preferred over refracting type telescopes. (Write 2 points)
(for V.I. Candidates)
A Cassegrain telescope is built with an arrangement of two mirrors placing them 20 mm apart. If the radius
of curvature of the large mirror is 200mm and the small mirror is 150mm, where will the final image of an
object at infinity be?

Q25. (I) Draw the energy band diagram for P-type semiconductor at (i) T=0K and (ii) room temperature.
(II)In the given diagram considering an ideal diode, in which condition will the bulb glow
(a) when the switch is open
(b) when the switch is closed
Justify your answer.

(for V.I. Candidates)

Explain briefly how

(i) barrier potential is formed in p-n junction diode.

(ii) Width of depletion region of the diode is affected when it is (a) forward biased, (b) reverse
biased.

Q26. A boy is holding a smooth, hollow and non-conducting pipe vertically with charged spherical ball of
mass 10 g carrying a charge of +10 mC inside it which is free to move along the axis of the pipe.
The boy is moving the pipe from East to West direction in the presence of magnetic field of 2T. With
what minimum velocity, should the boy move the pipe such that the ball does not move along the
axis. Also determine the direction of the magnetic field.

Q27. A light ray entering a right-angled prism undergoes refraction at the face AC as shown in Fig. 1.

(I) What is the refractive index of the material of the prism in

Fig. 1?
 2
(II) (a) If the side AC of the above prism is now surrounded by a liquid of refractive index , as
3
shown in Fig. 2, determine if the light ray continues to graze along the interface AC or undergoes
total internal reflection or undergoes refraction into the liquid.

(b) Draw the ray diagram to represent the path followed by the incident ray with the corresponding
angle values.
√2
(Given, 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 ( ) = 54.6° )
√3

(for V.I. candidates)

A ray of light is incident on an equilateral prism at an angle 3/4 th of the angle of the prism. If the ray
passes symmetrically through the prism, find the (a) angle of minimum deviation, and (b) refractive index
of the material of the prism.

Q28. (I) State Gauss᾿s theorem in electrostatics. Using this theorem, derive an expression for the electric
field due to an infinitely long straight wire of linear charge density .
OR

(II) (a) Define electric flux and write its SI unit.

(b) Use Gauss᾿s law to obtain the expression for the electric field due to a uniformly charged
infinite plane sheet of charge.

[SECTION D] (02x4=08 marks)

Q29. Case Study Based Question: Motion of Charge in Magnetic Field

An electron with speed vo << c moves in a circle of radius ro in a uniform magnetic field. This
electron is able to traverse a circular path as the magnetic force acting on the electron is
 perpendicular to both vo and B ,as shown in the figure. This force continuously deflects the
particle sideways without changing its speed and the particle will move along a circle
perpendicular to the field. The time required for one revolution of the electron is To

(i) If the speed of the electron is now doubled to 2vo. The radius of the circle will change to

(A) 4ro (B) 2 ro (C) ro (D) ro/2

(ii) If v = 2vo, then the time required for one revolution of the electron (To ) will change to

(A) 4 To (B) 2 To (C) To (D) To/2

(iii) A charged particle is projected in a magnetic field B = (2 i + 4 j) X 102 T . The acceleration of the
particle is found to be a = ( x i + 2 j ) m/s2 . Find the value of x.

(A) 4 ms-2 (B) -4 ms-2 (C) -2 ms-2 (D) 2 ms-2

(iv) If the given electron has a velocity not perpendicular to B, then trajectory of the electron is

(A) straight line (B) circular (C) helical (D) zig-zag

OR

If this electron of charge (e) is moving parallel to uniform magnetic field with constant velocity v, the
force acting on the electron is

(A) Bev (B) Be/v (C) B/ev (D) Zero

Q30. Case Study Based Question: Photoelectric effect

It is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from a metallic surface when light of a suitable frequency
is incident on it. The emitted electrons are called photoelectrons.
 Nearly all metals exhibit this effect with ultraviolet light but alkali metals like lithium, sodium,
potassium, cesium etc. show this effect even with visible light. It is an instantaneous process i.e.
photoelectrons are emitted as soon as the light is incident on the metal surface. The number of
photoelectrons emitted per second is directly proportional to the intensity of the incident radiation. The
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a given metal surface is independent of
the intensity of the incident light and depends only on the frequency of the incident light. For a given
metal surface there is a certain minimum value of the frequency of the incident light below which
emission of photoelectrons does not occur.

(I) In a photoelectric experiment plate current is plotted against anode potential.

(A) A and B will have same intensities while B and C will have different frequencies
(B) B and C will have different intensities while A and B will have different frequencies
(C) A and B will have different intensities while B and C will have equal frequencies
(D) B and C will have equal intensities while A and B will have same frequencies.

(II) Photoelectrons are emitted when a zinc plate is

(A) Heated (B) hammered

(C) Irradiated by ultraviolet light (D) subjected to a high pressure

(III) The threshold frequency for photoelectric effect on sodium corresponds to a wavelength of 500 nm.
Its work function is about

(A) 4x10−19 J (B) 1 J (C) 2x10−19 J (D) 3x10−19 J

(IV) The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when photons of energy 6 eV
fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential is

(A) 2 V (B) 4 V (C) 6 V (D) 10 V

 OR

The minimum energy required to remove an electron from a substance is called its

(A) work function (B) kinetic energy (C) stopping potential (D) potential energy

[SECTION E] (03X5=15)

Q31. (I) a) Write two limitations of ohm’s law. Plot their I-V characteristics.

b) A heating element connected across a battery of 100 V having an internal resistance of 1 Ω

draws an initial current of 10 A at room temperature 20.0 °C which settles after a few seconds to a
steady value. What is the power consumed by battery itself after the steady temperature of 320.0 °C
is attained? Temperature coefficient of resistance averaged over the temperature range involved is
3.70 × 10–4 °C–1.

OR

(II) a) Using Kirchhoff'᾿s laws obtain the equation of the balanced state in Wheatstone bridge.

b) A wire of uniform cross-section and resistance of 12 ohm is bent in the shape of circle as
shown in the figure. A resistance of 10 ohms is connected to diametrically opposite ends C
and D. A battery of emf 8V is connected between A and B. Determine the current flowing
through arm AD.

(for V.I. Candidates)

(II) a) Using Kirchhoff'᾿s laws obtain the equation of the balanced state in Wheatstone bridge.
 b) What do you understand by ‘sensitivity of Wheatstone bridge’ ? How the sensitivity of wheatstone
bridge can be increased?

Q32. (I) Explain briefly, with the help of a labelled diagram, the basic principle of the working of an a.c.
generator. In an a.c. generator, coil of N turns and area A is rotated at an angular velocity ω in a
uniform magnetic field B. Derive an expression for the instantaneous value of the emf induced
in coil. What is the source of energy generation in this device?

OR

(II) a) With the help of a diagram, explain the principle of a device which changes a low ac voltage
into a high voltage . Deduce the expression for the ratio of secondary voltage to the primary
voltage in terms of the ratio of the number of turns of primary and secondary winding. For an
ideal transformer, obtain the ratio of primary and secondary currents in terms of the ratio of
the voltages in the secondary and primary coils.

b) Write any two sources of the energy losses which occur in actual transformers.

c) A step-up transformer converts a low input voltage into a high output voltage. Does it violate
law of conservation of energy? Explain.

Q33. (I) a) A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an objective lens of focal length 15 m. If an
eyepiece of focal length 1.0 cm is used, what is angular magnification of the telescope in
normal adjustment?

b) If this telescope is used to view the moon, what is the diameter of the image of the moon formed
by the objective lens? The diameter of the moon is 3.48 × 106 m, and the radius of lunar orbit
is 3.8 × 108 m.

OR

(II) A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm and an eyepiece of
focal length 6.25 cm separated by a distance of 15 cm. How far from the objective should an object
be placed in order to obtain the final image at

a) the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm) and

b) infinity? What is the magnifying power of the microscope in each case?
 MARKING SCHEME
PHYSICS
Subject Code – 042
CLASS – XII
Academic Session 2024 – 25

Maximum Marks:70 Time Allowed: 3hours

[SECTION – A]
Ans.1- (B) (1 mark)

VA> VB [VA = VC]

In the direction of electric field, the electric potential decreases.

Ans.2- (B) In the state of equilibrium, (1 mark)

The potential on the surface of bigger sphere = the potential at the surface of the smaller sphere
kq1 kq2 q r
=  1 = 1
r1 r2 q2 r2

E1 q1 r22 r1 r22 r2
 = =  =
E 2 q2 r12 r2 r12 r1

Ans.3 - (C) (1 mark)

0 I  I
AtP2, B2 = = 0
  3a
3 a
2  
 2 
0 (I 4) 0 I
AtP1, B1 = =
2 ( a 2 ) 4a

 0 I 
B2  3a  B 4
 =  2 =
B1  0 I  B1 3
 4a 
 

Ans.4 - (D)Sound waves as well as light waves (1 mark)

Ans.5 -(A) (1 mark)

Ans.6 - (C)When all the given components are connected(1 mark)

 IR = IXC = IXL = 10V
XC = XL = R
Z= R 2 + (X C − X L )2

Z= R 2 + (R − R)2
Z=R
VS = IZ = IR = 10 V
So, the source voltage is also 10 V
When the capacitor is short circuited then

Z= R 2 + (X L )2

= √𝑅 2 + 𝑅 2 = 𝑅√2
10
VL = I XL = R =5 2 V
2R

Ans.7 - (B)(1 mark)

Ans.8 - (B) The distance of closest approach(1 mark)

const
d= ...(1)
V12
d const
= ...(2)
2 V22
From equations (1) and (2),
V22
2= V2 = 2 V1
V12

 V2 = 2V Given, (V1 = V)

Ans.9 - (C)(1 mark)

𝑛2 𝑛1 𝑛2 − 𝑛1
− =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑅
1 3 [1 − 3 2]
− =
v 2[−6] −6
1 −3 1 −2 −1
= + = =
v 12 12 12 6
𝑣 = –6 cm
Ans.10 - (B)Diffraction (1 mark)
Ans.11- (A)doping level (1 mark)
Ans.12- (C)+0.4% (1 mark)
Ans.13- (A) (1 mark)
Ans.14- (A)(1 mark)
Ans.15- (D)(1 mark)
Ans.16- (A)(1 mark)

[SECTION – B]

Ans.17–
Given ∅𝟎 = 𝟓. 𝟔𝟑𝒆𝑽 = 𝟓. 𝟔𝟑 × 𝟏. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟗 𝑱
𝝂 = 𝟏. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟓 𝑯𝒛

𝒉𝒄
𝑲. 𝑬. = 𝒉𝝂 − ∅𝟎 = 𝝀
½

𝒉𝒄
𝝀= ½
𝒉𝝂−∅𝟎

𝟔.𝟔𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑𝟒 ×𝟑 ×𝟏𝟎𝟖

= 𝟔.𝟔𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑𝟒 ×𝟏.𝟔×𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟓 − 𝟓.𝟔𝟑 ×𝟏.𝟔×𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟗
½

𝟏𝟗. 𝟖𝟗 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟐𝟔
=
𝟏. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟗 (𝟔. 𝟔𝟑 − 𝟓. 𝟔𝟑)

𝟏𝟗.𝟖𝟗 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟐𝟔
= 𝟏.𝟔×𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟓
= 𝟏𝟐. 𝟒 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟕 𝒎 ½

Ans.18 - 𝜆1 = 4 × 10−7 𝑚𝜆2 = 6 × 10−7 𝑚

1 𝜆𝐷
Distance at which dark fringe is observed 𝑥 = (𝑛 + 2) 𝑑
½
1 4×10−7
First Dark fringe for 𝜆1 𝑑1 = 2 10−2
𝑚 = 2 × 10−5 𝑚 ½
 1 6×10−7
First Dark fringe for 𝜆2 𝑑2 = 𝑚 = 3 × 10−5 𝑚
2 10−2

First dark fringe will be the distance where both dark fringes will coincide i.e LCM of 𝑑1 &𝑑1 ½
i.e. 2 × 10−5 𝑚 × 3 × 10−5 𝑚
= 6 × 10−5 𝑚 ½

OR

(II) 𝑁𝑒𝑡 𝐼 = 𝐼 1 + 𝐼2 + 2√𝐼1 √𝐼2cosФ 0.5 M

Since, 𝐼 1 = 𝐼2 = 𝐼
Net I = I + I + 2 I cosФ
= 2I (1 + cosФ)
∅
= 2I (2 cos2 ) 0.5 M
2

For path difference λ/4 , phase difference is π/2 0.5 M

𝜋
Net I = 4 I cos24
Net I = 2 I 0.5 M

(2 Marks)
Ans.19 - (I)The direction of the magnetic field is perpendicular and inward into the plane of thepaper 0.5M
(II) For a head-on collision to take place, the radius of the path of each ion should be equal to 0.5
m.
mv
r= = 0.5 m 0.5M
qB

mv 4  10−26  2.4  105

B= = 0.5M
qr 4.8  10−19  0.5
B = 0.04 T 0.5M

For VI Candidate
2Л𝑚𝑣 𝑐𝑜𝑠Ɵ
(a) As Pitch (p)= 0.5M
𝑞𝐵
2 𝑋 3.14 𝑋 1.7𝑋10−27 𝑋 2 𝑋105 𝐶𝑜𝑠 300
Or, p= m
1.6 𝑋10−19 𝑋1.5
Or, P=7.7X10-3m 0.5M
(b)As, done by magnetic field is always zero K.E=1/2mv20.5M
KE=3.4 X 10-17J 0.5M
Ans.20 –(i) Nuclear fission –W
0.5M
Reason: As W has binding energy per nucleon less then Y and X and nucleus is larger
in size.
0.5M
 (ii) Nuclear fusion-Z 0.5M
Reason: As Z has binding energy per nucleon more then Y and X and nucleus is smaller
in size. 0.5M
𝟏
Ans. 21 - (I) 𝑫𝒓𝒊𝒇𝒕 𝒗𝒆𝒍𝒐𝒄𝒊𝒕𝒚 ∝ 𝑹𝒆𝒍𝒂𝒙𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝒕𝒊𝒎𝒆

1M

(II) Alternating current changes direction every half cycle. 0.5 M

So average drift velocity is zero 0.5 M
[SECTION – C]

(3 Marks)
Ans.22 -(I) X = Full wave rectifier½
Y = Filter½

(Output Waveform for X) ½

(Output Waveform for Y) ½

(ii) 1
For VI Candidates
Rectifier 0.5M
Underlying principle of Rectifier
The basic principle of the rectifiers is the transformation of current by changing the frequency of the
input signal, and diodes are used to do this.
0.5M

Working
In rectifier, one end of terminal which is connected to PN junction diode will never have negative
potential, as it allows current in forward biasing only. Hence potential difference across load resistor
will always be Positive or zero.
1M

For 60 Hz input of AC, output of

Half wave rectifier will be 60Hz 0.5M
Full wave rectifier will be 120 Hz 0.5M

Ans.23 - (I)The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with dielectric slab (t < d)

(3 Marks)

0.5M

+q, –q = the charges on the capacitor plates

+qi, – qi = Induced charges on the faces of the dielectric slab
E0 → electric field intensity in air between the plates
E → the reduced value of electric field intensityinside the dielectric slab.
When a dielectric slab of thickness t<d is introduced between the two plates of the capacitor the electric
field reduces to E due to the polarisation of the dielectric. The potential difference between the two plates is
given by
V = V1 + Vt + V2
V = E0d1 + Et + E0d2 … (1)0.5M
Here E is the reduced value of electric field intensity
 E = E0 + Ei . Here Ei is the electric field due to the induced charges [+qi and – qi]

E = E02 + Ei2 + 2 E0 Ei cos180

( E0 − Ei )
2
=
E = E0 – Ei0.5M
Also the dielectric constant K is given by
E0
K= … (2)
E
 q
E0 = = … (3)
0 A0
From equations (1), (2) and (3)
𝐸0
𝑉 = 𝐸0 [𝑑1 + 𝑑2 ] + 𝐾
𝑡
𝑞 𝑡
𝑉 = 𝐴𝜀 [𝑑 − 𝑡 + 𝐾] … (4)
0

The capacitance of the capacitor on the introduction of the dielectric slab is

q
C= … (5)
V
From (4) and (5)
𝜀0 𝐴
𝐶= 𝑡 0.5M
𝑑−𝑡+
𝐾
0 A 0 A
If t = d, then C = K ⇒ C = KC0 Here C0 =
d d
Since K >1 therefore C > C0
𝜀0 𝐴
(II) For a metallic slab K is infinitely large, therefore 𝐶= 1M
𝑑−𝑡

(3 Marks)
Ans.24 -(i)
2

(ii) 1
• It has mirror objective, which is free from chromatic and spherical aberrations.
• It can gather more light as objectives can be made larger, hence images can be brighter.
Any other two equivalent examples can be accepted.

For V.I Candidates

 Objective mirror,
Radius of curvature, R1=200mm
Focal Length, f1=R1/2=100mm 0.5M
Secondary Mirror,
Radius of curvature, R1=150mm
Focal Length, f1=R1/2=75mm 0.5M

Distance between two mirror, x=20mm

For object at infinity, image is formed by objective lens will act as virtual object for secondary mirror
U2=(100-20)mm=80mm 0.5M
Applying, mirror formula for secondary mirror
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
+ = 0.5M
𝒗𝟐 𝒖𝟐 𝒇𝟐
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
Or, = -
𝒗𝟐 𝒇𝟐 𝒖𝟐
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
= - = 0.5M
𝟕𝟓 𝟖𝟎 𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟎
V2=1200mm 0.5M

Ans.25 -

(a). T = 0 K

1M

(b) T = Room Temperature

1M

(ii) Answer will be (a) when switch is open 0.5M

as when switch is closed diode will be forward biased and current will by-pass the bulb. 0.5M
For V.I. Candidate
(i) A potential barrier is formed in a p-n junction due to the depletion layer, which is a layer of
unmovable positive and negative charges that develops on either side of the junction. The depletion
layer is created when holes move towards electrons, causing a layer of electrons on the p-type side
and a layer of holes on the n-type side. The potential difference across this region is called the barrier
potential 2M
(ii)(a) In forward biasing width of depletion region decreases. 0.5M
(b) In reverse biasing width of depletion region increases. 0.5M

Ans.26 - (3 Marks)
Given
𝐵 = 2 𝑇 , 𝑞 = 10𝑚𝐶 , 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑏𝑎𝑙𝑙 = 10−2kg , 𝑔 = 9.8 𝑚⁄ 2
𝑠

Magnetic force (𝑞𝑣𝐵 sin 𝜃) = 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 (𝑚𝑔)

𝑚𝑔
𝑣= ½
𝑞𝐵 sin 𝜃

For min. velocity sin 𝜃 = 1

𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔
𝑣= 𝑞𝐵 sin 𝜃
= 𝑣= 𝑞𝐵
½

10−2 × 9.8
= m/s ½
10−2 × 2

=4.9m/s

𝑣 = 4.9 𝑚⁄ 2 ½
𝑠

As force is in upward direction so from Fleming’s Left-hand rule, magnetic field will be along North to
South. 1

(3 Marks)
Ans.27 - (I)Since the light ray enters perpendicular to the face AB, the angle of incidence onface AC will
be45° . 0.5M
So,
1
sin C =
n
1 1
𝑠𝑖𝑛 45° = 𝑛 = So, n = 2 0.5M
√2
𝑛𝑔 √2 √3
(II)In fig.2, the face AC of the prism is surrounded by a liquid so𝑛 = = 2 =
𝑛𝑙 ( ) √2
√3
 1 2 √2
sin C = = 𝜃𝐶 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 ( 3) = 54.6°
n 3 √

Since the angle of incidence on the surface AC is 45° , which is less than the critical angle for the
pair of media (glass and the liquid), the ray neither undergoes grazing along surface AC, nor does
it suffer total internal reflection 1M

Instead it passes through the surface AC and undergoes refraction into the liquid.
For refracting interface AC, n1 sin i = n2 sin r
2
𝑛1 . 𝑠𝑖𝑛45° = ( ) 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑟
√3
√3
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑟 = ⸫ 𝑟 = 60° .
2

1M

(3 Marks)
For V.I. candidates
(a) Let the angle of incidence of light at prism, I = x
So, angle of emergence as per question, e = x
4
Angle of prism, A = 𝑥
3
0.5M
Since prism Is equilateral
3A=1800
0.5M
Or, A= 600
Or, X=450
From prism formulaeδ
δ= i+e-A
0.5M
or, δ=45+45-60=300 0.5M

𝒔𝒊𝒏𝑨+𝜹𝒎
𝟐
(b)𝝁 = 0.5M
𝒔𝒊𝒏𝑨
𝟐
𝟔𝟎+𝟑𝟎
𝒔𝒊𝒏
𝟐
Or,𝝁= 𝟔𝟎
𝒔𝒊𝒏
𝟐
Or, 𝝁=√𝟐 0.5M
1
Ans.28– (I)Gauss’stheorem: The flux of electric field through any closed surface is times the total
0
charge enclosed by the closed surface.
q
= … (1)
0
By definition, the total electric flux through the closed surface is given by
⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝜙 = ∮ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑠 … (2)
∴ From (1) and (2), Gauss’s theorem may be expressed as follows
𝑞
𝜙 = ∮ 𝐸⃗ . ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑠 = 𝜀
0

1
∴ The surface integral of electric field over a closed surface is equal to times the total charge enclosed
0
by the surface. 1M

Application of Gauss’s theorem

To find electric field due to a line charge let us consider an infinitely long line charge placed along XX’ axis
with linear charge density λ. Our aim is to find electric field intensity at a point P distantr from the line
charge. We draw a cylindrical surface of radius r and length l coaxial with the line charge. The net flux
through the cylindrical gaussian surface i.e.

0.5M
⃗⃗⃗⃗ = ∫ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑠
𝜙 = ∮ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ + ∫ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑠
⃗⃗⃗⃗ + ∫ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑠
⃗⃗⃗⃗ 0.5M
𝐿𝐶𝐹 𝐶𝑆 𝑅𝐶𝐹
= ∫𝐿𝐶𝐹 𝐸𝑑𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 9 0° + ∫𝐶𝑆 𝐸𝑑𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 0 ° + ∫𝑅𝐶𝐹 𝐸𝑑𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 9 0°0.5M
ϕ = ∫𝐶𝑆 𝐸𝑑𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 0 ° = 𝐸. 2𝜋𝑟𝑙 … (1)
The charge enclosed by the gaussian surface is q = λl… (2)
Using Gauss’s theorem from equations(1) and (2)
l 
E ( 2rl ) = ⇒E = 0.5M
0 2 0 r
OR

(II) (a) Definition of electric flux and its SI unit 1M

(b)Electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge.
Let us consider an infinite thin plane sheet of positive charge having a uniform surface charge density .
Let P be the point where electric field E is to be found. Let us imagine a cylindrical gaussian surface
of length 2r and containing P as shown. The net flux through the cylindrical gaussian surface.

0.5M
  = ∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝐴
=  E  dA +  E  dA +  E  dA 0.5M
RCF LCF CS

=  EdA cos 0 +  EdA cos 0 +  EdA cos90 0.5M

RCF LCF CS

= E A + EA + 0
 = 2 EA ...(1)
Here A is the area of cross-section of each circular facei.e. LCF and RCF.
The total charge enclosed by the gaussian cylinder
= A ...(2)0.5M
Using Gauss’s theorem, from (1) and (2),
A
2 EA =
ε0

E=
2ε 0

Ans.29 -I(B) II(C) III(B) IV (C) 0R IV (D) (4X1=4)

Ans.30 - I(D) II(C) III (A) IV(B) 0R IV (A) (4X1=4)

(5 Marks)
Ans.31–(I) (a) Kirchhoff’s I Law :The algebraic sum of all the currents meeting at a point in an electrical
circuit is always equal to zero.1M

[+I1] + [+I2] + [–I3] +[–I4] + [– I5] = 0

Or I1 + I2 = I3 + I4 + I5
Kirchhoff’s II Law :The algebraic sum of the changes in potential around any closed resistor loop must be
zero.1M

For closed mesh ABCFA

[+E1] [– I1R1] + [–E2] + [+I2R] = 0 … (1)

For closed mesh FCDEF

[+E2] + [-(I1+I2)]R3 + [–I2R2] = 0 … (2)
 𝜀
(b).𝐼 = 𝑊ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑅0 𝑖𝑠 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑎𝑡 𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑚 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 200 ½
𝑅0 + 𝑟

𝜀
⇒ 𝑅0 = -1
𝐼

100
OR 𝑅0 = -1 = 𝑅0 = 9Ω ½
10

Now Final temperature is 3200C

So, 𝑅 = 𝑅0 (1 + 𝛼Δ𝑇) ½

= 9 ( (1 + 3.7 × 10−4 × 300)

= 10 Ohm ½

Power Consumed by cell (𝑃) = 𝑖 2 𝑟 ½

𝜀
= (𝑅+ 𝑟)2 × 𝑟 𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑡

100
= ( 11 )2 = 82.64 W ½

OR

(II)(a) The Wheatstone bridgeis as shown in the figure

1M

0.5M
Applying Kirchhoff’s II law to mesh ABDA
I1P + IgG – I2R = 0 …..(1) 0.5M
For the mesh BCDB
(I1 – Ig)Q + [–(I2 + Ig)S] + [–IgG] = 0 (2) 0.5M When the bridge is
balanced, no current flows through the galvanometer
i.e. Ig = 0 (3)

∴From equations (1) and (2) and (3)

I1P = I2R … (4)
I1Q = I2S … (5)
From equations (4)and (5), P/Q = R/S. 0.5M

(b).

This circuit is balanced wheat stone bridge that can be drawn as below,

As it is balanced wheatston bridge ,so circuit will be as below 1

8
𝑉𝐴𝐵 = 8𝑉 , ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝐶𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ 𝐴𝐷𝐵 = = 2𝐴 1
4

(for V.I. Candidates)

(II) (a) question is same

(b) The sensitivity of a Wheatstone bridge is the amount of deflection in the attached galvanometer for every
unit change in the unknown resistance 1M
 A Wheatstone bridge is most sensitive when its four arms have resistances that are of the same order of
magnitude. This means that all four resistors provide the same output resistance. A Wheatstone bridge is in
a balanced state when its galvanomater shows zero deflection 1M

Ans.32 - (I) AC Generator (5 Marks)

It is a device used to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy

Principle: It is based on the principle of electromagnetic induction. When a closed coil is rotated
rapidly in a strong magnetic field, the magnetic flux linked with the coil changes continuously.
Hence an emf is induced in the coil and a current flows in it. In fact, the mechanical energy
expended in rotating the coil appears as electrical energy in the coil.
1M
Construction: Main Parts 1M
1. Armature: It is a rectangular coil ABCD having a large number of turns of insulated copper wire
wound on a soft-iron core. The use of soft-iron core increases the magnetic flux linked with the
armature.

2. Field Magnet: It a strong electromagnet having concave pole pieces N and S. The armature is
rotated between these pole pieces about an axis perpendicular to the magnetic field.

3. Slip Rings: The leads from the armature coil ABCD are connected to two copper rings R1 and R2
called the ‘slip rings’. These rings are concentric with the axis of the armature coil and rotate with it.

4. Brushes:These are two carbon pieces B1 and B2 called brushes which remain stationary pressing
against the slip rings R1 and R2 respectively. The brushes are connected to an external circuit.

Working Theory : When the coil ABCD is rotated inside the field, an emf is induced between its two
ends. Let the plane of the coil be at right angles to the magnetic field at t = 0 and angular speed of
the rotation of the coil be ω. Then at time t, θ = ωt. The magnetic flux linked with the coil at time t is
ϕ = n BA cosωt
−d  −d
Induced emf e = =  nBA cos t 
dt dt
⇒e = n BA ω sinωt
e = e0sinωt Where e0 = nBAω is the peak value of emf.
The current in the external load is given by
e0 sin t
i=
RL
i = i0sinωtHere i0 is the peak value of the current 1M

1M
 1M
In an ac generator the source of electrical energy is the mechanical energy.

OR
(II)
(a)TRANSFORMER

Use: It is a device which converts low ac voltage at high current into high ac voltage at low current
and vice – versa.

Principle: It consists of two coils P and S wound on a closed soft iron core. The coil which is fed
from the ac supply is called primary coil (P) and the other connected to the load is called secondary
coil (S). The core of the transformer is made of soft -iron toreduce hysteresis loss and is laminated
to reduce eddy current losses.1M

Working: When an alternating emf ep is impressed on the primary winding it sends an ac current
through it which sets up an alternating magnetic flux in the core. This induces an alternating emf es
in the secondary. If NP and Ns are the number of turns in primary and secondary coil, their linkages
with the flux are

ϕP = NPBA B → Magnetic induction

ϕS = NsBA A → Area of cross section0.5 M
The magnitude of the emf induced in the secondary
d S dB
es = = NS A … (1)
dt dt
The changing flux also induces an emf in the primary, whose magnitude
d P dB
eP = = NP A … (2)
dt dt
From equations (1) and (2)
emf induced in secondary e N
= s = s … (3)0.5 M
voltage applied to primary eP N P
NS
= turns ratio or transformation ratio.
NP
If Ns> NP, eS>eP → Such a transformer is called step-up transformer
If NS< NP, es<eP → Such a transformer is called step-down transformer
In an ideal transformer
Instantaneous output power = instantaneous input power
 esis = ePiP … (4)
From equations (3) and (4)
es i p N s
= = 0.5 M
e p is N p
In a step- up transformer Ns> Np, es>ep but is<ip
In a step-down transformer Ns< Np, es<ep but is>ip
At the generating station a step-up transformer is used for stepping up the voltage and at the
various receiving substations a step-down transformer is used

0.5M
(b) The two sources of energy losses are eddy current losses and flux leakage losses. 1M
(c)There is no violation of the principle of the conservation of energy in a stepup transformer. When
output voltage increases the output current decreases automatically keeping the power the
same.1M

(5 Marks)
Ans.33–(I) Given𝑓0=15m, 𝑓𝑒 =1cm=0.01m
𝑓0 15
(i) Angular magnification of the telescope M = = =1500 1M
𝑓𝑒 0.01
(ii) Let d be thediameter ofmoon᾿simage formed by the objective lens.

Therefore, Angle subtended by the moon at the objective lens

𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑜𝑛 3.48×106
α= = (1) 1.5M
𝑅𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑢𝑛𝑎𝑟 𝑜𝑟𝑏𝑖𝑡 3.8×108

Similarly, the angle subtended by moon᾿s image (formed by the objective) at the objective
𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑚𝑜𝑜𝑛᾿𝑠 𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑑
α= = (2) 1.5M
𝑓0 15

Comparing equations (1) and (2) we have

𝑑 3.48×106
=
15 3.8×108

3.48×106
d= × 15=0.137m=13.7cm 1M
3.8×108

OR
(II) (a) For eyepiece,𝑣𝑒 =-25cm,𝑓𝑒 =6.25cm, 𝑢𝑒 =?
1 1 1
Using = -
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
1 1 1 1 1 −1
= - = - = 0.5M
𝑢𝑒 𝑣𝑒 𝑓𝑒 −25 6.25 5

𝑢𝑒 =-5cm 0.5M
Therefore the image formed by the objective is formed at a distance of 10 cm towards the eyepiece.
Hence for the objective,𝑣0 =+10 cm,𝑓0=2cm, 𝑣0 =?
1 1 1 1 1
= - = - 0.5M
𝑢0 𝑣0 𝑓0 10 2

𝑢0 =-2.5cm 0.5M
𝑣0 𝐷 10 25
Therefore the magnifying power M= (1+ )= (1+ )=20 0.5M
|𝑢0 | 𝑓𝑒 2.5 6.25

(b) When the final image is formed at infinity the object for the eyepiece must lie at its principal
focus.Thereforethe distance of the image formed by the objective from its optical center,
𝑣0 =15-6.25=8.75cm 0.5M
1 1 1 1 1 6.75
= - = - = 0.5M
𝑢0 𝑣0 𝑓0 8.75 2 17.50
−17.5
𝑢0 = =-2.6cm 0.5M
6.75
𝑣0 𝐷 8.75 25
M= . = × =13.5 1M
|𝑢0 | 𝑓𝑒 2.6 6.25
 SAMPLE PAPER (2024 -25)
CHEMISTRY THEORY (043)
Max. Marks:70 Time: 3 hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Read the following instructions carefully.
(a) There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
(b) SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
(c) SECTION B consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
(d) SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
(e) SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
(f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
(g) All questions are compulsory.
(h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

SECTION A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each
question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.

1 Ammonolysis of ethyl chloride followed by reaction of the amine so formed with 1

1 mole of methyl chloride gives an amine that

a. reacts with Hinsberg reagent to form a product soluble in an alkali.

b. on reaction with Nitrous acid, produced nitrogen gas.
c. reacts with Benzenesulphonyl chloride to form a product that is insoluble
in alkali.
d. does not react with Hinsberg reagent.

2 Which one of the following has the highest dipole moment? 1

a. CH3F
b. CH3Cl
c. CH3I
d. CH3Br

3 Match the properties given in column I with the metals in column II 1

Column I Column II
(i) Actinoid having configuration [Rn] 5f 76d17s2 (A) Ce
(ii) Lanthanoid which has 4f14 electronic (B) Lu
configuration in +3 oxidation state.
(iii) Lanthanoid which show +4 Oxidation state (C) Cm

1
 a. (i)-(C), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(A)
b. (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B)
c. (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C)
d. (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C)

4 Study the graph showing the boiling points of bromoalkanes and identify the 1
compounds.

a. 1 = Bromomethane, 2= 2-Bromobutane, 3= 1-Bromobutane,

4= 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane

b. 1 =1-Bromobutane, 2= 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane, 3= 2-Bromobutane,

4= Bromomethane

c. 1 = Bromomethane, 2=1-Bromobutane, 3= 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane,

4= 2-Bromobutane,

d. 1 =Bromomethane, 2= 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane, 3=2- Bromobutane,

4= 1-Bromobutane

(for visually challenged learners)

Which of the following haloalkanes has the highest boiling point?
a. 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane
b. 2-Bromobutane
c. Bromomethane
d. 1-Bromobutane

2
5 The initial concentration of R in the reaction R🡪P is 4.62 x 10-2 mol/L. What is 1
the half life for the reaction if k = 2.31x 10-2 molL-1s-1

a. 30 s
b. 3s
c. 1s
d. 10 s

6 When C6H5COOCOCH3 is treated with H2O , the product obtained is : 1

a. Benzoic acid and ethanol

b. Benzoic acid and ethanoic acid
c. Acetic Acid and phenol
d. Benzoic anhydride and methanol

7 1

‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the above table are:

a. X=[Co(NH3)6]2+3Cl-, Y= 1:3
b. X= [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+Cl,- Y= 1:3
c. X=[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+Cl-, Y= 1:1
d. X=[Co(NH3)4Cl2]3+3Cl-, Y= 1:1

8 Which of the following contains only β-D- glucose as its monosaccharide unit: 1

a. Sucrose
b. Cellulose
c. Starch
d. Maltose

9 Which one of the following sets correctly represents the increase in the 1
paramagnetic property of the ions?

a. Ti3+< Fe2+ < Cr3+ < Mn2+

b. Ti3+< Mn2+< Fe2+ < Cr3+
c. Mn2+< Fe2+< Cr3+<Ti3+
d. Ti3+< Cr3+< Fe2+ < Mn2+

3
10 A first-order reaction is found to have a rate constant, k = 5.5 × 10-14 s-1. The 1
time taken for completion of the reaction is:

a. 1.26 x 1013 s
b. 2.52 x 1013 s
c. 0.63 x 1013 s
d. It never goes to completion

11 A student was preparing aniline in the lab. She took a compound “X” and 1
reduced it in the presence of Ni as a catalyst. What could be the compound “X”

a. Nitrobenzene
b. 1-Nitrohexane
c. Benzonitrile
d. 1-Hexanenitrile

12 Which of the following compound gives an oxime with hydroxylamine: 1

a. CH3COCH3
b. CH3COOH
c. (CH3CO)2O
d. CH3COCl

13 Assertion (A): [Mn(CN)6]3– has a magnetic moment of two unpaired electrons 1

while [MnCl6]3– has a paramagnetic moment of four unpaired electrons.
Reason (R): [Mn(CN)6]3– is inner orbital complexes involving d2sp3
hybridisation,on the other hand, [MnCl6]3– is outer orbital complexes involving
sp3d2 hybridisation.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

14 Assertion (A): For strong electrolytes, there is a slow increase in molar 1

conductivity with dilution and can be represented by the equation

Reason (R): The value of the constant ‘A’ for NaCl, CaCl2, and MgSO4 in a
given solvent and at a given temperature is different.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

4
15 Assertion (A) Glucose does not form the hydrogensulphite addition product 1
with NaHSO3 .
Reason (R): Glucose exists in a six-membered cyclic structure called pyranose
structure.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

16 Assertion (A): The half- life for a zero order reaction is independent of the initial 1
concentration of the reactant.
Reason (R): For a zero order reaction, Rate = k

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

SECTION B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The following
questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.

17 a. Nitrogen gas is soluble in water. At temperature 293 K, the value of KH is 1

76.48 kbar . How would the solubility of nitrogen vary (increase, decrease or
remain the same) at a temperature above 293 K , if the value of KH rises to
88.8 kbar.
b. Chloroform (b.p. 61.2oC) and acetone (b.p. 56oC ) are mixed to form an
azeotrope. The mole fraction of acetone in this mixture is 0.339. Predict 1
whether the boiling point of the azeotrope formed will be (i) 60oC (ii)64.5 oC
or (iii)54 oC. Defend your answer with reason.

OR

a. A soda bottle will go flat (loose its fizz) faster in Srinagar than in Delhi. Is this
statement correct? Why or why not? 1
b. How does sugar help in increasing the shelf life of the product?
1

18 a. Write the IUPAC name of the following complex: K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2]H2O 1

b. Name the metal present in the complex compound of
(i) Haemoglobin (ii) Vitamin B-12 ½+½

5
19 Observe the following cell and answer the questions that follow:

a. Represent the cell shown in the figure. 1

b. Name the carriers of the current in the salt bridge ½
c. Write the reaction taking place at the anode. ½
(for visually challenged learners)
For the cell represented as:

Mg(s)/Mg2+(aq)//Ag+(aq)/Ag(s) 1
a. Identify the cathode and the anode 1
b. Write the overall reaction

20 Complete the following reactions by writing the major and minor product in each
case (any 2)
1
a. CH3CH2Br + KCN →

b. CH3CH2CH = CH2 + HBr 🡪 1

c. (CH3)2CHCHClCH3 + alc KOH → 1

21 The presence of Carbonyl group in glucose is confirmed by its reaction with 1

hydroxylamine. Identify the type of carbonyl group present and its position. Give
a chemical reaction in support of your answer. 1

SECTION C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in one question. The following
questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.

22 a. Write down the reaction occurring on two inert electrodes when 2

electrolysis of copper chloride is done. What will happen if a concentrated
solution of copper sulphate is replaced with copper chloride?
6
 b. Write an expression for the molar conductivity of aluminium sulphate at
infinite dilution according to Kohlrausch law. 1

23 Account for the following:

a. The lowest oxide of transition metal is basic, and the highest is acidic. 1
b. Chromium is a hard metal while mercury is a liquid metal 1
c. The ionisation energy of elements of the 3d series does not vary much 1
with increasing atomic number.

24 a. Give the chemical reaction involved when p-nitrotoluene undergoes Etard 1

reaction.
b. Why does Benzoic acid exist as a dimer in an aprotic solvent? 1
c. Benzene on reaction with methylchloride in the presence of anhydrous 1
AlCl3 forms toluene. What is the expected outcome if benzene is replaced
by benzoic acid? Give a reason for your answer.

OR

An organic compound ‘X’, does not undergo aldol condensation. However ‘X’
with compound ‘Y’ in the presence of a strong base react to give the compound
1,3-diphenylprop-2-en-1-one.
1
a. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’ 1
b. Write the chemical reaction involved. 1
c.Give one chemical test to distinguish between X and Y.

25 a. Give the structure of all the possible dipeptides formed when the following 2
two amino acids form a peptide bond.

Alanine

Glycine

1
b. Keratin, insulin, and myosin are a few examples of proteins present in the
human body. Identify which type of protein is keratin and insulin and
differentiate between them based on their physical properties.

7
26 Neeta was experimenting in the lab to study the chemical reactivity of alcohols.
She carried out a dehydration reaction of propanol at 140oC to 180oC. Different
products were obtained at these two temperatures.
a. Identify the major product formed at 140oC and the substitution 1+½
mechanism followed in this case. 1+½
b. Identify the major product formed at 180oC and the substitution
mechanism followed in this case.

