Geography

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2024

Question 1

The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

(a) Canada and the United States of America

(b) Chile and Argentina

(c) China and India

(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

Explanation

Ans: a

Exp:

Canada shares the longest international land border with the United States. The
Canada-US land border is 8,893 km long. The border is divided into two: the border
shared with Canada by the continental United States and the border that the state of
Alaska shares with northern Canada. Eight Canadian provinces and thirteen American
states run along the shared boundary.

Question 2

Consider the following statements:

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.

2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Explanation

Ans: c

Exp:

Red Sea is a narrow strip of water extending southeastward from Suez, Egypt, for about
1,200 miles (1,930 km) to the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, which connects with the Gulf of Aden
and thence with the Arabian Sea.

Climate:

The Red Sea region receives very little precipitation in any form, although prehistoric
artifacts indicate that there were periods with greater amounts of rainfall. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.

Hydrology:

No water enters the Red Sea from rivers, and rainfall is scant, but the evaporation loss
– in excess of 80 inches per year – is made up by an inflow through the eastern channel
of the Bab el-Mandeb Strait from the Gulf of Aden. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Question 3

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by

terrestrial radiation.

Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good
absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II does not explain
Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Ans: d

Exp:

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Statement-I is incorrect: Insolation reaches the earth’s surface in short waves and heat
is radiated from the earth in long waves. The atmosphere is transparent to short waves
and opaque to long waves. Hence, energy leaving the earth’s surface i.e. terrestrial
radiation, heats up the atmosphere more than the incoming solar radiation i.e.
insolation.

Statement-II is correct: The long-wave radiation is absorbed by atmospheric gases,

particularly by carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases. Thus, the atmosphere is
indirectly heated by the Earth’s radiation.

Hence, statement-I is incorrect, but statement-II is correct.

Question 4

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared

to poles.

Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional

currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explains
Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Explanation

Ans: a

Exp:

The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km
and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is

transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. This layer contains
dust particles and water vapour. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Changes in climate and weather take place in the troposphere. This includes changes in
atmospheric concentration of various gases, temperature and humidity, etc.

Hence, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains
Statement-I.

Question 5

Consider the following:

1. Pyroclastic debris

2. Ash and dust

3. Nitrogen compounds

4 . Sulphur compounds

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

Ans: d

Exp:

A volcano is a place where gases, ashes and/or molten rock material – lava – escape to
the ground. A volcano is called an active volcano if the materials mentioned are being
released or have been released in the recent past.

Statement 1 is correct: The mantle contains a weaker zone called the asthenosphere.
From this, the molten rock materials find their way to the surface. The material in the
upper mantle portion is called magma. Once it starts moving towards the crust or reaches
the surface, it is called lava. The material that reaches the ground includes:

lava flows

pyroclastic debris

volcanic bombs

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 ash and dust

gases such as-

nitrogen compounds

sulphur compounds

minor amounts of chlorine, hydrogen and argon etc.

Question 6

Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in

the month of January?

1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.

2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the
North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: a

Exp:

Statement 1 is correct: In the northern hemisphere, the land surface area is much larger
than in the southern hemisphere. Hence, the effects of land mass and ocean currents are
well-pronounced. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south
over the continent.

The effect of the ocean is well pronounced in the southern hemisphere. Here, the
isotherms are more or less parallel to the latitudes, and the variation in temperature is
more gradual than in the northern hemisphere.

Statement 2 is incorrect: North Atlantic Drift Current is part of a clockwise-setting

ocean-current system in the North Atlantic Ocean, extending from southeast of the Grand
Bank, off Newfoundland, Canada, to the Norwegian Sea, off northwestern Europe. It

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constitutes the northeastward extension of the Gulf Stream and is characterized by
warm temperatures and high salinity.

Distribution of temperatures in the month of

January

Question 7

Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa
producers in the world?

(a) Algeria and Morocco

(b) Botswana and Namibia

(c) Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana

(d) Madagascar and Mozambique

Explanation

Ans: c

Exp:

Cocoa beans are produced in tropical zones around the Equator, where climate
conditions are well suited for growing cocoa trees. About 70 percent of the world’s cocoa
beans come from four West African countries: Ivory Coast, Ghana, Nigeria and
Cameroon. The Ivory Coast (Cote d’Ivoire) and Ghana are by far the two largest
producers of cocoa, accounting for more than 50 percent of the world´s cocoa. In
2021, the Ivory Coast alone produced approximately 2.1 million metric tons of
cocoa beans.

Question 8

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With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj
from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?

(a) Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi

(b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi

(c) Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak

(d) Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak

Explanation

Ans: b

Exp:

Ganges River, rising in the Himalayas and emptying into the Bay of Bengal, drains one-
fourth of the territory of India, and its basin supports hundreds of millions of people. The
general direction of the river’s flow is from northwest to southeast. South of Haridwar, the
river receives its principal right-bank tributary:

Yamuna River, which flows through the Delhi capital region and then roughly parallels the
southeastward flow of the Ganges before joining it near Prayagraj (Allahabad).

The main left-bank tributaries of the Ganga are (from west to east- in the order of
joining) :

Ramganga
Gomati
Ghaghara
Gandak
Kosi

Question 9

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Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for the weathering of rocks.

Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-
I

(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains
Statement-I

(c) Only one of the Statement II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I

(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

Explanation

Ans: a

Exp:

Chemical weathering describes the process of chemicals in rainwater making changes to

the minerals in a rock. Hence, Statement I is correct.

Carbon dioxide from the air is dissolved in rainwater, making it slightly acidic. A
reaction can occur when the rainwater comes into contact with minerals in the rock,
causing weathering. Hence, Statement II is correct.

Oxidation: This is the process in which atmospheric oxygen reacts with the rock to
produce oxides. The process is called oxidation. The greatest impact of this process is
observed on ferrous minerals. Oxygen present in humid air/rainfall reacts with iron
grains in the rocks to form a yellow or red oxide of iron. This is called rusting of the
iron. Rust decomposes rocks completely with the passage of time. Hence, Statement III
is correct.

Hence, both statement-II and statement-III are correct and both of them explain
statement-I

Question 10

Consider the following countries

1. Finland

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2. Germany

3. Norway

4. Russia

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

Ans: b

Exp:

The North Sea is a shallow, northeastern arm of the Atlantic Ocean located between the
British Isles and the mainland of northwestern Europe and covering an area of 220,000
square miles (570,000 square km). The sea is bordered by:

the island of Great Britain to the southwest and west,

the Orkney and Shetland islands to the northwest,
Norway to the northeast,
Denmark to the east,
Germany and the Netherlands to the southeast
Belgium and France to the south.

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 North Sea

Question 11

Consider the following information:

Waterfall Region River

Dhuandhar Malwa Narmada

Hundru Chota Nagpur Subarnarekha

Gersoppa Western Ghats Netravati

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

Ans: a

Exp:

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Dhuandhar Falls: in Jabalpur is on Narmada river. Jabalpur is one of the most
important cities of Madhya Pradesh and is located at the center of the State. The city is
situated in the ‘Mahakaushal’ region.

The Malwa region includes the Madhya Pradesh districts of Dewas, Dhar, Indore, Jhabua,
Mandsaur, Neemuch, Rajgarh, Ratlam, Shajapur, Ujjain, and parts of Guna and Sehore,
and the Rajasthan districts of Jhalawar and parts of Banswara and Chittorgarh (not
Jabalpur). Hence, row 1 is incorrect.

Hundru Falls: in Ranchi [Chotanagpur Plateau] is created on the course of the

Subarnarekha River, where is falls from a height of 320 feet creating the highest water
falls of the state.Hence, row 2 is correct.

Gersoppa Falls: also known as Jog Falls, is a cataract of the Sharavati River in western
Karnataka state (Western Ghats), southwestern India. Hence, row 3 is incorrect.

Question 12

Consider the following information:

Region Name of the mountain range Type of mountain

Central Asia Vosges Fold mountain

Europe Alps Block mountain

North America Appalachians Fold mountain

South America Andes Fold mountain

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

Ans: b

Exp:

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Row 1 is incorrect: Vosges is a mountain extending west of the Rhine River Valley
in the Haut-Rhin, Bas-Rhin, and Vosges départements of eastern France.

Row 2 is incorrect: Alps is a small segment of a discontinuous mountain chain that

stretches from the Atlas Mountains of North Africa across southern Europe and Asia to
beyond the Himalayas. The Alps [Fold Mountains] extend north from the subtropical
Mediterranean coast near Nice, France, to Lake Geneva before trending east-
northeast to Vienna (at the Vienna Woods). There, they touch the Danube River and
meld with the adjacent plain.

Row 3 is correct: The Appalachian Mountains [Fold Mountains] of the great

highland system of North America are the eastern counterpart of the Rocky
Mountains. Extending for almost 2,000 miles (3,200 km) from the Canadian province of
Newfoundland and Labrador to central Alabama in the United States, the Appalachian
Mountains form a natural barrier between the eastern Coastal Plain and the vast Interior
Lowlands of North America.

Row 4 is correct: Andes Mountains is a fold mountain system of South America

and one of the great natural features on Earth.

Question 13

Consider the following:

1. Cashew

2. Papaya

3. Red sanders

How many of the above trees are actually native to India?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

Ans: a

Exp:

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Cashew: is an evergreen shrub or tree of the sumac family (Anacardiaceae), cultivated
for its characteristically curved edible seeds, which are commonly called cashew “nuts”
though they are not true nuts. The domesticated cashew tree is native to the New
World but commercially cultivated mainly in Brazil and India. Hence, option 1 is
incorrect.

Papaya: is a succulent fruit of a large plant of the family Caricaceae. Though its origin
is rather obscure, the papaya may represent the fusion of two or more species of
Carica native to Mexico and Central America. Today it is cultivated throughout the
tropical world and into the warmest parts of the subtropics. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.

Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus): is an endemic tree species of the forests of the
Seshachalam, Veligonda, Lankamala and Palakona Hills range of Andhra Pradesh.
Hence, option 3 is correct.

Question 14

With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.

2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: a

Exp:

Statement 1 is correct: Water vapour is also a variable gas in the atmosphere,

which decreases with altitude. In the warm and wet tropics, it may account for four per
cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas of deserts and polar regions, it
may be less than one percent of the air.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Water vapour decreases from the equator towards the
poles because insolation decreases as we move from the tropics to the poles, and
due to this, evaporation also decreases, which results in the decrease of vapour in

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the atmosphere.

It also absorbs parts of the insolation from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated
heat. It, thus, acts like a blanket allowing the earth neither to become too cold nor too hot.
Water vapour also contributes to the stability and instability of the atmosphere.

Question 15

Consider the following description:

Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.

Precipitation occurs throughout the year.

Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm.

What is this type of climate?

(a) Equatorial climate

(b) China type climate

(c) Humid subtropical climate

(d) Marine West coast climate

Explanation

Ans: d

Exp:

Marine West Coast Climate (Cfb)

Marine west coast climate is located poleward from the Mediterranean climate on the
west coast of the continents. The main areas are:

Northwestern Europe,
West coast of North America,
North of California,
southern Chile,
southeastern Australia
New Zealand.

Due to marine influence, the temperature is moderate and in winter, it is warmer than for
its latitude. The mean temperature in summer months ranges from 15°-20°C and in winter
4°-10°C. The annual and daily ranges of temperature are small. Precipitation occurs
throughout the year. Precipitation varies greatly from 50-250cm.

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Question 16

With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.

2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: c

Exp:

Coriolis force is at a right angle to wind direction and directly proportional to wind
speed. That is, as wind speed increases, Coriolis force increases. At a given latitude,
double the wind speed and you double the Coriolis force. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Why at a given latitude?

Coriolis force varies with latitude from zero at the Equator to a maximum at the
poles. It influences wind direction everywhere except immediately at the Equator; but the
effects are more pronounced in middle and high latitudes. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.

Question 17

On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of

more than 12 hours?

1. Equator

2. Tropic of Cancer

3. Tropic of Capricorn

4. Arctic Circle

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Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

Explanation

Ans: d

Exp:

Illumination of Earth on 21st June

The figure above elucidates that all latitudes above equator experience more than 12 hrs
of the sun-lit hours. Hence, Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle are correct.

Question 18

One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about
three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible
destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate.

Which one of the following denotes that region?

(a) Amazon Basin

(b) Congo Basin

(c) Kilkori Basin

(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

Explanation

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Ans: b

Exp:

The Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands, along with
Brazil and Indonesia. The peat swamp forest of the Congo Basin stores around 29
billion tons of carbon – approximately equivalent to three years’ worth of global
greenhouse gas emissions – while the Basin as a whole absorbs nearly 1.5 billion
tons of carbon dioxide a year. The Basin stretches across six countries- Cameroon,
Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Congo, Equatorial Guinea
and Gabon.

Peatlands cover only 3 per cent of the global land surface but store an estimated 600
billion tons of carbon- twice as much as in all the world’s forests. This makes them one of
the most efficient carbon sink ecosystems and underlines the need to protect them,
experts say.

Question 19

Consider the following plants:

1. Groundnut

2. Horse-gram

3. Soybean

How many of the above belong to the pea family?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

Ans: c

Exp:

Commonly known as the pea family, Fabaceae features about 670 genera and
nearly 20,000 species of trees, shrubs, vines, and herbs. Distributed worldwide,
members of the family are generally characterized by compound leaves and the
production of fruits known as legumes. The following is a list of some of the major
genera and species in Fabaceae:

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 Pea (Pisum sativum)
Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea) Hence, option 1 is correct.
Rosary pea (Abrus precatorius)
Smoke tree (Dalea spinosa)
Soybean (Glycine max) Hence, option 3 is correct.
Cowpea (V. unguiculata)
Mung bean (V. radiata)
Wisteria (genus Wisteria)

Horse gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum) Hence, option 2 is correct.

Question 20

The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

(b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

(c) the birth rate minus death rate.

(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing
age.

Explanation

Ans: d

Exp:

Total Fertility Rate (TFR) represents the number of children that would be born to a
woman if she were to live to the end of her childbearing years and bear children in
accordance with age-specific fertility rates of the specified year. A TFR of 2.1 is
known as the replacement rate.

