Class XII Biology Sample Paper – Set 5
Max. Marks: 70 Time Allowed: 3 hours
General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are
compulsory.
3. Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2
marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2
case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5
marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in
some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such
questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
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Section A
Q. Questions Mark
No s
.
1. The IUCN Red Data List (2004) in the last 500 years documents the 1
extinction of nearly 784 species including:
a) 359 invertebrates
b) 330 invertebrates
c) 338 invertebrates
d) 362 invertebrates
2. Intense lactation in mothers acts as a natural contraceptive due to 1
the
a) Hypersecretion of gonadotropins
b) Suppression of fertilization
c) Suppression of gonadotropins
d) Suppression of gametic transport
3. Large unit of land having different types of plants and animals is 1
called: a) Ecosystem
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b) Uniform vegetation
c) Niche
d) Biome
4. Which of the following sexually transmitted disease is not caused 1
by a virus?
a) Genital warts
b) Genital herpes
c) Gonorrhoea
d) Hepatitis-B
5. Select the option that gives the correct description of the process of 1
Natural Selection with respect to the length of the neck of giraffe.
a) Stabilising selection as giraffes with medium neck lengths are
selected.
b) Directional selection as giraffes with longer neck lengths are
selected.
c) Stabilising selection as giraffes with longer neck lengths are
selected further.
d) Disruptive selection as giraffes with smaller and longer neck
lengths are selected.
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6. Bacteria present in rumen of a cattle digest cellulose to produce a) 1
Ethanol
b) Sucrose
c) Polysaccharides
d) Methane
7. DNA profiles of the child and three individuals 1, 2 and 3 who claim 1
to be the parents of the child are given below. Select the option that
shows the correct actual parent/parents of the child.
a) Individual 1 is the only parent of the child amongst 1, 2 and 3
b) Individual 2 and 3
c) Individual 1 and 3
d) Individual 1 and 2
8. The diagram represents the Miller experiment. Choose the correct 1
combination of labelling.
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9. The important steps in the process of decomposition are: a) 1
All of these
b) Humification and mineralization
c) Fragmentation and mineralization
d) Leaching and catabolism
10. Assertion (A): Autotrophs are also called as transducers. Reason 1
(R): They change one form of energy into another.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
11. A chemical substance derived from a living source and has the capacity 1
to inhibit the growth or destroy the microbes is called: a) Antibiotic
b) Toxoid
c) Toxin
d) Vaccine
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12. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select 1
the correct conclusion which can be drawn for the character
a) The trait under study could not be colour blindness
b) The female parent is heterozygous
c) The male parent is homozygous dominant
The parent could not have had a normal daughter for this character
13. Assertion (A): Generally, a woman does not conceive during the 1
lactation period.
Reason (R): The hormone prolactin initiates and maintains
lactation in a woman.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
14. Assertion (A): Griseofulvin extracted from P. griseofulvum is used 1
for ringworm treatment.
Reason (R): Trichophyton, Epidermophyton, etc. cannot grow well
in presence of Penicillium griseofulvum.
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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
15. The source organism of Taq polymerase is: 1
a) Bacillus thuringiensis
b) Escherichia coli
c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
d) Thermus aquaticus
16. Assertion (A): Most evolutionary trees place information about 1
pattern of relationship on horizontal axis and time on vertical axis.
Reason (R): An evolutionary tree depicts pattern of relationship
among parents and offsprings.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
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Section B
17. Given below is a sequence of steps of transcription in a eukaryotic 2
cell. Answer the following questions:
i. Fill up the blanks (A, B, C and D) left in the sequence.
ii. Why hnRNA is required to undergo splicing?
18. Majority of angiosperms have hermaphrodite flowers, but 2
selfpollination is discouraged by them. Explain any three outbreeding
devices that they have developed to achieve this.
19. Some of the microbes used as biofertilizers are prokaryotes. Name 2
the taxonomic group they come under. With the help of an example,
mention how they act as biofertilizers.
20. Study the sectional view of human testis showing seminiferous 2
tubules given below.
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i. Identify A, B and C. ii. Write the function of A and D.
21. a. A patient had suffered myocardial infarction and clots were found 2
in his blood vessels. Name a clot buster that can be used to dissolve the
clots and the micro-organism from which it is obtained.
b. A woman had just undergone a kidney transplant. A bioactive
molecular drug is administered to oppose kidney rejection by the body.
What is the bioactive molecule? Name the microbe from which this is
extracted.
c. What do doctors prescribe to lower the blood cholesterol level in
patients with high blood cholesterol? Name the source organism from
which this drug can be obtained.
OR
Treatment of wastewater is done in a sewage treatment plant to make it
less polluting. Explain the following with reference to this treatment
process:
a. Primary sludge
b. Activated sludge
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Anaerobic sludge digesters
Section C
22. Study the table showing the population interaction between species Z 3
and Y respectively. Assign the appropriate +/– signs for A, B, D, E and
respective interactions for C and F.
23. Who put forward the theory of natural selection? Explain the concept 3
of differential reproduction as a major component of the theory of
natural selection.
24. i. Construct a complete transcription unit with promotor and terminator 3
on the basis of the hypothetical template strand given below.
ii. Write the RNA strand transcribed from the above transcription unit
along with its polarity.
25. The image below eleborates enzyme-replacement therapy. 3
i. Explain enzyme-replacement therapy to treat adenosine deaminase
deficiency. ii. Mention two disadvantages of this procedure.
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26. i. Explain the concept of endemism. 3
ii. Name four regions in and around our country that are
considered hot-spots.
OR
How are in-situ and ex-situ approaches of biodiversity
conservations different from each other?
27. Mention the advantages of selecting pea plant for experiment by 3
Mendel.
28. A child is born with ADA-deficiency. 3
a. Suggest and explain a procedure for a possible life-long
(permanent) cure.
b. Name any other possible treatment for this disease.
Section D
29. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that 4
follow: The process of formation of a mature female gamete is
called oogenesis which is markedly different from
spermatogenesis. A schematic representation of Oogenesis is
shown below study the flow chart carefully.
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i. How is a primary oocyte different from a secondary oocyte?
ii. Mention the changes taking place during the transition of a
secondary follicle to Graafian follicle in the oogonia.
iii. How many primary follicles are left in each ovary in a human female
at puberty?
Or
What happen to graafuan follicle after ovulation?
30. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that 4
follow:
A lymphocyte is a type of white blood cell. Enlarge. Blood cells.
Blood contains many types of cells: white blood cells (monocytes,
lymphocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and
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macrophages), red blood cells (erythrocytes), and platelets. Blood
circulates through the body in the arteries and veins.
i. Why are the antigens called antibody-generating chemicals? (1) ii.
Which two types of lymphocytes are involved in immunity?
iii. Give the common site of formation of two types of
lymphocytes.
OR
What is the site of differentiation of two types of lymphocytes?
Section E
31. If a desired gene is identified in an organism for some experiments, 5
explain the process of the following:
i. Cutting this desired gene at specific location.
ii. Synthesis of multiple copies of this desired gene.
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OR
A gene was identified in a fungus by a research worker in a lab which
was considered to be of a great importance in the field of agriculture.
As a student of biotechnology, write the steps you would suggest to
(i) Isolate this gene of interest from the fungus and
(ii) amplify this gene for further experimentation and research.
32. Compare the processes of DNA replication and transcription in 5
prokaryotes.
OR
Explain the relationship of ribosomes, t-RNA and m-RNA during
the process of translation in Prokaryotes.
33. a. Describe the process of double fertilisation in angiosperms. 5
b. Trace the development of polyploidal cell that is formed after
double fertilisation in a non-albuminous seed and albuminous seed.
OR
a. Draw the embryo sac of a flowering plant and label the
following: i. Central cell ii. Chalazal end iii. Synergids
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Answer Key
Section A
1. d) 362 invertebrates
2. c) Suppression of gonadotropins
3. d) Biome
4. c) Gonorrhoea
5. d) Individual 1 and 2
6. d) Methane
7. b) Directional selection as giraffes with longer neck lengths are selected.
8. c) A – electrodes, B – (NH3 + H2 + H2O + CH4), C – cold water, D – Vacuum, E
– U Trap.
9. a) All of these
10. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
11. a) Antibiotic
12. b) The female parent is heterozygous
13. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
14. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
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15. d) Thermus aquaticus
16. c) A is true but R is false
Section B
17.
i. A - DNA polymerase, B - hnRNA, C - Spliced RNA, D - mRNA
ii. hnRNA is required to undergo splicing because of the presence of introns in it.
These need to be removed and the exons have to be joined in a specific
sequence for translation to take place.
18.
i. Pollen release and stigma receptivity not synchronised, either pollen released
before the stigma is receptive or otherwise.
ii. Anther and stigma are placed at different position, stigma cannot come in
contact with the pollen of the same flower.
iii. In some plant flowers are unisexual, male flower and female flower born on
different plant.
iv. Self incompatibility, it is a genetic mechanism and prevents self pollen
from fertilising the ovule by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth
in the pistil.
v. Many angiosperms possess genetic mechanisms that prevent self-pollination
through selfincompatibility systems. These systems recognize and reject pollen
from the same plant, promoting cross-pollination.
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19.
The following microorganisms are used as biofertilizers:
i. Rhizobium: They form root nodules in leguminous plants and fix the
atmospheric nitrogen into an organic form. Rhizobium also has no negative effect
on soil quality and improves the quality, nutrient content, and growth of the plant.
ii. Azotobacter: These are free-living nitrogen fixers found in all types of upland
crops. These not only fix nitrogen but also provide certain antibiotics and growth
substances to the plant.
20.
1. A-Spermatogonia,
B-Interstitial cells
C-Spermatozoa.
2. A-Spermatogonia produces a spermatogonium (plural: spermatogonia) is an
undifferentiated male germ cell. Spermatogonia undergo spermatogenesis to
form mature spermatozoa in the seminiferous tubules of the testes.
D-Sertoli cells provide nutrition to sperms.
21.
a. Clot buster - Streptokinase, microorganism - Streptococcus
b. Cyclosporin A, Trichoderma polysporum
c. Statins, Monascus purpureus
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OR
a. Treatment process in primary Sludge: All the solids that settle down, during the
primary treatment of sewage water.
b. Treatment process in Activated Sludge: Produced during the secondary
treatment or biological treatment of sewage, primary effluent + aerobic microbes
flocs (bacteria and fungus) - get converted to a sediment whose BOD has reduced
significantly.
c. Treatment process in Anaerobic sludge digesters: Large tanks where activated
sludge is treated with anaerobic bacteria which digest the bacteria and fungi, and
produce a mixture of CH4, H S2 and CO2/ Biogas
Section C
22.
A=+
B=+
C = Competition
D=+
E =-
F = Commensalism
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23.
Charles Darwin formulated the theory of natural selection.
Differential reproduction means that some members of a population have
traits that enable them to grow up and reproduce at a higher rate and leave
more surviving offspring in the next generation than others. If it continues for
many generations genes of the individuals, which produce more offspring will
become more predominant in the gene pool of population.
24.
i. Transcription unit
ii. RNA strand transcribed from the above transcriptional unit
25.
In enzyme replacement therapy, the patient is given functional ADA
(Adenosine Deaminase) by injection. Hereditary disease can be corrected by
gene therapy. It is a collection of methods that allows correction or
replacement of defective genes. The first gene therapy was given in 1990 to a
4 years old girl with Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency. It is caused
due to the deletion of gene for adenosine deaminase.
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Disadvantages
i. The patient does not completely recover from
the disease.
ii. It needs periodic injections of the enzyme to the
patients.
26.
i. Endemism: These are the species which are confined to a particular
geographical region and they are not found anywhere else. Such species
are called endemic species.
ii. Four regions in and around our country that are considered hot-spots are
a. Western Ghats
b. Himalaya
c. Indo-Burma
d. Sri Lank
OR
In situ conservation - conservation and protection of whole ecosystem and its
biodiversity at all levels in their natural habitat. Whereas Ex situ conservation
involves taking out the threatened animals and plants from their natural
habitat and placed in special settings where they can be protected and given
special care.
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27.
Pea is a annual plant which gives result within a year. Large number of seeds
are produced by pea plant in one generation. Pea plant has short life cycle. A
large number of true breeding varieties with observable alternative forms for
a trait were available.
28.
a. Gene therapy can be used for the treatment of the child with ADA deficiency. In
this method, the lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture
outside the body. A functional ADA cDNA is introduced into these lymphocytes
using a retroviral vector. These lymphocytes are then returned to the patient. If the
gene isolated from marrow
cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic stage, then it
can be a permanent cure.
b. Other possible methods for curing ADA deficiency disease - Bone marrow
transplantation and enzyme replacement therapy (giving the functional enzyme to
the patient by injection).
Section D
29.
i. The primary oocyte is a diploid cell whereas secondary oocyte is a haploid cell.
The primary oocyte is formed when oogonia are at the prophase-I of the meiotic
division in the foetal ovary whereas secondary oocyte is formed from primary
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oocyte after meiosis – I division to produce ova in females during the stage of
puberty.
ii. The secondary follicle is then transformed into a tertiary follicle characterized
by antrum, which is a fluid-filled cavity. At this phase, the primary oocyte grows
in size inside the tertiary follicle to complete the first meiotic division. The
tertiary follicle finally transitions to form the Graafian follicle.
iii. large number of primary follicles degenerate in females during the period from
birth to puberty by the process called follicular atresia. As a result, about 60000-
80000 primary follicles are left in each ovary at puberty.
OR
After ovulation, the remaining cells of Graafian follicle are stimulated by LH
to develop corpus luteum (an endocrine gland which secrete progesterone
hormone).
30.
i. The antigens called antibody-generating chemicals because a specific antigen
stimulates the production of specific antibody. ii. B-lymphocytes and T-
lymphocytes are involved in immunity. iii. Haemocytoblasts or stem cells of
bone marrow are the common sites of formation of two types of lymphocytes.
OR
B-lymphocytes differentiate in Peyer's patches, tonsils and appendix of
mammals and bursa of Fabricius in the birds. Tlymphocytes differentiate in
the thymus gland.
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Section E
31.
i. Cutting of the desired gene at a specific location is done by incubating the DNA
with specific restriction endonuclease. Restriction enzymes recognise a particular
palindromic nucleotide sequence and cut the DNA at that site.
ii. Synthesis of multiple copies of the desired gene is carried out by Polymerase
Chain Reaction (PCR) Amplification of recombinant DNA gene is done using
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). It is carried out in the following steps:
a. Denaturation -The double-stranded DNA is denatured by applying high
temperature of 95°C for 15 seconds. Each separated strand acts as a template.
b. Annealing - Two sets of primers are added, which anneal to the 3'end of each
separated strand.
c. Extension - DNA polymerase extends the primers by adding nucleotides
complementary to the template provided in the reaction. Taq polymerase is used
in the reaction, which can tolerate heat. All these steps are repeated many times to
get several copies of the desired DNA.
OR
a.
• (Isolation of genetic material) Fungal cells were treated with chitinase,
RNA to be removed by treating with RNAase, protein was removed by
treating with protease, and then addition of chilled ethanol.
• Cutting of DNA at specific locations by restriction enzymes.
• fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis.
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c. Multiple copies of separated genes of interest is synthesized by following
steps of the method given below: PCR (polymerase chain reaction)
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension ( followed by amplification)
i. Polymerase chain reaction/PCR
i. Multiple copies of separated genes of interest are synthesized by following
the given below method: rDNA technology, same restriction enzyme cutting
both foreign DNA and vector DNA at specific point, ligases join foreign DNA
to Plasmid,
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32.
Similarities- Both the processes involve
i. Unwinding of the helix and separating the two DNA strands ii. Breaking
the hydrogen bonds between the bases / pairs iii. Follow complimentary
base pair rule iv. Polymerization occurs in 5' 3' direction →
Disimilarities- DNA replication
i. DNA nucleotides added are ATP, GTP,
CTP, TTP ii. Deoxyribose sugar is the part of
nucleotide
iii. Adenine pairs with
Thymine iv. Both strands
copied
v. Resulting into two DNA molecules Transcription
i. RNA nucleotides added are ATP, GTP,
CTP, UTP ii. Ribose sugar is the part of
nucleotide iii. Adenine with Uracil iv.
Only one strand copied
v. Resulting in formation of an RNA molecule.
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OR
During the process of translation in prokaryotes, amino acids are activated in
the presence of ATP and they are linked to their aminoacylation of tRNA, as
ribosome is the cellular factory for protein synthesis which exists as two
subunits for the initiation and this small subunit of ribosome binds to mRNA
at the start codon that is AUG. Then it is recognised by initiator tRNA, large
subunit has two sites for subsequent amino acids to bind to each other with a
peptide bond. Then it proceeds towards the elongation process where charged
tRNAs sequentially bind to the appropriate codon in mRNA, by forming
complementary base pairs with the tRNA anticodon. Then ribosome moves
codon by codon along with the m-RNA, and amino acids are added one by
one, at the end, a release factor binds to the stop codon which can be UAA /
UAG / UGA for terminating the translation.
33.
a. Double fertilization in angiosperms involves the fusion of two sperm cells with
two distinct female gametes: One of the male gametes, fuses with the nucleus of
the egg cell, to form a diploid zygote (syngamy) Second male gamete, fuses with
two polar nuclei, to form
(triploid) primary endosperm nucleus (triple fusion)
b. The primary endosperm nucleus undergoes successive nuclear divisions, to give
rise to free nuclei / free nuclear endosperm, subsequent cell wall fomation results
in cellular endosperm.
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OR
b. Cell name - Functional Megaspore Nucleus of functional megaspore divides
mitotically three times to form 8 free nucleate stage of embryo sac, after this
cell walls are laid down leading to 7 celled embryo sac.
c. Development of endosperm in coconut - The two polar nucleii fuses with one
male
gamete, to produce triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN), which divides
repeatedly forming free nuclei, subsequently cell wall formation occurs.
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