27 Various isomeric haloalkanes with the general formula C4H9Cl undergo 3

hydrolysis reaction. Among them, compound “A” is the most reactive through
SN1 mechanism. Identify “A” citing the reason for your choice. Write the
mechanism for the reaction.

28 The equilibrium constant of cell reaction :

Sn4+(.aq) + Al(s) → Al3+ + Sn2+ (aq) is 4.617 x 10184, at 25 oC

2
a. Calculate the standard emf of the cell.
(Given: log 4.617 x 10184 = 184.6644)

b. What will be the Eo of the half cell Al3+/Al , if Eo of half cell Sn4+/Sn2+ is 1
0.15 V.

SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice
and carries 4 (2+1+1) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions
that follow.

29 Dependence of the rate of reaction on the concentration of reactants,

temperature, and other factors is the most general method for weeding out
unsuitable reaction mechanisms. The term mechanism means all the individual
collisional or elementary processes involving molecules (atoms, radicals, and
ions included) that take place simultaneously or consecutively to produce the
observed overall reaction. For example, when hydrogen gas reacts with
bromine, the rate of the reaction was found to be proportional to the
concentration of H2 and to the square root of the concentration of Br2.
Furthermore, the rate was inhibited by increasing the concentration of HBr as
the reaction proceeded. These observations are not consistent with a
mechanism involving bimolecular collisions of a single molecule of each kind.
The currently accepted mechanism is considerably more complicated, involving
the dissociation of bromine molecules into atoms followed by reactions between
atoms and molecules:

It is clear from this example that the mechanism cannot be predicted from the

8
 overall stoichiometry.

(source: Moore, J. W., & Pearson, R. G. (1981). Kinetics and mechanism. John
Wiley & Sons.)

a. Predict the expression for the rate of reaction and order for the following:

H2 + Br2 🡪 2 HBr 1

What are the units of rate constant for the above reaction? 1

b. How will the rate of reaction be affected if the concentration of Br2 is tripled?
1
OR

What change in the concentration of H2 will triple the rate of reaction?

c. Suppose a reaction between A and B, was experimentally found to be first 1

order with respect to both A and B. So the rate equation is:

Rate = k[A][B]

Which of these two mechanisms is consistent with this experimental finding?

Why?

Mechanism 1

A → C + D (slow)

B + C → E (fast)

Mechanism 2

A + B → C + D (slow)

C → E (fast)

30 Amines are basic in nature. The pKb value is a measure of the basic strength of
an amine. Lower the value of pKb, more basic is the amine. The effect of
substituent on the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution was determined
using titrations. The substituent “X” replaced “-CH2” group in piperidine (
compound 1) and propylamine CH3CH2CH2NH2, (compound 2).

Compound 1: Compound 2: HXCH2CH2NH2

9
The experimental data is tabulated below:

Substituent Electro-n substituted pKa Substituted propylamine pKa

“X” egativity piperidine compound
of X compound

CH2 2.55 11.13 CH3CH2CH2NH2 10.67

NH 3.12 9.81 NH2CH2CH2NH2 10.08

O 3.44 8.36 HOCH2CH2NH2 9.45

CH3CON 3.6 7.94 CH3CONHCH2CH2NH2 9.28

C6H5CON 3.7 C6H5CONHCH2CH2NH2

7.78 ___

(source: Hall Jr, H. K. (1956). Field and inductive effects on the base strengths
of amines. Journal of the American Chemical Society, 78(11), 2570-2572.)

Study the above data and answer the following questions:

a. Plot a graph between the electronegativity of the substituent vs pKb value of

the corresponding substituted propyl amine (given that pKa + pKb =14). Is there 2
any relation between the electronegativity of the substituent and its basic
strength?

b. The electronegativity of the substituent “C6H5CON” is 3.7, what is the

expected pKa value of compound C6H5CONHCH2CH2NH2? 1

10
 (i) 9.9 (ii) 9.5 (iii) 9.3 (iv) 9.1

c. The pKa value of the substituted piperidine formed with substituent “X” is 1
found to be 8.28. What is the expected electronegativity of “X”

(i)3.5 (ii)3.4 (iii)3.8 (iv) 3.1

OR

What is the most suitable pKa value of the substituted propylamine formed with
substituent “X” with electronegativity 3.0

(i)10.67 (ii)10.08 (iii)10.15 (iv)11.10

(for visually challenged learners)

a.How does the electronegativity of the substituent affect the pKb value and the
basic strength of the substituted propyl amine (given that pKa + pKb =14).? Give 2
a reason to support your answer.

b. The electronegativity of the substituent “C6H5CON” is 3.7, what is the 1

expected pKa value of compound C6H5CONHCH2CH2NH2?

(i) 9.9 (ii) 9.5 (iii) 9.3 (iv) 9.1

c. The pKa value of the substituted piperidine (compound 1) formed with 1

substituent “X” is found to be 8.28. What is the expected electronegativity of “X”

(i)3.5 (ii)3.4 (iii)3.8 (iv) 3.1

OR

What is the most suitable pKa value of the substituted propylamine formed with
substituent “X” with electronegativity 3.0

(i)10.67 (ii)10.08 (iii)10.15 (iv)11.10

SECTION E
The following questions are long answer types and carry 5 marks each. All questions
have an internal choice.

31 a. A purple colour compound A, which is a strong oxidising agent and used for
bleaching of wool, cotton, silk and other textile fibres was added to each of
the three test tubes along with H2SO4. It was followed by strong heating.

11
 In which of the above test tubes; A,B or C:
(i) Violet vapours will be formed 1
(ii) The bubbles of gas evolved will extinguish a burning matchstick. Write 1
an equation for each of the above observations.

b. A metal ion Mn+ of the first transition series having d5 configuration combines
with three didentate ligands. Assuming ∆0 < P:

(i) Draw the crystal field energy level diagram for the 3d orbital of this 1
complex.
1
(ii) What is the hybridisation of Mn+ in this complex and why?
1
(iii) Name the type of isomerism exhibited by this complex.

OR

a. Using, Valence Bond Theory identify A, B, C, D, E and F in the following table

b. Write the ionic equations for the reaction of acidified K2Cr2O7 with 2
(i)H2S and (ii)FeSO4

32 a. Give reasons for the following:

(i)The reaction of ethanol with acetyl chloride is carried out in the 1
presence of pyridine .

12
 (ii) Cresols are less acidic than phenol. 1
b. Williamson’s process is used for the preparation of ethers from alkyl halide.
Identify the alkyl bromide and sodium alkoxide used for the preparation of 1
2- Ethoxy-3-methylpentane

c. Convert:
(i) Toluene to 3-nitrobenzoic acid. 1
(ii) Benzene to m-nitroacetophenone. 1

OR

a. Out of formic acid and acetic acid, which one will give the HVZ reaction? 2
Give a suitable reason in support of your answer and write the chemical reaction
involved.

b. Alcohols are acidic but they are weaker acids than water. Arrange various 1
isomers of butanol in the increasing order of their acidic nature. Give a reason
for the same.

c. An organic compound A which is a Grignard reagent is used to obtain

2
2-methylbutan-2-ol on reaction with a carbonyl compound ‘B’ . Identify A’ and
‘B’. Write the equation for the reaction between A and B.

33 a. An experiment was carried out in the laboratory, to study depression in

freezing point. 1M aqueous solution of Al(NO3)3 and 1 M aqueous solution of 2
glucose were taken. From the given figure identify solution 1 and solution 2.
Give a plausible reason for your answer.

b. The osmotic pressure of a solution of cane sugar was found to be 2.46 atm at 3
300 K. If the solution was diluted five times, calculate the osmotic pressure at
the same temperature.
How can the osmotic pressure of the given cane sugar solution be decreased
without changing its volume? Give a reason for your answer.

OR

13
a. While giving intravenous injections to the patients, the doctors take utmost
care of the concentration of the solution used. Why is it necessary to check the
concentration of the solution? 2

b. A solution of phenol was obtained by dissolving 2X 10-2 kg of phenol in 1 kg of

benzene. Experimentally it was found to be 73 % associated. Calculate the 3
depression in the freezing point recorded.

(for visually challenged learners)

a. Which of the two solutions : 1M aqueous solution of Al(NO3)3 or 1M aqueous

solution of glucose will show a greater depression in freezing point? Give a 2
plausible reason for your answer.
b. The osmotic pressure of a solution of cane sugar was found to be 2.46 atm at
300 K. If the solution was diluted five times, calculate the osmotic pressure at
the same temperature. 3
How can the osmotic pressure of the given cane sugar solution be decreased
without changing its volume? Give a reason for your answer.

OR

a. While giving intravenous injections to the patients, the doctors take utmost
care of the concentration of the solution used. Why is it necessary to check the 2
concentration of the solution?

b. A solution of phenol was obtained by dissolving 2X 10-2 kg of phenol in 1 kg of

benzene. Experimentally it was found to be 73 % associated. Calculate the 3
depression in the freezing point recorded.

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

14
 MARKING SCHEME
SAMPLE PAPER (2024 -25)
CHEMISTRY THEORY
(043)

SECTION A

1 (c) reacts with Benzenesulphonyl chloride to form a product that is 1

insoluble in alkali

2 (b)CH3Cl 1
The order followed is this CH3I<CH3Br<CH3F< CH3Cl , though F is
most electronegative, the bond length is small as compared to C-Cl.
Dipole moment is the product of the charge and the bond length.

3 (a) (i)-(C), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(A) 1

4 (d) 1 =Bromomethane, 2= 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane, 3=2- 1

Bromobutane, 4= 1-Bromobutane

(for visually challenged learners)

d. 1-Bromobutane 1

5 (c) the order of reaction is zero as the unit of k is molL-1s-1. Thus half 1
life = [R]o / 2k = 4.62 x 10-2 /2 x 2.31 x 10-2

6 (b) Benzoic acid and ethanoic acid 1

C6H5COOCOCH3 H2O C6H5COOH + CH3COOH

7 (b) X=[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+Cl-, Y= 1:3 1

8 (b) Cellulose 1
Starch contains only α glucose, sucrose contains α-D-glucose and
β-D-fructose glucose, maltose contains α-D-glucose and cellulose is a
polymer of β-D-glucose.

9 (d) Ti3+< Cr3+< Fe2+ < Mn2+ 1

No. of unpaired electrons : Ti3+ (1), Cr3+ (3), Fe2+ (4) and Mn2+ (5)
Paramagnetism depends on the number of unpaired electrons
10 (d) It never goes to completion 1
First order reaction [R] = [Ro] e-kt If [R]=0 then

1
 e-kt = 0, which is not possible for any finite value of t. Here, t is ∞.

11 (a) Nitrobenzene 1

12 (a)CH3COCH3 1
Aldehyde and ketones give nucleophilic addition reactions. Other
carbonyl compounds do not give nucleophilic addition reactions.

13 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1

14 (d) A is false but R is true. 1

is an incorrect equation, the correct equation is

15 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 1
Due to the absence of a free aldehydic group, it does not give a
reaction with NaHSO3 .

16 (d)A is false but R is true. 1

The half- life for a zero order reaction t1/2 = [Ro]/2k where [Ro] is the
initial concentration of the reactant.

SECTION B

17 (a) Solubility of gas is inversely proportional to the value of Henry's ½

constant KH. On increasing temperature nitrogen gas becomes less ½
soluble because its KH value increases.
(b) (ii)64.5 oC ½
Chloroform and acetone mixture show negative deviation from ½
Raoult’s law therefore, they form maximum boiling azeotrope at a
specific composition. The boiling point of the mixture so obtained
will be higher than the individual components.

OR

(a) At higher altitudes i.e. in Srinagar the atmospheric pressure is 1

2
 lower. The solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the
partial pressure of the gas over the solution, therefore, the carbon
dioxide dissolved in water will be lesser at Srinagar making the soda
go flat faster.
(b)Preservation of fruits by adding sugar/salt protects against 1
bacterial action. Through osmosis, a bacterium on canned fruit loses
water, shrivels and dies.
18 (a) Potassium diaquadioxalatochromate(III) hydrate 1
(b) (i) Haemoglobin: Iron (ii) Vitamin B-12: Cobalt 1

19 (a) Y(s)|Y2+(aq) || X+(aq)| X(s) 1

(b) ions are carrier of current in salt bridge ½
(c) Y(s) → Y2+(aq) + 2e- ½

(for visually challenged learners)

a. Cathode: silver , Anode: Magnesium
b. Mg + 2Ag+ 🡪 Mg2+ + 2Ag

20 (a)CH3CH2CN (major), CH3CH2NC (minor) ½+½

(b) CH3CH2CHBrCH3 (major) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br (minor) ½+½
(c) (CH3)2C=CHCH3 (major) (CH3)2CHCHCH2 (minor) ½+½

21 The carbonyl group present in glucose is aldehyde and the C1 atom . ½

Glucose gets oxidised to six-carbon carboxylic acid (gluconic acid) ,½
with COOH group at the C1 atom on reaction with a mild oxidising
agent like bromine water. This indicates that the carbonyl group is 1
present as an aldehydic group
SECTION C

22 (a) Product of electrolysis of Copper Chloride

Cathode(-)
Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu(s) 1
anode(+)
2Cl- → Cl2 + 2e-
Product of electrolysis of concentrated Copper Sulphate 1
Anode(+) SO42- → S2O8 + 2e-
Cathode (-) Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu(s) 1
(b) ٨0m[Al2(SO4)3] = 2 λ0m (Al3+) + 3 λ0m (SO42-)

23 (a) In the case of a lower oxide of a transition metal, the metal atom 1
has some electrons present in the valence shell of the metal atom
that are not involved in bonding. As a result, it can donate electrons
and behave as a base whereas in higher oxide of a transition metal,

3
 the metal atom does not have an electron in the valence shell for
donation. As a result, it can accept electrons and behave as an acid.
(b) Chromium has unpaired electrons which result in strong metallic 1
bonding which results in it being a hard solid and the absence of
unpaired electrons in Hg results in it being a liquid.
(c) The increase in effective nuclear charge responsible for steady 1
increase in ionisation energy is counterbalanced by shielding effect
of (n-1)d electrons

24
(a)
1

CrO2Cl2 /H3O+

(b ) Benzoic acid undergoes extensive intermolecular hydrogen

bonding , leading to the formation of dimer . 1

(c ) Benzoic acid does not undergo reaction with CH3Cl i.e Friedel
Craft reaction because the carboxyl group is deactivating and the 1
catalyst aluminium chloride (Lewis acid) gets bonded to the carboxyl
group

OR

Compound ‘X’ = Benzaldehyde , Compound Y = Acetophenone ½,½

Chemical test to distinguish between X and Y is the Tollen Test .

Benzaldehyde undergoes SIlver mirror test with Tollen reagent and

1
forms silver mirror . However Acetophenone does not react with
Tollen Reagent .

4
25 (a)

(b) (i) Keratin is a fibrous protein.

fibre– like structure is formed. Such proteins are generally insoluble ½
in water.
(ii)Insulin is a globular protein . This structure results when the
chains of polypeptides coil around to give a spherical shape. These
are usually soluble in water. ½

26 (a) Ethanol undergoes a dehydration reaction. At 140oC, diethyl ether 1+½

is formed. The formation of ether is a nucleophilic
substitution bimolecular reaction

(b) When the temperature exceeds 170oC, ethene is the major 1+½
product. Elimination,
Nucleophilic E1substitution
reaction unimolecular reaction

27
“A” is (CH3)3CCl, the carbocation intermediate obtained in tertiary ½
alkyl halide is most stable, making A most reactive of all possible +½
isomers.

5
28

At 298 K

At equilibrium Ecell =0, n= 6 ½

½
=0.059/6 log 4.617 x 10184
= 0.00983 x 184.6644 ½
= 1.8152

(ii) Eocell= E0Sn4+/Sn2+ - E0Al3+/Al ½

1.81 = -0.15- E0Al3+/Al
E0Al3+/Al = -1.66 V ½

SECTION D

29
a. Rate = k [H2] [Br2]1/2 ½
order = 3/2 ½

units of k = molL-1s-1 = mol-1/2L1/2s-1 1

mol3/2L-3/2

b. Rate = k [H2] [Br2]1/2 If conc of Br2 is tripled

Rate’ = k [H2] [3Br2]1/2
Rate’ = √3 k [H2] [Br2]1/2
Rate’ = √3 Rate 1
OR

Rate = k [H2] [Br2]1/2 If conc of Br2 is tripled

Rate’ = 3 Rate= k [xH2] [Br2]1/2
3 Rate = k [x H2] [Br2]1/2
x = 3, the concentration of H2 is tripled 1

6
 c. The slowest step is the rate-determining step. From mechanism 2,
Rate = k [A] [B] while from mechanism 1 Rate = k [A] Therefore 1
mechanism 2, is consistent with the experimental finding

30 a

1½

……. Is the line of best fit

The pKb increases with an increase in the electronegativity of the
substituent, therefore the basic strength decreases with an increase ½
in the electronegativity of the substituent

b. (iv) 9.1 1

c. (i) 3.5
1
OR

(iii) 10.15 1

(for visually challenged learners)

The pKb increases with an increase in the electronegativity of the 1
substituent, therefore the basic strength decreases with an increase
in the electronegativity of the substituent

Substituent Electro-n Compound pKa pKb

“X” egativity
of X

7
 CH2 2.55 CH3CH2CH2NH2 10.67 3.33
NH 3.12 NH2CH2CH2NH2 10.08 3.2 1
O 3.44 HOCH2CH2NH2 9.45 4.55
CH3CON 3.6 CH3CONHCH2CH2NH2 9.28 4.72

b. (iv) 9.1
1
c. (i) 3.5

OR 1

(iii) 10.15
1

SECTION E

31 (a) (i) Test tube C 1

10I- + MnO4- +16 H+ → 5I2 + 2Mn2+ + 8 H2O
(ii) Test tube A
C2O42- + 2MnO4- +16 H+ → 10CO2 + 2Mn2+ + 8 H2O 1

(b) (i)

(ii) Sp3d2 , Since ∆0 > P it will form an outer orbital complex as the ½
electrons in the 3d orbital will not pair up.
(iii) Optical isomerism. ½

OR
2+
a. A = Co
B=3 ½
2
C = 𝑑 𝑠𝑝
3 ½
D = Paramagnetic ½
3 ½
E= 𝑠𝑝 ½
F = tetrahedral ½
b.

8
 1

.
32 a. (i) The reaction of ethanol with acetyl chloride is carried out in the 1
presence of pyridine . Pyridine is a strong organic base .The function
of pyridine is to remove HCl formed in the reaction.

(ii) The electron releasing groups, such as alkyl groups, in general, 1

do not favour the formation of phenoxide ion resulting in decrease in
acid strength. Cresols, for example, are less acidic than phenol.

b. C2H5Br and CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH2ONa yields 2- 1

ethoxy-3-methylpentane

c. (i)
1

(ii)

OR

a. Acetic acid will give HVZ reaction. ½

Carboxylic acids having an α-hydrogen are halogenated at the
α-position on treatment with chlorine or bromine in the presence of a
small amount of red phosphorus to give α-halo carboxylic acids. 1

CH3COOH Br2/red P CH2BrCOOH ½

b. Isomers of butanol are:

Butan-1-ol , butan-2-ol , 2-methylpropanol , 2-methylpropan-2-ol .

Acidic strength in isomeric alcohols varies as follows

:

9
 ½

The acidic character of alcohols is due to the polar nature of O–H

bond. An electron-releasing group (–CH3 , –C2H5 ) increases electron
density on oxygen tending to decrease the polarity of O-H bond
2-methylpropan-2-ol< 2-methylpropanol < butan-2-ol <Butan-1-ol ½

c. An organic compound A is a Grignard reagent : RMgX

B is a ketone RCOR’

A+B 🡪

(2-methylbutan-2-ol )

Ketones lead to the formation of tertiary alcohol ,so the compound B ½+

is a ketone B – Butan-2-one and A ‘ is CH3 MgBr ½

33 a. Depression in the freezing point is a colligative property. In dilute 1

solutions the depression of freezing point (ΔTf) is directly
proportional to the molal concentration of the solute in a solution.
From the graph it is interpreted that Solution 2 shows more
depression in freezing point ½
1 M Al(NO)3 has higher i value (i=3) than 1 M glucose (i=1)
1 M Al(NO)3 will have higher depression , hence solution 2 is ½
Al(NO)3 solution and solution 1 is glucose solution.

