CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 1

Sample Paper 01
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. In the above picture of sorrien’s utopian vision, the saints, angle and Christ symbolise-

(a) Equality among people

(b) Fraternity among nations
(c) Freedom of nations
(d) Resentment against nations


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2. Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order :
1. Coming of Simon Commission to India
2. Demand of Purna Swaraj in Lahore Session of INC.
3. Government of India Act, 1919
4. Champaran Satyagraha
Choose the correct option :
(a) 3 - 2 - 4 - 1 (b) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3
(c) 2 - 3 - 1 - 4 (d) 4 - 3 - 1 - 2

3. Which of the following was a major reason for the expansion of international trade in the 19th
century?
(a) The rise of European colonial empires and advancements in transportation.
(b) The abolition of slavery, which reduced the need for international trade.
(c) The decline in demand for raw materials like cotton and sugar.
(d) The establishment of the World Trade Organization, regulating global trade.

4. The invention of the printing press by Johannes Gutenberg revolutionized the spread of information
in Europe. Which of the following were effects of the invention of the printing press?
1. Rapid spread of new ideas and knowledge
2. Growth of literacy and education
3. Decline in religious authority
4. Strengthening of monarchies
Options :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

5. Which resource is renewable and can be replenished over a relatively short period of time through
natural processes?
(a) Fossil fuels like coal and petroleum, which take millions of years to form.
(b) Solar energy from the sun, which is available in abundance and continuously replenished.
(c) Mineral resources such as iron ore, which are formed over geological time scales.
(d) Non-renewable resources like natural gas, which cannot be regenerated once consumed.

6. The Western Ghats are recognized as one of the world’s biodiversity hotspots. Analyze the following
statements about the Western Ghats:
1. They are home to a vast number of endemic plant and animal species.
2. The Western Ghats stretch across eight Indian states from Gujarat to Tamil Nadu.
3. Deforestation and habitat destruction are major threats to their biodiversity.
4. The Western Ghats are primarily desert regions with sparse vegetation.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

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7. Match Column - A with Column - B and choose the correct option:

Column-A (River) Column-B (Dam)
A. Mahanadi 1. Sardar Sarovar
B. Narmada 2. Hirakud
C. Chambal 3. Salal
D. Chenab 4. Rana Pratap
Sagar
Options:
(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
(b) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
(c) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3
(d) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

8. Which of the following best describes the concept of power sharing in a democratic system of
governance?
(a) Concentrating all governmental powers in the central authority for efficient decision-making.
(b) Distributing governmental powers among various levels and branches to prevent misuse.
(c) Allocating power solely to the legislative branch to ensure balanced governance.
(d) Granting all powers to the executive branch to maintain order and stability.

9. India has adopted a federal system of government to accommodate diversity. Which of the following
statements about Indian federalism are correct?
1. India is a Union of States.
2. States have autonomy in all matters.
3. Power-sharing between the Union and State governments is a basic feature of the Indian
Constitution.
4. The power-sharing arrangement can be easily changed by the Union government.
Options :
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 4

10. What is Caste Discrimination, and why is it considered a major social issue in India?
(a) Treating individuals based on their caste, leading to social inequality and exclusion.
(b) Promoting caste-based systems to maintain social order and hierarchy.
(c) Encouraging the mixing of different castes to create a unified society.
(d) Ignoring caste differences to ensure everyone is treated equally.

11. India has a multi-party system, providing voters with a wide range of choices. Which of the
following statements about political party systems are correct?
1. A two-party system limits voter choice.
2. A multi-party system encourages coalition governments.
3. A one-party system is more democratic than a multi-party system.
4. A multi-party system provides more representation to diverse groups.

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Options :
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Democracy in India ensures the protection of individual rights and freedoms.
Statement II: In a democracy, the government is not accountable to the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. The power-sharing model of _______ is considered one of the most complex, involving equal
representation of both Dutch and French-speaking communities.
(a) India (b) Belgium
(c) Sri Lanka (d) France

14. Which sector of the Indian economy is primarily involved in the extraction and processing of raw
materials, such as mining and agriculture?
(a) Primary Sector, which includes activities like agriculture, mining, and fishing.
(b) Secondary Sector, which involves manufacturing and industrial production.
(c) Tertiary Sector, which focuses on services and distribution.
(d) Quaternary Sector, which deals with information and research services.

15. Money plays a crucial role in the economy by facilitating transactions. Which of the following are
functions of money in an economy?
1. Medium of exchange
2. Store of value
3. Measure of income
4. Unit of account
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 3, and 4

16. The process of globalization has been facilitated by advances in technology, especially in the fields
of communication and _______.
(a) Manufacturing (b) Mining
(c) Transportation (d) Healthcare

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Development is a process that only involves economic growth.
Statement II: Development includes improvements in the standard of living, education, and
healthcare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 5

18. Match the following and choose the correct option.

(Leader) (Role)

A. Victor Emmanuel II 1. Chief Minister of Italy

B. Guiseppe Mazzini 2. Young Italy Movement

C. Guiseppe Garibaldi 3. Conquered the Kingdom of Sicillies

D. Count Cavour 4. Proclaimed as king of Unified Italy

(a) A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2 (b) A -2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

(c) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1 (d) A - 1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of the 43 percent land under net sown area?
(a) It supports urban development.
(b) It contributes majorly to food production.
(c) It is used for industrial growth.
(d) It is left uncultivated for future use.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Land Degradation (in % of total land area) Forest Cover (in %)
X 12 22
Y 25 35
Why does state Y have a higher rate of land degradation?
(a) High afforestation rates.
(b) Lack of industrial development.
(c) Increased deforestation for agriculture.
(d) Use of rainwater harvesting.

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SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The French Revolution led to the rise of nationalism in Europe.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.


O
“The Revolutions of 1848 were significant in the spread of nationalism.” Discuss the role of the
1848 revolutions in promoting nationalist sentiments.

22. “Sustainable development is essential for ensuring the availability of resources for future
generations.” Explain why this is important.

23. “Power sharing is essential in a diverse society like India.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

24. “Income alone is not a measure of development.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Over the past fifty years, India’s literacy rate has significantly increased, leading to a more educated
population. As a result, education has become a central focus in India’s development strategy.
Why do you think education has gained such importance in India’s development? Support your
answer by giving any three reasons.

26. “The formation of the Indian National Congress was a significant step towards Indian nationalism.”
Explain the statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Ravi owns a large plantation and wants to promote biodiversity. However, he is not familiar with
the types of forests and their significance.” Assist him in identifying the different types of forests
and their importance in promoting biodiversity.


O
“Neha is passionate about wildlife conservation and wishes to start a sanctuary. She needs guidance
on the factors essential for establishing a wildlife sanctuary.” Help her identify the key factors
required to set up a successful wildlife sanctuary.