2023

Question 1

Consider the following statements:

1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
3. Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one

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(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation
Ans: b

Exp:

Statement 1 is correct: Wular Lake is the largest lake in the Jammu and Kashmir
territory, in the northern part of the Indian subcontinent. It is located in Bandipora district
in Jammu and Kashmir. The lake controls the flow of the Jhelum River.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Kolleru Lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal
Budameru and Tammileru streams and not the Krishna River. It is connected to the
Krishna and Godavari systems by over 68 inflowing drains and channels. Kolleru Bird
Sanctuary serves as a habitat for migratory birds.

Statement 3 is correct: Kanwar jheel/ Kabar Taal, as it is locally called, is located 22 km

northwest of Begusarai town. It is a freshwater residual oxbow lake formed due to the
meandering of Gandak River, a tributary of Ganga, in the geological past. Kanwar Lake
was declared a notified area under the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972. To check the
poaching of birds, it was declared a protected zone by the Bihar state government in
1986; the government of India declared it a bird sanctuary in 1989.

Question 2

Consider the following pairs:

Port Well known as
1. Kamarajar Port : First major port in India registered as a company
2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India

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3. Visakhapatnam : Largest container port in India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs

Explanation
Ans: b

Exp:

Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Kamarajar Port, located on the Coromandel Coast
about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Chennai. The port was declared a major port under
the Indian Ports Act 1908 in March 1999 and incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under
the Companies Act 1956 in October 1999. It is the only corporatised major port and the
first port in India which was registered as a public company.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Mundra Port is situated along the northern coast of the Gulf
of Kutch near Mundra in the Kutch district of Gujarat. It is the largest privately owned port
of India. In 2003, it was designated as a Special Economic Zone (SEZ), making it the
largest private SEZ in the country. It is known to be an all-weather port.

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Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Visakhapatnam Port ranks as India’s third largest state-
owned port in terms of cargo volume handled and holds the distinction of being the
largest port on the Eastern Coast. Positioned between the Chennai and Kolkata Ports
along the Bay of Bengal, it serves as a strategic midpoint. Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava
Sheva) is the largest container port in India.

Question 3

Consider the following trees:

1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
3. Teak (Tectona grandis)
How many of the above are deciduous trees?
(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation
Ans: b

Exp:

Option 1 is not correct: Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is a tropical evergreen tree

that grows up to 20 m in height.
Option 2 is correct: Mahua (Madhuca indica is a deciduous tree that grows up to 20 m
tall.
Option 3 is correct: Teak (Tectona grandis) is a deciduous tree. Teakwood forests are
predominantly found in Northeast India.

Question 4

Consider the following statements:

1. India has more arable area than China.
2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

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(d) None

Explanation

Ans: b

Exp:

Statement 1 is correct: India has more arable area than China. As per the 2019 data,
the top 10 countries with the
most arable land in the world are as follows:

Statement 2 is correct: China’s irrigation cover is 41% of the cultivated area, and that of
India is 48%.

Statement 3 is not correct: The average productivity per hectare is higher in China
compared to that of India.

Question 5

Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving
rise to present-day extensive marshland?
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans
(c) Naupada Swamp
(d) Rann of Kutch

Explanation

Ans: d

Exp:

Option 1 is incorrect: Bhitarkanika mangroves, situated in Odisha, India, represent a

noteworthy mangrove ecosystem. Although subject to tidal variations, it has not been
created as a result of recurrent decline in sea level. Instead, it has been shaped by the

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riverine system and recognised as a crucial breeding habitat for diverse species,
including
the endangered saltwater crocodile.

Option 2 is incorrect: Marakkanam salt pans, located in Tamil Nadu, are coastal salt
marshes utilised for salt production. These pans form in coastal low-lying areas where
seawater evaporates, depositing salt crystals. However, it’s essential to note that these
salt pans are not a consequence of recurring decline in sea level; rather, these have been
established by harnessing existing seawater resources.

Option 3 is incorrect: Naupada Swamp, alternatively referred to as Naupada Wetland, is

situated in Andhra Pradesh. Recurrent decreases in sea level have not shaped this
freshwater swamp. Rather, it has been created by the influx of freshwater from rivers and
seasonal precipitation.

Option 4 is correct: The Great Rann of Kachchh comprises a unique geomorphic entity
of the Indian subcontinent. It is a mysterious and fascinating tectonic landscape in an
area marked by sea- level changes. Once a shallow extension of the Arabian Sea, the
Rann underwent a geological transformation when a shift occurred, disconnecting it from
the sea. Over time, this area evolved into a seasonal marshy salt desert. During the
monsoon season, it becomes inundated with water, transforming into a wetland. In the
summer months, the water recedes, leaving behind a white, salty land bed.

Question 6

Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich
sources of which one of the following?
(a) Aluminium

(b) Copper

(c) Iron

(d) Titanium

Explanation

Ans: d

Exp:

Ilmenite (FeTiO3 / FeO.TiO2) and rutile are the most commonly found and abundant
minerals of titanium. Ilmenite is weakly magnetic mineral sand, grey-black in colour, solid
in form and exists in a triangle crystal structure. Rutile is the most abundant of three
naturally occurring forms of titanium dioxide (TiO2; other two forms – anatase; and
brookite). It

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is reddish-brown and exists in a tetragonal crystal structure. Ilmenite and rutile, being
titanium oxide minerals, are used to produce high-performance metal parts such as
artificial human body parts, aircraft engine parts, sporting equipment, synthetic rutile,
pigments, etc. These pigments are used for whitening in papers, paints, toothpaste,
adhesives, plastic and foods and nanotechnologies. India possesses substantial reserves
of heavy minerals primarily located along its coastal regions and inland placers. Heavy
mineral sands consist of a group of seven minerals: ilmenite, leucoxene (brown ilmenite),
rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet, and monazite.

Question 7

About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of
batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
(a) Argentina
(b) Botswana
(c) The Democratic Republic of the Congo
(d) Kazakhstan

Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

(a) Cameroon

(b) Nigeria

(c) South Sudan

(d) Uganda

Explanation

Ans: c

Exp:

Cobalt is a crucial component in producing batteries for electric vehicles, in addition to

being indispensable in various electronic devices like smartphones and laptops.
Top Cobalt Producing Countries: The Democratic Republic of the Congo: This is by far
the world’s largest producer of cobalt, accounting for roughly 70 percent of global
production. The Democratic Republic of Congo is followed by Indonesia, Russia,
Australia and Canada in Cobalt production. In India, Cobalt is primarily concentrated in
the state of Odisha. Nevertheless, Cobalt production is currently nonexistent in the
country.

Question 8

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Consider the following statements:
1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of the Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of the Satpura Range.
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of the Western Ghats.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

Ans: a

Exp:

Congo basin is the basin of the Congo River, lying astride the Equator in west-central
Africa. It is the world’s second-largest river basin (next to that of the Amazon), comprising
an area of more than 1.3 million square miles (3.4 million square km). The vast drainage
area of the Congo River includes almost the whole of the Republic of the Congo, the
Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, western Zambia,
northern Angola, and parts of Cameroon and Tanzania. This not only is vast but is also
covered with a dense and ramified network of tributaries, sub-tributaries, and small rivers
– with the exception of the sandy plateaus in the southwest.

The rainforest within the Congo Basin stands as Africa’s largest rainforest, ranking
second only to the Amazon rainforest in terms of size.

Question 9

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With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following
statements:
1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
2. The Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via
Myanmar.
3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar
Pradesh with Kunming in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

Ans: d

Exp:

Statement 1 is not correct: Amarkantak is situated in Anuppur district of the state of

Madhya Pradesh at the meeting place of the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges. It is
known to be the origin of the Narmada River, Mahanadi, and Son Rivers.

Statement 2 is not correct: Biligirirangan Hills belong to the Eastern Ghats mountain
range rather than the Satpura Range. The Biligirirangan Hills are renowned for
harbouring a substantial population of Asian elephants.

Statement 3 is not correct: The Seshachalam hills are a part of the Eastern Ghats in the
Andhra Pradesh state of India. The hills are also known as Venkatachalam.

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Question 10

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Ans: d

Exp:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Golden Quadrilateral Project is a significant highway

development initiative in India designed to link the four major metropolitan cities: Delhi,
Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. As part of this project, the East-West Corridor connects
Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Trilateral highway (IMT), which was initially
conceptualised some 15 years ago, connects India’s Moreh in the northeast of the
country to Mae Sot in Thailand, via Myanmar.

Statement 3 is not correct: The proposed Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic

Corridor (BCIM) aims to boost economic cooperation and trade among Bangladesh,
China,
India, and Myanmar through enhanced connectivity. It stretches from southwest China to
eastern India (‘Kunming to Kolkata’) via Myanmar, India’s north east region (NER), and
Bangladesh.

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Question 11

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Consider the following countries:
1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land
border with Ukraine?
(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) Only five

Explanation

Ans: c

Exp:

Statement – I is correct: The top 5 countries that exported the highest dollar value worth
of gold during 2021: Switzerland> United Kingdom> Hong Kong> United Arab Emirates>
United States
Statement II is not correct: Top Countries with the Largest Gold Mine Reserves:
Australia> Russia> South Africa> USA> Indonesia Hence, statement-I is correct but,
statement-II is incorrect.

Question 12

With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is
correct?
(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that
received at the poles.
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower
atmosphere
(d) Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar
radiation.

Explanation

Ans: a

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Exp:

Ukraine is a country located in eastern Europe, the second largest on the continent after
Russia. The capital is Kyiv, located on the Dnieper River in north-
central Ukraine. Ukraine is bordered by Belarus to the north, Russia to the east, the Sea
of Azov and the Black Sea to the south, Moldova and Romania to the southwest, and
Hungary, Slovakia, and Poland to the west.

Question 13

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead
organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Ans: c

Exp:

The Earth’s surface predominantly receives its energy in the form of short wavelengths.
Short-wave solar radiation largely passes through the atmosphere without significant
obstruction. The atmosphere gets heated up through the absorption of long wave

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radiations emitted by the earth’s surface. Water vapour acts as a strong absorber of
infrared radiation. In the lower atmosphere, where water vapour concentration is relatively
higher, it absorbs a notable portion of the infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface.

Option (a) is not correct: Though it is accurate that the equator receives greater direct
sunlight in comparison to the poles, the disparity in insolation is not as substantial as
tenfold. The variance in insolation between the equator and poles predominantly arises
from the curvature of the Earth and the inclination of its axis, causing sunlight to strike
different latitudes at varying angles.

Option (b) is not correct: Insolation denotes the entirety of solar radiation reaching the
Earth’s surface, encompassing a wide range of electromagnetic radiation. Although
infrared radiation constitutes a substantial portion of solar radiation, it does not represent
two-thirds of the insolation. Insolation comprises visible light, ultraviolet (UV) radiation,
and various other wavelengths alongside infrared radiation.
Option (d) is not correct: IR is not part of the visible range. infrared radiation has
wavelengths longer than those of visible light and is not perceptible to the human eye.

Question 14

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during
summer than in winter.
Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Ans: d

Exp:

Statement-I is not correct: The tropical rainforest occurs near the equator and close to
the tropics. Thus it receives heavy rainfall throughout the year. The heavy rain causes
intense leaching of the soil which increases the acidity of the soil. Due to increased
acidity, there is an issue of less nutrient absorption from the soil.
Statement-II is correct: As the tropical rainforest lies in a region of heavy rainfall and

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near to tropics, thus the climate here is hot and humid. This causes the rapid
decomposition of the dead organic material present in the soil.
Hence, statement-I is incorrect, but statement-II is correct.

Question 15

Consider the following statements:

1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave
propagation, whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the
direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: a

Exp:

During the summer the temperature on land increases rapidly and in the ocean increases
gradually, while in winter the temperature on land falls rapidly while in the oceans it
decreases slowly. However the effect is typically less pronounced than the contrast seen
in summer due to the overall lower temperatures.

Statement-I is correct: During summer, the temperature disparity between continents

and oceans is more pronounced compared to winter.

Statement-II is correct: Specific heat is the amount of heat energy it takes to raise or
lower the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1°Celsius. The specific heat of water
is greater than that of dry soil, thus, water absorbs and releases heat more slowly than
land.
Hence, Both statement-I and statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I

Question 16

With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following
statements:
1. None of them uses seawater.
2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district

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3. None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

Ans: d

Exp:

Statement 1 is not correct: The usage of water in the thermal plant is crucial for cooling
high temperatures and powering turbines with steam. In India, largely river water is used
for this purpose; however, some of the thermal power plant e.g.- Mundra Thermal Power
Station (Gujarat) uses seawater.

Statement 2 is not correct: More than a third of India’s freshwater-dependent plants are
located in areas of high or extremely high water stress. These plants have, on average, a
21 percent lower utilisation rate than their counterparts located in low or medium water-
stress regions – lack of water simply prevents them from running at full capacity.

Statement 3 is not correct: In India, thermal power plants are operated by both the
private and public

2022

Question 1

In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:

(a) First half of the month of June

(b) Second half of the month of June

(c) First half of the month of July

(d) Second half of the month of July

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Motion of Earth

Summer Solstice (21st June):

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 The Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards the sun and the rays of the sun fall
directly on the Tropic of Cancer → areas receive more heat.
The longest day and the shortest night at these places occur on 21st June. Thus,
the second half of the month of June in the northern hemisphere has the longest
day of the year.
Areas near the poles receive less heat as the rays of the sun are slanting.
The North Pole is inclined towards the sun and the places beyond the Arctic Circle
experience continuous daylight for about six months.
Since a large portion of the Northern Hemisphere is getting light from the sun, it is
summer in the regions north of the equator.
Southern Hemisphere: All these conditions are reversed (winter season- longer
nights)

NOTE: This question is a repetition from 2019 only the sentences of both the question
and options are twisted to confuse the candidate. Also UPSC has asked questions from
similar themes in 2013, please refer to the PYQs for detailed explanation.

Question 2

Consider the following statements:

1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.

2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s
surface and thus cause a warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Clouds

Statement 1 is incorrect: Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool
the surface of the Earth.

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Statement 2 is incorrect: High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming solar
radiation. At the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted
by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth.

Whether a given cloud will heat or cool the surface depends on several factors,
including the cloud’s altitude, its size, and the make-up of the particles that form the
cloud.
The components of the Earth system that are important to the radiation budget are
the planet’s surface, atmosphere, and clouds.

Question 3

Consider the following States:

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea- producing States?

(a) Only one State

(b) Only two States

(c) Only three States

(d) All four States

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Tea production

Black soil is ideal for growing cotton and thus it is also known as black cotton
soil.
Formed as a result of the basaltic rocks’ weathering, which first appeared during
Cretaceous fissure eruption.
This type of lava flow-derived soil is typical of the northwest Deccan plateau’s
Deccan trap (Basalt) region.
Basalt contains titanium-ferromagnetic chemicals, which give basalt its
characteristic black colour.