(for visually challenged learners)

a. 1 M Al(NO)3 shows greater depression in freezing point 1
1 M Al(NO)3 has higher i value (i=3) than 1 M glucose (i=1) and we 1
know that ΔTf = iKf m

b. π = (n2/V) RT
Given π = 2.64 atm ½

10
Let V1= V
V2= 5V (On dilution by 5 times)

π 1 = (n/V1) 1
π2 (n/V2)

2.64 = (n/V)
π2 (n/5V)
½
π 2 =0.528 atm
Osmotic pressure is directly proportional to temperature. ½

The osmotic pressure of cane sugar can be decreased by decreasing ½

the temperature.

OR

a. While giving intravenous injection to the patients , utmost care of

concentration of the solution is to be taken . The solution must have 1
same concentration as that of blood cells .
If the solution becomes more concentrated than the concentration of
the blood it will lead to the shrinking of blood cells and fluid will
start flowing out because of endosmosis. 1
If concentration is less concentrated than the concentration of the
blood it will lead to swelling of blood cells will take place. Both
situations are life-threatening.

b. 2C6H5OH—-> (C6H5OH)2

Initial concentration : C 0

Final concentration C (1-α) Cα/n, where α is degree of ½

association .
Experimentally, phenol is 73 % associated .
Hence α = 0.73 .
Relation between i (vant hoff factor ) and α is given as :
α=(1-i)/ (1-n) , where n for phenol = ½ as phenol acts as dimer ,
association is taking place ½

Substituting the values :

0.73=(1-i)/(-0.5)

11
 i=1- 0.73/2
i= 0.635 ½

Depression in freezing point can be calculated as:

ΔTf = iKf m
= iKf (wb / Mb x wa )
Kf = 5.12 K Kg/mol, wb = 2 x 10-2 kg = 20 g, wa = 1 kg Mb = 94 1
ΔTf =(0.635 X 5.12 X 20 / ( 94) ½
= 0.691 K

____________________________________________________________

12
 Sample Question Paper
Class XII
044 Biology (2024-25)
Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours

General Instructions:

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.
(iii)Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2
marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2
case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5
marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in
some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such
questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A
Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct.
Select and write the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions.

Q. Question Mark
No s

1 Signals for parturition in human female originate from 1

A. Fully developed foetus only
B. Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
C. Placenta only
D. Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary

2 To produce 1600 seeds, the number of meiotic divisions required will be 1

A. 2400
B. 2000
C. 1600
D. 1800

3 A sample of normal double-stranded DNA was found to have thymine 1

content of 27%. What will be the expected proportion of guanine in this
strand?
A. 23%
B. 32%
C. 36%
D. 73%
4 Observe the schematic diagram that depicts a small section of nucleic 1
acid. The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bonds that
are shown by the dark lines. Identify the correct sequence of nucleotide
in the 5’-3’ direction.

A. GCAT
B. CGTA
C. TAGC
D. ATCG
-------------------
For Visual Impaired Students
E. coli has 4.6 X 10 6 base pairs and completes the process of replication
in 18 minutes, then the average rate of polymerization is approximately
A. 2000 bp/s
B. 4000 bp/s
C. 3000 bp/s
D. 1000 bp/s

5 Suresh and Rajesh have defective haemoglobin due to genetic disorders. 1

In Suresh, the problem is qualitative as he is having incorrectly functioning
globin molecules while in Rajesh the problem is quantitative as he is
having very few globin molecules. Identify the disorder they are suffering
from.

Suresh Rajesh

A Thalassemia - Autosomal Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal

Dominant blood disorder linked Recessive trait

B Sickle Cell Anaemia - Thalassemia - Autosomal

Autosomal linked Dominant Recessive blood disorder
trait

C Sickle Cell Anaemia – Thalassemia – Autosomal

Autosomal linked Recessive Recessive blood disorder
trait

D Thalassemia - Autosomal Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal

Dominant blood disorder linked Dominant trait
6 In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is 1

A. present in the medium and it binds to the repressor.

B. not present in the medium and the repressor binds to the operator.
C. not present in the medium and RNA polymerase binds to the
operator.
D. Active lactose present in the medium binds to RNA polymerase.

7 Which of the following features shows the mechanism of sex 1

determination in honey-bee?

(i) An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and egg develops
as a female.
(ii) Males have half the number of chromosomes than that of female.
(iii) The males are haploid having 32 chromosomes.
(iv) All workers and males are diploid having 16 chromosomes
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i) and (iv)
D. (ii) and (iv)

8 The following diagram shows a fragment of DNA which is going to be 1

transcribed, the upper strand with polarity 3’ to 5’ is the template strand:
3´ ATTGCC 5´
5´ TAACGG 3´

After transcription the mRNA can be represented by:

A. 5´ AUUGCC 3´
B. 5´ AUUGCC 3’
C. 5´ UAACGG 3´
D. 5´ GGCAAU 3´

9 Idli – dosa dough rises due to production of which of the following gas? 1
A. CO
B. CO2
C. NO
D. NO2

10 Adaptive radiation leads to which of the following? 1

A. Increased competition among species
B. Decreased speciation rates
C. Limited morphological diversity among species
D. Rapid divergence of traits among populations inhabiting a given
geographical area.
11 Eco R1 cuts the DNA between bases G and A only when the sequence 1
of GAATTC is present. The number of nucleotides present in the resultant
sticky ends that will be formed in each of the two strands of DNA after this
enzyme cuts the DNA will be:
Vector DNA Foreign DNA
A. 1&5 5 &1
B. 2&4 4 &2
C. 2&5 5&2
D. 3&4 4&3

12 During the secondary treatment of sewage, which of the following change 1

in the effluent occur due to flocs?
A. Reduction in BOD
B. Increase in BOD
C. Decrease in DO
D. No change in DO or BOD

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.

13 Assertion (A): Cells of tapetum have more than one nucleus. 1

Reason (R): They undergo meiosis without cytokinesis.

14 Assertion (A): Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual purposes. 1

Reason (R): They act as proof readers and provide energy.

15 Assertion (A): A floating cover placed over the slurry in a biogas plant 1
keeps on rising.
Reason (R): This cover keeps on rising due to the gas produced in the
tank by the microbial activity.

16 Assertion (A): DNA fragments can be isolated by Gel electrophoresis on 1

the basis of their size.
Reason (R): The larger the fragment size, the faster it moves.

Section - B

17 Attempt either option A or B. 2

A.
(i) A blood test reported negative for hCG.
What does negative hCG imply? Name the tissue which
produces hCG?
 (ii) If a blood test reported positive for hCG in a person, then which
other hormones would also be secreted by the tissue secreting
hCG?
OR
B.
(i) The human male ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperm
during a coitus, however the ovum is fertilized by only one
sperm. How does the ovum block the entry of additional
sperms?
(ii) All copulations will not lead to fertilization. Why?

18 Attempt either option A or B. 2

A. The schematic representation given below shows a DNA strand and
two types of mutations in the DNA strand.

(i) Identify the type of mutation exhibited in I and II.

(ii) Which of the above mutation is more harmful? Give reason.

OR

B. Given below is a schematic representation of a mRNA strand

(i) In the above sequence identify the translational unit in mRNA.

(ii) Where are UTRs found and what is their significance?
19 Given below is the relationship between the HIV levels in the blood and 2
helper T cell count in a person detected with AIDS. Study the relationship
and answer the questions that follow.

A. What kind of relationship is observed in the virus levels and the

immune response after some days of the initial infection?
B. Does it completely clear the virus from the body permanently? Give
reason for your answer.
-------------------
For visually impaired students.
Write the sequence of events that occur when a retrovirus enters a human
being, causing reduction in helper T-cells.

20 A culture plate of Lactobacillus shows blue-coloured colonies and 2

colourless colonies. Explain the principle involved in the formation of such
variance in the colour of colonies.

21 Attempt either option A or B. 2

A.
(i) It was estimated that if an evergreen forest has a GPP of 400
J/m2/day and 150 J/m2/day worth of carbon dioxide flows out of
that forest, what is the NPP in that forest?
(ii) Explain why pyramids of energy must always be upright.

OR
B.
(i) Assume that, GPP Forest A = GPP Forest B = GPP Forest C,
If Forest A has NPP = 1254 J/m2/day; Forest B, NPP =2157
J/m2/day; and Forest C, NPP = 779 J/m2/day, which one of
these forests has maximum energy loss by respiration? Give
reason.
(ii) Draw an ecological pyramid of number of the following food
chains
a. Grass — Animal —Fleas on the host animal
b. Tree — Insects — Woodpecker
 Section - C

22 The image below shows two germinated seeds X and Y which belong to 3
the same species. Seed X is produced by apomixis whereas seed Y is a
product of sexual reproduction.

A. Write the number of embryo(s), embryo sac(s) and ovules in the

ovary of seed X.
B. How multiples embryos are formed in citrus fruits?
C. What advantage will plants developed from seed Y have over seed
X?
-------------------
For visually impaired students
Each Mango fruit contains one seed. Two mango seeds, X and Y were
sown in the soil. From Seed X, 3 plant saplings germinated but from
seed Y only 1 plant sapling germinated.
A. For seed X which is apomictic, calculate the number of:
i) Embryo(s)
ii) Embryo sac(s)
iii) Ovules in this seed’s ovary
B. How multiples embryos are formed in citrus fruits?
C. What advantage will plants developed from seed Y have over seed
X?

23 Name the place in human ovary where the first meiotic division is 3
completed during oogenesis. What are the products of this division? Give
the chromosome number of each type of cells involved in the process.
24 The schematic representation given below shows the concept of Central 3
Dogma.

A. During the process of replication and transcription the pairing of

nitrogenous bases is not similar. Explain.
B. How is the above process modified in a retrovirus? Name the
process.
C. Justify why during the process of transcription only a segment of
DNA is copied into RNA.
-------------------
For visually impaired students
Central Dogma explains the process of DNA transcription and translation.
From DNA mRNA is transcribed and then mRNA is translated into a
polypeptide.
A. During the process of replication and transcription the pairing of
nitrogen bases is not similar. Explain.
B. How is the above process modified in viruses? Name the process.
C. Justify why during the process of transcription only a segment of DNA
is copied into RNA.

25 Describe the steps involved in Southern blot hybridization using 3

radiolabeled VNTR as a probe.

26 Bio-fertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality in the soil. 3
Explain the role of three main sources of bio-fertilisers.

27 Explain how PCR technique can be used for amplification of a small 3

amount of DNA template.

28 A. Diagram given below depicts different species of Warbler birds 3

feeding on different regions on a Spruce tree. Explain the mechanism
which helps them to co-exist.
 B. What does Gause‘s exclusion principle state? Does it apply in the
case shown above? Explain.
-------------------
For visually impaired students
A. Name and explain the mechanism where two species competing for
the same resource co-exist.
B. What does Gause‘s exclusion principle state? Does it apply in the
above situation? Explain.

Section - D

29 Assuming that within a population of beetles where Hardy Weinberg 4

conditions are met, the colour black (B) is dominant over the colour red
(b). 40% of all beetles are red (bb).
Given this information, answer the questions below:
A. What is the frequency of red beetles? (1)
B. Calculate is the percentage of beetles in the population that are
heterozygous. (2)
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. What is the frequency of homozygous dominant individuals? (1)
OR
D. Assuming that Hardy Wienberg conditions are met in the beetle
population consisting of 1500 beetles. How many beetles would you
expect to be black and red in colour respectively? (1)

30 Given below is the pattern of temperature in a person suffering from a 4

non-viral disease transmitted by mosquitoes. Study the graph and answer
the questions that follow:
 A. Explain the factor(s) responsible for this pattern of temperature. (1)
B. How does this pathogen multiply in the human body? (2)
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. How is this infection transmitted to humans? (1)
OR
D. Which stages of the life cycle of this pathogen are completed in the
mosquito’s gut? (1)
-------------------
For visually impaired students
A. A non-viral disease that is transmitted by mosquitoes causes recurring
fever in an infected person. Explain giving reason(s). (1)
B. How does this pathogen multiply in the human body? (2)
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. How is this infection transmitted to humans? (1)
OR
D. Which stages of the life cycle of this pathogen are completed in the
mosquito’s gut? (1)

Section - E

31 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A. Cryptorchidism is a condition in which the testes fail to descend into
the scrotum. It can also lead to compromised Sertoli cell function and
has an impact on Leydig cell function.
(i) Identify at least 3 parameters of male fertility which get affected due
to cryptorchidism.
(ii) Which process will be affected if mature spermatids are not
released from Sertoli cells?
(iii) Name and explain one assisted reproductive technology (ART
process) in which the sperm/semen is used to assist fertilization.
(iv) Name and explain the assisted reproductive technology that should
be used to complete the development of embryos I and II shown in
the figure given below.
 Embryo I Embryo II
-------------------
For visually impaired students
(iv) An infertile couple decided to use ART to conceive. After IVF they
decided for Embryo transfer of the following 2 embryos. Embryo 1
consisted of 8 blastomeres and Embryo 2 consisted of 16
blastomeres. Name and explain the techniques they should deploy
to complete further development of the given embryos.
OR
B.
(i) Explain the significance of each of the following features present in
plants given below:
a) In rose-bay plant the stamens ripen before the stigma.
b) In certain species of primrose, the flowers have short stamen
and long style.
c) The bisexual flower of mustard exhibits rejection of self-pollen
grain.
(ii) Explain how autogamy is prevented in castor and papaya plant
respectively.

32 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A. Explain how advent of biotechnology has helped in preventing
infestation by nematodes and thereby increasing crop yield.
OR
B. In the future, genetic therapies may be used to prevent, treat, or cure
certain inherited disorders in humans. Justify the statement with a
suitable example.

33 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A.
(i) Why is there a need to conserve biodiversity? (Any two reasons)
(ii) Name and explain any two causes that are responsible for the loss
of biodiversity.
OR
B.
(i) Name the two types of desirable approaches to conserve
biodiversity? Explain with examples bringing out the difference
between the two types.
(ii) State the features of a stable biological community?

**********
 Marking Scheme
Biology (044)
Class XII (2024 – 25)

Q. Answer Marks
No.

Section - A

1 B. Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus. 1

2 B. 2000 1
Formation of one seed requires fertilsation between one pollen grain and
one egg. To produce 1600 seeds, 1600 pollen grains and 1600 eggs will be
required. Each microspore mother cell results in the formation of 4 pollen
grains after one cycle of meiotic division. So, 400 meiotic divisions will result
in the production of 1600 pollen grains. One megaspore mother cell after
one cycle of meiotic division results in the formation of 1 egg; so, 1600
meiotic divisions will take place to form 1600 eggs. Thus, total number of
meiotic divisions required for the formation of 1600 seeds will be 400 + 1600
=2000.

3 A. 23% 1
According to Chargaff’s rules, in DNA, A =T and G=C;
Thus, A +T+G+C =100
Given T = 27% so A=T =27%
Thus A+T = 27 +27 =54%
Thus, G+C =100 – 54 = 46%
Since G = C so G = 46/2 =23%

4 B. CGTA 1
-------------------
For Visual Impaired Students
B. 4000 bp/s
It completes replication process in 18 minutes i.e. 18x 60 seconds.
Rate of polymerization = 4.6 x 106 bp/ 18x 60 s
= 460000/108
= 4259.1bp/s or approximately 4000 bp/sec Thus, the correct option is B.

5 C. 1
Suresh Rajesh
Sickle Cell Anaemia – Autosomal Thalassemia – Autosomal
linked Recessive trait Recessive blood disorder

6 A. present in the medium and it binds to the repressor. 1

7 A. (i) and (ii) 1

 8 C. 5´ UAACGG 3´ 1

9 B. CO2 1

10 D. Rapid divergence of traits among populations inhabiting a given 1

geographical area.

11 A. 1& 5; 5 &1 1

12 A. Reduction in BOD 1

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.

13 C. A is true but R is false. 1

14 C. A is true but R is false. 1

15 A. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A. 1

16 C. A is true but R is false. 1

Section - B

17 Student to attempt either option A or B. 2

A.
(i) Negative hCG implies no pregnancy (0.5); Placenta. (0.5)
(ii) Human placental lactogen (hPL), estrogen, progestogens, relaxin
(any two) (0.5 x 2 = 1)
OR
B.
(i) A sperm induces changes in the zona pellucida membrane on
contact, blocking entry of other sperms. (1)
(ii) Ovum and sperms should be transported simultaneously to the
ampullary region for fertilization. (1)

18 Student to attempt either option A or B. 2

A.
(i) I is point mutation; II is Frame shift (1)
(ii) II as more codons are affected; (0.5)
It is extremely likely to lead to large-scale changes to polypeptide length
and chemical composition/ resulting in a non-functional protein that often
disrupts the biochemical processes of a cell/Incorrect amino acids are
inserted/ often premature termination occurs when a nonsense codon is
read/ Frameshifts have very severe phenotypic effects. (any one) (0.5)
OR
 B.
(i) Translational unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked
by the start codon (AUG) and the stop codon (UAA) and codes for a
polypeptide/ AUG AUC UCG UAA. (1)
(ii) Untranslated regions (UTR). The UTRs are present at both 5' -end
(before start codon) and at 3' -end (after stop codon). They are
required for an efficient translation process. (1)

19 A. As the adaptive immune response gears up, there is a reciprocal 2

relationship between virus levels in the blood and helper T
lymphocytes levels. As the level of helper T levels rises, the virus
levels decline. (1)
B. Several years later, if untreated, HIV patient will lose the adaptive
immune response, including the ability to make antibodies, as
gradually the HIV enters the helper T lymphocytes leading to a
progressive decrease in the number of helper T lymphocytes. (1)
-------------------
For visually impaired students.
After getting into the body of the person, the virus enters into
macrophages where the RNA genome of the virus replicates to form viral
DNA with the help of the enzyme reverse transcriptase. The viral DNA
gets incorporated into the host cell’s DNA and directs the infected cells to
produce virus particles. Macrophages continue to produce virus particles;
in this way they act like HIV factory. (1)
Simultaneously, HIV enters into helper T-lymphocytes (TH), replicates and
produces progeny viruses. The progeny virus released in blood attack
other T lymphocytes leading to a progressive decrease in the number of
helper T-lymphocytes in the body of the infected person. Due to decrease
in the number of helper T lymphocytes, the person becomes immuno-
deficient. (1)

20  The variation in colour of colonies is due to the principle of 2

insertional inactivation. (0.5)
 In this, a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence
of an enzyme, β-galactosidase. This results into inactivation of the
enzyme, which is referred to as insertional inactivation. (0.5)
 The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue-coloured
colonies if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert. (0.5)
 Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of the β -
galactosidase and the colonies do not produce any colour, these
are identified as recombinant colonies. (0.5)
21 Student to attempt either option A or B. 2
A.
(i) NPP = GPP – R;
Given GPP = 400 J/m2/day
R = 150 J/m2/day
NPP = 400 J/m2/day – 150 J/m2/day = 250 J/m2/day (1)
(ii) Pyramid of energy is always upright. As energy flows from one trophic
level to the next trophic level some amount of energy is lost in each
trophic level in the form of heat. Therefore, the pyramid of energy is
always upright and can never be inverted. (1)
OR
B.
(i) If GPP is equal, then we can manipulate the NPP equation and
solve.
 NPP = GPP – Respiration of plants;
 Respiration of Plants = GPP – NPP.
 This means that the smallest NPP corresponds to the largest
respiration. That is forest C. (1)
(ii)

(a) (b)

(0.5)
(0.5)

Section – C

22 A. Seed X- 3 embryos; 1embryo sac; 1ovule; (0.5 x 3=1.5) 3

B. The nucellar cells grow mitotically and develop into the embryos by
asexual reproduction. (0.5)
C. The plants growing from seed X will have to share the
resources/endosperm so there is a possibility of some plant being
undernourished/; only one plant in seed Y will use the entire endosperm
for its growth or as the plants of seed X are clones they will not show
variation and may succumb to environmental stress;/ plants from seed
Y will have genetic variation and so can show greater adaptability. (1)
 -------------------
For visually impaired students
A. Seed X- 3 embryos; 1embryo sac; 1ovule; (0.5 x 3=1.5)
B. The nucellar cells grow mitotically and develop into the embryos by
asexual reproduction. (0.5)
C. The plants growing from seed X will have to share the
resources/endosperm so there is a possibility of some plant being
undernourished/; only one plant in seed Y will use the entire endosperm
for its growth or as the plants of seed X are clones they will not show
variation and may succumb to environmental stress;/ plants from seed
Y will have genetic variation and so can show greater adaptability. (1)

23  The first meiotic division is completed in the primary oocyte during 3

oogenesis. (1)
 Then primary oocyte undergoes first meiotic division to form a large
haploid secondary oocyte and a tiny first polar body. (1)
 The primary oocyte comprises of 46 chromosomes, whereas
secondary oocyte and first polar body have 23 chromosomes each.
(1)

