TARGET KCET 2023

MOCK TEST - 3
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Important instructions to candidate

1. In case of usage of signs and symbols in the questions, the regular textbook connotation should be considered unless
stated otherwise.

2. This question booklet contains 240 questions and each question will have one statement and four different options/
responses & out of which you have to choose one correct answer.

3. After the 3rd Bell rings, remove the paper seal of this question booklet and check that this booklet does not have any
unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc. if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet. Read each item and start
answering on the OMR answer sheet.

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scanner. Therefore, avoid multiple markings of any kind on the OMR answer sheet.

6. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet for the
same.

7. After the last bell rings stop writing on the OMR answer sheet and affix your left hand thumb impression on the OMR
answer sheet as per the instruction.

8. Hand over the OMR answer sheet to the room invigilator as it is.

9. After separating the top sheet(office copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidate’s copy) to you.

SYLLABUS
Physics : Complete syllabus

Chemistry : Complete syllabus

Mathematics : Complete syllabus

Biology : Complete syllabus

Name of the Student: ______________________________________ Roll No:_____________________________

 PHYSICS
1. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the
amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic
wave propagating in vacuum is equal to:
(1) the speed of light in vacuum
(2) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum
(3) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the (3) (4)
electric susceptibility of vacuum
(4) unity
2. The figure shows a plot of photocurrent versus 4. Two forces of magnitude 1N and 13N have
anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for
three different radiations. Which one of the resultant of magnitude 6 5N , then what is the
following is a correct statement? angle between the two forces?
where i = photocurrent , V = Anode potential 1 1 5
1
(1) cos (2) cos
13 13
1 13 1 13
(3) cos (4) cos
5 7
5. Hydrogen molecular ion (H2+) is shown.
[It is formed by removing one of the two
electrons of H2 molecule].
(1) Curves a and b represent incident
radiations of different frequencies and
different intensities
(2) Curves a and b represent incident
radiations of same frequency but different
intensities
(3) Curves b and c represents incident
radiations of different frequencies and
different intensities
The potential energy of the system is (Take ‘zero
(4) Curves b and c represents incident
of energy’ at infinity)
radiations of same frequencies having the
same intensity (1) 30.7  1019 J (2) 15.35  1019 J
3. Truth table for the given circuit (see figure) is (3) 15.35 1018 J (4) 1 k J
6. Given following statements:
Statement A: In the process of photoelectric
emission, all the emitted photoelectrons have the
same kinetic energy.
Statement B: The photon tranfers its whole
energy to the electrons of the atom in
photoelectric effect.
(1) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is
true.
(2) Both statement A and statement B are true.
(1) (2)
(3) Both statement A and statement B are
false.

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 (4) Statement A is correct but statement B is GMm 2GMm
false. (1)  (2) 
r r
7. Two blocks of masses 2m0 and m0 as shown
connected by a spring (constant K). The spring GMm
(3)  (4) Zero
breaks suddenly, what is initial download 2r
acceleration (a0) of the upper block immediately 10. Given following statements:
after the spring breaks? Statement A: In the phenomenon of mutual
induction, self induction of each of the coils
persists.
Statement B: Self induction arises when
stength of current in same coil changes. In
mutual induction, current is changing in both the
individual coils.
(1) Statement A is false but statement B is
true.
(2) Both statement A and statement B are true.
(3) Both statement A and statement B are
g g 3g false.
(1) g (2) (3) (4)
2 3 2 (4) Statement A is true but statement B is
8. Which of the following diagrams most closely false.
shows the variation in kinetic energy Ek of the 11. When a tensile force of 33000 N is applied on a
Earth as it moves once around the sun in its steel rod of area of cross-section 103 m2 ,
elliptical orbit? certain amount of change in length (l ) is
observed. But, if this same (l ) is to be
produced by thermal means, the same rod is to
be heated to [Given: modulus of elasticity of steel
(1) (2)  3 1011 N /m2 and coefficient of linear
expansion of steel  1.1  105 C 1 ]
(1) 100C (2) 50C (3) 5C (4) 10C
12. On a new scale of temperature (which is linear)
called the W scale, the freezing and boiling points
(3) (4) of water are 39oW and 239o W, respectively.
What will be the temperature on the new scale,
corresponding to a temperature of 30oC on the
Celsius scale?
9. Two satellites of same mass m are revolving
(1) 78o W (2) 117o W
round the Earth E (mass M) in the same orbit of o
(3) 200 W (4) 139o W
radius r. Rotational directions of the two are
opposite therefore, they collide inelastically and 13. The water equivalent of a 400g copper
stick with each other. Total mechanical energy calorimeter (specific heat = 0.1 cal/goC) is :
of the system just after the collision is (both (1) 40 g (2) 4000 g (3) 200 g (4) 4 g
satellites and Earth) is (m < < M): 14. Consdier P - V diagram for an ideal gas.

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 Out of the following diagrams, which represents (1)    yo /4 (2)    yo /2
T - P diagram?
(3)    yo (4)   2 yo
19. Six charges, three positive and three negative,
of equal magnitude are to be placed at the
(i) (ii)
vertices of a regular hexagon such that the
electric field at O is double the electric field when
only one positive charge of same magnitude is
placed at R. Which of the following
arrangements of charges is possiblefor P, Q, R,
(iii) (iv) S, T and U respectively?

(1) (iv) (2) (ii)

(3) (iii) (4) (i)
15. The temperature at which the r.m.s velocity of
oxygen molecules equal that of nitrogen
molecules at 100oC is nearly:
(1) 426.3 K (2) 456.3 K
(3) 436.3 K (4) 446.3 K (1) +, -, +, -, -, + (2) +, -, +, -, +, -
(3) +,+, -, +, -, - (4) -, +, +, -, +, -
16. Given displacement (y) vs time (t) curve for a
particle executing simple harmonic motion. 20. Diagram shows equipotential surfaces and
potentials of points. The electric field in the region
is given by:

Choose the correct statements.

(1) Phase of the oscillator is same at t = 0s and
t = 2s
(2) Phase of the oscillator is same at t = 2s and
t = 6s.
(3) Phase of the oscillator is same at t = 1s and
t = 7s.
(4) Phase of the oscillator is same at t = 1s and
t = 6s. (1) 2i  4 j (2)  i  j
 
17. When an engine passes near to a stationary (3) 2i  4 j (4) 2 i  2 j
observer, then the apparent frequencies occur
in ratio 5 : 3 (given speed of sound in air is 340 21. Two large thin metal plates are parallel and close
m/s). Then speed of engine is (m/s). to each other.
(1) 540 (2) 270 (3) 85 (4) 52.5
18. A transverse wave is described by the equation
y  yo sin 2  ft  x /   . The maximum
particle velocity is equal to four times the wave The plates have surface charge-densities of
velocity if, opposite signs and equal magnitude

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 17  1022 C /m2 . The electric field between (1) Statement A and statement B is true
the plates is (N/C): (2) Both statement A and Statement B are true
(1) 1.92 1010 (2) 0.96  109 (3) Both statement A and Statement B are false
(4) Statement A is correct but statement B is
(3) 3.8  1011 (4) zero
false.
22. A battery of e.m.f E is connected across a 25. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same
conductor as shown figure. As one observes time in a straight line and their positions are
from A and B, match the following: represented by xP(t) = at + bt2 and xQ(t) =
ft - t2. At what time do the cars have the same
velocity?
a f f a
(1) 2 1  b  (2) 2 1  b 

a b a f
(3) (4) 2  b  1
1 b
26. In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential
at point A is taken to be zero, the potential at
point B is:

(1) A - R, B - Q, C - R, D-Q
(2) A - Q, B - R, C - R, D-Q
(3) A - R, B - Q, C - Q, D-Q
(4) A - Q, B - R, C - Q, D-Q
(1) 2V (2) +1V (3) 1V (4) +2V
23. In the circuit shown, r1  1 and r2  10  are 27. A current loop in a magnetic field:
internal resistances of cells E1  15V and (1) experiences a torque whether the field is
E2  10V . uniform or non-uniform in all orientations
(2) can be in equilibrium in one orientation
(3) can be in equilibrium in two orientations,
both the equilibrium states are unstable
(4) can be in equilibrium in two orientations,
one is stable, whereas the other is unstable
28. Given following statements:
Then, the potential difference across A is:
(1) 10 V (2) 15 V (3) 25 V (4) 14 V Statement A: The magnetic field produced by
a current carrying solenoid is independent of its
24. Given following statements: length and cross-sectional area.
Statement A: When a 40 W, 220 V lamp and
100 W, 220 V lamp are connected in series 440 Statement B: The magentic field inside the
V supply, then 40W lamp will fuse. infinite solenoid is uniform.
(1) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is
Statement B: 40W and 100 W lamps can true.
tolerate 440 V. (2) Both Statement A and Statement B are
true.

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 (3) Both Statement A and Statement B are 32. The current in a coil decreases from 1A to 0.2A
false. in 10 sec. The induced emf is 0.4V. Then, the
(4) Statement A is correct but statement B is value of coefficient of inductance of the coil is:
false. (1) 5 H (2) 3 H (3) 4 H (4) 2 H
29. Biot-Savart law indicates that the moving 33. The focal length of a convex lens is 10 cm and
electrons with velocity v produce a magnetic its refractive index is 1.5. If the radius of
field B such that: curvature of one surface is 7.5 cm, the radius
(1) B  v of curvature of the second surface will be:
(2) B  v (1) 7.5 cm (2) 15 cm (3) 75 cm (4) 5 cm
(3) it obeys inverse cube law 34. Given following statements:
(4) it is along the line joining the electron and Statement A: Both DC (direct current ) and
point of observation AC (Alternating current ) can be measured by
30. Match entries of Column I with entreis of a hot wire instrument.
Column II: Statement B: The hot wire instrument is based
on the principle of magnetic effect of current.
(1) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is
true.
(2) Both statement A and statement B are true.
(3) Both statement A and statement B are
false.
(4) Statement A is correct but statement B is
false.
35. A soap film is formed over a frame ABCD. Wire
PQ can slide without friction, the surface
(1) A - R, B - P, C - Q, D - S tension for soap is 0.45J/m2 and density of
(2) A - P, B - Q, C - R, D - S material of wire is 8.96  103 kg / m3 . If wire PQ
(3) A - Q, B - P, C - R, D - S is in equilibrium then its diameter shall be:
(4) A - R, B - Q, C - P, D - S

31. Two plane circular coils P and Q have radii r1

and r2 respectively,  r1   r2  and are coaxial
as shown in figure. The number of turns in P
and Q are respectively, N1 and N 2 . If current
in coil Q is varied steadily at a rate x ampere/ (1) 0.6 mm (2) 0.6 cm
sec then the induced e. m. f. in the coil P will be (3) 1.2 mm (4) 1.2 cm
approximately:
36. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave
in vacuum is given by

E  iˆ40cos  K z  6  108 t  , where E, z, and t
are in volt/m, meter, and seconds, respectively.
The value of wave vector K is:
1 1
(1) 3m 1 (2) 2m 1 (3) 0.5m (4) 6m

(1) 0 N1 N 2 r12 (2) 0 N1 N 2 r12 x 37. Light with an energy flux of 25  104 Wm 2 falls
on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal
(3) 0 N1 N 2 r12 x / 2r2 (4) 0

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 The size (height) of image will be:
incidence. If the surface area is 15cm 2 , the
(1) 2.5 cm (2) 5 cm
average force exerted on the surface is:
(3) 1.5 cm (4) 4 cm
(1) 1.25  106 N (2) 2.50  106 N
43. The path difference between two wavefronts
(3) 1.20  106 N (4) 3.0  106 N emitted by coherent sources of wavelength


38. A point object is moving on the principal axis of 5460 A is 2.1 micron. The phase difference
a concave mirror of focal length 24 cm towards between the wavefronts at that point is: (radian)
the mirror. When it is at a distance of 60 cm 7.692 7.692
from the mirror, its velocity is 9 cm/s. Then, the (1) 7.692 (2) 7.692 (3) (4)
 3
velocity of the image at that instant will be ( in
cm/s) 44. For a compound microscope, the resolving power
(1) 5 (2) 12 (3) 4 (4) 9 depends on
(1) diameter of objective
39. A ray of light incident at an angle  on a (2) focal length of objective
refracting face of a prism emerges from the (3) Neither (1) nor (2)
other face normally. If the angle of the prism is (4) Both (1) and (2)
5 and the prism is made of a material of
45. Consider the diffraction pattern for a small
refractive index 1.5 , the angle of incidence is:
pinhole. Denote w = width of central maxima
(1) 7.5 (2) 30 (3) 45 (4) 60 Then, as the size of the hole is increased:
40. Streamline flow is more likely for liquids with: (1) the w remains constant.
(1) high density and high viscosity (2) the intensity remains same.
(2) low density and low viscosity (3) the w increases.
(3) low density and high viscosity (4) the intensity decreases.
(4) high density and low viscosity  
46. Two vectors A abd B of equal magnitude 5
41. In the figure (g = 10 m/s2). Acceleration of 2 kg units have angle 60 between them as shown.
block is:

Denote the magnitude of their sum by S (units)

and their difference by D (units).
Then, which of following is correct?
5
(1) S  5, D  5 2 (2) S  ,D  5
2
(1) 2 m/sec2 (2) 4 m/sec2 5
(3) S  5 3, D  5 (4) S  5 2, D 
(4) 6 m/sec2 (4) 8 m/sec2 3
42. An object (OB) height 2.5cm is placed at 47. An electric dipole consists of two charges of
(1.5 f0) from a concave mirror (where f0 is the
3.2  1019 C and 3.2  1019 C seperated by a
focal length of the mirror). distance of 2.4  1019 m . The dipole is placed in
a uniform electric field of intensity 4  105 V /m .
The work done in rotating the dipole by 180 is:
(1) 61.44  1024 J (2) 12.3  1024 J
(3) 12.3  1012 J (4) 6.14 1021 J

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48. Upto which distance the gravitational law is 54. The dependence of binding energy per nucleon
applicable? BN , on the mass number A, is represented by:
(1) 108 m (2) 1 m
(3) 10-10 m (4) At all distances
49. Match Column I with column II :
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

55. A layer of unknown oil 3cm thick is floating on a

layer of coloured water 5cm thick. Given
(1) A - Q, B-Q refractive index of coloured water is (5/3).
(2) A - P, B-Q
(3) A - P, A-P
(4) A - Q, B-P
50. Four elements A, B, C, D have work function 2,

2.4, 2.8, 3.8 eV. Light of wavelength 4000A is
incident on them. The elements which emit photo The apparent depth of the two liquids appears
electrons are: to be (36/7) cm. The refractive index of the oil
(1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B, C is.
(3) A, B (4) A (1) 1.1 (2) 1.4 (3) 1.8 (4) (5/3)
51. A 12.5 eV beam of electrons is used to bombard 56. How many poise (C.G.S unit of viscosity) is
gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. To equal to 1 poiseuille (S.I unit of viscosity).?
which orbit is it excited? (1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 5 (4) 20
(1) To 4th orbit (2) To 3rd orbit
nd
(3) To 2 orbit (4) To 6th orbit 57. Let  be the half-life of a radioactive material.

52. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes What is the fraction that remains after time?
transition from M shell to L. The ratio of 2
magnitude of initial to final centripetal 1 1 1
(1) (2) 
acceleration of the electron is: 2 2 2 2
(1) 9 : 4 (2) 81 : 16
(3) 4 : 9 (4) 16 : 81 (3) 2 (4) 1
2
4
53. The simple Bohr model is not applicable to He
atom because: 58. In a semiconducting material the mobilties of
(1) He 4 is an inert gas. electrons and holes are e and h repectively..
4 Which of the following is true?
(2) He has neutrons in the nucleus.
(1) e >  h (2) e <  h
(3) He 4 has one more electron.
(4) electrons are subject to central forces. (3) e = h (4) e <0;  h  0

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59. A semiconductor has equal electron and hole required to set the rod rotating with angular
concentration of 6 108 m3 . It is doped with a velocity o is minimum?
certain impurity. Then, it is found that the
concentration of electrons increased to
9 1012 m3 . The new hole concentration (in
m3 ) is equal to
(1) 2 103 (2) 6  108
(3) 4 104 (4) 3  105

60. Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the

opposite ends of a rod of length L and negligible m2 L m1 L
mass. The rod is to be set rotating about an axis (1) x  m  m (2) x  m  m
1 2 1 2
perpendicular to it. What is the position of a
point P on this rod through which the work m1 m1  m2 2
(3) x  m L (4) m1m2
L
2

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 CHEMISTRY

61. Which has maximum molecules ? 67. If the pressure and absolute temperature of 2
(1) 7 g N2 (2) 2 g H2 litres of CO2 are doubled, the volume of CO2
(3) 16 g NO2 (4) 16 g O2 would become
(1) 2 litres (2) 4 litres
62. The uncertainity in the velocity of particle of (3) 5 litres (4) 7 litres
mass 6.626  1028 kg is 106 m/ sec. What is
68. Kinetic energy of a gas depends upon its
the uncertainty in its position in nm ? (1) Molecules mass (2) Atomic mass
1 2.5 4 1 (3) Gas constant (4) Temperature
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2   4
69. The conjugate base of H 2 PO4 is:
63. The correct order of ionic radii for the ions
(1) PO34 (2) P2 O 5
2  3 2
S ,Cl , P , Ca is
(3) H 3 PO 4 (4) HPO24
(1) Ca 2   Cl   S2   P 3
(2) S2  p3  Cl   Ca 2 70. In which of the following compound oxidation
number of Cl is +3?
(3) P 3  S2   Cl   Ca 2 
(1) ICl (2) ClO3
2  2 3
(4) Ca  Cl  S  P
(3) ClF3 (4) HClO 4
+ 
64. An ionic bond A B is the most likely to be 71. One of the following is an incorrect statement,
formed when: point it out.
(1) The ionization energy of A is high and the (1) Permanent hardness can be removed by
electron affinity of B is low boiling water
(2) The ionization energy of A is low and the (2) Hardness of water effects soap
electron affinity of B is high consumption
(3) The ionization energy of A and the electron (3) Temporary hardness is due to the
affinity of B is high bicarbonates of Ca and Mg
(4) The ionization energy of A and the electron (4) Permanent hardness is due to the soluble
affinity of B is low
SO 24 ,CI , NO3 of Ca and Mg
65. The shape of covalent molecule, AX3 is :
(1) Triangular 72. In which of the following the hydration energy
(2) T- shape is higher than the lattice energy?
(3) Pyramidal (1) BaSO 4 (2) MgSO 4
(4) Any of the above depending upon the
(3) RaSO 4 (4) SrSO 4
number of lone pair of electrons on A
66. Which of the following hydrocarbons has the 73. The type of hybridization of boron in diborane
lowest dipole moment? is:
(1) sp -hybridization
(1) (2) sp2- hybridization
(3) sp3- hybridization
(4) sp3d2- hybridization
(2) CH 3C  CCH 3
74. Which of the following alkyl group has the
(3) CH 3 CH 2 C  CH
maximum +1 effect?
(4) CH 2  CH  CH 3 (1) (CH3)2CH  (2) (CH3) 3C 

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 (1) bcc
(3) CH3CH 2  (4) CH 3  (2) simple cubic
75. The IUPAC name for the hydrocarbon (3) fcc
represented by (swastik sign) is: (4) end centered unit cell
(1) neo - nonane 81. Edge length of unit cell of Chromium metal is
(2) tetraethylcarbon 287 pm with bcc arrangement. The atomic radius
(3) 2 - ethyl pentane is in the order of :
(4) 3, 3 - diethylpentane (1) 124.27 pm (2) 287 pm
(3) 574 pm (4) 143.5 pm
Br2
76. 
hv  A  Na
dry ether
  B  . Product 82. What weight of glycerol should be added to 600
g of water in order to lower its freezing point by
B is : 10 C ?  K f  1.86 K kg mol1 
(1) 496 g (2) 297 g (3) 310 g (4) 426 g
83. The Van’t Hoff factor (i) for a compound which
(1) (2) undergoes dissociation in one solvent and
association in other solvent is respectively:
(1) Greater than one and greater than one
(2) Less than one and less greater than one
(3) Less than one less than one
(4) Greater than one and less than one
(3) (4) 84. Which one is a colligative property?
(1) Boiling point
(2) Vapour pressure
77. The final major product of the following reaction
(3) Osmotic pressure
is: (4) Freezing point
(1) CH 3  CH 2  C  C  CH 2  CH 3 85. The molar conductivity of 0.15 M solution of
KCI at 298 K if its conductivity is 0.0152 S
(2) cm-1 is
1 2 1
(1) 124  cm mol (2) 204 1cm 2 mol1
1 2 1
(3) (3) 101  cm mol (4) 300  1cm 2 mol1
86. When water is added to an aqueous solution of
electrolyte, what is the change in specific
(4) conductivity of the electrolyte?
(1) Conductivity increases
78. An object is located at a height of 18 km from (2) Conductivity decreases
the surface of earth the object is located in : (3) Conductivity remains same
(1) Thermosphere (2) Mesosphere (4) Conductivity does not depends on number
(3) Ionosphere (4) Stratosphere of ions
79. A cube of any crystal A- atom placed at every 87. When lead storages battery discharges:
corners and B-atom placed at every centre of (1) SO2 is evolved
face. The formula of compound: (2) PbSO4 is consumed
(1) AB (2) AB3 (3) A2B2 (4) A2B2 (3) Lead is formed
80. Which of the following unit cell has maximum (4) H2SO4 is consumed
number of atoms?

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88. The order of reaction is decided by: 96. Regarding N2O, the wrong statement is
(1) Temperature (1) It is called laughing gas
(2) Molecularity (2) It is called nitrous oxide
(3) Pressure (3) It is linear molecule
(4) Mechanism of reaction as well as relative (4) It is a more reactive oxide
concentration of reactants
97. Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green when
89. The oder of a reaction for an saponification Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to the
process is : formation of:
(1) Zero (2) First (1) CrSO4 (2) Cr2(SO4) 3
(3) Second (4) Pseudo first order (3) CrO 24 (4) Cr(SO3)3
90. The potential energy diagram for a reaction
98. Across the lanthanide series, the basicity of the
R  P is given below..
lanthanoid hydroxides:
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) First increases and then decreases
(4) First decreases and then increases
99. Which of the following compounds is not
coloured?
(1) Na2[CuCl4] (2) Na2[CdCl4]
H of the reaction corresponding to the (3) K4[Fe(CN)6] (3) K3[Fe(CN)6]
energy:
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) a + b 100. The correct order of decreasing second
ionization enthalpy of Ti (22), V(23), Cr(24),
91. At low pressure, the fraction of the surface
and Mn (25) is:
covered follows:
(1) Ti > V > Cr > Mn
(1) Zero-order kinetics
(2) Cr > Mn > V > Ti
(2) First order kinetics
(3) V > Mn > Cr > Ti
(3) Second order kinetics
(4) Mn > Cr > Ti > V
(4) Fractional order kinetics
101. The name of complex ion, [Fe(CN)6]3- is :
92. When dilute aqueous solution of AgNO3
(1) Hexacyanidoferrate (III) ion
(excess) is added to KI solution, positively
(2) Hexacyanoiron (III) ion
charged sol of AgI is formed due to absorption
(3) Hexacyanidoferrate (II) ion
of
(4) Tricyanoferrate (III) ion
(1) NO3 (2) O2 (3) Ag+ (4) K+
102. The magnitude of magnetic moment of
93. The method not used in metallurgy to refine the 2

impure metal is :
 NiCl4  will be:
(1) Mond’s process (1) 2.82 B.M (2) 3.25 B.M
(2) Van Arkel process (3) 1.23 B.M (4) 5.64 B.M
(3) Amalgamation process 103. [Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl exhibits:
(4) Liquidation (1) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism
94. Which one of the following is not oxidized by and optical isomerism
ozone? (2) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism
(1) FeSO4 (2) KMnO4 and geometrical isomerism
(3) KI (4) K2MnO4 (3) Ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism
and optical isomerism
95. Least volatile hydrogen halide is: (4) Linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism
(1) HF (2) HCl (3) HI (4) HBr and optical isomerism

Space for Rough work

11
104. Which of the following is a primary halide? (2) Hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with acidic
(1) iso - propyliodide solution
(2) sec - Butyliodide (3) Degradation of benzamide with bromine in
(3) ter - Butylbromide alkaline solution
(4) neo - hexychloride (4) Reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in
ethanol
105. 1-Butene when treated with HBr gives:
(1) sec.butyl bromide 113. Identify the type of reaction in the step, C 
(2) n - butyl bromide D.
(3) 1 - bromo butane
(4) 3 - butyl bromide
106. When 3, 3 - dimethyl-2- butanol is heated with
H2SO4, the major product obtained is (1) It is an electrophilic substitution reaction.
(1) 2, 3 - dimethyl-2 - butene (2) It is coupling reaction.
(2) cis and trans isomers of 2, 3 - dimethyl-2 - (3) It is nucleophilic addition reaction.
butene (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 2, 3 - dimethyl-1 - butene
(4) 3, 3 - dimethyl-1 - butene 114. A zwitter ion is :
(1) A positively charged ion without a metal
107. The major organic product in the reaction, atom in it
CH 3  O  CH  CH 3  2  HI  Product is : (2) A negatively charged ion without meal
atom in it
(1) CH3OH +(CH3)2 CHI
(3) An ion with positive and negative charges
(2) ICH2OCH(CH3) 2
at different point on it
(3) CH3OC(CH3) 2
(4) A heavy ion with a small charge on it
(4) CH3I + 2(CH3) CHOH
115. Which of the following is not a fat soluble
108. The correct structure representation of
vitamin?
carboxylate ion is:
(1) Vitamin E
(2) Vitamin A
(1) (2) (3) Vitamin B complex
(4) Vitamin D
116. The following carbohydrate is:
(3) (4)

109. Aldol condensation will not take palce in :

(1) HCHO (2) CH 3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) CH3CH 2CHO
110. Idoform test is not given by:
(1) 2 - pentanone (2) Ethanal
(3) Ethanol (4) 3 - pentanone
111. HVZ, reaction is not given by:
(1) RCH2COOH (2) CH3COOH
(3) R3CCOOH (4) RCOOH
112. Method by which Aniline cannot be prepared is: (1) A ketohexose (2) An aldohexose
(1) Potassium salt of Phthalimide treated with (3) A  - furanose (4) An  - pyranose
chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with
aqueous NaOH solution

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117. Arrange the following polymers in an increasing
(3)
order of intermolecular forces; fibre, plastic,
elastomer:
(1) Elastomer < fibre < plastic (4)
(2) Elastomer < Plastic < fibre
(3) Plastic < Elastomer < fibre 119. A drug which is effective in curing malaria is:
(4) Fibre < Elastomer < Plastic (1) Asprin (2) Chloroquine
(3) Morphine (4) Sanalgin
118. Which is the monomer of Neoprene in the
following? 120. Tranquilizers are also known as:
(1) Psychosmatic
(1) (2) Psychotherapeutic drugs
(2) (3) Psychosystolic drugs
(4) None of these

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 MATHEMATICS
121. A survey shows that 63% of the Americans like (1) 1 (2) 0
cheese whereas 76% like apples. If x % of the (3)  (4)  2
Americans like both cheese and apples, then we
have 128. The least integer satisfying
(1) x  39 (2) x  63 396 19  x 376 19  9 x
   is
(3) 39  x  63 (4) none of these 10 10 10 10
122. The domain of the function (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
 x2 
f  x   sin 1  log 2  is 129. If x  1  x  3  8, then the values of x lie in
 2
the interval
(1) 1  x  1 (2) 1  x  1
(1) (, 2) (2) [2,6]
(3) 1  x  2 (3) None of these
(3) (3,7) (4) (2, )
1
123. What is range of the function f ( x)  ? 100
3  sin x 130. The last two digits in X   k ! are
k 1
1 1  1 1 (1) 10 (2) 11
(1)  ,  (2)  , 
3 2  4 3 (3) 12 (4) 13
1 1 1 1  131. The number of non-zero terms in expansion of
(3)  ,  (4)  , 
4 2 6 4 ( 7  1)75  ( 7  1)75
(1) 36 (2) 37
124. If sin x  sin 2 x  1 then the value of
(3) 38 (4) 39
cos12 x  3cos8 x  cos 6 x  3cos10 x  1 
132. If x, y , z are in A.P, ax, by, cz are in GP and
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) -1 (4) 2 1 1 1 x z
, , are in A.P Then  is equal to
125. If f ( x)  cos(log x) then a b c z x
a b a c
1  x  (1)  (2) 
f ( x) f ( y )   f ( xy )  f   b a c a
2  y 
a c b c
(1) 0 (3)  (4) 
c b c a
(2) cos(log x  log y )
133. Find the distance of the point(2,3) from the line
(3) cos(log x)  cos(log y )
2 x  3 y  9  0 and along a line making an angle
(4) cos(log x  log y )
of 45 with the x-axis
126. For positive integer n, n 3  2n is always divisible 4
by (1) 4 2 (2) 4 (3) (4) 2 2
2
(1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 6
134. The radius of the circle passing through the foci
a  b  c 2
127. If 1,  ,  2 are cube roots of unity x2 y 2
c  a  b 2 of   1 and having centre (0,3) is
16 9

Space for Rough work

14
 (1) 4 (2) 2 1
7 g : R  {0}  R is defined by g ( x)  the
x2
(3) 12 (4)
2 product of f and g is given by
135. The direction cosines of the straight line given  x; if x  0
by the planes x = 0 and z = 0 are (1) ( fg )( x)  
1 if x  0
(1) 1, 0, 0 (2) 0, 0, 1
(3) 1, 1, 0 (4) 0, 1, 0 1
 x if x  0
x2  1 (2) ( fg )( x)  
136. The limit of as x approches 1as a limit is:
x 1  1 if x  0
 x
(1) 0 (2) Indeterminate
(3) x  1 (4) 2
 x if x  0
(3) ( fg )( x)  
137. What is the logically equivalent proposition of  1 if x  0
p  q?
 1
(1) ( p  q )  ( p  q )  if x  0
(4) ( fg )( x)   x
(2) ( p  q )  (q  p )  x if x  0
(3) ( p  q )  (q  p )
(4) ( p  q)  ( p  q) 2 2 1  1 
143. The value of sin 1    sin   is equal to
138. Standard deviation of first n odd natural numbers  3   3
is
(1)  / 6 (2)  / 4
(n  2)(n  1) (3)  / 2 (4) 2 / 3
(1) n (2)
3
  7 
n2  1 144. cos 1  cos    is equal to
(3) (4) n   5 
3
3 2
139. Three of the six vertices of a regular hexagon (1) (2)
5 5
are chosen at random. The probability that the
triangle formed by these vertices is equilateral 7 7
(3) (4)
is 5 5
(1) 1 2 (2) 1 3 (3) 1 10 (4) 1 20
0 1 2
140. The probability that the 13th day of a randomly  
145. If A   1 2 3  then the sum of all the
chosen month is a second Saturday, is
3 1 1
(1) 1 7 (2) 1 12  

(3) 1 84 (4) 19 84 diagonal entries of A 1 is

(1) 2 (2) 3
141. x 2  xy is a relation which is (3) -3 (4) 4
(1) symmetric (2) reflexive
(3) transitive (4) none 2x 0  1 0
146. If A    and A1  A    then x =
 x x  1 2 
142. If f : R  R is the modulus function and
1
(1) 2 (2) (3) 1 (4) 3
2

Space for Rough work

15
147. If   1 is a cube root of unity and x  y  z  0 , 
continuous at , then a is equal to
4
x y z (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 1/4
1    2  1 2

y z x 151. A function f is defined by f  x   e x sin x in

then  0 if
  2 2
 1 1  0,   . Which of the following is not correct?
z x y
2 (1) f is continuous in  0,  
 1 1    2
(2) f is differentiable in  0,  
(1) x 2  y 2  z 2  0
(3) f  0   f  
(2) x  y  z 2  0 or x  y  z
(4) Rolle’s theorem is not true in  0,  
(3) x  y  z  0
(4) x  2 y  3 z  2a  x, if  a  x  a
152. If f  x   
148. If one of the roots of the equation 3 x  2a, if a  x
7 6 x Then, which of the following is true?
2 x 2 0 (1) f  x  is discontinuous at x  a
x 3 7
(2) f  x  is not differentiable at x  a
is x  9 , then other two roots are: (3) f  x  is differentiable at x  a
(1) 2,6 (2) 3,6 (4) f  x  is continuous at all x  a
(3) 2,7 (4) 3,7
dy
153. If y  3(log3 ( x  2) log3 ( x  2) then
149. If x, y , z are in A.P. with common dx
difference d and the rank of the matrix
2 2
4 5 x (1) ( x  2)2 (2) ( x  2)2
5 6 y
is 2 then the values of d and k 4 4
6 k z (3) ( x  2)2 (4) ( x  2)2
respectively are
 d2y
(1) , arbitrary number 154. Let y  t 10  1 and x  t 8  1 then is equal
4 dx 2
(2) arbitrary number,7 to
 5
(3) x,5 (4) ,6 (1) t (2) 20t 8
2 2
5
1  2 sin x (3) (4) none
 16t 6
 , if x 
  4x 4
150. f  x    is 155. The radius of a cylinder is increasing at the rate
 a, 
if x  of 3 m / s and its altitude is decreasing at the
 4
rate of 4 m / s . The rate of change of valume
when radius is 4 m / s . The rate of change of

