SYLLABUS

Botany : Principles of inheritance and Variation (12Q), Molecular basis of Inheritance (16Q), Plant growth and development (2Q),
Sexual reproduction in flowering plants (2Q), Cell cycle and cell division (2Q), Photosynthesis in higher plants (2Q)and
Respiration in plants(2Q), Biological classification(2Q), Plant kingdom (2Q)and Morphology of flowering plants (2Q)
including newly added families, Anatomy of flowering plants (2Q), Cell – The unit of life (2Q) and Biomolecules(2Q)
Zoology : Human health and diseases (13Q), Biotechnology (5Q) and Organism and Population (7Q), Human reproduction (2Q) and
Reproductive health (2Q), Human genetics(3Q) and Evolution (2Q) Locomotion and movement (2Q), Neural control and
coordination (2Q) and Chemical coordination and integration (2Q), Animal kingdom (2Q) and Structural organisation in
SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & MPL
Animals (2Q): Animal Tissues, Frog and Cockroach, Breathing and Exchange of gases (2Q), Body fluids and circulation(2Q)
and Excretory products and their elimination (2Q)
Physics : Track-1: Ray optics and Optical Instruments (8Q), Wave optics (6Q) , Dual nature of Radiation and Matter (2Q), Nuclei (2Q)
and Semiconducting devices (3Q), Systems of Particles and Rotational motion (2Q) and Gravitation(2Q)
Track 2: Current Electricity(7Q), Moving charges and Magnetism (6Q), Mechanical Properties of solids (1Q) and Fluids (2Q)
& Electrical charges and Fields (2Q), Electrostatic potential and capacitance (2Q)and Kinetic theory of gases (2Q),
Thermodynamics (2Q) and Oscillations (1Q)
Chemistry : Track 1: Solutions (4Q), Chemical kinetics (5Q) and Electrochemistry (5Q): conductance’s, faraday's laws and Single
electrode potentials
Chemical bonding and Molecular structure (2Q), Stoichiometry (2Q) and Thermodynamics(2Q), Chemical equilibrium (2Q),
Ionic equilibrium (3Q)
VIIA group (2Q) & Noble gases (3Q): up to unique behaviour of 1st element in the group, d (5Q) and f - block elements(3Q),
Classification of elements and Periodicity in properties(2Q), IIIA to VIA group elements (3Q): and Organic chemistry (7Q):
Total organic chemistry (From classification of organic compounds to diazonium salts
Guidelines :
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 question only
 BOTANY (3) It has a short life cycle and produces a
SECTION - A large number of progeny, facilitating rapid
1. Why was Mendel's work on inheritance genetic studies.
remained unrecognized until 1900? (4) It lacks hereditary variations, making
(1) Because Mendel's postulates were proved genetic analysis straightforward.
by his contemporaries. 6. What is the process of exchange of genetic
(2) Due to poor communication methods at material between two homologous
the time, making it difficult to publicize his chromosomes called?
work widely. (1) Synapsis (2) Translocation
(3) Mendel's mathematical approach to (3) Crossing over (4) Compaction
biological phenomena was widely accepted 7. What observation did Morgan make when he
in his time. carried out dihybrid crosses in Drosophila
(4) Mendel provided extensive physical proof regarding sex-linked genes?
for the existence of genes. (1) The two genes segregated independently,
2. Who were the scientists that independently resulting in a 9:3:3:1 ratio in the F2
rediscovered Mendel's results on the generation.
inheritance of characters in 1900? (2) The two genes did not segregate
(1) Watson and Crick independently, and the F2 ratio deviated from
(2) Darwin and Wallace the expected 9:3:3:1 ratio.
(3) de Vries, Correns, and von Tschermak (3) All F2 progeny showed a new
(4) Sutton and Boveri combination of traits that was not present in
3. What did Sutton and Boveri contribute to the either parent.
field of genetics? (4) The F2 generation showed no variation,
(1) They discovered the double helix indicating a lack of genetic diversity.
structure of DNA 8. What is a point mutation?
(2) They identified the molecular structure of (1) A change in the entire sequence of DNA
chromosomes. (2) The insertion or deletion of a whole
(3) They proposed the chromosomal theory segment of DNA
of inheritance, linking chromosomal (3) A change in a single base pair of DNA
segregation with Mendelian principles. (4) The supercoiling of the DNA helix
(4) They were the first to observe the process 9. What concept did Morgan introduce to
of mitosis and meiosis. explain the physical association of genes on a
4. Which of the following is considered a chromosome?
mutagen? (1) Independent assortment
(1) Water (2) UV radiation (2) Genetic mapping
(3) Sugar (4) Oxygen (3) Linkage
5. Why was Drosophila melanogaster (4) Polygenic inheritance
considered suitable for genetic studies by 10. How did Alfred Sturtevant contribute to the
Thomas Hunt Morgan? field of genetics based on Morgan's findings?
(1) It has a long life cycle, allowing for (1) By discovering the structure of DNA
extended observation periods. (2) By using the frequency of recombination
(2) It can only produce a small number of to map the position of genes on chromosomes
progeny, simplifying genetic analysis. (3) By proving that genes are located on the
X chromosome
(4) By sequencing the Human Genome
2
11. Which of the following statements is 14. Which nitrogenous base is present in RNA
incorrect regarding nucleic acids? instead of Thymine found in DNA?
(1) DNA and RNA are both polymers of (1) Adenine (2) Guanine
nucleotides acting as genetic material in all (3) Cytosine (4) Uracil
organisms. 15. Who first identified DNA as an acidic
(2) RNA primarily functions as a messenger substance in the nucleus and what did they
but can also have roles as adapter, structural, name it?
and catalytic molecule. (1) James Watson and Francis Crick; they
(3) DNA acts as the genetic material in all the named it the "Double Helix.
living organisms, while RNA acts as genetic (2) Friedrich Meischer; he named it
material in some of the viruses. "Nuclein."
(4) The determination of the complete (3) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin;
nucleotide sequence of the human genome they named it "Deoxyribonucleic Acid."
has initiated a new era of genomics. (4) Erwin Chargaff; he named it "Chargaff's
12. What did Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty Rule."
conclude from their experiment on the 16. Which of the following is characteristic of the
leaf anatomy of C4 plants?
transforming principle?
(1) Lack of chloroplasts in bundle sheath
(1) Proteins are the hereditary material cells
responsible for transformation. (2) Bundle sheath cells have thick walls and
are rich in chloroplasts
(2) RNA is the key molecule involved in the
(3) Mesophyll cells are absent
transformation of R bacteria into S bacteria. (4) Inter cellular spaces are present in bundle
(3) DNA from S bacteria was responsible for sheath cells
transforming R bacteria into S bacteria. 17. How many hydrogen bonds formed between
(4) All biochemicals equally contribute to the Adenine and Thymine in the DNA double
transformation process. helix?
13. Study the diagram given below (1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
18. What is the role of histones in the packaging
of DNA in eukaryotic cells?
(1) Histones repel the negatively charged
DNA, leading to its expulsion from the
nucleus.
(2) Histones add to the negative charge of
DNA, preventing its packaging in the
nucleus.
(3) Histones, being positively charged,
interact with negatively charged DNA to
form nucleosomes.
Which option is not correctly labelled
(4) Histones decrease the overall size of DNA
(1) A : Central cylinder
(2) B : Protoderm molecules by breaking them into smaller
(3) C : Root cap fragments.
(4) D : Root apical meristem
3
19. What role do deoxyribonucleoside (1) It directly translates the mRNA code into
triphosphates play in DNA replication? proteins without the need for amino acids.
(1) They act only as substrates for the DNA (2) It serves as an adapter molecule that reads
polymerization reaction. the genetic code and binds to specific amino
(2) They serve as primers for the initiation of acids.
replication. (3) It functions only as the initiator tRNA
(3) In addition to acting as substrates, they without binding to specific amino acids.
also provide energy for the polymerization (4) It provides the mechanism to stop protein
reaction. synthesis by binding to stop codons.
(4) They are responsible for correcting 24. How is the lac operon in E. coli regulated in
mistakes during replication to prevent the presence of lactose?
mutations. (1) The repressor binds to the operator
20. What is the role of RNA polymerase II in region, blocking RNA polymerase and
eukaryotic cells? preventing transcription.
(1) It transcribes rRNAs such as 28S, 18S, (2) Lactose interacts with the repressor
and 5.8S. protein, activating it to bind more strongly to
(2) It is responsible for the transcription of the operator.
tRNA, 5srRNA, and snRNAs. (3) Lactose or allolactose inactivates the
repressor, allowing RNA polymerase to
(3) It transcribes precursor of mRNA, known
transcribe the operon.
as heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA). (4) The repressor synthesizes more lactose,
(4) It directly produces mRNA without the inducing the operon directly.
25. Assertion (A): Prions cause infectious
need for further processing.
neurological diseases like bovine spongiform
21. Which of the following statements correctly encephalopathy (BSE) and Creutzfeldt-Jakob
describes the characteristics of the genetic disease (CJD).
code? Reason (R): Prions are infectious agents
(1) Each codon codes for multiple amino composed of misfolded proteins that can
acids, making the genetic code highly induce abnormal folding of normal variants
specific. of the same protein in the brain.
(2) The genetic code varies significantly (1) Both A and R are true, and R is the
across different organisms, from bacteria to correct explanation of A.
humans. (2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
(3) AUG codes for Methionine and serves correct explanation of A.
only one function. (3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) The genetic code is nearly universal, with (4) A is false, but R is true.
AUG acting as both an initiator codon and 26. What is the result of karyogamy and meiosis
coding for Methionine.
in the basidium of basidiomycetes?
22. What molecule acts as a catalyst for peptide
bond formation during translation? (1) Formation of a dikaryotic structure
(1) mRNA (2) tRNA (2) Production of four basidiospores
(3) r-RNA (4) DNA (3) Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation
23. What is the role of tRNA in protein
synthesis? (4) Production of asexual spores

4
27. Which of the following is a characteristic (4) Intercalary meristem helps in the
feature of gymnosperms? regeneration of grass after it has been grazed
(1) The seeds are enclosed in an ovary wall. upon.
(2) The leaves are not adapted to withstand 31. Which of the following statements is
extreme environmental conditions. INCORRECT about the vascular system in
(3) Some gymnosperms have needle-like plants?
leaves to reduce water loss. (1) In dicotyledonous stems, the presence of
(4) The roots do not form associations with cambium between phloem and xylem allows
fungi or cyanobacteria.
for the formation of secondary xylem and
28. Assertion (A): In bryophytes, the sporophyte
is not free-living but attached to the phloem, making the vascular bundles open.
gametophyte. (2) In monocotyledons, vascular bundles do
Reason (R): The sporophyte derives
not have cambium, and hence they do not
nourishment from the photosynthetic
gametophyte, which is the main plant body form secondary tissues, making them closed
and is haploid. vascular bundles.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the
(3) In radial arrangement of vascular bundles,
correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the xylem and phloem are situated on the same
correct explanation of A. radius, which is common in stems and leaves.
(3) A is true, but R is false. (4) The conjoint vascular bundles usually
(4) A is false, but R is true.
29. Which of the following best describes the have the phloem located on the outer side of
arrangement of leaflets in palmately the xylem.
compound leaves? 32. Which of the following functions correctly
(1) Leaflets are arranged in a linear sequence
matched to the specific type of endoplasmic
along the petiole.
(2) Leaflets are distributed along both sides of reticulum?
a common axis. (1) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) -
(3) Leaflets are attached at a common point at
Major site for lipid synthesis
the tip of the petiole.
(4) Leaflets are attached at different points (2) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) -
along the petiole. Major site for synthesis of steroidal hormones
30. Which of the following statements is (3) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) -
INCORRECT regarding meristematic tissues Synthesis of nucleic acids
in plants? (4) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) -
(1) Root apical meristem is located at the Primary site for protein secretion
base of the plant root. 33. Which of the following is not a component of
(2) Shoot apical meristem is found in the
distant most region of the stem axis. a nucleotide?
(3) Axillary buds, which have the potential to (1) Ribose
form branches or flowers, are derived from (2) Fatty acid
cells of the shoot apical meristem. (3) Phosphate group
(4) Nitrogenous base
5
34. Assertion (A): The Golgi apparatus is closely (1) Each strand can form proteins
associated with the endoplasmic reticulum independently without the need for a
because it modifies proteins synthesized in template.
the ER. (2) The sequence of bases in one strand
Reason (R): Proteins synthesized by predicts the sequence in the complementary
ribosomes on the ER are packaged into strand.
vesicles, which then fuse with the cis face of (3) DNA strands are identical and do not
the Golgi apparatus for modification and require a template for synthesis of new
sorting. strands.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the (4) Base pairing allows DNA to change its
correct explanation of A. structure spontaneously without a template.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the 39. Assertion (A): In C4 plants, photorespiration
correct explanation of A. does not occur because of a mechanism that
(3) A is true, but R is false. increases the concentration of CO2 at the site
(4) A is false, but R is true. of enzyme.
35. During which stage does the furrow appear in Reason (R): This mechanism involves the
the plasma membrane to divide an animal breakdown of C4 acid in the bundle sheath
cell into two daughter cells? cells, releasing CO2 and thereby increasing
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase its intracellular concentration, which ensures
(3) S-phase (4) Cytokinesis RuBisCO to act mainly as a carboxylase.
SECTION – B (1) Both A and R are true, and R is the
36. Which of the following statements about correct explanation of A.
polysaccharides is INCORRECT? (2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
(1) Glycogen is a polysaccharide found in correct explanation of A.
plants as a storage form of energy. (3) A is true, but R is false.
(2) Cellulose is a homopolymer made up of (4) A is false, but R is true.
glucose units. 40. What is the net production of ATP molecules
(3) Starch can hold I2 molecules in its helical when one molecule of glucose is fermented
structure, turning blue upon iodine treatment. to either alcohol or lactic acid?
(4) Chitin is a complex polysaccharide found (1) 2 ATP (2) 4 ATP
in the exoskeletons of arthropods. (3) 36 ATP (4) 38 ATP
37. What characteristic of Drosophila 41. Assertion (A): The Krebs' cycle takes place
melanogaster made it easier for researchers in the mitochondrial matrix and is crucial for
to conduct genetic experiments? ATP production in aerobic respiration.
(1) The inability to grow on synthetic Reason (R):The Krebs' cycle processes acetyl
medium in the laboratory. CoA to produce NADH and FADH2, which
(2) The difficulty in distinguishing between are essential for the electron transport chain
male and female flies. and ATP synthesis.
(3) The presence of many types of hereditary Select the correct option:
variations visible with low power (1) Both A and R are true, and R is the
microscopes. correct explanation of A.
(4) The requirement of high-power (2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
microscopes to identify hereditary variations. correct explanation of A.
38. What unique property is conferred by base (3) A is true, but R is false.
pairing in DNA strands? (4) A is false, but R is true.
6
42. Which of the following statements about (2) Solely on the type of phenotype being
Gibberellins is incorrect? examined.
(1) Gibberellins are used to increase the (3) Both on the gene product, its phenotype
length of grape stalks and improve the shape production, and the specific phenotype being
of apples. examined.
(2) Gibberellins reduce the length of (4) The autonomous characteristic of a gene
sugarcane stems, decreasing sugar yield. alone.
(3) Gibberellins can delay senescence, 47. What does Mendel‟s Law of Independent
allowing fruits to be left on the tree longer to Assortment state?
extend the market period. (1) The traits of an organism are inherited
(4) Gibberellins promote bolting in plants together and do not segregate.
with a rosette habit, such as beets and (2) Only one pair of traits can be inherited in
cabbages. a hybrid.
43. What is the primary agricultural use of (3) Segregation of one pair of traits is
ethephon? dependent on the segregation of another pair
(1) To reduce the absorption of nutrients in of traits.
plants. (4) Segregation of one pair of traits is
(2) To slow down the ripening process in independent of the segregation of another
fruits. pair of traits.
(3) To release ethylene slowly in plants, 48. How many phenotypes are possible for the
affecting various physiological processes human ABO blood type system?
such as fruit ripening and flowering. (1) 3 (2) 4
(4) To decrease the yield of female flowers in (3) 6 (4) 2
cucumbers. 49. What does the F2 generation phenotype ratio
44. What is the role of the micropyle in seeds? of 1 Red : 2 Pink : 1 White in the cross of
(1) To harden and form the seed coat. true-breeding red-flowered and white-
(2) To facilitate the entry of oxygen and flowered snapdragons demonstrate?
water during germination. (1) Complete dominance
(3) To increase the water content of seeds. (2) Incomplete dominance
(4) To initiate the dormancy of seeds. (3) Co-dominance
45. Which species holds the record for the oldest (4) Independent assortment
viable seed that germinated after being 50. What was significant about Gregor Mendel's
dormant? approach to studying inheritance?
(1) Lupinus arcticus, with an estimated (1) He focused only on one trait in peas,
dormancy of 10,000 years. which simplified his experiments.
(2) Phoenix dactylifera, with a dormancy (2) He used statistical analysis and
period of 2,000 years. mathematical logic, applying them to large
(3) Seeds of a large number of species that sample sizes for greater credibility.
live for several years. (3) Mendel's experiments were limited to
(4) A few species whose seeds lose viability dwarf plants and yellow seeds, ignoring other
within a few months. traits.
46. What does the concept of dominance in (4) His conclusions were based on
genetics depend on? unsubstantiated ideas rather than
(1) Only on the gene product and its ability to
experimental evidence.
produce a phenotype.
7
 ZOOLOGY 54. In frog, 10-12 vasa efferentia are 10-12 arise
SECTION – A from testes, enter the kidneys on their side
51. Given below are two statements: and open into
Statement I: In brain, the two cerebral (1) Vas deferens (2) Ureter
hemispheres are connected by corpus (3) Urethra (4) Bidder's canal
callosum. 55. Given below are two statements: one is
Statement II: Association areas of cerebral labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
cortex are responsible for complex functions labelled as Reason (R):
like intersensory associations, memory and Assertion (A): Predators can help in
communication maintaining species diversity in a
In the light of the above statements, choose community.
the correct answer from the options given Reason (R): Predators reduce the intensity of
below: competition among competing prey species.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true In the light of the above statements, choose
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is the most appropriate answer from the options
true given below:
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
false correct explanation of A
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT
false the correct explanation of A
52. Which of the following is not a function of
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
PTH?
(1) Increases Ca2+ absorption from the (4) A is correct but R is not correct
digested food. 56. What is the growth equation for a population
(2) Stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ by the provided with unlimited resources?
renal tubules dN
(3) Stimulates the process of bone resorption. (1)  rN
dt
(4) It acts as hypocalcemic hormone.
dN  K N
 rN 
 K 
53. Given below are two statements: (2)
dt
Statement I: Uric acid is excreted with -
dN  N
maximum loss of water in land snails and (3)  N 1  
dt  K
insects.
Statement II: Excretion of the least toxic - dN
(4) rN
nitrogenous waste product as the main dt
excretory product is a terrestrial adaptation. 57. Which type of natural selection takes place
In the light of the above statements, choose when more individuals acquire peripheral
the correct answer from the options given
character value at both ends of distribution
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true curve?
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is (1) Directional selection
false (2) Centripetal selection
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(3) Stabilizing selection
true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4) Disruptive selection
false
8
58. Match the following column I and column II (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-v, E-iv
and choose the correct option (2) A-ii, B-iii, C-v, D-iv, E-i
Column I Column II (3) A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-ii, E-iii
A) Physical barriers i) Interferons (4) A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-iii, E-ii
B) Physiological barriers ii) Phagocytes 63. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
C) Cellular barriers iii) Tears electrocardiogram.
D) Cytokine barriers iv) Mucus (1) P-wave represents depolarisation of atria
coating (2) The end of T-wave marks the end of atrial
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv systole
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (3) T-wave represents the return of ventricles
(3) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii from excited to normal state
(4) Ventricular systole begins shortly after Q
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
wave
59. The type of immunity which provides 64. Which of the following is not a feature of
immunological memory is cancerous tumors?
(1) Artificial passive immunity (1) Lack of contact inhibition
(2) Natural passive immunity (2) Metastasis
(3) Active acquired immunity (3) Lack of blood vessels
(4) Innate immunity (4) Abnormal cell surface proteins
60. Introduction of Gambusia into the stagnant 65. Differentiation of T-lymphocytes into
water body is a preventive measure of effector cells and memory cells usually takes
a) Chikungunya b) Ascariasis place in
c) Malaria d) Filariasis (1) Epiphysis of bone (2) Spleen
e) Amoebiasis f) Typhoid (3) Thymus (4) Red bone marrow
g) Pneumonia h) Dengue 66. Which of the following binds with
(1) a, b, e, d (2) a, c, d, e intracellular receptors?
(3) a, c, d, h (4) c, d, f, h (1) TCT (2) FSH
61. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs (3) Estrogen (4) PTH
after a normal expiration is approximately 67. Tobacco smoking causes all of the following
(1) 1500-1600 ml (2) 2100-2300 ml except
(3) 2500-3000 ml (4) 1100-1200 ml (1) It increases the concentration of
62. Match the columns I and II, and choose the haembound oxygen in blood
correct combination from the options given (2) It leads to raise in blood pressure
Column I Column II (3) It is associated with increased incidence
i) Chronic of cancer of throat
A) Ascariasis inflammation of (4) It paves the way to use hard drugs
lymphatic vessels 68. Choose the incorrect statement from the
ii) Dry scaly lesions on following
B) Pneumonia (1) T-cells help B-cells to produce antibodies
scalp
(2) Heavy chain and light chain of a typical
iii) Chills and high antibody are linked with each other by
C) Filariasis fever recurring every dipeptide bonds
3-4 days (3) Primary immune response is produced
iv) Alveoli filled with when our body encounters a pathogen for the
D) Ringworm first time
fluid
(4) IgA antibodies present in colostrum
E) Malaria v) Intestinal bleeding provide natural passive immunity to protect
the infant
9
69. Read the statements given below and select Which of the above is incorrect regarding
the correct one. convergent evolution ?
(1) Active immunity is slow and takes time to (1) C (2) D
give its full response (3) B (4) A
(2) Innate immunity is a specific type of 73. