IAHSS Advanced Officer Certification

2023 Questions and Answers (Verified

Answers by Expert) |IAHSS Basic
Officer Certification Questions
LATEST UPDATE | GRADED A
The basic structure of a typical healthcare
organization resembles a
a. Circle
b. Pentagon
c. Pyramid
d. Straight line - CORRECT ANSWER=C. Pyramid

The most primary overriding concern of any security

department should be
a. Its image
b. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility
c. The goals and mission if the entity employing the
security services
d. Cost-effectiveness - CORRECT ANSWER=b. The
safety and well-being of anyone in the facility

Which of the following is NOT a misdemeanor?

a. Simple assault
b. Trespass
c. Burglary
d. Vandalism - CORRECT ANSWER=c. Burglary

According to statistics published by the National

Association of Security Companies, how many states
have NO regulations for security officers?
a. Twelve
b. Ten
c. Five
d. Eight - CORRECT ANSWER=b. Ten

Which accreditation body provides standards to

address Environment of Care, Emergency
Management, and Life Safety in the healthcare
environment?
a. The Joint Commission (TJC)
b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
(OSHA)
c. National fire and Protection Association (NFPA)
d. American Society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE)
- CORRECT ANSWER=a. The Joint Commission (TJC)

According to IAHSS Hospital Crime Survey, assaults

have
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Remained the same
d. Become less violent - CORRECT ANSWER=a.
Increased

What are the two types of criminal acts?

a. Burglaries and Felonies
b. Misdemeanors and Felonies
c. Larceny and Misconduct
d. Misdemeanors and Larceny - CORRECT
ANSWER=b. Misdemeanors and Felonies

Business offices are often measured by:

a. Diagnosis-related groups (DRGs)
b. The admission process
c. Accounts receivable days (A/R days)
d. The physician survey - CORRECT ANSWER=c.
Accounts receivable days (A/R days)

Which of the following is a security issue for

employees of support or ancillary services?
a. Well staffed during the day
b. Isolated at night
c. Mix of certified and non-certified employees
d. Located in the center of the facility - CORRECT
ANSWER=b. Isolated at night

Which of the following defines property risk:

a. Lawsuits brought about by action or inaction,
including negligent security or safety hazards
b. Loss of staff due to perception of an unsafe
environment
c. The healthcare organizations inability to perform
one or many of its normal functions, leading to the
inability to generate income
d. Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings,
equipment, and supplies - CORRECT ANSWER=d.
Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment,
and supplies

What three components make up the Access Control

Triad?
a. Identification systems, staff education & training,
badging
b. Identification systems, staff education & training,
physical security safeguards
c. Staff education & training, video surveillance,
physical security safeguards
d. Identification systems, proprietary logo usage,
staff education & training - CORRECT ANSWER=b.
Identification systems, staff education & training,
physical security safeguards

What two things should be used regardless of the

type of vehicle patrol used?
a. Helmets and preventative maintenance programs
b. Preventative maintenance programs and sift-by-
shift inspections
c. Supervisor inspections and helmets
d. Battery maintenance and inspections - CORRECT
ANSWER=b. Preventative maintenance programs and
sift-by-shift inspections

Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic

purposes of the Incident Command System?
a. Assuring the safety of responders and others
b. Assuring achievement of tactical objectives
c. Assuring efficient use of resources
d. Assuring constant communication between
agencies - CORRECT ANSWER=d. Assuring constant
communication between agencies

Standard precautions are a set of precautions that

the CDC had called for in order to minimize the risk
of infection. Which of the following is NOT covered
under standard precautions?
a. Blood and body fluids
b. Mucous membranes
c. Non-intact skin
d. Sweat - CORRECT ANSWER=d. Sweat

A class B fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind

of fire?
a. Flammable liquid fire
b. Paper fire
c. Electrical fire
d. Wood fire - CORRECT ANSWER=a. Flammable
liquid fire

Which is the best method to control a bomb threat?

a. Wait for the threat to come in and see what
happens
b. Call the public health department to handle
c. Relax because it is probably a hoax
d. Prepare before the threat is received - CORRECT
ANSWER=d. Prepare before the threat is received

