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D.A.V. INSTITUTIONS, WEST BENGAL ZONE

SCIENCE QUESTION BANK
CLASS VIII
CONTENT
S.No
TOPIC PAGE
NO
1 THE CELL- ITS STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS 4-21
2 MICRO ORGANISMS: FRIENDS OR FOES 22-35
3 METALS AND NON-METALS 36-48
4 FORCE AND PRESSURE 49-59
5 FRICTION 60-71
6 SOURCES OF ENERGY 72-84
7 COMBUSTION 85-102
8 CONSERVATION OF PLANTS AND ANIMALS 103-108
9 CROP PRODUCTION AND ITS MANAGEMENT 109-118
10 REFRACTION AND DISPERSION OF LIGHT 119-130
11 THE HUMAN EYE 13-141
12 SOUND 142-151

13 SYNTHETIC FIBRES AND FABRICS 152-165

14 REPRODUCTION IN ANIMALS 166-175

15 REACHING THE AGE OF ADOLESENCE 176-184

16 ELECTRIC CURRENT AND ITS CHEMICAL EFFECTS 185-198

17 STARS AND SOLAR SYSTEM 199-209

18 EARTHQUAKE 210-218

19 POLLUTION OF AIR 219-225

20 POLLUTION OF WATER 226-231

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 Ch-1 The Cell -Its Structure and Functions
Q.No Questions Marks
Multiple choice Questions
1 Hen’s egg is a: 1

a) Tissue b) Organ c) Organ system d) cell

2 The cells capable of changing shapes are- 1

a) Amoeba cell b) WBC c) Both of these d) Plant cell

3 Which of the following instruments can be used to observe cells? 1

a) Barometer b) Microscope c) Periscope d) Telescope

4 Which of the following scientists discovered cells in cork slices? 1

a) Louis Pasteur b) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

c) Carl Linnaeus d) Robert Hooke
5 Which among the following is not the function of lysosomes? 1

a) Breaking down of food particles b)Protection against the pathogens.

c)Perform photosynthesis. d) Digest worn-out cells.
6 In unicellular organisms all the functions are performed by – 1

(a) Single tissue (b) Single cell (c) Single organ (d) Nucleus
7 Which one of the following are examples of multicellular organisms – 1

(a) Earthworm and Frog (b) Elephant and Amoeba

(c) Amoeba and Paramoecium (d) Euglena and Earthworm
8 The jelly-like fluid substance present in nucleus is called – 1
(a) Protoplasm (b) Cytoplasm (c) Nucleoplast (d) Nucleoplasm

9 The largest cell in human body is – 1

(a) Sperm (b) Ovum (c) RBC (d) WBC
10 Which one of the following cell is spindle shaped? 1
(a) Liver cell (b) Fat cell (c) Smooth muscle cell (d) Nerve cell
11 Leaves have green colour due to the presence of pigment- 1
(a) Chlorophyll (b) Lysosome (c) Mitochondria(d)Nucleus
12 Which one of the following terms is not a part of the nucleus? 1
(a) Chromosome (b) Gene (c) Nucleolus(d) Golgi bodies
13 The picture shows three different types of cells. Out of these, which one is 1
RBC?

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 (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) A and B both
14 Which of these is the correct order of arrangement from smallest to largest? 1

15 Identify the correct statement: 1

(a) Vacuoles are not found in plant cells.
(b) Mitochondria are known as the power house of the cell
(c) Tissue is a group of dissimilar cells.
(d) Nucleus is absent in animal cells.
ASSERTION REASONING
Directions: In the following questions a statement of assertion (A)is followed by
a statement of reason(R) .
Mark the correct choice as:
a) If both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is
the correct explanation of Assertion(A) .
b) If both Assertion(A) and Reason (R)are true but Reason(R) is not
the correct explanation of Assertion(A) .
c) If Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
d) If Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
1 Assertion (A): Specialization of cells is useful for organisms. 1
Reason(R): It increases the operational efficiency of an organism.
2 Assertion (A): Each organelle has a specific function in the cell. 1
Reason(R): An organ is a group of tissues which perform a similar
function.
3 Assertion (A)- Leaves have green colour. 1
Reason(R)- Green colour plastids are present in leaves.
4 Assertion (A): Animal cell show large variation in their shape. 1
Reason(R): Cell membrane is the outer cover of animal cell and it
Provide Flexibility.
5 Assertion (A): Mitochondria have their own DNA. 1
Reason(R): They are formed by division of preexisting cells.
6 Assertion (A): An Amoeba and an earthworm are of different sizes. 1
Reason(R): This difference is due to the number of cells present in them.

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7 Assertion (A): PPLO is also called pneumonia.
Reason(R): PPLO is the smallest known cell.
8 Assertion (A): Leaves are green in colour. 1
Reason(R): Leaves contain chromoplasts.
9 Assertion (A): The cell membrane is called selectively permeable 1
membrane.
Reason(R): It controls the entry and exit of materials as per the
requirements of the cell.
10 Assertion (A): Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life. 1
Reason(R): Cell was first discovered by Robert Hooke.
11 Assertion (A): Mitochondria are known as the power house of the 1
cell.
Reason (R): They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP
12 Assertion (A): Cell is the structural and functional unit of life. 1
Reason (R): Nucleus can also perform this function.
13 Assertion (A): Endoplasmic reticulum which lack ribosome are known 1
as Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER).
Reason (R): SER is mainly involved in lipid synthesis
14 Assertion (A): Chloroplast is semiautonomous organelle. 1
Reason (R): It is formed by division of pre-existing organelles and contains
DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery.
15 Assertion (A): The plastids, associated with the different coloured parts of 1
the plants are called chromoplasts.
Reason (R): Chromoplasts provide colour to the flowers, fruits and vegetables
and chloroplast provide colour to the green leaves.
CASE BASED/SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS
1 Plant cells, in addition to the plasma membrane, have another rigid outer 4
covering called the cell wall. The cell wall lies outside the plasma membrane.
The plant cell wall is mainly composed of cellulose. Cellulose is a complex
substance and provides structural strength to plants. When a living plant cell
loses water through osmosis there is shrinkage or contraction of the contents of
the cell away from the cell wall. This phenomenon is known as plasmolysis.
i) Which of the following is the main constituent of cell wall?
a) Proteins
b) Lipids
c) Lipo proteins
d) Cellulose

(ii) Choose the correct set of statements from the following.

Statement 1 – Cell wall lies outside the plasma membrane.
Statement 2 – Cell wall is mainly composed of cellulose.
Statement 3 – Cellulose is a complex substance and provides structural strength
to plants.
Statement 4 – Cell wall is present in plants.

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 a)Statement 1 & 3 b)Statement 1 & 2
c)Statement 3 & 4 d) All statement are correct

(iii) Cellulose provides-

a) flexibility to the plant.
b) structural strength to the plant.
c) membrane permeability.
d) both a and c

(iv) Shrinkage of the cell contents away from the cell wall is known as-
a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Plasmolysis
d) Protoplasm
2 Every cell has a membrane around it to keep its own contents separate from the 4
external environment. Large and complex cells, including cells from
multicellular organisms, need a lot of chemical activities to support their
complicated structure and function. To keep these activities of different kinds
separate from each other, these cells use membrane-bound little structures within
themselves. The cytoplasm is the jelly like fluid content inside the plasma
membrane which contains many specialised cell organelles. Such as
Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi apparatus, Lysosomes, Ribosomes, Nucleus,
Chloroplast, Mitochondria and Plastids. Each of these organelles performs a
specific function for the cell. Some of these organelles are visible only with an
electron microscope. They are important because they carry out some very
crucial functions in cells.
(i) A suitable term for the various components of cells is
a) tissue
b) cell organelles
c) chromosomes
d) genes

(ii) The jelly-like fluid substance present in cells is called

a) Protoplasm
b) Chromosome
c) Chloroplast
d) Cytoplasm

(iii) Identify the statement which is true for cells.

Statement 1 – Some cell organelles are visible only with an electron
microscope.
Statement 2 – Cytoplasm is jelly like fluid present inside the cell.
Statement 3 – Cell organelles perform all the functions in cell.
Statement 4 – Every cell has a membrane around it to keep its own
contents separate from the external environment.

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 (a) Statement 1 & 3
(b) Statement 2 & 4
(c) Statement 1 & 4
(d) All statement are true

(iv) Cells have organelles for-

(a) better efficiency in the cell.

(b) to provide structural strength.
(c) to maintain flexibility of cell
(d) to help in diffusion.
3 Read the text carefully and answer the questions that follows – 4
The shapes of cells differ not only in different organisms but also in different
organs of the same organism. They may be oval, spherical, cuboidal, fibre-like or
polygonal.
a) Name a cell which has spherical structure.
b) Name a cell or organism which has no definite shape.
c) What are the reasons for the differences in shape ?
OR
c) A nerve cell possesses long fibre-like structure. Give reason.
4 Read the text carefully and answer the questions that follows – 4

To see a plant cell, we have to prepare a temporary mount of onion peel cell.
For that we have to put a drop of water on a glass slide and place a small piece
of neatly cut onion peel on it. Put a drop or two of solution A to stain it. Now
observe it under the microscope.
(a) Name the solution A used to stain the cell.
(b)What are the shapes of these cells?
(c) Name the dark structure found at the center of the cell. Also write
its one function.
OR
(c) Why staining is done?
5 Rahul's teacher told in class that food provides us with energy. However he 4
remembered the previous class in which a part of the cell was said as
powerhouse because it provide energy. He got very confused and decided to
ask his teacher about it. The teachers smile and explain him clearly.
a)Name the cell organelle is called as power house of the cell.
b) The powerhouse is related to energy. How is energy obtained?
c) Mention the values displayed by Rahul.
d) Which part of cell is called suicidal bag? State the reason.
6 Pihu while gardening observed many beautiful flowering plants. She got 4
attached by brightly coloured flowers and their beautiful appearance. She was
curious to know about the variation of colours in flowers and asked her teacher
about it. Teacher told her about the plastids found in plant cells.

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 a) A particular plastid is responsible for the variation in colours of
flower. Which is it?
b) Name the plastids known as kitchen of the cell.
c) Are all plastids coloured?
d) Will we be able to observe plastid in an animal cell?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE 1
1 Observe the picture and answer the following questions
2

a) What are these tiny hair-like structures called?

b) What is their function?
2 2

3 Cells consist of many organelles, yet we do not call any of these organelles 2
as structural and functional unit of living organisms. Explain.
4 Complete the following table – 2
Helps in respiration (a)

(b)
Ribosomes
Processing and packaging
centre of cell
(c)
Provide space to store starch ,
proteins and oils (d)

5 Identify the following as cell, tissue, organ and organ 2

system-
Bone, WBC, Integumentary and Heart
6 Give reasons: 2
(a) Nucleus is called the brain of the cell.
(b) Vacuoles are called storage sacs of the cell.
7 Amoeba keeps changing its shape. Is there any advantage of doing so by it? 2
8 Is there any difference between bacteria and rat? What is it? 2
9 Recognize picture ‘D’ and also identify A,B,C as labeled below. 2

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE II
1 3

2 i) What will happen if we remove plastid from cell? 3

ii) What do the colourless plastids store in them?
3 i) Why do plant cells have an additional layer surrounding the cell 3
membrane?
ii) What is the layer known as?
4 Identify who am I? 3
(a) Portion of protoplasm lying between the cell membrane and nuclear
membrane.
(b) Unit of inheritance which gets transferred from one generation to the next.
(c) A specialized sub-unit within a cell that has a specific function.
5 Write three points of difference between cell wall and cell membrane. 3
6 3

7 I am a transparent jelly like substance, present in a Cell. Who am I? 3

Write my functions.

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8 (a) Identify the picture and labeled its parts A to D. 3
(b) What is the function of the labeled part C?

9 A cell of Banyan tree contains part A and B that are not present in elephant. 3
Part A contains a pigment C that gives green colour to its leaves. Part B gives
shape and support to the cell and is made of D.
a) What is A and B?
b) Can you identify C and D?
c) Write functions of A and C.
LONG ANSWER TYPE
1 While doing the onion peel experiment Madhav forgot the reddish ink like fluid 5
to apply to the peel. As a result the cells were not clearly visible while observing
through a microscope.

a) What type of cells are in the onion peel?

b) Why was it necessary to apply the reddish colour to the peel? What
is that red colour called?
c) Write down three differences between the onion peel cell and a
cheek cell.
2 a) Why does Amoeba have an irregular shape? 5
b) Do plant cells have this irregularity? If not, why?
c) Draw a labelled diagram of an animal cell and label-
i.The power house of the cell.
ii. The suicidal bags.
iii. The area of lipid synthesis.
3 a) Analyze the situation and give reason for the following – 5
i. Cell remains undiscovered for a long time.
ii. Albumen and yolk represent the reserve food material in an egg.
iii. Amoeba can change its shape.
iv. Multicellular organism is more effective in functioning than
unicellular organism.
b) What would happen if animals have cell wall?
4 Identify the following organ system from the given clues and write its 5
main function –
(a) I am made up of skin.
(b) I am made up of glands and release hormones directly into the
Blood.
(c) Kidneys are important organs of my system.
(d) I am made up of bones.
(e) Heart is one of my important organ.

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5 A cell has A as its control centre. A contains B that plays an important role in 5
inheritance with the help of C. The cell also contains a jelly like substance D.
D contains various cell organelles like E that is essential for obtaining energy
from food. The cell is surrounded by F that is a living component.
a) What could A, B, C, D, E and F be?
b) Also write a short note on C.
6 Ruhi is very happy today. See saw plant cell and cheek cell under the 5
microscope. See noticed that most of the things are similar in both the cell but
few are absent in one of the cell.
(a) State two similarities between plant cell and animal cell.
(b) Mention the additional covering present on the plant
cell. What is its function?
(c) What will happen if this outer covering breaks?

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 Marking Scheme

CH- CELL ITS STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION

Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the

candidate be suitably awarded)

Q.No Value points/ key Marks allotted to Total Marks

. points each value/key
point

Ch-1 Cell its Structure and

Function
Multiple choice questions

1 (c) Cell 1 1

2 (d) Both of these 1 1

3 (b) Microscope 1 1

4 (c) Robert Hooke 1 1

5 (d) Perform Photosynthesis 1 1

6 (a) Single cell 1 1

7 (a) Earthworm and Frog 1 1

8 (b) Nucleoplasm 1 1

9 (b) Ovum 1 1

10 (c) Smooth muscle cell 1 1

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11 (a) Chlorophyll 1 1

12 (d) Golgi bodies 1 1

13 (c) C 1 1
14 1 1

(a)

15 (b) Mitochondria are known as the power house of the cell 1 1

ASSERTION AND REASON

1 (a) If both Assertion (A)and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the 1 1
correct explanation of Assertion(A) .

2 (b) If both Assertion(A) and Reason (R)are true but Reason(R) is not 1 1
the correct explanation of Assertion(A) .

3 (a) If both Assertion (A)and Reason(R) are true and 1 1

Reason(R) is the correct explanation oAssertion(A) .

4 (a) If both Assertion (A)and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the 1 1
correct explanation of Assertion(A) .

5 (c ) Assertion is true but reason is false. 1 1

6 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1

7 (d) A is false but R is true. 1 1

8 (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1

9 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1

10 (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct 1 1

explanation of A.

11 a) Both the assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct 1 1
explanation of the assertion.

12 b) Assertion is true but reason is false. 1 1

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13 (a) Both the assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct 1 1
explanation of the assertion.

14 (c) Assertion is true but reason is false. 1 1

15 1 1
(b) Both the assertion and reason are true and reason is the
incorrect explanation of the assertion.

CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED

1 1 4
(i) (d) Cellulose
1
(ii) (d) all statements are correct
1
(iii) (b) structural strength of the plant

(iv) (c) plasmolysis 1

2 (i) (b) cell organelles 1 4

(ii) (d) cytoplasm
1
(iii) (d) All statements are true
1
(iv) (a) Better efficiency in the cell
1

3 (a) RBC 1 4
(b) Amoeba
1
(c) These differences in shapes are due to their location and
function in the tissue.

OR
(c)To transmit nerve impulses to organs located in different
parts of the body. 2

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4 (a) Saffranin 1 4
(b) Rectangular
1
(c) Nucleus. Controls all the activities of the cell/ helps in
cellular reproduction. 2

OR

(c)To colour its components and make them visible.

5 (a) Mitochondria is called powerhouse of the cell. 1 4

(b) The energy from the food is released into the mitochondria, ½
from there it is used by the cell for various activities.

(c) Rahul is intelligent, attentive and has scientific attitude 1

and knowledge.

(d) Lysosomes are called "suicide bags" of the cell because they have
hydrolytic enzymes stored in them. These enzymes are used to digest ½+½
complex molecules in a cell. When released into the cytoplasm, these
enzymes can "digest" or destroy the cell itself

6 (a) Chromoplasts are the coloured plastids that give colour to fruit 1 4
and flower.
1
(b) Chloroplasts are known as kitchen of the cell.
(c) No, all plastids are not coloured ,leucoplasts are the colourless 1
plastids.

(d) No, we will not see plastids in an animal cell. Animals do not
need such type of plastids as they are heterotrophs therefore, not 1
involved in activities like photosynthesis and storage.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE I

1 1+1 2
a) Cilia

b) Locomotion and movement

2 1+1 2
Cork cells, Robert Hooke

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3 The cell organelles like mitochondria, golgi complex, endoplasmic 1+1 2
reticulum etc have specific functions and carry out specific functions
in a cell but they cannot be called as the structural and functional units
of living organisms. This is because they can function only when
present inside a living cell. They cannot act as independent units.
4 (a) Mitochondria ½x4= 2
(b) Help in protein synthesis. 2
(c) Golgi complex
(d) Leucoplasts

5 Cell – WBC. Tissue – Bone, Organ – Heart, Organ system – ½x4= 2

Integumentary system 2

6 a. As it controls all the activities of the cell. 1 2

b. As it stores excess water and waste products. 1

7 The change in shape of amoeba is due to formation of finger like 1+1 2

projections that are called pseudopodia. Amoeba captures food and
moves by changing its shape
8 Yes, bacteria are unicellular organism and rat is a multicellular 1+1 2
organism. Bacteria are prokaryote and rat is eukaryote.

9 D- cheek cell A- cytoplasm , B-nucleus, C- cell membrane ½x4 2

SHORT ANSWER TYPE II

1 i) Plant cell . 1 3
ii) Eukaryotic . 1
iii) Vacuole and Cytoplasm 1
2 i) If there are no plastids in the cell then the plant cells would not be 2 3
able to perform the important functions like photosynthesis, starch
and food storage .

ii) The colourless plastids /leucoplasts store essential compounds

such as starch, lipid and protein. 1
3 i) Plants cannot show physical movements and escape from extreme 2 3
climatic conditions, this additional layer protects the cell from
temperature variations, winds and moisture.
1
ii) This additional layer is called cell wall.
4 a) Cytoplasm 1 3
b) Gene
c) Cell organelle 1
1

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5 Any three correct difference between cell wall and cell membrane. 1x3=3 3
6 Cross section of a hens egg ½ 3

A – Albumen, B – Outer cell, C – Yolk, D – Cell membrane, E – Air ½x5=

sac
2½

7 I am cytoplasm, present in between the cell membrane and nucleus. 1+1+1 3

Various structures such as nucleus, mitochondria are present in me,
these are called cell organelles. Salt proteins sugar and other
substances are dissolved in me.

8 ½x5 3
a) Mitochondria. A-Cristae, B- inner membrane, C- matrix and
D-outer membrane
b) To increase the available surface area to enhance the productivity
of cellular respiration (ATP). ½
9 (a) A is chloroplast and B is cell wall. 1 3
(b) C is chlorophyll and D is cellulose.
(c)Chloroplast (A) is present only in plant cell. It contains a green 1
pigment, called chlorophyll (C) which helps in photosynthesis and
also provides green colour to its leaves. 1
LONG ANSWER TYPE

1 a) Epidermal cells are observed in an onion peel. 1 5

b) The reddish ink makes the cells clearly visible. It is known as
stain. ½ +½
c) i) The onion peel cell has cell wall while it is
absent in cheek cells.
ii)Vacuoles are larger in onion cell compared to
cheek cell. 3
iii) Chloroplast is present in onion peel cell while it is
absent in cheek cell.

2 a) Due to flexibility of its plasma membrane. 1 5

b) The cell wall which is present around the cell wall which makes
the cell rigid. Hence, the plant cells do not have an irregular shape 1
c) Mitochondria, Lysosome, Ribosome (The correct labeling
carry 1 mark each) 1+1+1

3 a) i. As majority of the cells are too small to be seen through 1x4 = 4 5

unaided eye.
ii. As they provide food to the growing embryo.
iii. As it has flexible cell membrane.
iv. As labour is divided among the cells
b) All parts of the animal would become rigid which will make 1
the movement of legs, hands and other body parts difficult.

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4 (a) Integumentary system, protection ½x5= 5
(b) Endocrine system, controls growth, development, 2½
metabolism, reproduction.
(c) Excretory system, removes waste products from the body. (For
(d) Skeletal system, protects and supports vital organs / along with identi
muscles helps in movement. ficati
(e) Circulatory system, transports essential substances on)
from one part of the body to other part. ½x5
=2½
(For
functi
on)
5 a) A- nucleus, B- chromosome, C- genes, D- cytoplasm, 5
E- mitochondria and F- cell membrane. Gene is the unit of ½ x6=3
inheritance in living organisms.

b) It controls the transfer of hereditary characteristics from parents

to offspring. E.g.-Brown eyes of father and the brown eyes of son.
2
6 (a) Plant and animal cells are structurally similar since they are both 5
eukaryotic cells. They both have membrane-bound 2
organelles such as the nucleus, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum,
Golgi apparatus, ribosomes, cytoplasm.

(b) Cell wall.The main function of the cell wall is to provide. 2

structural strength and support, and also provide a semi- permeable
surface for molecules to pass in and out of the cell.

(c) Cell will either swell or burst.

1

Page 18 of 197
 CHAPTER-2

MICRO ORGANISMS – FRIENDS AND FOES

Q.No QUESTIONS Marks

Multiple choice questions
1 Select the incorrect statement.
a. Anthrax is a bacterial disease that affects humans and cattle. 1
b. Rust of wheat is a fungal disease that spread by air.
c. Citrus canker is a viral disease that affects citrus fruits.
d. Yellow vein mosaic is a viral disease that affects ladies finger ( bhindi).
2 Are these statements about the pasteurization true? Statement 1
1: Pasteurization kills the spores of bacteria. Statement 2:
Raw milk may contain pathogens.
a. True, False.
b. True, True.
c. False, True.
d. False, False.
3 Identify the given microorganism and select the incorrect statement 1
regarding it.

a. It is a saprophyte commonly called as black bread mould.

b. It reproduces by means of spores.
c. It results in the spoilage of food materials.
d. It is a parasitic fungus that causes various diseases in plants,
animals and humans.
4 Refer to the given figure showing different steps regarding 1
antibodies fighting against diseases. Arrange them in a correct
sequence:

a. (ii) (i) (iii)

b. (i) (ii) (iii)
c. (i) (iii) (ii
d. (iii) (i) (ii)
5 Bacteria have been grouped into four different types based on their 1
shapes. Identify the different types and select the correct statement

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 regarding it.

a. Vibrio cholera is an example of type S, which causes cholera.

b. Lactobacillus is an example of type P, which helps in curdling of
milk.
c. Type R bacteria are rod –shaped and are called as bacillus
bacteria.
d. Streptococcus is an example of type Q bacteria that causes
pneumonia.
6 Observe the given pictures and choose the correct one which is 1
considered as useful microorganism.

A B C D
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
7 Maintaining good personal hygiene can prevent many diseases. Which 1
of the following diseases can be prevented by maintaining good
personal disease?
a) cholera b)tuberculosis c)ringworm d)malaria
8 Following is the process of bread-making. 1

In this process bread rises from dough due to-

a) heat b) grinding c) growth of yeast cell d) kneading
9 Citrus canker and measles are both- 1
a) Water-borne disease
b) Insect-borne disease
c) Air- borne disease
d) seed-borne disease
10 Which of the following is false about antibiotic? 1
a) Antibiotic should be taken only on the advice of a qualified
doctor
b) Taking antibiotics when not needed or in wrong doses may make the

Page 20 of 197
 drug less effective when it is needed in future.
c) Antibiotic taken unnecessarily may kill the beneficial bacteria in the
body
d) Antibiotics are highly effective for curing diseases caused by
viruses.
ASSERTION REASON 1

Directions: In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) is

followed by a statement of Reason(R) .

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the
correct explanation of Assertion(A) .
(b) If both Assertion(A) and Reason (R)are true but Reason(R) is not the
correct explanation of Assertion(A) .
(c) If Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) If Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.
1 Assertion (A): The antibodies remain in the body after killing the 1
invader.
Reason (R): To protect our body from the disease causing
organisms.
2 Assertion (A): Bacteria are useful in leather industry and jute 1
industry.
Reason (R): Bacteria separate jute fibres and perform leather
tanning.
3 Assertion (A): Partial sterilisation of a product such as milk at a 1
high temperature is known as pasteurisation.
Reason(R): It was discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1929.
4 Assertion (A): Cooling stops microbes from growing. 1
Reason (R): A refrigerator keeps food at about 5∘C.
5 Assertion (A)-Cyanobacteria are useful bacteria. 1
Reason(R) - Cyanobacteria is used in alcoholic beverages.
6 Assertion (A) - Processed milk in packet can be consumed without 1
boiling.
Reason (R ) -Processed milk has been pasteurized, making it safe to
consume straight.
7 Assertion (A) - Cholera can be treated by antibiotics. 1
Reason (R) - Cholera is a bacteria-infected disease.
8 Assertion (A): Partial sterilisation of a product such as milk at a 1
high temperature is known as pasteurisation.
Reason(R): It was discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1929.
9 Assertion (A) - Bacteria have classified as plants. 1
Reason(R) - They have cell walls.
10 Assertion (A) - Drying is a method of food preservation. 1
Reason (R) – Drying added moisture to food.

Page 21 of 197
 CASE BASED/SOURCE BASED
1 Microorganisms are used for various purposes. They are used in the 4
preparation of curd, bread and cake. Microorganisms have been used for
the production of alcohol since ages. Are also used in cleaning up of the
environment. Recall that bacteria are also used in the preparation of
medicines. In agriculture they are used to increase soil fertility by fixing
nitrogen. Curd contains several micro- organisms. Of these, the
bacterium, Lactobacillus promotes the formation of curd. It multiplies in
milk and converts it into curd .Bacteria are also involved in the making
of cheese, pickles and many other food items. Bacteria and yeast are also
helpful for fermentation of idli and dosa . Kneading of Yeast and sugar
into the flour causes the flour to rise and double in size. Yeast reproduces
rapidly and produces carbon dioxide during respiration. Bubbles of the
gas fill the dough and increase its volume. This is the basis of the use of
yeast in the baking industry for making. breads, pastries and cakes.
(a) Mention the basis of uses of yeast in baking industries.
(b) Commercial production of which items in large scale yeast is
used?
(c) Explain the role of microorganisms as cleansing agent of our
environment.

OR
(c) How is soil enriched with nitrates?
Whenever you fall ill the doctor may give you some antibiotic tablets, 4
2 capsules or injections. The source of these medicines is microorganisms.
These medicines kill or stop the growth of the disease-causing
microorganisms. Such medicines are called antibiotics. These days a
number of antibiotics are being produced from bacteria and fungi.
Streptomycin, tetracycline and erythromycin are some of the commonly
known antibiotics which are made from fungi and bacteria. The
antibiotics are manufactured by growing specific microorganisms and
are used to cure a variety of diseases. Antibiotics are even mixed with
the feed of livestock and poultry to check microbial infection in animals.
They are also used to control many plant diseases. In 1929, Alexander
Fleming was working on a culture of disease-causing bacteria. Suddenly
he found the spores of a little green mould in one of his culture plates.
He observed that the presence of mould prevented the growth of
bacteria. In fact, it also killed many of these bacteria. From this the
mould penicillin was prepared. When a disease-carrying microbe enters
our body, the body produces antibodies to fight the invader. The body
also remembers how to fight the microbe if it enters again. If dead or
weakened microbes are introduced into a healthy body, the body fights
and kills the invading bacteria by producing suitable antibodies. The
antibodies remain in the body and we are protected from the disease-
causing microbes forever. This is how a vaccine works. Several
diseases, including cholera, tuberculosis, smallpox and hepatitis can be
prevented by vaccination. Edward Jenner discovered the vaccine for
small- pox in 1798. In your childhood, you must have been given
injections to protect yourself against several diseases.
(a) Name two antibiotics one of which made from fungi and the
other made from bacteria.
(b) Give a difference antibiotics and vaccine.

Page 22 of 197
 (c) If an invading bacterium enters our body, state the action of
antibodies.
OR
(c) One disease is an antidote against another disease. Give a suitable
explanation with example.
3 Abhilasa takes four beakers A, B, C and D and put 100 ml of milk in 4
each beaker. Now she heats the milk of first three beakers to the
temperature given below. Add one teaspoon of curd in each beaker and
cover each beaker. She put one teaspoon of curd in beaker D and keeps it
in refrigerator.
Beaker Temperature at time of
mixing
of curd
A 400 C
B 1000 C
C 600 C
D 5-80 C

i) Milk tastes sweet because of the presence of-

a) lactobacillus
b) lactose
c) pentose
d) aspergillus
ii) Milk converts into curd due to-
a) multiplication of yeast in milk
b) lactobacillus converts lactose into lactic acid
c) lactobacillus converts lactic acid into milk
d) fermentation of yeast
iii) The formation of curd will take place properly in –
a) Beaker A
b) Beaker B
c) Beaker C
d) Beaker D
iv) What is correct about the microorganisms in curd formation from
milk?
a) The growth of microorganisms increases infinitely with increase of
temperature
b) The growth of microorganisms decreases with increase of
Temperature.
c) Microorganisms exhibits Maximum growth in the temperature
range 300 C-450 C.
d) Growth of microorganisms do not depends on temperature.

Page 23 of 197
4 Rohit adds some yeast to two test tubes containing sugar solution. One 4
test tube is kept in ice and the other at room temperature. The picture
shows what happens after three hours.

i) What is the correct observation of the activity?

a) Balloon inflated in ice due to respiration of yeast.
b) Balloon inflated at room temperature due to respiration of yeast.
c) Balloon does not inflated in ice due to photosynthesis of yeast.
d)Balloon does not inflated at room temperature due to photosynthesis
of yeast.

ii) The gas produced in the test tube at room temperature after 3 hours
is-
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Sulphur

iii) The balloon attached with test tube kept in ice does not inflated as-
a) Yeast does not grow and multiply at 00 C temperature.
b) Ice does not support the gas required for inflation of balloon.
c) It gets inflated after six hours.
d) Yeast does not get sugar properly at 00 temperature.

iv) This special feature of Yeast is used in-

a) curd formation
b) Bakery
c) Nitrogen fixation
d) Making antibiotics
SHORT ANSWER TYPE I
1 Why do you have to use a pressure canner for some foods and not for
others? 2

Page 24 of 197
2 AIDS considered to be a syndrome and not a disease justify it? 2
3 Finishing antibiotic is very important for us -Explain . 2
4 Suggest a suitable word for each of the following statements. 2
(a) Chemicals added to food to prevent growth of microorganisms.
(b) Nitrogen-fixing microorganism present in the root nodules of
legumes.
(c) Agent which spreads pathogens from one place to another.
(d) Chemicals which kill or stop the growth of pathogens.
5 The stem of an infected plant has dull red and white patches across the 2
stalk and elongated red lesions on the mid rib of leaves.

6 Rohan ate fried rice that was kept for 2 days and also having foul smell. 2
After sometime he had severe pain in stomach and started vomiting and
suffered from diarrhoea. Doctor told that it is due to food poisoning.
i) Mention one probable reason of food poisoning.
ii) How could that be prevented?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE II
1 Observe the set up given in figure and answer the following 3
questions.

a) What happens to the solution in sugar A ?

b) Which gas is released in A?
c) What change will you observe in B when the
released gas passes through it?
2 What precautions will you take to justify ‘prevention is better than 3
cure’? ( state any three points)
3 What are the immunisation programmes available at the nearest 3
health centre in your locality?
What precautions can you take in your school to reduce the
incidence of infectious disease? State any two.