28. “Federalism ensures regional autonomy within a country.” Explain the statement by giving any
three examples.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 7

29. In recent years, the service sector in India has grown exponentially, becoming the largest contributor
to GDP. As a result, the service sector has emerged as the dominant sector in the Indian economy.
Why has the service sector become so dominant in India’s economy? Support your answer by
giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Age of Discovery marked the beginning of global trade networks.’ Substantiate the statement
with key features.


O
‘Imperialism was driven by economic, political, and cultural motives.’ Explain the statement with
relevant points.

31. Meena’s town is facing water scarcity due to the over-extraction of groundwater. Identify three
reasons for groundwater depletion and suggest ways to conserve water resources.


O
Arjun’s village is prone to frequent droughts. What water conservation techniques can be adopted
in drought-prone areas to ensure sustainable water use?

32. ‘Caste continues to play a significant role in Indian politics.’ Analyse the impact of caste on
political and social life in India.


O
‘Gender discrimination is a persistent issue in Indian society.’ Discuss the challenges faced by
women in India.

33. Miss X is trying to understand the problems with the barter system. Explain why the barter
system was inefficient due to the need for double coincidence of wants and how money, as a
medium of exchange, solved this problem by making trade more convenient and efficient.


O
Amit, a farmer, borrows money from a moneylender at high interest rates. What are the
consequences of relying on informal credit, and how can access to formal banking and credit
systems be improved in rural areas?

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SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
This is how Mercier describes the impact of the printed word, and the power of reading in one of
his books:
‘Anyone who had seen me reading would have compared me to a man dying of thirst who was
gulping down some fresh, pure water.... Lighting my lamp with extraordinary caution, I threw
myself hungrily into the reading. An easy eloquence, effortless and animated, carried me from one
page to the next without my noticing it. A clock struck off the hours in the silence of the shadows,
and I heard nothing. My lamp began to run out of oil and produced only a pale light, but still I read
on. I could not even take out time to raise the wick for fear of interrupting my pleasure. How those
new ideas rushed into my brain! How my intelligence adopted them!’
Questions:
1. How does the passage reflect the immersive nature of reading of Mercier?
2. Why did Mercier describe himself as a virtual writer?
3. How did reading influence Mercier’s intellectual capacity and his engagement with new
concepts? Explain in any two points.

35. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Today, Indian agriculture finds itself at a crossroads. To make agriculture successful and profitable,
proper thrust should be given to the improvement of the condition of marginal and small farmers.
The green revolution promised much. But today it’s under controversy. The keyword today is
“gene revolution”, which includes genetic engineering. Organic farming is [also] much in vogue
today because it is practised without factory-made chemicals such as fertilisers and pesticides. A
few economists think that Indian farmers have a bleak future if they continue growing food grains
on the holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises. India’s rural population is
about 600 million which depends upon 250 million (approximate) hectares of agricultural land,
an average of less than half a hectare per person. Indian farmers should diversify their cropping
pattern from cereals to high-value crops. This will increase incomes and reduce environmental
degradation simultaneously. Because fruits, medicinal herbs, flowers, vegetables, and bio-diesel
crops like jatropha and jojoba need much less irrigation than rice or sugarcane. India’s diverse
climate can be harnessed to grow a wide range of high-value crops.
Questions :
1. Give two reasons why the Green Revolution is under controversy.
2. .....holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises.’ Evaluate why this is a
concern.
3. Bio-diesel crops like jatropha and jojoba have been referred to as high-value crops. Why?

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 9

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies. As we
have seen, large societies need representative democracy. As societies became large and complex,
they also needed some agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the
government. They needed some ways, to bring various representatives together so that a responsible
government could be formed. They needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government,
make policies, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfil these needs that every representative
government has. We can say that parties are a necessary condition for a democracy.
Questions :
1. Explain the meaning of a political party.
2. ‘‘The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representaive democracies.”
Support this statement.
3. Why are political parties a necessary condition for a democracy ? Explain.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them
and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) Indian National Congress session at this place in 1920.
(B) The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the slat law.
(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable
symbols.
(i) A Coal mine in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) A dam built on river Chenab.
(iii)A large natural major seaport located at Andhra Pradesh.
(iv) Noida software technology park.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 02 Page 1

Sample Paper 02
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which one of the following option best signifies this picture?

(a) Indian workers march in south Africa 1913.

(b) The Boycott of foreign cloths 1922.
(c) Chauri Chaura Movement.
(d) Dandi March lead by Mahatma Gandhi.

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2. Arrange the following happenings in the correct order-

1. Mahatma Gandhi launched the civil disobedience movement
2. First world war
3. Second world war
4. Establishment of G-77
Options :
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3
(b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. The invention of the printing press by Johannes Gutenberg in the 15th century had what significant
impact on European society?
(a) It led to the spread of new ideas and literacy across Europe.
(b) It allowed the Catholic Church to control the dissemination of information.
(c) It reduced access to books and limited the spread of knowledge.
(d) It was primarily used to print religious texts, with little impact on secular learning.

4. The Napoleonic Code, introduced in 1804, had a significant impact on European legal systems.
Which of the following statements about the Napoleonic Code are correct?
1. It did away with privileges based on birth.
2. It established equality before the law.
3. It restored the feudal system.
4. It simplified administrative divisions.
Options :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 4

5. Which of the following is a major reason for the decline of biodiversity in Indian forests?
(a) Afforestation efforts led by the government and non-governmental organizations.
(b) Deforestation due to agricultural expansion and illegal logging activities in forested areas.
(c) Conservation programs aimed at protecting endangered species and their habitats.
(d) Sustainable harvesting of forest resources to meet the needs of local communities.

6. Water is a crucial resource for human survival and economic activities. In India, several measures
have been taken to manage water resources effectively. Consider the following statements about
water conservation practices:
1. Rainwater harvesting involves collecting and storing rainwater for future use.
2. Check dams are constructed to slow down the flow of water and recharge groundwater.
3. Desalination plants convert seawater into potable water to meet drinking needs.
4. Over-extraction of groundwater has no impact on the water table levels.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

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7. Match the following:

List-I (Crops) List-II (Geographical conditions)

A. Barley 1. Hot and dry climate with poor soil

B. Rice 2. Cool climate with poorer soil

C. Millets 3. Warm and moist climate with high

altitude

D. Tea 4. Hot and moist climate with rich soil

Option :
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-4, C-1,D-2
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

8. Which of the following statements best defines federalism as practiced in India?

(a) A unitary system where the central government holds all the powers without any state
autonomy.
(b) A system where power is divided between a central government and individual state governments.
(c) A confederation where states have complete independence and the central government has
limited powers.
(d) A system where regional leaders have more power than the central government in decision-
making.