Tea Climatic conditions:

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 Climate: Tropical and Subtropical climate, Warm and moist frost free climate
throughout the year with rainfall-1500
Soil: Tea plants require well-drained, fertile soil that is rich in organic matter, The pH
of the soil should be slightly acidic, ranging between 4.5 and 5.5,The soil should be
able to retain moisture while also allowing excess water to drain away, Tea plants
prefer soils with good structure and high porosity to allow oxygen to reach the roots.
Temperature: Less than 15 degree Celsius.
As per the Tea Board under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, and Indian Tea
Association, Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Tripura,
Kerala and Karnataka are the states known as tea- producing States.

Question 4

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.

2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

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(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Rare Earth Metal

Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Rare earth metals are a group of 17 elements. They are
lustrous silvery-white soft heavy metals. China accounts for 90% of the world’s rare earth
production. In India, monazite is the principal source of rare earths and thorium.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Monazite, though found in most coastal areas of India, is

unlikely to be found along the entire coast. The main mines are found along the
coasts of southern India in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and in Orissa.

Statement 4 is correct: As per Atomic Energy (Radiation Protection) Rules 2004, Indian
Rare Earths Limited (IREL), a wholly owned Public Sector Undertaking of the
Government of India (GOI) under DAE, is the only entity which has been permitted to
produce and process monazite, and handle it for domestic use as well as for export.

NOTE: In the question, in statement 3, the extreme word ‘entire’ is a red flag.

Question 5

Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

(a) Cauvery

(b) Manjira

(c) Pennar

(d) Tungabhadra

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Physical features of India

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 The gorge of Gandikota is situated on the Pennar River in Andhra Pradesh
and is known as the Grand Canyon of India.
Gorges are formed when rivers erode through gigantic rock formations over a
long period of time.
A gorge is any valley formed by a source of water flowing between tall slabs of
steep
Gandikota is a small village in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh.
The swift flowing waters of River Pennar cut through the granite rocks near
the village of Gandikota, naturally eroding the rock and forming a deep valley.
The spectacular gorge is famously adjudged as the Grand Canyon of India.

Question 6

Consider the following pairs:

Peak Mountains

1. Namcha Barwa Garhwal Himalaya

2. Nanda Devi Kumaon Himalaya

3. Nokrek Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Physical features of India

Pair 1 is incorrect: Namcha Barwa is not situated in Garhwal Himalaya. It is situated in

the Eastern Himalaya.

Pair 2 is correct: The part of the Himalayas lying between Satluj and Kali rivers is known
as Kumaon Himalayas. Nanda Devi is part of the Kumaon Himalayas, and is located in
the state of Uttarakhand, between the Rishi Ganga valley on the west and the Goriganga
valley on the east.

Pair 3 is incorrect: Nokrek is situated in West Garo Hills of Meghalaya, not in Sikkim
Himalaya.

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Question 7

Consider the following pairs:

Reservoirs States

1. Ghataprabha Telangana

2. Gandhi Sagar Madhya Pradesh

3. Indira Sagar Andhra Pradesh

4. Maithon Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Reservoir and their location

Pair 1 is incorrect: The Ghataprabha Reservoir is located in the Belagavi district of the
state of Karnataka.

Pair 2 is correct: The Gandhi Sagar Dam is one of the four major dams built on India’s
Chambal River located in the Mandsaur, districts of the state of Madhya Pradesh.

Pair 3 is incorrect: The Indira Sagar Dam is the largest dam in India, in terms of volume
of water stored in the reservoir. It is located on the Narmada River at the town of
Narmada Nagar, Punasa in the Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh in India.

Pair 4 is incorrect: The Maithon Dam is constructed on the Barakar River and it is
located at Maithon, 48 km from Dhanbad, in the state of Jharkhand in India.

2021

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Question 1

Consider the following statements

1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the
eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than
the western sections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Wind Movement

Statement 1 is correct: The Trade winds originate from subtropical high pressure
regions and move toward the equatorial low pressure belt. At the equator, the trade
winds from the two hemispheres collide, rising and bringing torrential rainfall. The
Northeast trade winds in the Northern hemisphere of the tropical zone move warmer
water westward through the ocean. As a result of the cool ocean currents, the eastern
regions of the trade winds are drier and more stable than the western parts of the ocean.

Statement 2 is correct: The westerlies are the winds blowing from the subtropical
high pressure belts towards the sub polar low pressure belts.The Westerlies play an
important role in carrying the warm, equatorial waters and winds to the western coasts of
continents that is eastern section of the Oceans in the temperate zone.

Question 2

“Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil
surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed
of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or
growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees.”

This is the most likely description of

(a) Coniferous forest

(b) Dry deciduous forest

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(c) Mangrove forest

(d) Tropical rainforest

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Major Climate of the World

Hot, Wet Equatorial Climate:

Hot, Wet Equatorial Climate is found between 5° and 10° north and south of the
equator.
Precipitation is heavy and well distributed throughout the year.
From the air, the tropical rain forest appears like a thick canopy of foliage, broken
only where it is crossed by large rivers or cleared for cultivation.
All plants struggle upwards (most epiphytes) for sunlight resulting in a peculiar
layer arrangement, rooted on the upper branches of trees.
The equatorial vegetation comprises a multitude of evergreen trees that yield
tropical hardwood, g. mahogany, ebony, dyewoods etc.

NOTE: UPSC has this habit of picking lines from GC Leong and frame it as a question.
Please learn to pick the hints from the UPSC question, here in the above sentence
observe the keywords like ‘Leaf litter decomposes faster’; ‘canopy’; ‘epiphytes’; etc. these
are enough/sufficient hints to answer this question. Now if you have read NCERTs and
GC Leong you could easily identify that these are the characteristics of ‘Tropical
Rainforest’ or ‘Hot, Wet Equatorial Climate’.

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Question 3

The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of:

(a) Brown forest soil

(b) Fissure volcanic rock

(c) Granite and schist

(d) Shale and limestone

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Type of Soil

Option (b) is correct: The black cotton soils of India have been formed due to the
weathering of the fissure volcanic rock.

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 Major Soils Types

Question 4

Among the following, which one is the least water- efficient crop?

(a) Sugarcane

(b) Sunflower

(c) Pearl millet

(d) Red gram

Explanation

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Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Water efficient crop

Option (a) is correct: Sugarcane requires around 1800 to 2200 mm and basically it is a
heavy water intensive crop.

Option (b) is incorrect: Major oilseeds like soyabean, castor seeds, cotton seeds,
linseed and sunflower, etc. requires around 672.4 mm.

Option (c) is incorrect: Millets can be grown even in dry regions without irrigation
facilities. Pearl millets require around 350 mm of water.

Option (d) is incorrect: Pulses like red gram require around 200-450 mm of water.

Question 5

With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them
pour into one of them which joins the Indus directly. Among the following, which
one is such a river that joins the Indus directly?

Chenab

(b) Jhelum

(c) Ravi

(d) Sutlej

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Indus River System/Drainage

Option (a) is incorrect: The Chenab joins the Satluj in Panchnad(Pakistan) after
receiving the waters of the Jhelum and Ravi rivers.

Option (b) is incorrect: The Jhelum joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.

Option (c) is incorrect: The Ravi debouches into the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu, a little
above Rangpur in Pakistani Punjab.

Option (d) is correct: The Satluj receives the collective drainage of the Ravi, Chenab
and Jhelum rivers. It joins the Indus a few kilometers above Mithankot.

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Question 6

With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of

(a) Glaciers

(b) Mangrove areas

(c) Ramsar sites

(d) Saline lakes

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Physiography of India

A playa/salt lake or saline lake is a landlocked body of water that has a

concentration of salts and other dissolved minerals significantly higher than most
lakes. Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are saline lakes of Rajasthan.

About Playas (Salt Lake):

Small lakes with flat floors and undrained basins in which water collects after rains
and evaporates quickly are called playas., mostly saline.
Playas/Salt lake in Rajasthan: Sambhar, Didwana, Kuchaman, the Sargol and the
Khatu

Question 7

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Consider the following rivers:

1. Brahmani
2. Nagavali
3. Subarnarekha
4. Vamsadhara

Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 3

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Peninsular Drainage (Small East Flowing Rivers)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Brahmani river comes into existence by the confluence of
the Koel and the Shankh rivers near Rourkela.

Statement 2 is correct: Nagavali River originates in Kalahandi District, in the Eastern

Ghats.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Subarnarekha originates from the Ranchi Plateau in

Jharkhand forming the boundary between West Bengal and Odisha in its lower course.

Statement 4 is correct: It is an east-flowing river that originates in the Kalahandi district

of Odisha, Eastern Ghat, flows in Odisha, along its boundary with Andhra Pradesh and
finally joins the Bay of Bengal at Kalingapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.

2020

Question 1

Consider the following statements

1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.

2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the
surroundings.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Wind Movement

Jet Stream:

The Jet Stream is a geostrophic wind that generally blows from west to east
across the upper layers of the troposphere at an altitude of 20,000 to 50,000 feet.
Air masses with different temperatures collide to form jet streams. Thus, the location
of the Jet Stream’s formation is normally characterized by surface temperatures.

Statement 1 is not correct: In both the hemispheres, jet streams run from 20 degrees
latitude to the poles.

Statement 2 is correct: Only some cyclones develop an eye. The eye is not present in a
temperate cyclone since there is not a single location where the winds and precipitation
are not present.

Statement 3 is not correct: The tropical cyclone’s eye is the area with the lowest
surface pressure and the warmest air above it (in the upper levels). The eye
temperature may be 10°C or more above the surrounding air at a height of 12 km,
whereas it is only 0–2°C warmer at the surface.

Question 2

With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following

statements is/are correct?

1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 metres in the south-
western Indian Ocean during January–March.
2. OMT collected during January–March can be used in assessing whether the
amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.

Select the correct using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

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(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Oceanography

About Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT):

It is analysed by measuring the ocean thermal energy between January and March,
and it is more accurate than SST at forecasting the Indian summer monsoon.
Unlike SST, OMT was able to accurately predict whether the summer monsoon
rainfall was greater than or less than the long-term average in 20 of 25 years (80%
success rate).
The reason why OMT performs better than SST is because OMT better represents
the upper ocean thermal energy And the variations in the upper ocean thermal
energy conditions are mainly responsible for the summer monsoon

Statement 1 is incorrect: OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm at depths

varying from 50-100 meters not 129 meters

Statement 2 is correct: OMC is analyzed by measuring the ocean thermal energy during
the January-March period – can better predict Indian summer monsoon than the SST.

Question 3

Consider the following minerals:

1. Bentonite
2. Chromite
3. Kyanite
4. Sillimanite

In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Major Minerals in India

Chromite, Kyanite and Sillimanite are metallic minerals and metallic minerals
mostly come in the major mineral category. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) that
is 2, 3 and 4 only.
Major minerals: Major minerals are those specified in the Mines and Minerals
(Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. Major minerals include: Lignite, Chromite,
Uranium, Kyanite, Coal, Gold, Iron ore, Lead-Zinc, Magnesium, Sillimanite,
Tungsten, and Diamond etc.
Minor minerals: Here are few minerals that the Central Government has declared
as minor minerals: boulder, sand, shingle, chalcedony pebbles, lime shell, kankar
and limestone, brick-earth, fuller’s earth, bentonite, road metal, slate, marble, stone
used for making household utensils, quartzite and sandstone, saltpetre and ordinary
earth.

Question 4

“The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to It requires at least

210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well-
drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the
crop.”

Which one of the following is that crop?

(a) Cotton

(b) Jute

(c) Sugarcane

(d) Tea

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Major Crop

Cotton:

Temperature: Between 21-30°C

Rainfall: Around 50-100 cm.
Soil Type: Well drained black cotton soil of Deccan Plateau.

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 Top Cotton Producing States: Gujarat > Maharashtra > Telangana > Andhra
Pradesh > Rajasthan.
It is believed that the cotton plant originated in India. One of the primary raw
materials used in the cotton textile business is cotton.
Cotton needs 210 frost-free days and bright sun-shine for its growth.
It is a kharif crop and requires 6 to 8 months to mature.
The government of India has launched the Silver Fibre Revolution and Technology
Mission on Cotton programmes to increase cotton production.
For protection against pest attacks and environmental stress, cotton has been
genetically altered into BT Cotton.

NOTE: Learn to pick keywords/keyphrases from these long sentences to reach the
correct answer. Here the keywords are – ‘subtropical’; ‘210 frost-free days’; ‘50 to 100
centimeters of rainfall’; ‘well- drained soil’. These keywords/keyphrases are enough to
mark the correct answer. Also, this underlines the importance of reading NCERTs. UPSC
asks questions on various crop/crops and their characteristics every alternate year. It is
advisable to read India People and Economy class XII NCERT thoroughly.

Question 5

Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin?

1. Nagarhole National park

2. Papikonda National Park
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Major Places and Rivers/Map based

Option 1 is correct: The Nagarahole River flows through the park, which joins the
Kabini River which also is a boundary between Nagarahole and Bandipur National Park.
Kabini, a tributary of the Cauvery River, is the largest river draining the park.

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Option 2 is incorrect: The Papikonda park lies on the left and right banks of the river
Godavari and cuts through the Papikonda hill range of Eastern Ghats.

Option 3 is correct: Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) is located at the

confluence region of Western and Eastern Ghats, in the Erode district of the state of
Tamil Nadu. In the northern part of Erode district, the Palar river flows and drains into the
Cauvery river.

Option 4 is correct: Kabini river, a tributary of the Cauvery river flows through the
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.

Question 6

Siachen Glacier is situated to the:

(a) East of Aksai Chin

(b) East of Leh

(c) North of Gilgit

(d) North of Nubra Valley

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Map based

The Siachen Glacier is situated to the North of the Nubra Valley.

About Siachen Glacier:

Siachen Glacier is located in the eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas at about
421226°N 77.109540°E, just northeast of the point NJ9842 where the Line of Control
between India and Pakistan ends. The 75 km long Siachen Glacier in the north of Nubra
valley has the distinction of being the largest glacier outside the polar and the subpolar
regions. It is also the world’s highest battlefield.