Page 25 of 197
4 Give reasons for the followings: 3
a) Farmers prefer to grow peas and beans between two seasonal crops.
b) Fruits and vegetables are kept in refrigerator but pickles can be kept
outside.
c) Micro-organisms are essential to keep environment clean.
5 Raja was playing in ground and he got a cut in one foot by a sharp object. 3
His doctor told him that injury can cause tetanus if not treated at the
earliest.
a) Name the type of microorganisms that causes tetanus.
b) How does the disease spread from person to person?
c) Suggest one way of prevention of the disease tetanus.
6 The given picture shows that salt is applied on fish to preserve it. 3

a) What is the role of salt in preservation of food?

b) Suggest two more ways to preserve perishable food items.
c) State one importance of preservation of food.
LONG ANSWER
1 a) Why do antibiotics play no role in curing influenza? 5
b) Why is it difficult to make antiviral drugs?
c) What is one of the most underappreciated strategies to prevent
antibiotic resistance?
2 a)It is observed that cases of acute diseases are more than chronic 5
diseases. Comment on it.
(b) Despite taking medicines, the patient suffering from cold take
almost seven days to recover. Analyse the case situation and give a
suitable explanation.
(c) If a pregnant woman is suffering from AIDS, how will the child get
infected with the same disease.
3 Observe the following figure and answer the following questions: 5

a) Identify the disease.

b) Name the causative agent of the disease.
c) How does the disease spread from one plant to another?
d) Name any other two plant- diseases and the microbes that cause
them.

Page 26 of 197
4 The picture shows the consumption of systemic antibiotics in India in 5
2019

i) Name two other antibiotics that are not mentioned in the picture.
ii) ‘Antibiotics fight infections caused by viruses and bacteria’. Is
this statement correct? Justify your answer.
iii) ‘Vaccination is a way of immunization’. How does a vaccine build
immunity?

Page 27 of 197
 Marking Scheme

CH- MICRO-ORGANISMS FRIENDS OR FOES

Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
Ch-2 Microorganisms Friends or Foe

Q.No Value points/ key points Marks To

. allotted tal
to each M
value/k ar
ey ks
point
Multiple choice questions
1. c.Citrus canker is a viral disease that affects citrus fruits 1 1
2. c. False , True. 1 1
3. d. It is a parasitic fungus that causes various diseases in plants, 1 1
animals and humans.
4. a.(ii) (i) (iii) 1 1
5. a. Vibrio cholera is an example of type S, which causes cholera 1 1
6. d) D 1 1
7. c) ringworm 1 1
8 c) growth of yeast cell 1 1
9 c) Air- borne disease 1 1
10 1 1
d) Antibiotics are highly effective for curing diseases caused by
viruses
Assertion reason 1 1
1 a. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct 1 1
explanation of the Assertion.
2 a. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct 1 1
explanation of the Assertion.
3 c. Assertion is true but Reason is false. 1 1
4 c. Assertion is true but Reason is false. 1 1
5 b. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct 1 1
explanation of Assertion.
6 c) A is true but R is false 1 1
7 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1
8 1 1
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
9 1 1
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
10 c) A is true but R is false 1 1

Page 28 of 197
 Case Study
1 a. In baking industry, breads are made spongy 4
b. Alcohol and wine. 1+1+2
c. Microorganisms break down organic wastes like peels of
vegetables, remains of animals and excreta into harmless and usable
substances
OR
c.Leguminous plants are cultivated. They contain
Rhizobium bacterium in their root nodules that can fix atmospheric
nitrogen and converts into nitrate salt.
2 a. Penicillin, Streptomycin. 4
b. kills or stop the growth of disease causing microbes. Vaccines 1+1+2
stimulate the production of antibodies
c. When a disease-carrying microbe enters our body, thebody
produces antibodies to fight the invader. The body also remembers
how to fight the microbe if it enters again If dead or weakened
microbes are introduced into a healthy body, the body fights and
kills the invading bacteria by producing suitable antibodies. The
antibodies
remain in the body and we are protected from the disease- causing
microbes for ever.
OR
c.Edward Jenner discovered the vaccine of small- pox. He made
vaccines from cow pox germ and vaccinated this germ in the body
of a person who got immunity to fight against small pox, and
finally by discovering this vaccine from cow pox germ became the
conqueror of dreadful smallpox.
3 i) b) lactose 1 4
ii. b) lactobacillus converts lactose into lactic 1
iii) a) Beaker A 1
iv) c) Microorganisms exhibits Maximum growth in the 1
temperature range 300 C-450 C.
4 i. b) Balloon inflated at room temperature due to respiration of 1 4
yeast.
ii. b) Carbon dioxide. 1
iii. a) Yeast does not grow and multiply at 00 C temperature. 1
iv. b) Bakery 1
SA-I
1 Higher temperatures are required to destroy botulism bacteria in 2 2
low- acid foods like meats, fish, poultry and all vegetables. The
only safe way to can these foods is by using a pressure canner,
which creates temperatures (240F) higher than that of boiling
water (212F).
2 In AIDS, our immune systems gets badly affected and the body is 2 2
no longer able to fight any infection. Patient may suffer from

Page 29 of 197
 diarrhoea, blood loss, fever, pneumonia, etc. So, there is no specific
disease or its symptoms instead patient develops complex diseases
and symptoms.
3 If you stop treatment before the antibiotic cycle is over, the 2 2
remaining bacteria can continue to multiply. It may take longer
for you to recover from your illness
4 a) Preservatives 4X½ 2
b) Rhizobium/Cyanobacteria
c) Carrier/Vector
d) Antibiotics
5 a) Red rot of sugarcane 1+1 2
b) Fungus
6 a) Presence of bacteria like clostridium or other microbes in 1+ 1 2
food.
b) Proper medication or antibiotics can treat food poisoning.
SA-II
1 (a) Yeast causes fermentation converting sugar into alcohol 1+1+1 3
and carbon dioxide.
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c )Lime water turns milk
2 Prevention of pathogens entry in the body can prevent the
disease and is better than curing the disease. We can take the 1+1+1 3
following precautions to prevent it-
i) Proper sanitation and hygienic condition, eradication of
vectors
ii)Use of clean and safe drinking water, immunisation
programmes
iii) Proper education and awareness
3 In our nearest health centre, immunisation programmes are 1+2 3
available for prevention –polio, diphtheria, whooping cough,
tuberculosis, tetanus and measles.
To reduce the incidence of infectious diseases are-
i) not going to school if suffering from an infection
ii) vaccination against infectious disease frequent
washing of hands.
4 a) Peas and beans are leguminous plants which have 1+1+1 3
Rhizobium in root nodules that fix nitrogen in soil and
increases productivity.
b) Fruits and vegetables contain moisture that can be acted by
microorganisms quickly but pickles are added with sugar and salt
that act as preservative.
c) Microorganisms decompose dead organic wastes of
animals and plant into simple substances and keep
environment clean.
5 a) Bacteria 1+1+1 3
b) through soil, Consuming unwashed food, wounds
c) Vaccination

Page 30 of 197
6 a) Salt reduces water content and makes it unavailable for the 1+1+1 3
growth of microorganisms.
b) Refrigeration, Drying.
c) Keep food available for longer time/ any other importanc

LA-II
1 a) Antibiotics are generally successful in case of bacterial 2+2+1 5
infections and influenza is a viral disease.
b) It is difficult to make antiviral drugs because viruses do not
have their own metabolic machinery. They use machinery of host
for their life processes. They perform only few biochemical
mechanisms and it is very difficult to target only those
biochemical mechanisms to kill viruses.
c) Vaccines. vaccines are one of the most useful, safe and cost
effective tools for preventing infectious diseases.

2 (a) The cases of acute diseases are more than chronic diseases 2+2+1 5
because mostly acute diseases are infectious or communicable
.The transmission of infection occurs through direct contact or
some medium.
(b) Cold is a acute disease caused by viral infection and last only
for short time. When virus enters the body of host, it takes a
definite time period to complete its life cycle and patient is cured
after that period. The medicines taken in cold are not exactly to
kill casual virus but only to prevent secondary infections which
may develop due to viral infections.
(c) AIDS will be transmitted from infected mother to her child
via placenta.
3 a) Citrus canker 1 5
b) Bacteria 1
c) The bacteria of citrus canker can spread through 1
windblown, rain or naturally through wounds caused by
insects. 1+1
d) Tobacco mosaic virus caused by Virus and Rust of wheat
caused by Fungus.
4 a) Amoxicillin, Streptomycin. ½+½ 5
b) The statement is incorrect. Antibiotics kill bacteria or prevent 1 +1
them from reproducing and spreading. Virus has a protective
coat that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics.
c) When a person gets a vaccine, the immune system responds to
the antigen as if it were exposed to the actual germ (it makes 1+1
antibodies and remembers how to defeat it). Then, if the body gets
exposed to the actual germ, the immune system can recognize it
right away and quickly fight it off to prevent disease

Page 31 of 197
 CH 3-METALS AND NON METALS
Q.No QUESTIONS MARKS
Multiple choice questions
1 Which of the following pairs of compounds undergo displacement reaction 1
when they react with each other?

(a) Cu and AgNO3 solution

(b) Ag and FeSO4 solution
(c) Cu and NaCl solution
(d) Mg and NaCl solution
2 When zinc reacts with dilute sulphuric acid, a salt is formed with the release 1
of a gas. The gas produced during this puts off a burning candle with a pop
sound. Identify
gas evolved during this reaction.

(a) Sulphur dioxide

(b) oxygen
(c) hydrogen
(d) hydrogen sulphide
3 A substance is said to be sonorous if it 1
.
(a) conducts heat
(b) conducts electricity
(c) conducts water through metal pipes
(d) produces a ringing sound when beaten
4 Which of the following order is correct for the reactivity of metals? (a). Na 1
> Au > Fe > Mg
(b). Na > Mg > Fe >Au (c). Mg
> Fe > Na > Au (d). Mg > Na >
Fe >Au

Page 32 of 197
5 Generally, metallic oxides are basic in nature, and non-metallic oxides are 1
acidic in nature. The solution of which of the following oxides in water
will change the colour of blue litmus to red?
(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b)Magnesium oxide (c)Iron
oxide
(d) Copper oxide
6 Which of the following metals does not react even with steam 1
(a) Silver
(b) Iron
(c) Calcium
(d) Sodium
7 Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because - 1
(a) zinc is less reactive than tin
(b)zinc is more reactive than tin
(c) zinc has a higher melting point than tin
(d)zinc is costlier than tin
8 Which of the following is a non-metal but is lustrous? 1
(a)carbon
(b)mercury
(c) iodine
(d) fluorine
9 The metal which is stored in kerosene: 1
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Magnesium
(c) Sodium
(b) Calcium
10 Metal oxides are of nature - 1
(a)Acidic
(b)Basic
(c )Neutral
(d)All of these
Assertion-and-Reason Type
Each question consists of two statements, namely Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). For selecting the correct answer, use the following code:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason
(R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason
(R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
1 Assertion (A): Aluminium is more reactive than iron. Its corrosion is less 1
than that of iron.
Reason (R): Aluminium is covered with a strong protective layer of oxide
,which protects the metal from further corrosion.

Page 33 of 197
2 Assertion (A): Gas bubbles are observed when sodium carbonate is added 1
to dilute hydrochloric acid.
Reason (R): Sulphur dioxide is given off in the reaction.
3 Assertion (A): Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points. 1
Reason (R): A large amount of energy is required to break the strong
inter-ionic attraction in ionic compounds.
4 Assertion (A): Rusting of iron is a slow combustion. 1
Reason (R): Iron slowly reacts with oxygen and form iron oxide.
5 Assertion (A): Sodium chloride conducts electricity in aqueous state but 1
not in solid state.
Reason (R): Sodium chloride is an ionic compound and it form ions in
aqueous solution.
6 Assertion(A): Copper does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid even on 1
heating but it reacts with sulphuric acid.
Reason(R ): Metals generally do not react with acids.
7 Assertion(A): The property of beating a metal into sheets is 1
called ductility.
Reason (R ): Gold and silver are the most malleable metals.
8 Assertion(A): All metals are solid in nature at room temperature. 1
Reason(R ): Mercury occurs in liquid state at room temperature.
9 Assertion(A): Gold and platinum are noble metals. 1
Reason(R ): Both are least reactive metals.
10 Assertion(A): The oxides of sulphur and phosphorus are acidic in 1
nature.
Reason(R ): Metal oxides are basic in nature.
Case study
1 Alloying is a very good method of improving the properties of a metal. This 4
gives the desired properties of the metal. For example, iron is the most
widely used metal. But it is never used in its pure state. This is because pure
iron is very soft and stretches easily when hot. But, if it is mixed with a
small amount of carbon (about 0.05%), it becomes hard and strong. When
iron is mixed with nickel and chromium, we get stainless steel, which is
hard and does not rust.
Thus, if iron is mixed with some other substance, its properties change.
In fact, the properties of any metal can be changed, if it is mixed with
some other substance. The substance added may be a metal or a non-
metal.
i) Which among the following alloys contains non-metal as one of its
constituents?
(a) Brass
(b) Bronze
(c) Amalgam
(d) Steel

Page 34 of 197
 ii) An alloy can be one of the following types:
(a) Homogenous
(b) Heterogeneous
(c) Intermetallic
(d) All of the above
iii) By adding silicon to stainless steel which of the following
property is enhanced?
(a)Resistance to corrosion
(b)Electrical characteristics
(c)Ductility
(d)Malleabilty
iv) Which of the following alloy(s) contain mercury as one of its
constituents?
(a) Zinc amalgam
(b) Alnico
(c) Solder
(d) Bronze
2 On the basis of reactivity of different metals with oxygen, water and acids 4
as well as displacement reactions, the metals have been arranged in the
decreasing order of their reactivity. This arrangement is known as activity
series or reactivity series of metals. The basis of reactivity is the tendency of
metals to lose electrons. If a metal can lose electrons easily to form positive
ions, it will react readily with other substances. Therefore, it will be more
active metal. On the other hand, if a metal loses electrons less rapidly to
form a positive ion, it will react slowly with other substances. Therefore,
such a metal will be less reactive.
i. Which of the following metal is less reactive than hydrogen?
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Magnesium
(d) Lead

ii.Which of the following represents the correct order of reactivity for the
given metals?
(a) Na>Mg>Al>Cu
(b) Mg>Na>Al>Cu
(c) Na>Mg>Cu>Al
(d) Mg > Al > Na > Cu
iii. Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid. It is
because HNO3, is a strong oxidizing agent. It oxidizes the H2, produced by
water and itself gets reduced to any of the nitrogen oxides (N, O, NO, NO2).
But and react with very dilute
HNO3 to evolve H2 gas.
(a) Pb, Cu
(b) Na, K
(c) Mg, Mn
(d) Al, Zn

Page 35 of 197
 iv. Which of the following metals reacts vigorously with oxygen?
(a) Zinc
(b) Magnesium
(c) Sodium
(d) Copper
3 Metals are the elements which are often found in nature in combined form 4
(as ores) but few metals occur in free state too. Metals possess such specific
properties which make them very useful in practical life. The properties
shown by them are lustrous surface, they can also be polished for obtaining
a highly reflective surface, hard and strong in nature, good conductor of heat
an electricity and also malleable and ductile. But few metals are
exceptionally different too in some properties like Sodium and Potassium
are exceptional cases in this case as they can be cut with knife. Metallic
elements possess high melting and boiling points too.
i. Which of the following metals is the most abundant in earth crust?
(a) Al
(b)Fe
(c) Na
(d )Ca
ii.Which of the following is the poor conductor of heat among given metals:
(a) Na
(b) Ca
(c) Pb
(d) Hg
iii.Metal with highest melting point is:
(a) Tungsten
(b) Mercury
(c) Molybdenum
(d) Osmium
iv. Bauxite is an ore of:
(a) Na
(b) Al
(c) Pb
(d) Hg
SA-I
1 Parul bought a statue made of copper. To her surprise, it acquired a dull 2
green coating after a couple of months. Explain the reason.
2 Rajesh has four materials – wooden cork, copper coin, iron nail, ball pen in 2
front of him. He wants to know the materials which show the property of
ductility. Help him to find out the materials.
3 Have you ever seen a blacksmith beating an iron piece? Do you find a 2
change in the shape of these pieces on beating? Would you expect a similar
change in wood log on beating?
4 Which of the following metals can displace the other two metals from their 2
salt solutions? zinc, iron, copper.

Page 36 of 197
 5 An element X on reacting with oxygen forms an oxide X2O.This oxide 2
dissolves in water and turns blue litmus red. State whether element X is a
metal or non-metal and nature of the oxide.
6 Can you store lemon pickle in an aluminium utensil? 2
SA-II
1 Give reasons for the following statements: - 3
(a) We use aluminum foil to wrap food items.
(b) Metals are used in ringing bells.
(c) Copper is used to make hot water tanks and not iron.
2 Write balance chemical equation of the following reactions: 3
(a) Magnesium burning in air
(b) Sulphur reacts with concentrated acid
(c) Iron nail placed in copper sulphate solution.
3 Payel prepared a blue-colored solution of copper sulphate in beaker A and 3
placed an iron nail in it. Babloo prepared a yellowish-green solution of
ferrous sulphate in beaker B and placed a copper wire in it. What changes
will they observe in the two beakers after an hour?
4 Saloni took a piece of burning charcoal and collected the gas evolved in a 3
test tube.
(a) How will she find the nature of the gas?
(b) Write down the word equations of all the reactions taking place in this
process.
5 Zinc sulphate forms a colourless solution in water. Will you observe any 3
colour change on adding copper turning in it?
6 Rahul bought an iron rod from hardware store. He noticed that the iron 3
rod is coated with a thin layer of zinc.
(a) Can you explain why zinc is used to coat iron? What is the process
called?
(b) If the rod is made of steel will a coating of zinc is required?
LA
1 (a) A metal M does not liberate hydrogen from acids but reacts with oxygen 5
to give a black colored product. Identify M and black colored product and
also explain the reaction of M with oxygen. (b)A non-metal A is an
important constituent of our food and forms two oxides B and C. Oxide B
is toxic whereas C causes global warming.
(i) Identify A, B and C.
(ii) To which group of periodic table does A belong?
2 (a) An alkali metal A gives a compound B (molecular mass=40) on reacting 5
with water. The compound B gives a soluble compound C on treatment
with aluminum oxide. Identify A, B and C and give the reactions involved.
(b) P, Q and R are 3 elements which undergo chemical reactions
according to the following equations:

Page 37 of 197
 (x) P2O3+2Q → Q2O3+2P
(y) 3RSO4+2Q → Q2(SO3)3+3R
(z) 3RO+2P → P2O3
Answer the following questions:
(i) Which element is most reactive?
(ii) Which element is least reactive?
(iii) State the type of reaction listed above.
3 i) An iron knife dipped in a blue copper sulphate solution turns the blue 5
solution light green- why? Write the chemical equation.
ii) Name two major non-metals which are present in fertilizers and
enhance the growth of plants.
4 (a)Which non-metal is essential for our Life and all living beings 5
inhale it during breathing?
(b)One day Reeta went to a jewellery’s shop with her mother. Her mother
gave an old gold jewellery to the goldsmith to polish. Next day when they
brought the jewellery back, they found that there was a slight loss in its
weight. Can you suggest a reason for the loss in weight?

Page 38 of 197
 CH- METALS AND NON METALS

Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)

Q.No. Value points/ key points Marks Total

allotted Marks
to each
value/key
point
Multiple choice questions

1. a) Cu and AgNO3 solution 1 1

2. c) hydrogen 1 1

3. d) produces a ringing sound when beaten 1 1

4. b) Na > Mg > Fe > Au 1 1

5. a) Sulphur dioxide 1 1

6. a) silver 1 1

7. b) zinc is more reactive than tin. 1 1

8. c) Iodine 1 1

9. c) sodium 1 1

10. b) Basic 1 1

Assertion reason

1. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 1 1

true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
2. (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false . 1 1

3. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true 1 1
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion
(A).

Page 39 of 197
4. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 1 1
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
5. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 1 1
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
6. c) Assertion is true statement but reason is false. 1 1

7. d) Assertion is false but reason is true. 1 1

8. d) Assertion is false, but reason is true. 1 1

9. a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the 1 1

reason is correct explanation of assertion.

10. b) Both assertion and reason are correct but 1 1

reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

Case study
1. (i) steel 1+1+1+1 4
(ii) Homogeneous
(iii) Electrical Characteristics
(iv) Zinc amalgam
2. (i) Copper 1+1+1+1 4
(ii) Na>Mg>
Al>Cu
(iii)Mg, Mn
(iv) Sodium
3. i) Al 1+1+1+1 4
ii) Pb
iii) Tungsten
iv) Al
v) Sodium and potassium

Page 40 of 197
 SA-I

1. Copper acquires a light green coating when kept 2 2

for a few months:
•Upon exposure to air in the atmosphere, the
copper metal gains a dull green colour on its
surface due to the corrosion of copper.
•Copper metal, upon exposure to the
atmosphere, form a mixture of hydroxide and
carbonate copper, also called basic carbonate.
•This mixture is obtained by the reaction of the
metallic copper with the moisture present in the
air, which contains oxygen gas and carbon
dioxide.
•Due to the formation of these compounds, the
surface of metallic copper is covered with a
green layer containing Copper hydroxide and
carbonate.
•The balanced chemical reaction for the
conversion of copper into a mixture of
hydroxide and carbonate of copper can be given
as

This is why copper acquired a dull green coating

after a couple of months.

2. Metals show the property of ductility so Rajesh 2 2

should find out which materials are made up of
metals. We know that metals are sonorous, so
Rajesh can simply strike the materials against
each other and note which items make a ringing
sound. He will find out that iron nail and copper
coin are metals while wooden cork and ball pen
are made up of non-metals.

Page 41 of 197
3. Yes, we have seen blacksmith beating the iron 2 2
pieces. We have seen the changes in the shape
on beating. It increases in size and it does not
break.
If a wood log is beaten, it does not change its
shape but it breaks into pieces
4. Zn as the reactivity order of metals- Zn>Fe >Cu 2 2

5. X is non-metals and nature of the oxide is 1+1 2

Acidic.
6. We cannot store acidic food stuffs in aluminium 2 2
utensils because aluminium reacts with acids.
The food gets spoilt.
SA-II
1. (a) Aluminium foils are used to wrap food items 1+1+1 3
because aluminium being a soft malleable metal it
can be beaten to in sheets to form thin wrapping
sheets. Moreover, it does not react with food items.
(b) Metals have sonority. Due to this property,
they can produce ringing sounds. That is why
metals are used in ringing bells.
(c) Copper, rather than steel or an alloy of iron, is
used to make hot water tanks because copper does
not react with either water or steam, while iron
reacts with steam to corrode the tank. Copper is
unaffected by cold water, hot water, or steam,
whereas iron is influenced by steam. Iron would
react with steam produced by hot water if water
tanks were made of iron.
3Fe (s)+4H2O (g)→Fe3O4(s)+4H2(g)
2. (a) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO 1+1+1 3
(b) S + 4HNO3 → SO2+ 4NO2+ 2H2O
(c) CuSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Cu

Page 42 of 197
3. Iron is in general more reactive than copper, and 3 3
thus it displaces copper from its respective salt
solution. In beaker A, copper’s reddish brown
layer may deposit on the surface of the iron nail,
and copper sulphate’s blue colour solution will
result in yellowish green because the process
forms into iron sulphate. In beaker B, there’s no
change because the less reactive property of
copper is not able to displace iron from its
ferrous sulphate solution.
Fe(s)Iron+ CuSO4(aq)→FeSO4(aq) +Cu(s)Copper
Hence, the changes mentioned above are
changes that will be observed in the two beakers
after an hour.
4. (a)She can find the nature of the gas by using a wet 2+1 3
litmus paper. After bringing the litmus paper in
contact with the gas, if it turns the blue litmus paper
into red, it is acidic. Similarly, if it turn the red litmus
into blue, it is basic.
(b) the word equations of the reaction is:
Carbon + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide + heat

5. Copper has a lower reactivity. As a result, 3 3

adding it to a zinc sulphate solution does not
remove zinc from the salt solution. As a result,
the displacement reaction does not occur.
6. (a)Because zinc is more reactive than iron, it reacts 2+1 3
first with air and moisture thus preventing the iron
from rusting. This process is called galvanization. In
this process, iron is coated with zinc by plunging it
into molten zinc, or by electrolysis.Thus iron do not
get rusted.

(b) Steel is an alloy which do not undergo

corrosion so it do not require any coating of
zinc.
LA

Page 43 of 197
1. (a) Copper does not liberate hydrogen from acids 2+3 5
as hydrogen is more reactive than copper. It reacts
with oxygen or air to form black colored cupric
oxide. Hence, 'M' is Cu and the black product is
CuO.
(b) Non-metal A is carbon. Its two oxides are carbon
monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO2). Out of
these, B is carbon monoxide (CO) as it is toxic while
C is carbon dioxide (CO2) because it is responsible
for global warming. Carbon belong to group 14.
2. (a) Alkali metal sodium when reacting with water 2+3 5
gives a chemical compound sodium hydroxide.
When sodium hydroxide is treated with aluminium
oxide gives a soluble compound sodium aluminate.
Hence, A is sodium, B is sodium hydroxide and C
is sodium aluminate.
(b) ) Most reactive metal is Q as it has displaced
both P and R from their compounds.
(ii) Element R is least reactive as it has been
replaced by P and Q.
(iii) They are all displacement reactions.
3. (a)i) Because Fe displaced Cu from CuSO4 2+1+2 5
solution.
Fe + CuSO4 = FeSO4 +Cu
ii) Nitrogen and phosphorus are non-metals that
are found in fertilisers and help plants grow.
4. (a)Oxygen is a non-metal that plants and animals 2+3 5
use to breathe. It is necessary for our survival as
well.
(b)The goldsmith must have used acid to clean the
gold jewellery and some gold must have dissolved
in it.
Therefore, there was loss in weight of the
jewellery.

Page 44 of 197
 CH-4 FORCE AND PRESSURE

SECTION A
1
1 Which of the following statement is correct-
a) Atmospheric pressure increases as height increases.
b) Atmospheric pressure remains same at all heights.
c) Atmospheric pressure decreases as height increases.
d) Atmospheric pressure decreases as height decreases.
1
2 When we Press the bulb of a dropper with its nozzle kept in water, air in the dropper is
seen to escape in the form of bubbles . Once we release the pressure on the bulb, water
gets filled in the dropper. The rise of water in the dropper is due to-
a) Pressure of water.
b) Gravity of the earth.
c) Shape of rubber bulb.
d) Atmospheric pressure.
1
3 At least how many objects are needed for the interaction of force-
a) Two
b) Three
c) One
d) Four
4 Which relationship of pressure is correct when three points are placed 1
at the same horizontal line.

a) Pressure at A>Pressure at B>Pressure at C

b) Pressure at A=Pressure at B=Pressure at C
c) Pressure at A<Pressure at B<Pressure at C
d) both a and b
5 Which statement is incorrect? 1
a) SI unit of pressure is Pascal.
b) SI unit of force is Newton.
c) Unit of pressure is Joule.
d) Unit of area is square centimeter

Page 45 of 197
6 A brick is kept in three different ways as shown in the fig: 1

The pressure exerted by the brick on the table will be –

a) Maximum in position B
b) Maximum in position A
c) Maximum in position C
d) Equal in all cases
7 A water tank has four taps fixed at points A, B, C and D as shown in the fig. 1

The water will flow out from the same pressure from taps at-
(a) B and C
(b) C and D
(c) A and B
(d) A and C
8 During dry weather, while combing hair, sometimes we experience hair flying apart. 1
The force responsible for this :
(a) Force of gravity
(b) Electrostatic force
(c) Force of friction
(d) Magnetic force
9 Study the given diagram, In case of given diagram what will be the effect of force? 1

a) The body must remain at rest.

b) The body must move with a uniform velocity.
c) The body must be accelerated.
d) The body must move along a circle.

Page 46 of 197
10 Observe the vessels A, B, C, and D shown in fig below carefully. Volume of water taken 1
in each vessel is as shown. Arrange them in the order of decreasing pressure at the base
of each vessel:

(a) Figure A>Figure B>Figure C> Figure D

(b) Figure B>Figure C>Figure D> Figure A
(c ) Figure C>Figure D>Figure A> Figure B
(d) Figure D>Figure B>Figure A> Figure C
ASSERTION AND REASON

In the questions (Q1 to Q 10) below, two statements are given. One is labeled as
Assertion and the other one is labeled as the Reason. Select the correct option
provided below that applies best for the statements.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are True and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the Correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(d) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
1 1
Assertion: with an increase in the temperature of a gas inside a container, its pressure
also increases.
Reason: On heating the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increase, which in
turn results in a greater force exerted on the walls of the container.
2 Assertion: when the resultant of all the forces acting on a body is zero. The forces are 1
said to be unbalanced. 1unba
Reason: The unbalanced force can change direction of motion.
3 Assertion: When a force is applied on a moving object in the direction of motion its 1
speed increases.
Reason: When a force is applied on a soft object, it changes the size and shape of the
object.

4 Assertion: A ball rolling along the ground gradually slows down and finally comes to 1
rest.
Reason: This happens due to the force of friction between the ball and the ground.
5 Assertion: As we move to higher altitude breathing can becomes difficult. 1
Reason: At higher altitude there is decrease in the atmospheric pressure.

Page 47 of 197
6 Assertion: The relationship between force, pressure, and area is given by P=F/A. 1
Reason: The SI unit of pressure is N/m2 or Pascal (Pa).
7 Assertion: We can drink cold drink from a bottle with help of straw. 1
Reason: The pressure inside the straw is more than the pressure
outside.
8 Assertion: When the resultant of all the forces acting on a body is non zero, the forces 1
are said to be unbalanced.
Reason: The unbalanced forces can change direction of motion.
9 Assertion: A potter makes pots of different sizes and shapes from kneaded clay. 1
Reason: Force may bring about change in the size or shape of an
object.
10 Assertion: In a tug of war, when both the teams pull the rope, with equal and opposite 1
force the rope will remain stationary.
Reason: The unequal force may not bring about change in state of rest.
SECTION-B
SA-I
1 We know that there is a huge amount of atmospheric pressure on us. But we do not 2
experience its effect. Why?

2 What are the effects of force on an object? 2

3 Define one Pascal? 2
4 Calculate the pressure exerted by a brick, which applies a force of 2.5 2
N, when:
a) it is placed upright on the soil,
b) it is placed on its widest base.
The dimensions of the brick are 25𝑐𝑚 × 10 𝑐𝑚 × 5 𝑐m
5 In a tug of war, Side A applies 15N force and side B applies 88N force. Which side will 2
the rope move ? What will be the net force acting 2on th
6 State the effect of force in the following cases: 2
a) A potter making pots out of clay.
b) An athlete making a high jump to clear the bar at certain height.

SECTION-C
SA-II
1 Volume of water in each vessel is shown below. Arrange them in order of increasing 3
pressure at the base of each vessel. Explain the reason.

Page 48 of 197
2 Two rods A and B having same weight and equal length have different thickness. Rod A 3
is thinner while rod B is thicker. They are held vertically on the surface of sand which
one them will sink more? Why?
3 A pressure of 25 Pascal is applied on an area of 4cm2. Compute the force being applied 3
on this area?
4 What will happen if you make two tiny holes at equal heights from the bottom in a 3
plastic bottle filled with water? What does the experiment prove?
5 Fig show a car sticking to a electromagnet. Name the force acting on 3
a car . Which one of them is large ?

6 Two rods of the same weight and equal length have different thickness. They are 3
held vertically on the surface of sand as shown in the below figure. Which one of
them will sink more? Why?

SECTION-D

LA
1 (a) Write down the characteristics of pressure exerted by a liquid (Any three 5
characteristics).
(b) Why force of gravity is termed as non-contact force? Explain?
2 a) Why school bags are provided with broad straps? 5

Page 49 of 197
 b) What is the relationship between pressures with area?
c) Why do cutting instruments have a sharp edge?
3 (a) Mention the relationship between pressure, force and area. 5
(b) Mention two cases in which it is useful to decrease the pressure exerted by a
force and two cases in which it is useful to increase the pressure exerted by a
force.
4 Give the reason for the following: 5
a) Some people suffer from nose bleeding at high altitudes.
b) It is easier to sew with pointed needle than a blunt needle.
c) Iron rails of railway tracks are fixed over wide wooden or concrete sleepers.