9. Indian society is divided into various social categories based on gender, religion, and caste. Which
of the following statements about gender inequality in India are correct?
1. Women have equal representation in parliament.
2. Women are paid less than men for the same work.
3. Girls are often not encouraged to pursue higher education.
4. Women are over-represented in decision-making bodies.
Options :
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 4

10. What is one major advantage of a multi-party system in a democratic country like India?
(a) It limits the representation of diverse interests by reducing the number of political voices.
(b) It ensures broader representation of different societal groups and opinions in governance.
(c) It makes it easier for a single party to dominate the political landscape.
(d) It reduces competition among political parties, ensuring stable governments.

11. Democracy promotes political equality and fairness. Which of the following are key outcomes of
a democratic system?
1. Equal political participation for all citizens
2. Equal economic opportunities for all citizens
3. Protection of individual rights and freedoms
4. Economic growth at the expense of social justice

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Options :
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Power sharing helps in preventing the concentration of power in one group.
Statement II: Power sharing is only applicable at the central level and not at the state level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect.
(b) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct.
(d) Both I and II are incorrect.

13. In India, the distribution of powers between the Union and State governments is outlined in the
_______ of the Indian Constitution.
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles
(c) Seventh Schedule
(d) Ninth Schedule

14. How do banks create money through the lending process in India’s financial system?
(a) By printing physical currency notes and distributing them to the public.
(b) By accepting deposits and lending a portion of those deposits to borrowers, creating new
money.
(c) By investing in foreign markets and bringing back profits as domestic money.
(d) By restricting the supply of money to control inflation and stabilize the economy.

15. Globalization refers to the increasing interconnection of economies worldwide. Which of the
following are key features of globalization?
1. Increased trade between countries
2. Flow of capital and technology across borders
3. Isolation of domestic markets
4. Restricted movement of people across countries
Options :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

16. The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education, and
_______ per capita, which is used to rank countries by their level of human development.
(a) National income
(b) GDP
(c) Gross National Income (GNI)
(d) Personal wealth

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 02 Page 5

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The primary sector includes activities like agriculture, mining, and fishing.
Statement II: The tertiary sector is involved in manufacturing goods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct.
(b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct.
(d) Neither I nor II is correct.

18. Match the column A and column B and choose the correct option.
Column A Column B

A Giuseppe Mazzini 1. Ruler of an Italian princely house

B King Victor Emmanuel II 2. Revolutionary who tried to unify Italy

C Chief Minister Cavour 3. led an army of volunteers to Rome to fight the last obstacle
to the unification of Italy, the Papal States where a French
garrison was stationed.

D Giuseppe Garibaldi 4. Through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France he

succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859
(a) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4
(b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3
(c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4
(d) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why does alluvial soil cover 35% of the total area?

(a) It is mostly found in river basins.
(b) It is used for growing forests.
(c) It is found in desert regions.
(d) It is used for industrial purposes.

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20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Forest Area (in % of total area) Deforestation Rate (per year)
A 30 2%
B 50 0.5%
Why does state B have a lower deforestation rate?
(a) It has high agricultural demand.
(b) It is a highly industrialized state.
(c) It has better forest management practices.
(d) It focuses on mining activities.

SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The Indian National Congress was founded to voice Indian aspirations.” Justify the statement
with suitable arguments.


O
“The partition of Bengal in 1905 sparked nationalist protests.” Discuss the impact of the partition
of Bengal on Indian nationalism.

22. “Forests play a vital role in maintaining ecological balance.” Explain their importance.

23. “Federalism promotes regional autonomy in India.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

24. “The primary sector is crucial for the livelihood of a large section of India’s population.” Justify
the statement with suitable arguments.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Over the past four decades, the manufacturing sector in India has expanded rapidly, contributing
significantly to GDP growth. As a result, the manufacturing sector has become a major pillar of
the Indian economy. Why has the manufacturing sector become so important in India’s economy?
Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

26. “The Age of Discovery led to the creation of global trade networks.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

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27. “Sunita has acquired a piece of land and wants to ensure a steady water supply for irrigation.
She is unfamiliar with the types of irrigation methods suitable for her area.” Help her identify
appropriate irrigation methods based on local water resources and soil conditions.


O
“Mohit plans to build a small hydroelectric power plant. However, he lacks knowledge about the
factors that determine the feasibility of such a project.” Guide him in identifying the key factors
that make a location suitable for a hydroelectric power plant.

28. “Gender equality ensures equal opportunities for women and men.” Explain the statement by
giving any three examples.

29. Between 1991 and 2020, India’s credit market has expanded, providing businesses with necessary
funding for growth. As a result, credit availability has become crucial for India’s economic
development. Why is credit availability important for India’s economy? Support your answer by
giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The invention of the printing press revolutionized the spread of knowledge.’ Substantiate the
statement with key features.


O
‘The role of newspapers was crucial in mobilizing public opinion during the nationalist movements.’
Explain the statement with relevant points.

31. Sunita notices that farmers in her area depend heavily on monsoons for agriculture. What are the
limitations of monsoon-dependent agriculture, and how can irrigation help overcome them?


O
Ravi’s region specializes in the cultivation of rice, a water-intensive crop. What are the advantages
and disadvantages of growing water-intensive crops, and what alternatives can be suggested?

32. ‘Political parties are essential for the functioning of a democracy.’ Analyse the role of political
parties in democratic governance.


O
‘Political parties today face several challenges that impact their democratic functioning.’ Discuss
the challenges faced by political parties.

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33. Miss X is learning about globalization and wants to understand its impact on India’s economy.
Explain how globalization has influenced India’s trade, investment, and industries, and how the
country has benefited from increased integration with the global economy.


O
A cotton farmer in India sells his crop to an international clothing company. How does this
connect him to the global market, and what are the potential benefits and risks of participating
in global supply chains for small farmers?

SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
Ernst Renan, ‘What is a Nation?’: In a lecture delivered at the University of Sorbonne in 1882, the
French philosopher Ernst Renan (1823-92) outlined his understanding of what makes a nation. The
lecture was subsequently published as a famous essay entitled ‘Qu’ est-cequ’ une nation?’ (‘What is
a Nation?’). In this essay Renan criticises the notion suggested by others that a nation is formed
by a common language, race, religion, or territory: ‘A nation is the culmination of a long past of
endeavours, sacrifice and devotion. A heroic past, great men, glory, that is the social capital upon
which one bases a national idea. To have common glories in the past, to have a common will in the
present, to have performed great deeds together, to wish to perform still more, these are the essential
conditions of being a people. A nation is therefore a large-scale solidarity... Its existence is a daily
plebiscite... A province is its inhabitants; if anyone has the right to be consulted, it is the inhabitant.
A nation never has any real interest in annexing or holding on to a country against its will. The
existence of nations is a good thing, a necessity even. Their existence is a guarantee of liberty, which
would be lost if the world had only one law and only one master.
Questions :
1. What do you mean by the term Nation?
2. Write any two requirements for the formation of a nation.
3. How does a heroic past helps in the formation of a nation?