24 A. During replication, Adenine pairs with thymine in DNA; during 3

transcription, adenine pairs with uracil in RNA. (0.5+0.5)
B. In retrovirus the nucleic acid is RNA and it is used to synthesize DNA;
the process is called reverse transcription. (0.5+0.5)
C. It is a highly energy-rich process/ or as per the need only the gene
coding for a specific protein is transcribed. (1)
-------------------
For visually impaired students
A. During replication, Adenine pairs with thymine in DNA; during
transcription, adenine pairs with uracil in RNA. (0.5+0.5)
B. In retrovirus the nucleic acid is RNA and it is used to synthesize DNA;
the process is called reverse transcription. (0.5+0.5)
C. It is a highly energy-rich process/ or as per the need only the gene
coding for a specific protein is transcribed. (1)

25  isolation of DNA, 3
 digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases,
 separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis,
 transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic
membranes, such as nitrocellulose or nylon,
 hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe, and
 detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.
(0.5 x 6 =3)
26 The main sources of biofertilizers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria. 3
- The nodules on the roots of leguminous plants are formed by the
symbiotic association of Rhizobium. These bacteria fix atmospheric
nitrogen into organic forms, which is used by the plant as a nutrient.
Other bacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free-living in the soil
(examples Azospirillum and Azotobacter), thus enriching the nitrogen
content of the soil. (1)
- Fungi are also known to form symbiotic associations with plants
(mycorrhiza). Many members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza.
The fungal symbiont in these associations absorbs phosphorus from
soil and passes it to the plant. Plants having such associations show
other benefits also, such as resistance to root-borne pathogens,
tolerance to salinity and drought, and an overall increase in plant
growth and development. (1)
- Cyanobacteria are autotrophic microbes widely distributed in aquatic
and terrestrial environments many of which can fix atmospheric
nitrogen, e.g. Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria, etc. In paddy fields,
cyanobacteria serve as an important biofertiliser. Blue green algae also
add organic matter to the soil and increase its fertility. (1)

27 PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction. In this reaction, multiple 3

copies of the gene (or DNA) of interest are synthesised in vitro using two
sets of primers (small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are
complementary to the regions of DNA) and the enzyme DNA polymerase.
The enzyme extends the primers using the nucleotides provided in the
reaction and the genomic DNA as template. (1)
If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of
DNA can be amplified to approximately billion times, i.e., 1 billion copies are
made. Such repeated amplification is achieved by the use of a thermostable
DNA polymerase (isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus), which
remains active during the high temperature induced denaturation of double
stranded DNA. The amplified fragment if desired can now be used to ligate
with a vector for further cloning. (1)
Each cycle has three steps: (i) Denaturation, (ii) Annealing and (iii)
Extensions. (1)
28 A. 3
 They are able to co-exist by mechanism of ‘resource partitioning’.
 If two species compete for the same resource, they could avoid
competition by choosing different foraging patterns.
 MacArthur showed that five closely related species of warblers
living on the same tree were able to avoid competition and co-exist
due to behavioural differences in their foraging activities.
B.

Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ states that two closely
related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist
indefinitely
 and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
 No (0.5 x 6=3)
-------------------
For visually impaired students
A.
 They are able to co-exist by mechanism of ‘resource partitioning’.
 If two species compete for the same resource, they could avoid
competition by choosing different foraging patterns.
 MacArthur showed that five closely related species of warblers living
on the same tree were able to avoid competition and co-exist due to
behavioural differences in their foraging activities.
B.
 Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ states that two closely
related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist
 indefinitely
 and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
 No (0.5 x 6=3)

Section – D

29 A. Given is bb = q2 = 0.4. 4
To determine q, which is the frequency of the recessive allele in the
population, simply take the square root of q2 which works out to be 0.632
(i.e. 0.632 x 0.632 = 0.4).
So, q = 0.63 (1)
B. As we know that p + q = 1,
then p must be 1 - 0.63 = 0.37. (1)
The percentage of beetles in the population that are heterozygous would
be 2pq.
2 (0.37) (0.63) = 0.47 (1)
Student to attempt either subpart C or D.
C. Given is BB= p2 = (0.37)2= 0.14 (1)
OR
D. As, 1500 is the total population
40% is red population,
hence the number of beetles with red colour will be
1500x0.4= 600 (0.5)
If total population is 1500 and red is 600 then black would be 1500-
600=900 (0.5)

30 A. The rupture of RBCs associated with the release of toxic substance 4

haemozoin is responsible for the chills and fever/recurring every 3 - 4
days. (1)
B.
- The parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells, bursting the cell and
releasing into the blood. (1)
- Parasite further reproduces asexually in red blood cells. Released
parasite infects new red blood cells. Sexual stages (gametocytes)
develop in red blood cells. (1)
Student to attempt either subpart C or D.
C. The infection is caused by the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito
which introduces the sporozoites in the human body. (1)
OR
D. Fertilisation and development take place in the mosquito’s gut. (1)

-------------------
 For visually impaired students
A. The rupture of RBCs associated with the release of toxic substance
haemozoin is responsible for the chills and fever/recurring every 3-4
days. (1)
B.
- The parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells, bursting the cell and
releasing into the blood. (1)
- Parasite further reproduces asexually in red blood cells. Released
parasite infects new red blood cells. Sexual stages (gametocytes)
develop in red blood cells. (1)
Student to attempt either subpart C or D.
C. The infection is caused by the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito
which introduces the sporozoites in the human body. (1)
OR
D. Fertilisation and development take place in the mosquito’s gut. (1)

Section – E

31 Student to attempt either option A or B. 5

A.
(i)
 Sperm count decreases, spermatogenesis is impaired;
 Spermatids do not get nourishment to develop into spermatozoa
thus spermiogenesis will be affected;
 Leydig cells synthesize and secrete androgen hormones (like
testosterone) so secretion of androgens will be affected.
(0.5 x 3 = 1.5)
(ii) Spremiation (0.5)
(iii) Artificial insemination (AI) technique. In this technique, the semen
collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially
introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI – intra –
uterine insemination) of the female.
OR
Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is another specialised
procedure to form an embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is
directly injected into the ovum. (1)
(iv) The zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres) could be
transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT–zygote intra fallopian
transfer); embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus
(IUT – intra uterine transfer), to complete its further development.
(1+1)

-------------------
 For visually impaired students
(iv) The zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres) could then be
transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT–zygote intra fallopian
transfer); embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus (IUT
– intra uterine transfer), to complete its further development.
(1+1+0.5 mark for ZIFT with full form)
OR
B.
(I)
(i) In rose – bay plant, the time of maturation of stamen and pistil
is not same, the pollen will not be able to germinate on the
stigma. This prevents autogamy in rose-bay. (1)
(ii) Different position and incompatible placement of the
reproductive structure prevent successful pollination and thus
autogamy in primrose. (1)
(iii) Pollen pistil interaction for same species is not possible; this
is a genetic mechanism which prevent the pollen grain from
forming pollen tube on the pistil of the same flower. (1)
(II) The male and female flowers are present in the same plant but
are not in proximity preventing self-fertilization in castor. In
papaya, the male flower and female flowers are in different
plants, it prevents autogamy. (2)

32 Student to attempt either option A or B. 5

A.
- Several nematodes parasitize a wide variety of plants and animals
including human beings.
- A nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco
plants and causes a great reduction in yield.
- A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infestation which was
based on the process of RNA interference (RNAi).
- RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular
defense.
- This method involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a
complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents
translation of the mRNA (silencing).
- The source of this complementary RNA could be from an infection
by viruses having RNA genomes or mobile genetic elements
(transposons) that replicate via an RNA intermediate.
- Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode-specific genes were
introduced into the host plant.
- The introduction of DNA was such that it produced both sense and
anti-sense RNA in the host cells.
- These two RNA’s being complementary to each other formed a
 double stranded (dsRNA) that initiated RNAi and thus, silenced the
specific mRNA of the nematode.
- The consequence was that the parasite could not survive in a
transgenic host expressing specific interfering RNA. The transgenic
plant therefore got itself protected from the parasite. (0.5 x 10 =5)
OR
B.
- Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a
gene defect that has been diagnosed in a child/embryo. Here genes
are inserted into a person’s cells and tissues to treat a disease.
- Correction of a genetic defect involves delivery of a normal gene into
the individual or embryo to take over the function of and compensate
for the non-functional gene.
- The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl
with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. This enzyme is crucial
for the immune system to function.
- The disorder is caused due to the deletion of the gene for adenosine
deaminase.
- In some children ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow
transplantation; in others it can be treated by enzyme replacement
therapy, in which functional ADA is given to the patient by injection.
- But the problem with both of these approaches is that they are not
completely curative.
- As a first step towards gene therapy, lymphocytes from the blood of
the patient are grown in a culture outside the body.
- A functional ADA cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is then introduced
into these lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned to the
patient.
- However, as these cells are not immortal, the patient requires
periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes.
- However, if the gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA is
introduced into cells at early embryonic stages, it could be a
permanent cure. (0.5 x 10 =5)

33 Student to attempt either option A or B. 5

A.
(i) There are three main reasons for conserving the biodiversity which
have been classified into the following categories: (Any two reasons)
- Narrowly utilitarian arguments. Human beings derive direct
economic benefits from nature, like food, firewood, fibre,
construction material, industrial products (resins, gums, dyes,
tannins, etc.) and medicinally important products.
- Broadly utilitarian arguments. Biodiversity plays a major role in
maintaining and sustaining supply of goods and services from
 various species as well as ecological systems. The different
ecological services provided are:
 Amazon forest is estimated to contribute 20 per cent of the total
oxygen in the atmosphere on earth.
 Pollinators like bee, bumble bees, birds and bats pollinate plants
to form fruits and seeds.
 Aesthetic pleasures like bird watching, spring flowers in full
bloom, walking through the thick forest, waking up to a bulbul’s
song, etc. are some other benefits of the ecosystem.
- Ethical reasons there are thousands of plants, animals and microbes
on this earth which are not useless. Everyone has some intrinsic
value even if it is not of any economic value to us. It is, therefore, our
moral duty to ensure well-being of all the living creatures for the
utilisation of future generations. (1+1)
(ii) There are four major causes of biodiversity loss. These are also
known as ‘The Evil Quartet’. (Any two Ways) (1.5 +1.5)
- Habitat loss and fragmentation Destruction of habitat is the primary
cause of extinction of species. When large-sized habitats are broken
or fragmented due to human settlements, building of roads, digging
of canals, etc., the population of animals requiring large territories
and some animals with migratory habitats declines.
- Over-exploitation When biological system is over-exploited by man
for the natural resources, it results in degradation and extinction of
the resources. For example, Stellar’s sea cow, passenger pigeon
and many marine fishes.
- Alien (exotic) species invasions Some alien (exotic) species when
introduced unintentionally or deliberately, become invasive and
cause harmful impact, resulting in extinction of the indigenous
species. Nile perch, a large predator fish when introduced in Lake
Victoria (East Africa) caused the extinction of an ecologically unique
species of Cichlid fish in the lake.
- Co-extinctions When a species becomes extinct, the plant and
animal species associated with it in an obligatory manner, also
become extinct. For example, if the host fish species becomes
 extinct, all those parasites exclusively dependent on it, will also
become extinct
OR
B.
(i)

(2)
(ii) A stable community should not show too much variation in productivity
from year to year; it must be either resistant or resilient to occasional
disturbances (natural or man-made), and it must also be resistant to
invasions by alien species. (3)

***********
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
ENGLISH CORE (Code No. 301)
CLASS-XII-(2024-25)
Time allowed: 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.

ii. This question paper contains three sections:
Section A: Reading Skills,
Section B: Creative Writing Skills
Section C: Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question
number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv. Separate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A
READING SKILLS (22 marks)

1. Read the following passage carefully:

12
(1) In a room filled with people, each face illuminated by the soft glow of their smartphones,
moments drift away like autumn leaves in the wind. The constant hum of notifications fills the
air, punctuating conversations like an incessant drumbeat. Every vibration or ping sends
fingers flying to screens, a response ingrained by years of digital conditioning. The once-
reliable tick-tock of analog timepieces has been overshadowed by the constant flicker of
notifications on the wrist watch, blurring the boundaries between the virtual and the real.

(2) Anxiety gnaws at the edges of consciousness when the phone is out of reach, a phantom
limb syndrome that leaves us feeling incomplete without our digital appendage. The fear of
missing out permeates every moment spent away from the screen, driving us to constantly
check for updates and notifications.
(3) Thumbs move with the speed and precision of skillful pianists, tapping out messages and
scrolling through feeds with practiced ease. Yet amidst the flurry of activity, the true rhythm
of life remains unheard, drowned out by the dissonance of digital noise. The weight of
constant connectivity forms a hunch upon our shoulders, a physical manifestation of the
burden we carry in an age of information overload. Our minds are perpetually on high alert,
scanning for the next wave of excitement that comes with each like, share, or comment.

(4) And yet, for all our efforts to stay connected, we find ourselves increasingly isolated in a sea
of digital faces. Genuine connections are fleeting, drowned out by the constant clamour for
attention. In the pursuit of digital validation, we sacrifice the wealth of lived experience,
trading meaningful moments for fleeting glimpses of connection. The true essence of life lies
not in the pixels on a screen, but in the depth of human connection and the richness of
shared experiences

1
(5) As we navigate this brave new world of constant connectivity, let us not forget the value of
presence and the beauty of being fully engaged in the moments that matter most. For in the
end, it is not the number of likes or followers that defines us, but the depth of our
connections and the richness of our experiences that truly matter.
Created for Academic Usage / 421 words
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

I. According to paragraph 1, what effect do smartphone notifications have on the 1

people in the room?

II. How does the author use the metaphor of 'autumn leaves in the wind' to interpret the 1
passing of time in the setting described?

III Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase ‘a phantom limb syndrome that leaves us feeling incomplete without our
digital appendage’ suggests that just as an amputee might feel pain in a limb they no
longer have, individuals can feel a sense of loss or incompleteness when they are
separated from their digital devices.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
The concern this analogy points towards is about ______________.
A. a deep (psychological) dependence on technology for a sense of wholeness or
connection
B. excessive physical damage that can be caused due to constant use of digital
devices

IV Complete the following suitably with ONE advantage, with reference to paragraph 2.
Designating specific hours each day to intentionally avoid checking digital devices 1
can help __________________.

V Why does the writer refer to digital noise as 'dissonance' in paragraph 3? 1

Because-
A. It creates a jarring and chaotic environment that disrupts focus.
B. It contributes to a sense of overload, overwhelming the senses.
C. It interferes with our ability to engage with meaningful aspects of our life.
D. It induces stress by interrupting with regular updates about the device.

VI. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 3, to prove the following: 1
The need to be perpetually engaged with digital notifications manifests in the body.
VII. In the line, ‘Yet amidst the flurry of activity, the true rhythm of life remains 2
unheard…,’ what does the phrase 'true rhythm of life’ refer to? (Paragraphs 3-4)

VIII Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 4. 1

whisper: quietly: _______: loudly
A. validation
B. fleeting
C. essence
D. clamour

2
 IX Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘And yet, for all our efforts to stay connected, 1
we find ourselves increasingly isolated in a sea of digital faces’ from paragraph 4,
employs irony?
A. Despite the intent to connect more effectively, the result is the opposite.
B. The writer mocks the seriousness with which people approach digital
connectivity.
C. The writer exaggerates the effects of digital connectivity to highlight its impact.
D. Use of ‘a sea of digital faces’ to symbolically represent digital platforms.

X Assess the potential challenges OR benefits of relying on survey outcomes for 2

designing health interventions, as outlined in paragraph 5.

2. Read the following carefully. 10

(1) Introduction:
In the hasty lifestyle of today’s world, the choice of snacks can greatly impact one's health
and well-being. This case study aims to analyse the preference for seasonal fruits compared
to packaged snacks among different age groups and the implications for overall health.
(2) Methodology:
A survey was conducted among individuals across various age groups, ranging from
children to seniors, to determine their snacking preferences. Participants were asked to
indicate their preferred snack choices and provide reasons for their preferences. The data
was then analysed to identify trends and patterns among different age demographics.
(3) Survey Examination:
The survey encompassed a comprehensive examination of snacking habits, including not
only preferred snack choices but also delving into the underlying motivations and influences
guiding these choices. Beyond mere preference, participants were encouraged to articulate
the reasons behind their selections, providing invaluable insights into the multifaceted nature
of snacking behavior.
(4) Results:
The survey results revealed interesting insights into snacking preferences among different
age groups:
Age-group % Preferred Reasons for preference
snack
Children 77 Seasonal fruits Taste, Health benefits, Parental guidance
Teenagers 65 Packaged Convenience, Taste, Peer influence
snacks
Young 52 seasonal fruits Transitional lifestyle(college, beginning careers, and
adults and packaged establishing independence), Health consciousness,
snacks Convenience
Middle-aged 83 Seasonal fruits Freshness, Nutrition, Health consciousness
Elderly 90 Seasonal fruits Health benefits, Digestive ease

(5) Implications for Interventions:

By discerning the diverse preferences among different age groups, policymakers and health
practitioners can tailor interventions to address specific demographic needs. For instance,
targeting educational campaigns towards parents could empower them to instill healthy
eating habits in their children from an early age. Concurrently, efforts to mitigate the
3
 influence of advertising and peer pressure on teenagers could involve regulatory measures
and educational initiatives aimed at promoting critical thinking and informed decision-making.
Furthermore, the prominence of seasonal fruits as a preferred snack choice among middle-
aged adults and senior’s points towards the importance of promoting access to fresh
produce and nutritional education across all age demographics.
(6) Conclusion:
The survey outcomes serve as a roadmap for designing targeted interventions that not only
cater to diverse demographic needs but also nurture a culture of health and well-being. By
harnessing the insights gleaned from this study, stakeholders can collaboratively work
towards building healthier communities and promoting sustainable practices for generations
to come.
Created for Academic Usage / 315 words
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

I. Complete the following suitably. 1

In the introduction, the researcher links a hasty lifestyle with the choice of snacks in
the study to highlight__________.

II. What would the following be classified as? 1

To examine snacking preferences across various age groups in detail, and assess
health implications.
Select the appropriate response.
A. Primary purpose B. Secondary objective
C. Method of analysis D. Research outcome

III. Give two points to support why it is likely that fresh fruits were given as an option to 2
the survey participants to choose from in the study on snacking preferences.

IV. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘motivations’ and ‘influences.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as 'influence' or 'motivation':

Sentence 1: Peer pressure leads teenagers to prefer packaged snacks over

healthier options.
Sentence 2: The drive to maintain health as one ages makes middle-aged adults to
choose seasonal fruits.

V. Read the following: 1

Seema regularly enjoys snacking on chips and cool drinks while watching movies.
Mohan, her neighbour, prefers to snack on oranges and also some nuts
occasionally. Arindam, who lives across, often tends to eat a mix of carrot sticks and
instant noodles, in between meals.
Select the option that identifies the correct demographic Seema, Mohan and
Arindam belong to.
A. Seema – young adult; Mohan – teenager; Arindam -middle-age
B. Seema - teenager; Mohan – middle-age; Arindam -child
C. Seema – young adult; Mohan – child; Arindam - teenager
D. Seema - teenager; Mohan – elderly; Arindam -young adult

4
 VI. Although children, middle-aged, and elderly groups all prefer seasonal fruits, why is 1
the preference percentage highest among the elderly?

VII. Analyse how targeted interventions based on the diverse snacking preferences of 2
different age groups can lead to improved health outcomes. (Paragraph 5)

VIII What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
A. Increase profitability through enhanced snack marketing
B. Building healthier communities
C. Reducing the cost of healthcare services
D. Expanding the range of available snack product

SECTION B
CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS (18 marks)

3. Attempt any one of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words 1x4=4

A. Your school is planning to conduct an inter-class seminar on the topicThe Importance of

Mental Healthto create awareness in adolescents. As the head of the organising
committee, write a notice to inform all students about the seminar and invite registrations
from classes XI-XII. Include other necessary details. Put your notice in a box.

OR
B. Your school is organising an inter-House webinar on enhancing coding skills, As the
President of the Computer Club, write a notice to inform all House members from IX-XII
about the webinar and specify the number of registrations invited per House. Include other
necessary details. Put your notice in a box.