SECTION-E
(Case study based questions)(Any four sub parts)
1 4
On Lokesh's birthday Shreya was given charge to amuse children with some little tricks.
Shreya sticked balloons to the wall by just rubbing them in her clothes. She bent the
water steam from a tab without touching it. She did so by bringing big balloon near the
water. All children were very happy on seeing this little magic. Everybody praised
Shreya.
a)How do balloons stick to walls?
b)How Shreya bent the water stream by bringing a big balloon near it and without
touching it?
c) Define the force in the above scenario.
d) What type of force is it?
e) What values of Shreya is shown here?
A force of 100 N is applied on a square of side 10 cm and same amount of force is
2 applied on a circle 4
a) Are equal pressure applied on both these objects?
b) Find out the pressure on the square in SI system.
c) Find out the value of pressure on the circle.
d) On which object the pressure is greater?
e) Name the factors on which pressure depends

3 In our daily life, we perform or observe activities such as opening or shutting a door, 4
lifting or pushing a weight, squeezing a bottle of ketchup, cutting vegetables, and making
different shapes with clay. All these activities require us to apply some kind of push or
pull. A push or pull is also used to hit the striker in a game of carom, kick a football,
catch a ball, etc., A push or pull that tends to affect an object in some way is called a
force and a force arises only when two objects interact. Force has magnitude as well as
direction. Force can make a stationary object move, change the shape, increase or
decrease the speed of the object, change the direction or even bring a moving object to
rest.

a) Two forces of magnitude 2N and 3N act on a body in the same direction. Find the
resultant force.
b) Name a force which is always attractive?
c) Write one effect of force.
d) Write one point of difference between balanced and unbalanced forces.

Page 50 of 197
 e) A ball of dough is rolled into a flat chapatti. Name the force causing the change in the
shape of the dough.
4 The discovery of atmospheric pressure gives a fact that air has weight. The weight 4
of the atmosphere presses down on the earth’s surface and creates pressure on it.
The pressure at any point exerted by the weight of the air above the earth surface is
called atmospheric pressure. The atmospheric pressure on the earth's surface at sea
level is one hundred thousand Pascal i.e.100 K Pa. The atmospheric pressure at a
place decreases with the increase in altitude. The atmospheric pressure at a place is
the force exerted by the weight of the air column above that place.

a) What happens, when the pressure inside a sealed bottle exceeds the atmospheric
pressure?
b) Ink does not spill out of an ink dropper until it is pressed. Why?
c) Write the cause of atmospheric pressure exerted on earth.
d) Why do our ears pop as we go higher up on mountains?
e) Why does a rubber sucker stick to a surface once it is pressed? Explain.

Page 51 of 197
 MARKING SCHEME
Chapter Name: - Force and Pressure
[Any other relevant answers, not given here, be suitably rewarded]
Q. No Value Marks Total
points/ Key allotted marks
points to each
Value
points/
Key
points
1. c) Atmospheric pressure decreases as height increases. 1 1

2. d) Atmospheric pressure. 1 1

3. a) Two 1 1

4. b) Pressure at A=Pressure at B=Pressure at C 1 1

5. c) Unit of pressure is joule. 1 1

6. b) Maximum in position A 1 1

7. a) B and C 1 1

8. b) Electrostatic force 1 1

9. c) The body must be accelerated 1 1

10. (d) Figure D>Figure B>Figure A> Figure C 1 1

1. a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1

2. d) A is false but R is correct. 1 1

3. b)Both A and R are correct, but R is 1 1

not the correct explanation of A.

4. a) Both A and R are correct, correct and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1

5. a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1

6. b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the 1 1
assertion
7. c) A is true but R is false 1 1

8. b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the 1 1
assertion
9. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the assertion. 1 1

Page 52 of 197
10. c) A is true but R is false 1 1

SA-I

1 Give proper reason. 2 2

2. Write any two effects. 1+1 2

3. Proper Definition. 2 2

4. We know 2
Pressure = Force/Area
When it is placed on the widest base then its length and breadth are
25 cm and 10 cm respectively.
a) P = 500 Pa 1
b) Area = 25x10=250 cm 2
=0.025 m2 Therefore, 1
Pressure = 2.5/0.025=100
Pa
5. The rope will move towards B. 1 2
If two forces are acting in opposite directions, then the net force will be
the difference between the two forces. Therefore, the net force is 88- 1
15=73N.
6. a) Change in shape 1 2
b) Change in state of motion 1
SA-II

1. Pressure at C<A< B< D. 1 3

Proper reason 2
2. A will sink more due to its less surface area. (Explanation) 1+2 3

3. Force=pressure× area 1 3
= 25×[4÷10000] 1½
=0.01 Newton ½
4. The water will start gushing out from the two holes and will fall at 1 3
equal distances on the two sides of the bottle.
This proves that (1) a- liquid exerts pressure on the sides of a container 2
also and (2) a liquid exerts equal pressure at the same depth.
5. The forces working on the object (car) are : 1 3
(i) Force of gravity (downwards) 1
(ii) Magnetic force (upwards).
Since the car is moving upwards, so magnetic force due to electromagnet 1
is greater.

Page 53 of 197
6. The rod B will sink more. 1 3
Pressure (P) = The rod A having more area of contact compared to rod B,
and the forces is same because of same weight of the rods. Therefore the 2
rod B will exert more pressure on that area than rod A. Hence, the rod B
will sink more
LA

1 a) The characteristics of liquid pressure are: 1+1+1 5

• Liquid pressure increases with depth.
• Liquid pressure remains the same in all directions at a given
depth.
• Liquid pressure depends upon the density of the liquid.
• Liquid exerts pressure on the sides of the container.
• A liquid seeks its own level.(any 3) 2
b) Gravitational force is considered to be a non-contact force because
it is an attracting force which does not include contact between the
objects to exert force.

2. a. to increase the surface area in contact with the shoulders and 2 5

reduce pressure on the shoulders.
b. pressure is inversely proportional to area. 1
c. the area of cross-section decreases and hence pressure exerted by them 2
increases.
3 a) Pressure (P) = 1 5
Force/Area
b)Useful to
decrease 2
pressure
(1) Snow boots have large surface area to minimize pressure
(2) When you hang bag in two shoulder it feels lighter than when
2
you having it in one hand.
Useful to increase pressure
(1) Nails have pointed ends to increase pressure by minimizing surface
area
Knives are sharpened to increase pressure or apply maximum pressure
with less force.

Page 54 of 197
4 a) The atmospheric pressure is maximum on the surface of the earth. 2 5
When we go to a higher altitude then the atmospheric pressure
decreases. So, at high altitudes, the atmospheric pressure becomes
much less than the pressure exerted by the fluids inside our body. Since
our internal pressure by fluids is greater than the external air pressure
some of the thin blood vessels in our nose burst and bleeding can occur. 1½
b) It is easier to sew with a pointed needle because the pointed end
reduces the area of contact there by increasing pressure and enabling
us to stitch easily. 1½
c) Iron rails are fixed over wide wooden or concrete sleepers to reduce
pressure received from the train by increasing the area of contact, because
if surface area increases pressure decreases and vice versa.
CASE STUDY

1 a) Induced negative charge. Negative charge attracted to the positive 1 4

charge on the wall. 1
b) Negative charge on the balloon attracts positive charge on water
molecules. 1
c) Definition of electrostatic force. 1
d) Non contact force
1
e) Scientific aptitude
2 a) No 1+1+1+ 4
b) Pressure=10000 Pa 1+1
c) Pressure=3184.71 pa
d) Pressure on square
e) Area and Thrust
3 a) 5N 1+1+1+ 4
b) Gravitational force 1+1
c) any one effect
d) any one point of difference
e) muscular force
4 a) The bottle bursts out. 1+1+1+ 4
b) internal pressure becomes equal to external pressure. 1+1
c) earths gravitational pull.
d) Air pressure around our ears decreases.
e) atmospheric pressure outside the sucker becomes more than inside
pressure.

Page 55 of 197
 CHAPTER NO.5
FRICTION
Q.No. QUESTIONS MARKS
SECTION A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1 Friction can be reduced by using: 1
a) spikes
b) sand
c) talcum powder
d) chalk dust
2 A matchstick struck on a matchbox catches fire easily because: 1
a) of friction
b) of chemical reaction
c) of the force of heating the match stick
d) of both (a) and (b)

3 Here fluid friction or drag force is related to the figure: 1

a) 1,2,4
b) 1,3,5
c) 1,4,5
d) 1,3,6

4 A brick is rubbed on a surface in three different ways, as shown in the figure: 1

a) Friction is more in fig-A
b) Friction is more in fig-B
c) Friction is more in fig- C
d) Friction is same in all the three figures

5 Which of the following is true about friction? 1

a) Frictional force can be minimized by using rough surface.
b) Friction always acts opposite to the direction of relative motion.
c) Friction does not depend on the surface area of contact.
d) both a and b
6 A man is pushing a box from left to right as shown in the figure. 1
The force of friction that acts on the box is in the direction-
a) vertically downwards
b) vertically upwards
c) from left to right
d) from right to left

7 Which of the following statements is not correct? 1

a) Friction acts on a boat moving on water.
b) Friction acts on a ball rolling along the ground.

Page 56 of 197
 c) Friction does not act on a ball moving on air
d) Friction acts on a motorbike moving on a smooth road.
8 On applying oil on door hinges friction will : 1
a) increase
b) decrease
c) disappear altogether
d) will remain unchanged
9 See the image, why do sportsperson prefer this type of shoes? 1

a) It is on trend (fashion).
b) It is available in different colours and designs.
c) It increases the friction and provides better grip on the ground.
d) It decreases friction.
10 Machines parts are frequently oiled or greased as it helps in ? 1
a) making the part look new and shiny
b) less energy wastage
c) increase of the efficiency of the machine
d) both (b) and (c)
In the questions (Q11 to Q19) below, two statements are given. One is
labeled as Assertion and the other one is labeled as the Reason. Select the
correct option provided below that applies best for the statements
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are True And Reason is the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the Correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(d) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
11 Assertion: Friction can be reduced by reducing the surface area of contact 1
between two surfaces.
Reason: Friction also depends on the force compressing two surfaces
together.
12 Assertion: While walking friction between feet and road always acts opposite 1
to the direction of walking .
Reason: While walking the person pushes the surface below his feet backward
to get the reaction force to move forward.
13 Assertion: If you stop pedaling your bicycle after some time it stops by itself 1
without any brake applied by you.
Reason: The friction between the road and cycle tires brings the running cycle
at rest.

Page 57 of 197
14 Assertion: A person jumps from an aeroplane and is falling down with high 1
speed. Then he opens his parachute and his speed reduces.
Reason: Fluid friction increases with increase in the speed of the moving
body.
15 Assertion: Carrom coins move faster on the carom board when dusted with 1
talcum powder.
Reason: Talcum powder helps in increasing friction.
16 Assertion: Airplanes can move at a much greater speed than motor cars. 1
Reason: Streamlined shape reduces friction in fluids.
17 Assertion: Carpenters often grease screws before fixing them. 1
Reason: Lubricants can be liquids, semi-liquids or solids.
18 Assertion: It is easier to walk on a wet marble floor in compare to dry marble 1
floor.
Reason: The water forms thin layer between the feet and the floor which
decreases the friction.
19 Assertion: A meteor generally burns when it enters the earth’s atmosphere. 1
Reason: Friction leads to production of heat.

SECTION-B

SA-I
1 Mention two elements those are required for the proper functioning of a car: 2
a) to reduce friction.
b) to increase friction.
2 (a) Mention two factors on which fluid friction depends but friction between 2
two solid surfaces does not depend.
(b) Give a daily life example related to the dependence of
fluid friction on any one of those factors.
3 Why the tyres of vehicles have treads on them? What will happen if plane and 2
smooth tyres are used on road?

4 Samir has gone to a shopping complex. It started raining heavily. 2

There are four paths to come out to the main road- one has loose soil,
second is laid with polished marble, third is laid with bricks and the
fourth has gravel surface. Samir wishes to reach the main road. Which
path will you choose so that there is less chances of slipping? Give
reason.
5 Roshan and his father were purchasing groceries from a shop. Nearby was a 2
mechanic shop, the person was cutting a metallic rod using an electric cutter.
The loud sound draws the attention of Roshan. He also observed that sparks
were coming out at the point of contact of the two objects (i.e. the iron rod, the
cutter). Why does the metal spark when cut?

Page 58 of 197
 SECTION-C
SA-II
1 Images of three different sports are shown in the figures: 3

a) Mention the use of friction related to each of the sports.

b) How can the usage of friction in each case can be enhanced ?
2 3

a) Name the type of friction acting in the three cases as shown in the figures.
b) What are the values of the force of friction in fig-A and fig-B?
c) Is the magnitude of frictional force greater in fig-C than that in fig-B or not?
Justify.
3 (a) Give one example of- 3
(i) liquid lubricant
(ii) semi liquid lubricant
(iii) solid lubricant
(b) Also mention one application of each type of lubricants.
4 Atheletes and other sportsperson often make use of friction. For 3
example, Gymnasts often apply some coarse substance on their hands.
a) Why do gymnasts do so?
b) How is friction affected by nature of two substances in contact?

5 Equal volumes of different liquids are taken in four containers 3

separately. The table shows the respective name of the fluids. A gram
seed is dropped in every container at the same time. A stopwatch is
used to measure the time duration of it reaching to the bottom that is
shown in the table.

Liquid Time
Honey 15 seconds
Glycerine 8 seconds
Water 2 second
Coconut Oil 4 second

(a) In which case the gram seed takes the least time to

Page 59 of 197
 reach the bottom of the container?
(b)What are the factors that affect fluid friction?
(c)Arrange in ascending order the fluid friction offered by equal volume of
liquids.
6 Lubricating of machines results in less wear and tear as well as less wastage of 3
energy.
a) What do you mean by lubricants?
b) Give one example of lubricants in the form of (i) semi-liquid (ii) solid.
c) Mention two other methods of reducing friction.
SECTION-D
LA
1 (a) Explain in details the cause of friction. 5
(b)Mention the factors on which force of friction depends.
(c) Mention the type of friction acting in the functioning of ball
bearing.
2 (a) Mention any two examples where friction can be disadvantageous and also 5
mention the harms friction may result in those two cases.
(b) What precautions can be taken in those two cases to reduce friction?
(c) Discuss the dependence of fluid friction on the nature of the fluid with
example.
3 Raima and Sam together perform an experiment, in a vacuum 5
chamber. A feather of small bird, an apple and a 10 rupee coin is
dropped from the same height. The time taken by them to reach
the bottom of the chamber is t1, t2 and t3 respectively. Sam asks
Raima to guess the timing of fall of these objects. Raima
answers t2> t3> t1.
a) Is Raima correct? Give reason.
b) What are the forces acting on the objects in the vacuum chamber?
c) If the chamber develops a hole, will the experimental results differ?
d) What are the factors that affect fluid friction?
4 It was a cold winter morning, Harpreet and Gunjan got ready to go to 5
school. But their car did not start. So, their father asked both of them to
push the car from the back. At the very starting,the car did not move at
all. They experienced that although they had to push with all their
might initially to move the car, the push required to keep the car
rolling was smaller.
a) Explain their experience.
b) What friction is acting initially at the start and at the later phase?
c) Name the special shape given to the automobiles.
d) What type of friction is acting on a moving car?
i) in the front of the car
ii) at the bottom of the car

Page 60 of 197
 SECTION-E
(Case study based questions) (Any four sub parts)
1 An experimental data of an activity on friction acting between a block and a 4
table surface is shown below.

(a)Which type of friction is represented by the part BC in the graph?

(b)Find the value of force of limiting friction from the given data.
(c)Why does the force of friction decrease from its previous value when the
body starts moving?
(d) Arrange sliding friction, limiting friction and rolling friction in increasing
order.
(e) Find the resultant force in Sl. No. 5 of the above table

Sujoy and his friends went to Eden Garden stadium to enjoy the cricket match
between India and Australia .This was a bright morning with river wind from

Page 61 of 197
 ganges that was gusting through the ground . India won the toss and choose to
bowl first putting excellent stat and put Australia under pressure from the
beginning .However Australia encountered significant challenge as the ball
begin to behave unpredictably ,deviating from his natural trajectory .This
made it difficult for the batsmen to predict and respond to the deliveries
2
effectively .At one point of time ,the handle of the bat of an Australian
batsmen slipped . He promptly replaced the grip cover to maintain a firm hold
.Observing the match closely ,Sujoy and his friends observed India bowlers
repeatedly rubbing one side of a ball with a piece of a cloth. Despite India 4
dominance in the match suddenly heavy rain begin to pour forcing the players
to leave the field. The ground staff quickly cover the pitch and outfield with
plastic sheet to prevent it from rain. Despite their efforts , the rain persisted
and ground remain wet and unsuitable for play. Consequently, the match
officials decided to postpone the game to a later date. Sujoy and his friends
reluctantly left the stadium and returned home disappointed.

a) Guess the reason for rubbing the ball with cloth by Indian bowlers.
b) How the new grip cover of handle of the bat helped the batsman to hold the
bat firmly?
c) What factors of weather helped the Indian bowlers? How?
d) Why it was not possible to play in wet field.
e) Write one method to overcome the situation.
3 Students were playing carrom during their games class. While playing, 4
the striker was not moving properly from one place to another.
Everybody thought the carrom board is not good.They started
complaining to their teacher. The teacher listening to them sprinkled
some talcum powder on the board.
a) Will the students now able to play? Why the teacher sprinkled some talcum
powder?
b) Give one more example which serves the same purpose.
c) What is the name of the maximum value of the force of
friction between two surfaces that comes into play just before the
onset of relative motion between them?
d) Define the physical quantity mentioned in part (c ).
e) Why is static friction more than sliding friction?

Page 62 of 197
4 Aman wants to buy a scooty. On several times of request, his father 4
has taken him to the vehicle shop. The shopkeeper has shown him so
many varieties of scooty that he is still thinking whether to buy narrow
tyre or wide tire scooty.

a) Which one is greater- the force of friction offered by road to

narrow tyres or the force of friction offered by road to wide
tires? Give reason.
b) What is the benefit of using vehicles with wide tyres?
c) Why does driver prefer new tyre rather than an old one?
d) Name the type of friction that comes into play between the tyre and road
when the scooty is in motion.
e) Name the type of friction that comes into play between the tyre and road
when the scooty kept at rest by applying a brakes.

Page 63 of 197
 MARKING SCHEME
Chapter No.:- 05
Chapter Name: - Friction
[Any other relevant answers, not given here, be suitably rewarded]

Q. Value Mark Tota

No. Points/Key s l
mar
Points allott ks
ed to
each
value
1. (c) talcum powder 1 1

2. (d) both (a) and (b) 1 1

3. (b) 1,3,5 1 1

4. (d) Friction is same in all the three figures. 1 1

5. (d) both a and b 1 1

6. (d) from right to left 1 1

7. (c)Friction does not act on a ball moving through air. 1 1

8. (b) decrease 1 1

9. (c)It increases the friction and provides better grip on the ground 1 1

10. (d) Both (b) and ( c) 1 1

11. (d) A is False but R is true. 1 1

12. (d) A is False but R is true. 1 1

13. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1

14. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. 1 1

15. (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1

16. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1

17. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 1 1

18. (d) A is false but R is true. 1 1

19 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1

Page 64 of 197
 SA-I

1 (a) Grease, Ball Bearing ½+½ 2

(b) Break, Grooves in tires ½+½

2 (a) Area of contact, speed of the moving body ½+½ 2

(b) Any one example 1
3 The treads improve the grip on the road. It increases friction. A smooth 2 2
tire may lead to skidding of vehicles and chances of accident. In this
case, friction will be drastically reduced which is not at all desired in this
case.
4 The fourth path which has gravel should be preferred. In compare to 1 2
other paths, the path with gravel has more friction (friction depends on 1
smoothness of the surface), which will help to walk on it.
5 The high-speed friction between the tool and metal produces heat and 2 2
hence we get to see sparks.
SA-II

1 (a) Weightlifting – To get firm grip ½ 3

on the rod Bike Race – Grip ½
between tires and road
½
Athletics – Grip between sole of the shoes and ground
(b) Weightlifting – Rubbing chalk dust/sand in palm ½
before lifting Bike Race – By providing treads on ½
tyre. ½
Athletics – By providing proper grooves or spikes to the shoes and
ground
2 (a) A -Static friction, B – Limiting friction, C- Sliding friction 1 3
(b) 10 N and 12 N. 1
(c) The magnitude of frictional force in fig-C is smaller than
that in fig-B. Because sliding friction is weaker than limiting 1
friction
3 (a) i) Oil, ii) grease, iii) talcum powder ½+½+ 3
(b) One application of each ½
½+½+
½
4 (a) By doing so, gymnasts increase the friction between their 2 3
hands and the uneven bars which gives them a better grip.
(b) Friction reduces for smooth surface whereas friction increases
for rough surface. 1

Page 65 of 197
5 (a) Water ½ 3
(b) Factors affecting fluid friction_ ½+½+
(i) nature of the fluid ½
(ii) shape of the moving object
(iii) speed of the moving object
(c)Water < coconut oil < Glycerin < Honey 1

6 (a) Lubricants are the substances which can reduce the force of 1 3
friction between two surfaces in contact.
(b) (i) Grease (ii) Talcum powder
(c) (i) Polishing (ii) use of ball-bearings ½+½
½+½
LA

1. (a) Detail explanation 2 5

(b) i) Roughness or smoothness 1
ii) Force compressing two surfaces together. 1
(c) Rolling friction
1
2. (a) Any two examples 2 5
(b) One Precaution in each case 2
(c) Dependence with example
1
3. (a) No, Raima is incorrect. In vacuum, air drag will be absent. So, ½+1 5
t1=t2=t3.
(b) gravitational force
(c) Yes, the result will differ as air will enter and objects will get
affected by air friction while falling. 1
(d) Fluid friction 1
depends on-
(i) nature of the fluid.
(ii) shape of the moving object. ½+½+
(iii) speed of the moving object. ½
4. (a) Initially they had to apply force to set the car in motion but once the 2 5
car started rolling, they had to apply force only to balance rolling
friction of the car, the value of which is very less.
(b) At start- Static friction; Later- Rolling friction
(c) Streamlined shape ½ + ½1
(d) (i) Fluid friction (air drag) ½
(ii) Rolling friction ½

Page 66 of 197
 CASE STUDY

1 (a)Sliding friction 1+1+1+1 4

(b) 50 N
(c) Sliding friction is weaker than static friction. Explanation.
(d) Rolling friction, sliding friction, limiting friction
(e) 10N
2 (a) They rubbed one particular side of the ball with the cloth to polish 1+1+1+1 4
that side, as ball would be deviated from its actual trajectory due to less +1
air friction in smooth side compared to other rough side.
(b) Lines and grooves on grip cover improve the friction by
increasing the roughness of surface.
(c) River wind gust from the Ganges helped the Indian bowlers to
get better deviation of the ball. As wind was gusting through
field, relative speed between object (ball) and Fluid (air)
increased. Therefore, friction due to air increased.
(d) Due to less friction.
(e) Dry the field to increase friction.(ANY FOUR)

3 (a) Yes, now the carom coins will move easily on the board. 1 4
Teacher sprinkled talcum powder to reduce the friction. This acts as 1
lubricants. 1
(b) Grease, oil (any one)
(c) Limiting friction
(d) Definition of limiting friction 1
(e) Do not get enough time to interlock. (ANY FOUR) 1
4 (a) None of them. Both are equal. 1 4
As force of friction is independent of area of contact.
(b) The wear and tear of the wide tires is less in compare to narrow 1
tyres. As the wide tyres of vehicles spread the weight of vehicle over
a large surface area.
(c) It provides better grip 1
(d) Rolling friction 1
(e) Static friction(ANY FOUR)
1

Page 67 of 197
 CH 6- SOURCES OF ENERGY
Q.No QUESTIONS MARKS
Multiple choice questions

1. Choose the odd one out: 1

(a) Fire wood.
(b) Charcoal.
(c) Coal.
(d) Petrol.
2. Natural gas is found as- 1
(a) Layer above hot beds.
(b) Layer below petroleum oil deep underground.
(c) Layer above petroleum oil deep underground.
(d) Layer below the glacier.

3. Inexhaustible natural resources in nature are – 1

(a) Limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Scarce
(d) Not present

4. Water gas is a mixture of – 1

(a) Saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbon.
(b) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
(c) CO and water
(d) Saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbon.
5. Mark the correct statement about coal- 1
(a) Coal was formed from dead remains of trees and plants buried
deep beneath the earth surface.
(b) Coal is an exhaustible natural resource.
(c ) Coal is a fossil fuel.
(d) All of these.
6. The first well oil was drilled in: 1
(a) USA
(b) USSR
(c) UK
(d) India

7. What are the primary elements of LPG and CNG ? 1

(a)Butane and hexane
(b) Methane and hexane
(c)Methane and butane
(d) None of the above

Page 68 of 197
8. PCRA stands for - 1
(a) Public Conservations Research Association
(b) Petroleum Conservation Research Association
(c) Public Council of Research Association
(d) Partial Counting of remaining Amendment

9. Which of the following sites do "Not” have nuclear power plant? 1

(a) Vijayawada
(b) Naraura
(c) Tarapur
(d) Rawat Bhata

10. The following figure depicts which form of renewable source of 1

energy?
(a) Hydel energy
(b) Geothermal energy
(c) Tidal energy
(d) Wind energy
Assertion and Reason
Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion
is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it.
Of the statements, given below, mark the correct answer as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true. .
1. Assertion: Wood can be used for cooking and heating. 1
Reason: Combustion of wood produces heat.
2. Assertion: Fuel like CNG is a better fuel. 1
Reason: When burnt, it releases less carbon di oxide.
3. Assertion: Anthracite coal contains over 90% carbon 1
Reason: It is not a highest grade of coal.
4. Assertion: Synthetic source of energy are also known as manmade 1
energy.
Reason: These are obtained from hydro energy.
5. Assertion: Solar energy is a natural renewable source of energy. 1
Reason: It can be replenished naturally over a short period of time.
6. Assertion: Coal is a fossil fuel. 1
Reason: It is formed due to compression of organic material over
millions of years.

7. Assertion: Sunlight and air are inexhaustible sources of energy. 1

Reason: These resources are present in unlimited quantities in nature
and are not likely to be exhausted by human activities.

Page 69 of 197
8. Assertion (A): Petroleum is called Black Gold. 1
Reason (R): Due to its great commercial importance, petroleum is
called Black Gold.
9. Assertion (A): Coal, petroleum and natural gas be prepared in the 1
laboratory from dead organisms.
Reason (R): They cannot be prepared in laboratory as their formation
is a very slow process and conditions for their formation cannot be
created in the laboratory.
10. Assertion (A): Crude oil has to be refined or purified before its 1
different constituents' can be used.
Reason(R): Petroleum gas, petrol, diesel, kerosene, paraffin wax, and
lubricating oil are obtained from refining of petroleum.
Case study
The substances which produce heat on burning in air are called fuels.
1 We classify the sources of energy as exhaustible resources and in 4
exhaustible resources. Inexhaustible resources are present in unlimited
quantity in nature and are not likely to be exhausted by human
activities. Examples are sunlight and air. Exhaustible resources are
present in limited quantities in nature, they can be exhausted by human
activities. Examples of these resources are forests, wildlife, coal,
petroleum natural gas etc. These were formed from the dead remains of
living organisms. So, these are known as fossil fuels.
i. Which is not a natural resource?
(a)Minerals
(b)Water
(c)Soil
(d)Plastic
ii. Which of the following is an exhaustible natural resource?
(a)Air
(b)Sunlight
(c)Forest
(d)Wind
iii. Identify the fossil fuels/fuel from the following:
(a)Coal
(b)Petroleum
(c)Natural gas
(d)All of these
iv. Exhaustible natural resources are-
(a) Unlimited in quantity
(b) not dependent on nature
(c) limited in quantity
(d) not exhausted by human activities.

Page 70 of 197
2. There are many steps taken to reduce the consumption of fossil fuels 4
such as promoting natural gas for vehicles, usage of electric vehicles.
CNG produces emissions and leaves no residue after burning. It also
has high calorific value. These steps will help in reducing pollution and
global warming.
i. An ideal fuel should have _________________________calorific
value.
a) High
b) Low
c) Sufficient
d) Medium
ii. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?
a) Kerosene
b) Coal tar
c) Water
d) Petrol
iii. Write two steps to reduce “global warming.”

3. This is a pie chart about energy sources in the country X in the year 4
2015. Examine it and answer the following questions given below.

(a) What percentage of fossil

fuels did the country X
consumed that year?

(b) Do you find that renewable

sources played an important
role in the country? Give
reason for your answer.

(c) Mention the names of fossil

fuels used by this country.
Which fossil fuel used by the
country X is a cleaner fuel?

4 Since joule is a very small unit of heat energy, so the calorific value is 4
usually expressed as kilojoules per gram (kJ/g). Hydrogen gas has the
highest calorific value of 150 kilojoules per gram. Thus, because of its
high calorific value, hydrogen is an extremely good fuel. Most of the
common fuels are the compounds of hydrogen and carbon called
'hydrocarbons'. LPG has a higher percentage of hydrogen than coal, so
LPG has a higher calorific value than coal.
(a) What is the full form of LPG?
(b) Define Calorific Value of a fuel. Give its SI unit.
(c) Name the chemical compounds mixed with LPG to detect its smell
during any accidental leakage.

Page 71 of 197
 SA-I
1. Name the gases formed after- 2
(a)Incomplete combustion of wood.
(b)Complete combustion of wood.
2. Name two places in India where gas fields have been discovered. 2
3. Define calorific value of a fuel. How it helps to determine the quality of 2
coal?
4. Arrange the following fuel in the decreasing order of air pollution 2
caused by burning a kilogram of each of them:
Petrol, CNG, Diesel, Coal
5. What is the role of a plane mirror and a glass sheet in the above device? 2

6. Energy obtained from fossil fuels is considered to have been derived 2

from the Sun. Do you agree? Justify your answer.

SA-II
1. Calorific value of coal is 30,000 KJ / kg. Calorific value of wood is 3
20,000KJ/Kg.
(a) Which is a better fuel for domestic use?
(b) Write two benefits of using LPG as a domestic fuel.
2. The material P is a foul smelling liquid fossil fuel .It is found between 3
two layers of impervious rocks. It is a mixture of various materials
which are separated from one another by the process Q for various
purposes.
(a) Identify P.
(b) Name the process of separation of P into various components.
(c) Due to its great commercial importance P is also known as ?
3. A is used to run heavy vehicles, B is a white semi solid used as grease, 3
C is used as a domestic fuel in liquefied form and D in highly refined
form used as a fuel in airplanes.
(a) Identify A, B, C and D.
(b) Name the liquid used for dry cleaning of clothes.

Page 72 of 197
4 (a) Which of the following statements are supported by the picture? 3

(i) Petroleum is insoluble in water.

(ii) Natural gas is denser than petroleum.
(iii) Petroleum and natural gas deposits are found under rock layers.
Write 'Yes' or 'No' for the above statements.
(b) What is meant by impervious rock?
(c) Name one place in India where oil wells are present.
5. Observe the diagram and answer the following questions: 3
(a)Identify the product Y.
(b)Write 2 uses of Y.
(c)How CNG is good fuel than
petrol & diesel?

6. (a) State the difference between energy obtained by burning fossil fuels 3
and that obtained as solar energy.( Any two points of differences)
(b) Name two countries, other than India, where power plants based on
geothermal energy are operational. .
LA

1. (a) Define the process of carbonization of coal. 5

(b) What are the four varieties of coal obtained after carbonization of
coal?
(c) Write their percentage of carbon content.
2. (a) Label the parts A, B, C, D. 5
(b) Why we always find A above B?
(c) Give one use each of A and B.

Page 73 of 197
3 There are many limitations associated with the setting up of wind energy 5
farms to harness energy. Reema wants to generate electricity by using
wind mill in his parental village in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Is it advisable to set up such wind energy farms in his village? Give
reason for your answer.
(b) Write any two limitations associated with the wind energy farms.

(c) Write the energy transformations which take place when wind
mill is used for generating electricity?
4. The material X is a fossil fuel. It is formed from the buried large land 5
plants by a very slow process Y. When X is heated in the absence of
air, i.e in the process called Z, it gives three products A, B, & C. A is
used as a reducing agent in the extraction of metals, B is used as an
industrial fuel, whereas the product C has been traditionally used for
medaling the roads. It is now replaced by a petroleum product, bitumen.
Now give the answer of the following questions.
(a) What is the material X?
(b) What is the physical state & colour of X?
(c) Name the processes Y & Z.
(d) What are the products A, B & C?

Page 74 of 197
 CH –6 SOURCES OF ENERGY

Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
Q.No Value points/ key points Marks Total
. allotted to Mark
each s
value/key
point

Ch-6 Sources of Energy

Multiple choice questions
1. a. fire wood 1 1
2. c. Layer above petroleum oil deep underground. 1 1

3. b. Unlimited 1 1

4. b. Carbon monoxide and hydrogen 1 1

5. d. All of these. 1 1
6. a.USA 1 1
7. c. Methane and butane 1 1
8. b.Petroleum Conservation Research Association 1 1
9. a.Vijaywada 1 1
10. b. Geothermal energy 1 1
Assertion Reason
1. a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of assertion. 1 1
2. a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of assertion. 1 1
c) Assertion is true but reason is false. 1 1
3
c) Assertion is true but reason is false. 1 1
4.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the 1 1
5. correct explanation of assertion.
1 1
6. a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the 1 1
correct explanation of assertion.