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 NOTE: Siachen Glacier was in the news. This is purely a map based question and
anyone with a little bit of knowledge can easily solve this question. Observing the map
carefully, East of Aksai Chin is China Administered Tibet, while Leh is situated South
of Siachen, and Gilgit is on the western side of Siachen.

Question 7

Consider the following pairs:

River Flow into

1. Mekong Andaman Sea

2. Thames Irish Sea

3. Volga Caspian Sea

4. Zambezi Indian Ocean

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Map based

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Mekong River originates in the icy headwaters of the
Tibetan highlands. It flows through the steep canyons of China, known as the upper
basin, through lower basin countries Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, and Cambodia, before
fanning an expansive delta in Vietnam and emptying into the South China Sea.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is the longest river in England, flowing 215 miles from the
Cotswolds to the North Sea. The main tributaries of Thames are Buscot, Reading, and
Kingston.

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Statement 3 is correct: The Volga River, the longest river in Europe, runs through
Russia with its delta flowing into the Caspian Sea just south of the Kazakhstan border.

Statement 4 is correct: The Zambezi is the fourth-largest river after the Congo/Zaire,
Nile and Niger in Africa. It rises in the Kalene hills in north-western Zambia and flows
eastwards for about 3000 km to the Indian Ocean.

Question 8

With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements:

1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crops.

2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse
3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased the
production of rabi pulses has decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Major crops

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Statement 1 is correct: In India, the important pulse crops grown in winter (rabi) are
chickpea, lentil, lathyrus, field pea and kidney bean. However, green gram, black gram
and cowpea are grown in both spring and rainy season.

Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics

(DES), the share of pulse production in 2018- 19 was comprised of Tur (15.34%), Gram
(43.29%), Moong (green gram,10.04%), Urad (black gram, 13.93%), Lentil (6.67%), and
Other Pulses (10%).

Statement 3 is incorrect: In the last three decades, both, the production of kharif pulses
and the production of rabi pulses have increased.

2019

Question 1

On 21st June, the Sun:

(a) Does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

(b) Does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

(c) Shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

(D) Shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Motion of Earth

Option (a) is correct: Areas near the poles receive less heat as the rays of the sun are
slanting.The North Pole is inclined towards the sun and the places beyond the Arctic
Circle experience continuous daylight for about six months.

Summer Solstice (21st June):

The Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards the sun and the rays of the sun fall
directly on the Tropic of Cancer hence the areas receive more heat.

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Revolution of the Earth and Seasons

Since a large portion of the Northern Hemisphere is getting light from the sun, it is
summer in the regions north of the equator. The longest day and the shortest night
at these places occur on 21st June.
Southern Hemisphere: All these conditions are reversed (winter season- longer
nights)

Question 2

Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.

(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radition.

(c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperatures on cloudy nights.

(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Dew Formation/Water in Atmosphere

Option (b) is correct: The dew drops are not formed on a cloudy night because the
Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.

Cloud cover prevents radiation from earth surfaces from escaping during cloudy
nights. It maintains a high air temperature. Additionally, the moisture won’t
condense and turn into dew drops on the grass and leaves. Dew is formed when
the air temperature touches the dew point.

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 Dew point is the temperature at which air becomes saturated with water vapor,
causing condensation to form. It is the temperature at which the air would need to
be cooled in order for the relative humidity to reach 100%.

Question 3

With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the

following statements:

1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.

2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but
the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie
with the Central government.
3. The State Government has the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of
minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Minor Minerals in india

Statement 1 is correct: Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the
country.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Any mineral which by the notification of the Central

Government may declare to be a minor mineral.

Statement 3 is correct: The State Government may, by notification in the Official

Gazette, make rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases or other
mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected there with.

Question 4

With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in which in the last five years,
consider the following statements:

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 1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Major Crops

Statement 1 is correct: The area under rice cultivation in India, in 2013-14 was 44.13
million hectares while in 2015-16, it became 43.39 million hectares and is highest
amongst all.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The annual area under Jowar ranges between 17 and 18
million hectares while the oilseed area is 28 million hectares (2013-14), 26.1 million
hectares (2015-16) i.e area under the cultivation of Jowar is less than that of oilseeds.

Statement 3 is correct: The area under sugarcane cultivation is 4.99 million hectares
(2013-14), 5.066 million hectares (2014-15), 4.953 million hectares (2015-16). The area
under cotton cultivation is 11.96 million hectares (2013-14), 12.81 million hectares (2014-
15), and 11.87 million hectares (2015-16). Hence the area under cotton cultivation is more
than sugar cultivation.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The area under sugarcane cultivation has not steadily
decreased.

Question 5

What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits

(b) Tropical rain forests

(c) Underground cave systems

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(d) Water reservoirs

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Current Affairs

Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati are the names which have water reservoirs common to the
people.

About Water Reservoirs:

In Tamil Nadu’s Coimbatore district, the Aliyar reservoir is a body of water near
Pollachi town.
In the Maharashtra district of Hingoli, there is an earth-fill dam called the Isapur
Dam on the Penganga River.
As a part of the Indian Second Five-Year Plan, the Kangsabati Reservoir Project
was launched in 1956 to provide water to the districts of Midnapur, Bankura, and It
involves irrigation of land using water from the Kangsabati River, as well as the
Shilabati and the Bhoirobbanki rivers.

Question 6

Consider the following pairs:

Famous Place River

1. Pandharpur Chandrabhaga

2. Tiruchirappalli Cauvery

3. Hampi Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: a

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Sub-Theme: Famous places of India

Pair 1 is correct: Pandharpur city is on the banks of Chandrabhaga River in

Maharashtra. The famous Lord Vitthal-Rukmini Mandir is located in this city.

Pair 2 is correct: Tiruchirappalli is an Indian city of Tamil Nadu on the banks of river
Cauvery. The famous Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple is located in Tiruchirappalli.

Pair 3 is incorrect: Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagara kingdom and is located on
the bank of the Tungabhadra River in present state of Karnataka. Many famous temples
like Virupaksha Temple, Nandi Statue etc are located in Hampi. Pattadakal or Pattadakal
is situated on the banks of the river Malaprabha and is located in Karnataka.

Question 7

Consider the following pairs:

Sea Bordering Country

1. Adriatic Sea Albania

2. Black Sea Croatia

3. Caspian Sea Kazakhstan

4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco

5. Red Sea airyS

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: World Map

Pair 1 is correct: The Adriatic Sea is a body of water separating the Italian Peninsula
from the Balkan peninsula. The countries with coasts on the Adriatic sea: Albania,
Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Italy, Montenegro and Slovenia. Mnemonic: ISC-MBA

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(Italia, Slovenia, Croatia, Montenegro, Bosnia, Albania).

Pair 2 is incorrect: Black Sea is a large inland sea situated at the southeastern
extremity of Europe. It is bordered by Ukraine to the north, Russia to the northeast,
Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania to the west. Black
Sea is not bordered by Croatia. Mnemonic: Tea & BURGeR (Turkey, Bulgaria, Ukraine,
Russia, Georgia, Romania).

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Pair 3 is correct: Caspian Sea is the world’s largest inland body of water, variously
classed as the world’s largest lake or a full-fledged sea. It is an endorheic basin (a basin
without outflows) located between Europe and Asia. It is bounded by Kazakhstan to the
northeast, Russia to the northwest, Azerbaijan to the west, Iran to the south, and
Turkmenistan to the southeast. Mnemonic: TARIK (Turkmenistan, Azerbaijan, Russia,
Iran, Kazakhstan).

Pair 4 is correct: The Mediterranean Sea is an intercontinental sea that stretches from
the Atlantic Ocean on the west to Asia on the east and separates Europe from Africa. The
countries surrounding the Mediterranean in clockwise order: Spain, France,
Monaco, Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, Greece,
Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, and Morocco.

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Pair 5 is incorrect: Red Sea is a narrow strip of water extending south-eastward from
Suez, Egypt, for about 1,930 km to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait, which connects with the
Gulf of Aden and thence with the Arabian Sea. The six countries bordering the Red
Sea: Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea and Djibouti. The Red Sea is not
bordered by Syria. Mnemonic: DESSEY (Djibouti, Eritrea, Saudi Arabia, Sudan, Egypt,
Yemen).

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2018

Question 1

Consider the following statements

1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical.

2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of
Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.

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 3. Coral reefs host far more animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Coral reef distribution

Coral reefs are underwater ecosystems formed by colonies of tiny animals

called coral polyps. These animals secrete a hard, calcium carbonate
exoskeleton that provides a foundation for the growth of other corals and a
diverse array of marine organisms. Coral reefs are found in tropical and
subtropical waters around the world, particularly in the Pacific Ocean, the
Indian Ocean, and the Caribbean Sea.

Statement 1 is correct: The majority of reef- building corals are found within tropical and
subtropical waters. These typically occur between 30° north and 30° south latitudes.

Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD): Neutral Phase

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Statement 2 is correct: The Indonesian/ Philippines archipelago, Great Barrier Reef of
Australia, the Red Sea, and the Caribbean has the world’s greatest concentration of
reefs and the greatest coral diversity.

Statement 3 is correct: Some scientists estimate that more than 25,000 described
species from thirty-two of the world’s thirty-three animal phyla live in reef habitats four
times the number of animal phyla found in tropical rainforests.

Question 2

Consider the following statements:

1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Mines and Mineral/Mineral Rules

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the MMDR Amendment Act 2015, the state
governments will conduct auctions for grant of mineral concessions. The role of the
central government is to prescribe the terms and conditions and procedures subject to
which the auction shall be conducted.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Largest gold ore (primary) are located in Bihar (44%) followed
by Rajasthan (25%) and Karnataka (21%), West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh (3% each).

Statement 3 is correct: Hematite and magnetite are the most important iron ores in India
and resources of hematite are spread in Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Maharashtra,
Madhya Pradesh, Meghalaya, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 3

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Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)

(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Important Lakes of India

About Kodaikanal Lake:

Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake (artificial)

located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India.
The lake was built in 1863, in the middle of Kodaikanal town, which was established
by the British and early American missionaries. Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then
Collector of Madurai, had a key role in its
The lake is star-shaped, centrally located in the town of Kodaikanal and is
surrounded by lush green hills of the northwestern Palani Hills range, which is the
main watershed for the lake.

Question 4

Consider the following statements:

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in Indian territory.

2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained
inactive since then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3

Explanation

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Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Physiography of India

Statement 1 is correct: Barren Island Volcano is a part of Indian Union Territory of

Andaman and Nicobar islands is an active volcano in South Asia (along a chain of
volcanoes from Sumatra to Myanmar).

Statement 2 is incorrect: Barren Island is located in Andaman Sea, about 140 km

northeast of Port Blair.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The last time the volcanic eruptions were reported and linked
to 28 September 2018 earthquakes in Sulawesi, Indonesia.

NOTE: In 2015 UPSC has asked a question on Andaman & Nicobar Island, so for
detailed information on A&N Islands please refer to the 2015 PYQ.

Question 5

Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/ dried up the recent past due to
human activities?

1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: World Map/Environment and Ecology

About Aral Sea:

The Aral Sea, a salt lake in Central Asia, was previously the fourth-largest salt lake
in the world..
Drainage basin: Kyrgyzstan, Turkmenistan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Pakistan,
Afghanistan, and Kazakhstan.

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 The Aral Sea started to shrink in the 1960s as a result of the Soviet Union starting
to divert water for agricultural use.
According to NASA, water diversion for agricultural purposes in the region has
caused the Aral Sea to lose nearly 75% of its original size during the past 50 years.
The Aral Sea’s depth has similarly dropped, going from 68 metres in the 1960s to
less than 10 meters now.

Question 6

Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

(a) Bengaluru

(b) Hyderabad

(c) Nagpur

(d) Pune

Explanation

Longitude of Indian Cities

The longitude of Delhi is 77.216721°E

The longitude of Bangalore is 77.59450 E.
The longitude of Nagpur is 79.0888° E.
The longitude of Pune is 73.8474” E.

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 NOTE: Map Practicing will not only help you to answer such questions but also it will
help you to fetch some extra marks in UPSC Mains as well.

Question 7

Consider the following pairs:

Regions sometimes mentioned in news Country

1. Catalonia Spain

2. Crimea Hungary

3. Mindanao Philippines

4. Oromia Nigeria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

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(d) 2 and 4 only

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Places was in News

Pair 1 is correct: Catalonia is located in Spain bordered by France and Andorra in the
north, the Mediterranean Sea to the east, the autonomous community of Valencia to the
south, and the autonomous community of Aragon to the west.

Pair 2 is incorrect: The Republic of Crimea, officially part of Ukraine, lies on a peninsula
stretching from the south of Ukraine between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov. It is
separated from Russia by the narrow Kerch Strait.

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Pair 3 is correct: Mindanao is an island located in the Philippines. It is surrounded by
the Bohol, Philippine, Celebes, and Sulu seas.

Pair 4 is incorrect: Oromia is a regional state of Ethiopia. Also, it is to be remembered

that Ethiopia is a landlocked country located in Eastern Africa.

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Question 8

Consider the following pairs:

Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country

1. Aleppo Syria

2. Kirkuk Yemen

3. Mosul Palestine

4. Mazar-i-sharif Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Places in News

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Name of Cities and Countries:

Aleppo is in Syria
Kirkuk is in Iraq.
Mosul in Iraq
Mazar-i-sharif is in Afghanistan, Kabul (Capital of Afghanistan)

2017

Question 1

With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news
while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are
correct?

1. The IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature

between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Indian Ocean Dipole

Statement 1 is incorrect: IOD is the difference in sea surface temperature between

two poles or areas i.e. an eastern pole in the eastern Indian Ocean south of
Indonesia, and a western pole in the Arabian Sea (western Indian Ocean).

Statement 2 is correct: Negative IOD events are often associated with La Nina and
positive IOD events with El Nino.

Question 2

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At one of the place in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, ‘you
will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes
back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the seafloor when the
water recedes.’ This unique phenomenon is seen at

(a)Bhavnagar

(b) Bheemunipatnam

(c) Chandipur

(d) Nagapattinam

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Basic Trivia

About Chandipur Sea Beach:

A unique phenomenon rarely seen anywhere else, the sea recedes by as much as
five kilometres every day on the Chandipur beach in eastern India.
The sea recedes massively from the beach during ebb and returns to fill the
emptiness during high tide.
This hide-and-seek of the sea comes to play twice a day and seeing the sea
disappear and then return is an unforgettable experience. Thus it is also called the
‘hide-and-seek’ beach.
Chandipur also has the DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organization)
Integrated Research Range. In this range ballistic missiles are test-fired.

