Set-1

Series P2QRS/2
àíZ-nÌ H$moS>
Q.P. Code
59/2/1
amob Z§. narjmWu àíZ-nÌ H$moS> >H$mo CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$
Roll No. _wI-n¥ð >na Adí` {bIo§ &
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

amOZr{V {dkmZ
POLITICAL SCIENCE

:3 : 80
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

ZmoQ> NOTE
(I) H¥$n`m Om±M H$a b| {H$ Bg àíZ-nÌ _o§ _w{ÐV (I) Please check that this question paper
contains 23 printed pages.
n¥ð> 23 h¢ &
(II) H¥$n`m Om±M H$a b| {H$ Bg àíZ-nÌ _| (II) Please check that this question paper
contains 30 questions.
>30 àíZ h¢ &
(III) àíZ-nÌ _| Xm{hZo hmW H$s Amoa {XE JE (III) Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of
the question paper should be written on
àíZ-nÌ H$moS >H$mo narjmWu CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$ the title page of the answer-book by the
_wI-n¥ð> na {bI| & candidate.
(IV) H¥$n`m àíZ H$m CÎma {bIZm ewê$ H$aZo go (IV) Please write down the serial number of
the question in the answer-book before
nhbo, CÎma-nwpñVH$m _| àíZ H$m H«$_m§H$ attempting it.
Adí` {bI| &
(V) Bg àíZ-nÌ 15 {_ZQ (V) 15 minute time has been allotted to read
this question paper. The question paper
>H$m g_` {X`m J`m h¡ & àíZ-nÌ H$m will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From
10.15 ~Oo {H$`m OmEJm & 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the students will
10.15 ~Oo go 10.30 ~Oo VH$ N>mÌ Ho$db read the question paper only and will not
àíZ- write any answer on the answer-book
during this period.
do CÎma-nwpñVH$m na H$moB© CÎma Zht {bI|Jo &

12-59/2/1 1 P.T.O.
 :
:
(i) 30
(ii)
(iii) 1 12 1

(iv) 13 18 2
50 60
(v) 19 23 -I 4
100 120
(vi) 24 26

(vii) 27 30 -II 6
170 180
(viii)

(ix)

IÊS> H$
1 12 1 12 1=12

1. {ZåZ{b{IV KQ>ZmAm| H$mo H$mbH«$_mZwgma ì`dpñWV H$s{OE :

(i) A\$Jm{ZñVmZ na gmo{d`V g§K H$m AmH«$_U
(ii) ê$g H$s H«$m§{V
(iii) Vm{µO{H$ñVmZ _| J¥h`wÕ H$m AÝV
(iv) ~{b©Z H$s Xrdma H$m {JaZm
ghr {dH$ën Mw{ZE :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

12-59/2/1 2
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five sections Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type
questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Write answer to each question in
50 to 60 words.
(v) Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer type-I
questions. Each question carries 4 marks. Write answer to each question in
100 to 120 words.
(vi) Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based
questions. Answer each question accordingly.
(vii) Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer type-II questions.
Each question carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180
words.
(viii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice
has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions
has to be attempted.
(ix) In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually
Impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such
questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only.

SECTION A
Questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions, carrying 1 mark
each. 12 1=12

1. Arrange the following events in the chronological order :

(i) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
(ii) Russian Revolution
(iii) End of Civil War in Tajikistan
(iv) Fall of the Berlin Wall
Choose the correct option :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
12-59/2/1 3 P.T.O.
2. ê$g Ho$ H$m¡Z-go Xmo JUamÁ`m| _| qhgH$ AbJmddmXr AmÝXmobZ hþE Wo ?
(A) MoMÝ`m Am¡a AµOa~¡OmZ
(B) H«$moE{e`m Am¡a CµÁ~o{H$ñVmZ
(C) MoMÝ`m Am¡a Xm{µJñVmZ
(D) Xm{µJñVmZ Am¡a H«$moE{e`m

3. e{º$ gÝVwbZ _| Xoem| go {ZåZ{b{IV _| go {H$gH$s Anojm hmoVr h¡ ?

(A) {deof àH$ma Ho$ h{W`ma Ë`mJZo H$s
(B) h{W`mam| H$mo àmá Am¡a {dH${gV H$aZo H$s à{H«$`m H$mo {Z`{_V H$aZo H$s
(C) g¡Ý` h_bo go ajm Ho$ {bE AnZr H$ma©dmB`m| _| gh`moJ ~ZmZo H$s
(D) AÝ` Xoem| Ho$ gmW AZwHy$b g§VwbZ ~ZmZo H$s
4. do bmoJ Omo AnZo Ka- ^mJ OmVo h¢ bo{H$Z amîQ´>r` gr_mAm| Ho$
^rVa hr ahVo h¢ ?
(A)
(B) Amàdmgr
(C) AmÝV[aH$ ê$n go {dñWm{nV OZ
(D) _yb {Zdmgr
5. gyMr I H$m gyMr II go {_bmZ H$s{OE Am¡a ghr {dH$ën H$m M`Z H$s{OE :
I II
1. mo àmoQ>moH$m°b (i) {dH$mgmË_H$ {Z`_mMma H$s gyMr
2. {~Obr A{Y{Z`_ 2003, (ii) nm[apñW{VH$ V§Ì Ho$ à{V CÎmaXm{`Ëd Ho$ gmW
^maV Am{W©H$ d¥{Õ
3. EOoÝS>m 21 (iii) J«rZhmCg J¡gm§o Ho$ CËgO©Z H$mo H$_ H$aZo H$m
CÔoí`
4. gVV nmofUr` {dH$mg (iv) ZdrH$aUr` D$Om© Ho$ à`moJ H$mo
{dH$ën :
(A) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
(B) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
(C) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
(D) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
12-59/2/1 4
2. Which two republics of Russia have had violent secessionist
movements ?
(A) Chechnya and Azerbaijan
(B) Croatia and Uzbekistan
(C) Chechnya and Dagestan
(D) Dagestan and Croatia