Page 75 of 197
 1 1
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
7.
correct explanation of assertion.
1 1
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
8.
correct explanation of assertion.
1 1
d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
9.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
10. 1 1
the correct explanation of assertion.
Case study
1. i. d. plastic 1 4
ii. c. forest 1
iii. d. All of these 1
iv. c. limited in quantity. 1
2. i. a. high 1 4
ii. c. Water 1
iii. any two steps. 2

3. a.90 percent 1 4
b .No, only 2% of energy was used ½+½
c.Coal, petroleum, natural Gas ; Natural gas
1 +1
a. Liquefied Petroleum Gas 1
4. b. Definition, Kj /Kg 1+1 4
c.Ethyl Mercaptan 1

SA-I
1. 1 2
a. CO
1
b. CO2
2. 1+1 2
Godavari Krishna basin, Mumbai High.
3. 1 +1 2
The amount of heat energy, produced on complete
burning of one kilogram of a given fuel, in pure oxygen
is called calorific value of a fuel. Good quality of fuel
have high calorific value.\
2 2
4. Coal,Diesel,Petrol, CNG

Page 76 of 197
 2
Plane mirror reflects the sunlight into the solar cooker
5. 1+1
thereby increasing the intensity of sunlight in the solar
cooker. Glass sheet helps in trapping the sunlight.
All the fossil fuels have come from biomass which isdead
6. 2 2
plant and animal matter. Plants rely on solar energy for
photosynthesis and animals rely on plants for food. So
directly or indirectly the energy is transferred from the
sun to biomass. Therefore the energy in fossil fuels come
from the sun.

SA-II
1 a. coal. It has high calorific value, produces less 1 3
emissions.
b. The advantages of using compressed natural gas 2
(CNG) and liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) as fuels are:
● They can be burnt directly.
● They can be transported easily through pipe
lines.
● They are clean fuels and do not give smoke and
harmful gases when burnt.
• They give sufficiently good amount of heat
energy when burnt.( any 2 points)
2. 1 3
a. petroleum / crude oil
1
b. refining of petroleum 1
c. liquid gold / black gold.

3
3. a. A - Diesel
½x4
B -Paraffin wax
C - Liquefied Petroleum Gas
D - Gasoline / Petrol.
b. Petrol 1

Page 77 of 197
4. ½ 3
a i) Yes
½
ii) No ½
iii) Yes
b) Rock which will not permit oil, water, or gas to flow 1
through it.
c) In India, oil is found in Assam, Gujarat, Mumbai
½
High and in the river basins of Godavari and Krishna
a. Kerosene 1
5. b. Cooking and Lighting ½ +½
c. Creates less pollution 1 3

6. a. Any two points of difference 2 3

b. USA and New Zealand 1
LA
1. a. The process of conversion of dead plant materials 1 5
into coal is called carbonisation.
b. Peat,Lignite,Bitumi
nous, Anthracite 2
c. Peat - 30% carbon
Lignite - 38% carbon
Bituminous - 65% carbon ½ x4
Anthracite -90%carbon
i. A – Impervious ½ x4
2. rocks 5
B - Natural Gas.
C – Petroleum 1
D - Saline water.
ii. Petroleum is lighter than saline water, so it floats over
it. 1+1
iii. Any two uses.
3.
a. Yes, As it has favourable wind conditions 2 5
b. Difficult to transport, install and maintain, it 2
is a variable energy resource. 1
c. kinetic energy of wind to Electrical energy.
4. (a) Coal 5
(b) Solid and Black ½
(c) Y – Carbonisation, Z-Destructive Distillation 1
(d) A-Coke, B-Coal gas, C-Coal tar 2
1½

Page 78 of 197
Page 79 of 197
 CH-7 COMBUSTION

Q.NO. QUESTIONS Marks

MCQ
1. Ignition temperature is the lowest temperature at which a substance 1
catches fire. Identify the correct option regarding the ignition
temperature of a good fuel.
(a) Ignition temperature is below room temperature .
(b) Ignition temperature is above room temperature.
(c) Ignition temperature is equal to 100∘C.
(d) Ignition temperature is equal to room temperature.
2. The picture below shows two cases in which a person is trying to 1
burn the paper cup. In case 1, the cup has water in it and in case 2, it
is empty and dry. Identify in which of the cases the paper will burn.

(a) Case -1
(b) Case -2
(c) Both Case-1 & Case -2
(d) Paper does not burn in both the cases.
3. Arrange the different regions of a flame in increasing 1
order of temperature.

(a)Middle region < inner region < outermost region.

(b)Outermost region < inner region < middle region.
(c) Inner region < outermost region < middle
region.
(d) Inner region < middle region < outermost
region.

Page 80 of 197
4. Goldsmiths blow the outermost zone of flame with a blow pipe for 1
melting gold and silver, why do they use the outermost zone ?
(a) It is the zone of incomplete combustion and is least hot
(b) It is the zone of complete combustion and is the hottest zone.
(c) It is the least hot zone and complete combustion takes place
in this zone.
(d) It is the hottest zone and incomplete combustion takes place
in this zone.
5. Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels releases a gas X. This gas is 1
poisonous in nature and it burns with a blue flame. The gas X is:
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Chlorine
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Ozone
6. Burning of coal in a closed room will produce: 1

(a) carbon dioxide (b) Nitrogen dioxide

(c) carbon monoxide (d) oxygen
7. The products of combustion are: 1

(a) oxygen and water (b) carbon dioxide and water

(c) Only carbon dioxide (d) Nitrogen dioxide and water
8. Inflammable substances have: 1
(a) high ignition temperature and can catch fire easily.
(b) low ignition temperature and can catch fire easily.
(c) low ignition temperature and cannot catch fire easily.
(d) high ignition temperature and cannot catch fire easily
9. Identify the three zones of a candle flame in correct order. 1

(a) X- very hot, Y- least hot, Z- moderately hot

(b) X- moderately hot, Y- least hot, Z- very hot
(c) X-very hot, Y- moderately hot, Z- least hot
(d) X- moderately hot, Y- very hot, Z- least hot

Page 81 of 197
10. Calorific value of wood is 18,000 kJ/kg. How much of wood is 1
required to produce 4,60,000 kJ of heat energy?
(a) 17.5kg (b) 25.5kg
(c) 15.5kg (d) 35.5kg
11. 1

On placing an inverted tumbler over a burning candle, the flame

extinguishes after some time. This is because of non availability of:
(a) oxygen(b) carbon dioxide (c) water vapours (d) wax
12. Shalini was cooking potato curry on a chulha. To her surprise she 1
observed that the copper vessel was getting blackened from outside.
It may be due to:
(a) proper combustion of fuel.
(b) improper cooking of potato curry.
(c) incomplete combustion of the fuel.
(d) burning of copper vessel.
13. Which of the following are required essentially for producing fire? 1

(a) Glass, coal, water.

(b) Fuel, coal, straw.
(c) Fire, wood, burner.
(d) Fuel, air, heat.
14. The salt used in soda acid type extinguisher is: 1

(a) potassium carbonate

(b) sodium nitrate
(c) sodium bicarbonate
(d) potassium nitrate
15. 1

Choose the incorrect statement from the following. A good fuel is

one which:
(a) is readily available.
(b) produces a large amount of heat.
(c) leaves behind many undesirable substances.
(d) burns easily in air at a moderate rate.
Assertion- Reasoning question.

Page 82 of 197
 Question No. 1 to 15 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate
option given below:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the
correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
1. Assertion: Solid fuels like coal are the best fuels. 1
Reason: Gaseous fuel can be easily ignited even with the small
spark.
2. Assertion: The flame of a burning candle goes off when we blow 1
over it strongly.
Reason:The carbon dioxide in our breath act as a fire extinguisher.
3. Assertion : Water is commonly used to control fire. 1
Reason : Any fire can be extinguished with water.

4. Assertion: Acid rain is harmful for the crops, buildings and soil. 1
Reason:-The pH of Acid rain is 4.

5. Assertion: No one should be allowed to take any burning material 1

within premises of petrol pump.
Reason: Petrol is highly combustible substance.
6. Assertion: In pure oxygen, a substance burns five times faster than 1
air.
Reason: Oxygen is a non-supporter of combustion.
7. Assertion: Burning of cowdung cake is a slow combustion. 1
Reason: Gaseous fuels generally undergo rapid combustion.
8. Assertion: Burning of coal is a chemical change. 1
Reason: When coal is burnt, the chief component, carbon is
changed to carbon dioxide.
9. Assertion: Middle zone of candle is non-luminous. 1
Reason: Partial combustion of wax vapours take place in the
middle zone.
10. Assertion: Water can be used to extinguish fire caused by electric 1
short circuit.
Reason: Pure water is a poor conductor of electricity.

Page 83 of 197
11. Assertion : Substances that burn in the air are called combustible 1
substances.
Reason : Different substances catch fire at different temperatures.
12. Assertion : White phosphorus is kept under water. 1
Reason : Ignition temperature is the minimum temperature at which
substance catches fire.
13. Assertion : The amount of heat energy produced on complete 1
combustion of 500 gm of fuel is known as Calorific value.
Reason: The calorific value of hydrogen is 1,50,000 kJ/kg.
14. Assertion : Magnesium and charcoal are combustible substances. 1
Reason : A substance that burns in air and produces heat and light
upon burning is called combustible substance.
15. Assertion : Match stick does not catch fire on its own at room 1
temperature.
Reason : The head of the safety match contains only antimony
trisulphide and potassium chlorate.
Case – Based question.
1. The increasing fuel consumption has harmful effects on the 4
environment. Fuel like food wood, petroleum release unburnt
carbon particles on combustion. Burning of wood keeps a lot of
smoke which cause air pollution and is also very harmful for
humans. Combustion of most fuels release carbon dioxide in the
environment. Increase percentage of carbon dioxide in the air
causes global warming. It may prove to be fatal.
(a) Define the term combustion?
(b) Name two greenhouse gases.
(c) State any one consequence of global warming.
(d) Why is breathing of carbon monoxide fatal?

Page 84 of 197
2. Fuel is an important source of energy. We use fuel in our daily life 4
for different activities like petrol and diesel for driving vehicles,
LPG for cooking, crude oil to fly an aeroplane, coal and wood for
burning that provides fire and warmth in the form of energy. All
fuels burn to produce energy, but every fuel does not burn
efficiently. For example, we can calculate the fuel efficiency of a
vehicle by calculating the distance travelled by it with reference to
the amount of fuel consumed by the vehicle to travel that distance.
The fuel efficiency of a vehicle is calculated in terms of Km/hr.
(a) How to measure the efficiency of a fuel?
(b) Among coal and petrol which one is better fuel and why?
(c) State any two characteristics of a good fuel?
(d) Give two examples of cleaner fuel.
3 Read the passage and answer the following questions:: 4
Fuels like wood, coal and petroleum products, release unburnt
carbon particles. Excessive amount of these particles in the air
causes breathing problems. It can cause global warming too.
Burning of coal and diesel releases sulphur dioxide gas. The use of
diesel and petrol as fuels, in automobiles, is being replaced by
CNG.
(a) Name two respiratory diseases caused by unburnt carbon particles.
(b) What do you mean by ‘Global warming’?
(c) What is ‘acid rain’?
(d)Why is CNG preferred over other fuels?

4. Read the passage and answer the following questions: 4

A chemical process in which a substance reacts with oxygen to give

off heat is called combustion. The substance which undergoes
combustion is said to be combustible. It is also called as a fuel. The
fuel may be solid, liquid or gas. Sometimes, light is given off
during combustion, either as a flame or as a glow. Some substances
have very low ignition temperature. Petrol, alcohol and LPG are
some of the inflammable substances.
(a) Name any two gaseous fuels.
(b) What do you mean by ignition temperature? Give two
substances having high ignition temperature.
(c) What are inflammable substances?

Page 85 of 197
5. During a class session of ‘fuels for household’ , Sia suggested 4
petrol. But teacher said it’s not good for household activity and
asked her to sit down. Sia wondered why can’t petrol be used in
household activity if its calorific value is high?
(a)Why petrol is not a safe fuel for household activity?
(b) Give two examples of fuels which we use in our houses?
(c) State one characteristics of a good fuel.
(d) 5kg petrol on complete combustion produces 225000kJ of energy.
Find its calorific value.
6. Burning of coal and petrol releases a gas which is a suffocating gas. 4
It also dissolves in water vapour to produce an acid .When it rains
,the acid ,thus produced, can damage buildings, plants and trees.
(a) Name the gas released that is released during burning of coal and
petrol.
(b) Name the acid that is produced by dissolving the above gas in
water vapour.
(c) What is an acid rain. Why only battery run vehicles are allowed
to run around the Taj Mahal?

SA- 1
1. Suppose you are camping in the forest and want to start a fire to
2
keep warm you are provided with dry leaves, dry twigs and dry
branches. Which of these materials will catch fire easily and why?

2 Complete the following table: 2

3. A family consumes 12 kg of LPG in 30 days .Calculate the average 2

energy consumed per day if the calorific value of LPG is 50 kJ per kg.
4. Why are fires produced by burning oil not extinguished by pouring 2
water? How can they be extinguished?
5. Which of the two has a low ignition temperature: petrol or kerosene? 2
Why?

Page 86 of 197
6. In an experiment, 4.5 kg of a fuel was completely burnt. The heat 2
produced was measured to be 1,80,000 kJ. Calculate the
calorific850alue of the fuel.
7. 2

People usually keep Angethi or burning coal in their closed rooms

during winter. Why is it advised to keep the door open?.
8. Cracker on ignition produces sound. Why? 2
9. 2

The flame of a burning candle goes off when we blow air over it
strongly, why?
SA - 2
1. An electrical fire broke out in a warehouse. A fire engine rushed to 3
the spot. A junior fireman rushed to the spot with a water hose to
extinguish the fire. His senior stopped him and asked him not to use
this method.
(a)Why do you think the senior stopped the junior from using a water
hose?
(b)Which type of fire extinguisher do you think the senior would
have used to put off the electrical fire?
2. Take a lighted candle and fix it on a table. Now introduce a clear 3
glass slide into the luminous part of the flame as shown in the figure.

(a)Write any two observations from the above activity.

(b)What conclusion would you get from the above activity.

Page 87 of 197
3. Increased fuel consumption has led to harmful effects on the 3
environment. So, the use of diesel and petrol as fuels, in
automobiles, is being replaced by CNG.
Now a days why we prefer to use gaseous fuels over solid and liquid
fuels? (write any 3 points).
4. (a) The calorific value of LPG is 55000 KJ/kg. What 3
does it mean?
(b) Can the process of rusting be called combustion? Explain.
5. (a) The flame of a burning candle goes off when we 3
blow over it strongly. Explain.
(b) What are the chemicals used in a soda- acid type fire extinguisher.
6. Give reason; 3
(a) People in villages use paper or kerosene oil to start fire in
wood or coal.
(b) Fire caused by electricity should not be extinguished by pouring
water.
(c) We are advised not to sleep in a room having closed doors and
windows, with a coal fire burning inside.
7. 3

Why a match stick can be lighted by striking its tip with any rough
surface?
8. What is calorific value of a fuel? State its SI unit. In an experiment, 3
4.5 kg of a fuel was completely burnt. The heat produced was
measured to be 180,000 kJ. Calculate the calorific value of the fuel.
9. 3

Page 88 of 197
 We make two paper cups by folding a sheet of paper. Some water is
poured in one of the cups and other one is empty. Then we heat both
the cups separately with a candle.
(a)Which cup will catch fire?
(b) Give explanation about your answer.
LA
1. 5

(a) Identify A , B, and C and also mention their colour.

(b) Which zone is the hottest and which zone is the coldest zone of a
candle flame?
(c) During summer phosphorus burns at room temperature. Justify
the statement.
2. 5

(a)Among figure (i) & (ii) ,in which case candle burns smoothly and
why?
(b)In figure (iii) the flame goes off after some time .State the reason
behind it.
(c)State the three conditions that need to be simultaneously satisfied
for starting and sustaining combustion.
3. (a) A student is cooking noodles on a gas stove. She observes that 5
the flame is blue at the bottom and yellow at the top. Explain the
reason for this observation.
(b) Explain how a matchstick gets lighted by striking its tip on a
rough surface.
(c) Which part of the flame does a goldsmith direct while shaping
gold into ornaments?

Page 89 of 197
4. (a) Make a labeled diagram of a candle flame 5
showing different zones.
(b) The ignition temperature of a substance is lower
than the room temperature. What will happen?
(c) How is carbondioxide gas able to control fires?
5. (a)You are provided with three watch glasses containing mustard oil, 5
alcohol, and water, respectively. Suppose you bring a burning
matchstick near these materials one by one, which material(s) will
catch fire instantly and why?
(b)Name the products that are formed by the complete combustion of
wax vapours and carbon particles in the outermost zone of candle
flame.
(c) Gaseous fuels are better than other fuels. Give any two advantages
of gaseous fuels.
6. Give reasons for the following statements: 5
(a)We need to use chimney or exhaust fan in the kitchen
while cooking.
(b) Cars have exhaust pipes.
(c) Although wood has a high calorific value, we still discourage
its use as a fuel.

Page 90 of 197
 Chapter - Combustion
Marking Scheme/Hints to Solution
(Note: Any other relevant answers, not given herein but given by the
candidates be suitably rewarded)

Q.No. Value points/Key points Marks Total

allotted Marks
to each
value/
key pt.
MCQ
1. b 1 1
2. b 1 1
3. d 1 1
4. b 1 1
5. a 1 1
6. (c) Carbon monoxide 1 1
7. (b) carbon dioxide and water 1 1
8. (b) low ignition temperature and can catch fire easily. 1 1
9. c) X-very hot, Y-moderately hot, Z- least hot 1 1
10. (b) 25.5Kg 1 1
11. a. Oxygen 1 1
12. b. Improper combustion of fuel 1 1
13. d. Fuel, air, heat 1 1
14. c. Sodium bicarbonate 1 1
15. c. Leaves behind many undesirable substances 1 1
Assertion – Reason questions
1. d) A is false but R is true 1 1
2. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 1 1
A
3. c) A is true but R is false. 1 1

Page 91 of 197
4. b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 1 1
explanation of A
5. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 1 1
A
6. c) A is true but R is false. 1 1
7. b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct 1 1
explanation of A.
8. (a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 1 1
A
9. d) A is false but R is true 1 1

10. d) A is false but R is true 1 1

11. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 1 1
explanation of A
12. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 1 1
explanation of A
13. d) A is false but R is true 1 1

14. a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A 1 1

15. c) A is true but R is false 1 1

Case- Study questions

1. (a )The chemical process in which a substance burns in air, 1 4

or oxygen, with release of heat and light energy is called
combustion.
(b)Carbon dioxide, methane. 1
(c ) Glaciers will melt at a higher rate and this will lead to a 1
rise in the sea level resulting in floods and loss of soil.
(d) When we breathe in carbon monoxide, the poison
replaces the oxygen in our bloodstream. Our heart, brain, 1
and body then become starved of oxygen.
2. (a)By measuring its calorific value. 1 4
(b) Petrol due to its high calorific value. 1
(c) i)Cheap, readily available and easy to transport.
ii)Easy to store and have high calorific value. 1
(d) LPG and CNG 1

Page 92 of 197
3. (a) Asthma, Pneumoniasis. 1+1+1+1 4
(b) Excess of CO2, in air, can trap heat energy which
can raise the temperature of the earth called global
warming.
(c) Burning of coal and diesel releases SO2gas. It
dissolves in water vapour to form sulphuric acid. When it
rains, the rain water mix with acid and comes down as
acid rain.
(d) This is because CNG produces less harmful products
and is, therefore, a more eco-friendly and cleaner fuel.
4. (a) CNG and LPG 1 4
(b) The minimum temperature at which a substance begins
to burn is called ignition temperature. Coal and wood.
2
(c) Substances which have a low ignition temperature
and hence, catch fire easily with a flame are called 1
inflammable substances.
5. (a)Petrol vaporises easily so it can lead to rapid 1 4
combustion. Hence, it is not safe as household fuel. 1
(b)LPG, kerosene
(c )Any one characteristics of a good fuel. 1
(d)45000kJ/kg 1
6. (a)Sulphur dioxide 1 4
(b) Sulphuric acid 1
(c )Acid rain, or acid deposition, is a broad term that
includes any form of precipitation with acidic components, 2
such as sulphuric or nitric acid.
A study found the historic monument, known for its beauty,
turning yellow due to air pollution
SA- 1

1. The dry leaves will catch fire easily. 1+1 2

Explanation: Dry leaves have a lower ignition temperature
compared to twigs and branches
2. 1.burning of wood, 2. Rapid combustion, 3.A piece of 0.5 x 4 2
sodium metal catch fire spontaneously.4. Explosive
combustion
3. Per day LPG consumption =12/30 kg 1+1 2
Average energy consumption per day =12/30 x 50 =20 kJ

Page 93 of 197
4. Water is heavier than oil and hence it sinks below the oil, 2 2
allowing the fire to keep burning. It can be extinguished by
using sand or fire extinguisher.
5. Petrol has a low ignition temperature. Kerosene molecules 2 2
are larger than petrol molecules and hence don’t mix easily
with oxygen present in air. So kerosene has higher ignition
temperature
than petrol.
6. Heat produced by 4.5 Kg of fuel =180000 KJ 2 2
Heat produced by 1 Kg of fuel = 180000/4.5= 40000KJ/Kg
7. ● When Angethi/ Coal is burned, various hazardous 2 2
chemicals, including carbon dioxide and carbon
monoxide, are released.
● This process tends to reduce oxygen flow in the
atmosphere, which mainly causes severe
respiratory problems inside the locked room.
8. Crackers on burning produces sound, heat and light. This 2 2
process is known as explosion. It is because of the sudden
formation of large amount of gas due to chemical reactions.
9. The flame of burning candle goes off when we blow over it 2 2
strongly because the air current lowers the temperature of
burning wax vapours below their ignition point and carbon
dioxide ,in our breathe , act as a fire extinguisher
SA-2

1. (a) because water is a conductor of electricity. So electric 2+1 3

current will flow through water, thereby, giving a severe
electric shock which may prove fatal.
(b) Soda acid fire extinguisher.
2. Observation : 0.5 +0.5 3
(i) There is a circular Greyish black ring formed on the
glass slide.
(ii) There is no deposition in the middle of the ring. 1+1

Conclusion:
(i) luminous zone of the candle flame contains unburnt
carbon particles.
(ii) Inner most zone of a candle flame does not have any
unburnt carbon particles.

Page 94 of 197
3. 1. Gaseous fuels are supplied in cylinders, or 1+1+1 3
through pipeline. Hence the transportation cost
gets lowered.
2. Gaseous fuels released large amount of energy and
they do not leave behind any as a solid residue on
combustion.
3. Gaseous fuels can be ignited even with a small Spark and
they produce least amount of harmful gases as
compared to solid and liquid fuels.
4. (a) It means that it produces 55000 KJ of energy on 1+2 3
burning 1kg of it.
(b) Combustion is a chemical process in which a
substance reacts with oxygen and gives out energy
during the process in the form of either heat or light or
both. Rusting of iron is an exothermic process as heat is
released during rusting. Hence, it is a kind of slow
combustion
5. (a) It’s because the air current lowers the 2+1 3
temperature of burning wax vapours below
their ignition point and carbon dioxide from
our breathe acts as a fire extinguisher. Thus the
flame goes off.
(b) NaHCO3 and H2SO4
6. a) The ignition temperature of wood is very high. So they 1+1+1 3
use paper or kerosene to start fire as they have low ignition
temperature.
b) It’s because water may contain impurities (salts of
different metals or ions), due to which it becomes a
good conductor of electricity and can cause electric
shocks.
c) When coal burns in a closed room, it may produce
carbon monoxide which is a highly poisonous gas.
7. A A match stick can be lighted by striking its tip on rough 3 3
surface because its tip is made up of red phosphorous along
with some other chemicals .On striking friction generates
enough heat to light the matchstick by making the chemical
catch fire.
8. The amount of heat energy produced on completely burning 1 3
one kilogram of fuel in pure oxygen is called the calorific
value of fuel.It’s SI unit is kilojoule per kg.(KJ/kg).
Calorific value =Amount of heat produced /weight of fuel 1
burnt=180000KJ/4.5kg
1
=40,000KJ/kg

Page 95 of 197
9. We will observe that the paper cup without water (empty) 1 3
burns and the cup having water does not burn.
This is because the ignition temperature of empty paper cup
reaches quickly on heating and it burns. But in case of the 2
cup with water, the heat supplied to the paper cup is
transferred to water by conduction. So, in the presence of
water, the ignition temperature of paper is not reached and
it does not burn. Hence for a substance to burn, it is
essential to reachits ignition temperature
LA

1. (a) 3 5
A = Outer zone or non-luminous zone, colour – Blue
B =Middle zone or luminous zone, colour – yellow
C =Inner most zone. Colour – Black
(b)Hottest – Outer most zone, coldest – Innermost zone
1
(c)Ignition temperature of white phosphorus is 35°C.During
summer room temperature of in rises to above 35°C.so 1
whitephosphorus then catches fire spontaneously
2. (a) In figure (i) candle burns smoothly because of 1 5
sufficient supply of oxygen from atmosphere. 1
(b) In figure (iii) flame goes off because supply of oxygen
cut off.
(c) 1.There must be a combustible substance. 1
2. There must be a continuous supply of oxygen or air. 1
3. The temperature should be above the ignition
1
temperature of the combustible material.
3. a) The yellow flame is due to incomplete combustion 2+2+1 5
while the blue flame is due to complete combustion.
(b) The tip of the matchstick has red phosphorus along
with some other chemicals. On striking, friction generates
enough heat to light the matchstick by making the
chemical catch fire.
(c) Non-luminous part of the flame.
4. (a) Diagram + Label 3+1+1 5
(b) It will undergo spontaneous combustion.
(c) Carbon dioxide being heavier than oxygen, covers the
fire like a blanket and the contact between the fuel and
oxygen is cur off and fire comes under control.

Page 96 of 197
5. a) The ignition temperature is also known as ignition point. 3 5
Ignition temperature of a fuel can be defined as the
minimum temperature to which a fuel must be heated so
that it may catch fire and start burning. When we bring a
candle near to alcohol it will catch fire instantly because
the ignition point is low, so it is highly inflammable.
When we bring a candle near to mustard oil it will not
catch fire because it has a very high ignition temperature
and water is not an inflammable substance So, they will
not catch fire instantly.
b) Carbon dioxide gas and water vapour.
1
c) Gaseous fuel are better than other fuels because it
produce less amount of harmful gases as compared to 1
solids. It’s transports cost get lowered
6 a) While cooking there is lot of fumes, smokes and gases 1 5
are produced which can be harmful to our health when
inhaled .The chimney or exhaust fan helps to remove
smokes, fumes and gases from the kitchen .
b) The exhaust pipe is used to expel the gases produced
2
during combustion in the engine. These gases can be
harmful to humans and environment, so they need to be
directed away from the car and released into the
atmosphere.
c) Wood has a high ignition temperature, so the 2
combustion process of wood would be a bit tough. Burning
wood produces many harmful gases such as carbon
monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO2). Excess of both
can kill a person and it also cause global warming.

Page 97 of 197
CH 8-CONSERVATION OF PLANTS AND ANIMALS
Q.No QUESTIONS MARKS

Multiple choice questions

1. Wild buffalo is an endangered species because: 1

(a) its population is diminishing
(b) it has become extinct
(c) it is found exclusively in a particular area
(d) its poaching is strictly prohibited

2. Which one of the following changes may occur due 1

to desertification?
(a) Increased chances of floods.
(b) Conversion of fertile land into a desert.
(c) The decrease in atmospheric temperature.
(d) Increase in water holding capacity of the soil.

3. Which one of the following statements is true about a Biosphere 1

Reserve?
(a) It is a protected area where only endemic species live.
(b) It is meant only for the conservation of plants and animals.
(c) It is meant to conserve both the biodiversity and the culture
of that area.
(d) There are no other protected areas within its limits.

4. The place meant for the conservation of biodiversity in their 1

natural habitat are-
(i) Zoological garden
(ii) Botanical garden
(iii) Wildlife sanctuary
(iv) National park

(a) i & ii
(b) ii & iii
(c) iii & iv
(d) i & iv

5. What do blackbuck, elephant, python and golden cat 1

together represent in a forest?
(a) fauna
(b) flora
(c) ecosystem
(d) species

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 Assertion and Reason
Direction: Two statements are given – one labeled as
Assertion(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). Select
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (A) ,
(B) ,(C ) and ( D ) as given below.

(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
1. Assertion : A sanctuary is formed for the conservation of 1
animals only.
Reason : Some restricted human activities are allowed in
sanctuaries.

2. Assertion: In a wildlife sanctuary, collection of timber 1

harvesting of minor forest products and private ownership
rights are allowed.
Reason: A sanctuary is a protected area meant for the
conservation of both flora and fauna where cultivation of
land is permitted.
3. Assertion: Natural habitats of plants and animals should 1
not be destroyed.
Reason: This is necessary for the conservation of biotic
resources.

4. Assertion: Plants cause deforestation. 1

Reason: To prevent hunting is not wildlife conservation in
the real sense.

5. Assertion: Red data book has data of all the animals. 1

Reason: Endangered species need to be noticed.

CASE STUDY

1. Create a web chart showing in situ and ex situ modes of 4

conservation.

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2. Project Tiger was launched by the government to protect 4
the tigers in the country. The objective of this project was
to ensure the survival and maintenance of the tiger
population in the country. Tiger is one of the many species
which are slowly disappearing from our forests.
(a)Name the first national park of the country.
(b)Project tiger was launched in which year?
(c)Who launched project tiger?
(d) Name any other project launched for the conservation
of animals.
SA-I

1. Wildlife sanctuaries important for the conservation of 2

plants and animals. Justify.

2. Endemic organisms in greater danger of becoming extinct. 2

Justify the statement.

3. A new species X is introduced in a forest. Explain the 2

consequence of this.

SA-II

1. ‘Deforestation cause global warming’. Justify the 3

statement.

2. ‘Deforestation’ causes floods’. Explain. 3

3. Differentiate between Zoo and Wildlife sanctuary. 3

LA

1. (a)Differentiate between flora and fauna. 5

(b)Define biosphere reserves with an example.

2. Write the consequences of deforestation. 5

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 Marking Scheme

CHAPTER- CONSERVATION OF PLANTS AND ANIMALS

Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the candidate be
suitably awarded)
Ch-Conservation of plants and Animals

Q.No Value points/ key points Marks Tot

. allotted al
to each Mar
value/k ks
ey
poi
nt
Multiple choice questions

1. (a) its population is diminishing 1 1

2. (b) Conversion of fertile land into a desert. 1 1

3. (c) It is meant to conserve both, the biodiversity and 1 1

the culture of that area.