Space for Rough work

16
 volume when radius is 4 m and altitude is 6 m , 
is (1)  (a  b) (2) ( a  b)
2
(1) 80  cu. m / s (2) 144  cu. m / s

(3) 80 cu. m / s (4) 64 cu. m / s (3) ( a  b) (4)  ab
4
156. If the line ax  by  c  0 is a normal to the 161. If
curve xy  1 , then
1
(1) a  0, b  0  f  x  sin x cos xdx  2  b 2
 a2 
log  f  x    c ,
(2) a  0, b  0
(3) a  0, b  0 then f  x  is equal to
(4) data is unsufficient
1
1 (1)
a sin x  b 2 cos2 x
2 2
157. f ( x)  x  is increasing in
x
1
(1) R  {0} (2) [1,0  (0,1] (2)
a sin x  b 2 cos 2 x
2 2

(3) R (4) 
1
(3)
cos x  sin x a cos x  b 2 sin 2 x
2 2

158.  dx
8  sin 2 x 1
(4)
a 2 cos 2 x  b 2 sin 2 x
1  sin x  cos x 
(1) sin  c
 2  2017 x
162.  dx is equal to
1  sin x  cos x 
2016
x  4033  x
(2) sin  c (1) 1/4 (2) 3/2
 3 
(3) 2017/2 (4) 1/2
1  sin x  cos x 
(3) sin  c 1
163.  x tan x dx
 4 
(4) sin 1  sin x  cos x   c x2 x 1
(1) tan 1 x   tan 1 x  c
2 2 2
159. The value of the integral
1 x
2 (2) tan 1 x ( x 2  1)   c
4  x dx , where .
2 2
 3
 x 2  14 x  49    x 2 
x 2  1 1 x
(3) tan x   c
denotes the greatest integer function, is 2 2

3 2 1 x2
(1) 1 (2) (4) ( x  1) tan x  c
2 2
1 164. The area bounded by the curves y   x 2  3
(3) (4) none of these
2 and y  0 is
 (1) 3 1 (2) 3
2
a cos x  b sin x
160.  dx (3) 4 3 (4) 5 3
0 cos x  sin x

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17
165. The order of the differential equation 26 26
2 2 5 (3) (4) 
3
 d y   d y   dy  2
3 3
 dx3    dx 2    dx   0 is
     
170. If  a b c   12 then  a  b b  c c  a  
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) 5 (1) 36 (2) 48
(3) 24 (4) 72
166. Solution of the differential equation
171. Let D,E,F be the middle points of the sides
2 2 3 3
dy  xy   dy   xy   dy  BC, CA, AB respectively of a ABC . Then,
x  1  xy        .... is
dx 2!  dx  3!  dx    
AD  BE  CF equals
(1) y  log e  x   c (2) y   log e x   c
2
 
(1) 0 (2) 2 AB
2

(3) y    log e x   2c (3) 3AB (4) None of these

(4) xy  x y  k 172. The unit vector which is orthogonal to the vector

3iˆ  2 ˆj  6kˆ and is coplanar with the vectors

167. A function y  f  x  has a second order
derivative f ''  x   6  x  1 . If its graph passes 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ and iˆ  ˆj  kˆ is
through the point (2,1) and at that point the
2iˆ  6 ˆj  kˆ 2iˆ  3 ˆj
tangent to the graph is y  3 x  5 , then the (1) (2)
41 13
function is
2 3
(1)  x  1 (2)  x  1 3 ˆj  kˆ 4iˆ  3 ˆj  3kˆ
3 2 (3) (4)
(3)  x  1 (4)  x  1 10 34

168. The differential equation of all circles passing 173. The equation of lines AB is
through the origin and having their centres on x y z
the x - axis is   . Through a point P 1, 2, 5  line PN
2 3 6
2 2 dy is drawn perpendicular to AB and line PQ is
(1) x  y  xy
dx drawn parallel to the plane 3x  4 y  5 z  0 to
2 2 dy meet AB is Q. Then,
(2) x  y  3xy
dx  52 78 156 
(1) coordinate of N are  ,  , 
2 2 dy  49 49 49 
(3) y  x  2 xy
dx 9 

dy (2) coordinates of Q are  3,  ,9 
2 2  2 
(4) y  x  2 xy
dx
x 1 y  2 z  5
(3) equation of PN is  
169. a  2i  3 j   k , b  4i  6 j  3k and 3 176 89
(4) all of these.
a  b  a  b then 
174. The angle between the lines 2 x  3 y   z and
3 3 6 x   y  4 z is
(1)  (2)
26 26

Space for Rough work

18
   2 3 1
(1) (2) 178. If P( A)  , P( B)  and P( A  B) 
6 4 5 10 5
  then P ( A '/ B ') P( B '/ A ') is equal to
(3) (4)
3 2 5 5
(1) (2)
175. The equation of the plane which bisects the line 6 7
segment joining the points (3, 2, 6) and (5, 4, 8) 25
and is perpendicular to the same line segment, (3) (4) 1
is 42
(1) x  y  z  16 (2) x  y  z  10 179. Let A and B be two events such that
(3) x  y  z  12 (4) x  y  z  14 P ( A  B)  P ( A)  P ( B )  P( A) P ( B ).