35. Read the given case and answer the questions that follow :
Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy —
agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic — needs inputs of energy. The economic
development plans implemented since independence necessarily required increasing amounts of
energy to remain operational. As a result, consumption of energy in all forms has been steadily
rising all over the country. In this background, there is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path
of energy development. Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy
sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy. India is presently one of the least energy efficient
countries in the world. We have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited
energy resources. For example, as concerned citizens we can do our bit by using public transport
systems instead of individual vehicles; switching off electricity when not in use, using power-saving
devices and using non-conventional sources of energy. At last “Energy Saved is energy produced”

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Questions :
1. Why is sustainable energy a key to sustainable development ?
2. Why is consumption of energy rising in all over India?
3. Explain ‘Energy saved is energy produced’.

36. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
Arguments about democracy tend to be very passionate. This is how it should be, for democracy
appeals to some of our deep values. These debates cannot be resolved in a simple manner. But
some debates about democracy can and should be resolved by referring to some facts and figures.
The debate about the economic outcomes of democracy is one such debate. Over the years many
students of democracy have gathered careful evidence to see what the relationship of democracy with
economic growth and economic inequalities is.
A particular study shows that on an average dictatorial regimes have had a slightly better record
of economic growth. But when we compare their record only in poor countries, there is virtually
no difference. While another study shows that within democracies there can be very high degree of
inequalities. In democratic countries like South Africa and Brazil, the top 20 per cent people take
away more than 60 per cent of the national income, leaving less than 3 per cent for the bottom 20
per cent population. Countries like Denmark and Hungary are much better in this respect.
One can easily infer that there is often inequality of opportunities available to the poorer sections.
Questions :
1. Which type of outcomes of democracy can be resolved with the help of facts or figures analysis?
2. Benefits of higher national income are enjoyed by a’ small proportion of its population while a
larger proportion has to settle with the remaining small portion of the national income. What
is strongly indicated by this fact?
3. Differentiate between democracy and dictatorship form of government.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The place associated with the Jallianwala Bagh incident.
B. The place where the December 1920 session of the Indian National Congress took place.

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(b) On the outline map of India, mark and locate the following with suitable symbols.
C. An airport
D. A software technology park
E. A dam
F. A seaport in Goa

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 03 Page 1

Sample Paper 03
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which one of the following option best signifies this picture?

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(a) Criminals. (b) Lost citizens of Central Africa.

(c) Photograph of indentured labourers. (d) None of these.

2. Arrange the following options in the correct sequence-

1. Press came to be made out of metal.
2. Offset press was developed.
3. Gutenberg perfected the system by olive press.
4. China first introduced hand- printing technology into Japan.
Option:
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. Which treaty, signed in 1815, aimed to restore monarchies in Europe after Napoleon’s defeat and
establish a balance of power?
(a) Treaty of Versailles, which ended World War I and reshaped Europe.
(b) Treaty of Vienna, which restored traditional monarchies and balanced European powers.
(c) Treaty of Paris, which concluded the Napoleonic Wars and redrew European borders.
(d) Treaty of Tordesillas, which divided newly discovered lands between Spain and Portugal.

4. The Indian National Congress launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 under the
leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. Which of the following were objectives of the Non-Cooperation
Movement?
1. Boycott of British goods
2. Surrender of government titles
3. Promotion of Hindu-Muslim unity
4. Acceptance of British reforms
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

5. Which of the following is a common method used for rainwater harvesting to conserve water in
rural areas of India?
(a) Building large dams to control river flow and generate electricity.
(b) Constructing tanks and ponds to store rainwater for agricultural use.
(c) Deforestation to increase the amount of water available for irrigation.
(d) Draining wetlands to convert them into agricultural land for farming.

6. Agriculture plays a vital role in the Indian economy. Identify the correct statements related to
Indian agriculture.
1. India is the largest producer of rice and wheat in the world.
2. The Green Revolution significantly increased agricultural productivity in the 1960s.
3. Agriculture in India is entirely dependent on monsoon rains.
4. Horticulture contributes minimally to India’s agricultural sector.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

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7. Match the following and choose correct option.

Column-I Column-II
A. Terrace farming 1. Different crops grown parallely
B. Strip cropping 2. Hill slopes are used as cultivable land in the form of flat cut
regions of slope
C. Contour ploughing 3. Along the slope of mountain
D. Crop rotation 4. Different crops grown in systematic succession
Option :
(a) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4
(b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
(c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
(d) A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3

8. Which of the following best describes the term Gender Equality?

(a) Treating individuals differently based on their gender to promote fairness.
(b) Ensuring equal rights, responsibilities, and opportunities for all genders.
(c) Giving preferential treatment to women in all aspects of society.
(d) Maintaining traditional gender roles to preserve cultural values.

9. Political parties play a crucial role in the functioning of a democracy. Which of the following are
functions of political parties in a democracy?
1. Contest elections
2. Formulate policies and programs
3. Ensure military control over government
4. Provide a platform for public debate
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

10. How does democracy contribute to the social development of a country like India?
(a) By restricting access to social services and maintaining traditional structures.
(b) By promoting inclusive policies, ensuring equal opportunities, and addressing social inequalities.
(c) By prioritizing economic growth over social welfare and education.
(d) By centralizing decision-making processes and reducing community involvement.

11. Belgium is known for its power-sharing model. Which of the following are key features of the
power-sharing arrangement in Belgium?
1. Equal representation of Dutch and French-speaking communities in the central government.
2. Special laws require the support of the majority of each linguistic group.
3. Power is concentrated in the hands of the majority community.
4. Community government exists for cultural, educational, and language-related matters.
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4


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12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In a federal system, both the central and state governments have their own powers
and responsibilities.
Statement II: In India, the central government can unilaterally abolish state governments without
any constitutional provisions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. The Indian Constitution provides equality before the law and prohibits discrimination on the basis
of _______, caste, religion, or place of birth.
(a) Education (b) Gender
(c) Wealth (d) Profession

14. What is globalization, and how has it impacted the Indian economy?
(a) Globalization refers to the isolation of national economies, reducing trade and investment
opportunities.
(b) Globalization is the integration of national economies through trade, investment, and technology
exchange, boosting economic growth in India.
(c) Globalization involves the strict regulation of international trade, limiting India’s economic
expansion.
(d) Globalization focuses solely on cultural exchange without affecting economic activities in India.