3. Balance of power requires countries to __________.

(A) give up certain kinds of weapons
(B) regulate acquisition and development of weapons
(C) coordinate their actions to defend against military attack
(D) maintain a favourable balance with other countries

4. People who flee their homes but remain within national borders are
called ____________.
(A) fugitives
(B) migrants
(C) internally displaced people
(D) indigenous people

5. Match List I with List II and choose the correct option :

List I List II
1. Kyoto Protocol (i) List of developmental practices
2. Electricity Act of 2003, (ii) Economic growth with ecological
India responsibility
3. Agenda 21 (iii) Aims to cut greenhouse gas emissions
4. Sustainable (iv) Encourages use of renewable energy
Development
Options :
(A) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
(B) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
(C) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
(D) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
12-59/2/1 5 P.T.O.
 6 (A)
(R)
(A), (B), (C) (D)

6. (A) : d¡pídH$ aUZr{V _| Vob AmO ^r g~go _hÎdnyU© g§gmYZ ~Zm hþAm h¡ &
(R) :
(A) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a H$maU (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢ Am¡a H$maU (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s
ghr ì`m»`m H$aVm h¡ &
(B) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a H$maU (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢, naÝVw H$maU (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s
ghr ì`m»`m H$aVm h¡ &
(C) A{^H$WZ (A) ghr h¡, naÝVw H$maU (R) µJbV h¡ &
(D) A{^H$WZ (A) µJbV h¡, naÝVw H$maU (R) ghr h¡ &

7. 1952 _| H$m¡Z-gr amOZr{VH$ nmQ>u Oå_y Am¡a H$í_ra _| gÎmm _| AmB© Wr ?

(A) ^maVr` amîQ´>r` H$m±J«og

(B) H$í_ra amîQ´>r` H$m±J«og
(C) H$å`w{ZñQ> nmQ>u Am°µ\$ BpÝS>`m
(D) ZoeZb H$m°Ý\o$a|g

8. ^maV H$m {Zdm©MZ Am`moJ {H$g df© J{R>V {H$`m J`m Wm ?

(A) 1949 (B) 1950

(C) 1951 (D) 1952

9. XbmB© bm_m Zo {ZåZ{b{IV _| go {H$g Xoe _| amOZr{VH$ eaU àmá H$s Wr ?

(A) Zonmb
(B) ^yQ>mZ
(C) ^maV
(D) å`m±_ma
12-59/2/1 6
For Question number 6, two statements are given one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the
correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.
6. Assertion (A) : Oil continues to be the most important resource in global
strategy.

Reason (R) : The immense wealth associated with oil generates

political struggles.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

7. Which political party came to power in Jammu and Kashmir in 1952 ?

(A) Indian National Congress

(B) Kashmir National Congress
(C) Communist Party of India
(D) National Conference

8. In which year was the Election Commission of India set up ?

(A) 1949 (B) 1950
(C) 1951 (D) 1952

9. In which of the following countries did Dalai Lama obtain political

asylum ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) India
(D) Myanmar
12-59/2/1 7 P.T.O.
 10 (A)
(R)
(A), (B), (C) (D)

10. (A) : 1979 _|, Am°b Ag_ ñQy>S>oÝQ²>g `y{Z`Z (AASU) Zo ~mhar bmoJm| Ho$
{déÕ AmÝXmobZ H$m ZoV¥Ëd {H$`m &
(R) : AmÝXmobZ Ad¡Y Amàdm{g`m| VWm µJbV _VXmVm gy{M`m| Ho$ {déÕ Wm &
(A) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a H$maU (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢ Am¡a H$maU (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s
ghr ì`m»`m H$aVm h¡ &
(B) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a H$maU (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢, naÝVw H$maU (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s
ghr ì`m»`m H$aVm h¡ &
(C) A{^H$WZ (A) ghr h¡, naÝVw H$maU (R) µJbV h¡ &
(D) A{^H$WZ (A) µJbV h¡, naÝVw H$maU (R) ghr h¡ &

11. JwQ>{Zanoj AmÝXmobZ (NAM) H$m àW_ {eIa gå_obZ H$hm± Am`mo{OV {H$`m J`m Wm ?

(A) H$m{ham
(B) ~oobJ«oS>
(C) ^maV
(D) BÊS>moZo{e`m

12. Imgr {hëg ) ^maV Ho$ {H$g amÁ` _| pñWV h¢ ?

(A) _oKmb`
(B) _{Unwa
(C) {_µOmoa_
(D) {Ìnwam

12-59/2/1 8
For Question number 10, two statements are given one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the
correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

10. Assertion (A) :

anti-foreigner movement.

Reason (R) : The movement was against illegal migrations and against
.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

11. The first summit of NAM was held in :

(A) Cairo

(B) Belgrade

(C) India

(D) Indonesia

12. In which state of India are the Khasi Hills located ?

(A) Meghalaya

(B) Manipur

(C) Mizoram

(D) Tripura

12-59/2/1 9 P.T.O.
 IÊS> I
13. nydu nm{H$ñVmZ _| 1970 Ho$ MwZmdm| _|, {H$g amOZr{VH$ nmQ>u Zo {H$g ZoVm Ho$ ZoV¥Ëd _| g^r
grQ>m| na {dO` àmá H$s Wr ? 2

14. d¡pídH$ gwajm H$m AW© ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 2

15. àW_ n§Mdfu` `moOZm H$s H$moB© Xmo {deofVmE± COmJa H$s{OE & 2

16. 1952 § nyao {díd _| bmoH$VÝÌ Ho$ B{Vhmg Ho$ {bE _rb H$m
EH$ nËWa ~Z J`m ? ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 2