176. The foot of the perpendicular from the point If 0  P ( A)  1 and 0  P ( B )  1 , then
x y 1 z  2 P( A  B ) ' is equal to
(1,6,3) to the line   is
1 2 3
(1) 1  P( A) (2) 1  P( A ')
(1) (1, 3, 5) (2) (-1, -1, -1)
(3) (2, 5, 8) (4) (-2, -3, -4) (3) 1  P ( A) P ( B ) (4) [1  P ( A)]P ( B ')
177. The solution set of 3 x  2 y  6 is 180. If the events A and B are independent and if
(1) half plane not containing the origin 2 2
(2) half plane containing the points lying on the P( A)  , P( B)  , then P( A  B ) is equal to
3 7
line 3 x  2 y  6 and the origin
(3) xy - plane except points on the line 4 3
(1) (2)
3x  2 y  6 21 21
(4) none of these 5 2
(3) (4)
21 21

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 BIOLOGY
181. In citric acid cycle, energy bond (GTP) is Statement A : The innermost wall layer is the
produced as a result of conversion of tapetum. It nourishes the developing pollen
(1) Citric acid to alpha-keto glutaric acid grains.
(2) Succinic acid to malic acid Statement B: When the anther is young, a
(3) Succinic – CoA to succinic acid group of compactly arranged heterogenous
(4) Succinic acid to succinyl – CoA cells called the sporogenous tissue occupies
182. Cry IAb and cry IIAb produce toxins that the outer layer of each microsporangium.
control (1) Statement-A is correct.
(1) Cotton bollworms and corn borer, (2) Statement-B is correct.
respectively. (3) Both statements are correct.
(2) Corn borer only (4) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Cotton bollworms only 189. Which one of the following statement is
(4) Corn borer and Cotton bollworms, correct?
respectively (1) Bulb of Allium cepa is a modified stem.
183. The phenomenon wherein, the ovary develops (2) Cloves of Allium sativum are scaly leaves
into a fruit without fertilisation is called: (3) Allium cepa belongs to fabaceae.
(1) Parthenocarpy (4) All of them
(2) Apomixis 190. A particular species of plant produces light,
(3) Asexual reproduction non-sticky pollen in large numbers and its
(4) Sexual reproduction stigmas are long and feathery. These
184. In the electron transport system, the final modifications facilitate pollination by:
acceptor of proton is (1) Insects (2) Water
(1) FAD (3) Wind (4) Animals.
(2) ubiquinone (substance) 191. Mendel’s laws were able to predict accurately
(3) Oxygen the pattern of inheritance for situations in
(4) NAD which
185. In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate (1) Alleles are affected by their environment
after fertilisation are: (2) Alleles of one gene alter the effect of a
(1) Synergids and primary endosperm cell different gene.
(2) Synergids and antipodals (3) Alleles show complete dominance.
(3) Antipodals and primary endosperm cell (4) A given character is determined by more
(4) Egg and antipodals. than one gene.
186. In dinoflagellates the two flagella are 192. When two odd characters are present in a gene,
(1) Anterior this is known as
(2) One transverse and other vertical (1) Heterogamous (2) Bigamous
(3) Lateral (3) Polymorphic (4) Heteromorphic
(4) Posterior 193. Mendel’s law of segregation, is applied to the
187. DNA is not directly involved in the synthesis behaviour of chromosomes in meiosis, means
of the following: that
(1) Protein (2) mRNA (1) Pairing of homologues will convert one
(3) rRNA (4) tRNA allele into the other, leading to separation
of the types.
188. Read the Statement-A and Statement-B
(2) Genes on the same chromosome will
carefully to mark the correct options given
show 50% recombination.
below:

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 (3) Alleles of a gene will be linked and 201. Read the Statement-A and Statement-B
passed on together through meiosis. carefully to mark the correct options given
(4) Alleles of a gene separate from each below:
other when homologues separate
Statement-A : A single-strand of mRNA is
in meiosis I.
capable of forming different polypeptide
194. In the human ABO blood system, the alleles A chains in prokaryotes.
and B are dominant to O. What will be number
Statement-B : Termination codons occur in
of different possible genotype?
polypeptide.
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12
(1) Statement-A is correct.
195. ‘Clones’ are individuals that have exactly the (2) Statement-B is correct.
same (3) Both statements are correct.
(1) Life span (2) Physiology (4) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Growth rate (4) Genetic makeup
202. Match the following:
196. The pigment molecules responsible for
Column-1 Column-II
photosynthesis are located in the
(1) Cytoplasm of the cell A. t-RNA 1. Linking of
(2) Matrix of the mitochondria amino-acids
(3) Thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast B. m-RNA 2. Transfer of
(4) All of the above genetic
197. If for a species 2n = 16, then during 1st information
prophase and 2nd prophase of meiotic division C. r-RNA 3. Nucleolar
of a cell, how many tetrads and dyads will be organising region
formed
(1) 4 and 4 (2) 8 and 4 D. Peptidyl 4. Transfer of amino
(3) 8 and 8 (4) 4 and 8 transferase acid from
cytoplasm of
198. Which of the following is responsible for the ribosome
origin of lysosome?
(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria (1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(3) Golgi body (4) Ribosome (2) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
199. Thiamine is a
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(1) Aminoacid (2) Protein
(3) Vitamin (4) Nucleic acid. 203. In regulation of gene expression in prokaryotes
i. Lactose acts as suppressor for gene
200. Read the carefully the following statements
expression.
about sexual fertilisation in angiosperms
ii. Tryptophan is inducer.
(i) PEC forms endosperm- a post fertilisation
iii. Regulator gene produces repressor
product.
(1) i alone is correct
(ii) A zygote is obtained when a male gamete
(2) ii alone is correct
fuses with egg.
(3) iii alone is correct
(iii) Zygote develops into embryo and embryo
(4) ii and iii are coorect
into seeds.
(iv) The seeds so obtained are naked. 204. What are flocs?
(1) Masses of anaerobic bacteria
Which of the statement given above are
(2) Masses of aerobic fungi only
incorrect?
(3) Masses of anaerobic bacteria and fungi
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv) (4) Masses of aerobic bacteria associated
(3) Only (iv) with fungal filaments
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
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205. Read the Statement-A and Statement-B (2) Each restriction endonuclease recognizes
carefully to mark the correct options given a specific palindromic nucleotide
below: sequences in DNA.
Statement-A: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is (3) When cut by same restriction enzyme,
popular in genetic engineering because this the resultant DNA fragments do not
bacterium is associated with roots of cereal have the same kind of ‘sticky-ends’.
and pulse crops. (4) EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases G
and A.
Statement-B: Retroviruses in animals
including humans are able to change normal 210. The diagram depicts
cells into Cancerous cells
(1) Statement-A is correct.
(2) Statement-B is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.
206. Humus is
(1) Completely decomposed organic matter
(2) Partially decomposed organic matter
(3) Partially decomposed inorganic matter
(4) Completely decomposed inorganic
matter
207. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
(1) Mechanical process
(2) Chemical process (1) Breakdown of pro-insulin into insulin
(3) Biological process (2) Maturation of pro-insulin into insulin
(4) Physical process (3) Maturation of insulin into pro-insulin
(4) None of the above
208. All the following statements about Stanley
Cohen and Herbert Boyer are correct but one 211. Foramen magnum and occipital condyles are
is wrong. Which one is wrong? found in
(1) They first discovered the technique of (1) Frontoparietal bone
Gel electrophoresis. (2) Occipital bone
(2) They discovered recombinant DNA (3) Temporal bone
(rDN(1) technology, and this marks the (4) Parietal bone
birth of modern biotechnology. 212. Which of the following in not a matching pair
(3) They isolated the antibiotic resistance of the kind of excretory organ in animal and
gene by cutting out a piece of DNA from its phylum?
the plasmid which was responsible for (1) Animal: Musca, Excretory organ:
conferring antibiotic resistance. Malpighian tubules, Phylum: Arthropoda
(4) They invented genetic engineering by (2) Animal: Ancylostoma, Excretory organ:
combining a piece of foreign DNA Renette cell, Phylum: Aschelminthes
containing a gene from a bacterium with (3) Animal: Taenia solium, excretory organ:
a bacterial plasmid using the enzyme Flame cell, Phylum: Ctenophora
restriction endonuclease. (4) Animal: Palaemon, Excretory organ:
209. Which is incorrect? Green gland, Phylum: Arthropoda
(1) Separated DNA fragments can be 213. Uric acid is the excretory product of
visualized only after staining the DNA (a) Cockroach (b) Sparrow
with Ethidium bromide and exposure (c) Terrestrial reptiles (d) Frog
to UV light

