4.

23
Auditing standards do not require auditors of financial statements to
A. Understand the nature of errors and frauds.
B. Assess the risk of occurrence of errors and frauds.
C. Design audits to provide reasonable assurance of detecting errors and frauds.
D. Report all errors and frauds found to police authorities.

4.24
If sales were overstated by recording a false credit sale at the end of the year, where could you
find the false “dangling debit”?
A. Inventory.
B. Cost of goods sold.
C. Bad debt expense.
D. Accounts receivable.

4.25
One of the typical characteristics of management fraud is
A. Falsification of documents in order to misappropriate funds from an employer.
B. Victimization of investors through the use of materially misleading financial statements.
C. Illegal acts committed by management to evade laws and regulations.
D. Conversion of stolen inventory to cash deposited in a falsified bank account.

4.26
Which of the following circumstances would most likely cause an audit team to perform
extended procedures?
A. Supporting documents are produced when requested.
B. The client made several large adjustments at or near year-end.
C. The company has recently hired a new chief financial officer after the previous one
retired.
D. The company maintains several different petty cash funds.
4.27
The likelihood that material misstatements may have entered the accounting system and not been
detected and corrected by the client’s internal control is referred to as
A. Inherent risk.
B. Control risk.
C. Detection risk.
D. Risk of material misstatement.

4.28
The risk of material misstatement is composed of which audit risk components?
A. Inherent risk and control risk.
B. Control risk and detection risk.
C. Inherent risk and detection risk.
D. Inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk.

4.29
The risk that the auditors’ own testing procedures will lead to the decision that material
misstatements do not exist in the financial statements when in fact such misstatements do exist is
A. Audit risk.
B. Inherent risk.
C. Control risk.
D. Detection risk.

4.30
If tests of controls induce the audit team to change the assessed level of control risk for fixed
assets from low to high and audit risk and inherent risk remain constant, the acceptable level of
detection risk is most likely to
A. Change from moderate to high.
B. Change from low to moderate.
C. Change from high to moderate.
D. Be unchanged.
4.31
Which of the following is a specific audit procedure that would be completed in response to a
particular fraud risk in an account balance or class of transactions?
A. Exercising more professional skepticism.
B. Carefully avoiding conducting interviews with people in areas that are most susceptible
to fraud.
C. Performing procedures such as inventory observation and cash counts on a surprise or
unannounced basis.
D. Studying management’s selection and application of accounting principles more
carefully.

4.32
Analytical procedures are generally used to produce evidence from
A. Confirmations mailed directly to the auditors by client customers.
B. Physical observation of inventories.
C. Relationships among current financial balances and prior balances, forecasts, and
nonfinancial data.
D. Detailed examination of external, external-internal, and internal documents.

4.33
Which of the following relationships between types of analytical procedures and sources of
information are most logical?
Type of Analytical Procedure Source of Information
A. Comparison of current account balances with prior Physical production statistics
periods
B. Comparison of current account balances with expected Company’s budgets and
balances forecasts
C. Evaluation of current account balances with relation to Published industry ratios
predictable historical patterns
D. Evaluation of current account balances in relation to Company’s own comparative
nonfinancial information financial statements

4.34
Analytical procedures can be used in which of the following ways?
A. As a means of overall review near the end of the audit.
B. As “attention-directing” methods when planning an audit at the beginning.
C. As substantive audit procedures to obtain evidence during an audit.
D. All of the above.
4.35
Analytical procedures used when planning an audit should concentrate on
A. Weaknesses in the company’s internal control activities.
B. Predictability of account balances based on individual significant transactions.
C. Management assertions in financial statements.
D. Accounts and relationships that can represent specific potential problems and risks in the
financial statements.

4.36
When a company that sells its products with a positive gross profit increases its sales by 15
percent and its cost of goods sold by 7 percent, the cost of goods sold ratio will
A. Increase.
B. Decrease.
C. Remain unchanged.
D. Not be able to be determined with the information provided.

4.37
Auditors are not responsible for accounting estimates with respect to
A. Making the estimates.
B. Determining the reasonableness of estimates.
C. Determining that estimates are presented in conformity with GAAP.
D. Determining that estimates are adequately disclosed in the financial statements.

4.38
An audit strategy memorandum contains
A. Specifications of auditing standards relevant to the financial statements being audited.
B. Specifications of procedures the auditors believe appropriate for the financial statements
under audit.
C. Documentation of the assertions under audit, the evidence obtained, and the conclusions
reached.
D. Reconciliation of the account balances in the financial statements with the account
balances in the client’s general ledger.
4.39
It is acceptable under generally accepted auditing standards for an audit team to
A. Assess risk of material misstatement at high and achieve an acceptably low audit risk by
performing extensive substantive tests.
B. Assess control risk at zero and perform a minimum of substantive testing.
C. Assess inherent risk at zero and perform a minimum of substantive testing.
D. Decide that audit risk can be high.