4. (c) iii & iv 1 1

5. (a) fauna 1 1

Assertion reason

1. (b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 1 1

explanation of A

2. (b)Both A and R are true but R is not the 1 1

correct explanation of A

3. (b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 1 1

explanation of A

4. (d)A is false but R is true 1 1

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 5. (d)A is false but R is true 1 1

Case study

1. Web chart 4 4

2. (a)Jim Corbett national 1+1+1+1 4

park (b)1973
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Project Tiger/Project Elephant/Project Hangul (any
one)
SA-I
1. Wildlife sanctuaries important for the conservation of 2 2
plants and animals because in these areas poaching or
killing animals and disturbing animals by any means of
human activity are prohibited. Moreover, in wildlife
sanctuaries animals can live in their natural environment.
This promotes their breeding and population increase.
2. Endemic organisms are those which can live in a 2 2
particular geographical location. Any disturbance to their
natural habitat will affect the endemic animals adversely
hence they are in great danger of becoming extinct
3. Introduction of new species in a forest leads to 2 2
competition for food and place. Hence it will affect the
native species present in the forest.
SA-II
1. Plants absorb Carbon-di-oxide from the atmosphere and 3 3
release oxygen. Cutting of trees leads to the accumulation
of Carbon-di-oxide in the atmosphere. CO2 traps heat
rays from the sun which are reflected by the earth. This
results in an increase in temperature on earth.
2. Deforestation will reduce the water holding capacity of 3 3
the soil due to the lack of trees. This reduces infiltration
of water into the ground which increases the chances of
flood. Cutting of trees leads to the accumulation of
Carbon-di-oxide in the atmosphere. CO2 traps heat rays
from the sun which are reflected by the earth. This results
in an increase in temperature on earth. Increase in
temperature disturbs water cycle which causes draughts
and floods.
3. Suitable three points. 3 3

LA

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1. (a) Any three points. 3 5
(b) Biosphere reserves are enormous areas of protected 2
land intended to conserve wildlife, plant and animal
resources, as well as the traditional way of life of the
tribal people that live there.
Example: Nanda Devi, Himachal Pradesh.
2. Consequences of deforestation are as follows: 5 5

(a) It decreases tree population leading to carbon

dioxide increase in the atmosphere.
(b) It leads to an increase in the temperature of the
earth.
(c) It also leads to soil erosion.
(d)Decrease in rainfall and soil fertility.
(e)Increase in air pollution.
(f) It overall affects the earth and can lead to global
warming. (any five)

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 CH 9- Crop Production and Its Management
Q. No QUESTIONS MARKS
1. Which one of the following conditions is not essential to grow 1
maize?
(a) High temperature
(b) Low temperature
(c) Rainfall
(d) Humidity
2. A farmer after sowing the seeds adds manure to his field. What 1
should be the immediate next agricultural practice after addition
of manure and fertilizers?
(a) Irrigation of soil
(b) Storage of crops
(c) Preparation of soil
(d)Harvesting of crops
3. A farmer was turning the soil in the field constantly to loosen 1
it. What is the likely reason for this agricultural practice?
(a) This prevents growth of weeds in the soil.
(b) This increases the amount of soil in the field.
(c) This allows penetration of roots in soil easily.
(d) This allows water to stay in soil for longer duration.
Which of the following is/are incorrect statements regarding
manure?
(a) (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
4. Read the below statements- 1
(i) Manure is prepared by dead plants and animals.
(ii) Manure is nutrient specific i.e. supply a particular desired
nutrient.
(iii) Manure decreases the number of friendly microbes. Which of
the following is/are incorrect statements regarding manure?
(a) (iii) and (i)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
5. Identify the nutrient which replenish the soil after growing 1
leguminous plant:
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Phosphorous
(d) Potassium
Direction: Two statements are given – one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer
to these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given
below.
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation

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 of the Assertion.
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
6. Assertion (A): Use of fertilizers greatly enhances crop 1
productivity.
Reason (R): Irrigation is very important in increasing crop productivity.
7. Assertion (A): Before storing the harvested grains are properly dried in 1
the sun to reduce the moisture in them. This prevents the
attack by insect pests, bacteria and fungi.
Reason (R): Harvested grains have more moisture. If freshly harvested
grains (seeds) are stored without drying, they may get
spoilt or attacked by organisms, making them unfit for
use or for germination
8. Assertion (A): Soil preparation is the turning and loosening 1
of the topsoil.
Reason(R): When soil is turned there is fresh supply of nutrients to the
plants.
9. Assertion (A): Farmers have to add manure to the fields to 1
replenish the soil with nutrients.
Reason (R): Continuous cultivation of crops makes the soil rich in
nutrients.
10. Assertion (A): Earthworms are known as friends of farmers. 1
Reason (R): Earthworms turn and loosen the soil. They also add humus
to it.
CASE STUDY
11. When plants of the same kind are cultivated at one place on a large 4
scale, it is called a crop. For example, crop of wheat means that all
the plants grown in a field are that of wheat. We already know that
crops are of different types like cereals, vegetables and fruits.
These can be classified on the basis of the season in which they
grow. India is a vast country. The climatic conditions like
temperature, humidity and rainfall vary from one region to
another.
(a) Identify the rabi crop from the following crops?
(i) Paddy
(ii) Cotton
(iii) Groundnut
(iv) Mustard
(b) In agricultural field crop rotation is done to retain the soil
fertility. Choose the following plant which is the main source of
nitrogen during crop rotation.
(i)Pea plant
(ii)Paddy crop
(iii)Soyabean
(iv)Both (i) & iii
(c) From the given plant choose the plant which can be used for
preparation of green manure:

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 (i) Alfalfa
(ii) Sun hemp
(iii) Millets
(iv) all of the above
(d) In the soils having poor water holding capacity identify the
irrigation method from the following options:
(i) Sprinkler system
(ii)Drip Irrigation
(iii)Rehat
(iv) Pulley system
12. Harvesting of crop is one of the important agricultural operations 4
which demand considerable amount of labour. The availability and
cost of labour during harvesting season are the serious problem.
The shortage of labour during harvesting season and vagaries of
the weather cause great losses to the farmers. It is therefore,
essential to adopt the mechanical methods so that the timeliness in
harvesting operation could be ensured.
(a) In order to reduce the time spent on harvesting and
threshing which among the following can be used:
(i) Thresher
(ii) Sickle
(iii) Combine
(iv) Iron plough
(b) The following method that can be used to separate grains
from chaff
(i) Winnowing
(ii) Threshing
(iii) Broadcasting
(iv) Reaping
(c) Crops get damaged by the pests. The pests include
(i) Rat
(ii) weevils
(iii) larva stage of some insects
(iv) all of the above
(d) Many farmers use the biological pest control to minimise the
damage of crop. Identify the organism which control pest.
(i) Lady bug beetles
(ii) Wasp
(iii) Spiders
(iv) All of the above
SA-I
13. (a) A farmer wishes to use a tool for sowing seeds that protects the 2
seed from being consumed by animals. Which type of tool
should the farmer choose? Give reason.
(b) A farmer uses fertilizers on his land for long period of time plans to
start using manure. What will be the likely benefit of this change?
14. (a) Ramesh wants to restore the nutrients in the soil of his field 2
without spending money on chemical fertilizers. Suggest any

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 natural method he should likely adopt for replenishment of soil
nutrients.
(b) A farmer grows maize plants in two consecutive seasons in his
field 1 another farmer at the same time grows bean plants in one
season and maize plant in the next season in field 2 as shown.

Which field do you think will likely to have soil with high nutrients for
growth of new plants in the third season? Give reason.
15. (a) Some farmers found that corn plants grew better if decaying fish 2
were buried nearby. Explain how the decaying fish will improve the
growth of plant?
(b) Kamlesh grows crop in a region of Rajasthan where there are no lakes
and very little rainfall. During summers, the low availability of water
limits the crop production. Write the name of the irrigation method he
should prefer and explain the reason behind this use.
SA II
16. (a) Sonu is a farmer who owns large area of a land. Every year he 3
invests in large amount of time by harvesting crop manually
using sickle. Some farmers advised him to take the help of
machine called combine. Illustrate the reason behind this
suggestion.
(b) In an agricultural land farmer has sown the seed of wheat plant but
after some time he can see the agricultural land contain some
unwanted plants. Mention the steps that can be taken by the farmer to
remove these unwanted plants.
17. (a) A farmer was very worried as the salt content has increased in 3
soil and was harming the crop, even though he has not supplied
any salt in his agricultural field. Identify the possible reason
behind this effect.
(b) It is observed that grains after it is harvested are sundried and
stored in granaries and silos but fruits and vegetable are stored
in cold storage. Give reason for the different storage
arrangement for these food items
18. (a) In some crop plants like paddy, tomato and chilly the seed are 3
first shown a small pot and as seedling appear then it is
transferred into field. Do you think this process is beneficial for
the farmer? Give reason.

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 (b) Rima visited an agricultural land and found that land remain
uncultivated for long time. Suppose you are farmer and Rima
has asked you about this practice. How you will make rima
understand the process?

LA
19. Observe the given pictures 5

Picture A Picture B

(a) Write the name of the process which is shown in both the above
pictures.
(b) Suggest any three advantage of this above-mentioned process is
important for sowing of seed?
(c) In this modern agricultural practice, the seed drill has taken a
center stage. State the importance of seed drill in the
agricultural practice.
20. In India green revolution has resulted in the crop yield. Name the 5
phenomenon which has resulted in crop yield. Explain through proper
steps how a desired character can be obtained from two different verities
of crop plant.

Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

Page 108 of 197

 (Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
CH9-Crop Production and Its Management

Q. No. Value points/ key points Marks Total

allotted to Marks
each
value/key
point
1. (a) High temperature 1 1
2. (a) Irrigation of soil 1 1
3. (c) This allows penetration of roots in soil easily 1 1
4. (b) (ii) and (iii) 1 1
5. (a) Nitrogen 1 1
6. (a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation 1 1
of the Assertion.
7. (c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false 1 1
8. (a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation 1 1
of the Assertion.
9. (c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false. 1 1
10. (a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation 1 1
of the Assertion
CASE STUDY
11. (a) (iv) Mustard 1 4
(b) iv) both (i) & iii 1
(c) (iv) all of the above 1
(d) (i) Sprinkler system 1
12. (a) (iii) Combine 1 4
(b) i) winnowing 1
(c) (iv) all of the above 1
(d) (iv) all of the above 1
SA-I
13. (a) Seed drill sows the seeds at the proper seeding rate 1 2
and depth.
(b) It will improve soil structure and water retention It will 1
help in mineral recycling.
14. (a) Crop rotation and keeping the land uncultivated 1 2
for some time.
(b) Field 2 because of the growth of leguminous plant soil will 1
replenish its nutrients
15. (a) Decaying fish enrich the soil with nutrients which 1 2
can be utilized by corn plant for its growth.
(b) Drip irrigation. In the drip irrigation technique, water is 1
supplied slowly but directly to the roots of the plants. This
ensures that there is no water loss.

SA-II
16. (a) As the farm is large crop harvesting by sickle will 1 3

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 take lots of time, by the help of combine harvesting
and threshing an both be done in shorter time.
(b) Farmers can remove weeds by spraying weedicide, 2
manual removal using khurpi or harrow
17. (a) The water for irrigating the field contained high salt 1 3
concentration, which increased the salt concentration
of field.
(b) Fruits and vegetables because of their higher moisture 1+1
content get spoiled easily, whereas the harvested grains
contain more moisture than is suitable for storage
therefore they are sun dried to remove moisture content.
18. (a) Yes, to ensure uniform availability of sunlight, ½+ 1 3
water and nutrients.
(b) In Field fallow dead animals and plant accumulate on land 1½
and get decomposed by microbes in this way nutrients get
replenished in the soil
LA
19. (a) Ploughing 1 5
(b) Advantages are:
It improves air circulation. 1
Enhances the water retaining capacity of soil. 1
(c) Ploughing of weeds seed drill consists of funnel,
opening into a long pipe. As the seed get planted in the 1+1
furrow made by moving plough.
20. Hybridization method. Step involved 1 5
• Take two varieties of plant A and B of desired
characteristics.
• Anther from plant A is removed. This process is 1
known as emasculation.
• Anther of plant A are taken and dusted on stigma 1
of A.
• Stigma of A are then covered by paper bags 1
Thus, by following these steps seeds of hybrid variety can be
obtained. 1

CH-10 Refraction and Dispersion of Light

Q. No QUESTIONS MARKS
1. Q. No 1 – Q. No. 8 are Multiple choice questions 1
The speed of light in air is 3 x 108 m s-1. The refractive index of
glass is 1.5. The speed of light in glass.

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 (a) 2 x1012 m/s
(b) 2 x 108m/s
(c) 2.5 x 1012 m/s
(d) 2 m/s
2. Refractive indices of kerosene, turpentine and water are 1.44, 1.47 1
and 1.33 respectively. Through which of these media, light travels
faster and which medium has highest optical density?
(a) Kerosene and turpentine respectively.
(b) Kerosene and water respectively.
(c) Turpentine and water respectively.
(d) Water and turpentine respectively
3. If the object is brought from centre of curvature to the focus of a 1
convex lens, then the image formed by the lens:
(a) moves away from the lens.
(b) moves towards the lens.
(c) remains at the same position.
(d) first moves towards the lens and then away from the lens.
4. Rahul conducts an experiment using an object of height10 cm and a 1
concave lens of focal length 20 cm. The object is placed at 25 cm
from the lens. Can the image be formed on a screen?
(a) Yes, as the image formed will be real.
(b) Yes, as the image formed will be erect.
(c) No, as the image formed will be virtual.
(d) No, as the image formed will be inverted.
5. A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of 1
the hole on the other face of the box as shown in the figure.
Which of the following could be inside the box?

(a) Concave lens.

(b) Rectangular glass slab.
(c) Prism.
(d) Convex lens.
6. A student studies that a concave lens always forms a virtual image 1
irrespective of its position. What causes the concave lens to always
form a virtual image
(a) Because the refracted ray never intersects.
(b) Because the refracted ray converges at a single point.
(c) Because the incident ray traces its path along the principal axis.
(d) Because the incident ray of a concave lens gets absorbed in the mirror.
7. Choose the correct statement regarding the angle of refraction, when 1
the light ray is incident perpendicularly to the boundary of the two
media.

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 (a) It is always greater than the angle of incidence.
(b) It is always less than the angle of incidence.
(c) It is equal to the angle of incidence.
(d) It is unrelated to the angle of incidence.
For Q. No. 8 to Q. No.12, two statements are given – one labeled
as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d)
as given below.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation
of the Assertion(A) .
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
8. Assertion(A): A coin, not visible before, becomes visible after 1
some water is poured into the cup.
Reason(R): Light rays bend away from the normal as they move
from water to air.
9. Assertion(A): When objects are observed through hot air they 1
appear to be moving slightly.
Reason(R): Hotter air is optically denser and the cooler air is
optically rarer.
10. Assertion(A): In the visible spectrum of light produced by prism, 1
red light is at the top of the spectrum.
Reason(R): The wavelength of red light is minimum among all
visible colours.
11. Assertion(A): A ray of light travelling from a rarer medium to a 1
denser medium slows down and bends away from the
normal.
Reason (R): The speed of light is higher in a rarer medium than in a
denser medium.
12. Assertion(A): The emergent ray is parallel to the direction of the 1
incident ray, while the light ray passing through a
rectangular glass slab.
Reason (R): The extent of bending of the ray of light at the
opposite parallel faces (air- glass interface and glass-
air interface) of the rectangular glass slab is equal
and opposite.
13. Q No.13 –Q No.14 are Case based questions 4
Suman could not read a text printed on a paper properly because of
the very small font size. Then his father provided him a tool with
the help of which he can read the text very comfortably. Suman was
very excited to use the tool and clicked a photo of it which is shown
alongside the question.

Page 112 of 197

 (a) Identify the tool shown in figure.
(b) Predict the nature of lens used in this tool.
(c) Comment on the nature of the image formed.
(d) Mention the position of the paper shown in diagram with respect to the
tool.
14. When the rays of light travels from one transparent medium to another, 4
the path of light is deviated. This phenomenon is called refraction of light.
The bending of light depends on the optical density of medium through
which the light pass. A medium in which the speed of light is more is
optically rarer medium whereas in which the speed of light is less is
optically denser medium.
Whenever light goes from one medium to another, the frequency of
light does not change however, speed and wavelength change. It
concluded that change in speed of light is the basic cause of
refraction.

(a) Why frequency of light remains unchanged while moving from

one to other medium?
(b) If i=00, then what is the value of r?
(c) When light moves from rarer to denser medium, how does its
speed change?
(d) If we use red colour instead of blue colour of light for the same
incident angle, how does the angle of refraction change in first
diagram?
Q. No 15 – Q. No.19 are Very Short Answer type questions
15. A student obtained the image of a very far off object on a screen as
shown in figure. 2
(a) If the reading of the lens stand was 50 cm and that of the screen
was 70 cm on the optical bench, then find the focal length of the
given lens.
(b) Mention the natures of the image formed on the screen.

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16. In the following figure, P is the object and Q is its image formed by 2
an optical instrument L. Study the figure carefully and answer the
following questions:

(a) Identify the type of the lens.

(b) Write three properties of the image formed in this case.
17. On the first day of swimming class, Sima while putting her legs on 2
the steps in the swimming pool, observed that pool ladders bend
from water surface as shown in diagram

(a) Name the phenomenon associated with this observation?

(b) Write the cause of this phenomenon.
18. You have a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. Now you make an 2
arrangement with this lens and a white sheet to get an image of a
candle flame on this sheet.
(a) Where is the candle positioned if the sheet is at 30 cm from the
lens? Justify your answer.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show this image formation
19. A beam of light is incident through a hole on the left side and 2
emerges out of the hole on the other surface of the box as shown in
figure.

(a) Name the device (refracting medium) kept within the box.
(b) When does the beam of light remain undeviated while passing
through this device. Explain with suitable ray diagram.
Q. No.20- Q. No.24 are short answer type questions
20. Your friend was finding difficulty to read the text which is very 3
tiny. Hence, he came to you to get this problem solved. Then you
suggested him to use a convex lens to be kept close to the text.
(a) What would he observe after using this?
(b) Draw the appropriate ray diagram of image formation to justify
your suggestion.
(c) What will happen if he replaces this lens by concave lens?

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21. A spherical lens is held towards the sun such that its sharp image is 3
formed on a piece of black paper. The paper gets burnt and a hole is
formed after sometime.

(a) Name the lens used in the above activity.

(b) What name is given to the distance between the spherical lens
and the black paper?
(c) What is the relative advantage of using a black paper rather than
a white paper?
22. First you place a coin on a white paper. Then place a glass weight 3
exactly on it. Now you try to look at this coin through the paper
weight.
(a) What do you observe?
(b) What will happen, if you place another paper weight on the first
one?
(c) State how the speed of light changes in this activity with proper
reason.
23. The distance between an object and a spherical lens is being 3
changed continuously. It is noticed that the size of the image formed
on a screen is decreasing gradually.
(a) Identify the nature of the lens. Explain.
(b) In which direction the object is moved, towards or away from
the lens?
(c) State the range through which object must be moved to get such
image on the screen.
(d) Write the nature of this image.
24. In an experiment, Asim kept a five-rupee coin at the bottom of an 3
empty glass cup of depth 12 cm and he noticed that the coin was
apparently raised by 3 cm when water is poured into it up to the rim.
Based on your understanding of the above passage answer the
following questions:
(a) State the reason of such observation drawn from the above-
mentioned experiment.
(b) Also draw the labeled diagram to show the above observation.

Page 115 of 197

 Q. No. 25- Q. No27 are Long answer type questions
5
25.

A student is doing an activity in his school laboratory. Actually, he

wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen by using
lens as shown in figure.

(a) Which type of lens should be used to form this image? Also state
the nature of the image.
(b) At what position, should candle flame be placed to get:
i) magnified image,
ii) diminished image on the screen
(c) Draw the appropriate ray diagrams to illustrate your answers
of part (i) & (ii).
26. A plane mirror of suitable size is placed in a water filled bowl and 5
then whole arrangement is put near a window in such a way that
direct sunlight falls on the mirror. Now position of this arrangement

is adjusted so that reflected light from the mirror falls on the wall.
(a) What will be your observation?
(b) What is the phenomenon involved in this observation?
(c) Draw a labeled diagram to illustrate this phenomenon.
(d) What is the reason behind this phenomenon?
27. Suppose, you held a convex lens very near to an opened book and 5
tried to look at the book through this lens.
(a) What was your observation?
(b) (i) State the nature of the image so formed here.
(ii) Draw the appropriate ray diagram to show formation of the
image.
(iii) Write the special name given to this lens when it is used in
such a manner.
(c) What will happen to the image if you replace this lens by a
concave lens?

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 Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
CH10- Refraction and Dispersion of Light
Q. No. Value points/ key points Marks Total
allotted to Marks
each
value/key
point
1. (b) v = 2 x108 m/s 1 1
2. (d) Water and turpentine respectively. 1 1
3. (a) moves away from the lens. 1 1
4. (c) No, as the image formed will be virtual. 1 1
5. (d) Convex lens. 1 1
6. (a) Because the refracted ray never intersects. 1 1
7. (c) It is equal to the angle of incidence 1 1
8. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1
9. (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1
10. (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1
11. (d) A is false but R is true. 1 1
12. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1
13. (a) Magnifying glass. 1 4
(b) Convex lens (converging lens). 1
(c) Virtual and erect. 1
(d) Paper is placed in between lens and its focus. 1
14. (a) Frequency does not depend on medium. 1 4
(b) r = 00 1
(c)Speed decreases 1
(d) Increase 1
15. (a) 20 cm. 1 2
(b) Real and inverted. 1
16. (a) Concave lens. ½ +½ + 2
(b) Virtual, erect and diminished. ½ +½
17. (a) Due to the refraction of light as it passes from water to 1 2
air. 1
(b) Due to change in speed.
18. (a) 30 cm from the lens as the image on the screen is obtained at 1 2
2F.
(b)

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19. (a) Lens 1 2
(b) While passing through the optical center. ½

20. (a) Size of the text gets enlarged. 1 3

(b)
1

. 1
(c) Image of the text becomes more diminished.
21. (a) Convex lens. 1 3
(b) Focal length. 1
(c) As black paper absorbs more heat from sunlight 1
compare to white paper.
22. (a) The coin appears to raise. ½ 3
(b) Apparent depth of the coin decreases further. 1
(c) Speed of the light decreases. ½
As the light reflected from the coin travels from denser (glass) to 1
rarer (air).
23. (a) Convex lens. Because the image is real as it is obtained on the ½+½ 3
screen.
(b) Away from the lens. ½
(c) From F to Infinity. ½
(d) Real and inverted. 1
24. (a) Due to refraction of light ray from water to air, light ray bends 1 3
away from normal.
(b) 2

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25. (a) Convex lens. Real and inverted. ½ +½ 5
(b) i) In between F & 2F. ½
ii) Beyond 2F. ½
(c)
1½ + 1
½

26. 1 5
1

(a) Rainbow will be formed.

(b) Dispersion of light.
(c)
(d) Different colours of light have different speed in a given medium.
1
27. (a) Text of the book got enlarged. 1 5
(b) i) virtual and erect. 1
ii)

1+1

iii) Magnifying glass.

(c) Gets diminished 1

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 CH-11 The Human Eye
Q. No QUESTIONS MARKS
Q. No. 1 – Q. No. 6 are Multiple choice questions: 1
1. The type of image formed on retina is-

(a) Real and Inverted

(b) Real and erect
(c) Virtual and Inverted
(d) Virtual and erect
2. A person went for a medical checkup and found that the curvature 1
of his eye lens is increasing. Which defects he is likely to suffer
from?
(a) Myopia
(b) Cataract
(c) Presbyopia
(d) Hypermetropia
3. When we enter a dark room coming from outside, immediately the 1
things inside the room does not appear clear to our eyes. This is
because:
(a) Pupils do not open at all
(b) Pupil takes time to adjust
(c) Light travels slower in dark room
(d) Pupils open very quickly in the dark
4. Raushan is able to see objects clearly only when these are lying 1
between 55 cm and 250 cm from her eyes. What kind of defect of
vision she is suffering from.
1.Myopia. 2. Hypermetropia 3. Cataract 4. Presbyopia
(a) 1
(b) 1 & 2
(c) 4
(d) 3
5. The image of a human eye given below shows a point X which is 1
absent in the octopus. X can be identified as:

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 (a) Insensitive spot (b) Blind spot
(c) Dark point (d) Far point
6. 1

The diagram given above shows a defect of vision in which the

person is:
(a) Not able to see nearby objects comfortably and clearly.
(b) Able to see the nearby objects comfortably and clearly
(c) Not able to see the distant objects clearly and distinctively
(d) both b and c
Q. No.7-Q. No. 16 are Assertion and Reason questions:
Two statements are given. One is labelled Assertion (A) and the
other labelled Reason(R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes a), b), c) & d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of
A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
7. Assertion (A): Pupil is black coloured muscular diaphragm. 1
Reason (R): It controls amount of light entering the eye.
8. Assertion (A): Domestic animals are mostly colour blind. 1
Reason (R): They do not distinguish colours due to absence of
cone cells on retina.
9. Assertion (A): Hypermetropia is the defect of the eye in which 1
only farther objects are seen.
Reason (R): Hypermetropia is corrected by using converging lens
10. Assertion(A): A normal human eye can clearly see all the objects 1
beyond certain minimum distance.
Reason (R): The human eye has capacity of adjusting the focal
length of eye lens.
11. Assertion (A): Myopia is the defect of the eye in which only nearer 1
objects are seen by the eye.

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 Reason (R): The eye ball is elongated.
12. Assertion(A): Power of accommodation is a special ability of the 1
eye to focus near and distant objects clearly.
Reason(R): The ciliary muscle of the eye changes the focal
length of an eye lens to focus distant and nearby
objects clearly on the retina.
13. Assertion(A): The most effective resource for visually challenged 1
person is the Braille.
Reason (R): Only optical aids can be used to help a person who is
visually challenged.
14. Assertion (A): The lens of the eye forms a real inverted image of 1
the object on the inner court of the eye.
Reason (R): The screen of the eye is called the retina.
15. Assertion (A): There is a liquid filled space between the cornea 1
and the eye lens of the eye.
Reason(R): It is necessary to maintain appropriate ocular pressure
of the eye.
16. Assertion(A): The farthest point up to which an eye can see an 1
object clearly is at infinity.
Reason (R): The range between the farthest and nearest point of a
normal eye marks its range of vision.
17. Q. No 17- Q. No 18 are case based questions. 4

Above graph is showing data of corrective ways adopted by the

persons in treating deficiency diseases. Analyze the data and answer
the following questions.
(a) Name the disease by which most of the people are suffering.
(b) Write the percentage of people suffering from myopia.
(c)What is the cause of the defect in the persons, who are using
convex lens.
(d) Write one likely cause of cataract to appear during old age.
18. Students with vision impairment may access information in a 4
variety of ways, for example Braille, audio-tape, or enlarged print.
Braille readers cannot skim read and may take up to three times as

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 long as other students to read a text. Braille is read by touch, by
using the pads of the fingers to feel the letters and symbols. Braille
can be written in a variety of ways; using specialist equipment or
specific computer software. Braille is available in almost all
languages and also there are Braille codes for mathematical and
scientific notations.

(a) Name the type of resource under which Braille system for
visually impaired children comes?
(b) Name the resource that can be used for partially visually
impaired child to learn.
(c) Write one optical aid for visually impaired children.
(d) What is the number of dot patterns or characters present on
Braille sheet?
Q. No 19- Q. No 22 are very short answer questions
Rohan has trouble playing cards. He cannot see the nearby cards
19. clearly.
(a) Identify the defects of vision he is suffering from. 2
(b) Suggest the type of corrective lens he should use for this. Give
justification.
20. When we watch a movie, it feels like a continuous experience even though 2
the screen is dark about half the time as films show one new frame every
1/24 of a second. Identify the phenomenon and explain the reason behind
this effect.
21. Meesha was going through a picture book which had pictures of 2
different animals, birds and insects. She noticed that animals have
eyes shaped in different ways’
(a) Give an example to state how visibility is dependent upon
different shape of eye.
(b) “The perception of colour varies in organism”. Give reason.
22. Kanika while reading a book keeping at a distance 25cm, the text 2
prints appeared to be blurred.
(a) Identify the location of the image of the text getting formed in
her eye.
(b) What conclusion can be drawn about the ‘least distance of
distinct vision’ of Kanika’s eye?
23. Q. No 23-Q. No 28 are short answer questions 3
Ruby's grandmother is 60 years old. Now-a-days she cannot see any
object clearly, her vision becomes cloudy due to clouding of lens.
(a) Identify the defects she is suffering from.
(b) State the cause of this defect
(c) If she undergoes cataract surgery and her eye lens are replaced with a
plastic artificially lens, state one likely visual disadvantage that she is

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 likely to experience as compared to a person who has normal eyesight.
24. Modern technology helps a lot in learning of visually challenged children. 3
Draw a simple concept map on ‘learning methods of visually challenged
persons.
25. A person is able to see objects clearly when these are lying within 3
distance 300 cm from his eye.
(a) Mention the kind of defect of vision he is suffering from?
(b) Suggest the type of lens that will be required to increase his
range of vision till infinity. Explain with proper reason.
(c) Mention the range of vision for normal eye.
26. Our eyes contain nearly 127 nerve cells which helps us to see the 3
colours and the details of the objects in light and also in dim light
conditions.Birds like kite, eagle have good visibility during the day
whereas their visibility decreases during dim light conditions
(a) Name the photosensitive cells present in human eye.
(b) Do you think these photosensitive cells affect the vision in different
light condition? Explain with proper example.
27. Ankush is a 10 years old child who can hold a printed book 25 cm 3
from his eyes and can able to see it clearly but his grandfather finds
difficulty in doing the same.
(a) Interpret the reason for the above-mentioned condition in his
grandfather.
(b) Suggest one cause for this difficulty.
(c) State the optical aid that can be used to correct his
grandfather's condition.
28. In camera, the lens (A) moves closer/further from the film to focus. A film 3
(B) in a camera is sensitive to light. The aperture (C) controls the amount
of light that enters the camera by regulating the size of the lens.
Comparing the same with the human eye and state the parts that functions
same as A, B and C.
LA
29. The image shows the ray diagram of a defected eye. 5

(a) Identify the defect of vision.

(b) Suggest a corrective way to treat this defect of vision.
(c) Draw a ray diagram of correction, in support of your answer.
(d)What would happen if a concave lens is used as corrective lens? Justify
your answer.
30. The ray diagram shows a condition when close-up objects look clear 5
but distant objects are blurry. For instance, you can read a map
clearly but have trouble seeing well enough to drive a car.

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 (a) Identify the disorder.
(b) Mention two reasons for such a condition of vision.
(c) Suggest two ways to prevent optical disorders.
31. A thick broken line and a circle was drawn on a white sheet of 5
paper. The distance between the line and the circle may be adjusted
to be about 6 to 8 cm. The sheet was held at an arm’s length from
the eye, one eye focused on the circle while the other was closed.

--------------

(a) Identify the change in vision if you move your head closer to the
image? Give reason for this change
(b) Discuss the point of the eye that is responsible for your
observation from the above activity.
(c) If the photoreceptors are located in the inner side of the eye and
cells that carry information are on the outer portion of the eye
will there be an image formation? Give reason.

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 Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
CH-11 The Human Eye
Q. No. Value points/ key points Marks Total
allotted to Marks
each
value/key
point
1. (a) Real and inverted 1 1
2. (a) Myopia 1 1
3. (b) Pupil takes time to adjust 1 1
4. (b) Both1&2 1 1
5. (b) Blind spot 1 1
6. (a) Not able to see nearby objects comfortably and clearly 1 1
ASSERTION AND REASON
7. (d) A is false but R is true 1 1
8. (d) A is false but R is true 1 1
9. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of 1 1
A.
10. (a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of 1 1
A.
11. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1
12. (b) A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of 1 1
A.
13. (c) A is true, R is False. 1 1
14. (d) A is false R is true. 1 1
15. (a) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1 1
16. (a) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1 1
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
17. (a) Cataract 1 4
(b) 60% 1
(c) shortened eye ball 1
(d) development of membrane of eye lens 1
18. (a) Tactual 1 4
(b) Audio CDs 1
(c) Telescopic aids 1
(d) 63 1
SA-I
19. (a) Hypermetropia 1 2

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 (b) Convex lens as that can converge lights more towards cornea 1
so that image can form on retina
20. The phenomena is persistence of vision. 1 2
The image, formed on the retina eye, does not fade away
instantaneously, its impression remains on the retina for about 1
1/16th of a second even after the removal of the object
21. (a) Butterflies have large eyes that seems to be made up of 1 2
thousands of little eyes which helps them to see in front,
sides and back.
(b) it differs due to the variation in the number of cone cells. 1
22. (a) Image forms beyond retina as she is suffering from 1 2
hypermetropia
(b) The least distance of distinct vision' of Kanika's eye is 1
extended.
SA-II
23. (a) Cataract 1 3
(b) Formation of thin membrane over eye lens. 1
(c) She would lose power of accommodation property of eye. 1
24. 3

Sketch 1
Comment 2
25. (a) Myopia 1 3
(b) Concave lens. 1
The image form in myopia before retina. By using
concave lens light rays can be diverge before they
enter the eye, so that they can meet on retina.
(c) 25 cm to infinity 1
26. (a) The nerve cells are Rods and Cones. 1 3
(b) Rods: sensitive to light intensity, helps to see in dim 1
light conditions.
Cones: helps in perception of colours. 1
27. (a) It happens when the near point of the eye moves far 1 3
from normal.
(b) The focal length of the eye lens becomes too large / the 1

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 eye ball gets shortened (any one)
(c) Optical aids required to correct is condition is a spectacle
with convex lens. 1
28. Parts of human eye resembling the given parts of camera 3
are.
A: Lens 1
B: Retina 1
C: Pupil 1
LA
29. (a) Hypermetropia 1 5
(b) Using convex lens 1
(c)

(d)The light will focus much more beyond retina and the
1
defects will not be corrected.
30. (a) Myopia 1 5
(b) Excessive curvature of the cornea; 1
Elongation of the eyeball 1
(c) Concave or diverging lens.
(d) Any two preventive measure are
Have a regular eye check up 1
Try not to spend too much time looking on computer screen 1
31. (a) The broken line seems to be complete. 1+1 5
This happens when the image of the broken line falls
on the blind spot of the retina.
(b) Blind Spot
As the blind spot for both the eyes are not exactly at 1+1
the same place.
(c) In the given situation the optic nerves do not cross any point 1
of its retina, therefore no blind spot is formed. Hence image
will be formed.

CH-12 sound
Q. No QUESTIONS MARKS
1. Q. No 1-Q. No 8 are multiple choice questions 1

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 Ravi always speak loudly. The loudness of his sound depends on:
(a) frequency
(b) amplitude
(c) time period
(d) all of the above
2. If you are a astronaut in a space identify the speed of sound there: 1
(a) 330 m/s
(b) 330 cm/s
(c) Zero m/sec
(d) 330 min/s
3. Identify the following part used by birds to make sounds 1
(a) Beeks
(b) Vocal cords
(c) Syrinx
(d) Oropharynx
4. A string oscillates 60 times in 30 seconds. Its time period is 1
(a) 5 s
(b) 0.5 s
(c) 1800 s
(d) 90 s
5. A given sound is inaudible to the human ear. We can then say that 1
this is so
(a) only because its amplitude is too small.
(b) only because its frequency is below 20 Hz.
(c) only because its frequency is above 20 kHz.
(d) because it has any one, or more, of the three characteristics listed
above.
6. A key of a mechanical piano struck gently and then struck again but 1
much harder this time. In the second case

(a) sound will be louder but the pitch will not be different.
(b)sound will be louder and the pitch will also be higher.
(c)sound will be louder but the pitch will be lower.
(d)both loudness and the pitch will remain unaffected.
7. The following are some statements about sound: 1
(i)Sound is produced by vibrations.
(ii) Sound requires a medium for propagation.
(iii) The audible range of sound for humans is 10 Hz - 10 kHz.
(a) (i),(ii), and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (ii) only
(d) (ii) and (iii) only
8. The following are some statements about sound: 1

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 (i) Sound propagates faster in steel than in air.
(ii) Sounds are produced through vibrations.
(iii) Sound propagates faster than light.
(iv) Sound does not require a medium for its propagation.
Out of these, the correct statements are-
(a) (iii) and (iv) only
(b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (ii) only
(d) (ii) and (iv) only
Q. No 9 to Q. No 18 are assertion and reason-based questions:
Two statements are given – one labeled as Assertion (A) and the
other labeled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation
of the Assertion(A).
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Assertion (A): Even if a loud explosion were to take place at any
9. point on the moon, it would not be heard even at 1
nearby points.
Reason (R): Unlike the earth, the moon has no atmosphere.
10. Assertion (A): The thundering sounds are always heard a little after 1
seeing the flash of lightning.
Reason (R): Thunder occurred a little later than lightning.
11. Assertion (A): The word pitch is used to describe the shrillness or 1
flatness of a sound.
Reason (R): More the amplitude of vibration, higher is the pitch.
12. Assertion (A): The vibrations, of frequency less than 20 Hz are 1
called ultrasonic sounds.
Reason (R): Human ear recognizes only those frequencies lies
between 20Hz and 20000Hz.
13. Assertion (A): Noise is an unpleasant and unwanted sound. 1
Reason (R): Musical sounds consist of a regular succession of
pulses in which there is no sudden change in the
amplitude.
14. Assertion (A): A flute produces sound when air is blown through it. 1
Reason (R): Vibration is the basic cause of all sounds.
15. Assertion (A): Sound needs a medium to travel. 1
Reason (R): The speed of sound is maximum through gases.
16. Assertion (A): People, living near railway tracks know well in 1
advance about an approaching train.
Reason (R): Speed of sound is maximum through gases.
17. Assertion (A): The thundering sounds are always heard a little after 1
seeing the flash of lightning.
Reason (R): Speed of sound is lesser than the speed of light in air.
18. Assertion (A): The voice of a male is likely to be flatter. 1

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 Reason (R): The pitch of male voice is lesser than the females.
Q. No.19-Q. No20 are case based questions
19. In humans, the sound is produced by the voice box or the larynx. 4
Put your fingers on the throat and find a hard bump that seems to
move when you swallow. This part of the body is known as the
voice box. It is at the upper end of the windpipe. Two vocal cords
are stretched across the voice box or larynx in such a way that it
leaves a narrow slit between them for the passage of air. When the
lungs force air through the slit, the vocal cords vibrate, producing
sound. Muscles attached to the vocal cords can make the cords tight
or loose. When the vocal cords are tight and thin, the type or quality
of voice is different from that when they are loose and thick.

(a)Calculate the frequency of sound, if the vocal cord vibrates 100

times in 10 seconds.
(b) The frequencies, of the male and female voices in human
beings are nearly 1kHz and 1.5kHz. Which voice will have
higher pitch and why?
(c) Compare between the sound produced by birds and that of
human beings.
(d) Relate loudness with the amplitude of a sound wave.
20. Ramkrishna kept a mini sound player in each of two similar 4
containers. He then tightly covered both the containers with
stretched plastic sheets. He placed some tiny rubber beads on the
surface of the sheets. The picture shows what Ramkrishna noticed
before he turned off and on the sound player.

(a) Identify the part of the setup which forces to vibrate the rubber
beads.

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 (b) Now, the vacuum pump was connected to the set up and inside
of the container made vacuum by taking out the air from it. Then
once again sound player was switched on. Can you still hear the
sound?
(c) Name one instrument which produces the sound in this way.
(d) Explosion on sun is not heard on earth. Give reason.
21. Whale and Dolphins are two aquatic animals. How do they communicate 2
under water? Do you think sound waves produced by them are similar?
Give reason.
22. Suppose a clock tower is situated close to your friend’s house. The clock 2
on the top of this tower rings bells every hour. He has noticed that the
sound of clock appears to be much clearer at night. Explain the reason.
23. A cycle is made to stand on its support and its back wheel is rotated 2
(i) very slowly and (ii) very fast.
Now, a knitting needle is touched the spokes of the wheel in both
the cases (i) and (ii).
State in which case the sound will be (a) flatter and (b) shriller.
24. Amit strikes a drum very lightly with a drum stick, Sujit standing at a 2
distance, unable to hear the sound coming from the drum. Give reason to
justify your answer.
25. Sujan saw a cracker burst at some distance from his house in evening. She 2
heard the sound of cracker a little after seeing the cracker burst. State the
reason for delay in hearing the sound.
26. 3

(a) In the above image of the apparatus contains the vacuum pump.
Write the function of vacuum pump
(b) If you are astronaut present in the space, will you able to hear
the sound in space. Give reason
(c) As an astronaut, how can you communicate with your
fellow members?
27. 3

(a) Observe the above picture and relate this with noise pollutions.
Write the parameter along with their proper units used to
measure this pollution.
(b) Rishab wants to purchase a house near a busy roadside where there is

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 buzzing effect of loudspeaker. Do you think the above effect of sound
should be placed near houses or hospitals? Give reason.
28. (a) Srija is class VIII Student. She thinks that noise and music is 3
same. Can you help to clear her doubt regarding noise and
music.
(b) Rishab plays loud hip hop music in his home. His parents tell him that
it is creating noise but he says that that is music for him. Explain with
proper scientific reason that how this music is becoming noise.
29. (a) If you place your ear close to an iron railing which is tapped 3
some distance away, you hear the sound twice. Explain why?
(b) Does the speed of sound in air depend upon temperature of air?
30. (a) Define the characteristics of a vibrating body which determines 5
the (i) loudness and (ii) pitch of the sound. Also write their S.I
unit.
(b) Your parents are going to purchase a house. They have been offered
one house on the roadside. While the other is three lanes away from
the roadside. Which place would you suggest your parents to buy it?
Explain your answer
31. (a) A pendulum oscillates 20 times in 4 seconds. Find its time 5
period and frequency.
(b) What is the frequency of the sound produced when the vocal
cords are (i) tight and thin and (ii) loose and thick?
(c) Name the unit used to measure the loudness of a sound.

Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
CH12- SOUND
Q. No. Value points/ key points Marks Total
allotted to Marks
each

Page 133 of 197

 value/key
point
1. (b) 1 1
2. (c) 1 1
3. (c) 1 1
4. (b) 1 1
5. (d) 1 1
6. (a) sound will be louder but the pitch will not be different. 1 1
7. (c) (i) and (ii) only 1 1
8. (c) 1 1
9. (a) 1 1
10. (c) 1 1
11. (c) 1 1
12. (d) 1 1
13. (b) 1 1
14. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of 1 1
A.
15. (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1
16. (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1
17. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of 1 1
A.
18. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of 1 1
A.
19. (a) 10 Hz 1 4
(b) Female, as higher the frequency, higher the pitch. 1
(c)The mechanism of producing sound in birds differ 1
from that in human beings because birds have a ring
of cartilage called syrinx in their windpipe, they use it
in their voice box to produce sound but in human
beings there is a vocal cords or larynx which help us
to produce sound.
(d)Loudness of sound is proportional to the square of the 1
amplitude of the vibration producing the sound.
20. (a) Stretched plastic sheets 1 4
(b) Sound cannot travel without a medium 1
(c) Table / drum 1
(d)There is no medium in between sun and earth. 1
21. 2 points of difference 1+1 2
22. At night noise level is low and also no interference of external 1+1 2
source.
23. (a) very slowly, (b) very fast 1+1 2
24. This is because the sound produced, in this case, is a very faint 2 2
sound. We thus realise that a sound, if not loud enough, may
not be heard by us. Such sounds are called inaudible sound.
25. Light travels much faster than sound. 2 2
26. (a) to evacuate the air present in the jar. 1 3
(b) No, Sound cannot travel through vacuum. 1
(c) With the help of Radio waves 1
27. (a) Noise pollution 1 3

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 (b) No, any two harmful effects 1+1
28. (a) 2 points of difference. 2 3
(b) Music becomes noise when it is at very high volume. 1
29. (a) First through iron railing where the speed is faster and 1+1 3
second through air where speed is slower.
(b) Speed of sound wave increases with temperature. 1
30. (a) Proper definition of (i) amplitude and (ii) frequency. 1+1 5
S.I unit of amplitude is m and frequency is Hertz.
(b) Houses along the roadside will have more noise problems.
The noise produced by transportation vehicles may cause 3
trouble to the residents. The intensity of noise decreases
with the distance between the source and the listener.
Therefore, it is better to take the house that is three lanes
away from the roadside.
31. (a)Time period = 1/5 s; Frequency = 5 Hz 1+1 5
(b) (i) high and (ii) low. 1+1
(c) decibel 1

CH-13 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics

Q. No QUESTIONS MARKS
1. Q. No 1- Q. No. 10 are Multiple choice questions 1
Identify the product based on the given features.
I. It is a man-made product.
II. It has a linear arrangement of monomer units.
III. It is used for making goods like toys, combs, containers, etc.
(a) cellulose
(b) rayon
(c) thermosets
(d) thermoplastics
2. See the figure given below and select the correct statements regarding 1
polymers.

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 Figure 1 Figure 2
I. Figure 1 shows structure of a monomer
while Figure 2 shows structure of a polymer.
II. Small points in the structure represent
monomer Which are joined to give a polymer.
III. Figure 1 shows structure of a linear polymer
while Figure 2 shows structure of a cross-linked
polymer.
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) all are correct
3. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 1
(a) cotton fabrics do not wrinkle easily.
(b) Teflon is used to make non-stick cookware.
(c) rayon is prepared by using wood pulp.
(d) nylon is used for making parachute and stockings.
4. Match the entries in column I with those in column II. 1
Column I Column II
(A) silk (1) rope
(B) nylon (2) sweater
(C) acrylic (3) bottle
(D) plastic (4) saree
(a) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(b) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
5. Identify the correct statement about plastic: 1
(i) All plastics do not have same arrangement of monomer units.
(ii) Melamine resists fire and can tolerate heat better than other plastics.
(iii) Plastics with cross-linked monomers are known as thermoplastics.
(a) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (ii) only
(d) all of the above
6. Rajesh wears a shirt that does not get wrinkled easily. It remains crisp 1
and is easy to wash while Suresh wears a shirt that gets wrinkled very
soon. The fibre probably used in Rajesh’s shirt is:
(a) polyester
(b) cotton
(c) wool
(d) jute
7. Government has banned the use of plastic carry bags. Shopkeepers are 1
advised to promote the use of reusable paper and cloth bags. Choose the
correct reason for the ban of plastic carry bags.
(a) They burn slowly and release poisonous fumes into the environment.
(b) They get completely burnt and removed from the environment.
(c) They degrade naturally in the soil to release harmful substances.

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 (d) They require a large number of bacteria for their degradation.
8. Rajesh found that woollen blankets were expensive as they were made 1
from natural fibre. He wanted a blanket which was similar to a woollen
blanket, but cheaper. So, he bought a blanket made of :
(a) Polyster
(b) acrylic
(c) Nylon
(d) cotton
9. The image shows some products that are made up of different type of
plastics.

With respect to above context select the correct one.

(a) Q and R- Thermosetting plastic
(b) P and Q- Thermosetting plastic
(c) R and S- Thermoplastic
(d) S and Q- Thermoplastic
10. In chemical laboratories, many salts like ammonium nitrate are stored in 1
plastic containers instead of metals. Select a likely reason for the same.
(a) Plastic does not react with chemical substances.
(b) Plastic is less expensive than metal.
(c) Plastic is easier to handle than metal.
(d) Plastic gets rusted in the presence of air
Q. No 11 – Q. No 20 are Assertion and Reason based questions 1
Two statements are given – one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion(A) .
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
11. Assertion (A): Synthetic fibres have less water absorbing capacity.
Reason (R): They have hollow space in midst of a single fibre.
12. Assertion (A): Thermosetting plastics are cups, mugs etc.
Reason (R): Thermosetting plastics can change their shape even 1
after providing sufficient heat.
13. Assertion (A): It is advised not to wear synthetic clothes while 1

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 working in a laboratory.
Reason (R): The synthetic fibre melts on heating.
14. Assertion (A): Plastics are the substitute of wool as it is light in 1
weight and easy to handle.
Reason (R): We should avoid plastics as for as possible.
15. Assertion (A): Manufacturing synthetic fibres is actually helping 1
conservation of forests.
Reason (R): Synthetic fibres are obtained by chemical processing
of petrochemicals which do not require cutting of
trees.
16.. Assertion(A): Acrylic fibres are used in making socks and shawls. 1
Reason (R): Acrylic fibres resemble woollen fibres. It is less
expensive and can be dyed in different colours.
17. Assertion(A): Bakelite is used for making electrical switches and 1
handles of various utensils.
Reason(B): Bakelite is a thermosetting plastic which is a poor
conductor of both heat and electricity.
18. Assertion(A): Rayon is called artificial silk. 1
Reason (R): Raw materials used to prepare rayon are coal, air and
water.
19. Assertion (A): Plastic bags can be replaced by jute or paper bag. 1
Reason (R): Plastic is non-biodegradable; it accumulates and leads to soil
pollution.
20. Assertion (A): Nylon fibres cannot be used for making ropes for 1
climbers.
Reason (R): Nylon fibres are very strong fibres.
21. Iron has been identified as a component of asbestos and other mineral 4
and synthetic fibers. Inhalation of iron and iron oxide fumes or dust
may result in deposition of iron particles in lungs, producing an X-ray
appearance resembling silicosis. The carcinogenicity of iron is still
under debate, for example, for colorectal and liver cancer. An increase
in the incidence of lung cancer, as well as in that of tuberculosis
and interstitial fibrosis, has been noted in hematite miners. Due to
inadequate controls, it is possible that the increased incidence of lung
diseases noted in the study is due to smoking or exposure to other
carcinogens present in the occupational setting. The American
Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH) assigns an
A4 (not classifiable as a human carcinogen) ranking to iron. Excess free
circulating iron damages blood vessels, and hypotension can occur.
(i) Modern non-stick cookware and the flat end of an electric iron has a
coating of a polymer. Write the name of the polymer.
(ii) Identify the best method to avoid pollution by using plastic bags:
(a) burying the plastic bags in the soil
(b) using bags made of biodegradable material
(c) throwing the plastic bags into the river
(d) burning the plastic bags in a rubbish dump
(iii) State one advantage of nylon over rayon.
(iv) The man-made fibre rayon is chemically identical to:

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 (a) wool
(b) silk
(c) jute
(d) cotton
22. A material which gets decomposed through natural processes, such as 4
action by bacteria, is called biodegradable. A material which is not
easily decomposed by natural processes is termed non-biodegradable.
Since plastic takes several years to decompose, it is not
environmentally friendly. I t causes environmental pollution. Besides,
the burning process in the synthetic material is quite slow and it does
not get completely burnt easily. In the process, it releases lots of
poisonous fumes into the atmosphere causing air pollution. Avoid the
use of plastics as far as possible. Make use of bags made of cotton or
jute when you go shopping. The biodegradable and nonbiodegradable
wastes should be collected separately and disposed of separately. The
polybags are carelessly thrown here and there are and responsible for
clogging the drains, too. Sometimes we are very careless and throw the
wrappers of chips, biscuits and other eatables on the road or in parks or
picnic places.
i) The 4R principle is most applicable for:
(a) Synthetic fibre
(b) Natural fibre
(c) Metal
(d) Plastic
ii) Burning of synthetic polymers such as plastic pollute the
environment by:
(a) releasing smoke and toxic gases
(b) releasing water vapour and haze
(c) releasing water vapour and smoke
(d) forming smog and rain
iii) Identify the characteristics of the plastics which is/ are responsible
for creating numerous environmental problems.
(a) Does not respond to the bacterial decomposition.
(b) Releases harmful gases when burnt.
(c) Chemically inert.
(d) All of the above.
(iv) What is the 4R principle.
Q. No 23 – Q. No 26 are Very Short Answer type question
In our homes, black-coloured garbage bags are used to dispose of waste. Is 2
23. this a good practice? Suggest one way of managing waste, which you can
implement at your home, to ensure better disposal
24. Mention the kind of plastics that are used to make these uniforms. 2
Explain with proper reason.

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25. In the given picture (A and B). Identify the garments which is more 2
comfortable for summer? Give reason for your answer.

PICTURE A PICTURE B
Observe the given picture (Bucket 1 and Bucket 2) . 2

26.

Bucket 1 Bucket 2
The Bucket 1 gets rusted easily than the Bucket 2. Explain with proper reason.
27. Q. No 27-Q. No 34 are Short Answer type questions 3
(a) Name the component of kitchen plates in the figure.
(b) “It is called a versatile material”. Give reason to agree with the
statement.

28. Match the items in Column A with the items in Column B 3

Column A Column B
(i) Vulcanized rubber (a) a material which gets decomposed
through a natural process
(ii) Thermosetting (b) used for making magnetic tapes
(iii) Biodegradable (c) artificial silk
(iv) PET (d) semi synthetic polymer

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 (v) Recycle (e) handles of cooking utensils
(vi) Rayon (f) 4 R’s principle
29. Observe the picture given below. 3

(a) Identify the process shown above.

(b)How can this process be useful for the environment?
(c) Name two artificial fibres that can be used here?
30. 3

In the above picture, John took this type of ropes when he was going for rock
climbing. Can you explain the reason behind this?
31. Observe the figure and answer the question: 3
Name the fabric used for making the articles in fig i and ii. Justify your
answers.

32. Give reasons for the following:

(a) Nylon is very popular for making clothes.
(b) Frying pan handles are made up of thermosetting plastics.
(c) PET bottles are preferred in kitchens today over glass bottles.
33. Study the image and answer the following question: 3

(a) Identify the material used for making this pan.

(b) Mention the reason behind its nonstick nature.
(c) To which category the material belongs?
34. Observe the given picture 3

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 (a)Which type of fibres become more Popular? Explain your
answer.
(b) Mention the ways natural fibres like cotton and wool being
modified to improve sustainability and performance?
35. Q.No 35 – Q.No 36 are Long answer type questions 5
Observe the given picture.

(A) (B)
(a) Name two types of plastic indicated in the above figure.
(b) Write two major differences between the above plastic
(A and B) shown.
(c) One type of plastic become soft on heating but other do not
become soft on heating. Explain with the help of diagram.
36. Observe the given figure. 5

(a) Enlist three strategy of plastic waste management.

(b)What do the following figures represent? Mention their main
difference in the arrangement of units in (A and B).

Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

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 (Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
CH-13 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics
Q. No. Value points/ key points Marks Total
allotted to Marks
each
value/key
point
1 (d) thermoplastics 1 1
2 (c) II and III only 1 1
3 (a) cotton fabrics do not wrinkle easily 1 1
4 (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 1 1
5 (c) (i) and (ii) only 1 1
6 (a) polyester 1 1
7 (a) They burn slowly and release poisonous fumes into the 1 1
environment.
8 (b) acrylic 1 1
9 (a) Q and R- Thermosetting plastic 1 1
10 (a) Plastic does not react with chemical substances. 1 1
11 (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. 1 1
12 (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. 1 1
13 (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason(R) 1 1
is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
14 (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason(R) 1 1
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
15 (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason(R) 1 1
is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
16 (a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the 1 1
correct explanation of assertion.
17 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 1 1
assertion
18 (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1
19 (a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the 1 1
correct explanation of assertion.
20 (d) A is false but R is true 1 1
21 i) Teflon 1 4
ii) b 1
iii) advantage of nylon over rayon is nylon is highly 1
elastic and does not wrinkle. 1
iv) b
22 (i) d) Plastic 1 4
(ii) a) By releasing smoke and toxic gases 1
(iii) d) All of the above. 1
(iv) Reduce reuse recycle and recover are all part of 4-R 1
approach for plastic use.
23 No, it is not a good practice. This practice increases the 1 2
uses of plastics.
Household waste should be disposed properly, otherwise it can
pollute our environment. We can manage it by preparing 1
compost by using biodegradable household wastes

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24 Melamine is used to make uniforms for firemen. 1 2
Because it is a thermosetting plastic and they are flame 1
resistant and poor conductor of heat also.
25 Cotton clothes (PICTURE A) are more comfortable in 1 2
summer.
Because it is a natural fiber that allows air to circulate through 1
the fabric, helping to evaporate sweat and keep us cool and it
can absorb moisture from our skin further enhancing its
cooling properties.
26 Plastic is a non-reactive material. To form rust it should react 2 2
with water and oxygen. Since plastic is a non-reactive material,
it does not form rust. But iron gets easily rusted in presence of
water and air.
27 (a) Melamine 1 3
(b) It is a versatile material. It resists fire and can tolerate heat
better than other plastics. It is used for making floor tiles, 2
kitchenware and fabrics which resist fire.
28 i-d, ii-e, iii-a, iv-b, v-f, vi-c 0.5×6 3
29 (a) Recycling 1 3
(b) It helps to reuse, reduce and recycle used materials. 1
Nylon and polyester ½ +½
30 John took nylon ropes. 1 3
Because nylon ropes are strong flexible and elastic when 2
compared to jute and cotton ropes.
31 Fig- i- Jacket is made of polyester which is known for its 1½ 3
durability, light weight, flexibility, toughness.
Fig- ii- Nylon, it is strong, has high tensile strength. 1½
32 (a) Nylon fibres are strong, elastic and light. It is lustrous 1 3
and easy to wash. So, it became very popular for
making clothes.
(b) Frying pan handles are made with thermosetting 1
plastics which are resistant to fire and can tolerate heat
better than other plastics. For example, Bakelite is a
thermosetting plastic which is a poor conductor of heat
and electricity.
(c) Plastic is much lighter and more durable than glass. This
makes it cheaper and easy to transport. Additionally, plastic 1
is more flexible than glass, making it easier to be moulded
which enables brands to build identity.
33 (a) Teflon 1 3
(b) Oil and water do not stick 1
(c) Plastic which is a synthetic polymer. 1
34 (a) Natural fibres are more comfortable than synthetic 3
fibres.
Because:
(i) clothes made by natural fibres are more 1
comfortable than those made of synthetic fibres.
(ii) Producing materials from natural fibres are less 1
harmful to our environment.

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 (b) Natural fibres like cotton and wool being
modified by blending with polyester so that it 1
increases durability and strength.
35 (a) 1st one thermoplastic and 2nd one is thermosetting 1 5
plastic.
(b)
Thermoplastic Thermosetting
They are long chain linear They have three-
polymer with negligible dimensional network 2
cross links structure with number of
cross linked
They are usually soft, They are usually hard,
weak, and less brittle strong and more brittle

(c)
Thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics are made up of
long chain molecules called polymers. In thermoplastics,
the long polymer chains are not cross-linked with one 2
another. Due to this, on heating, the individual polymer
chains can slide over one another and thermoplastic
material becomes soft and ultimately melts.
On the other hand, in thermosetting plastics, the long
polymer chains are cross linked with one another. These
cross-links prevent the displacement (or sliding) of
individual polymer chains on being heated. Due to this,
thermosetting plastics do not become soft on heating (or
change their shape on heating) once they have been

36 (a) Some of the strategies for plastic waste management 3 5

are:
● We should use paper bags and jute bags instead of
using plastic bags.
● We should use special garbage bins to dispose of
plastic wastes.
● Practicing 5R’s principle, i.e., Reuse, Recycle,
Reduce, Recover and Refuse should be encouraged.
(b) The main difference between linear polymers and
cross-linked polymers is that linear polymers are
straight-chain structures i.e. the monomer units are 2
linked in a linear way while in a cross-linked polymer
the units are cross linked.

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 Linear polymers can be moulded easily but cross-linked
polymers cannot.

CH-14 Reproductions in Animals

Q. No QUESTIONS MARKS
1. Q. No. 1 – Q. No 5 are Multiple choice questions. 1
The image shows two different gametes

Based on the image, which statement explains how the two cells are
functionally different?
(a) A is an ovum which can swim, while B is a sperm which is found
inside the reproductive organs of a female.
(b) A is a sperm which can swim, while B is an ovum which is found
inside the reproductive organs of a female.
(c) A is a sperm which differentiates into female gametes, while B is an
ovum which differentiates into male gametes.

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 (d) A is an ovum which differentiates into female gametes, while B is a sperm
which differentiates into male gametes.
2. Identify the correct statement about external and internal fertilization from 1
the following options

3. The image shows reproduction in Hydra. 1

What can be inferred about the type of reproduction in Hydra?

(a) It reproduces through fission, which is a sexual mode of reproduction.
(b) It reproduces through budding, which is a sexual mode of
reproduction.
(c) It reproduces through fission, which is an asexual mode of
reproduction.
(d) It reproduces through budding, which is an asexual mode of
Reproduction

4. Ravi and Rahul are two brothers and look similar to each other. This 1
condition resulted from:
(a) Two ova (eggs) fertilise at the same time in mother.
(b) A singe Ovum(egg) splits into two zygotes after it has been fertilised.
(c) A single Ovum (egg) splits and directly develop into two zygotes
without fertilisation.
(d) Two ova (eggs) are fertilised at the same time outside female reproductive
system in a test tube.
5. In humans, testes are located outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch 1
called scortum. The role of the scortum is:
(a) To create lengthy ducts for the transfer of the sperm.
(b) To maintains two-degree lower body temperature for the testis for
sperm production.
(c) To provide less pressure around testis for the sperm production.
(d) To act a storage house for sperm
Q. No 6 to Q. No 12 are Assertion and Reason questions,
Two statements are given – one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from

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 the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A).
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
6. Assertion (A): All young ones grow to form adults whether they have 1
hatched from an egg or are borne directly.
Reason (R): The developmental stage of young one different from
their adult is called metamorphosis.
7. Assertion (A): Reproduction is essential for continuation of species. 1
Reason (R): Organisms cannot survive without reproduction.
8. Assertion (A): Earthworm is an example of hermaphrodite animal. 1
Reason (R): The hermaphrodite animal produce both type of gametes
which always fuses inside their body to produce zygote.
9. Assertion (A): The first menstruation cycle begins at puberty and is 1
called menarche.
Reason (R): In human females, menstruation is repeated at an average
interval of about 28 or 29 days.
10. Assertion (A): Only one sperm can fertilise the ovum. 1
Reason (R): During fertilization sperm comes in contact with ovum
and induces change in cell membrane which block the
entry of other sperms.
11. Assertion (A): Reproduction is the process by which an organism 1
multiplies it’s own number.
Reason (R): It is because of maintaining the continuity of their own
species.
12. Assertion (A): For asexual reproduction, only female parent is 1
required.
Reason (R): In asexual reproduction offspring are identical to their
parents.
Q. No 13- Q. No 14 are Case Based Questions
All plants and animals have their life cycle. Imagine what all things children do
13. while they grow up . They get taller and gain weight with age. Children also 4
change as their body matures. Even though numerous changes occur as we grow
but we do not change completely from an infant to an adult.
(a) Identify the mineral which help in the metamorphosis of frog:
(i) Calcium
(ii) Iodine
(iii) Magnesium
(iv) Iron
(b) In some organism the young one does not resemble the adults it is
because of:
(i) Direct development
(ii) Indirect development
(iii) Retrogressive development
(iv) Progressive development
(c) Aquatic animals in which fertilization occurs in water are said to be:

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 (i) viviparous without fertilization.
(ii) oviparous with external fertilization.
(iii)oviparous with internal fertilization.
(iv) viviparous with internal fertilization.
(d) Select the incorrect statement regarding metamorphosis?
(i) It is the process of transformation of larva into an adult through
drastic changes.
(ii) In human beings, metamorphosis does not occur because the young
ones resemble the adults at the time of birth.
(iii) Life cycle of butterflies is completed in the four stages involving
egg, larva, pupa, adult.
(iv) A tadpole that hatches out of the egg resembles the adult frog in
almost all respects.
14. Rena is a mother of three girls. In her family her husband in law wants a 4
baby boy as the successor of their family. They always accuse Rena that
she is not capable of giving birth to a male child, because of family
pressure her husband took her to a fertility clinic to examine whether she
can give birth to a male child. Doctor patiently listens to the entire
situation and removed the misconception regarding the birth of a male
baby boy.
(a) In humans the baby boy is formed by the fusion of gametes:
i) X chromosome carrying sperm and Y chromosomes carrying ovum
ii) Y chromosome carrying sperm and X chromosomes carrying ovum
iii) X chromosome carrying sperm and X chromosomes carrying ovum
iv) Y chromosome carrying sperm and Y chromosomes carrying ovum
(b) During fertilization the number(s) of sperm fuse with ova:
i) One
ii) Two
iii) One thousand
iv) millions
(c) In humans the site of fertilisation and development is:
i) Internal fertilization and Internal development.
ii) Internal fertilization and External development.
iii) External fertilization and External development
iv) External fertilization and Internal development
(d) During fertilization identify the organelle of cell which fuse with
each other:
i) Mitochondria
ii) Nucleus
iii) Golgi body
iv) lysosome
Q. No 15 – Q. No 17 are very short answer type questions
Observe the given picture.
15. 2

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 (a) In the above diagram large number of gametes are shed off by both
parents during the process of reproduction. Explain the reason behind
this process.
(b) In case of hen, sometimes we find another hen to incubate her eggs, but in
fishes no incubation happens. Explain how their egg hatch?
16. In the given diagram 2

Identify the organelle which is responsible for the penetration through the cell
membrane of ovum and also mention the content inside this structure which help
in the process of fertilization.
17. (a) Complete the flowchart for the pathway of sperm in male reproductive 2
system.

(b) A fluid is secreted into the sperm duct around the sperm. Does this fluid
provide an advantage in the function of sperm? Mention one such advantage
of this fluid for sperm.
18. Q. No 18 – Q. No. 21 are short answer questions 3
In the given figure A and B sperm fertilise the ovum

Do you think in both the above figure A and B after fertilization viable zygote
will grow into foetus? Give reason in support of your answer.
19. In human being and hen, the zygote divides and moves down the oviduct but the 3
development of zygote into foetus in human beings and hen become different.
Explain the possible reason behind their developmental variation.
20. The image shows the life cycle of a frog 3

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 (a) List down the morphological, anatomical and habitat change from
tadpole to frog during the life cycle of frog.
(b) Most of the aquatic Organisms are oviparous whereas the terrestrial
organisms are oviparous and viviparous. Justify the shift from oviparous to
viviparous mode of reproduction in the nature
Observe the given figure and answer the following questions 3
21.

(a) Identify the common name of this process. Mention the importance
of this process.
(b) Write the name of the first child born in this technique.
(c) Sneha and Sirish are married couple, Sneha is unable to conceive
for long time, they have visited a doctor. As a doctor suggest and
explain a artificial technique so that Sneha can have her own baby.
22. Q. No 22 – Q. No 23 are Long Answer Type Questions 5
From the given picture

(a) Write the number and the name of the parts:

i) Site of fertilization.
ii) where ova are formed
iii) Inner layer breaks down in the absence of fertilization.
(b) After the implantation of embryo in uterus how the pregnancy is maintained
in the female reproductive system?
23. (a) In many organisms there was a shift from primitive method of asexual 5
reproduction to sexual reproduction. Justify this statement with proper

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 reason.
(b) In many social insect newborns are formed by the process of
parthenogenesis. Illustrate the process by which male and female insect
are formed.
(c) Amoeba cell reproduce into two daughter cells within 20 minutes still
the aquatic body do not completely get filled with Amoeba?

Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
CH-14 Reproductions in Animals
Q. No. Value points/ key points Marks Total
allotted to Marks
each
value/key

Page 152 of 197

 point
1. (b) A is a sperm which can swim, while B is an ovum which is 1 1
found inside the reproductive organs of a female.
2. 1 1
3. (d) It reproduces through budding, which is an asexual 1 1
mode of asexual reproduction
4. (b) A singe ovum (egg) splits into two zygotes after it has been 1
fertilise.
5. (b) To maintains two degree lower body temperature for the 1 1
testis for sperm production.
6. (c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false 1 1
7. (c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false. 1 1
8. (a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation 1 1
of Assertion.
9. (a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct 1 1
explanation of the Assertion.
10. (c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false 1 1
11. (a) 1 1
12. (d) 1 1
CASE BASED QUESTION
13. (a) (ii) Iodine 1 4
(b) (i) Direct development 1
(c) (ii) oviparous with external fertilization 1
(d) (iv) A tadpole that hatches out of the egg resembles 1
the adult frog in almost all respects.
14. (a) i) Y chromosome carrying sperm and X 1 4
chromosomes carrying ovum.
(b) i) One 1
(c) i) Internal fertilization and Internal development. 1
(d) ii) Nucleus 1
SA-I
15. (a) The gametes get destroyed by environmental factors or 1 2
consumed by predators.
(b) The temperature of aquatic body will help to hatch the egg. 1
16. Organelle is acrosome (modified lysosome). 1+1 2
It contains enzyme hyaluronidase
17. (a) i) Vas deferens ii) Urethra ½+ ½ 2
(b) Yes, It provides nourishment to sperm and helps in the 1
motility of sperm
SA-II
18. Figure A the zygote will turn in foetus, In Figure B the zygote ½+ ½ 3
contains more chromosome than the parental cell. Thus, this 2
type of cell does not survive when they undergo division to
form multicellular structure.
19. In case of humans as the zygote pass from fallopian tube it 3 3
undergoes cell division to form embryo gets implanted into
uterus.
20. (a) Morphological change: Appearance of limbs, and 1 3
disappearance of tail.

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 Anatomical Change: Appearance of lungs and 1
disappearance of lungs.
(b) Reason of the shift from oviparous to viviparous mode
of reproduction is that better parental care can be given 1
to offsprings and the chance of the survival of
offspring also increases.
21. (a) In –Vitro fertilization. It helps to form zygote in in 1 3
vitro
condition. 1
(b) Luis-brown,1978
(c) IVF technique. The ovum will be taken from Sneha and 1
sperm from Sirish. The sperm and ova will fuse in artificial
condition in a test tube and the zygote or embryo will be
transferred into another woman uterus.
LA
22. (a) label 1: fallopian tube/ ampulla 1 5
(b) label 2: ovary 1
(c) label 4: uterus 1
(d) Pregnancy is maintained by the hormones released from 2
ovary and Placenta.
23. (a) To develop variation in living organism so that the 2 5
offspring can adapt to the changing environmental
conditions. 1+1
(b) Males are developed from an unfertilized egg and
Females are developed from an fertilized egg. 1
(c) Because of the competition for food and space.

CH-15 Reaching the Age of Adolescence

Q. No QUESTIONS MARKS
1. Q. No 1 – Q. No 5 are Multiple choice questions 1
Select the correct sequence about the menstrual cycle based on the
information given below:
W-The ovum dies within 24 hours after ovulation.
X-The uterus wall thickens with blood vessels.
Y-The uterus wall breaks down.
Z-The ovary discharges an ovum.

(a) Z, X, Y, W
(b) Y, W, Z, X
(c) X, Z, W, Y
(d) W, Y, X. Z

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2. Identify from the following options the effect of sebaceous glands in the 1
human body during puberty:
(a) The person has acne over their skin due to increase activity of
sebaceous gland.
(b) The person has acne over their skin due to decrease activity of
sebaceous gland.
(c) The person has acne and other skin infection due to increase
activity of sebaceous gland.
(d) The person has rashes and other skin infection due to
decrease activity of sebaceous gland.
3. The image shows the distribution of type of sex chromosome in males and 1
females.

Based on the image, choose the correct option which is responsible for birth
of male child:
(a) When an egg with X chromosome will fuse with a sperm with X
chromosome.
(b) When an egg with Y chromosome will fuse with a sperm with a
sperm with Y chromosome.
(c) When an egg with Y chromosome fuse with sperm with X
chromosome.
(d) When an egg with X chromosome will fuse with a sperm with Y
chromosome.
4. Choose the likely consequence of taking drugs during adolescence: 1
(a) They can harm our body.
(b) They can protect our body from infections.
(c) They can enhance body’s immunity.
(d) They can make our body resistant to harmful organisms.

5. Identify the option that correctly differentiate the function of oestrogen 1

from insulin:
(a) Oestrogen plays a role in development of mammary glands while
insulin helps control the blood sugar level.
(b) Oestrogen plays a role in promoting blood growth of facial hair
while insulin helps control the blood sugar level.
(c) Oestrogen helps to control blood sugar level while insulin plays a
role in promoting growth of facial hair.
(d) Oestrogen helps control blood sugar level while insulin plays a role in
development of mammary gland.
Q. No 6 – Q.No.10 are Assertion and Reason Based Questions
Two statements are given – one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions
from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of the

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 Assertion.
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion(A).
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
6. Assertion(A): Endocrine glands called ductless glands.
Reason(R): They don’t release hormones directly into the blood 1
streams.
7. Assertion(A): Reproductive life of a woman lasts from menarche to 1
menopause.
Reason(R): Testosterone is the hormone which maintains the
reproductive life of women.
8. Assertion(A): The presence of chromosomes inside the fertilized 1
egg determines the sex of the baby.
Reason(R): Chromosomes contain genetic information, including
the sex-determining genes.
9. Assertion(A): Insulin is a hormone secreted by adrenal gland. 1
Reason(R): Adrenal gland regulates the mineral levels in blood.
10. Assertion(A): The endocrine system regulates metabolism, growth, 1
development and puberty of the body.
Reason(R): During adolescence, the pituitary gland releases
increased amounts of growth hormone which regulates
the rapid growth and development of the body.
11. Q. No 11 – Q. No 12 are Case Based Questions 4
When Sudha reached a certain age, her vaginal bleeding started
occurring after a regular interval of time. Her mother told her to take
special care of her personal hygiene during this period.
(a) Name the process occurring after regular intervals.
(b) In females what does the onset of this process in signify?
(c) Mention the name the of hormones which is responsible for this
Process in the reproductive system of Sudha.
(d) Her mother told her to take special care of her personal hygiene
during this period. Give proper reason.
12. Heights of students of four different sections of Class VIII are 4
measured. The table shows the percentage of maximum height up to
which the students in each section has grown:

(a) In which section have both the boys and the girls reached the end of
puberty?
(b) What can you conclude about the spurt in physical growth during
puberty from the table?
(c) In the case of some boys, protrusion was noticed in the front of

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 their neck. Justify the reason behind this.
(d) The used syringes must be disposed of carefully after use.
Explain the reason behind this.
Q. No 13-Q. No 17 are Very Short Answer Questions
During puberty many changes occur in female and male body. An 18-
13. year-old boy gets irritated and angry very often. The doctor told him 2
that hormonal imbalance is the reason.
(a) Mention the name of hormone whose imbalance is likely to cause
this irritation.
(b) Do you think this hormone can be produce from any part of the body?
Identify its proper location and also mention its function.
14. Study the graph and answer the following questions: 2

(a)From the given graph identify the time period when does
adolescence occur? Is the time period similar in males and females?
(b)Mention the two different stages from the above graph that show rapid
growth rate.
15. Oestrogen produced by human body during puberty helps in the development 2
of breast and mammary glands in females at puberty. How is the production
of estrogen controlled in the body?
16. Diabetes is a condition where blood glucose level of a person rises 2
above normal level. The table below shows the average level of blood
sugar level at fasting.

Doctors prescribe insulin injection for patients with high blood sugar
levels.
(a) Glucagon is injected in an emergency if the blood sugar level of a
person drops too low. Give reason.
(b) Mention the blood sugar level in which glucagon is likely to be injected
in the blood.
17. Look at the image given below and answer the following: 2

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 (a) Select the correct label from the image and also name the gland
which regulates metabolism in the human body.
(b) Name the hormone released by this gland and the disease caused
due to its deficiency.
18. Q. No 18- Q. No 20 are Short Answer Based Question 3
(a) Name the types of chromosomes present in the human body cell.
(b) Write the significance of gametes having half the number of
chromosomes?
(c) Fill up the blank circles to identify the sex of child A and B.

19. 3

(a) Identify the correct label in above image and also name the
part where fertilisation take place.
(b) Describe the fate of the ovum and uterus if the fertilisation does
not take place.
20. (a) During puberty, the hormones are secreted from endocrine or 3
exocrine glands. Write any four secondary sexual characteristics
likely to develop when testosterone is released in males?
(b) Oestrogen produced by human body during puberty helps in the
development of breast and mammary glands in females at puberty. How
is the production of estrogen controlled in the body?

Q. No 19 – Q.No.20 are Long Answer Questions

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21. (a) Name the hormones which would be released in the following 5
situations:
i) Development of frog from tadpole.
ii) Development of a butterfly from a caterpillar.
iii) Growth of a child to an adult.
iv) A frightened person.
(b) In a normal healthy person after taking food rich in sugar his/her
blood glucose level increases, in order to maintains it blood glucose
in normal level how will pancreas play an important role.
(c) We should avoid taking drugs/ medicines unless prescribed by a doctor.
Give reasons.
22. (a) ‘The growth and development of an adolescent who exercise or 5
plays games is always better than one who does not exercise or
play games.’ Do you consider the statement to be true? Justify your
answer.
(b) Analyze the role of iron in the diet of adolescent girls and its
importance for preventing anemia.
(c) Menarche and Menopause are two important stages in female life.
Explain how these two stages control the fertility in female?

Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
CH-15 Reaching the age of Adolescence
Q. No. Value points/ key points Marks Total

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 allotted to Marks
each
value/key
point
1. (c) X, Z, W, Y 1 1
2. (a) The person has acne over their skin due to increase 1 1
activity of sebaceous gland
3. (d) When an egg with X chromosome will fuse with a sperm 1 1
with Y chromosome.
4. (a) They can harm our body. 1 1
5. (a) Oestrogen plays a role in development of mammary glands 1 1
while insulin helps control the blood sugar level.
6. (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1
7. (c) A is true but R is false 1 1
8. (a) A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A 1 1
9. (c) A is false and R is true 1 1
10. (b) A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation 1 1
of A.
CASE BASED QUESTION
11. (a) Menstruation / menstruation cycle 1 4
(b) It signifies that the reproductive system of the female 1
has started working.
(c) Oestrogen and progesterone ½ + ½
(d) If personal hygiene is not maintained during this period,
then there are chances of bacterial infections. 1
12. (a) Section B 1 4
(b) Increase in height of girls is faster/quicker than boys 1
during puberty.
(c) This is Adam’s apple developed because larynx has 1
grown larger during puberty.
(d) They can injure people and spread infections. 1
SA-I
13. (a) Adrenaline 1 2
(b) No, produced from adrenal glands, It controls our 1
emotions.
14. (a) Between the age of 11 to 18 years, in males it is from 1 2
13-15years and females 11-13years.
(b) 0-3 and 11-18 years of age 1
15. Oestrogen hormones are produced from ovaries. The oestrogen 1+1 2
hormones production is controlled by pituitary gland.
16. (a) Glucagon increases the low blood glucose level in the 1 2
body.
(b) below 70 mg/dL 1
17. (a) D-Thyroid gland 1 2
(b) Thyroxine hormone and goiter. 1
SA-II
18. (a) Autosomes and sex chromosomes. 1 3
(b) Gametes having half the number of chromosomes 1
ensures that the zygote formed during fertilization has the

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 correct chromosome number (23+23=46).
(c)

19. (a) A- oviduct/fallopian tube 1 3

(b) If fertilisation does not occur, the egg disintegrates and the
lining of blood vessels is shed off. This process is known as 2
menstruation.
20. (a) ½+½+½ 3
• Development of facial, pubic and body hair. +½
• Deepening of voice.
• Increased muscle and bone mass.
• Larger larynx.
(or any other relevant point)
(b) The pituitary gland secretes hormones which influence the
production of oestrogen in girls. 1
21. (a) i) Thyroxine ½ 5
ii) Insect hormones ½
iii) Growth hormone ½
iv) Adrenaline ½
(b) The pancreas secretes a hormone called insulin which
can lower the glucose level in blood. If the pancreas does 2
not function properly and does not release enough insulin,
a person will suffer from diabetes.
(c) Taking drugs without the advice of a doctor can affect
their health and adolescents can lose self-confidence and
control over themselves. 1
22. (a) Yes, the statement is true. ½ +½+ 5
● Exercise or games stimulate the growth process ½+½
● helps in better digestion of food
● efficient elimination of toxins from the body
● improves blood circulation
● increases the respiratory efficiency of lungs.
(any four points)
(b) During adolescence, girls experience rapid growth and
menstruation, leading to increased iron requirements. 1
To prevent iron deficiency and anaemia, adolescent
girls should consume iron-rich food.
(c) Menarche- The first menstrual flow that begins in a
girl at puberty.
Menopause- The stopping of menstrual cycle when a 1+1
woman reaches 45-50 years of age.

Page 161 of 197

 CH-16 Electric Current and Its Chemical Effects
Q. No QUESTIONS MARKS
1. Q. No 1- Q. No 8 are Multiple Choice Questions 1
When electrodes are immersed in water and electric current
is passed through it, on which terminal of the battery
oxygen bubbles are formed?
(a) Positive terminal
(b) Negative terminal
(c) Neither of the terminals
(d) Both positive and negative terminals
2. If plus sign (+) indicates the positive electrode and minus sign (-) 1
indicates the negative electrode, then which of the following statement
is correct for an iron spoon to be copper-plated?
(a) Iron spoon (+), copper plate (-), iron sulphate electrolyte
(b) Iron spoon (-), copper plate (+), iron sulphate electrolyte
(c) Copper plate (-), iron spoon (+), copper sulphate electrolyte
(d) Copper plate (+), iron spoon (-), copper sulphate electrolyte
3. An arrangement having two carbon rods kept in a conducting liquid in 1
a vessel is known as:
(a) Rechargeable cell
(b) Storage cell
(c) Biological cell
(d) Electrolytic cell
4. Rohit makes a circuit as shown in the figure given below. 1

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 He notices that the bulb does not glow. What changes Rohit can do in
the circuit to make the bulb glow?
(a) Add few drops of alcohol in the beaker.
(b) Add a pinch of common salt in the beaker
(c) Cool the water present in the beaker. Add a spoon of sugar in
the beaker
5. Refer to the figure given below. 1

A tester is used to check the conduction of electricity through two

liquids, labeled A and labeled B. He found that bulb of the tester
glows brightly for liquid B. It glows dimly for liquid A. What can we
conclude from the given information?
(a) Both liquids conduct equally.
(b) Liquid A is better conductor than liquid B.
(c) Liquid B is better conductor than liquid A.
(d) Conducting properties of liquid cannot be compared from the
given information.
6. During a class activity, Ria passed electric current through a 1
conducting solution. She found there is a change in the colour of the
solution. Which effect of current does this refer to?
(a) The heating effect of current.
(b) The chemical effect of current.
(c) The magnetic effect of current.
both heating and magnetic effect of current
7. Rohan wants to obtain a coating of silver metal on a flower pot made 1
of copper. Choose the electrolyte which will be appropriate for this
purpose.
(a) Sodium nitrate solution
(b) Copper nitrate solution
(c) Silver nitrate solution

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 Copper sulphate solution
8. Tanisha used four different objects to fill the gap in the electric circuit 1
separately. The table shows the observations recorded by her.

Object in gap The bulb

Wooden block Does not glow
Plastic Does not glow
Copper wire Glows brightly
Bakellite Does not glow
Identify the object (from the above table), which can conduct
electricity very well.
(a) Wooden block
(b) Plastic
(c) Copper wire Bakellite
Q.No 9: Q.No 18 are Assertion and Reason based Questions
Two statements are given – one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion(A).
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
Assertion(A): Iron is used in bridges and automobiles to provide
strength.
9.
Reason(R): A coating of zinc is deposited on iron to protect it from 1
corrosion and formation of rust.
10. Assertion(A): The bulb glows when the electric current passes 1
through it.
Reason(R): Due to the heating effect of current, the
filament of the bulb gets heated to a high
temperature and it starts glowing.
11. Assertion(A): Metal ions must be present in a solution used for 1
electroplating a particular metal.
Reason(R): Electroplating occurs only on anode.
12. Assertion: Passing of electric current through pure mercury will 1
cause only heating effect.
Reason: When current passes through pure conductor, there is no

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 change in the chemical composition of the conductor.
13. Assertion(A): The faster is the relative motion between the magnet 1
and the coil, the more is the current flows through
the coil.
Reason(R): Generators and transformers are made on the principle
of electromagnetic induction.
14. Assertion (A): The bubbles of a gas may be formed on the electrodes. 1
Reason (R): When an electric current is passed through a
conducting solution, it causes chemical reaction.
15. Assertion(A): Tin cans (which is used for storing food) are 1
made by electroplating tin onto iron.
Reason (R): Tin is more reactive than iron. Thus, food comes
into contact with iron and is protected from getting spoil.
16. Assertion (A): Copper is used in bridges and automobiles to 1
provide strength.
Reason (R): A coating of zinc is deposited on iron. This will
protect it from corrosion and formation of rust.
17. Assertion(A): Rainwater is a good conductor of electricity. 1
Reason(R): Presence of Sulphur dioxide and carbon dioxide in rain
water makes rain water good conductor of electricity.
18. Assertion (A): We often find chromium plating on bath taps, 1
bicycles handles and towel rails.
Reason (R): Chromium has a shiny appearance. It does not
Corrode easily and resists scratches.
Q. No 19 – Q. No 21 are Cased Based Questions
19. Read the passage and answer any four of the following questions: 4
Electroplating, also known as electrochemical deposition is a process
of depositing one metal over another in the presence of a metal salt
(in aqueous solution). The water molecule is released as the final
product in this process. As a consequence, electroplating is based on
the theory of hydrolysis.
(a) Identify any one effect produced by the chemical reactions
brought about by an electric current through a conducting
solution.
(b) Suggest a reason to electroplate kitchen gas burners with
chromium
(c) Name two common materials that can be used for electroplating.
(d) The objects that have chromium plating are not made of
chromium entirely’. Give reason.
20. Meenal took a continuity tester and dipped both its ends, one by one in 4
an aqueous solution of electrolyte A and B (as shown in figure given
below). She observed that the glow of LED was brighter when tester
was dipped in electrolyte B than when dipped in electrolyte A.

Page 165 of 197

 (a) Based on above information, mention what kind of electrolytes are
A and B.
(b) Mention any one point of difference between weak electrolyte and
strong electrolyte.
(c) Give one example each for weak electrolyte and strong electrolyte.
(d) Write your observation when bulb is used in place of tester.
21. An engineer designs a 4
DC generator that uses a
rotating coil in a
magnetic field to
produce electricity. The
generator converts
mechanical energy into
electrical energy. When
the coil is rotated by an
external force, current
generates in the coil
which is proportional to
the speed of rotation of
the coil. We can use the
river flow or air flow as an external force to generate electricity which
will be a source of renewable energy.
(a) Write the principle that explains the working of the generator.
(b) Write the method by which the voltage output of the generator can
be increased?
(c) What is the change in the direction of the induced current if the
direction of rotation of the coil is reversed?
(d) What is the correct reason for a constant rate of rotation in the generator
for a stable output?
22. Q. No 22 – Q. No. 25 are Very Short answer Type Questions 2
Give reasons:
(a) An LED is a more efficient device than a bulb.
(b) Impurities present in water increases the conductivity of water.
23. While performing an activity in class, Sonal added a small amount of sugar 2
to distilled water. Will the resulting solution be a good conductor or poor
conductor of electricity? Justify your answer.
24. When electricity is passed through a caustic soda solution, what kind of 2
changes you will observe in the bulb connected to the circuit?
25. A student uses the following electrolytes to check its conductivity. 2

Which of the above electrolytes will make the bulb of a continuity tester

Page 166 of 197

 glow brightly? Give reason for your answer.
26. Q. No 26 – Q. No 31 are Short Answer Type Questions 3
(a) A beaker contains an acidified copper sulphate solution. A copper
plate and a carbon rod are kept in copper sulphate solution. The
copper plate is connected to the positive terminal of the battery
whereas the carbon rod is connected to the negative terminal of the
battery. What will you observe when an electric current is passed
through this set-up for a considerable time?
(b) Which effect of electric current is utilised for detecting
the flow of current through a solution-
(i) When a torch bulb is used?
(ii) When a compass is used?
27. (a) State the principle on which generator is operated. 3
(b) Name the energy conversion involved.
(c) How does this differ from electrolysis?
28. When electric current is passed through a cut potato for a considerable 3
time, a coloured spot is formed around one of the electrodes.

(a) Identify the colour of the spot?

(b) Around which electrode (cathode/anode) the coloured spot is
formed?
(c) Mention the effect of electric current is involved here.

29. Observe the circuit given below. 3

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 A student sets up the circuit for electro refining of copper (as shown
above). What will be the nature of-
(a) Plate A
(b) Plate B
(c) The solution
30. While performing an activity, Mohit makes an arrangement (as shown 3
below) to pass electric current into a conducting solution. List any
three possible observations that Mohit can record.

31. The chemical effects of current (electrolysis) have some important 3

scientific and industrial applications. Enlist any three applications.
Give an example in each case.
Q. No 32- Q. No 35 are Long Answer Type Questions
32. Observe the given picture: 5

(a) In the circuit given in the figure, Geeta observed that copper is
deposited on the electrode connected to the negative terminal of the
battery. Sita tried to repeat the same experiment. But she could find
only one copper plate. Therefore, she took a carbon rod as the
negative electrode. Will copper still be deposited on the carbon
rod? Explain your answer.
(b) Explain the reason behind the electroplating of tin on iron to
make cans used for storing food?

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33. Sonali wants to coat silver on an iron spoon. She took some amount of 5
silver nitrate (AgNO3) solution in a beaker and set up a simple circuit
for electroplating.
(a) Draw a labelled diagram in support of the above information.
(b) Explain to which terminal of the battery the spoon should be
connected.
(c) What material should be used for the other electrode?
34. The figure given below shows the experiment on Electromagnetic 5
induction, where a coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a
torch bulb. The bar marked N-S represents a magnet.

(a)What should be done to –

i) maintain the steady flow of current
ii) stop the flow of current
iii) Increase the strength of electric current.
(b) Name any two devices where the phenomenon of electromagnetic
induction is used.
(c) Define the term ‘electromagnetic induction’.
35. (a) Do the number of turns in the coil affect the induced 5
current in Faraday's experiment? Give reason
(b) Write change in current you will observe if the speed of the
magnet changes in the coil?
(c) If the magnet is replaced with a strong magnet what change you
will observe?

Page 169 of 197

 Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
CH-16 Electric Current and Its Chemical Effects
Marks Total
allotted to Marks
Q. No. Value points/ key points each
value/key
point
1. (a) Positive terminal 1 1
2. (d) Copper plate (+), iron spoon (-), copper sulphate electrolyte 1 1
3. (d) Electrolytic cell 1 1
4. (b) Add a pinch of common salt in the beaker 1 1
5. (c) Liquid B is better conductor than liquid A 1 1
6. (b) The chemical effect of current. 1 1
7. (c) Silver nitrate solution 1 1
8. (c) Copper wire 1 1
9. (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1
10. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1
11. (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1
12. (a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation 1 1
of A.
13. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation 1 1
of A
14. (a) Assertion and reason both are correct statement and reason 1 1
is correct explanation for assertion.
15. (c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong 1 1
statement.
16. (d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement 1 1
17. (a) Assertion and reason both are correct statement and reason 1 1
is correct explanation for assertion
18. (a) Assertion and reason both are correct statement and reason 1 1
is correct explanation for assertion.
CASE BASED QUESTION
19. (a) Bubbles of a gas may be formed on the 1 4
electrodes/deposits of metal may be seen on
electrodes/changes in colour of the solutions may
occur (any one)
(b) Silver and gold are very expensive compared to
chromium. 1
(c) Nickel/chromium/copper/silver/gold
(d) Chromium is expensive and it may not be economical to 1
make the whole object out of it. So, the object is made from
a cheaper metal. Only a coating of chromium is done over 1
it.
20. a) Electrolyte B is strong electrolyte, electrolyte A is ½+½ 4

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 weak electrolyte.
b) Strong electrolytes ionise completely to form free
mobile ions in the solution. ½+½
Weak electrolytes ionise partially to form free mobile
ions in the solution.
c) Copper sulphate solution is a strong electrolyte and tap ½+½
water is weak electrolyte.
(d) bulb will glow in B but not in A. 1
21. (a) Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction 1 4
(b) By increasing the number of turns in the coil. 1
(c) The direction of the induced current reverses. 1
(d) To maintain a constant change in magnetic field intensity. 1
SA-I
22. (a) LED can glow even when a weak or less 1 2
current flows through it.
(b) When impurities like salts dissolve in water, they form ions, 1
and these ions make it possible for an electric current to
pass through the solution
23. Sugar does not create ions when dissolved in water, making it a 1 2
poor conductor. A sugar solution comprises sucrose molecules
but no ions. A sugar solution is a poor conductor because it 1
lacks ions.
24. Caustic soda is a good conductor of electricity. So current will 2 2
pass through the bulb and it will glow.
25. Sodium chloride solution and sea water. Reason- they 1 2
ionize completely/ they are strong electrolytes. 1
SA-II
26. (a) A red-brown layer of copper metal will be deposited 1 3
on the copper rod connected to the negative terminal
of the battery.
(b) (i) Heating effect of current 1
(ii) Magnetic effect of current 1
27. (a) Electromagnetic induction 1 3
(b) Mechanical energy into electrical energy. 1
(c) The process by which electric current is passed through a
substance to effect a chemical change is electrolysis while 1
the production of electricity from magnetism is
electromagnetic induction.
28. (a) Greenish blue 1 3
(b) Around positive electrode (anode) 1
(c) Chemical effect 1
29. (a) Plate A is pure copper rod 1 3
(b) Plate B is impure copper rod 1
(c) Copper sulphate solution 1
30. Three possible observations when electric current is 3
passed through any conducting solution are.
(a) Bubbles of gas can be formed on the electrodes. 1
(b) deposits of metal may also be seen on electrodes. 1

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 (c) There can be a change in the colour of the solution 1
31. ● Extraction of metal from ores. For e.g. Metals like 6x ½ 3
aluminium, sodium is extracted by this method.
● Electrorefining of metals. For e.g. – electrorefining of
copper or silver
● Electroplating. For e.g. – ornaments are electroplated
with silver or gold.
LA
32. (a) Yes, copper from the copper sulphate solution will be 3 5
deposited on the carbon rod. When an electric current
is passed through the copper sulphate solution, copper
sulphate dissociates into copper and sulphate ions. The
free copper gets drawn to the electrode connected to
the negative terminal of the battery, i.e., carbon rod
and gets deposited on it.
(b) Electroplating of tin is done on the iron to make cans
used for storing food because tin is less reactive than 2
iron. Coating of tin prevents from coming in contact
with iron and thus, prevents it from getting spoiled.
33. (a) 3 5

(b) The spoon must be connected to the negative end of 2

the battery. It acts as cathode, so silver ions get
deposited over it. 1
(c) The other electrode should be made of silver.
34. (a) i) There should be relative motion between the magnet 1 5
and coil.
ii) The magnet and coil should be at rest with respect to 1
each other.
iii)The relative motion between the magnet and the coil 1
should be made faster.
(b) Generators and transformers. 1
(c) Production of electric current by changing magnetic
field is called electromagnetic induction. 1
35. (a) The number of turns in the coil affects the induced 2 5
current because a coil with more turns will experience
a greater change in magnetic flux for the same

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 movement of the magnet. This leads to a higher
induced EMF and thus a larger induced current.
(b) When the speed of the magnet in the coil increases the
rate of change of field lines or magnetic field intensity 2
changes rapidly in faster rate which will result more
induced current in the circuit.
(c) If the magnet is replaced then the change of magnetic 1
field will also increase. Hence the value of current will
also increase.

CH-17 Stars and Solar System

Q. No QUESTIONS MARKS
Q. No 1- Q. No 8 are Multiple Choice Questions 1
Distance between stars is measured in light years. Choose the correct
1. statement from the followings:
(a) It provides a convenient unit of measurement that accounts for the
vast distances in space, allowing astronomers to better comprehend
the scale of the cosmos.
(b) Light travels at a finite speed, and over vast distances, using years
as a unit of measurement helps convey the immense span of space
that light traverses between celestial bodies.
(c) It reflects the time it takes for light, the fastest known entity, to
traverse the immense expanses between celestial bodies, offering a
practical scale for astronomical measurements.
(d) It accommodates the vastness of interstellar space and provides a tangible
scale for understanding the enormous distances involved in astronomical
observations and calculations.

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2. The pole star is fixed along the northern hemisphere as: 1
(a) A result of its proximity to the celestial north pole, making it
appear stationary relative to Earth's rotation.
(b) It lies directly above Earth's North Pole, providing a consistent
reference point for navigation and observation.
(c) Due to its alignment with Earth's rotational axis, causing it to
remain relatively motionless in the night sky
(d) A consequence of its position relative to the Earth's axis of rotation,
making it appear anchored in the sky over the northern horizon.
3. Identify from the following about constellation: 1
(a) A large number of stars but only the bright ones are visible to our
naked eye.
(b) All the stars lined at the same distance in our field of view.
(c) Only 5-10 stars.
(d) Matches the imagination of poets and astronomers of ancient times.
4. The moon rotates around the earth because: 1
(a) of gravitational attraction between the two bodies, causing the
moon to orbit Earth in a continuous motion.
(b) Earth's gravitational pull exerts a force on the moon, compelling it
to follow a curved path around Earth.
(c) it is tethered to Earth by invisible celestial strings, causing it to
orbit in a circular motion.
(d) it is pushed by solar winds emanating from the sun, propelling it along its
orbital path.
5. Choose the correct statement about Geostationary satellites: 1
(a) Around their own axis at a fixed rate.
(b) Around the Earth's equator at the same speed as the Earth's rotation
(c) In orbits that constantly change their orientation.
(d) Counter to the direction of the Earth's rotation.
6. Identify from the following patterns that correctly shows the different phases 1
of the Moon, from its position of being closest to the Sun to being farthest
from the Sun.

7. A student studies that like planets, asteroids are also celestial bodies 1
and a part of our solar system. Which characteristics makes asteroids
part of the solar system?
(a) Its revolution around the Sun
(b) Its rotation on its own axis
(c) Its distance from the Sun
(d) Its huge size
8. The image represents a comet along with its orbit of revolution around 1
the Sun.