17. AÝVam©îQ´>r` _mZX§S>m| Am¡a g§ñWmAm| H$mo _O~yVr àXmZ H$aZo go {H$g àH$ma ^maV Zo AnZo
gwajm {hVm| H$s ajm H$s h¡ ? ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 2

18. Ho$ÝÐ _| JR>~§YZ gaH$ma Ho$ {H$Ýht Xmo bm^m| H$m AmH$bZ H$s{OE & 2

IÊS> J
19. 1971 _| ~m§½bmXoe `wÕ H$s Amoa bo OmZo dmbr n[apñW{V`m| H$m dU©Z H$s{OE & 4

20. gmo{d`V g§K Ho$ {dKQ>Z Ho$ H$moB© Xmo H$maU ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 4

21. (H$) nm{H$ñVmZ Ho$ gmW ^maV Ho$ gå~ÝYm| H$mo ~ohVa ~ZmZo Ho$ {bE H$moB© Xmo Cnm`
gwPmBE & 4
AWdm
(I) ^maV Am¡a MrZ Ho$ ~rM gå~ÝY gwYmaZo Ho$ {bE H$moB© Xmo Cnm` gwPmBE & 4

22. (H$) d¡ídrH$aU Ho$ {bE CÎmaXm`r {H$Ýht Xmo H$maUm| H$mo COmJa H$s{OE & 4
AWdm
(I) d¡ídrH$aU Ho$ H$moB© Xmo gH$mamË_H$ à^md COmJa H$s{OE & 4

23. joÌr` AmH$m§jmAm| go {ZnQ>Zo H$m g~go AÀN>m VarH$m X_Z Ho$ ~Om` bmoH$VmpÝÌH$ T>§J go
~mVMrV H$aZm h¡ & CXmhaU XoH$a H$WZ H$s nwpîQ> H$s{OE & 4

12-59/2/1 10
 SECTION B

13. Which political party won all the seats in the 1970 elections in East
Pakistan and under whose leadership ? 2

14. Explain the meaning of Global Security. 2

15. Highlight any two features of the First Five Year Plan. 2

16. ns of 1952 become a landmark in the

history of democracy all over the world ? Explain. 2

17. How has the strengthening of international norms and international

institutions helped India protect its security interests ? Explain. 2

18. Assess any two advantages of coalition governments at the Centre. 2

SECTION C

19. Describe the circumstances that led to the Bangladesh War in 1971. 4

20. Explain any two reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union. 4

21. (a) Suggest any two measures to improve Ind

Pakistan. 4

OR
(b) Suggest any two measures to improve Indo-China relations. 4

22. (a) Highlight any two causes of globalisation. 4

OR
(b) Highlight any two positive effects of globalisation. 4

23. The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic

negotiations rather than through suppression. Justify the statement
with examples. 4

12-59/2/1 11 P.T.O.
 IÊS> K
24. : 4 1=4

^maV H$m {dMma h¡ {H$ J«rZhmCg J¡gm| Ho$ CËgO©Z H$mo H$_ H$aZo H$s _w»` {Oå_odmar
{dH${gV Xoem| H$s h¡, {OÝhm|Zo EH$ bå~o g_` VH$ ~hþV Á`mXm CËgO©Z {H$`m h¡ & ^maV Zo
Ü`mZ {Xbm`m {H$ {dH$mgerb Xoem| _| J«rZhmCg J¡gm| H$s à{V ì`{º$ CËgO©Z Xa {dH${gV
Xoem| H$s VwbZm _| Zm__mÌ h¡ &

(i) H$~ {H$`m Wm ?

(A) AJñV 2000 (B) AJñV 2001

(C) AJñV 2002 (D) AJñV 2003

(ii) Q>moH$m°b H$s ~mÜ`VmAm| go Ny>Q> ?

(A) do nm[apñW{VH$s V§Ì Ho$ AZwHy$b àm¡Úmo{JH$s {dH${gV H$aZo _| AJ«Ur Wo &
(B) do Hw$N> AÝ` Xoem| H$mo ñdÀN> àm¡Úmo{J{H$`m| H$mo AnZmZo _| ghm`Vm H$a ahoo
Wo &
(C) CÝhm|Zo nhbo go hr ZdrH$aUr` D$Om© H$mo à`moJ H$aZo Ho$ H$m`©H«$_ ewê$ H$a
{XE Wo &
(D) J«rZhmCg J¡gm| Ho$ CËgO©Z _| CZH$m `moJXmZ Zm__mÌ H$m Wm &

(iii) n¥Ïdr gå_obZ H$hm± Am`mo{OV hþAm Wm ?

(A) no[ag (B) [a`mo S>r OZo[a`mo

(C) (D) _m±{Q´>`b

(iv) {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm EH$ d¡pídH$ gånXm H$m CXmhaU h¡ ?

(A) J«oQ> ~¡[a`a ar\$ (B) _hmIÈ> (J«¢S> H¡${Z`Z)
(C) ~mhar A§V[aj (D) ghmam _éñWb

12-59/2/1 12
 SECTION D

24. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow : 4 1=4

India is of the view that the major responsibility of curbing emission of

greenhouse gases rests with the developed countries, which have
accumulated emissions over a long period of time. India pointed out that
the per capita emission rates of the developing countries are a tiny
fraction of those in the developed world.

(i) India signed and ratified the Kyoto Protocol in :

(A) August 2000 (B) August 2001
(C) August 2002 (D) August 2003

(ii) Why were some developing countries exempted from the

requirements of the Kyoto Protocol ?
(A) They were pioneers in developing eco-friendly technology.
(B) They were assisting some other countries to adopt clean
technologies.
(C) They had already launched renewable energy programmes.
(D) Their contribution to emission of greenhouse gases was
insignificant.

(iii) Where was the Earth Summit held ?

(A) Paris (B) Rio de Janeiro
(C) Kyoto (D) Montreal

(iv) Which one of the following is an example of Global Commons ?

(A) The Great Barrier Reef (B) The Grand Canyon
(C) The Outer Space (D) The Sahara Desert

12-59/2/1 13 P.T.O.
25. ^maV Ho$ {XE JE amOZr{VH$ aoIm-_mZ{MÌ (n¥îR> 15 na) _| Mma amÁ`m| H$mo
VWm Ho$ Ûmam A§{H$V {H$`m J`m h¡ & ZrMo Xr JB© OmZH$mar Ho$ AmYma na BZ amÁ`m| H$s
nhMmZ H$s{OE Am¡a AnZr CÎma-nwpñVH$m _| BZHo$ ghr Zm_, à`moJ H$s JB© OmZH$mar H$s
H«$_-g§»`m VWm _mZ{MÌ _| {X`m J`m g§~§{YV Aja, ZrMo Xr JB© Vm{bH$m Ho$ ê$n _|
{b{IE : 4 1=4

à`moJ H$s JB©$ OmZH$mar _mZ{MÌ _| {X`m

amÁ` H$m Zm_
H$s H«$_-g§»`m J`m g§~§{YV Aja

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(i) dh amÁ` {Oggo nyd© àYmZ_§Ìr bmb ~hmXþa emñÌr H$m gå~ÝY Wm &
(ii) dh amÁ` {Oggo nyd© _w»`_§Ìr Eg. {ZOqbJßnm H$m gå~ÝY Wm &

(iii) dh amÁ` Ohm± 1967 _| S>rE_ ) nmQ>u gÎmm _| AmB© &

(iv) dh amÁ` Ohm± 1967 Ho$ {dYmZg^m MwZmdm| _| H$m±Jg«o nmQ>u H$mo ~hþ_V Zht {_br
Wr &

12-59/2/1 14
àíZ g§. 25 Ho$ {bE

^maV H$m aoIm-_mZ{MÌ (amOZr{VH$)

C B

12-59/2/1 15 P.T.O.
25. In the given political outline map of India (on page 17), four States
have been marked as and . Identify these States on the
basis of the information given below and write their correct names in
your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the
information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per
the following format : 4 1=4

Serial number of the Concerned alphabet Name of the

information used given in the map State

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(i) The State to which the former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri
belonged.

(ii) The State to which former Chief Minister S. Nijalingappa

belonged.

(iii) The State where DMK (Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam) came to

power in 1967.

(iv) The State where the Congress Party did not get majority in 1967
Assembly elections.

12-59/2/1 16
For question no. 25

Outline Map of India (Political)

C B

12-59/2/1 17 P.T.O.
 : 25
4 1=4
(25.1) Cg amÁ` H$m Zm_ {b{IE {Oggo nyd© _w»`_§Ìr H$ny©ar R>mHw$a H$m gå~ÝY Wm &
(25.2) Cg amÁ` H$m Zm_ {b{IE {Oggo amOZr{VH$ nmQ>u S>rE_Ho$
H$m gå~ÝY h¡ &
(25.3) Cg amÁ` H$m Zm_ {b{IE {Oggo nyd© àYmZ_§Ìr bmb ~hmXþa emñÌr gå~ÝY
aIVo Wo &
(25.4) Cg amÁ` H$m Zm_ {b{IE {Oggo ^maV Ho$ nyd© amîQ´>n{V dr.dr. {J[a H$m gå~ÝY
Wm &

26. ZrMo {XE JE H$mQy>©Z H$m AÜ``Z H$s{OE Am¡a {ZåZ{b{IV àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Xr{OE : 1+1+2=4

(i) OZVm nmQ>u H$s gaH$ma H$mo {JamZo dmbo ZoVm H$mo nhMmZH$a CgH$m Zm_ {b{IE &
(ii) H$mQy>©Z _| {XImE JE OZVm nmQ>u H$s gaH$ma Ho$ àYmZ_§Ìr H$mo nhMmZ H$a CgH$m
Zm_ {b{IE &
(iii) 1980 _| OZVm nmQ>u H$s hma Ho$ H$moB© Xmo H$maU COmJa H$s{OE &

12-59/2/1 18
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates
only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 : 4 1=4
(25.1) Name the state to which the former Chief Minister Karpoori
Thakur belonged.
(25.2) Name the state to which the political party DMK (Dravida
Munnetra Kazhagam) belongs.
(25.3) Name the state to which the former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur
Shastri belonged.
(25.4) Name the state to which the former President of India V.V. Giri
belonged.

26. Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow : 1+1+2=4

(i) Identify and name the leader who toppled the Janata Government.
(ii) Identify and name the Prime Minister of the Janata Party
Government shown in the cartoon.
(iii) Highlight any two reasons for the defeat of the Janata Party in
1980.

12-59/2/1 19 P.T.O.
 : 26
2+1+1=4

(26.1) 1977 Ho$ Am_ MwZmdm| _| H$m±J«og nmQ>u H$s hma Ho$ {H$Ýht Xmo H$maUm| H$mo COmJa
H$s{OE &
(26.2) 1977 Ho$ Am_ MwZmdm| _| {dO` àmá H$aZo dmbr amOZr{VH$ nmQ>u H$m Zm_ {b{IE &
(26.3) 1980 Ho$ MwZmdm| _| H$m±J«og nmQ>u H$s OrV go nhbo ^maV Ho$ àYmZ_§Ìr H$m Zm_
{b{IE &

IÊS> L>
27. (H$) `yamonr` g§K H$mo EH$ à^mdembr joÌr` g§JR>Z ~ZmZo dmbo {H$Ýht Mma H$maH$m| H$m
{díbofU H$s{OE & 6
AWdm
(I) Am{g`mZ ~hþV VoµOr h¡ & H$WZ
H$mo Ý`m`mo{MV R>hamBE & 6