The Joint Commission (TJC) requires how many

disaster drills each year?
a. Three
b. One
c. Two
d. Six - CORRECT ANSWER=c. Two

The measurable indications that workplace violence

programs should include are:
a. Employee surveys, prior incidents, independent
reviewers
b. Independent reviewers, opinions of elected
officials, prior incidents
c. Employee surveys, environmental considerations,
prior incidents
d. Employee surveys, independent reviewers,
engineering input - CORRECT ANSWER=a. Employee
surveys, prior incidents, independent reviewers

Which organization requires the hospital to train

forensic staff?
a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
(OSHA)
b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
c. The Joint Commission (TJC)
d.National Fire and Protection Association (NFPA) -
CORRECT ANSWER=c. The Joint Commission (TJC)

The Joint Commission Environment of Care

Standards addresses how many areas?
a. Seven
b. Six
c. Four
d. Eight - CORRECT ANSWER=a. Seven

Which of the following is the definition of an

interview?
a. Questioning a party whom the officer suspects of
criminal involvement
b. Questioning a party whom the officer has no
reason to believe is a suspect
c. Questioning a suspect under the circumstances
wherein the suspect would feel under the control of
the officer
d. Questioning family members of a suspect -
CORRECT ANSWER=b. Questioning a party whom the
officer has no reason to believe is a suspect

Hostage situations have which of the following

characteristics?
a. Events with no predictable chronology
b. People being held against their will
c. Release contingent upon demands
d. Each of these - CORRECT ANSWER=d. Each of
these

What are the two key elements in civil disturbance

planning?
a. Planning and Preparation
b. Planning and Response
c. Preparation and Response
d. Preparation and Documentation - CORRECT
ANSWER=a. Planning and Preparation

How many room sweeps are suggested to properly

conduct a bomb search?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7 - CORRECT ANSWER=a. 4

Which of the following is NOT one of the seven signs

of terrorism?
a. Surveillance
b. Communication
c. Test of security
d. Acquiring supplies and assets - CORRECT
ANSWER=b. Communication
The fourth stage of a fire - after the incipient stage,
smoldering stage, and the flame stage - is what?
a. Heat stage
b. Extinguished stage
c. Burning stage
d. Fuel stage - CORRECT ANSWER=a. Heat stage

The four phases in Emergency Management are:

a. Funding, Mitigation, Recovery, Rescue
b. Preparedness, Recovery, Mitigation, Rescue
c. Recovery, Response, Mitigation, Safety
d. Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery -
CORRECT ANSWER=d. Mitigation, Preparedness,
Response, Recovery

Which is the most common source of identity theft

from healthcare facilities?
a. Computer records
b. Unattended purses and wallets
c. Discarded paperwork
d. Hearing the information and copying it - CORRECT
ANSWER=b. Unattended purses and wallets

Which of the following defines vulnerability?

a. The act of being physically wounded
b. Something with the potential to be physically
wounded or open to attack or damage
c. Possibility of a loss
d. The act of being attacked - CORRECT ANSWER=b.
Something with the potential to be physically
wounded or open to attack or damage

The security department is considered which type of

department?
a. Support
b. Clinical
c. Direct Patient Care
d. Service - CORRECT ANSWER=a. Support

The areas with the highest potential for hostage

taking are:
a. Administration, Emergency Department,
Obstetrics, Pharmacy
b. ICU, PCU, Obstetrics, Administration
c. Engineering, Administration, Finance, Obstetrics
d. Administration, Emergency Department,
Obstetrics, Admitting - CORRECT ANSWER=a.
Administration, Emergency Department, Obstetrics,
Pharmacy

Which of the following do NOT regulate and accredit

healthcare facilities?
a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
b. International Association for Healthcare Security
and Safety (IAHSS)
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
(OSHA)
d. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
Organizations - CORRECT ANSWER=b. International
Association for Healthcare Security and Safety
(IAHSS)

The best way to avoid loss of patient valuables is:

a. Lock them up
b. Inventory them
c. Place into a safe with double lock and key
d. Discourage from bringing valuables into the
facility - CORRECT ANSWER=d. Discourage from
bringing valuables into the facility

Which organization developed a code of ethics for

healthcare security?
a. International Association for Healthcare Security
and Safety (IAHSS)
b. National fire and Protection Association (NFPA)
c. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
d. Department of Public Health (DPH) - CORRECT
ANSWER=a. International Association for Healthcare
Security and Safety (IAHSS)