15. Development has different meanings for different people. Which of the following best describes
development for a rural farmer?
1. Access to modern agricultural tools
2. A high salary in an urban job
3. Better education for their children
4. Owning a large piece of farmland
Options :
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) Only 2

16. The primary sector in India involves activities such as agriculture, fishing, and _______ that
directly extract or use natural resources.
(a) Transport (b) Mining
(c) Retail (d) Tourism

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Money serves as a medium of exchange, a unit of account, and a store of value.
Statement II: Credit involves lending and borrowing money with interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

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18. Match the columns P and column Q and select correct option :
Column P Column Q
A. MNCs buy at cheap rates from small producers 1. Automobiles machinery hemo.
B. Quotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate 2. Garments, foot wear, sports.
trade items.
C. Indian companies who have invested abroad. 3. Call centres.
D. IT has helped in spreading of production of services. 4. Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy
E. Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories in 5. Trade barriers
India for production.
Option :
(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 5, E - 1
(b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 5, E - 4
(c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3, E - 5
(d) A - 2, B - 5, C - 4, D - 3, E - 1

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of 22 percent land under forests?

(a) It provides timber and forest products.
(b) It is mostly used for industrial purposes.
(c) It is reserved for urban development.
(d) It helps in mineral extraction.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Annual Rainfall (in mm) Irrigated Area (% of total cultivated land)
C 1200 40%
D 600 75%
Why does state D have a higher percentage of irrigated area despite lower rainfall?
(a) It has abundant river systems.
(b) It has better water conservation methods.
(c) It has fewer water storage facilities.
(d) It depends solely on rain-fed agriculture.


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SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “World War I transformed global political boundaries.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.


O
“The Treaty of Versailles was a catalyst for World War II.” Discuss the reasons why the Treaty of
Versailles contributed to the outbreak of World War II.

22. “Water scarcity is a growing global concern.” Explain the reasons behind it.

23. “Gender equality is fundamental to a just society.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

24. “Money facilitates trade by eliminating the inefficiencies of barter.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Over the past few decades, the number of banking institutions in India has increased, enhancing
financial inclusion. As a result, banking has become a fundamental part of India’s financial system.
Why has the banking sector become so important in India? Support your answer by giving any
three reasons.

26. “The invention of the printing press revolutionized the dissemination of knowledge.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Rohit has started organic farming on his land and wants to improve soil fertility naturally. He is
unfamiliar with organic farming techniques.” Assist him in identifying effective organic farming
practices to enhance soil fertility.


O
“Anjali plans to cultivate multiple crops on her farm to increase productivity. However, she is
unsure about crop rotation and its benefits.” Guide her in understanding and implementing crop
rotation to improve farm productivity.

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28. “Political parties play a crucial role in a democracy.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

29. With the influx of foreign direct investment (FDI), India’s industrial sector has seen substantial
growth and modernization. Consequently, FDI has become a key driver of India’s economic
development. Why has foreign direct investment become so significant in India? Support your
answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Treaty of Vienna depicted the spirit of conservatism.’ Substantiate the statement with key
features of the treaty.


O
‘The Industrial Revolution played a crucial role in the rise of nationalism in Europe.’ Explain the
statement with relevant points.

31. Ravi’s village is located near a coal mine, and he is concerned about its environmental impact.
What are the environmental consequences of coal mining, and how can these be mitigated?


O
Meena observes that the use of renewable energy is increasing in her town. What are the benefits
of renewable energy sources, and why should they be promoted over non-renewable resources?

32. ‘Democracy is expected to produce a responsive and accountable government.’ Explain how
democracy ensures accountability.


O
‘The outcomes of democracy must be measured in terms of both political and social indicators.’
Analyse the broader outcomes of democracy.

33. Miss X wants to improve the economic condition of her village. She strongly believes that human
development is a key factor for sustained growth. How can investments in education, healthcare, and
social services contribute to the overall development of her region, and how can this improvement
lead to economic progress? Provide examples and reasons to support your answer.


O
Mr. P, from a well-developed city, moves to a rural area and finds that despite economic growth,
basic amenities like clean water and schools are lacking. How does this reflect the concept of
development? Suggest ways to improve development in such areas, focusing on both economic and
social factors.

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SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in January 1915. As you know, he had come from South Africa
where he had successfully fought the racist-regime with a novel method of mass agitation, which
he called satyagaha. It suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice,
then physical force was not necessary to fight the oppressor. Without seeking vengeance or being
aggressive, a satyagrahi could win the battle through non-violence.
On l3 April a large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwalla Bagh. Some came to
protest against the government’s new repressive measures. Other had come to attend the annual
Baisakhi fair. Being from outside the city, many villagers were unaware of the martial law that had
been imposed. Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points, and opened fire on the crowd killing
hundreds.
The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left
government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up
their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras.
Questions :
1. What do you mean by the idea of Satyagraha?
2. By which episode most of the people gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh?
3. Which movement was talking about in the paragraph? What does it mean to the people?

35. Read the given case and answer the questions that follow :
Challenges faced by the Jute industry include stiff competition in the international market from
synthetic substitutes and from other competitors like Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and
Thailand. However, the internal demand has been on the increase due to the Government policy of
mandatory use of jute packaging. To stimulate demand, the products need to be diversified. In 2005,
National Jute Policy was formulated with the objective of increasing productivity, improving quality,
ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing the yield per hectare. The main markets are
U.S.A., Canada, Russia, United Arab Republic, U.K. and Australia. The growing global concern
for environment friendly, biodegradable materials, has once again opened the opportunity for jute
products.
Questions :
1. Mention any two challenges faced by ‘jute industry’ in India.
2. What was the main objective of National Jute Policy formulated in 2005 ?
3. How has jute industry once again opened the new opportunities for its products ?

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36. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought
to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically
elected government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.
In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding
Tamil.
The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official
language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs. But
their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By
1980’s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state)
in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka.
The Belgian leaders took a different path. They recognised the existence of regional differences and
cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to
work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country. The
arrangement they worked out is different from any other country and is very innovative.
Questions:
1. Which act recognises the Sinhala as the only official language?
2. Who launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official language?
3. How many time Belgium amended their constitution?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in December 1920.
(B) The place where Salt Law was broken by Mahatma Gandhi.
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable
Symbols:
(i) Paradwip-Major Seaport
(ii) Noida-Software Technology Park
(iii)Salem-Iron and Steel industry
(iv) Kalpakkam-Nuclear Power Plant

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 04 Page 1

Sample Paper 04
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Identify the picture-

(a) Tripitaka Korena (b) Diamond sutra

(c) Ukiyo (d) Jikji


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2. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence and select correct option.
1. Frederic Sorrieu prepared a series of 4 paintings.
2. French Revolution.
3. Napoleon was defeated.
4. Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed the king of united Italy.
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2 (b) 2, 3, 1, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. The Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 aimed to achieve which
of the following objectives?
(a) To demand complete independence through non-violent means and self-rule.
(b) To overthrow British rule by using armed rebellion and force.
(c) To promote cooperation between Indians and the British government for reforms.
(d) To negotiate for dominion status with limited self-government under British rule.