28. (H$) CZ AmYmamo§ H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE {OZHo$ ~b na ^maV g§`wº$ amîQ´> gwajm n[afX² _|
ñWm`r gXñ`Vm àmá H$aZo H$m Xmdm H$aVm h¡ & 6
AWdm
(I) g§`wº$ amîQ´> _hmg^m Ûmam 1992 _| g§`wº$ amîQ´> gwajm n[afX² _| gwYma bmZo Ho$ {bE
ñdrH¥$V àñVmd _| XO© VrZ _w»` {eH$m`Vm| H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 6

29. (H$) ^maVr` g§K _| g^r Xogr [a`mgVm| H$m {db` H$admZo _| ^maV Ho$ gm_Zo AmB©
H${R>ZmB`m| H$m dU©Z H$s{OE & 6
AWdm
(I) h¡Xam~mX [agm`V H$mo ^maVr` g§K _| {db` H$s Amoa bo OmZo dmbo KQ>ZmH«$_ H$m
dU©Z H$s{OE & 6

12-59/2/1 20
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates
only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 : 2+1+1=4

(26.1) Highlight any two reasons for the defeat of the Congress Party in
the general elections of 1977.

(26.2) Name the political party that won the general elections in 1977.

(26.3) Name the Prime Minister of India before the Congress Party won
the elections in 1980.

SECTION E

27. (a) Analyse any four factors that make the European Union an
influential regional organisation. 6

OR

(b) ASEAN is rapidly growing into a very important regional

organisation. Justify the statement. 6

28. (a) Explain the grounds on the basis of which India seeks to become a
permanent member of the UN Security Council. 6
OR

(b) Explain the three main complaints reflected in the resolution

adopted by the UN General Assembly in 1992 to reform the UN
Security Council. 6

29. (a) Describe the difficulties faced by India to get the merger of all the
Princely States into the Union of India. 6
OR

(b) Describe the events that led to the accession of Hyderabad into the
Union of India. 6

12-59/2/1 21 P.T.O.
30. (H$) ^maVr` amOZr{V _| 1989 Am¡a CgHo$ ~mX KQ>r {H$Ýht Mma _w»` KQ>ZmAm| H$m dU©Z
H$s{OE & 6
AWdm
(I) ^maV H$s A{YH$m§e amOZr{VH$ nm{Q>©`mo§ _| C^ar Am_ gh_{V Ho$ {H$Ýht VrZ _wÔm|
H$m dU©Z H$s{OE & 6

12-59/2/1 22
30. (a) Describe any four major developments in Indian politics
since 1989. 6

OR

(b) Describe any three issues on which a general consensus has

emerged among most of the political parties of India. 6

12-59/2/1 23 P.T.O.
 Marking Scheme
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SUBJECT : POLITICAL SCIENCE (028) PAPER CODE NO:59/2/1

General Instructions: -

1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems
which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To
avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand
the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’ leakage to
public in any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the
life and future of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone,
publishing in any magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action
under various rules of the Board and IPC.”
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be
done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should
be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are
based on latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed
for their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-XII, while
evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to understand given answer and
even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the
candidate, due marks should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.These are in the
nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have
their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded
accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator
on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in
the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and
discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring
that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be marked.
Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is
correct and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are
committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded
for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin
and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks
should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
11 A full scale of marks _____80_____(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question
Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.

1
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12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every
day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in
other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner
in the past:- Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
●
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is
correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect
answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be
marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected
by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work
as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated
that the instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for
spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the
title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of
the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are
once again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value
points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.

2
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SECTION – A Pg Mark T
s ot
Question No. 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each. 12 × 1 = 12

1. Arrange the following events in the chronological order 1

(i) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
(ii) Russian Revolution
(iii) End of Civil War in Tajikistan
(iv) Fall of the Berlin Wall
Choose the correct option:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B)(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Ans (B)(ii), (i), (iv), (iii) P- 1
2/1
2. Which two republics of Russia have had violent secessionist movements? 1
(A) Chechnya and Azerbaijan
(B) Croatia and Uzbekistan
(C) Chechnya and Dagestan
(D) Dagestan and Croatia
Ans (C) Chechnya and Dagestan P- 1
10/1

3. 'Balance of power' requires countries to________________ 1

(A)give up certain kinds of weapons
(B) regulate acquisition and development of weapons
(C) coordinate their actions to defend against military attack
(D) maintain a favourable balance with other countries
Ans (D) maintain a favourable balance with other countries P- 1
66/1
4. People who flee their homes but remain within national borders are 1
called_________.
(A) fugitives
(B) migrants
(C) internally displaced people
(D) indigenous people
Ans (C) internally displaced people P- 1
74/1
5. Match List I with List II and choose the correct option: 1
List I List II
1. Kyoto Protocol (i) List of developmental practices
2. Electricity Act of 2003, India (ii) Economic growth with
ecological Responsibility
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SUBJECT : POLITICAL SCIENCE (028) PAPER CODE NO:59/2/1
3. Agenda 21 (iii) Aims to cut greenhouse gas
emissions
4. Sustainable (iv) Encourages use of renewable
Development energy
Options
(A) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
(B) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
(C) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
(D) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
Ans (A) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) P- 1
91/1
6. Assertion (A): Oil continues to be the most important resource in global strategy 1
Reason (R): The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Ans (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct P-
explanation of the Assertion (A). 93/1
7. Which political party came to power in Jammu and Kashmir in 1952 ? 1
(A) Indian National Congress
(B) Kashmir National Congress
(C) Communist Party of India
(D) National Conference
Ans (D) National Conference P- 1
31/2
8. In which year was the Election Commission of India set up? 1
(A) 1949 (B) 1950
(C) 1951 (D) 1952
Ans (B) 1950 P- 1
27/2
9. In which of the following countries did Dalai Lama obtain political asylum? 1
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) India
(D) Myanmar
Ans (C) India P- 1
59/2
10. Assertion (A) : In 1979, the All Assam Students' Union (AASU) led an anti- 1
foreigner movement.
Reason (R) : The movement was against illegal migrations and against faulty
voters' lists.
4
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SUBJECT : POLITICAL SCIENCE (028) PAPER CODE NO:59/2/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion ( A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Ans. (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the P-. 1
correct explanation of the Assertion (A). 129/
2
11. The first summit of NAM was held in 1
(A) Cairo
(B) Belgrade
(C) India
(D) Indonesia
Ans. (B) Belgrade P-
88/2
12. In which state of India are the 'Khasi Hills' located? 1
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Manipur
(C) Mizoram
(D) Tripura
Ans. (A) Meghalaya P- 1
126/
2
SECTION – B 6×2= 12
13. Which political party won all the seats in the 1970 elections in East Pakistan and 2
under whose leadership ?
Ans. Awami league won all the seats in the 1970 elections in East Pakistan. It’s leadership P-70 1+1= 2
was of Sheikh Mujib-ur Rahman. /1
14. Explain the meaning of Global Security. 2