You cannot effectively patrol a facility unless you

are:
a. Are looking good
b. Are prepared
c. Are finished eating
d. Have your radio - CORRECT ANSWER=b. Are
prepared

Which organization requires the hospital to train

forensic staff?
a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
(OSHA)
b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
c. The Joint Commission (TJC)
d. National Fire and Protection Association (NFPA) -
CORRECT ANSWER=The Joint Commission (TJC)

Which of the following is a physical environment

consideration, as defined by the Joint Commission?
a. Staffing competency
b. Medical records
c. Life safety
d. Patient privacy - CORRECT ANSWER=c. Life safety

Security officers face sanctions under criminal law if

they violate the constitutional or civil rights of a
party or engage in criminal acts. The sanctions are
in which two areas?
a. Constitutional and Civil Rights
b. Judicial and Constitutional Rights
c. Civil and Judicial Rights
d. Civil and Personal Rights - CORRECT ANSWER=a.
Constitutional and Civil Rights

Which answer best describes security's role in a

workplace violence program?
a. Security is the sole department responsible for the
workplace violence program
b. Security has virtually no role in the workplace
violence program
c. Workplace violence programs are a partnership
between security and many other healthcare
disciplines
d. State and federal governments dictate the role of
security in workplace violence programs - CORRECT
ANSWER=c. Workplace violence programs are a
partnership between security and many other
healthcare disciplines

A protection order is designed to do what?

a. Provide a legal mechanism to enforce no contact
between victim and assailant
b. Begin the process of reconciliation between
victim and assailant
c. Protect the physical well being of the victim
d. Both A and C - CORRECT ANSWER=d. Both A and C

Which of the following best describe de-escalation

techniques:
a. Do not provide limits
b. Do not spend time listening to the individual
c. Use listening skills and respond in a way that
shows empathy
d. Both A and B - CORRECT ANSWER=c. Use listening
skills and respond in a way that shows empathy

Which of the following is NOT a valid assumption

when developing a plan for response to a civil
disturbance?
a. Availability of adequate staffing may be affected
b. Planning and coordination will be an ongoing
activity
c. Outside services such as transportation and
deliveries will not be affected
d. Needed response by police and fire may be
delayed - CORRECT ANSWER=c. Outside services
such as transportation and deliveries will not be
affected

Who should handle any demonstrator action on

public sidewalks or streets?
a. Administration
b. Security
c. Facility personnel
d. Local law enforcement - CORRECT ANSWER=d.
Local law enforcement
During a disturbance, which of these is a critical
action to be taken by the facility?
a. Control access and validate all entering the
building as necessary
b. Lock all doors so no one can leave or enter
c. Allow free access to building as if business as
usual
d. Validate those entering the building only -
CORRECT ANSWER=a. Control access and validate
all entering the building as necessary

Which of these is an example of an internal event

that could affect your medical center?
a. Loss of electricity
b. Major vehicle accident
c. Severe weather
d. Wild land fires - CORRECT ANSWER=a. Loss of
electricity

Which of these is NOT a community planning partner

regarding the healthcare organization's emergency
program?
a. Health department
b. Sheriff's office
c. Local fire department
d. Local TV station - CORRECT ANSWER=d. Local TV
station
Which of these does The Joint Commission deem a
critical area of the emergency management plan?
a. Communication
b. Food
c. Mortuary
d. Decontamination - CORRECT ANSWER=a.
Communication

Which of these are required in exercising the

organization's emergency management plan?
a. Monthly testing
b. Two exercises yearly
c. An exercise with actual patients
d. An exercise using a medical evacuation helicopter
- CORRECT ANSWER=b. Two exercises yearly

Which of these is an operational function of security

officers during emergency situations?
a. Patient treatment
b. Crowd control
c. Spokesperson to the media
d. Initiation of facility evacuation - CORRECT
ANSWER=b. Crowd control

Which of the following categories is NOT part of a

bomb threat plan?
a. Establishing authority
b. Searching for the bomb
c. Pretension
d. Receiving the threat - CORRECT ANSWER=c.
Pretension

What is the most common delivery of a bomb threat?

a. Called into the media
b. By phone at the facility
c. By email at the facility
d. Delivered in person to the facility - CORRECT
ANSWER=b. By phone at the facility

Which of the following is NOT a question on the

Telephone Bomb Threat Checklist?
a. What does the bomb look like?
b. Where is the bomb?
c. What is your name?
d. How old are you? - CORRECT ANSWER=d. How old
are you?