4. The ‘Silk Route’ was an important trade route that linked the East and the West. Which of the
following goods were commonly traded along the Silk Route?
1. Silk and spices
2. Precious metals like gold and silver
3. Slaves and textiles
4. Cotton and sugar
Options :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

5. Which of the following crops is grown mainly in regions with high temperatures and heavy rainfall
in India?
(a) Wheat, which is suited for cooler climates and requires moderate rainfall.
(b) Rice, which thrives in areas with high temperatures and abundant water.
(c) Maize, which can grow in a variety of climates but requires moderate rainfall.
(d) Barley, which is primarily grown in cooler regions with low rainfall.

6. Minerals and energy resources are crucial for India’s development. Identify the correct statements.
1. Coal is the most abundant mineral resource in India.
2. India is the largest producer of bauxite in the world.
3. Petroleum is primarily extracted from the eastern regions of India.
4. Renewable energy sources are negligible in India’s energy mix.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

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7. Choose the correct option from columns A and B.

Column A Column B
A. Chandrapur Thermal power plant 1 Odisha
B. Mayurbhanj iron ore mines 2. Amarkantak
C. Kalol oil fields 3. Gujarat
D. Bauxite mines 4. Jharkhand
Option :
(a) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1
(c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1 (d) A - 3, B - 1, C -4, D - 2

8. Why are political parties considered essential for the functioning of a democracy?
(a) They concentrate power in the hands of a few leaders to ensure efficient governance.
(b) They provide a platform for representing diverse interests and forming governments.
(c) They eliminate the need for elections by controlling all aspects of governance.
(d) They focus solely on maintaining law and order without engaging in policy-making.

9. Democracy provides people with the opportunity to choose their representatives. Which of the
following are outcomes of democratic elections?
1. Free and fair elections
2. Choice of multiple political parties
3. Representation of all social groups
4. Government accountability to the people
Options :
(a) 1, 3, and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

10. Which principle ensures that no single branch of government in India becomes too powerful,
thereby maintaining a balance of power?
(a) Federalism (b) Separation of Powers
(c) Judicial Review (d) Parliamentary Sovereignty

11. Federalism allows for the division of powers between different levels of government. Which of the
following subjects fall under the State List in India’s federal system?
1. Police and public order
2. Defense and foreign affairs
3. Agriculture
4. Communication
Options :
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 3

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12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Indian Constitution provides for the abolition of untouchability.
Statement II: Discrimination based on caste is still prevalent in many parts of India despite
constitutional provisions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. In India, the Election Commission is responsible for recognizing political parties as either
_______ parties or regional parties based on their performance in elections.
(a) National (b) Parliamentary
(c) State (d) Local

14. Which of the following indicators is commonly used to measure the economic development of a
country by assessing its overall wealth and standard of living?
(a) Gross Domestic Product (GDP), which calculates the total economic output.
(b) Literacy Rate, which measures the educational attainment of the population.
(c) Life Expectancy, which indicates the average lifespan of citizens.
(d) Human Development Index (HDI), which combines multiple social and economic factors.

15. The three sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, and tertiary) are interdependent. Which of
the following statements about the Indian economy are correct?
1. The primary sector includes agriculture and related activities.
2. The tertiary sector provides services like education and healthcare.
3. The secondary sector produces raw materials for the primary sector.
4. The tertiary sector is the largest employer in India.
Options :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, and 4 (d) 3 and 4

16. In modern economies, most transactions are made using _______ money, such as currency
notes and bank deposits, which are widely accepted as a medium of exchange.
(a) Barter (b) Commodity
(c) Plastic (d) Paper

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Globalization leads to increased interconnectedness of economies around the world.
Statement II: Globalization has no impact on cultural exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

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18. Match the following and choose correct option:

Problems faced by farming sector Some possible measures
1. Unirrigated land A. a Setting up agro-based mills
2. Low prices for crops B. b Cooperative marketing societies
3. Debt burden C. c Procurement of food grains by government
4. No job in the off season D. d Construction of canals by the government
5. Compelled to sell their grains to the E. e Banks to provide credit with low interest
local traders soon after harvest
(a) 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-E
(b) 1-D 2-C 3-E 4-A 5-B
(c) 1-C 2-D 3-E 4-A 5-B
(d) 1-B 2-C 3-E 4-D 5-A

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why do tropical deciduous forests cover 35% of the total forest cover?
(a) These forests are found in high-altitude regions.
(b) They shed their leaves in the dry season.
(c) They are found in the coastal areas.
(d) They are mostly located in desert regions.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Wheat Production (in tons per hectare) Rice Production (in tons per hectare)
E 3 4.5
F 2.5 6
Why does state F have higher rice production compared to wheat production?
(a) It has better soil for rice cultivation.
(b) It has fewer farmers involved in wheat farming.
(c) It lacks rice cultivation techniques.
(d) It has poor irrigation facilities.

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SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Gutenberg’s printing press revolutionized information dissemination.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.


O
“The printing press played a crucial role in the Reformation.” Explain how the printing press
influenced the Protestant Reformation.

22. “Green Revolution transformed Indian agriculture.” Explain its impact.

23. “Political parties are essential for democratic functioning.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

24. “Globalization has led to greater interdependence among nations.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Since the economic liberalization in 1991, India’s trade with other countries has increased
significantly, enhancing export and import activities. As a result, international trade has become
a vital part of India’s economy. Why has international trade become so important for India’s
economy? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

26. “The French Revolution created a sense of national unity and identity.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

27. “Arun is exploring investment opportunities in the mining sector but is unsure about the key
minerals found in his region.” Help him identify the major minerals available in his area and their
potential uses.


O
“Nisha wants to set up a small-scale energy plant using renewable resources. She is unfamiliar
with the types of renewable energy suitable for her location.” Guide her in identifying the most
appropriate renewable energy sources for her area based on local conditions.

28. “Democracy promotes equality among citizens.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

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29. In the last few decades, India has made significant progress in reducing poverty levels through
various government initiatives. As a result, poverty alleviation has become a major focus in India’s
development agenda. Why is poverty alleviation crucial for India’s overall development? Support
your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Partition of Bengal ignited the nationalist movement in India.’ Substantiate the statement
with key features.


O
‘The Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant phase in India’s struggle for independence.’
Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

31. Sunil notices that industries in his town are polluting the nearby river. What are the environmental
impacts of industrial pollution, and what steps can industries take to reduce pollution?


O
Rani’s town is known for its textile industry, but many workers face poor working conditions.
What are the challenges faced by workers in the manufacturing sector, and how can their working
conditions be improved?

32. ‘Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.’ Analyse the statement with relevant points.


O
‘Belgium’s model of power sharing helped to avoid a civil war.’ Justify this statement with suitable
examples.

33. Miss X is interested in understanding why the tertiary sector has grown faster than the primary
and secondary sectors in recent years. Explain the reasons for the rapid growth of the tertiary
sector, particularly in services like IT, healthcare, and education, and how this shift has impacted
the Indian economy.