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 Select the characteristics that help to identify a comet in a sky:
(a) increase in the length of the tail as approaches the sun
(b) rotation of the celestial body on its own axis
(c) circular orbit of revolution around the sun
(d) spherical shape of the body
Q. No 9– Q. No 13 are Assertion Reason based questions
Two statements are given – one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A).
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion(A).
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
9. Assertion (A): Stars appear to twinkle due to atmospheric
turbulence. 1
Reason (R): When starlight passes through Earth's atmosphere, it
undergoes refraction and scattering, causing the
apparent twinkling phenomenon.
10. Assertion (A): The composition of a star determines its color 1
and temperature.
Reason (R): Stars emit different colors depending on the amount
of stardust present within them.
11. Assertion (A): The distances between the various celestial 1
bodies are expressed in the unit of a light year.
Reason (R): The distances between the celestial objects are so
large that ‘Kilometre’ becomes an extremely small
and inconvenient unit to express such large
distance.
12. Assertion (A): A meteor is called a shooting star. 1
Reason (R): It is the largest star in the night sky.
13. Assertion (A): Stars undergo nuclear fission in their cores. 1
Reason (R): Nuclear fusion is the process by which stars
generate energy, as hydrogen nuclei combine to
form helium nuclei, releasing a tremendous amount
of energy.
Q. No 14- Q. No 15 are Cased Based Questions
"The Sun is the star at the centre of the Solar System. It is a nearly
perfect sphere of hot plasma, with internal convective motion that

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14. generates a magnetic field via a dynamo process. It is by far the most 4
important source of energy for life on Earth. Its diameter is about 109
times that of Earth, and its mass is about 330,000 times that of Earth,
accounting for about 99.86% of the total mass of the Solar System.”
(a) Describe the structure of the Sun and explain its significance
life on earth.
(b) Name a photosphere which is the source of energy for us.
(c) Calculate the approximate ratio of the Sun's diameter to that of
Earth.
(d) Discuss with reason, “Sun is considered the most important source
of energy for the Solar System.
15. Venus is even hotter than mercury through it is relatively father away 4
from the sun. This is because of the high percentage of carbon dioxide
in its atmosphere. This gas traps most of the sun’s heat falling on it.
This is due to the greenhouse effect.
(a) Define the greenhouse effect.
(b)Name one greenhouse gas which produces the maximum
greenhouse effect.
(c) How do the greenhouse gases help the survival of life on earth?
(d) Which layer of the atmosphere protects us from UV rays?
Q. No 16- Q. No 18 are Very Short answer Type Questions
16. The distance travelled by light in one year is called one light year. Convert 2
this distance in kilometre.
17. With suitable reasons justify the below observed fact. 2

18. Name the brightest star in the sky, 2

(a) during day time.
(b) during night.
Q. No 19- Q. No 20 are Short Answer Type Questions
Observe the given picture:
19. 3

(a) Identify the planet rotating around sun known as morning/

evening star. Give reason
(b) A day on this planet is longer than its year. Explain with proper
Reason.
20. In context to planet ‘Earth’ explain the following phenomenon: 3
(a) Leap Year has an extra day in February.

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 (b) The summer and winter seasons in northern and southern hemispheres
occur at opposite times
21. 3

(a) Identify the object shown in the figure and pen down the
importance of it in modern communication technology.
(b) Name the types of orbits in which they rotate around the earth
22. Q. No 19- Q. No 20 are Long Answer Type question 5

(a) Explain the difference between the above two pictures.

(b) Why do comets leave a tail when they are travelling near the sun.
(c) Under which criteria an object in space is classified as an ‘Asteroid’?
23. (a)What the name given to the planets after the asteroid belt? 5
(b) Identify the planet in the given figure and the gases that make it up.

(c) ‘Saturn is unique among the planets in the solar system’, Justify
with suitable reasons.

Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
CH-17 Stars and Solar System
Marks Total
allotted to Marks
Q. No. Value points/ key points each
value/key
point
1. (b) Light travels at a finite speed, and over vast distances, 1 1
using years as a unit of measurement helps convey the
immense span of space that light traverses between

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 celestial bodies
2. (c) The pole star is fixed along the northern hemisphere due to 1 1
its alignment with Earth's rotational axis, causing it to
remain relatively motionless in the night sky.
3. (a) A large number of stars but only the bright ones are visible 1 1
to our naked eye
4. (c) The moon rotates around the earth because it is tethered to 1 1
Earth by invisible celestial strings, causing it to orbit in a
circular motion.
5. (b) Around the Earth's equator at the same speed as the Earth's 1 1
rotation.
6. (b) 1 1
7. (a) Its revolution around the Sun 1 1
8. (a) Increase in the length of the tail as approaches the sun 1 1
9. (c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false 1 1
10. (a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation 1 1
of the Assertion (A).
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation 1 1
11. of the Assertion (A).
12. (c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false 1 1
13. (c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false 1 1
14. (a) The solar system is dominated by the sun which 1 4
accounts for almost 99.9% of the mass of the solar
system. The sun is essentially a sphere of hot gases
with temperatures about 6000K. The disc is called
photosphere. The sun is the source of all energy on
earth. Without it the earth will be a cold and barren
planet. 1
(b) Sun. 1
(c) Diameter of sun: Diameter of Earth = 109:1
(d) All kinds of energy in the solar system is either a direct or 1
derived form of energy from the sun. It is directly or
indirectly responsible for everything in the solar system.
15. (a) Greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the 1 4
earth’s surface; it is caused by some of the
greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
(b) Carbon dioxide. (CO2)
(c) Greenhouse gas traps most of the sun’s heat that 1
reflects back up into the atmosphere. This keeps the
temperature of the earth in the range suitable for the
continuation of life. 1
(d) Ozone layer 1
16. 1 light year = 3X108 X 365 X 24 X 60 X 60 = 9.46X1012km 2 2
17. A star's color provides a direct measurement of its surface 2 2
temperature; the hottest stars shine blue-white, while the
coolest are dull orange or red. In turn, the temperature
indicates how much energy a given area of the star's surface
radiates into space every second. The hotter the star, the bluer
the light it emits. This is because hotter objects emit more

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 high-energy photons, which have shorter wavelengths and
higher frequencies. As the temperature of the star decreases,
the color of the light it emits shifts towards the red end of the
spectrum.
18. (a) Sun 1+1 2
(b) Sirius
19. (a) The planet shown in the picture is Venus. It has a 1 3
high concentration of Carbon dioxide in its
atmosphere which is a greenhouse gas, trapping the
heat received from the sun. This makes it glow
brightly which is visible during morning and evening.
That is why it is called morning/evening star.
(b) Venus rotates slower on its axis compared to its revolution
around the sun. A day on Venus is 243 earth day while a 2
year is 224.7 earth days. Thus, a year on Venus is shorter
than its day.
20. (a) The earth completes one rotation around the sun in 1 3
365¼ days. This additional ¼th of day adds up for 4
years and makes 1 day. To keep our calculations
accurate this extra day is added to February making it
a leap year.
(b) The axis of rotation of the earth is tilted with respect to it 2
orbit. When northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun
it is summer season there where as the other side facing
away from the sun has winter season.
21. (a) The object is an artificial satellite. They perform 2 3
various tasks like transmitting telephone and radio
signals, sending back information for weather
forecasting, military surveillance and for locating
mineral resources.
(b) They move around the earth in Polar Orbit and Equatorial 1
Orbit.
22. (a) 5

(b) Comets are relatively small icy celestial bodies

revolving around the sun. When a comet nears the 2
sun, some of the ice in it turns into gas. This gas and
loose dust freed from the comet creates a long tail that 1
streams behind the comet.
(c) The size of the object must be very small and should

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 be located in an orbit between Mars and Jupiter.
23. (a) Jovian planets 1 5
(b) Jupiter, the surface of Jupiter is not solid, rather it is
made up of gases like hydrogen and helium. Its cloud 2
cover is made up of methane in gaseous form and
ammonia in crystal form.
(c) Saturn is similar in size to Jupiter but it is 2
distinguished by its rings. They can be seen clearly
with the help of a telescope. Saturn has 62 natural
moons.

CH-18 Eathquakes
Q. No QUESTIONS MARKS
1. Q. No.1- Q. No 7 are Multiple Choice Questions 1
A point where slip initiated during earthquake is called ________

(a) Dip
(b) Epicenter
(c) Focus
(d) Scarp
2. Earthquake at two places M and N were measured in Richter Scale as 1
2 & 4. How is the magnitude and their destructive energy at M and N
are related?
(a) Tremors at M is 2 times stronger than at N
(b)Tremors at M is 100 times stronger than at N
(c) Tremors at N is 100 times stronger than at M
(d)Tremors at N is 2 times stronger than at M

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3. 1

A student tried to label the diagrammatic representation of how an

earthquake occurs but he did wrong. Identify the correct
representation of (i):
(a) Focus
(b) Epicenter
(c) Dip
(d) Seismic Wave
4. Identify from the following the incorrect precautionary measure for 1
earthquake safety:
(a) Creating an emergency kit
(b) Reinforcing buildings
(c) Staying indoors during an earthquake
(d) Practicing "Drop, Cover, and Hold On"
5. Choose the correct technique that is commonly used to predict 1
earthquakes:
(a) Satellite imagery
(b) Historical seismic activity records
(c) Animal behavior monitoring
(d) There is currently no reliable technique to predict earthquakes
6. Choose the correct option which indicate the plate movement that 1
will result in tsunami.

7. A student studies that some areas are more prone to earthquakes than 1
others. What might be the possible reason for a frequent earthquake?
(a) Situate along the coastal region
(b) Situated above a plate boundary
(c) Situated near a tropical region
(d) Situated near a desert region
Q. No 8 – Q. No 12 are Assertion Reason based questions

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 Two statements are given – one labeled as Assertion (A) and the
other labeled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and
(d) as given below.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A).
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion(A).
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
8. Assertion(A): Earthquake occurs due to the movement of tectonic
Plates.
Reason (R): When these plates move faster, due to frictional force 1
pressure is built and results in earthquake when
pressure is released.
9. Assertion (A): The Richter scale measures the magnitude of an 1
earthquake.
Reason (R): It quantifies the energy released by an earthquake at its
Source.
10. Assertion(A): An earthquake will not cause uniform damage to all 1
building in an affected area, even if they are built
with the same strength and materials.
Reason(R): The one with its natural frequency close to the
frequency of seismic wave is likely to be damaged
less.
11. Assertion(A): Aftershocks are smaller earthquakes that occur after 1
a major earthquake.
Reason(R): Aftershocks can continue for days, weeks, or even
months following the main earthquake.
12. Assertion (A): Tsunamis are always triggered by earthquakes. 1
Reason (R): Tsunamis result from the displacement of water, often
caused by the vertical movement of the seafloor during an
undersea earthquake.
Q. No 13- Q. No 14 are Cased Based Questions
An earthquake is a natural phenomenon whose occurrence cannot be
13. predicted. It can cause damage to human life and property on a huge 4
scale. An earthquake is a sudden shaking or trembling of the earth
lasting for a very short time. It is caused by a disturbance deep inside
the earth’s crust. Earthquakes occur all the time, all over the earth.
They are not even noticed. Major earthquakes are much less frequent.
They can cause immense damage to buildings, bridges, dams and
people. There can be a great loss to life and property. The
earthquakes can cause floods, landslides and tsunamis. In ancient
times, people did not know the true cause of earthquakes.
(a) What is the name of instrument use to find out the source of
seismic wave?
(b) The magnitude of an earthquake is measured on which scale.
(c) The tremors on the earth can be caused by which phenomena.

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 (d) Name the zone where the above phenomenon is felt more.
14. A massive earthquake measuring 6.9 on Richter scale hi Bhuj Town 4
on 26th January 2001. At least 971 students and 31 teachers are
feared to have lost their lives following the collapse of school
buildings. Three days after the quake, concern rose about food,
blankets. Phone lines, water pipelines and power stations
transmission lines were knocked out. Hundreds of fires started as
charcoal cookers overturned. The President declares as state
emergency. Gujarat appeals for financial help. The Chief Minister of
Gujarat has launched an appeal for the Centre to deal with the
disaster.
(a)Identify the primary cause of earthquakes?
(b) Mention the type of seismic waves typically cause the most
damage to buildings and infrastructure?
(c) Write the focus of an earthquake?
(d) Name one natural disaster often triggered by earthquakes.
Q. No 15- Q. No 17 are Very Short answer Type Questions
15.
2

Identify the natural phenomenon that occurred in the above picture and also
Mention the primary cause of this phenomenon.
16. 2

From the above figure identify points A and B and state one difference
between them.
17. 2

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 Identify the type of wave represented in the above figure? How does this
wave generate.
Q. No 18- Q. No 20 are Short Answer Type Questions 3
18. State the use of Richter Scale? In Richter scale if reading of 6.0 appear and
after sometimes reading of 7.0 appear. What does these reading indicates?
19. 3

(a) Identify the different layers of earth shown by the label A, B,

C and D.
(b) In which layer of the Earth the tectonic plates are present
and write their role in the occurrence to earthquakes?
20. In a native place of Ravi, one day he felt some vibrations and after that a 3
massive earthquake occurred. Few days after the earth quake, again
vibrations were felt in that area. Identify the vibration before and after the
earth quake. How do the later vibrations affect recovery efforts after an
earthquake?
21. Q. No 21- Q. No 22 are Long Answer Type question 5
(a) Identify the natural phenomenon involved in the
damage shown in the picture:

(b) Explain the reasons behind such phenomenon.

(c) Suggest the safety measures that one should take to protect
himself during earthquake inside a building.
22. (a) Imagine you live in an earthquake-prone region. List at least two 5
precautionary measures if you find yourself in public area during
earthquake.
(b) In earthquake region how will be the house design so that least damage
of property occurs.

Page 184 of 197

 Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
CH-18 Earthquakes
Marks Total
allotted to Marks
Q. No. Value points/ key points each
value/key
point
1. (c) 1 1
2. (c) magnitude and their destructive energy at N/ magnitude and 1 1

their destructive energy at M=

3. (b) 1 1
4. (c) 1 1
5. (d) 1 1
6. (b) 1 1
7. (b) 1 1
8. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1 1
9. (a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1
10. (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1
11. (b) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of 1 1
A.
12. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1 1
13. (a) Seismometer 1 4
(b) Richter scale 1
(c) Earthquake, Volcanic eruptions 1
(d) Epicenter 1
14. (a) Earthquakes are caused by a sudden release of stress 1 4
along faults in the earth’s crust.
(b) The Richter scale is a scale of numbers used to tell the 1
power (or magnitude) of earthquakes.
(c) The focus of an earthquake is a location at some depth 1
in the earth where seismic wave radiation begins.

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 (d) Tsunami 1
15. Tsunami 1 2
Tsunamis are primarily caused by underwater earthquakes,
volcanic eruptions, or landslides that displace large volumes of 1
water, generating a series of powerful ocean waves.
16. A is focus and B is Epicentre. ½ +½ 2
The focus of an earthquake is the point within the Earth where
the seismic energy is released, whereas the epicentre is the point 1
on the Earth’s surface directly above the focus.
17. Seismic Wave 1 2
Seismic waves are the vibrations that travel through the Earth’s
crust and interior, generated by the sudden release of energy 1
during an earthquake.
18. The Richter scale is used to measure the magnitude of 1 3
earthquakes.
A Richter scale reading of 7.0 represents an earthquake with 1
significantly more energy and potential damage than a reading
of 6.0. Each whole number increase on the Richter scale
corresponds to a tenfold increase in amplitude and 1
approximately 31.6 times more energy released.
19. (a) A= Inner core, B= Outer core, C= Mantle, D= Crust ½+ ½ + 3
(b) Tectonic plates are part of the Earth's lithosphere, which ½+½
includes the crust and uppermost mantle. The movement of
these plates, either away from, towards, or past each other, ½+½
is a primary cause of earthquakes.
20. Foreshore is smaller earthquake that happen in the same 1 3
place before the larger earthquake occurs.
Aftershocks are smaller earthquakes that occur in the same
region as the main earthquake, typically in the days to weeks
following the initial event. They can hamper recovery efforts by 2
causing further damage to weakened structures and
infrastructure, as well as triggering additional landslides or other
secondary effects.
21. (a) Earthquake 1 5
(b) plate tectonic and induced quakes 2
(c) i) Take shelter under table 1
ii) Stay away from tall and heavy objects 1
22. (a) Two precautions are: 5
i) Find a clear spot away from building, trees, bridge 1
and overhead power lines.
ii) Do not come out if sitting in a moving vehicle 1
(b) The buildings in seismic zones need to be designed so that
they can withstand major tremors. It is advisable to make 3
structure simple so that it is “Quake safe”.

Page 186 of 197

 CH-19 Pollution of Air
Q No. QUESTIONS MARKS
1. Q. No 1- Q. No 7 are Multiple Choice Questions 1
In air pollution, oxides of nitrogen include
i. Nitric oxide
ii. Nitrous oxide
iii. Nitrogen dioxide
iv. Dinitrogen trioxide
v. Dinitrogen pentoxide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) i,ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i and iii
2. 1. Raju wishes to contribute in reducing air pollution. Which vehicle 1
should he use for going to school?
2. (a) Car
(b) School bus
(c) Auto rickshaw
(d) Scooter
3. 1. Trees help in reducing the pollution of our environment. How might 1
the annual mass planting of trees in July contribute to addressing
environmental pollution on a broader scale?
(a) Forest Conservation Day
(b) Plantation month
(c) Van Mahotsav
(d) Wildlife week
4. A certain city does not provide unleaded petrol for the vehicles 1
available in the region. Which of these problems could you see in this
city?
(a) Cholera in children
(b) Lower IQ in children
(c) Death of aquatic plants and animals
(d) Lower crop yield
5. The Taj Mahal is a wonder of the modern world, but this national and 1
international treasure needs swift and decisive action if it is not to
lose its legendary lustre. This is taking place due to:
(a) Noise pollution
(b) Air pollution
(c) Water pollution
(d) None of these
6. What is the reason of increase in temperature? 1
(a) Acid rain
(b) Nuclear accidents

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 (c) Greenhouse effect
(d) Both A and B
7. Identify the correct statement- 1
(a) Non-conventional source of energy causes more pollution
(b) Ozone is harmless gas present in atmosphere
(c) CFC breaks down to chlorine atoms by UV radiations
(d) Trees do not help in decreasing sound pollution.
For the Q 8 to Q 12 below consists of an Assertion and a Reason.
Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false
8. Assertion (A): Fossil fuels cause air pollution. 1
Reason (R): Fossil fuels contain small amount of nitrogen and sulphur in it.
9. Assertion (A): UV radiation causes photo-dissociation of ozone into 1
O2 and O, thus causing damage to the ozone layer.
Reason (R): The ozone hole has been the major cause of global
warming and climate change.
10. Assertion (A): Deforestation is the main factor contributing to global 1
warming.
Reason (R): Besides CO2, methane and CFCs are also greenhouse gases.
11. Assertion (A): The pollutants discharged by industries seriously 1
affect the human health.
Reason (R): The disease pattern of urban society has a close
connection with the deteriorated quality of water and
air.
12. Assertion (A): CFC is useful for atmosphere. 1
Reason (R): CFCs were used in the AC, refrigerators, aerosol sprays and
harmful for the ozone layers.
13. Q. No.13 –Q. No14 are Case Based Questions 4
We can survive for some time without food, but we cannot survive
even for a few minutes without air. This simple fact tells us how
important clean air is to us. You already know that air consists of a
mixture of gases. By volume, about 78% of this mixture is nitrogen
and about 21% is oxygen. Carbon dioxide, argon, methane, ozone
and water vapour are also present in very small quantities. When air
is contaminated by unwanted substances which have a harmful effect
on both the living and the non-living, it is referred to as air pollution.
(a) Which air pollutant reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of the
blood?
(b)What are the pollutants that are used in refrigerators, air
conditioners and aerosol sprays and are known to damage ozone
layer?
(c) The thick fog-like layer seen in the atmosphere during winters,
causes increase in allergies, coughing, and severe irritation of
eyes, nose, and throat. What is it known as?

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 (d) Name any two gases responsible for acid rain.
14. Over the past 2 decades, India’s most famous tourist attraction, Taj 4
Mahal located in Agra, has become a matter of concern. Experts have
warned that pollutants in air are discoloring its white marble. So, it is
not only living organisms that get affected by polluted air but non-
living things like buildings, monuments and statues also get affected.
(a) What is the name of the phenomenon of acid rain corroding the
monuments made up of marbles known as?
(b) What is the full form of LPG?
(c) Name two gases which causes greenhouse effect.
(d) Name two devices where CFCs are used.
15. Q. No 15-Q. No 17 are Very Short answer type Questions 2

Identify the type of pollution shown above and state its main cause.
16. The quality of air at various locations is monitored regularly by 2
government and other agencies. In what way can you use these data?
(State any two)
17. “We should plant trees and nurture the ones present already in the 2
neighborhood”. Justify the statement.
Q. No 18-Q. No 20 are Short answer type Questions
In the following statements, the underlined words are jumbled up.
18. Write them in their correct form. 3
(a) Air contains 78% ginroten and 21% gonexy.
(b) Vehicles produce high level of pollutants like carbon dioxide,
nitrogen oxides, nobracmoondexi and mosek.
(c) Carbon dioxide, thaneme, nitrous oxide and water vapour are
known as greenhouse gases.
(d) Gangotri glacier in Himalaya has started melting because
of lablogringwam.
19. 1. Find out the wrong words in the given statements and rewrite the 3
statement in their correct form.
(a) We can survive for some time without air but we cannot survive
even for a few minutes without food.
(b) A brick kiln emits lot of smoke and other harmful gases causing
water pollution.
(c) Carbon monoxide is produced by complete burning of fuels such as
coal, petrol and diesel.
20. It is advised that industries should switch over to cleaner fuels such as CNG 3
and LPG in the Taj Mahal Zone in Agra. State the reason.

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21. Q. No 21 – Q. No 22 are Long Answer Type Questions 5

(a) Which city’s air is most polluted and which is least polluted?
Explain.
(b) Is this graph helpful to you? Justify your answer.
22. A lot of dry leaves are collected in a school garden and are burnt 5
every day.
(a) Do you think that it is right to do so? If not, what should be done
to dispose of the dry leaves?
(b) As an individual, how can you help reduce air pollution? (State
any two ways)

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 Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
CH19- Pollution of Air
Q. No. Value points / Key points Marks allotted Total
to each value / Marks
key point
1. (d) i and iii 1 1
2. ▪ (b) School bus 1 1
3. (c) Van Mahotsav 1 1
4. (b) Lower IQ in children 1 1
5. (b) Air pollution 1 1
6. (c) Greenhouse effect 1 1
7. (c) CFC breaks down to chlorine atoms by UV 1 1
radiations
6. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 1 1
of A.
7. (e) Both A and R are false 1 1
8. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1 1
explanation of A.
9. (e) Both A and R are False 1 1
10. (a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of 1 1
A.
11. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 1 1
of A
12. (d) A is false but R is true.
13. (a) Carbon monoxide. 1 4
(b) CFC. 1
(c) Smog. 1
(d) Oxides of nitrogen, sulphur. 1
14. (a) Marble cancer 1 4
(b) Liquefied Petroleum Gas 1
(c) Carbon dioxide, methane ½+½
(d) Air conditioners and refrigerators ½+½
15. Air pollution 1 2
Main cause- Emission of gases from factories and vehicles 1

16. (a) These data can be used to create awareness 1+1 2

regarding air pollution among the citizens of the
country.
(b) The individuals can be informed regarding what
levels are not acceptable and what is acceptable.
(c) These data can be used further to teach the people
about the air quality index, one should be taught
that with the decrease in air quality index, the risk
of public health enhances. (any 2)
17. We should plant trees and nurture the ones already present 2 2

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 in the neighbourhood because trees reduce air pollution by
absorbing excess carbon dioxide from the air. The plants
utilise CO2 from the atmosphere for photosynthesis, thereby
decreasing the amount of CO2 in the air. This will stop
global warming and its consequences.
18. (a) Nitrogen, oxygen ½x6 3
(b) Carbon monoxide, smoke
(c) Methane
(d) Global warming
19. (a) We can survive for some time without food but we 1+1+1 3
cannot survive even for a few minutes without air.
(b) A brick kiln emits lot of smoke and other harmful
gases causing air pollution.
(c) Carbon dioxide is produced by complete burning of
fuels such as coal, petrol and diesel.
20. Petrol and diesel are causing air pollution to this amount 3 3
that it is resulting in acid which is harming the beauty of
Taj Mahal as the white marble of the Taj is turning yellow
because of the acids like sulphuric acid and nitric acid
falling on it. Acid rain reacts with the carbonates present in
marble (calcium carbonate) and limestone of a monument
and corrodes it slowly (dissolve it slowly). While CNG and
LPG are cleaner fuels which do not produce these gases and
pollute the air.
21. (a) City 4 is most polluted and City 3 is least polluted. 1+2 5
The higher the AQI value, the greater the level of air
pollution and the greater the health concern.
(b) Yes, it is helpful as I can know about the pollution level 2
in the cities and can help the authorities to take
precautionary measures to control it.
22. (a) Burning dry leaves causes air pollution because 1+2 5
various harmful gases are released like carbon
monoxide. Therefore, instead of burning, they
should be composted as it does not give rise to any
type of pollution, in fact, act as manure for the
plants and trees. 2
(b) i) Reduce the number of trips you take in your car.
ii) Reduce or eliminate fireplace and wood stove
use.
iii) Avoid burning leaves, trash, and other
materials. Avoid using gas-powered lawn and
garden equipment.
(any relevant answer to be awarded)

CH-20 Pollution of Water

Q. No. QUESTIONS MARKS
1. Q. No1-Q. No 7 are Multiple Choice Questions

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 Polluted drinking water can be characterized by:
(a) Bad taste of drinking water. 1
(b) Unchecked growth of aquatic weeds in water bodies.
(c) Oil and grease floating on water surface.
(d) All of them
2. ____________________ is used in electric water filters to kill all 1
the harmful micro-organisms present in the tap water and make it
absolutely safe for drinking.
(a) Infrared radiation
(b) Gamma radiation
(c) Visible radiation
(d) Ultraviolet radiation
3. Excessive use of which of the following in agriculture can cause the 1
death of fish in a pond by oxygen starvation?
(a) Fertilizers
(b) Manures
(c) Both a and b
(d) Water
4. Drinking water can be made absolutely safe by adding some – 1
(a) Aspirin tablets
(b) Iodine tablets
(c) Chlorine tablets
(d) Both (b) and (c)
5. 4R principle consists of- 1
(a) Reduce – Reuse – Recycle – Recover
(b) Refuse – Reuse – Recycle – Recover
(c) Reduce – Reuse – Recycle – Remix
(d) Reduce – Reuse – Recycle – Reproduce
6. Sewage containing organic waste should not be disposed in water
bodies because it causes major water pollution. Fishes in such a
polluted water die because of: 1
(a) Large number of mosquitoes
(b) Increase in the amount of dissolved oxygen
(c) Decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in water
(d) Clogging of gills by mud.
7. It is NOT classified as a primary water pollutant? 1
(a) Heavy metals
(b) Pathogens
(c) Organic chemicals
(d) Nutrients
Question No. 8 to 12 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
8. Assertion (A): Sewage water must be treated in a sewage treatment 1

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 plant.
Reason (R): Sewage is liquid waste which causes water and soil
pollution.
9. Assertion (A): Potable water can cause water borne diseases. 1
Reason (R): Potable water is the water that is safe for drinking.
10. Assertion (A): Boiling is a reliable method to purify water.
Reason (R): Germs are killed due to high temperature during boiling. 1
11. Assertion (A): Farmers should increase chemical fertilizers and 1
pesticides for better production of crops.
Reason (R): Aquatic animals and plants are harmed by the
chemicals present in fertilisers and pesticides.
12. Assertion (A): Water present in rivers, lakes and streams is fit for 1
consumption by human beings.
Reason (R): Water present in these water bodies is needed to be
filtered before using it for drinking purposes.
Q. No 13- Q. No 14 are Case Based Questions
More than 80% of sewage generated by human activities is
13. discharged into rivers and oceans without any treatment which
results in environmental pollution and more than 50 diseases. 80% 4
of diseases and 50% of child death worldwide are related to poor
water quality.
(a) Explain the meaning of the term sewage.
(b) Mention any two sources of sewage.
(c) Illustrate how sewage can be treated properly.
(d) As a responsible citizen, how can you contribute towards the
reduction of amount of sewage produced? (Write any two points)
14. Water Pollution is the introduction of contaminants into the water 4
body that disturbs aquatic environment. Water pollution affects the
entire biosphere plants and organisms living in these bodies of
water. Water pollution is a major global problem which requires
ongoing evaluation and revision of water resource policy at all
levels. There are several classes of water pollutants. The first are
disease-causing agents.
A second category of water pollutants is oxygen-demanding wastes;
wastes that can be decomposed by oxygen-requiring bacteria. When
large populations of decomposing bacteria are converting these
wastes, it can deplete oxygen levels in the water.
(a) State the meaning of the term ‘Pollutant’?
(b) Mention any two ways in which water gets polluted.
(c) Suggest any two ways to control water pollution.
(d) Mention the role of alum in minimising the amount of suspended
particulate matter.
Q. No 15 – Q. No 17 are Very Short Type Questions 2
15. Is fly ash considered as a water pollutant? Justify your answer with
suitable explanation.
16. It is observed that increased level of nutrients (or fertilizers) in the lake 2
water affect the survival of aquatic organisms (like fish). Elucidate with
reason.

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17. Hot water released by power plants and industries is considered as a 2
pollutant. Justify.
Q. No18- Q. No 20 are Short answer Type Questions
18. Create a mind map to depict various ways to conserve water. 3
19. When Aparna was playing in the school garden, she felt thirsty. She 3
couldn’t find her drinking water bottle. So, she was going to drink
the water from a bucket lying beside the field. Her teacher stopped
her to drink that water though it was looking clear, transparent and
odourless.
(a) What value of her teacher’s character is displayed in the above
situation?
(b) Explain why did her teacher stop Aparna to drink that water?
20. Observe the given image to answer the following questions: 3
(a) What is depicted by the given
image?
(b) Write the consequences of this
environmental degradation.
(c) Suggest few ways to control such
hazard.

Q. No.21 to Q. No.22 are Long Answer Type Questions

21. 5

Meth
od -
A
Meth
od –
B

(a)
Identify the method shown in the
above image and name it.
(b) Is this a physical method or chemical method?
(c) How is method A different from method B?
(d) Suggest any two alternative methods to this one.
22. At many places the waste water containing human excreta are 5
carried in big underground pipes is dumped into a river which
pollutes the river water.
(a) What is the common name of such waste water?
(b) Name four types of harmful organisms contained in it.
(c) Name any four human diseases caused by drinking river water
contaminated with such waste water.

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 Marking Scheme/Hints to solution

(Note: Any other relevant answer, not given herein but given by the
candidate be suitably awarded)
CH20- Pollution of Water
Q. No. Value points / Key points Marks Total
allotted to Marks
each value /
key point
1. (d) All of them 1 1
2. (d) Ultraviolet radiation 1 1
3. (c) Both a and b 1 1
4. (d) Both (b) and (c) 1 1
5. (a) Reduce – Reuse – Recycle – Recover 1 1
6. (c) Decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in water 1 1
7. (d) Nutrients 1 1
8. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation 1 1
of A.
9. (d) A is false but R is true. 1 1
10. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation 1 1
of A.
11. (d) A is false but R is true. 1 1
12. (d) A is false but R is true. 1 1
13. (a) Sewage is wastewater released from houses, 1 4
hospitals, industries, offices, and other sources.
(b) Any two sources. 1
(c) The sewage treatment plants are inoculated into
Aerobic microorganisms. These organic 1
components of these microbes utilize the sewage
and reduce the toxicity which can be measured by
BOD (Biological oxygen demand). After the
biological treatment, the sludge is pumped from the
treatment plant into an outsized tank. 1
(d) Any two appropriate ways.
14. (a) A substance or condition that contaminates air, 1 4
water, or soil.
(b) Any two appropriate ways. 1
(c) Any two appropriate ways. 1
(d) Alum is added to water in order to destabilize the mud 1
particles suspended in it. This process is known as
coagulation.
15. Fly ash contains toxic and heavy metals. Fly ash becomes 2 2
dry as temperature increases and gets airborne. Thus, it
becomes one of the major sources of air and water
pollution.
16. The increased level of nutrients in the water affects the 2 2
survival of aquatic organisms because dissolved oxygen is
consumed by the plants and algae. Due to this, there is
deficiency of dissolved oxygen in the animal life.

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17. Very hot water is discharged in river and lakes, it raises the 2 2
temperature of the river water. This rise in temperature has
an adverse effect on the animals living in it.
18. A creative mind map with pictorial depiction all valid 3 3
points to be drawn.
19. (a) Suitable values to be written. 1 3
(b) Clear or transparent water is not always fit for drinking 2
as it may have microorganisms and dissolved impurities
which cannot be seen with naked eyes. These impurities
and microbes may cause diseases.
20. (a) Water pollution/Plastic pollution 1 3
(b) Any two appropriate effect. 1
(c) Any two protective measures of plastic pollution. 1
21. (a) Filtration 1 5
(b) Physical method 1
(c)Method A – Traditional filter, Method B- Modern 2
filter. 1
(d) Boiling, chlorination etc.
22. (a) Sewage 1 5
(b) Bacteria, protozoa, fungi, viruses, parasites 2
(worms) - Any four
(c) Cholera, Typhoid, diarrhea, Dysentery, Jaundice - 2
Any four

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