4. Attempt any one of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1x4=4

A. Draft an invitation in not more than 50 words from Vani Gopalan, Chief Project Officer of an
NGO, for the launch of the 'Each One Teach One' programme, addressed to school
Principals and Coordinators. Mention a compelling highlight of the programme along with
other necessary details

OR
B. An invitation had been issued by Mr. Cherian, the HR Head of your company inviting you for
the company picnic. As Joseph Vijayan, Asst. Manager, Operations, draft a reply in not more
than 50 words, consenting to attend.

5. Attempt any one of the two, (A) or (B), in 120 150 words 1x5=5

A. Financial literacy is increasingly recognised as a crucial 21st-century skill for young

individuals. Write a letter to the editor of a local daily discussing the benefits of providing
financial literacy education to children. Also, suggest effective ways to raise awareness
about the importance of this education among parents and guardians. You may use some of
the given cues along with your own ideas to draft the letter. You are a counsellor, Chitra
Mahapatra from Puri, Odisha.

5
  What are the long-term benefits of learning financial independence from a young age?
 Why is understanding the power of finances beneficial for young learners?
 Why skills learned during childhood tend to have a lasting impact.

OR

B. You are Maya Syiem from Shillong. You read the given advertisement and wish to apply for
the post advertised. Write this job application along with your bio-data.

Join our Creative Team!

A renowned publishing house in Shillong
A NEW WORLD
is seeking a talented illustrator for children's books.
Creative individuals with a passion for storytelling through art, welcome.
Experience, not mandatory.
Team players with degree/ diploma in Fine Arts/ Graphic Design may apply with 5 samples
from portfolio illustrating a variety of work.
Write to the Project Lead, 23-C Rosewood Lane, Shillong-793005

Attempt any one of the two, (A) or (B), in 120 150 words 1x5=5
6.
A. In an era of rapid globalisation and technological advancement, the preservation of cultural
heritage remains a vital challenge, particularly for the youth. India continues to navigate the
complexities of maintaining tradition alongside modernity. Write an article exploring the role
of cultural heritage in shaping the identities of today's Indian youth. Provide examples to
illustrate your points wherever necessary. You may use some of the given cues along with
your own ideas. You are Arti Nirula of Class XII-A.

 How have global interactions and technologies influenced or changed these

traditional practices among today's youth?
 What are the benefits of preserving cultural heritage for young people? How does it
contribute to their sense of identity and community?
 Suggest ways in which young people and institutions can work together to ensure the
preservation of cultural heritage.
OR

B. You are Hina Aziz, student of Class XII-D and a member of the school magazine editorial
board. Write a comprehensive report detailing the activities undertaken by students as part
of the celebrations on Yoga Day. Include descriptions of the events, participation details, and
the overall impact of these activities on the school community. You may organise your report
by following - Who - What – When – Where – Why – How

SECTION C
6
 LITERATURE (40 marks)

7. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the given two-A
or B 1x6=6
A Those who prepare green wars,
wars with gas, wars with fire,
victory with no survivors,
would put on clean clothes
and walk about with their brothers
in the shade, doing nothing. (poem - Keeping Quiet)

I. What is a common outcome of all the wars described?

II What does the imagery of ‘walking about with their brothers in the shade’ primarily
represent?
A. The readiness for further conflicts.
B. A return to normal activities post-conflict.
C. A moment of unity and peaceful reflection.
D. The physical environment of a typical war zone.

III. Complete the following suitably.

The putting on of ‘clean clothes’ by the warmongers, symbolises_________.

IV. Select the correct option from those given in brackets, to fill in the blank.

The excerpt tells us that the speaker ________ (condemns / glorifies) the destructive
nature of modern warfare.

V. Read the assertion and the reason below, with reference to the given extract.
Assertion: The poet advocates for 'doing nothing' as a way to prevent the devastation of
war.
Reason: 'Doing nothing' refers to a time for stopping any action for a few moments.

Choose the correct option regarding their relationship.

A. Both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
B. Both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
C. The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D. The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

VI. How can the message in the excerpt, about the outcome of wars be applied to promote
peace?

OR

B While greedy good-doers, beneficent beasts of prey,

Swarm over their lives enforcing benefits

7
 That are calculated to soothe them out of their wits,
And by teaching them how to sleep they sleep all day,
Destroy their sleeping at night the ancient way. (poem-The Roadside Stand)

I Select the phrase that suggests the following:

The so-called aids are not offered out of genuine care or consent but are imposed in a
controlling and perhaps unwelcome manner.

II What does the imagery of ‘swarm’ NOT represent in the given extract?
A. Coordinated help B. Overwhelming force
C. Discomfort and chaos D. Neglect of individual needs

III Complete the following suitably.

In the line, ‘destroy their sleeping at night the ancient way,’ the phrase ‘the ancient way’
refers to________.
IV. Select the correct option from those given in brackets, to fill in the blank.

The poet has used phrases like ‘greedy good-doers’ and ‘beneficent beasts of prey’ to
illustrate the ________ (irony/satire) in the situation where those claiming to help the rural
poor actually impose self-serving and detrimental actions on them.
V. Read the assertion and the reason below, with reference to the given extract.

Assertion: The poet criticizes the way the rural poor are treated by benefactors, suggesting
it instills ambition.
Reason: The interventions are overwhelmingly calming and lead to a loss of critical thinking
among the rural poor.
Choose the correct option regarding their relationship:
A. Both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
B. Both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
C. The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D. The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
VI. State in one sentence, what cautionary advice your address to the rural poor from the
extract, is most likely to include.

8. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the given two,
(A) or (B) 4x1=4
A. To visit Antarctica now is to be a part of that history; to get a grasp of where we’ve come
from and where we could possibly be heading. It’s to understand the significance of
Cordilleran folds and pre-Cambrian granite shields; ozone and carbon; evolution and
extinction. When you think about all that can happen in a million years, it can get pretty
mind-boggling. Imagine: India pushing northwards, jamming against Asia to buckle its crust
and form the Himalayas; South America drifting off to join North America, opening up the
Drake Passage to create a cold circumpolar current, keeping Antarctica frigid, desolate,
and at the bottom of the world. (Journey to the End of the Earth)
I. Complete the following suitably.
The passage suggests that visiting Antarctica offers insight into geological processes and

8
 Earth's history by ______________.

II. How does the author imply the role of geological knowledge in understanding the Earth's
past and potential future changes?

III. The writer says, ‘When you think about all that can happen in a million years, it can get
pretty mind-boggling.’
What is the most likely impact on the writer?
A. Feels overwhelmed by the vastness of geological time scales.
B. Is uneasy about the rapid pace of geological changes.
C. Feels indifferent towards geological phenomena.
D. Is surprised by the lack of significant geological events over a million years.

IV. How might understanding the geological processes mentioned in the passage help
scientists in predicting and mitigating future environmental changes, particularly in polar
regions?
OR
B. I cried aloud, shaking my head all the while until I felt the cold blades of the scissors
against my neck, and heard them gnaw off one of my thick braids. Then I lost my spirit.
Since the day I was taken from my mother I had suffered extreme indignities. People had
stared at me. I had been tossed about in the air like a wooden puppet. And now my long
hair was shingled like a coward’s! In my anguish I moaned for my mother, but no one came
to comfort me. Not a soul reasoned quietly with me, as my own mother used to do; for now,
I was only one of many little animals driven by a herder.
(Memories of Childhood: The Cutting of My Long Hair)

I. Complete the following suitably.

Zitkala-Sa's description of her experience at the boarding school conveys a sense of
abandonment through her portrayal of __________

II. List any one emotion that Zitkala-Sa experiences as her hair is being cut.

III. Select the suitable option to complete the following.

The metaphor of being ‘tossed about in the air like a wooden puppet’ contribute to the
reader's understanding of Zitkala-Sa's feelings of being ________.
A. forced to interact with others
B. manipulated and controlled
C. preached at and insulted
D. made to exist like toy animals

VI In what ways does the imagery of her ‘long hair shingled like a coward's’ symbolise the
erasure of Zitkala’s cultural heritage and the imposition of Western norms?

9. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the given two, A
or B. 1x6=6
9
 A. What a thunderclap these words were to me! Oh, the wretches; that was what they had put
up at the town-hall! My last French lesson! Why, I hardly knew how to write! I should never
learn anymore! I must stop there, then! Oh, how sorry I was for not learning my lessons, for
seeking birds’ eggs, or going sliding on the Saar! My books, that had seemed such a
nuisance a while ago, so heavy to carry, my grammar, and my history of the saints, were
old friends now that I couldn’t give up. And M. Hamel, too; the idea that he was going away,
that I should never see him again, made me forget all about his ruler and how cranky he
was. (The Last Lesson)

I. What was the writer’s purpose in using the metaphor of a ‘thunderclap’?

II. Select the correct option from those given in brackets to fill in the blank.
The use of exclamatory marks in the first five sentences of the extract serves to express
the speaker’s _______ (hidden/ intense) emotions.

III. Complete the following suitably.

The activities of seeking birds' eggs and sliding on the Saar reveal two things about Franz's
character before his change in perspective. First, his youthful carefree nature and second,
his preference for _________________.

IV. What is reflected through the shift in the speaker’s perception of Mr. Hamel, conveyed
through his readiness to forget the ruler?

V. Select the textual option that is closest to indicating a sense of panic.

A. Oh, how sorry I was for not learning my lessons…
B. Why, I hardly knew how to write!
C. Oh, the wretches; that was what they had put up at the town-hall!
D. And M. Hamel, too;

VI. What does the following line from the extract, showcase?

My books, that had seemed such a nuisance a while ago, so heavy to carry, my grammar,
and my history of the saints, were old friends now that I couldn’t give up.

A. realization B. confusion
C. expectation D. affirmation
OR
B. And survival in Seemapuri means rag-picking. Through the years, it has acquired the
proportions of a fine art. Garbage to them is gold. It is their daily bread, a roof over their
heads, even if it is a leaking roof. But for a child it is even more “I sometimes find a rupee,
even a ten-rupee note,” Saheb says, his eyes lighting up. When you can find a silver coin in
a heap of garbage, you don’t stop scrounging, for there is hope of finding more. It seems
that for children, garbage has a meaning different from what it means to their parents. For
the children it is wrapped in wonder, for the elders it is a means of survival.
(Lost Spring – Stories of Stolen Childhood)
I. What does Saheb's statement about finding money in the garbage reveal about his daily
life and aspirations?

10
 II. Select the correct option from those given in brackets to fill in the blank.
Describing garbage as ‘gold’ metaphorically elevates its value to the children, helping the
reader understand the _______ (dynamic / desperate) conditions under which these
children live, where even garbage can represent crucial economic resources.

III. Complete the following with a suitable reason.

Children continue to scrounge in the garbage because _______.

IV. How does the perception of garbage differ between children and adults in Seemapuri?

V. What is implied by the description of rag-picking as having ‘acquired the proportions of a

fine art’ in the excerpt?
A. Rag-picking is an undesirable and simple task that anyone can do without effort.
B. Rag-picking has evolved into a complex skill that is valued within the community.
C. Rag-picking is a temporary activity that does not significantly impact the community.
D. Rag-picking has the status of an artistic hobby that children pursue for enjoyment.

VI. What is the reason for Saheb’s eyes ‘lighting up’?

A. The immediate experience of finding something valuable.
B. Discussing his findings with others.
C. Reminiscing about past findings in the garbage.
D. Planning future scavenging expeditions

10. Answer any five of the following six questions in 40 50 words each : 5x2=10

I. Identify an instance of hope or resilience in ‘Lost Spring’ and analyse how it reflects one of
the story's themes.
II. Interpret the use of visual imagery by Kamala Das in her poem to depict the passage of
time.
III. What does the contrasting imagery of the church clock and the Prussian trumpets
represent, in ‘The Last Lesson’?
IV. How does the author's writing style in ‘The Interview’ affect the reader's understanding of
the story?
V. Explain how the rattrap symbolises the dual aspects of human nature. (The Rattrap)
VI What factor/s were largely instrumental in the victory of the peasants in ‘Indigo’?

11. Answer any two of the following three questions in 40 50 words each : 2x2=4
I. Discuss the significance of the toy tiger in the climax of ‘The Tiger King.’

II. Interpret the significance of both literal and metaphorical journeys in the story, ‘The Third
Level.’

III. How does Susan Hill subtly portray a blend of pessimism and optimism in ‘On the Face of
It’?

12. Answer any one of the following two questions, in about 120-150 words. 1x5=5

11
 A Analyse the poems, A Roadside Stand and Aunt Jennifer's Tigers for the theme of
inequality and its impact on the bearers.
OR

B How do the characters of Sophie from ‘Going Places’ and Subbu from ‘Poets and
Pancakes’ compare and contrast in terms of their aspirations, constraints, and the pursuit
of their dreams?

13. Answer any one of the following two questions, in about 120-150 words 1x5=5

A The influence of belief in traditions such as religion, family bonds, or patriotism can be used
to develop narrative techniques like setting, motivation, sources of conflict, and pacing.
Analyse how the writer has incorporated such influences to good effect in the story, The
Enemy. Support your answer with valid textual evidence.

OR
B Discuss the narrative techniques used by the author in The Third Level. How do these
techniques effectively convey the themes of escapism and nostalgia? Provide specific
examples from the text to support your analysis.

12
 MARKING SCHEME
ENGLISH CORE (Code No. 301)
CLASS-XII-(2024-25)

General Instructions: -

1. The Marking Scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers. These are in
the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students
can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, then due marks should
be awarded accordingly.

2. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more
marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.

3. If more than one option is mentioned in the answer of multiple choice questions, then no
marks to be awarded.

SECTION A: READING SKILLS (22 marks)

1. Answer the following questions, based on the passage above. (Descriptive 12

Passage)
I They lead to instant interruptions in conversations. 1
[language / expression may vary but the idea should remain relevant]

II It illustrates how moments are fleeting and unnoticed, lost amid the distractions of 1
digital interactions / it illustrates how easily significant moments can drift away
when overshadowed by the focus on technology
[language / expression may vary but the idea should remain relevant]

III A. a deep (psychological) dependence on technology for a sense of wholeness or 1

connection
IV reduce the anxiety associated with the need to constantly be connected 1

V C. It interferes with our ability to engage with meaningful aspects of our life. 1

VI Yes it does - develop a hunch / mind is constantly alert (any one) 1

VII The phrase refers to the natural, meaningful, and often quieter moments that make 2
up human existence and relationships—those that occur away from the digital
chaos. The writer draws our attention towards the genuine life experiences, such
as face-to-face conversations, quiet contemplation, enjoying nature, and real-world
interactions, that are overlooked or drowned out by the constant noise of digital
activity.
[language / expression may vary but the idea should remain relevant]

VIII D. clamour 1

IX A. Despite the intent to connect more effectively, the result is the opposite. 1
(Option B is satire, C is hyperbole and D is metaphor)
 X They are – (2 points to be elaborated for either) 2
Benefits: Survey outcomes can offer a detailed understanding of the specific needs
and preferences of various demographic groups, which can enhance the
effectiveness of health interventions by making them more targeted and relevant.
Additionally, using these data-driven insights can foster a sense of collaboration
among stakeholders, promoting a unified approach towards health and
sustainability.

Challenges: Relying on survey outcomes may present challenges such as the risk
of biases in the data collection process, which can twist results and lead to
ineffective interventions. There's also the issue of survey fatigue among
participants, potentially reducing engagement and the accuracy of the data
gathered. Moreover, translating survey findings into practical interventions requires
resources and continuous stakeholder commitment, which might not always be
feasible.

2. Answer the following questions, based on given passage. 10

I … how busy daily routines influence people to opt for quick and convenient eating 1
options, often at the expense of nutritional value

II A. Primary purpose 1

III The TWO points are – 2

a) Health focus, as fruits are widely recognised for their health benefits, and this
aligns with the study’s goal to analyse snacking habits and their implications
for health (making fresh fruits a relevant choice for understanding healthy
snacking behaviours).
b) Comparative analysis, as the study aims to compare the health implications of
seasonal fruits versus packaged snacks. Including fresh fruits allows
researchers to directly evaluate preferences between natural, healthier choices
and processed, potentially less healthy alternatives.

IV Influence – sentence 1 ; Motivation – sentence 2 1

V D. Seema - teenager (taste and convenience) ; Mohan - elderly(health, digestive 1

ease) ; Arindam -young adult (health and convenience )

VI Due to their increased health needs and focus on foods that are easier to digest 1
and nutritionally beneficial.

VII Targeted interventions can effectively address specific health needs by focusing 2
on the unique factors influencing each demographic's snacking choices. For
example, educational campaigns for parents can foster early healthy eating habits
in children, while initiatives for teenagers can reduce the impact of advertising and
peer pressure, promoting wiser food choices. Also, ensuring that middle-aged and
older adults have access to fresh produce supports ongoing health maintenance,
directly contributing to overall improved health outcomes across the lifespan.

VIII B. Building healthier communities. 1

 SECTION B-CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS (18 marks)

3. Format – 1 Content -2 Accuracy of spelling and grammar -1 4

4. A- (Card type formal / third person/ centre aligned) B- (Letter type- formal, first/ 4
third person )
Format – 1 Content -2 Accuracy of spelling and grammar -1
5. Format -1 Content -2 Organisation -1 Accuracy of spelling and grammar -1 5

6. Format – 1 Content -2 Organisation -1 Accuracy of spelling and grammar -1 5

A. Article -Value points

 Cultural heritage provides a strong sense of identity, helping young people
connect with their roots and understand how historical influences shape
their personal and community identities.
 Exposure to one's own and other cultures promotes tolerance and
appreciation, which are vital in today’s globalised society. This helps youths
navigate diverse social environments with respect and empathy.
 Engaging with traditional arts, crafts, and practices can inspire creativity and
innovation among youths, allowing them to reinterpret cultural expressions
in ways that resonate with contemporary life.
 Active participation in cultural festivals, rituals, and community events
strengthens bonds among community members and enhances social
cohesion, making cultural heritage a pivotal part of daily life for youths.
 Incorporating cultural studies in education can increase awareness and
pride among young people about their heritage, encouraging them to
become advocates and preservers of their traditions.
 By using technology to create appealing and accessible cultural content,
such as virtual museum tours, digital storytelling, and social media
campaigns, youths can be engaged with their heritage in formats they find
relatable and exciting.
B. Cues lead to the eliciting of relevant response points

SECTION C-LITERATURE (40 marks)

7. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the given two-A or B

A Poetry (Flamingo) 6
I Gaining victory with no survivors 1

II C. A moment of unity and peaceful reflection 1

III …a potential for change and renewal / a moment of pause and reflection / an act 1
of cleansing of their actions /embracing a peaceful existence/ the possibility of
transformation
IV condemns 1
V B. Both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct 1
explanation of the assertion.
VI Global leaders and communities can work toward more sustainable and peaceful 1
solutions – Can be used to advocate for non-violent resolutions / peace
 negotiations in contemporary conflicts / Can be used to promote dialogue and
understanding over aggression and warfare
B
I enforcing benefits 1

II A. Coordinated help 1

III …the traditional and longstanding sleeping patterns and nighttime rituals that have 1
been part of the rural community's lifestyle for generations (deeply rooted cultural
practices)
[The speaker suggests that the modern practices, possibly influenced by external
forces such as urbanisation or industrialisation, disrupt the natural sleep patterns
of the rural inhabitants – dilute their time-tested ways.]

IV irony 1

V D. The assertion is false, but the reason is true. (Correct assertion - The poet 1
criticizes the way the rural poor are treated by benefactors, suggesting it dulls their
senses : ‘soothe them out of their wits’)
VI Be wary of involvements by outsiders that might appear benevolent but could 1
ultimately undermine your autonomy and dull your critical thinking abilities.
[language / expression may vary but the idea should remain relevant]

8. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the given 4
two, (A) or (B)
A.
I … exploring Cordilleran folds, granite shields, and environmental factors like ozone 1
and carbon
II The author does so by linking geological events to Antarctica's environmental 1
conditions, highlighting the significance of geological processes in shaping the
planet's history and future trajectories.
III A. Feels overwhelmed by the vastness of geological time scales. 1

IV By providing insights into how geological events impact polar regions and influence 1
global climate patterns.
B
I . …isolation and lack of support / absence of any solace or reassurance from 1
others / being an animal to a herder thereby suggesting a loss of identity
II anguish/ sense of loss/ turmoil ( any other relevant) 1

III B. manipulated and controlled 1

IV The imagery symbolises the forced assimilation and suppression of Indigenous 1

culture, portraying the cutting of her hair as an act of cultural violence and the
imposition of Western ideals of appearance and behaviour.

9. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the 6
given two, A or B.
A
I To emphasise the suddenness and shock of Franz’s understanding about the 1
importance of his education./ To conveys the urgency and deep impact of this
 moment / To dramatically highlight how unexpected and jarring the realisation was
to him – like the startling and instant nature of a thunderclap / To effectively
captures the emotional intensity of the moment of deep regret and abrupt
awakening experienced by Franz
II intense 1

III …preference for play over study 1

IV It reflects a newfound respect and appreciation, overshadowing past fears of 1

discipline and strictness.
V B. Why, I hardly knew how to write! 1

VI A. realisation 1

B
I It highlights his precarious economic situation and his dependence on chance finds 1
for small joys and possibly essential income, reflecting the dire poverty and limited
opportunities available to him.

II desperate 1

III …finding valuable items like coins gives them hope of finding more 1

IV For children, garbage represents a source of wonder and potential treasure, 1

whereas for adults, it is primarily a means of survival.

V B. Rag-picking has evolved into a complex skill that is valued within the community. 1

VI C. Reminiscing about past findings in the garbage. 1

10. Answer any five of the following six questions in 40 50 words each : 10
1 -Content 1- Expression ½ -1 deducted from overall, for Accuracy

I An instance of hope or resilience – Saheb’s continued search in the garbage, 2

driven by the occasional discovery of a rupee or a ten-rupee note, symbolises his
hope and resilience against the overwhelming odds of his harsh life.
This reflects the theme of enduring hope amidst poverty and destitution - the
human spirit’s capacity to dream and hope, even in the terribly dire circumstances
-- suggesting that the desire for a better life can exist independent of one's current
state of poverty

II (Any one) 2
 The image of her aging mother - ‘pale as a late winter’s moon,’ -- conveys the
fragility and the inevitability of aging -- highlights the physical changes brought
by time and evokes a sense of gentle, serene decline rather than abrupt decay
 The image with the vivid, lively description of young trees sprinting and merry
children spilling out of their homes --- contrasts sharply with her mother's
stillness and silence --- enhances the sense of her mother's isolation in her old
age / the relentless passage of time that spares no one -- life’s transient nature

III Represents -- the tension between local traditions and foreign occupation 2
 The church clock -- symbol of local, everyday life and continuity --- in stark
opposition to the Prussian trumpets, which symbolise disruption, military power,
and the enforcement of foreign rule
Highlights the theme of loss and the struggle to preserve one's cultural heritage
against overwhelming odds

IV The author’s writing style - often blends a conversational tone with introspective 2
moments -- deeply affects the reader's engagement and understanding of the
narrative.
Use of direct dialogues interspersed with reflective commentary – this approach
not only makes the interactions more dynamic and engaging but enhances the
reader’s insight into the complexities of personalities and themes being explored

V Dual – 2
 The tendency towards greed and deceit - society, driven by wealth and gain,
ensnares individuals, reducing their existence to a constant struggle to
escape from materialistic enticements
 The potential for redemption through empathy and kindness –kindness and
trust by the ironmaster’s daughter, Edla, inspires the peddlar to reclaim his
essential humanity and escape the identity of a thief - signified by his
decision to return the stolen money and leaving a note explaining his
thoughts about the world being a rattrap

VI Largely due to the leadership and advocacy provided by Mahatma Gandhi -- his 2
involvement brought national attention to their plight --highlighted the importance
of civil rights and nonviolent resistance
Gandhi's strategic approach to negotiations & his insistence on nonviolent protest
-- empowered the peasants to stand up against oppressive landlords --- led to their
immediate victory -- inspired a broader movement for social and economic justice
across India

11. Answer any two of the following three questions in 40 50 words each : 4

I The significance of the toy tiger lies in its stark contrast to the dangerous live tigers 2
the Maharaja had been hunting throughout his life.
Its role in his death brings up the themes of irony and fate central to the story.
It illustrates -- despite human efforts to control or escape destiny, it can manifest in
the most unexpected and trivial forms.
The toy tiger symbolises -- the ultimate futility of the Maharaja’s efforts -- points to
the folly of those who believe they can master fate through power or violence

II The literal journey involves Charley, discovering a supposed 'third level' at the 2
Grand Central Station--a portal to the year 1894. The metaphorical journey--
Charley's inner longing for a simpler, more reassuring past—a common human
desire to retreat to a time perceived as better or less complicated.
The significance - their portrayal of the universal quest for happiness and fulfillment
-- together, these journeys explore themes of escapism, the subjective nature of
reality, and the deep-seated human need for connection and comfort in familiar but
idealised, settings.

III Derry is of the pessimistic view whereas Mr. Lamb is of the optimistic view point. 2
Both are disabled but still view life from different perspectives.
 Both protagonists challenges with disfigurement are depicted with a stark realism
that leans towards pessimism, yet interactions that offer genuine connection hint
at underlying optimism -- suggest the possibility of emotional survival despite
physical and social barriers

12. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 120-150 words 5
A.
‘A Roadside Stand’ focuses on the economic disparities between rural and urban areas, and
‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’ delves into the gender-based inequalities within marriage and society.

A Roadside Stand Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers

 Depicts the struggles of rural individuals  Illustrates the oppression faced by Aunt
facing economic inequality. Jennifer within her marriage.
 Highlights the disparity between urban  Reflects on the expectations and
and rural lifestyles. restrictions placed on women, socially.
 Reflects on the exploitation of rural  Explores the theme of domestic
communities by those in power. suppression and its impact on women's
 Explores the loss of traditional ways of autonomy.
life due to modernisation and  Highlights the contrast between Aunt
industrialisation. Jennifer's inner world and her external
reality.

Impact on Bearers:
 A Roadside Stand -- rural folk are portrayed as struggling to make ends meet due to
economic disparities, leading to feelings of frustration and helplessness.
 Aunt Jennifer's Tigers – Aunt experiences oppression and suppression within her marriage
 Both sets of bearers face the psychological and emotional toll of their respective
inequalities, resulting in a longing for freedom and empowerment.
 Despite their challenges, the bearers in both poems demonstrate a desire to assert
themselves through small acts of defiance or dreams of liberation.

B
While both Sophie and Subbu share aspirations for success in their respective fields, they
encounter different constraints and demonstrate distinct approaches in pursuing their dreams.

Sophie Subbu
 Aspiration: Sophie dreams of owning a  Aspiration: Subbu aims to succeed in the film
boutique or becoming a fashion industry as a poet, actor, and contributor to
designer. Gemini Studios.
 Constraints: Financial limitations and  Constraints: While Subbu faces challenges,
other expectations, such as her father's such as criticism for his perceived sycophancy
disapproval, hinder Sophie's pursuit of and overshadowing of his literary achievements
her dreams. by his success in films, he navigates these
 Pursuit of Dreams: Despite the obstacles with grace and humility.
challenges, Sophie remains  Pursuit of Dreams: Subbu's dedication to his
determined to achieve her goals, craft and ability to adapt to various roles within
showing persistence and creativity in Gemini Studios reflect his unwavering
her pursuits commitment to his pursuits.
13. Answer any one of the following two questions, in about 120-150 words 5
A
 Incorporation of Traditions:
 Religion - how religious beliefs influence character actions and decisions.
For example, Sadao's internal conflict may be influenced by his moral beliefs shaped by
religious teachings.
 Family Bonds - how relationships in the family impact character interactions and
motivations.
For example, Hana's concern for the safety of her family and the potential repercussions
of harbouring an enemy soldier could drive her actions.
 Patriotism - how national loyalty and patriotism create tension and conflict in the
story.
For example, Sadao's duty as a citizen and as a doctor may conflict with his compassion
towards the wounded soldier, highlighting the complexities of wartime allegiances.

 Narrative Techniques:
 Setting - how the wartime setting amplifies the moral dilemmas faced by the
characters.
The backdrop of war intensifies the stakes and adds urgency to their decisions.
 Motivation - how cultural influences shape character motivations and drive the plot
forward.
The characters' actions may be guided by deeply ingrained cultural values and beliefs.
 Sources of Conflict - the key conflicts stemming from cultural differences,
expectations, and wartime circumstances.
These conflicts drive the narrative forward and heighten the tension.
 Pacing - how the pacing of the story reflects the characters' internal struggles and
external conflicts.
The pacing may fluctuate to convey moments of tension, reflection, and resolution.

B.
(Any two narrative techniques)
[The examples may be references and not direct quotes]

a) First-Person Narrative:
 Technique - The story is narrated from the first-person perspective of Charley, which
creates an intimate and personal recounting of his experiences and thoughts.
 Effect - This technique allows readers to directly engage with Charley’s desires and
fears, making his longing for escape and the nostalgia for a simpler past more
tangible.
 Textual Evidence - Charley states, “But that’s the reason, he said, and my friends
all agreed. Everything points to it, they claimed. My stamp collecting, for example;
that’s a ‘temporary refuge from reality.’”
This personal reflection shares his internal justifications and how others perceive his
escapism.

b) Detailed Descriptive Language:

 Technique - The use of vivid and specific descriptions of settings and times,
particularly Charley’s descriptions of the third level of Grand Central Station.
 Effect on Themes - These descriptions not only build a believable world but also
vividly paint the past, stressing the theme of nostalgia and the allure of escapism
to a seemingly better and simpler time.
  Textual Evidence - “Then I saw why; they were open-flame gaslights.” and
“everyone in the station was dressed like eighteen-ninety-something; I never saw
so many beards, sideburns, and fancy mustaches in my life.”
These details highlight the historical setting Charley escapes to, filled with elements from
the past.

c) Symbolism:
 Technique - The story uses the ‘third level’ as a symbol, representing not just a
physical place but a mental escape into another time.

 Effect on Themes - The third level serves as a metaphor for the psychological
refuge one seeks from the modern world’s anxieties, underlining the theme of
escapism.
 Textual Evidence – Charley mentions, “Grand Central has been an exit, a way of
escape—maybe that’s how the tunnel I got into.”
This line explicitly connects the physical space of the third level to the concept of escaping
reality.

d) Contrast and Irony:

 Technique - The stark contrast between Charley’s mundane, modern life and his
adventures on the third level introduces a layer of irony.
 Effect on Themes - This contrast enhances the nostalgic appeal of the third level
while ironically pointing out the impracticalities of such escapism.
 Textual Evidence - “The clerk figured the fare—he glanced at my fancy hatband,
but he figured the fare—and I had enough for two coach tickets, one way. But when
I counted out the money and looked up, the clerk was staring at me.”
This shows how out of place modern elements are in the past, highlighting the nostalgic
yet challenging nature of his escape.
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Sample Paper
Class XII (2024-25)
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1) The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.

2) Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice
questions. All questions are compulsory.
3) Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short
answer types and should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4) Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer
types and should not exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5) Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies.
There is internal choice available.
6) Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer
types and should not exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

(SECTION -A)

Q1. How many total matches will be played in a knock out fixture of 19 teams 1
A. 18 B. 17 C. 20 D. 16

Q2. Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read 1
the statements and choose the appropriate option from the options given below:
Assertion: The knock out tournament is an elimination tournament
Reason: In knock out tournament, winner of each match advances in the tournament and
the loser gets eliminated.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Q3. Match the following: 1

List I List II
I Knock Knee 1 Increase exaggeration of backward curve
II Kyphosis 2 Wide gap between the knees when standing with feet together
III Lordosis 3 Knees touch each other in normal standing position
IV Bow legs 4 Inward curvature of the spine

A. I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2

B. I-1, II-3, III-4, IV-2
C. I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3
D. I-2, II-3, III-4, IV-1

1
Q4. For developing muscles, which nutrient should be increase in diet
A. Vitamins C. Minerals
B. Protein D. Carbohydrates

Q5. Identify the asana: 1

A. Paschimottanasana
B. Halasana
C. Vajrasana
D. Dhanurasana

Q6. Which asana is pose like cobra? 1

A. Bhujangasana
B. Dhanurasana
C. Vajrasana
D. Ardhmatsyendrasana

Q7. Deaflympics Games was first organized in the year………… 1

A. 1896 B. 1960 C. 1924 D. 1951

Q8. Menarche is defined as the: 1

A. Ending of menstrual period of women
B. Beginning of menstrual period in women
C. Time of pregnancy
D. Missing of menstrual cycle

Q9. Which of the following are fat soluble vitamins 1

A. Vitamin d & k
B. Vitamin b & c
C. Vitamin a & e
D. Both option a & c

2
Q10. Match the following: 1
I Plate Tapping Test 1. Upper body strength boys
II Push up 2. Reaction time
III Partial Curl up 3. Upper body strength girls
IV Modified pushup 4. Abdominal strength

A. I-2, II-1, III-4, IV-3

B. I-2, II-3, III-1, IV-4
C. I-1, II-3, III-2, IV-4
D. I-2, II-3, III-4, IV-1

Q11. Which of the following is a physiological factor determining flexibility? 1

A. Bone density
B. Joint structure
C. Cardiac output
D. Tidal Volume

Q12. The ability to tolerate higher concentration of ……………. Can help in improving 1
endurance performance.
A. Lactic acid C. acetic acid
B. Hydrochloric acid D. Sulphuric acid

Q13. If a ball is hit and it is stop by gravitational force, this is an example of which 1
law of Motion.
A. Law of Inertia
B. Law of acceleration
C. Law of action and reaction
D. Both a & b

Q14. In which of the following sport friction plays the least important role. 1
A. Car race
B. Football
C. Ice skating
D. Hockey

Q15. Instrumental aggression is related to 1

A. Accepting defeat
B. Achieving goal
C. Only performance
D. Hurting someone to gain something

Q16. Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). 1
Assertion: Aggression is part of human behavior and is necessary for an individual to
live and struggle for higher achievements
Reason: Aggression is inevitable and inseparable in sport activities
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3
 B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Q17. Which of these is a type of endurance? 1

A. Static C. Dynamic
B. Specific D. Relative

Q18. Which type of coordinative ability is required in game like judo and wrestling 1
B. Orientation ability
C. Coupling ability
D. Adaptation ability
E. Differentiation ability
(SECTION B- Attempt any 5)

Q19. Enlist any two-exercise guideline by WHO for different age groups. 2
Q20. How we can say that protein is an essential component of diet? 2
Q21. Mention the test performed on 9 to 18 yrs. of age group in SAI Khelo
India fitness test and explain any one? 1+1
Q22. List down the types of bone injuries . 2
Q23. What do you understand by the term goal setting 2
Q24. Define Flexibility and list down its type. 1+1
(SECTION C- Attempt any 5)

Q25. Specify the purpose of specific sports programme organised for community services. 3
Q26. What are the health problem face by a woman due to female athlete triad in its sports and
athletic performance. 3
Q27. Write in detail the aims and objectives of special Olympic Bharat. 3
Q28. Differentiate between nutritive and nonnutritive components of a diet on the basis of their
functions. 1.5+1.5
Q29. With the help of suitable sports example explain the application of Newtons 3
third law in sports.
Q30. How we can enhance the performance with the help of self-talk and self-esteem. 1.5+1.5

4
 (SECTION D)

Q31.

I. Choose the function of boarding committee 1

A. To take teams to the venue of match
B. To provide them meals
C. To take care of their stay
D. To arrange opening ceremony
II. What is the work of ceremony committee 1
A. To take teams to the venue of match
B. To provide them meals
C. To take care of their stay
D. To arrange opening ceremony
III. Ground and equipment committee should not perform 1
A. To arrange teams match venues
B. To provide them meals
C. To take care of proper officiating
D. To make fixtures
IV. Why committees are required?
A. To organize the event is perfect manner
B. To distribute the work
C. To make the best use of resources
D. All of the above 1

(Questions for Visually impaired)

Ram is a secretary of state basketball association. He has given the responsibility to organize a sub-
junior national tournament. He wants to organize the event at large scale and start distribution the
work in various committees. He delegates the duties to different individual with authority and
responsibility.
(Answer the following questions on the basis of above paragraph)
I. Which committee is responsible to make the event awareness: -
A. Publicity Committee C. Registration committee
B. Hospitality D. Transports

5
II. ………………. is the process of identifying and grouping the work to be performed.
A. Planning C. Organising
B. Directing D. Controlling

III. The reception committee for the tournament is responsible for ________
A. Welcoming the participants
B. Arranging accommodation and meals for the participants
C. Proper upkeep of the venues
D. Welcoming the chief guest and spectators at the opening and closing ceremony

IV. If the responsibility of a committee is to fix venue, date and timing of the sports events,
it is a ________
A. Post meeting committee
B. Pre meet committee
C. During meet committee
D. All the above

Q32.
I. The first paralympics was organise in
A.1960 C. 1965
B. 1970 D. 1985

II. Special education is a branch of education that deals with

A. . Educating children in special schools
B. Instructions designing for students with special needs
C. To provide opportunity of special education
D. More than one of the above

III. Why is it called the Paralympics?

A. The first competition was held in Paraguay
B. It was originally for paramilitary soldiers injured in WW2
C. The event runs parallel with the Olympics
D. It's an event for paraplegics

IV. What is the motto of the Paralympic Games

A. Spirit in motion
B. Citius, Altius, Fortius"
C. "Faster, Higher, Stronger
D. Diversity, Equality, Inclusion"

6
(Question for Visually Impared)
Read the paragraph and answer the following question
The Paralympic Games are a major international multi-sport event involving athletes with
a range of physical disabilities, including impaired muscle power, impaired passive range
of movement, limb deficiency, leg length difference, short stature, hypertonia, ataxia,
athetosis, vision impairment, and intellectual impairment.
Dr. Ludwig Guttmann kownn as father of paralympic organized the first official Paralympic
Games in Rome featuring 400 athletes from 23 countries.
The Paralympics have grown significantly over the years, now attracting thousands of
athletes from over 100 countries. The Paralympic movement has played a vital role in
challenging societal perceptions of disability and in promoting the rights and inclusion
of people with disabilities worldwide

I. What is the primary focus of the Paralympic Games?

A. To promote physical fitness among children
B. To involve athletes with a range of physical disabilities in competitive sports
C. To honor the history of the Olympic Games
D. To raise funds for sports organizations
II. Who organized the first event that eventually led to the creation of the Paralympic
Games?
A. Pierre de Coubertin C. Lord Zeus
B. Dr. Ludwig Guttmann D. Norabji Tata
III. In which year were the first official Paralympic Games held?
A. 1948 C. 1960
B. 1952 D. 1964
IV. Where were the first official Paralympic Games held?
A. Tokyo, Japan C. Rome, Italy
B. London, United Kingdom D. Sydney, Australia

Q33.

I. What is the primary effect of exercise on cardio respiratory system. 1

A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased stroke volume
7
 C. Decreased lung capacity
D. Decreased blood pressure
II. What is stroke volume 1
A. The volume of blood ejected by the heart per minute
B. The volume of blood ejected by the heart per beat
C. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole
D. The volume of blood pumped by the heart during exercise
III. Cardiac output is 1
A. The volume of blood ejected by the heart per minute
B. The volume of blood ejected by the heart per beat
C. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole
D. The volume of blood pumped by the heart during exercise

IV. Blood pressure is 1

A. The volume of blood ejected by the heart per minute
B. The force exerted by blood against the walls of arteries
C. The rate of blood flow through the veins
D. The amount of oxygen carried by red blood cells
(Question for blind)
Ramesh is an athlete of XYZ school. He is use to do 100m event for his school. He used to do
hard work throughout the year to get his best performance. One day he got injury in winter
season due to improper warming-up. He has been given first -aid before sent to hospital.
I. Sprain is an injury of ….
A. Ligament C. Bone
B. Muscle D. Joint
II. In PRICE treatment I stands for
A. Iceing C. Incision
B. Incline D. Irritation

III. Abrasion is a
A. Type of fracture C. Soft tissue injury
B. Joint dislocation D. Internal injury

IV. Why warming up is necessary

A. To avoid injuries C. To increase body temperature
B. To increase pulse rate D. All the above

8
 (SECTION E- Attempt any 3)

Q34. List down any four asanas used for prevention of Hypertension. Explain the procedure,
benefits and contraindicate of any one of them with help of a stick diagram. 1+4
Q35. Discuss the purpose of Rikli & Jones fitness test and explain procedure of any two
test batteries in detail. 5
Q36.Define strength and differentiate between Isometric, Iso-tonic and Iso-kinetic exercises.
1+4
Q37.What are the various types of friction? With the help of suitable example explain why friction
is necessary in sports. 2+3

9
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII
2024-25
Answer Key
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70

Q Answer Marks
No.
1. A. 18 1
2. A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 1
3 A. I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2 1
4 B. Protein 1
5 B. Halasana 1
6 A. Bhujangasana 1
7 C. 1924 1
8 B. Beginning of menstrual period in women 1

9 D. both a and c
10 A. I-2, II-1, III-4, IV-3 1
11 B. Joint structure 1
12 A. Lactic acid 1
13 A law of Inertia 1
14 A. Ice Skating
15 A. Achieving goal 1
16 A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 1
17 A. specific 1
18 A. Adaptation ability 1
Section B
19 Q. Enlist different types of postural deformities.
a. Kyphosis ½*4=2
b. Lordosis
c. Scoliosis

1
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII
2024-25
Answer Key
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70

d. Knock-Knee
e. Flat Foot
f. Bow legs
(any four)

Q20 How we can say that protein is an essential component of diet? 2

• Protein is essential component of diet because protein is known as building block
of life and it increase the strength of muscle fibers, repair and maintenance of
body tissue and also connected with immune mechanism of the body.
Q21 Mention the test performed on 9 to 18 yrs. of age group in SAI KheloIndia fitness test and
explain any one? ½ *4
a. Body Composition (BMI) =2
b. Strength
. Abdominal (Partial Curl-up)
Muscular Endurance (Push Ups for Boys, Modified Push Ups for Girls)
c. Flexibility (Sit and Reach Test)
d. Cardiovascular Endurance (600 Meter Run/Walk)
e. Speed (50 mt. Dash)

Q22 Q. List down the types of bone injuries

a. Stress fracture ½ *4
b. Green stick fracture =2
c. Comminuted fracture.
d. Transverse Fracture
e. Impacted fractures
Q23. What do you understand by the term goal setting?
A. Goal setting is one of the best motivational strategies. It improves performance 2
by directing attention, increasing effort and persistenc. These goals can be
short-term or long-term and are designed to help athletes focus their efforts, stay
motivated, track progress, and ultimately improve their performance.
Q24. Define Flexibility and list down its type.

2
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII
2024-25
Answer Key
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70

A. It is the ability which helps to do the movements with greater amplitude or with a 1+1
great range of motion or we can say that flexibility refers to the range of
movement in a joint or series of joints, and length in muscles that cross the joints
to induce a bending movement or motion.
Type of Flexibility
a. active & passive
Section C
Q25 Specify the purpose of specific sports programme organised for community services.
A. These days it is very common that specific sports programmes are organised to make 3
people aware regarding particular cause or any particular issue. These programmes
are not related to competitions only, but it has special reason. They create awareness
related to a disease like AIDS, Swine Flu, collecting funds for special cause like flood,
earth quakes etc.
Q26 What are the health problem face by a woman due to female athlete triad in its sports and
athletic performance. ½*6 =3
A. The female athlete triad is a problem face by a women consist of Eating Disorder,
Osteoporosis and Amenorrhea. The following problem are faced by a woman due to
the female athlete triad in sports performance: -
a. Increased risk of injury
b. Feeling tired
c. Shortness of breath
d. Stomach inflammation
e. Muscle weakness
f. Weak bones
g. Hormonal imbalance
h. Psychological effects.
Q27. Write in detail the aims and objectives of paralympic committee
A. The Paralympic games are a multi – sports event for athletes with physical, mental 3
and sensorial disabilities. This includes mobility, disabilities, amputees, visual
disabilities. The main objective of Paralympics are as follows: -

3
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII
2024-25
Answer Key
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70

a. Promote Para sport worldwide, without unlawful discrimination on the grounds

of disability, race, skin colour, national, ethnic or social origin, age, sex, gender,
sexual orientation, language, political or other opinion, religion or other beliefs,
circumstances of birth, or other unlawful ground.
b. Support and encourage educational and cultural activities and exchanges that
contribute to the development and promotion of the Paralympic Movement,
enhance awareness of disability, and drive social inclusion.
Q28. Differentiate between nutritive and nonnutritive components of a diet o
Nutritive Component Non- Nutritive Component 1.5+1.5
Nutritive components of food are Non-nutritive components of the diet are
those elements that provide a those components that do not have any
considerable quantity of energy to the nutritional value but are nonetheless
system, such as protein, necessary for the body in tiny quantities.
carbohydrates, and fats, all of which
are essential to the body.
Provide Energy Provide flavour and texture
Support growth and repair Acts as food addictive
Regulate metabolism Provide antioxidant
Q29. With the help of suitable sports example explain the application of Newtons third law in
sports. 3
A. Newton's third law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite
reaction.
In swimming, Newton's third law is evident in the propulsion generated by a
swimmer's arm strokes against the water. When a swimmer pulls their arm through
the water with force (action), the water exerts an equal and opposite force backward
on the swimmer's hand (reaction). This reaction force propels the swimmer forward
through the water.
Q30. How we can enhance the performance with the help of self-talk and self-esteem.
A. Self-talk and self-esteem play significant roles in enhancing sports performance. 1.5+1.5
Motivational self-talks are necessary and productive. It boosts performance by
helping you to build confidence, enhance your belief in your ability to perform. It

4
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII
2024-25
Answer Key
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70

also athletes maintain a positive mindset, enhance their confidence, and improve
their performance.
Self-esteem is also crucial in sports performance. It helps in taking effective
decision, Educed anxiety & stress. Individuals with high self-esteem are better
equipped to bounce back from setbacks and failures.
Q31. a. To take care of their stay 1
d. To arrange opening ceremony 1
a. To provide them meals 1
Committees are important for proper planning, organization, control during the 1
tournament.
Appropriate path and guidelines are provided by these committees during the
tournament. Through committees all understand their work duties and responsibilities
no body interferes in any others work.
(Question for blind)
There should be an organizing committee which should be responsible for the
successful and smooth conduct of the sports competitions
Committees required pre event:-
Publicity Committee
Committee for the ground and equipment
Committee for Accommodation and Sitting Arrangements
Committee for Entries
Committees required during event:-
Committee for First-Aid:
Committee for Refreshment
Committee for officials:
Committee for Information and announcement
Committees required post event:-
Committee for closing ceremony
Evaluation
Record Maintenance

Q32. A) i. 1960 1
B) ii. Instructions designing for students with special needs 1
C) iii The event runs parallel with the Olympics
1
D) i. Spirit in motion
1
(Question for Blind)

5
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII
2024-25
Answer Key
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70

Inclusion in physical education refers to the students with disabilities to participate in all
the activities. It means that these students get equal chance to participate in all activities,
and they too learn the same curriculum just like other students.
It helps in increases social skills of students with disabilities. Inclusion is needed to
increase motor skills of students with disabilities. A disabled student gets equal chance to
participate in age-appropriate activities so, it increases the confidence level.
Q33 i. Decreased heart rate 1
ii. The volume of blood ejected by the heart per beat 1
i. The volume of blood ejected by the heart per minute 1
ii. The force exerted by blood against the walls of arteries 1
(Question for Blind)
Long term effect of exercise on cardio respiratory system are:
Increase in heart size:- Regular exercise leads to increase in size and strength of heart
muscles. The heart wall grow stronger and thicker.
Stroke volume increases at rest:- Resting heart rate is able to slow down , because the
heart is now trained to pump a larger quantity of blood with every beat.
Faster recovery rate:- Regular exercise leads to faster recovery rate. An athletes heart
rate becomes normal earlier compared to a beginner. Rate of respiration also becomes
normal quickly. Thus the recovery becomes fast.
Short Term effect
Short Term / Immediate Effect
Increase in heart rate:- On of the short term effect is increase in heart rate, when we
doing exercise the heart rate will continue to rise from its normal beat in direct proportion
to the intensity of exercise until maximum heart rate is achieved.
Cardiac Output:- It is the amount of blood the heart pumps in a period of one minute. It
also increase during strenuous exercise.
Blood Pressure:- The pressure exerted by blood on the wall of heart, The upper range is
called systolic and bottom range is called diastolic. Regular exercise also have effect on
our blood pressure, generally there is change in systolic pressure but the diastolic pressure
usually remains unchanged during intensive exercise

Section E
Q34. List down any four asanas used for prevention of Hypertension. Explain the procedure,
benefits and contraindicate of any one of them with help of a stick diagram. 2+3
A. Blood pressure is the force of your blood pushing against the walls of your
arteries. Each time your heart beats, it pumps blood into the arteries.
The four asana used for the prevention of hypertension are as follows:-
• Tadasana,
• Katichakransan,

6
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII
2024-25
Answer Key
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70

• Uttanpadasana,
• Ardha Halasana
Procedure benefit and contraindication of Tadasana:
Tadasana
The word Tada in Sanskrit means ‘palm tree’. This asana is called tadasana
because in this asana the person stands straight like a aim tree stretching his
whole body upwards.
Procedure:
To perform Tadasana the following steps should be performed:
1. Stand erect, feet together, hands by the side of the thighs. Keep the back
straight and look in front.
2. Stretch the arms upward; keep them straight and parallel to each other in
vertical position, with the palms facing each other.
3. Slowly, raise the heels as much as you can and stand on toes. Stretch body up
as much as possible.
4. Maintain the position for 5-10 seconds comfortably.
5. To come back, bring the heels on the floor first. Slowly bring down the hands
by side of the thighs and relax.
Benefits:
1. It gives stretch to whole body muscles.
2. It helps in strengthening thighs, knees and ankles.
3. By doing this asana regularly, children can increase their height.
4. It helps to remove laziness and lethargy.
Precautions
1. The inner upper arms should touch the respective ears.
2. Stretch the arms and fingers in full capacity.
3. Keep the head, neck and the body in one straight line.
4. Avoid bending forward or backward.
Contraindications
1. Those having complaints of vertigo should avoid practicing this asana.

7
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII
2024-25
Answer Key
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70

Q35. Discuss the purpose of Rikli & Jones fitness test and explain procedure of any two test 2+3
batteries in detail.
A. Even in old age, everybody wants to be able to continue to do what he wants,
without pain, for as long as possible. It requires proper fitness during such age.
In the beginning, there were not enough tests to assess the functional fitness.
Recognizing the need for a tool to evaluate the functional fitness performance of
older adults, Dr. Roberta Rikli and Dr. Jessie Jones developed the senior fitness
test at Fullerton University. This test is also known as Fullerton Functional Test
of senior citizens. The test is based on a functional fitness framework, which
points out that being able to perform everyday activities.
1. Chair stand test for lower body 1. Lower body strength, leg strength & strength
Endurance
2. Arm curl test for upper body 2. The upper body strength, arm flexor, strength,
strength & endurance
3. Chair sit & reach test for lower 3. The lower back flexibility
body flexibility
4. Back-scratch test for upper body 4. The upper body flexibility of the body flexibility
& range of motion of the shoulders.
5. Eight foot up & Go test for agility 5. The motor agility, speed & balance
6. Six minute walk test for 6. Cardio-vascular endurance & recovery
Chair Stand Test for Lower Body Strength
Purpose: The purpose of the Chair-Stand is to measure the strength of lower body of
adults over 60 years of age. Lower body strength is important for activities such as
getting out of a chair, on the bus, out of the car, and rising up from a kneeling position
in the house or garden. The strength of your lower body can directly affect the ease with
which you perform the activities you do every day.
Equipment required: A straight back or folding chair without arm rests (seat 17
inches/44 cm high), stopwatch.
Procedure:
1) Place the chair against a wall where it will be stable.

8
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII
2024-25
Answer Key
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70

2) Sit in the middle of the chair with your feet flat on the floor, shoulder width apart,
back straight.
3) Cross your arms at the wrist and place them close to the chest.
4) On the command ‘go’ you will rise up to a full stand
and sit again as many times as you can during the 30 second interval.
5) Count the total number of complete chair stands (up and down equals one stand). If
the subject has completed a full stand from the sitting position when the time is elapsed,
the final stand is counted
in the total.
Scoring: The score is the number of completed chair stands in 30 seconds. Below is a
table showing the recommended ranges for this test based on age groups.
Arm Curl (Bicep) Test for Upper Body Strength
Purpose: This test measures upper body strength and endurance.
Equipment required: 5-pound weight (women), 8-pound weight (for men). A chair
without arm rests, stopwatch.
Procedure:
1) The subject sits on the chair holding the weight in the hand using a suitcase grip
(palm facing towards the body).
2) This test is conducted on the dominant arm side (or
stronger side).
3) On the command ‘go’ do as many curls as you can in the allotted 30 second time
period.
4) Do not swing the weight.
5) If you have started raising the weight again and are over
halfway up when time is called, you may count that curl.
Scoring: The score is the total number of controlled arm curls
performed in 30 seconds. Below is a table showing some
recommended ranges for this test based on age groups.

Q36. Define strength and differentiate between Isometric, Iso-tonic and Iso-kinetic exercises.

9
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII
2024-25
Answer Key
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70

Strength is the ability of muscles to overcome the resistance. Strength is necessary for 1+4
the performance of physical activities, whether it is a physical activity associated with
daily living.
Barrow and McGee have defined “Strength as, ‘The Capacity of the whole body or any
of it’s ports to exert force.’

10
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII
2024-25
Answer Key
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70

Q37 What are the various types of friction? With the help of suitable example explain why
friction is necessary in sports 2+3
A. Friction is a force which oppose efforts to slide or roll one body over another.
Without friction it would be impossible to walk or run but on the other hand it
increases the difficulty of moving.
The amount of friction between one surface and another depends upon the nature of the
surface and forces pressing them together generally speaking smooth surface have less
friction than rough.
Types of Friction:-
• Static Friction:- is the opposing force which acts between two surface in which
one tends to move over the other
• Dynamic Friction:- which acts between two surfaces in which one is actually
moving over the other it may be two types.
– Sliding
– Rolling

Friction is both helpful in sports: Friction is Necessary: Nothing would be able to move
without friction. Friction is how things accelerate. Without friction we would not be able
to walk we would just be slipping. Without friction we cannot give better performance in
sports. Examples: athletes use spikes and footballers use studs to have appropriate friction
while they run fast.A Gymnast uses lime powder on his/her palms to perform many
activities like horizontal bar uneven bar Roman Rings. In Badminton players are usually
seen to rub their sole of shoes with lime before going to tlhe wooden court. It is done to
provide better grip on the floor so that one can move safely

11
 HINDUSTANI MUSIC
Vocal Code-034
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS XII (2024-25)

One Theory Paper – 2 hrs Total Marks – 30

General Instructions
 Section-A
Attempt all Questions (Each Question will carry 1 mark)
 Section-B
Attempt all Questions (Each Question will carry 2 Marks)
 Section-C
Attempt all Questions (Each Question will carry 6 Marks)

S.No. SECTION-A Marks

1. Number of Gamak mentioned in Sangeet Ratnakar- 1
1. 12
2. 15
3. 18
4. 21

2. Author of Sangeet parijat Is- 1

1. Faiyaz Khan
2. Sharang Dev
3. Ahobal
4. Bharat

3. While singing raga Malkauns the first string of Tanpur is tuned in – 1

1. Madhyam
2. Pancham
3. Shadaj
4. Nishad

4. Choose the correct statements- 1

A. Dhamar Tala is played with Vilambit Khayal
B. Jhaptal has 10 Matras and 4 Vibhags
C. Rupak has Khali on its beat
D. Chhota Khayl is sung is Vilambit Laya
 Choose the correct option

1. A&C
2. A&D
3. A&B
4. B&C

5. Choose the correct statement 1

A. Faiyaz Khan belonged to Atrauli Gharana
B. Sangeet Rathakar has seven chapters
C. Komal Ga, Dha, Ni swaras are used in Bageshree
D. Singing time of Ragas having Ga, Ni Komal comes twice between 10-
4
Choose the correct option-
1. A & B
2. B & C
3. A & C
4. B & D

6. Match List I with List II 1

List I List II
A. Sandhi Prakash Raga I. Vilambit laya
B. Bada Khayal II. Ga Ma
C. Khataka III. Komal Re, Komal Dha
D. Meend IV. (Pa)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
 7. Statement I: Pt. Ahobal used the term “Komal” for Swaras for the first time. 1

Statement II: When Pancham of Shadaj Gram is lowered by one shruti it

becomes Madhyam Gram.

Choose the correct option:

1. Statement I & II both are true.
2. Statement I & II both are false.
3. Statement I is true but II is false.
4. Statement I is false but II is true.

8. Statement I: Krishna Rao Shankar Pandit belonged to Gwalior Gharana. 1

Statement II: Raga Bhairav is sung during night.

Choose the correct option:

1. Statement I & II both are true.
2. Statement I & II both are false.
3. Statement I is true but II is false.
4. Statement I is false but II is true.

SECTION-B
9. Describe the technique of tuning of tanpura. 2
(OR)

Describe Jhaptala and write its Thah with Tigun in Tala Notation.

10. Describe any two of the following with example: Kan, Aalap, Alankar 2

(OR)

Give a detailed account of Raga Malkauns.

11. Discuss in brief the Time Theory of Ragas. 2

(OR)

Describe in brief the like sketch of Bade Ghulam Ali Khan and also his
contribution to music.
12. Describe any two of the following: Murchhana, Gram, Gamak 2

(OR)

Discuss the importance of Sangeet Ratnakar in Indian Classical Music.

13. 2
Recognize the Raga from the following phrase of swaras and elaborate it up
to 60 Swaras- Ma Pa Dha Ma Ga Ma Ga Re Sa
(OR)

Discuss musical Contents given in Sangeet Parijat in brief.

SECTION-C
14. Write the notation of a Tarana in any one of the prescribed Raga. 6
(OR)

Write the notation of a Drut Khayal with one 16 Matra Tana and two 32 Matra
Tanas.

15. Tana is a technique used in the vocal performance of the raga. ‘Tana’word is 6
derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Tan’ meaning extending the swaras of a
raga. Tanas are of many varieties such as Sapat, Koot, Vakra, Bol Tanas
etc. Sometimes, according to the nature of raga few varieties of Tanas are
applied in that particular raga, therefore, while rendering the varieties of
Tana, it is essential to maintain the character of the raga in its delineation
too.

After reading the above passage, create two Tanas in each of the prescribed
ragas in different varieties of Tana.

(OR)

Which present day artist of Tarana or Khayal you are most impressed with?
Critically analyse his/her Style.
 HINDUSTANI MUSIC
Vocal Code-034
MARKING SCHEME
CLASS XII (2024-25)

One Theory Paper – 2 hrs Total Marks – 30

S.No. SECTION-A Marks

1. 2. 15 1
2. 3. Ahobal 1
3. 1. Madhyam 1
4. 4. B & C 1
5. 4. B & D 1
6. 2. A –III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 1
7. 1. Both I & II are true. 1
8. 3. Statement I is true but II is false 1
SECTION-B

9. Different parts of Tanpura involved in tuning it and method of tuning the 2

strings.
(OR)
The candidates is expected to write the special features of Jhaptala and write
its Thah and Tigun in Tala Notation i.e. Matra, Bols and signs of Tali and
Khali.
10. Brief explanation of Kan, Aalap, Alankar (any two) with examples. 2
(OR)
The candidate is expected to write Thaat, Vadi, Samvadi, Swaras, Jati, Time
of singing, Similar raga., Aroh, Avaroh, Pakad, and other salient features of
raga Malkauns.
11. The candidate is expected to explain meaning, importance and historical 2
development of Time Theory of Raga.
(OR)
The candidate is expected to write about the date and place of birth, style,
gharana, techniques, guru, disciples achievements and contribution to music
of Bade Ghulam Ali Khan.
12. A brief description of the terms Murchhana, Gram, Gamak (any Two) and 2
also write their types with example.
(OR)

Author’s name, time, Chapters and main musical concepts given in each
chapter of Sangeet Ratnakar.
13. The candidate is expected to identify Raga Bageshree and elaborate it.
(OR)

Sangeet Parijat’s author’s name, time and special features and musical
concepts of the text to be given.

SECTION-C

14. Notation of Tarana in any one of the prescribed raga is to be written in 6

proper format of Notation System.
(OR)
Notation of a Drut Khayal in any prescribed raga is to be written with one 16
matra Tana and two 32 matra tanas.

15. The Candidate is expected to write two tanas of different varieties in each 6
prescribed raga.

For examples:
Sapaat Tana –
.
Sa Re Ga Ma Pa Dha Ni Sa Ni Dha Pa Ma Ga Re Sa Sa

Vakra Tana- Dha Ma Ga Ma Dha Ni Dha Ma Ga Ma Ga Sa

(OR)

The candidate is expected to write about the style, technique, etc of his / her
favourite Tarana or Khayal singer.