Ans. • Global security is also known as human security and falls under the category P-. 2
of Non-traditional view of Security. 70-
• The concept of global security emerged in the 1990’s in response to the global 71 /1
nature of threats such as global warming, international terrorism and health
epidemics like AIDS, Bird Flu, and so on.
• It is more concerned with the protection of people of states. It considers that
the threat agenda should include hunger, disease and natural disasters because
these kill far more people than war
• It also encompasses economic security and ‘threats to human dignity’.
• In its broadest formulation it stresses on ‘freedom from want’ and ‘freedom
from fear’.
• No country can resolve these problems alone and need international
cooperation to resolve the problems like genocide, terrorism etc..
(Evaluate as a whole)
5
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SUBJECT : POLITICAL SCIENCE (028) PAPER CODE NO:59/2/1
15. Highlight any two features of the First Five Year Plan. 2
Ans. Features of the First Five year plan are:- P- 2x1= 2
(i) It mainly addressed the agrarian sector including investment in dams and 50/2
irrigation.
(ii) It sought to get the country’s economy out of the cycle of poverty.
(iii)It aimed to raise the level of national income.
(iv) It focused on Land Reforms.
(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)
16. Why did India’s general elections of 1952 become a landmark in the history of 2
democracy all over the world ? Explain.
Ans. General elections of 1952 became a landmark:- P- 2
• Due to the size of the Indian electorate and the country, the election was 29/2
unusual. No election on this scale had ever been conducted in the world before.
• To prepare the electoral rolls, or the list of all the citizens eligible to vote was
a challenging task.
• Moreover, it was the first big test of democracy in a poor and illiterate country
with narrow loyalties in terms of caste, religion, language etc.
• Experiment of universal adult franchise at a very large scale in the world.
• Preparation for the election was a mammoth exercise but done successfully.
• Trained over one lakh officers for polling and the effort made was successful.
• More than 50% of voters used their votes, which silenced the critics all over
the world over this grand achievement, which was a landmark in history.
(Evaluate as a whole)

17. How has the strengthening of international norms and international institutions 2
helped India protect its security interests ? Explain.

Ans. (i) India’s support to the cause of Asian solidarity, decolonisation, disarmament P-
helped India to emerge as a leader of newly independent countries and its 77/2
leadership of NAM strengthened its security. India promoted non-alignment 2
to help carve out an area of peace. Recently being a leader in NAM India
ratified the Kyoto Protocol to check global warming.
(ii) India’s continuous support to UN and its programmes made India an effective
member of the UN which indirectly strengthened its security.
(Or any other relevant point)
18. Assess any two advantages of coalition governments at the Centre. 2

Ans. Advantages of coalition government-

(i) It gives an opportunity to regional parties to become a part of government at P-
the centre. 140/ 2x1= 2
(ii) Addresses the regional aspirations effectively. 2
(iii)It saves time and money.
(iv) On many crucial issues, a broad agreement emerges among the coalition
government.
(v) It emphasizes pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and
political alliances without ideological agreement.

6
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(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)

SECTION – C
19. Describe the circumstances that led to the Bangladesh War in 1971. 4
Ans. Circumstances that led to to the Bangladesh war in 1971 - P-
(i) The people of this region resented the domination of West Pakistan and 34-
imposition of Urdu language. 35
(ii) Sheikh Mujib-ur Rahman led the popular struggle against West Pakistani 4x1= 4
domination and demanded autonomy for the eastern region.
(iii)In the 1970 elections the Awami League led by Sheikh Mujib-urRahman won
all the seats in East Pakistan and secured a majority in the proposed
Constituent Assembly for the whole of Pakistan. But the West Pakistan
leadership refused to convene the assembly.
(iv) Sheikh Mujib-ur-Rahman was arrested and the Pakistan army under Yahya
Khan tried to suppress the mass movement of the Bengali people leading to
large-scale migration into India. This created a huge refugee problem in India.
The government of India supported the demand of the people of East Pakistan
for independence and gave financial and military help. This resulted in a war
between India and Pakistan in December 1971 that ended in the surrender of
Pakistan forces in East Pakistan which led to the formation of Bangladesh as
an independent nation.