What is the recommended distance to evacuate in

case of a bomb threat?
a. Radius of 100 to 200 feet
b. Radius of 200 to 300 feet
c. Radius of 300 to 600 feet
d. Radius of 500 to 1000 feet - CORRECT ANSWER=d.
Radius of 500 to 1000 feet
Which of the following is NOT a reason terrorists use
suicide bombers?
a. Lack of an outfitted army
b. Final way to have their views hears
c. Most successful way of inflicting damage
d. Affects the least people - CORRECT ANSWER=d.
Affects the least people

Which of the following prohibits the unlawful use of

force and violence against persons or property to
intimidate or coerce a government?
a. US Code of Federal Regulations
b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
c. The Joint Commission
d. US Department of Homeland Security - CORRECT
ANSWER=a. US Code of Federal Regulations

What does the acronym ROARR stand for?

a. Remember, Observe, Act, Record, React
b. Report, Observe, Anticipate, React or Recommend
c. Retreat, Order, Alert, Remember or Record
d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER=b. Report,
Observe, Anticipate, React or Recommend

Fire creates heat through many methods, Which of

these is NOT a method by which fire spreads?
a. Radiation
b. Osmosis
c. Conduction
d. Convection - CORRECT ANSWER=b. Osmosis

What does the acronym NFPA stand for?

a. National Federation of Protective Agencies
b. Northern Fire and Police Association
c. National Fire and Protection Agency
d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER=d. None of
the above
(National Fire and Protection Association)

PASS is an acronym that describes what process?

a. How to activate a fire alarm
b. How to respond to a fire
c. How to evacuate a building
d. How to use a fire extinguisher - CORRECT
ANSWER=d. How to use a fire extinguisher
(pull, aim, squeeze, sweep)

A class A fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind

of fire?
a. Flammable liquid fire
b. Ordinary combustible materials
c. Electrical fire
d. Grease fire - CORRECT ANSWER=b. Ordinary
combustible materials
(paper, wood, fabric)
A class C fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind
of fire?
a. Flammable liquid fire
b. Paper fire
c. Electrical fire
d. Wood fire - CORRECT ANSWER=c. Electrical fire

A class D fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind

of fire?
a. Flammable liquid fire
b. Flammable metals fire
c. Electrical fire
d. Wood fire - CORRECT ANSWER=b. Flammable
metals fire

There are several external organizations that

healthcare institutions collaborate with to maintain
a safe environment. What is the common mission
among them?
a. Provide training to healthcare employees
b. Continuously promote, improve, and assure health
and safety
c. Conduct a proactive risk assessment twice a year
d. Regulate MRI safety - CORRECT ANSWER=b.
Continuously promote, improve, and assure health
and safety
Identify the object of the Safety Management
Program.
a. To improve organizational performance
b. To minimize accidents and injuries
c. To reduce or control costs for Workers'
Compensation
d. To assist in compliance documentation
e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER=e. All of the
above

When incidents expand, authority for performance of

these functions may need to be delegated:
Operations, Planning, Logistics, and
Finance/Administration. What are the personnel who
perform these four management functions called?
a. Deputy staff
b. Director staff
c. Command staff
d. General staff - CORRECT ANSWER=d. General staff

Depending on the type and size of the incident or

event, the Incident Commander may need to
designate personnel to provide information, safety,
and liaison services for the entire organization. What
are these personnel called?
a. Deputy staff
b. Director staff
c. Command staff
d. General staff - CORRECT ANSWER=c. Command
staff

Which position is the only one always staffed in

Incident Command System applications?
a. Operations Section Chief
b. Incident Commander
c. Information Officer
d. Branch Director - CORRECT ANSWER=b. Incident
Commander

In an Incident Command System, which General Staff

position conducts tactical operations, develops the
tactical objectives and organization, and directs all
tactical resources?
a. Finance/Administration
b. Logistics
c. Operations
d. Planning - CORRECT ANSWER=c. Operations