O
Ramesh, a fisherman (primary sector), sells his catch to traders who process and package it
(secondary sector), and then it’s sold in urban markets (tertiary sector). How do these sectors
interact, and what role does each play in the economy?

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SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :
The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as trade. The market is
the place where such exchanges take place. Trade between two countries is called international
trade. It may take place through sea, air or land routes. While local trade is carried in cities, towns
and villages, state level trade is carried between two or more states. Advancement of international
trade of a country is an index to its economic prosperity. It is, therefore, considered the economic
barometer for a country.
As the resources are space bound, no country can survive without international trade. Export and
import are the components of trade. The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its
export and import. When the value of export exceeds the value of imports, it is called a favourable
balance of trade. On the contrary, if the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed
as unfavourable balance of trade.
India has trade relations with all the major trading blocks and all geographical regions of the world.
The commodities exported from India to other countries include gems and jewellery, chemicals and
related products, agriculture and allied products, etc.
The commodities imported to India include petroleum crude and products, gems and jewellery,
chemicals and related products, base metals, electronic items, machinery, agriculture and allied
products. India has emerged as a software giant at the international level and it is earning large
foreign exchange through the export of information technology.
Questions :
1. What do you mean by international trade?
2. What is meant by favourable and unfavourable balance of trade?
3. What are the commodities export and imported by India in international trade?

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion. The
processes of soil formation and erosion go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance
between the two. Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation,
over-grazing, construction and mining etc., while natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to
soil erosion. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies.
The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin such lands
are called ravines. Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases
the top soil is washed away. This is known as sheet erosion. Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping
land known as wind erosion. Soil erosion is also caused due to defective methods of farming.
Ploughing in a wrong way i.e. up and down the slope form channels for the quick flow of water
leading to soil erosion.
Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This is called
contour ploughing. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts
erosion. Western and central Himalayas have well developed terrace farming. Large fields can be

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 04 Page 9

divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops. This breaks up the force of the
wind. This method is known as strip cropping. Planting lines of trees to create shelter also works
in a similar way. Rows of such trees are called shelter belts. These shelter belts have contributed
significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India.
Questions:
1. The balance of soil formation and erosion is disturbed due to human activities. Give one
example to prove the statement.
2. What is soil conservation?
3. Differentiate between gully erosion and sheet erosion.

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
DECENTRALISATION IN INDIA
This new system of local government is the largest experiment in democracy conducted anywhere in
the world. There are now about 36 lakh elected representatives in the panchayats and municipalities
etc., all over the country. This number is bigger then the population of many countries in the
world. Constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in our country.
It has also increased women’s representation and voice in our democracy. At the same time,
there are many difficulties. While elections are held regularly of Panchayats and people participate
enthusiastically in it but meetings of gram sabhas are not held regularly.
Questions :
1. Why is Indian decentralisation considered as the largest experiment in democracy ?
2. Analyse how constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in
India ?
3. Explain any two steps taken by the Indian Government for decentralisation.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The location of the Indian National Congress Session of 1927.
B. A place where Gandhiji ceremonially violated the Salt Law and manufactured salt by
boiling salt sea water.

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(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable
symbols.
C. A major port on the South-East coast of India.
D. A major sugarcane producing state.
E. A Software Technology Park
F. A major dam in Odisha.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 05 Page 1

Sample Paper 05
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Study the picture and answer the following question-

Who designed the cover of German almanac?

(a) Otto von Bismarck (b) Andreas Rebmann
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Napoleon

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2. Arrange the following events in the ascending year of their occurrence :-

1. Poona Act
2. Mahatma Gandhi got arrested
3. Gandhi Irwin Pact
4. Bhagat singh and two others were sentenced to death
Options :
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. The Great Depression of 1929 had a devastating impact on the global economy. Which was a
primary cause?
(a) The collapse of the stock market in the United States, leading to economic instability worldwide.
(b) The end of colonialism, which disrupted trade and investment between Europe and Asia.
(c) The rapid industrialization of Africa and South America, which caused a decline in European
markets.
(d) The invention of steam engines, which reduced demand for labor in Europe and the US.

4. In colonial India, print culture played a significant role in spreading nationalist ideas. Which of
the following contributed to the growth of print culture in India?
1. Establishment of printing presses in the 19th century
2. Growth of vernacular languages
3. Rise of reform movements
4. Suppression of political dissent by the British
Options :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

5. Which of the following is a conventional source of energy that is widely used for generating
electricity in India?
(a) Wind energy, which is a renewable source of energy.
(b) Coal, which is a fossil fuel and the main source of electricity generation.
(c) Solar energy, which is increasingly being used in some regions.
(d) Biomass energy, which is derived from organic matter.

6. Manufacturing industries are essential for India’s economic growth. Identify the correct statements.
1. The textile industry is one of the oldest and largest manufacturing sectors in India.
2. The automobile industry in India primarily produces vehicles for domestic consumption only.
3. Small-scale industries contribute significantly to employment in India.
4. Information technology is not considered a part of manufacturing industries.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

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7. Match the following items given in column-I with those in column-II. Choose the correct answer
from the codes given below :
Column-I Column-II
A. Contour ploughing 1. Planting lines of trees.
B. Strip cropping 2. Western and Eastern Himalaya.
C. Shelter belts 3. Grass are left to grow between crops.
D. Terrace cultivation 4. Decelerate the flow of water
Option :
(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2
(b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1
(d) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

8. Which of the following is a positive outcome of democracy in India?

(a) Increased political participation and representation of diverse groups.
(b) Concentration of power in the hands of a few individuals.
(c) Suppression of dissenting voices and opposition parties.
(d) Limited access to education and healthcare services.

9. Power-sharing is an essential feature of democracy. Which of the following statements about

power-sharing are correct?
1. Power is concentrated in the hands of the majority.
2. Power is shared among different levels of government.
3. Power-sharing helps reduce the possibility of conflict in society.
4. Power is divided equally among all citizens.
Options :
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

10. Which list in the Indian Constitution contains subjects on which only the central government can
legislate?
(a) State List (b) Concurrent List
(c) Union List (d) Regional List

11. Religious diversity is a defining characteristic of India. Which of the following statements about
secularism in India are correct?
1. The government recognizes one religion as the official religion.
2. The state treats all religions equally.
3. Citizens are free to practice any religion.
4. Religious communities are required to follow government-imposed practices.
Options :
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

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12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Political parties are essential for the functioning of a democracy.
Statement II: All political parties in India must be registered under the Representation of the
People Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. One of the key outcomes of democracy is the promotion of _______ equality, where every
adult citizen has the right to vote regardless of their social or economic status.
(a) Political (b) Economic
(c) Religious (d) Gender

14. How does the secondary sector contribute to the Indian economy?
(a) By providing services such as education, healthcare, and banking.
(b) By transforming raw materials into finished goods through manufacturing and construction.
(c) By engaging in activities related to information technology and research.
(d) By focusing on agricultural production and resource extraction.