20. Explain any two reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
4
Ans. Reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union -
(i) Internal weaknesses of the Soviet political and economic institutions.
(ii) Economic stagnation for many years led to severe consumer shortages and a P- 2x2= 4
large section of Soviet society began to doubt and question the system. 4/1
(iii)Ordinary people were alienated by slow and stifling administration, rampant
corruption, the inability of the system to correct mistakes. This led to
unwillingness to allow more openness in government and the centralisation of
authority in a vast land.
(iv) Maximum resources were used on nuclear weapons and other defence
equipments
(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)
21.
(a) Suggest any two measures to improve India’s relations with Pakistan. 4
OR
(b) Suggest any two measures to improve Indo-China relations.
4
Ans.
(a) Measures to improve India’s relations with Pakistan - P-
(i) People to people contact and exchange programmes should be initiated. 64/2 2x2= 4
(ii) Trade between the two countries should be restored and encouraged.
(iii)Diplomatic relations should be improved.
(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)
(b) Or
7
 Marking Scheme
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SUBJECT : POLITICAL SCIENCE (028) PAPER CODE NO:59/2/1
Measures to improve Indo-China relations -
(i) Negotiations should be encouraged to resolve the border disputes. 2x2= 4
(ii) Regular meetings of different personnel should be held to maintain peace at
the Actual Line of Control (ALC). P-
(iii)Mutual trade should be encouraged. 62/2
(iv) Confidence building measures should be adopted as far as possible.
(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)

22.
(a) Highlight any two causes of globalisation. 4
OR
Highlight any two positive effects of globalisation. 4
(b)
Ans.
(a) Causes of globalization - P-
(i) The advanced communication technology, i.e. invention of the telegraph, 102/
telephone and the microchips, internet, smartphone etc. 1
(ii) Advanced means of transport helped the ideas, capital, commodities and 2x2= 4
people move in a quicker and wider way from one part of the world to another.
(iii)Facility of easy flow of commodities, people and capital from one place to
another.
(iv) Interdependence of nations.
(v) Policy of liberalisation.
(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)
OR P-
(b) Positive effects of globalization- 103- 4
(i) It enhances interconnectedness. 106 2x2=
(ii) Facilitate transfer of knowledge and technology. /1
(iii)Increase the consumers’ choices.
(iv) FDI in poor countries is easy.
(v) Increase in economic development.
(vi) Efficiency of state increases.
(vii) Cultural homogenisation increases.
(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)
23. The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic 4
negotiations rather than through suppression. Justify the statement with
examples.
Ans. The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic negotiations. P-
For example, during the 1980s, the Militancy had erupted in Punjab; there were 113/ 4
problems in the North-East; students in Assam were agitating and the Kashmir Valley 2
was boiling. Instead of treating them by simple law and order, the Government of
India negotiated settlements with regional movements. This produced a reconciliation
(through the Punjab Accord, Assam Accord etc.) that reduced the tensions existing in
many states. The example of Mizoram shows that political settlement can resolve the
problems of separatism effectively.
SECTION – D

8
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24. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : 4×1 4
India is of the view that the major responsibility of curbing emission of =
greenhouse gases rests with the developed countries, which have accumulated
emissions over a long period of time. India pointed out that the per capita
emission rates of the developing countries are a tiny fraction of those in the
developed world.
(i) India signed and ratified the Kyoto Protocol in :
(A) August 2000 (B) August 2001
(C) August 2002 (D) August 2003
(ii) Why were some developing countries exempted from the requirements
of the Kyoto Protocol ?
(A) They were pioneers in developing eco-friendly technology.
(B) They were assisting some other countries to adopt clean technologies.
(C) They had already launched renewable energy programmes.
(D) Their contribution to emission of greenhouse gases was insignificant.
(iii) Where was the ‘Earth Summit’ held ?
(A) Paris (B) Rio de Janeiro
(C) Kyoto (D) Montreal
(iv) Which one of the following is an example of ‘Global Commons’ ?
(A) The Great Barrier Reef (B) The Grand Canyon
(C) The Outer Space (D) The Sahara Desert

Ans. (i) (C) August 2002 P- 89

(ii) (D) their contribution to emission of greenhouse gasses was insignificant. /1 4x1= 4
(iii) (B) Rio de Janerio
(iv) (C ) Outer space
25. In the given political outline map of India (on page 17), four States have 4 1 4
been marked as and . Identify these States on the basis of the =
information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book
along with the respective serial number of the information used and the
concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the Concerned alphabet

Name of the State
information used given in the map

(i)

(ii)

9
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(iii)

(iv)

(i) The State to which the former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri
belonged.
(ii) The State to which former Chief Minister S. Nijalingappa belonged.
(iii) The State where DMK (Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam) came to power in
1967.
(iv) The State where the Congress Party did not get majority in 1967 Assembly
elections.

Ans.
Boo
Serial number of the Concerned alphabet k- II
Name of the State
information used given in the map

(i) B Uttar Pradesh

(ii) A Karnataka

D
(iii) Tamil Nadu

(iv) C Rajasthan

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates
only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 : 4 1 4
=
10
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SUBJECT : POLITICAL SCIENCE (028) PAPER CODE NO:59/2/1

(25.1) Name the state to which the former Chief Minister Karpoori
Thakur belonged.
(25.2) Name the state to which the political party DMK (Dravida
Munnetra Kazhagam) belongs.
(25.3) Name the state to which the former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur
Shastri belonged.
(25.4) Name the state to which the former President of India V.V. Giri
belonged.
For visually impaired candidates- Book
(25.1) Bihar -II 4x1= 4
(25.2) Tamil Nadu
(25.3) Uttar Pradesh
(25.4) Andhra Pradesh
26. Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow : 1+1+ 4
2=

(i) Identify and name the leader who toppled the Janata Government.
(ii) Identify and name the Prime Minister of the Janata Party Government
shown in the cartoon.
(iii) Highlight any two reasons for the defeat of the Janata Party in 1980.

Ans. Cartoons’ Answer- P-

(i) Indira Gandhi 107/ 1+1+2 4
(ii) Morarji Desai 2 =
(iii)
• Infighting in Janata Party
• Charan Singh left Janata Party and became Prime Minister with the support
of the Congress Party which later withdrew its support.
• The failure of the Janata Party to provide a stable government.
(Any Two)
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in 2+1+ 4
lieu of Q. No. 26 : 1=
(26.1) Highlight any two reasons for the defeat of the Congress Party in
the general elections of 1977.
(26.2) Name the political party that won the general elections in 1977.
(26.3) Name the Prime Minister of India before the Congress Party won
the elections in 1980.