4.40
Under the Private Securities Litigation Reform Act (the act), independent auditors are required to
first
A. Report in writing all instances of noncompliance with the act to the client’s board of
directors.
B. Report to the SEC all instances of noncompliance with the act they believe have a
material effect on financial statements if the board of directors does not first report to the
SEC.
C. Report clearly inconsequential noncompliance with the act to the audit committee of the
client’s board of directors.
D. Resign from the audit engagement and report the instances of noncompliance with the act
to the SEC.

4.41
When evaluating whether accounting estimates made by management are reasonable, auditors
would be most interested in which of the following?
A. Key factors that are consistent with prior periods.
B. Assumptions that are similar to industry guidelines.
C. Measurements that are objective and not susceptible to bias.
D. Evidence of a conservative systematic bias.

4.42
An audit committee is
A. Composed of internal auditors.
B. Composed of members of the audit team.
C. Composed of members of a company’s board of directors who are not involved in the
day-to-day operations of the company.
D. A committee composed of persons not associating in any way with the client or the board
of directors.
4.43
When auditors become aware of noncompliance with a law or regulation committed by client
personnel, the primary reason that the auditors should obtain a better understanding of the nature
of the act is to
A. Recommend remedial actions to the audit committee.
B. Evaluate the effect of the noncompliance on the financial statements.
C. Determine whether to contact law enforcement officials.
D. Determine whether other similar acts could have occurred.

4.44
Which of the following statements best describes auditors’ responsibility for detecting a client’s
noncompliance with a law or regulation?
A. The responsibility for detecting noncompliance exactly parallels the responsibility for
errors and fraud.
B. Auditors must design tests to detect all material noncompliance that indirectly affect the
financial statements.
C. Auditors must design tests to obtain reasonable assurance that all noncompliance with
direct material financial statement effects is detected.
D. Auditors must design tests to detect all noncompliance that directly affects the financial
statements.

4.45
Auditors perform analytical procedures in the planning stage of an audit for the purpose of
A. Deciding the matters to cover in an engagement letter.
B. Identifying unusual conditions that deserve more auditing effort.
C. Determining which of the financial statement assertions are the most important for the
client’s financial statements.
D. Determining the nature, timing, and extent of further audit procedures for auditing the
inventory.

4.46
A primary objective of analytical procedures used in the final review stage of an audit is to
A. Identify account balances that represent specific risks relevant to the audit.
B. Gather evidence from tests of details to corroborate financial statement assertions.
C. Detect fraud that may cause the financial statements to be misstated.
D. Assist the auditor in evaluating the overall financial statement presentation.
4.47
An auditor’s analytical procedures indicate a lower than expected return on an equity method
investment. This situation most likely could have been caused by
A. An error in recording amortization of the excess of the investor’s cost over the
investment’s underlying book value.
B. The investee’s decision to reduce cash dividends declared per share of its common stock.
C. An error in recording the unrealized gain from an increase in the fair value of available-
for sale securities in the income account for trading securities.
D. A substantial fluctuation in the price of the investee’s common stock on a national stock
exchange.

4.48
Which of the following risk types increase when an auditor performs substantive analytical audit
procedures for financial statement accounts at an interim date?
A. Inherent
B. Control
C. Detection
D. Sampling

4.49
Which of the following matters relating to an entity’s operations would an auditor most likely
consider as an inherent risk factor in planning an audit?
A. The entity’s fiscal year ends on June 30.
B. The entity enters into significant derivative transactions as hedges.
C. The entity’s financial statements are generated at an outside service center.
D. The entity’s financial data is available only in computer-readable form.

4.50
What is the primary objective of the fraud brainstorming session?
A. Determine audit risk and materiality.
B. Identify whether analytical procedures should be applied to the revenue accounts.
C. Assess the potential for material misstatement due to fraud.
D. Determine whether the planned procedures in the audit plan will satisfy the general audit
objectives.
Answers:
4.23 D
4.24 D
4.25 B
4.26 B
4.27 D
4.28 A
4.29 D
4.30 C
4.31 C
4.32 C
4.33 B
4.34 D
4.35 D
4.36 B
4.37 A
4.38 B
4.39 A
4.40 B
4.41 D
4.42 C
4.43 B
4.44 C
4.45 B
4.46 D
4.47 A
4.48 C
4.49 B
4.50 C