In an Incident Command System, which Command

Staff position is the conduit for information to
internal and external stakeholders, including the
media, or other organizations seeking information
directly from the incident or event?
a. Information Officer
b. Liaison Officer
c. Resource Officer
d. Safety Officer - CORRECT ANSWER=a. Information
Officer

Which of the following is NOT a basic feature of the

Incident Command System?
a. Common terminology
b. Rigid, fixed use of personnel
c. Span of control abilities
d. Unity of command - CORRECT ANSWER=b. Rigid,
fixed use of personnel

Which of the following is NOT a common type of

identity theft?
a. Theft of personal items
b. Social engineering
c. Cyber crime
d. False identity - CORRECT ANSWER=d. False
identity

Which of the following describes when the criminal

uses the victim's personal information to create or
open new financial accounts in the victim's name?
a. Account hijacking
b. Credit card fraud
c. Database hacking
d. Computer viruses - CORRECT ANSWER=a. Account
hijacking
What is the best way to deter identity theft?
a. Duplicate information sources
b. No photocopying of information
c. Preventative education
d. Not using credit cards - CORRECT ANSWER=c.
Preventative education

What is the number one factor in determining if the

security force should be armed with firearms?
a. A needs assessment
b. The type of weapon
c. Which state your facility is in
d. How large a staff in the security force - CORRECT
ANSWER=a. A needs assessment

Which of the following describes the outer zone in

the theory of protection?
a. Generally, the boundary of the property
b. Footprint of the actual structure
c. Inside the structure
d. Footprint of the inside of the structure - CORRECT
ANSWER=a. Generally, the boundary of the property

Which of the following describes the basic functions

of lock sets?
a. Manual, Office, Classroom, Storage, Passage
b. Classroom, Electronic, Storage, Privacy, Passage
c. Office, Classroom, Storage, Privacy, Passage
d. Keyless, Office, Storage, Privacy, Passage -
CORRECT ANSWER=c. Office, Classroom, Storage,
Privacy, Passage

Which of the following greatly improves the

effectiveness of an access control system?
a. Signage
b. Magnetic locks
c. Magnetic swipe cards
d. Fences - CORRECT ANSWER=a. Signage

Which of the following describes the middle zone in

the theory of protection?
a. Generally, the boundary of the property
b. Footprint of the actual structure
c. Inside the structure
d. Footprint of the inside of the structure - CORRECT
ANSWER=b. Footprint of the actual structure

Which of the following describes the inner zone in

the theory of protection?
a. Generally, the boundary of the property
b. Footprint of the actual structure
c. Footprint of the inside of the structure
d. Inside the structure that is being protected -
CORRECT ANSWER=d. Inside the structure that is
being protected
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate
response to a disturbance?
a. Call for medical, security backup, or police
assistance, if required
b. Observe or identify the person(s) causing the
disturbance, and provide area and crowd control
c. Step up to the person(s)
d. Notify your supervisor or appropriate facility
personnel per policy - CORRECT ANSWER=c. Step up
to the person(s)

Which of the following are examples of schedule I

substances?
a. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone
b. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
c. Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds
(w/atropine)
d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax - CORRECT ANSWER=b.
Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone

Which of the following are examples of schedule II

substances?
a. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
b. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
b. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone
d. Tylenol, Aspirin, Xanax - CORRECT ANSWER=d.
Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone
Which of the following are examples of schedule III
substances?
a. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
b. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone
c. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax - CORRECT ANSWER=c.
Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin

Which of the following are examples of schedule IV

substances?
a. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
b. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone
c. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
d. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin - CORRECT
ANSWER=c. Darvon, Valium, Xanax

Which of the following are examples of schedule V

substances?
a. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
b. Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds
(w/atropine)
c. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax - CORRECT ANSWER=b.
Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds (w/atropine)

Access to patient information is limited to those who

"need to know" by which of the following?
a. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
(OSHA)
c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability
Act (HIPAA)
d. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS) -
CORRECT ANSWER=c. Health Insurance Portability
and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

Which of the following should be protected by

bollards?
a. Sidewalks
b. Curbs
c. Hydrants
d. Trees - CORRECT ANSWER=c. Hydrants

When placing a person in handcuffs:

a. Place cuffs really tight
b. Place hands behind the back
c. Place hands with palms together
d. Do not double lock them - CORRECT ANSWER=b.
Place hands behind the back