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SUBJECT : POLITICAL SCIENCE (028) PAPER CODE NO:59/2/1
For visually impaired candidates- P-
26.1 Reasons of defeat- 108/ 2+1+1 4
(i) Excesses done during Emergency 2 =
(ii) Censorship of Press
(iii) Negation of Fundamental Rights
(iv) Whole of opposition was united against the Congress Party.
(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)

26.2 Janata Party

26.3 Ch. Charan Singh

SECTION – E
27.
(a) Analyse any four factors that make the European Union an influential regional 6
organisation.
OR
(b) “ASEAN is rapidly growing into a very important regional organisation.” 6
Justify the statement.
Ans.
(a) Factors-
(i) The EU has evolved over time from an economic union to an increasingly P- 4x1½ 6
political one. 16- =
(ii) The EU has a common flag, anthem, founding date and currency which shows 18/1
its solidarity and unity. It also has some form of a common foreign and security
policy in its dealings with other nations.
(iii)The EU is the world’s second biggest economy with a GDP of more than $17
trillion in 2016, next to that of the USA.
(iv) It functions as an important bloc in the WTO.
(v) One of its members (France) is the permanent member of the UN Security
Council.
(vi) Its currency, the Euro, can pose a threat to the dominance of the US dollar.
(vii) The combined armed forces of the EU are the second largest in the world. Its
total spending on defense is second after the US.
(viii) It also works as a supranational organization, the EU is able to intervene in
economic, political and social areas.
(Or any other relevant point) (Any Four)
or
(b) • ASEAN has little desire for supranational structures like the EU.
• ASEAN celebrates its way of working known as the ‘ASEAN way’ which is
a form of interaction that is informal, non-confrontational and cooperative. P- 3x2=
6
• ASEAN has broadened its objectives beyond the economic and social
21-
spheres. 22/1
• It respects the sovereignty of member countries.
• It has focussed on creating a Free Trade Area for investment, labor and
service.

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SUBJECT : POLITICAL SCIENCE (028) PAPER CODE NO:59/2/1

• ASEAN is the only regional association in Asia that provides a political

Forum where Asian countries and the major powers can discuss political and
security concerns.
(Or any other relevant point) (Evaluate as a whole)

28.
(a) Explain the grounds on the basis of which India seeks to become a permanent 6
member of the UN Security Council.
OR
(b) Explain the three main complaints reflected in the resolution adopted by the UN
General Assembly in 1992 to reform the UN Security Council. 6

Ans.
(a) Grounds on the basis of which India seeks to become a permanent member of the
UN Security Council- 4x1½ 6
(i) India is the second most populous country in the world comprising almost =
⅕ of the world population.
(ii) India is the world’s largest democracy.
(iii)India has participated virtually in all of the initiatives of the UN.
(iv) Its role in the UN peacekeeping efforts is a long and substantial one.
(v) The country’s economic emergence in the world stage is another factor that
perhaps justifies India’s claim to permanent seat.
(vi) India has also made regular financial contributions to the UN and never
faltered on its payments.
(or any other relevant point) (any four points)
Or
(b) Complaints-
(i) The Security Council no longer represents the contemporary political
realities. 3x2= 6
(ii) Its decisions reflect only western values and interests and are dominated by a
few powers.
(iii)It lacks equitable representation.
(To be explained )

29.
(a) Describe the difficulties faced by India to get the merger of all the Princely 6
States into the Union of India.
OR
(b) Describe the events that led to the accession of Hyderabad into the Union of 6
India.

Ans.
(a) Difficulties faced by India to get the merger of all the Princely States into the Union P-
of India- 14- 3x2= 6
• Just before independence, it was announced by the British that with the end of 16/2
their rule over India, the paramountcy of the British Crown over Princely
States would also lapse. This meant that all these states, as many as 565 in all,
13
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would become legally independent. All these states were free to join either
India or Pakistan or remain independent if they so wished. This was a very
serious problem and could threaten the very existence of a United India.
• The rulers of Travancore, Hyderabad and some other states had decided to be
independent.
• The people of most of the Princely States wanted to become a part of the Indian
Union.
• The government was prepared to be more flexible and give autonomy to some
regions.
• In the backdrop of partition, the integration and consolidation of territorial
boundaries of the nation had assumed supreme importance.
(Any three
points)
(b) Or 6
• The Nizam of Hyderabad wanted an independent status for Hyderabad.
• He entered into a stand still agreement with India in November 1947. P-
• Meanwhile a people’s movement against the Nizam’s rule gathered force. The 17/2
communist and the Hyderabad Congress were in the forefront.
• The Nizam unleashed Razakars on the people. They murdered, looted, raped
and maimed particularly the non-muslims.
• The central government ordered the army to tackle the situation.
• In September 1948, the Indian Army moved into control of the Nizam’s forces.
• After a few days of intermittent fighting, the Nizam surrendered and this led
to Hyderabad accession to India.
(Assess as a
whole)
30.
6
(a) Describe any four major developments in Indian politics since 1989.
OR
Describe any three issues on which a general consensus has emerged among 6
(b) most of the political parties of India.
Ans.
(a) Major development in Indian politics since 1989- P- 4x1½ 6
(i) Defeat of Congress Party in the elections of 1989 marking the end of the 137- =
Congress system. 139/
2
(ii) Mandal issue in national politics.
(iii)The New Economic Policy- Liberalisation, Privation and Globalization
(LPG).
(iv) Ayodhya Dispute.
(v) Assaniation of Rajiv Gandhi.
(or any other point) (Any four to be explained)
(b) Or P-
Issues of general consensus- 3x2= 6
(i) Agreement on New Economic Policies. 153-
(ii) Acceptance of political and social clauses of the backward classes. 154/
(iii)Acceptance of role of state level parties in governance of the country. 2

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(iv) Emphasis on pragmatic consideration rather than ideologies.

(Explain any three points.)

15