Question 3

With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through
Sikkim.

2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.

3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

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(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Himalayan River/Drainage

Statement 1 is incorrect: Teesta originates in the Himalayas near Chunthang, Sikkim

and flows to the south through West Bengal before entering Bangladesh.

Statement 2 is correct: River Rangeet originates in Sikkim, which is the largest river of
Sikkim and also a tributary of river Teesta.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Originally, the river continued southward to empty directly into
the Padma River (the main channel of Ganga in Bangladesh) but around 1787 the river
changed its course to flow eastward to join the Jamuna river.

Question 4

Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: World Map

Mediterranean Sea Bordering countries:

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 The countries bordering the Mediterranean Sea are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and
Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon,
Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia,
and Turkey.

Question 5

Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

(a) Sumatra

(b) Borneo

(c) Java

(d) Sri Lanka

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Indian Ocean Region

About Great Nicobar:

Great Nicobar lies on the south of the Nicobar Islands of India and it is the largest
island of the Nicobar South of Great Nicobar is the island of Sumatra.
Great Nicobar is closest to The distance between the two places is 1,192 kms.
The distance from Great Nicobar to Borneo is 2,398 kms.
The distance from Great Nicobar to Java stands at 1,817 kms.

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Question 6

If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of
States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the
destination?

(a) 6

(b) 7

(c) 8

(d) 9

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: India Map

If travelling by road from Kohima to Kottayam, you need to cross Kohima the
capital of Nagaland (origin), Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra
Pradesh and then through either Tamil Nadu to Kerala (Kottayam-
destination), or through AP to Karnataka to Kerala (Kottayam-
destination). So the minimum number of States within India through which
you can travel, including the origin and the destination is seven (7).

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Question 7

Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five states only.

2. Western Ghats are spread over five states
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: India Map

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Statement 1 is incorrect: The Himalayas is spread across 12 Indian States: Jammu &
Kashmir, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya,
Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, two districts of Assam namely Dima Hasao and
Karbi Anglong and Darjeeling and Kalimpong in West Bengal).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Western Ghats are spread over six states namely Kerala,
Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Statement 3 is correct: Pulicat Lake is the second largest brackish water lake in India
and spreads over the two states namely Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Large varieties
of birds, including painted storks and Grey pelicans, frequent the area every year. Grey
Pelican and Painted Stork both are near-threatened species under IUCN Red List of
Threatened Species.

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2016

Question 1

Consider the following pairs:

Famous Place Region

1. Bodhgaya Baghelkhand

2. Khajuraho Bundelkhand

3. Shirdi Vidarbha

4. Nasik (Nashik) Malwa

5. Tirupati Rayalaseema

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 2 and 5 only

(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Religious Places

Pair 1 is incorrect: Bodh Gaya is a holy landmark and pilgrimage destination linked with
the Mahabodhi Temple Complex in Gaya, Bihar, India. It is one of the four main
pilgrimage sites related with the life of Gautama Buddha, the other three are Kushinagar,
Lumbini, Sarnath. In 2002, UNESCO declared the Mahabodhi Temple in Bodh Gaya a
World Heritage Site.

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Pair 2 is correct: The Khajuraho Temples in Madhya Pradesh’s Bundelkhand region
are some of the most exquisite examples of medieval architecture in the world. It was
built by the Chandela Dynasty between 950 and 1050 AD. There are Hindu and Jain
temples among the monuments. In 1986, UNESCO designated these temples as World
Heritage Sites. The temples are renowned for the symbolic architecture in the Nagara
style. Initially reported in 1022 AD by Abu Raihan al Biruni and in AD 1335 by Ibn
Battuta.

Pair 3 is incorrect: Shirdi is a city located in the Rahata taluka of Ahmednagar

District, Maharashtra. According to legend, Sai Baba arrived in Shirdi in 1872 and
remained there until his death on October 15, 1918.

Pair 4 is incorrect: Nashik is situated on the banks of river Godavari in the northwest
region of Maharashtra and is famous for Kumbh Mela, which is held every 12 years.

Pair 5 is correct: Tirupati is a city situated in the Rayalaseema region of the Chittoor
district of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. Shri Venkateswara Temple is well-known
for being a Hindu temple.

Question 2

Which of the following is/are tributary/ tributaries of Brahmaputra?

1. Dibang
2. Kameng
3. Lohit

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Himalayan Drainage System/ Brahmaputra

Option 1 and 3 are correct: Dhansiri, Dibang and Lohit are the left bank tributaries of
Brahmaputra River.

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Option 2 is correct: Kameng is a right bank tributary of Brahmaputra River. Other
major right bank tributaries of Brahmaputra are Subansiri, Manas, Sankosh.

Question 3

In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?

1. Cambay Basin
2. Cauvery Basin
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Resource/Map

About Shale Gas in India:

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 The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MOPNG) has identified six basins as
potentially shale gas bearing.

These are: Cambay, Assam-Arakan, Gondwana, Krishna-Godavari Basin, Cauvery

Basin and the Indo Gangetic
Fine-grained sedimentary rocks called shale are potential rich sources of natural
gas and
Shale rocks are typically found next to ‘aquifers’, or rocks that contain usable/
drinking water.
Shale gas is trapped under low permeable

2015

Question 1

In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes,

cyclone does not What is the reason?

(a) Sea surface temperatures are low

(b) Inter-tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs

(c) Coriolis force is too weak

(d) Absence of land in those regions

Explanation

Ans: b

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Sub-Theme: Wind Movement

Option (b) is correct: The absence of cyclones can be demonstrated by the seldom
occurance of ITCZ Convergence zone in the south east Pacific and south Atlantic
regions. Due to this there is no creation of ideal conditions for Tropical Cyclone, for e.g.
instead of low, there is high vertical wind sheer.

Cyclone:

A cyclone is a weather phenomenon characterized by a low-pressure center

surrounded by a rotating system of winds that spiral inward.

Classification of Cyclone:

Tropical Cyclone
Extra tropical cyclone also called

Temperate cyclone

Factors Responsible for for Tropical Cyclone Formation:

Warm Ocean Water: Cyclones form over warm ocean water, typically with
temperatures of 26 degrees Celsius or higher. This warm water provides the energy
that fuels the storm.
Low Atmospheric Pressure: Cyclones form in areas where the atmospheric
pressure is low. This creates an area of low pressure that draws in warm, moist air
from the surrounding environment.
Coriolis Effect: The Coriolis effect is a phenomenon caused by the rotation of the
Earth. It causes air to be deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to
the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This effect is what causes cyclones to spin in a
clockwise direction in the Southern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in the
Northern Hemisphere.
Humidity: Cyclones require a high level of humidity in order to form. This is
because the warm, moist air that is drawn into the low-pressure center of the storm
helps to fuel its growth and intensity.

Question 2

Consider the following statements:

1. The winds which blow between 30 N and 60 S latitudes throughout the year are known
as westerlies.

2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part
of westerlies

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Wind Movement/Indian Monsoon Option (b) is correct: Generally the

westerlies flow between 30° and 60°N and 30° and 60°S

latitude respectively. The moist air masses that

cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies which are also
known as winter disturbances.

Westerlies:

The westerlies are the winds blowing from the subtropical high pressure belts
towards the sub polar low pressure belts.
The Westerlies play an important role in carrying the warm, equatorial waters and
winds to the western coasts of continents that is the eastern section of the Oceans
in the temperate zone.

Note: In this question, the examiner made a simple but difficult to observe change in
latitudes i.e “30 N and 60 S latitudes” to make the statement incorrect. Always read
questions carefully and cautiously. Although we read incorrect statements in the exam
hall, our mind correlates it to what we have read in the textbook/standard book, making
it difficult to identify minor twists and twicks. Earlier, UPSC had asked questions on
westerlies in 2011. Revising PYQ and doing peripheral research is always important
from prelims perspective.

Question 3

“Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea
breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then
rain comes with thunder and lightning. But the rain is soon over.”

Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?

(a) Savannah

(b) Equatorial

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(c) Monsoon

(d) Mediterranean

Explanation

Ans: (b)

Sub-Theme: Biomes/World Climate

Option (b) is correct: The above sentence indicates the characteristics of the
Equatorial region.

Equatorial Climate:

Equatorial climate is typically hot and humid, with little seasonal variation in
temperature. These regions are located near the equator, including parts of South
America, Africa, and Asia. Precipitation is high and frequent throughout the
year, with some areas receiving over 100 inches (250 cm) annually.These regions
are also prone to tropical storms and cyclones, especially in coastal areas,
which can cause significant damage to infrastructure and
Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea
breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then
rain comes with thunder and lightning. But the rain is soon over.

NOTE: Again a direct question came from GC Leong. Also please learn to identify
keywords/keyphrases, anyone with a decent reading of NCERTs and GC Leong could
easily answer this question. Questions on Equatorial climate have been repeated in
2013, therefore for detailed explanation on Equatorial Biomes please refer to
respective PYQs.

Question 4

What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter current?

(a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis

(b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents

(c) Difference in salinity of water

(d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator

Explanation

Ans: b

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Sub-Theme: Equatorial Counter Currents

Option (a) is incorrect: As the earth rotates from west to east, water near the equator
tends to move from east to west (due to the prevailing winds). This leads to the formation
of Equatorial currents, both North and South of the equator.

Option (b) is correct: Piling up of water in the western pacific due to the convergence of
the North Equatorial Current and South Equatorial Current. This piled up water then flows
from west to east, under the effect of gravity, resulting in Counter Equatorial Current
(CEC).

Option (c) is incorrect: Difference in salinity of water greatly influences vertical currents
and its influence on horizontal movement is less significant.

Option (d) is incorrect: The Doldrums/ Equatorial belt around the Equator are zones of
very calm winds, it has little effect on eastward flow of equatorial counter current.

Question 5

Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the following?

1. Gravitational force of the Sun

2. Gravitational force of the Moon
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Formation of Tides

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 Tides: The “tide” refers to the daily or twice- daily cyclic rise and fall of the sea level,
which is primarily caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and the sun. Due to
the significant fluctuations in frequency, size, and height of tides, studying them
requires a tremendous deal of geographical and temporal complexity.
Tides occur due to a balance between all these forces such as Gravitational force
of the Sun; Gravitational force of the Moon and Centrifugal force of the Earth.

Question 6

In India, the steel production industry requires the import of:

(a) Saltpetre

(b) Rock phosphate

(c) Coking coal

(d) All of the above

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Industry

Option (a) is incorrect: Saltpetre (Potassium nitrate) is not used in the production of
Steel. It is used in the production of fertilizers, tree stump removal, rocket propellants and
fireworks.

Option (b) is incorrect: Rock phosphate is used in the production of fertilizer and not
for the production of Steel.

Option (c) is correct: The production of steel requires 0.8 tonnes of coking coal to
produce one tonne of Steel. And about 85% of the coking coal requirement of the
domestic steel industry is presently being met through imports.

Question 7

In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree
species?

(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest

(b) Tropical rainforest

(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest

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(d) Temperate forest with Grasslands

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Natural Vegetation of India About Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest:

Climatic Conditions:

Annual rainfall 100 to 200 cm.

Mean annual temperature of about 27°C
The average annual relative humidity of 60 to 75 per cent.
Spring (between winter and summer) and summer are dry.

Characteristics:

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 In the spring and early summer, when there is insufficient rainfall, trees lose
their
Extreme summers leave everything in a state of bareness (April-May).
Tropical moist deciduous forests have an irregular top storey that ranges from
25 to 60 meters.

Question 8

Consider the following rivers:

1. Vamsadhara
2. Indravati
3. Pranahita
4. Pennar

Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Peninsular Drainage/River

About River Godavari:

The Godavari is India’s second longest and third-biggest river, after the Ganga.
Through a vast network of tributaries, the river eventually drains into the Bay of
The Godavari is the greatest river in peninsular India in terms of length, catchment
area, and flow, and has been nicknamed the Dakshina Ganga, or “Southern ”
Indravati and Pranhita are the tributaries of Godavari.

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Additional Information:

River Vamsadhara is an important east- flowing river between Rushikulya and

Godavari, in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. It is not a tributary of Godavari.
The Pennar rises in the Chennakesava hill of the Nandidurga range, in
Chikkaballapura district of Karnataka and flows towards east eventually draining
into the Bay of Bengal.

Question 9

In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living trees into
robust bridges across the As the time passes, these bridges become stronger.
These unique ‘living root bridges’ are found in

(a) Meghalaya

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Jharkhand

(d) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Living Root Bridges

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Living root bridges also known as Jing Kieng Jri are found in Meghalaya are the aerial
bridges that are built by weaving and manipulating the roots of the Indian rubber tree.

About Living Root Bridges:

In Meghalaya, one can find living root bridges. The aerial bridges, also referred to
as Jing Kieng Jri, are constructed by tying and shaping the roots of Indian rubber
A living root bridge resembling a suspension bridge created by guiding the rubber
fig tree’s (Ficus elastica) flexible roots across a stream or river and allowing them to
develop and become stronger.

Question 10

Consider the following States:

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram

In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Natural Vegetation of India

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Option 1 and 3 are correct: In India, tropical wet evergreen forests are found on the
eastern and western slopes of the Western Ghats in such states like Tamil Nadu,
Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra. And also found in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh,
Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram, West Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar
Islands.

Option 2 is incorrect: Himachal Pradesh comes under the Montane type of forest.

Question 11

Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest,
evergreen forest and deciduous forest?

(a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh

(b) South-West Bengal

(c) Southern Saurashtra

(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Natural vegetation of India

About Andaman and Nicobar Islands:

The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a tropical rainforest canopy. The Middle
Andamans harbours mostly moist deciduous forests. North

Andamans is characterised by the wet evergreen type, with plenty of woody climbers.
Also The coastal regions have mangrove forests.

Question 12

Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and
westernmost State?

(a) Assam and Rajasthan

(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan

(c) Assam and Gujarat

(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

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Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Basic Understanding of Indian map

Most Points of India:

Guhar Moti is the westernmost point of India. It is a small village located in the
Kutch district of Gujarat.
The northernmost point of India is located in the eastern Karakoram range in the
Himalayas, near Indira Col, Siachen
The easternmost point is Kibithu in Arunachal Pradesh.
Indira Point in Great Nicobar Island is the southernmost point.