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 (1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (d) (3) Flowers of Datura
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (c) and (d) (4) Fruits of Erythroxylum coca
214. Which of the following statements is correct 220. The most abundant antibody produced against
regarding cerebellum? allergens is
(1) It is a part of hindbrain (1) IgE (2) IgA (3) IgG (4) IgM.
(2) It consists of two cerebellar hemisphere
221. The substance given to cancer patients in order
and a vermis
to activate their immune system and destroy
(3) Cerebellum is involved in muscular
coordination the tumour is
(4) All of these (1) Histamine (2) Interleukin
(3) Alpha-interferon (4) Morphine.
215. Consider the following four statements, select
the correct option 222. Which scientist found that plots with more
i. In Female cockroach each ovary is formed species showed less year to year variation in
of a group of twelve ovarian tubules or total biomass?
ovarioles containing a chain of (1) David Tilman (2) Paul Ehrlich
developing ova (3) Robert May (4) Ernst Mayr
ii. In Cockroach the nymph grows by 223. Which of the following are not correct:
moulting 12 times to reach the adult form. (i) Spleen is the graveyard for RBC
iiii. In female cockroach genital pouch or (ii) All the mammals have biconcave RBCs
chamber lies at the hind end of abdomen (iii) Clotting factors present in plasma are in
bounded dorsally at 9th and 10th terga and active form.
ventrally by the 9th sternum. (iv) All the substances released by platelets
iv. In cockroach the nervous system is dorsal are involved in clotting only.
(1) i, ii, iii are wrong (1) (1) (i), (iii), (iv) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) ii, iii are only wrong (3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (ii), (iii)
(3) ii, iii, iv are only wrong
(4) All are wrong 224. Gene flow by chance results in
(1) Genetic drift (2) Variation
216. What is common among lipase, rennin and (3) Gene migration (4) Mutation
nuclease?
(1) All proteins 225. Spermiogenesis is a process in which
(2) Proteolytic enzyme (1) Spermatids are transformed into
(3) Produced in stomach spermatozoa
(4) Act at pH lower than 7 (2) Spermatozoa are transformed into
spermatids
217. Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when a factor (3) Spermatozoa are transformed to
from mother passes into the fetus through the spermatocytes
placenta. (4) Spermatid are transformed to secondary
This factor is spermatocytes
(1) Rh antigen (2) Rh antibodies
226. Release of phosphates and nitrates in water
(3) ABO antibodies (4) Haptens
bodies (i.e. in rivers and lakes) leads to
218. A person who frequently urinates but has (1) Nutrient enrichment (eutrophication)
normal blood glucose level has (2) Reduced algal growth
(1) Reduced vasopressin secretion (3) Increased algal growth and improve
(2) Reduced renin secretion water quality
(3) Increased aldosterone secretion (4) Increased growth of decomposers
(4) Reduced glucagon secretion
227. Select how many statements are true for
219. Smack’ is a drug obtained from the fertilization in humans?
(1) Latex of Papever somniferum i. Chemical substance present in sperm
(2) Leaves of Cannabis sativa mitochondria
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 ii. Ovum has undergone meiosis -II before (1) Montreal Protocol, Canada
ovulation (2) Kyoto Protocol, Brazil
iii. After fertilization the chromosome (3) Earth Summit, Montreal
number in zygote is halved. (4) World Summit, South Africa
iv. Fertilization occurs in fallopian tube.
235. How acclimatization occurs in case of altitude
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four sickness?
228. The organism breeding only once in its lifetime (1) Decrease RBC production
is (2) Increased RBC production
(1) Atlantic tuna fish (3) Increased rate of breathing
(2) Indian pomfret fish (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Pacific salmon fish 236. By which biochemical process, kangaroo rat
(4) Arctic whale
meets its water requirement?
229. Choose the incorrect pair. (1) Oxidation of fats
(1) Cushion of fatty tissue covered by pubic (2) Oxidation of proteins
hair - Mons pubis (3) Reduction of proteins
(2) Membrane covering opening of vagina – (4) Reduction of fats
Hymen 237. Formation of primary spermatocyte/oocyte
(3) Finger-like structure above the urethral from spermatogonium and oogonium requires
opening – clitoris (1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis-I
(4) Uterine layer exhibiting strong (3) Meiosis-II (4) Growth
contraction during delivery -
Endometrium 238. Diapause is a stage of
(1) Perpetual development
230. CDRI stands for
(2) Intermittent development
(1) Central Drug Refund Institute (3) Suspended development
(2) Central Drug Related Institute (4) Sequential development
(3) Central Drug Research Institute
(4) Children Development Research Institute 239. The hyperbolic equation for the species area
relation
231. In context of amniocentesis, which of the (1) Log C = log S + Z log A
following statements is incorrect? (2) Log S = log C + Z log A
(1) It is used for prenatal sex determination (3) Log S = log A + Z log C
(2) It can be used for detection of cleft lip
(4) S = CAZ
(3) It is usually done when a woman is
between 15-20 weeks pregnant 240. Match column I and II and find the correct
(4) It can be used for detection of Down’s answer.
syndrome Column-1 Column-II
232. The first photoautotroph organisms were A. Barrier device 1. Saheli
(1) Bryophytes (2) Algae
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Bacteria B. Sterilization 2. Condom,
diaphragm
233. Identify the pair that has a parasitic interaction
(1) Cuckoo (koel) and crow C. IUD’s 3. Cu-T
(2) Crow and parrot D. Pills 4. Tubectomy
(3) Parrot and pigeon
(4) Koel and parrot (1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(2) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
234. Recognizing the deleterious effects of ozone (3) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
depletion an international treaty known as was (4) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
signed at

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