15. Credit plays an important role in the economy by providing financial resources to individuals and
businesses. Which of the following are advantages of taking credit?
1. Ability to purchase expensive goods and services
2. Increased ability to start or expand a business
3. No need to pay back the borrowed amount
4. Greater financial flexibility
Options :
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2, and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

16. Multinational corporations (MNCs) are a key driver of globalization, as they operate in multiple
countries and often establish _______ in developing nations to reduce production costs.
(a) Offices (b) Industries
(c) Subsidiaries (d) Supply chains

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Human Development Index (HDI) measures economic development only.
Statement II: HDI includes indicators such as life expectancy, education, and per capita income.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

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18. Match the words in column A with suitable options in column B.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
A. Silk routes 1. Institution set-up to finance postwar reconstruction.
B. G-77 2. Carnival in Trinidad
C. Canal colonies 3. Pre-modern trade links
D. World Bank 4. Countries demanding a new international economic order
E. Hosay 5. Semi-desert wastes in the Punjab transformed by irrigation
(a) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2. E - 5
(b) A - 3, B - 4, C - 5, D - 1, E - 2
(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 5, D - 1, E - 2
(d) A - 5, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1, E - 2

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of 50 percent of the land being used for wildlife sanctuaries?
(a) It helps in the conservation of biodiversity.
(b) It is primarily used for agricultural purposes.
(c) It promotes urban development.
(d) It is used for grazing livestock.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Coal Production (in million tons) Iron Ore Production (in million tons)
G 15 20
H 10 25
Why does state H have higher iron ore production than coal production?
(a) It has more iron ore reserves.
(b) It has a higher demand for coal.
(c) It lacks the technology for coal mining.
(d) It imports iron ore from other states.

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SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Napoleon played a crucial role in spreading nationalist ideas across Europe.” Explain how
Napoleon contributed to European nationalism.


O
“Unification of Germany was largely driven by nationalist movements.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

22. “Coal is a vital energy resource in India.” Explain its significance.

23. “Democracy ensures accountability of the government.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

24. “Poverty is the most serious obstacle to development.” Explain why this is true.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Between 1980 and 2020, India’s healthcare facilities have expanded, resulting in improved health
outcomes and increased life expectancy. Consequently, the healthcare sector has become a key
component of India’s development. Why has the healthcare sector become so vital in India’s
development process? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

26. “Mahatma Gandhi’s leadership transformed the nature of the Indian national movement.” Explain
the statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Rahul wants to start a small-scale garment manufacturing unit. However, he is unfamiliar with
the raw materials and machinery required.” Assist him in identifying the essential raw materials
and machinery needed for garment manufacturing.


O
“Sneha plans to establish an automobile assembly plant but lacks knowledge about the critical
factors for setting up such an industry.” Guide her in identifying the key factors necessary for
establishing a successful automobile assembly plant.

28. “Power sharing is necessary to prevent dictatorship.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

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29. With the advent of information technology, the IT sector in India has experienced significant
growth, attracting foreign investments. Consequently, the IT sector has become a key driver of
India’s economic development. Why has the IT sector become so influential in India’s economy?
Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. The Industrial Revolution transformed the global economy.’ Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.


O
‘The Scramble for Africa was a direct consequence of European imperialism.’ Substantiate the
statement with key features.

31. Ravi notices that many rivers in his region are highly polluted. What are the main causes of water
pollution, and what measures can be taken to control it?


O
Rani sees that a nearby dam project has displaced many families. What are the advantages and
disadvantages of large dam projects, and how can displacement issues be addressed?

32. ‘Federalism promotes unity while respecting diversity.’ Analyse this statement with relevant points.


O
‘India’s federal structure is unique due to its union of states.’ Explain the features of Indian
federalism.

33. Mr. Y is learning about the role of banks in the modern economy. How do commercial banks create
credit, and why is the availability of credit important for promoting investment and economic
growth?


O
A small business owner is denied a loan from a bank due to lack of collateral. How does the lack
of formal credit access affect small businesses, and what alternatives could help entrepreneurs get
the credit they need?

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SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Gutenberg was the son of a merchant and grew up on a large agricultural estate. From his childhood,
he had seen wine and olive presses. Subsequently, he learnt the art of polishing stones, became a
master goldsmith, and also acquired the expertise to create lead moulds used for making trinkets.
Drawing on this knowledge, Gutenberg adapted existing technology to design his innovation. The
olive press provided the model for the printing press, and moulds were used for casting the metal
types for the letters of the alphabet. By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the system. The first book he
printed was the Bible. About 180 copies were printed and it took three years to produce them. By
the standards of the time this was fast production.
Questions:
1. Who was Gutenberg?
2. What were some of the professional skills acquired by Gutenberg?
3. What contribution was made by Gutenberg in the field of press?

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion. The
processes of soil formation and erosion, go on simultaneously, and generally there is balance between
the two.
Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, over-grazing,
construction and mining, etc. While natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to soil erosion,
the running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies.
The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin, such lands
are called ravines. Sometimes, water flows as sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the
top soil is washed away. This is known as sheet erosion.
Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping land known as wind erosion. Soil erosion is also caused due
to defective methods of farming. Ploughing in a wrong way i.e. up and down the slope from channels
for the quick flow of water leading to soil erosion.
Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This is called
contour ploughing. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts
erosion. Western and Central Himalayas have well developed terrace farming. Large field can be
divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops.
This breaks up the force of the wind. This method is known as strip cropping. Planting line of trees
to create shelter also works in similar way. Rows of such trees are called shelter belts. These shelter
belts have contributed significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert
in Western India.
Questions :
1. Are humans responsible for soil erosion? If yes, How?
2. What are the negative consequences of deforestation over soil erosion?

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3. State any two positive and negative impacts of soil erosion on biodiversity.

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
How many languages do we have in India ? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest
information that we have is from the Census of India held in 2011. This census recorded more than
1300 distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages were
grouped together under some major languages. For example languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi,
Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many others were grouped together under ‘Hindi’.
Even after this grouping, the Census found 121 major languages. Of these 22 languages are now
included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore called ‘Scheduled
Languages’. Others are called ‘Non-Scheduled Languages’. In terms of languages, India is perhaps
the most diverse country in the world.
Questions :
1. Explain the importance of language diversity in India.
2. Differentiate between Scheduled and Non-Scheduled Languages.
3. The fusion of languages has united the country into one cultural entity.’ Explain the statement
with an example.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) Peasant Satyagrah in Gujarat.
(B) Jallianwalla Bagh incident
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable
symbols.
(i) A place where Arid soil is found
(ii) Tungabhadra Dam
(iii)Largest producer of tea in India.
(iv) Mumbai High

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