Question 13

Consider the following pairs:

Place of Pilgrimage Location

1. Srisailam Nallamala Hills

2. Omakareshwar Satmala Hills

3. Pushkar Mahadeo Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: a

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Sub-Theme: Famous pilgrim places of India

Pair 1 is correct: Srisailam is the shrine of Lord Mallikarjuna on the flat top of Nallamala
Hills in Andhra Pradesh.The temple is dedicated to the deities Shiva and Parvati. This
temple is one of Lord Shiva’s twelve Jyotirlingas and one of Goddess Parvati’s eighteen
Shakti Peethas. The lingam is a representation of Shiva, who is worshiped as
Mallikarjuna. Bhramaramba is a representation of Parvati.

Pair 2 is incorrect: Omkareshwar is situated on the Mandhata hills in Madhya Pradesh

(ancient name: Shivpuri). The name “Omkareshwar” comes from the way the River
Narmada flows here as it circles the Mandhata hill in the shape of a “Om.” Omkareshwar
is a Hindu temple where the god Shiva is worshiped. It is one of Shiva’s 12 cherished
Jyotirlinga shrines.

Pair 3 is incorrect: The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of
central India. Whereas, Pushkar is situated on the shore of Pushkar Lake in Ajmer,
Rajasthan. It is famous for the red spired Brahma Temple.

Question 14

Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the
Mediterranean Sea?

(a) Syria

(b) Jordan

(c) Lebanon

(d) Israel

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Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: World Map

Correct answer is Option (b): Jordan is a landlocked country and doesn’t have any
opening into the Mediterranean Sea.

NOTE: In terms of world map, UPSC absolutely loves this region and there are many
instances that they have asked questions from this region. Also, This region also very
much remains in the news. Therefore, reading newspapers and practicing maps is very
important for UPSC.

2014

Question 1

The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of

(a) Equatorial climate

(b) Mediterranean climate

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(c) Monsoon climate

(d) All of the above climates

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Biomes/World Climate The Monsoon Climate (Am):

The monsoon climate is a type of weather where it rains a lot.

It’s found in India, South-east Africa, Northern Australia, the Guinea Coast of
West Africa and the Pacific Coast of Columbia.
The seasonal reversal of wind along with alternating intervals of rainfall and
drought define the monsoon climate.
Due to variances in yearly temperature fluctuations between continents and
oceans, the monsoonal circulation system with reversal of wind direction
emerges.(c) Sub-Theme: Biomes/World Climate The Monsoon Climate (Am):

Question 2

Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of

organisms?

1. Continental drift
2. Glacial cycles

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

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Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Evolution vs Glacial cycle

Factors that might have influenced the Evolution of Organisms:

Continental Drift: The evolution must have been influenced by the movement of
some animals due to continental drift, while others must have become stranded in
one location. The distinctive primates found in Australia and South America are
among the most notable examples of how continental drift affected creature
evolution.
Glacial Cycles: The evolution of species may have been impacted by the increase
in sea level brought on by glacial melt.
The final stages of evolution of Genus Homo occurs in the last 3 glacial cycles.

Question 3

In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?

1. Terrace cultivation
2. Deforestation
3. Tropical climate

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Soil degradation

Soil erosion is the process by which soil is displaced and transported from one
location to another by natural forces such as wind or water. It is a natural process
that occurs over time, but human activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, and
construction can accelerate the process, leading to significant environmental
damage.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Terracing is the practice of creating nearly level areas in a

hillside area. protected from erosion by other soil barriers.

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Statement 2 is correct: Deforestation is one of the major reasons for soil erosion. It
includes cutting and felling of trees, removal of forest litter. Browsing and trampling by
livestock, forest fires, also leads to deforestation, etc.

Statement 3 is incorrect: In the tropical monsoon climate people are mainly engaged in
agriculture. Crops growing: rice, wheat, pulses, cotton, jute, sugarcane, oilseeds, coffee,
tea and various types of fruits and vegetables.

Question 4

Consider the following pairs:

Region Well-known for the production of

1. Kinnaur Areca nut

2. Mewat Mango

3. Coromandel Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Famous crop and places

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Kinnaur is mostly famous for apples. The production of
Areca nuts is mostly confined to Karnataka, Kerala and Assam.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The main occupation of Mewat is agriculture along with
allied and agro-based activities, it is not famous for mango. Major mango-growing states
are Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka,

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: In the Coromandel Coast, major cultivations are Rice,
pulses, sugarcane, cotton, peanuts, etc. Production of soybean in India is dominated by
Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh which contribute 89 percent of the total production.

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Question 5

Consider the following towns of India:

1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chanderi
3. Kancheepuram
4. Karnal

Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabric?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Traditional Saree/fabric

Option 1 and 4 are incorrect: Bhadrachalam and Karnal are not famous for the
production of traditional sarees/fabric.

Option 2 and 3 are correct: Chanderi sarees is a traditional sari made in Chanderi,
Madhya Pradesh, India. Kanjeevaram is a traditional sari from Kanchipuram, Tamil
Nadu, India, that is usually handwoven in mulberry silk and has pure gold or silver zari
that renders it a festive quality.

Question 6

If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following
plants are naturally growing there?

1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

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(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Natural Vegetation of India

Statement 1 is correct: Evergreen broad-leaf trees, such as oaks and chestnuts, belong
to wet temperate types of forests (1000 and 2000 metres).

Statement 2 is correct: Coniferous trees like Rhododendron, pine, deodar, silver fir,
spruce and cedar, are found in the temperate forests (1500 and 3000 metres).

Statement 3 is incorrect: Sandalwoods are found in tropical moist deciduous forests or

monsoon forests which are found in western ghats, Deccan plateau, northern plains.

NOTE: This is straight from Class 9 Geography NCERT Chapter 5. This underlines
the importance of reading NCERTs both for UPSC Pre and Mains perspective.

Question 7

With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following

statements:

1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand

2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Tribe of India

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Statement 1 is incorrect: The Changpa are a semi-nomadic people, they are mainly
found in the Changtang, a high plateau that stretches across the cold desert of Ladakh.

Statement 2 is correct: They are raised for ultra- fine cashmere wool, also known as
pashmina once woven.

Statement 3 is correct: In 1989, Changpas were declared as the Scheduled Tribes.

Question 8

Which of the following have coral reefs?

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Coral Reef

Coral reefs are underwater ecosystems formed by colonies of tiny animals called
coral polyps. These animals secrete a hard, calcium carbonate exoskeleton that
provides a foundation for the growth of other corals and a diverse array of marine
organisms. Coral reefs are found in tropical and subtropical waters around the world,
particularly in the Pacific Ocean, the Indian Ocean, and the Caribbean Sea.

Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Coral reefs in India are found in a lot of areas
including the Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Andaman & Nicobar and
Lakshadweep Islands.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Sundarban is the largest deltaic region of the world and
encompasses over hundreds of islands (105), with a maze of innumerable rivers, rivulets,
and creeks but does not have any coral reef.

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Question 9

Consider the following pairs:

National Highway Cities Connected

1. NH4 Chennai and Hyderabad

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 2. NH6 Mumbai and Kolkata

3. NH15 Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: National Highway/Map based

National Highway Cities Connected Length (km)

NH 4 Mayabunder to Port Blair- Chidiyatapu (Andaman) 230

NH 6 Jorabat (Meghalaya) – Selling (Mizoram) 1873

NH 15 Baihat (Assam) – Wakro (Arunachal Pradesh) 664

Question 10

Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the
‘Ten Degree Channel’?

(a) Andman and Nicobar

(b) Nicobar and Sumatra

(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep

(d) Sumatra and Java

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Andaman Map based

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The 10 degree channel is a water body that separates Andaman in the North and Nicobar
in the South. Both the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands together form the Indian
Union Territory (UT) of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Additional Information:

Nine Degree Channel separates the island of Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep
Eight Degree Channel separates the islands of Minicoy and Maldives.
Hudson strait separates the Gulf of Hudson & Atlantic Ocean.
Palk Strait separates Palk Bay & the Bay of
Duncan Passage separates Rutland Island (part of Great Andaman) and Little

Question 11

Consider the following pairs:

1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram

2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim

3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: c

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Sub-Theme: Major places of States

Statement 1 is correct: The Dampa tiger reserve is located in Mizoram. It is located in

the Lushai Hills and spans an area of around 500 km2 at an altitude of 800-1,100 m. It is
a component of Project Tiger and was designated a tiger reserve in 1994.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is a Wildlife Sanctuary in Tripura.

This sanctuary is the place for many animals like elephants, sambar, buffalo, yapping
deer, wild goats and numerous more. The sanctuary has become a haven for reptiles as
well.

Statement 3 is correct: Saramati peak rising above the surrounding peaks at the
mountainous border of Nagaland state, India. It is one of the ultra-prominent peaks of
Southeast Asia. It forms a natural boundary between India and Myanmar.

Question 12

Consider the following rivers:

1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Brahmaputra and its tributary

Statement 1 is incorrect: Barak river is one of the major rivers of South Assam. The
564 km long river is part of the Surma-Meghna River System. It rises in the Manipur
Hills in northern Manipur state, India, where it is called the Barak. The Barak River flows
through the states of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Assam in India and into the
Bay of Bengal.

Statement 2 is correct: Lohit River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River. It flows into
Arunachal Pradesh after starting from eastern Tibet’s Zayal Chu range.

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Statement 3 is correct: Both the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China and the Indian
states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh are traversed by the Subansiri River. It is the
biggest tributary of River Brahmaputra.

Question 13

Consider the following pairs:

Hills Region

1. Cardamom Hills Coromandel Coast

2. Kaimur Hills Konkan Coast

3. Mahadeo Hills Central India

4. Mikir Hills North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

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(c) 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Physiography of India/Map based

Pair 1 is incorrect: Cardamom Hills are located in Kerala and south-west Tamil Nadu.
It is situated on India’s southwest coast, whereas, the Coromandel coast is located in
Tamil Nadu’s eastern coastal plain

Pair 2 is incorrect: Kaimur Hills is in the eastern portion of the Vindhya Range, present
in Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

Pair 3 is correct: Mahadeo Hills are located in the northern part of the Satpura Range in
Madhya Pradesh state of central India.

Pair 4 is correct: Mikir Hills can be found in Assam, south of Kaziranga National Park. It
is a region of the Karbi- Plateau in northeastern India. The highest mountain in the Mikir
Hills is Dambuchko.

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Question 14

Turkey is located between:

(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea

(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea

(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea

(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: World Map

Option (b) is correct: Turkey is located between Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea.

About Geographic Boundary of Turkey:

Turkey is bordered on its northern side by the Black Sea, on its northeast by Georgia and
Armenia, on its east by Azerbaijan and Iran, on its southeast by Iraq and Syria, on its
southwest and western edges by the Mediterranean Sea and the Aegean Sea, and on its
northwest by Greece and Bulgaria.

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Question 15

What is the correct sequence of occurrences of the following cities in South-East

Asia as one proceeds from south to north?

1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 4-2-1-3

(b) 3-2-4-1

(c) 3-4-1-2

(d) 4-3-2-1

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Major cities/capital cities

The correct sequence of cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north
would be Jakarta > Singapore > Bangkok > Hanoi.

2013

Question 1

Variations in the length of daytime and night time from season to season are due
to:

(a) The earth’s rotation on its axis

(b) The earth’s revolution around the sun in an elliptical manner

(c) Latitudinal position of the place

(d) Revolution of the earth on a tilted axis

Explanation

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Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Motion of the Earth

Option (d) is correct: Variations in the length of daytime and night time from season to
season due to revolution of the earth on a tilted axis. Movement of the earth around the
sun in a fixed path or orbit.It takes 365¼ days (one year) to revolve around the sun.
As a result of the earth’s revolution, you can observe that there are days and nights as
well as seasonal fluctuations.

Question 2

Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/ characteristics of equatorial

forests?

1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2. Coexistence of a large number of species
3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Major Climate of the World

Statement 1 is correct: The tropical rain forest appears from above as a dense canopy
of greenery, only disturbed by huge rivers or areas cleared for farming.

Statement 2 is correct: The higher temperatures in the tropics cause higher rates of
metabolism, ecological dynamics and coevolutionary processes, which generate and
maintain higher biodiversity, which results in the coexistence of a large number of
species.

Statement 3 is correct: All plants (most epiphytes) strive upwards for sunshine, resulting
in an odd layer structure. Numerous evergreen trees that produce tropical hardwoods like
mahogany, ebony, dyewoods, etc. make up the equatorial vegetation.

Natural Vegetation:

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 High temperature and abundant rainfall support a luxuriant tropical rainforest.
In the Amazon lowlands, the forest is so dense that it is called ‘Selvas’.

Question 3

The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as

compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?

1. Thermal difference between land and water

2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Distribution of the temperature of Earth

Statement 1 is correct: One major factor affecting the distribution of the temperature of
Earth is the distribution of Land and Oceans. The loss of heat from the continents is
greater than that from the oceans because there is more land in the northern hemisphere
and more water in the southern hemisphere, and because the specific heat of land and
water differs greatly.

Statement 2 is not correct: The variation in altitude between continents and oceans is
not a valid reason for the high annual range of temperature in the interior of the
continent as compared to coastal areas. This is because as compared to oceans, the
lands heats up and cools down faster.

Statement 3 is not correct: Annual precipitation is usually low in the interior areas as
well as the presence of weak winds in the interior.

Statement 4 is not correct: The interiors in Central Asia receive very poor rainfall due to
distance from the sea.

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Question 5

“Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders.”

The above statement best describes which of the following regions?

(a) African Savannah

(b) Central Asian Steppe

(c) North American Prairie

(d) Siberian Tundra

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Biomes/World Climate

Steppe Climate or Temperate Continental Climate or Temperate Grassland Climate:

Temperature:

Continental climate with extreme

Temperatures vary greatly between summer and winter.

Precipitation:

The average rainfall is about 45 cm, but varies as per location from 25 cm to 75
cm.
The heaviest rain in June and July (late spring and early summer).

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Nomadic herding in Asian Steppes

The migratory animal grazing has almost disappeared from the major grasslands.
Earlier the nomadic herders were wandering tribes e.g. the Kirghiz, and the
Kazakhs

NOTE: Learn to pick keywords/keyphrases from the sentence. Here – ‘extreme

climate’; ‘scanty rainfall’; ‘nomadic herders’, etc. all these keywords resemble the
characteristics of the Central Asian Steppe region. Earlier UPSC had asked questions
about Tropical Savannah Region and equatorial climate in 2012 and 2013 respectively.
So preparing about various Biomes/World Climate and their significant features is
crucial.

Question 6

During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the:

1. Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky.

2. Lightning that separates the nimbus cloud.
3. Violent upward movement of air and water particles.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None of the above produces the thunder

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Wind Movement

Statement 1 is not correct: Thunder is the sound caused by a lightning discharge.

Lightning heats the air in its path and causes a large over- pressure of the air within its
channel. The channel expands supersonically into the surrounding air as a shock wave
and creates an acoustic signal that is heard as thunder.

Statement 2 is not correct: The thunderstorms are associated with the cumulonimbus
clouds not nimbus.

Statement 3 is not correct: The updraft and downdraft determine the path of the
thunderstorm.

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Additional Information:

Cumulonimbus clouds are tall and dense, and are often associated with
thunderstorms. They can extend up to 10 miles high in the atmosphere and are
characterized by a large, anvil-shaped top. Cumulonimbus clouds can produce
heavy rain, hail, lightning, and tornadoes.
On the other hand, Nimbus clouds are low-level clouds that typically produce light to
moderate rain or snow. They are often found in areas of stable atmospheric
conditions and are not typically associated with thunderstorms. Nimbus clouds can
appear as a uniform layer of gray or white clouds covering the sky.

Question 7

Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?

1. They are generally red in colour.

2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these Soils.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Soil Characteristics

Statement 1 is correct: Laterite soil is reddish- brown in colour due to the presence of
iron oxide.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Laterite soil is rich in bauxite or ferric oxide. Poor in lime,
magnesia, potash and nitrogen.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The laterite soils are commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala,
Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Orissa and Assam.

Statement 4 is correct: Suitable crops grown in laterite soil are Groundnut, cashew nut,
coffee, rubber, cinchona, arecanut, tapioca, etc.

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Question 8

Consider the following statements:

1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.

2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) None

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Gondwana System

Statement 1 is incorrect: Gondwana rocks contain nearly 98 per cent of India’s coal
reserves.

Statement 2 is correct: Koderma is a well-known place for mica production in

Jharkhand.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Dharwar system is economically the most important rocks
because they possess valuable minerals like high-grade iron-ore, manganese, copper etc
not petroleum.

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Question 9

Consider the following:

1. Electromagnetic radiation
2. Geothermal energy
3. Gravitational force
4. Plate movements
5. Rotation of the earth
6. Revolution of the earth

Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the
earth?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Dynamic Changes of The Earth

Factors of The Dynamic Changes of The Earth:

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 Electromagnetic Radiation: The radiation travels in waves and has electric and
magnetic It consists of X-rays, gamma rays, infrared light, visible light, ultraviolet
light, radio waves, and microwaves.
Geothermal Energy: The primary driving force behind endogenic geomorphic
processes is energy coming from within the ground. The primary sources of this
energy are radioactivity, friction caused by tidal and rotational motion, and primordial
heat from the earth’s formation.
Gravitational Force: In addition to being a directional force that activates all
downward motions of matter, gravity stresses the constituent parts of the earth. Eg:
Mass movement, Avalanche.
Plate Movements: Earthquakes and continent building are the results of plate
Rotation of the Earth: The unequal heating of the earth’s surface, which arises
from rotation about its axis, creates pressure differences and generates winds.
Revolution of the Earth: Earth rotates in an elliptical orbit around the sun. The
term “Aphelion” refers to the period when the distance between the sun and Earth is
at its greatest and “Perihelion” to the period when it is at its shortest.
Thus, all of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface
of the earth.

Question 10

Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in:

(a) Desert margins, liable to strong wind action

(b) Low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding

(c) Scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth

(d) None of the above

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Soil Conservation

Option (d) is correct: Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in Terrace
Farming.

Terracing and contour bunding which divide the hill slope into numerous small
slopes, check the flow of water, promote absorption of water by soil and save
soil from erosion.

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 Soil Conservation: Preventing soil erosion or diminished fertility due to excessive
use, acidification, salinization, or other chemical soil contamination is known as soil
conservation. The biggest single threat to Indian agriculture and animal husbandry
is soil erosion.
Contour Bunding: Construction of banks along contours is referred to as contour
bunding. In affluent areas, this technique for conserving soil and water is Some
other methods of soil conservation:Some other methods like Crop,Strip
cropping, No- till farming, Contour ploughing,Terrace farming.

Question 11

Which of the following adds nitrogen to the soil?

1. Excretion of urea by animals

2. Burning of coal by man
3. Death of vegetation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Soil Fertility

Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Animal waste like urea, uric acid and death of
vegetation add nitrogen in the form of nitrates directly into the soil.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Burning coal releases CO, CO2, sulphur dioxide and oxides of
nitrogen – air pollutants to the atmosphere.

Question 12

Which of the following is/are the characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal?

1. High ash content

2. Low sulphur content
3. Low ash fusion temperature

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Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Major Mineral

Option (a) is correct: The India Coal is mainly characterised by High Ash COntent and
Low Sulphur Content.

Coal is the most widely used fossil fuel in India. It meets a sizable portion of the
country’s energy requirements.
It is used to generate power, provide energy to industries, and meet domestic
demands.
Indian coals have a high ash level but a low sulphur content by nature.
Indian coal has a high ash fusion temperature of about 1,500°C.
In India, bituminous coal accounts for over 80% of the non-coking quality coal

Question 13

Consider the following crops

1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Rice
4. Wheat

Which of these are Kharif crops?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

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Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Major Crops

Option (c) is correct: Cotton, Groundnut and Rice are Kharif Crops in India.

About Kharif Crops:

Kharif crops are sown during June-July and harvested during September-October
period. Rice, maize, jowar, bajra, moong, tur, urad, jute, cotton, soybean,
groundnut, are the type of kharif crops.
Rice: Temperature-22-32 degree celsius, Rainfall-1500-300 cm, Soil-Deep clay and
loamy soil.
Cotton: Temperature 21-30 degree celsius, Rainfall 50-100 cm, Soil-well drained
light sandy loams, yellow and black soils.
Groundnut: Temperature-30-35 degree celsius, Rainfall-40-125 cm,Well drained
sandy loam soil

About Rabi Crops:

Rabi crop is sown during October- December month and harvested in April- June.
Wheat, barley, peas, gram, mustard etc are types of Rabi crops.
Wheat: Temperature 10-15 degree celsius, Rainfall 50-100 cm, Soil-well drained
fertile loamy soil.

Question 14

Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in
India?

(a) Engineering

(b) Paper and pulp

(c) Textiles

(d) Thermal power

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Water consumption Consumption of water in various industries:

Engineering consumes nearly 2019.9 million cubic metres annually.

Paper and pulp consume nearly 905.8 million cubic metres annually.
Textiles consume nearly 8 million cubic metres annually.

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 Thermal power plants consume nearly 35,157.4 million cubic metres annually.

Question 15

Consider the following pairs:

Tribe States

1. Limboo (Limbu) Sikkim

2. Karbi Himachal Pradesh

3. Dongaria Kondh Odisha

4. Bonda Tamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Tribes of India

Pair 1 is correct: Tamang , Limbu, Bhutia, Khas, Lepchas are the tribal community of
Sikkim.

Pair 2 is incorrect: Karbi is a tribal community from Karbi Anglong of Assam.

Pair 3 is correct: Dongaria tribal community is from Odisha.

Pair 4 is incorrect: Bonda is the most primitive tribal group in Odisha.

About Tribal Community and States:

Dongaria: Odisha
Karbi: Assam
Bonda: the most primitive tribal groups in
Tamang , Limbu, Bhutia, Khas, Lepchas:

Sikkim

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Question 16

The Narmada River flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow
to the Why?

1. It occupies a linear rift valley.

2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the satpuras.
3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: West Flowing Peninsular Rivers

Statement 1 is correct: Narmada and Tapi flow through faults (linear rift, rift valley,
trough) created due to the bending of the northern peninsula during the formation
process of Himalayas.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Narmada flows through the faults, which run parallel to the
Vindhyas and the Satpuras.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Narmada flows towards the west not because of land slopes to
the west from central India, but it is flowing west because of the rift valleys only.

Question 17

Consider the following pairs:

National Park River flowing

through the Park

1. Corbett National Park Ganga

2. Kaziranga National Park Manas

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 3. Silent Valley National Park Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Geography of Protected Areas

Pair 1 is incorrect: Ramganga, Sonanadi, Mandal, Palain and Kosi are the major
rivers flowing through the Corbett National Park.

Pair 2 is incorrect: The Kaziranga National Park is circumscribed by the Brahmaputra

River, which forms the northern and eastern boundaries, and the Mora Diphlu, which
forms the southern boundary. Other notable rivers within the park are the Diphlu and
Mora Dhansiri.

Pair 3 is incorrect: The Kunthipuzha River drains the entire 15 km length of the Silent
Valley park from north to south into the Bharathapuzha River.

Question 18

Consider the following pairs:

1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve – Garo Hills

2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake – Barail Range
3. Namdapha National Park – Dafla Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

Explanation

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Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Map based

Pair 1 is correct: Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in the Garo Hills district of
Meghalaya. The biosphere reserve’s name comes from Nokrek Hill, the highest peak of
the Garo Hills. Nokrek National Park was included on UNESCO’s list of biosphere
reserves in May 2009.

Pair 2 is incorrect: The Loktak Lake is a freshwater lake in Manipur, it is well-known for
the phumdis that float above it. On this lake is Keibul Lamjao National Park, the only
floating national park in the world. The northern, middle, and southern zones of the lake
are separated.

Pair 3 is incorrect: Namdapha National Park is situated between the Dapha Bum range
and the Patkai range in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh. The Noa Dihing
River runs east to west through the national park. It has dipterocarp woods, the
northernmost lowland evergreen rainforests in the world.

Question 19

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Geographical Feature Region

(a) Abyssinian Plateau Arabia Arabia

(b) Atlas Mountains North-Western Africa

(c) Guiana Highlands South-Western Africa

(d) Okavango Basin Patagonia

Explanation

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Ans: b

Sub-Theme: World Map

Atlas Mountain: The Maghreb, often referred to as Northwest Africa, the Greater
Maghreb, and historically as the Barbary Coast, is where the Atlas Mountains is
situated. The Atlas Mountains divide the Sahara Desert from the Mediterranean and
Atlantic coasts. The highest point of this mountain range, Toubkal (4167 m), is found in
Morocco. The mountains are found in Algeria and Tunisia in addition to Morocco. The
Atlas Mountains are home to populations of Berber people.

Additional Information:

Abyssinian Plateau: The Ethiopian Plateau is also referred to as Altipiano Etiopico,

Amhara Plateau, Ethiopian Massif, and Ethiopian Plateau. The Abyssinian Plateau was
formerly known as Ethiopia, hence the name. The Blue Nile, which emerges from Lake
Tana, is the most notable river to cross the plateau.

Okavango Basin: The Okavango Basin is situated in southwest Africa comprising

Botswana, Namibia, Zimbabwe, Angola, and other countries. Whilst, Patagonia refers to a
geographical region that encompasses the southern end of South America, governed
by Argentina and Chile.

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Guiana Highlands: In South America, the Guiana Highlands are situated in the south of
the Orinoco River and north of the Amazon River. Parts of Venezuela, the Guianas,
Brazil, and Colombia are included in the Guiana Highlands. Mount Roraima, located in
the Guiana Highlands, has the highest elevation (2772 m).

2012

Question 1

A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village
which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no
instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient
way now to reach his village is to walk in the

(a) Direction facing the polestar

(b) Direction opposite to the polestar

(c) Direction keeping the polestar to his left

(d) Direction keeping the polestar to his right

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Basics of Solar System

Option (a) is incorrect: The North star/Pole Star indicates the north direction, therefore
walking in the direction of the pole star will lead him towards NORTH of his current
position.

Option (b) is incorrect: Walking in the opposite direction will lead him towards SOUTH
of his current position.

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Option (c) is correct: Walking in the direction while keeping the polestar to his left would
lead him towards EAST of his current position and he can reach his village.

Option (d) is incorrect: Walking in the direction while keeping the pole star to his right
would lead him towards WEST of his current position.

Note: The Pole star is not visible from the southern hemisphere. Some of the north-
ern constellations like Ursa Major may also not be visible from some points in the
south- ern hemisphere.

Question 2

Electrically charged particles from space traveling at speeds of several hundred

km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What
prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?

(a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles.

(b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space.

(c) Moisture in the upper layers of the atmosphere prevents them from reaching the
surface of the

(d) None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) given above is correct.

Explanation

Ans: a

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Sub-Theme: Basics of Solar System

Earth’s Magnetic Field Diverts Electrically Charged Particles:

Option (a) is correct: Earth’s field lines start near the South Pole of the Earth, curve
around in space, and converge again near the North Pole, it forms the magnetosphere,
which deflects the Sun’s ions and electrons before they reach us. Most of the solar wind
is diverted to poles.

Option (b) is incorrect: The ozone layer absorbs a range of ultraviolet energy, it has
nothing to do with Electrically charged particles.

Option (c) is incorrect: Moisture in the upper layers of the atmosphere i.e. The
Stratosphere prevents Ultraviolet rays from reaching the surface of the earth.

Question 3

Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth’s
surface, because

1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface

2. There is more moisture in the upper atmosphere.

3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Atmosphere

Statement 1 is correct: Normal lapse rate that is 1-degree Celcius temperature falls
at a height of every 165 mt in the troposphere. As we increase elevation, the air
pressure decreases as there is less air above us. As the pressure decreases, air
molecules spread out further i.e. air expands, and the temperature decreases and the

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atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface. Temperature falls off
with height at a predictable rate because the air near the surface is heated and
becomes light, and the air higher up cools to space and becomes heavy.

Statement 2 is not correct: The water vapour, which accounts for around 1% of air
varies greatly in the troposphere and decreases rapidly with altitude.

Statement 3 is correct: The air density in the atmosphere decreases with height and
it helps in decreasing temperature.

Question 4

Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah
Region?

(a) Rainfall throughout the year

(b) Rainfall in winter only

(c) An extremely short dry season

(d) A definite dry and wet season

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Biomes/World Climate

Option (d) is correct: The Tropical Savannah Region is characterized by a definite dry
and wet season.

Tropical Savannah Region:

The savanna biome, which is a type of grassland biome, consists of areas of open
grassland with very few trees.
In the Wet Season, the weather is warm and a savanna receives as much as 50
inches of rain.
During the Dry Season, weather can be extremely hot, and rainfall will amount to
only four inches each month.
This combination of high temperatures and little precipitation makes savannas
perfect areas for grass and brush fires during their dry seasons.

Question 5

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The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of
concern

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.

2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.

3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely

4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Ocean Acidification

Statement 1 is correct: Ocean acidification ecreases the calcifying ability of corals,

calcareous plankton, crustaceans etc.

Statement 2 is correct: Ocean acidification will affect corals and this will, in turn, affect
one million species that have made corals their homes.

Statement 3 is correct: Coral reefs will erode faster than they can rebuild. When shelled
organisms are at risk, the entire food web may also be at risk.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Atmospheric sulfur is produced and emitted by phytoplankton

from the ocean in the form of dimethyl sulfide, the increase in ocean acidification led to an
adverse impact on phytoplankton development and which led to a low amount of sulfur
emission. This will decrease cloud formation in small amounts and not adversely affect
indirectly on cloud formation.

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Question 6

Consider the following factors

1. Rotation of the Earth

2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Factors Influence the Ocean Currents

Statement 1 is correct: The Coriolis force is the result of the earth’s rotation. It
intervenes and causes the water to move to the right in the northern hemisphere and to
the left in the southern hemisphere.

Statement 2 is correct: Wind blowing on the surface of the ocean pushes the surface
water along with it and the friction between the wind and the water surface affects the
movement of the water body in its course.

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Statement 3 is correct: Differences in water density affects vertical mobility of ocean
currents. Water with high salinity is denser than water with low salinity and in the same
way cold water is denser than warm water. Denser water tends to sink, while relatively
lighter water tends to rise.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The revolution of the earth does not influence the ocean
currents.

Question 7

Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?

(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food

(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same

(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops

(d) None of the above.

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Agricultural pattern/type

Option (c) is correct: Mixed Farming is a situation in which both raising crops and
rearing animals are carried on simultaneously.

Option (a) and (b) are incorrect: Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops and
Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field are related to the practice of mixed
cropping or inter cropping.

Question 8

Consider the following crops of India:

1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet

Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

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(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ans: d

Option (d) is correct: The crops which are predominantly rainfed in India are Groundnut,
Sesamum and Pearl millets.

Groundnut is a drought-tolerant crop that requires moderate rainfall for its growth
and development. Rainfall for cultivation – 500 to 600 mm per annum, distributed
rainfall pattern throughout the growing season. Groundnut can withstand a dry spell
of 15-20 days during its vegetative stage, but it requires adequate moisture during
the flowering and pod formation stages.
Sesamum requires temperature is 25°C to 30°C, can tolerate up to 40°C, sensitive
to frost required rainfall is 500-600 mm, its drought-tolerant, excessive rainfall
during flowering can cause lower yields . It requires well-drained Soil type, rich in
organic matter, pH range of 5 to 8.0.
Pearl millet is a hardy crop that can grow in semi-arid regions. The ideal rainfall for
pearl millet cultivation is between 400 to 600 mm per annum, with a well-
distributed rainfall pattern throughout the growing season. Pearl millet can tolerate
drought conditions and requires moisture during the early growth stages, especially
during germination and tillering.
Rainfed areas receive more than 750 mm. Rainfed agriculture is carried out in a
wide range of soil types, agro-climatic conditions, and annual rainfall ranges from
400 mm to 1600 mm. Rain-fed areas account for percent of millet production, 88
percent of pulses, 73 percent of cotton, 69 percent of oilseeds including groundnut
and Sesame.

NOTE: Question on crops earlier came in CSE-2011. Reading about important crops
and their characteristics from NCERT (Class 12th – India people and Economy) is
important.

Question 9

When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:

1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land-

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Which of the above can be said to be the evidence for Himalayas being young fold
mountains?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Physiography of India

Deep Gorges, U-turn river courses, Parallel mountain ranges and steep gradients causing
landslides – all these are representations or characterics of Himalayan youthful
topography.

About Himalayan Physiography:

The Himalayas along with other Peninsular mountains are young, weak and
flexible in their geological structure unlike the rigid and stable Peninsular Block.
Consequently, they are still subjected to the interplay of exogenic and endogenic
forces, resulting in the development of faults, folds and thrust plains.
These mountains are tectonic in origin, dissected by fast-flowing rivers which are in
their youthful stage.
In fact the whole mountain system of Himalaya represents a very youthful
topography with high peaks, deep V-shaped valleys, gorges, rapids,
waterfalls, steep slopes, etc.

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Question 10

Consider the following statements:

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to
west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Indian Monsoon

Monsoon refers to a seasonal change in wind patterns that results in a shift in

precipitation patterns over a region. Monsoons occur primarily in tropical and
subtropical regions and are characterized by a wet season and a dry season.
During the wet season, the winds bring in warm, moist air from over the oceans,
which leads to increased rainfall over the land.
The dry season, on the other hand, is characterized by a shift in wind patterns,
which brings in cooler, drier air from over the land, leading to a decrease in rainfall.

Statement 1 is correct: Due to its proximity to the sea, India’s southern region has
earlier and longer rainy seasons than its northern region. Rainfall in the northern section
of India diminishes as rain-bearing winds cross the western ghats and humidity
decreases. The southwest monsoon and the retreating monsoon (northeast monsoon)
bring rain to India’s southern region.

Statement 2 is correct: With growing distance from the sea, monsoon rainfall tends to
decrease. During the southwest monsoon, Kolkata receives 119 cm, Patna 105 cm,
Allahabad 76 cm, and Delhi 56 cm.

Question 11

A particular State in India has the following characteristics:

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1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.

2. It has over 80% of its area under forest

3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes the Protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Assam

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Uttarakhand

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: State of India/Map based

Arunachal Pradesh has a forest cover of 80% with total areas of 67410 sq km.
Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in Arunachal Pradesh.
(Forest Report)
Arunachal Pradesh is located on the same latitude which passes through northern
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Sikkim, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana are the states that lie
in the same latitude that passes through

Question 12

With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:

1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded
more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland
wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

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Ans: a

Sub-Theme: State of India/Wetland

Wetlands:

Wetlands are areas where water is the primary factor controlling the environment
and the associated plant and animal life. They occur where the water table is at or
near the surface of the land, or where the land is covered by water.
Under the text of the Ramsar Convention (Article 1), wetlands are defined as:
“areas of marsh, fen, peatland or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or
temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas
of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres”.

Statement 1 is correct: The total wetland area in Gujarat is 23.14% of the total wetland
of the country.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The area under inland wetlands accounts for 69%, coastal
wetlands 27%, and other wetlands (smaller than 2.25 ha) 4%.

NOTE: Please refer to PYQ 2011 for detailed information on the state of Gujarat.

2011

Question 1

Westerlies in the southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern
hemisphere. Why?

1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere.

2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: a

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Sub-Theme: Wind System

Option (a) is correct: The Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to
the northern hemisphere. The Coriolis force is the same in both hemispheres.

Landmass in both the Hemispheres:

The Northern Hemisphere’s surface is about 40% landmass and is covered by

about 60% water in the Northern
The Southern Hemisphere’s surface is about 20% landmass and is covered by
80% water.
Circulating air is deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in
the Southern Hemisphere as a result of the Earth’s axis of This is known as the
Coriolis effect.

The latitude and airspeed have a direct correlation with the amount of deflection the air
makes. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero, while maximum at the poles.

Question 2

What could be the main reason/reasons for the formation of the African and
Eurasian desert belt?

1. It is located in the sub-tropical high-pressure cells.

2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Desert

Option (a) is correct: The main reason/reasons for the formation of the African and
Eurasian desert belt is because they are located in the sub-tropical high-pressure
cells.

Deserts:

Deserts are regions where evaporation exceeds precipitation.

The main causes of the desert’s aridity are insufficient and irregular rainfall, high
temperatures, and a quick rate of
The hot deserts are found on the western coasts of continents, between 15° and
30°N. and S, in the trade wind belt.
Offshore trade winds are often bathed in cold currents which produce a
desiccating (dehydrating) effect, hence moisture is not easily condensed into
precipitation.

Question 3

The jet aircraft fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could
be the appropriate explanation?

1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.

2. There are no vertical winds in the lower Stratosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

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(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Layers of Atmosphere

Option (c) is correct: The conditions are practically perfect for flying airplanes since
this layer is almost completely devoid of clouds and related weather disturbances. So
airplanes fly in the lower stratosphere, sometimes in the upper troposphere where
weather is calm.

The increase in the temperature with height in the stratosphere makes this
region a stable place where the air tends not to overturn vertically. Thus
vertical winds are almost absent in Stratosphere

About Stratosphere:

It is located above the troposphere up to 50 km above the surface of the earth.

The thickness of the stratosphere is highest at the poles.

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Question 4

The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable
safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety
hedge?

(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone
in which people neither live nor venture out

(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after
any natural disaster.

(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent shelter
during a cyclone or tsunami

(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their
extensive roots.

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Mangroves

Option (d) is correct: because mangroves function as a safety hedge in preserving

ecological stability. The dense tangle of roots allows the trees to withstand storms,
cyclones or even the daily rise and fall of tides.

Mangroves:

A mangrove is a small tree or shrub that grows along coasts, setting roots in
salty sediments, usually beneath water.
Mangrove trees can withstand the tides’ daily rise and fall due to their complex
web of roots and extensive roots.

Question 5

La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in How is La Nina different from
El Nino?

1. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold ocean temperature in the equatorial Indian

Ocean whereas El Niño is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperature in the
equatorial Pacific Ocean.

2. El Nino has adverse effects on the south-west monsoon of India, but La Niña has no
effect on monsoon climate.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: El niño & La-nina

Statement 1 is incorrect: La Nina is characterized by unusually cold ocean

temperatures in the Equatorial Pacific, compared to El Nino, which is characterized
by unusually warm ocean temperatures in the Equatorial Pacific.

Statement 2 is incorrect: La Nina causes drought in Peru and Ecuador, heavy floods
in Australia, high temperatures in Western Pacific, Indian Ocean, off the Somalian coast,
and good monsoon rains in India. El Nino: It occurs more frequently than La Nina. This
event is not an usual cycle, they are not predictable and occur irregularly at 2 to 7 year
intervals. When the coastal waters become warmer in the eastern tropical Pacific (El
Niño) it leads to the decrease of atmospheric pressure above the oceans.

Question 6

The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by a humid climate with high temperature
throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable
for this region?

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(a) Paddy and cotton

(b) Wheat and Jute

(c) Paddy and Jute

(d) Wheat and cotton

Explanation

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Major crops in India

Option (c) is correct: The crop suitable to be grown in the lower Gangetic plain, which is
characterized by a humid climate with high temperature throughout the year, is Paddy
and Jute.

Paddy: It grows well in the plains of north and north-eastern India, coastal areas
and the deltaic regions, where there is an abundance of alluvial clayey soil. A high
temperature (above 25°C) and significant humidity are necessary for this kharif
crop.
Jute: Its cultivation is mainly concentrated in eastern India because of the rich
alluvial soil of Ganga-Brahmaputra Jute crops need humid conditions with
temperature swings between 24 and 38 degrees Celsius.

Question 7

Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions
for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production,
and can develop an export oriented industry in this field?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: State of India

About Orchid in Arunachal Pradesh:

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The ecological condition and climate variation in Arunachal Pradesh are so favorable that
the state holds about 60% of the Indian variety of orchids. Arunachal Pradesh is often
called the Orchid State of India.

Question 8

The Brahmaputra, Irrawaddy and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through
narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper Of these rivers, Brahmaputra
makes a “U’’ turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to

(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series

(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas

(c) Geo-Tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Himalayan River System/Drainage

Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India due to the Syntaxial bending
of geologically young Himalayas.

About Syntaxial Bends/Syntaxis:

The Himalayan mountains’ gently arching ranges on their western and eastern
extremities are abruptly bent southward in deep knee bends known as syntaxial
The massive mountains seem to bend around a pivotal point on both the ends.
The westernmost point is located where the Hindu Kush joins the Karakoram south
of the Pamir.

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 Arunachal Pradesh’s eastern border features a similarly abrupt, almost hairpin curve
when the mountain’s strike abruptly shifts from an easterly to a southerly

Question 9

A state in India has the following characteristics:

1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.

2. Its central part produces cotton.

3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.

Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Gujarat

(c) Karnataka

(d) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: State of India

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The state of Gujarat is characterised by its northern part having arid and semi arid
climate. Its central part produces cotton and the Cultivation of cash crops is predominant
over food crops.

About Gujarat (Gandhinagar):

Physiography: Dry Desert, Coastal region, Semi-arid Kachchh region towards

west,Kathiawar Peninsula (Saurashtra)
Major crops: Cotton (30% of total production in the country), Groundnuts, Tobacco-
All cash crops.

Question 10

Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and distance can be greatly
reduced by which of the following?

1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.

2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman
Sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Map based

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Malacca Strait is situated between Malaysia and

Indonesia and is one of the main shipping lanes. The narrow waterway creates a
chokepoint between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean. Hence, the broadening (not
Deepening) the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia will reduce the
navigation time and distance.

Statement 2 is correct: Kra isthmus is the narrowest part of the Malay Peninsula. It is
bordered to the west by the Andaman Sea and to the east by the Gulf of Thailand. Thus,
opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and the Andaman
Sea can reduce the navigation time and distance.

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Question 11

Two important rivers- one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different
name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha- merge at a place only a
short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the This is an
important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area.

Which one of the following could be this?

(a) Bhitarkanika

(b) Chandipur-on-sea

(c) Gopalpur-on-sea

(d) Simlipal

Explanation

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Physiography of India

About Bhitarkanika National Park

The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are a mangrove wetland in India’s Orissa state. The
Bhitarkanika Mangroves cover an area of 650 km square in the river delta of the
Brahmani and Baitarani rivers.
It is a Ramsar site and home to the second- largest mangrove forest in India. In the
year 1988, it was designated as Bhitarkanika National Park.

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 The estuary of the Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra, and Mahanadi river systems is
where Bhitarkanika is situated. It is situated in Odisha’s Kendrapara district.
It is renowned for its mangroves, migratory birds, turtles, estuarine crocodiles, and
numerous creeks. It is one of Odisha’s finest biodiversity hotspots.
It is said to be home to 70% of the nation’s estuary or saltwater crocodiles, whose
conservation efforts began in 1975.
Protected Areas: Bhitarkanika National Park; Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary and
Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary.

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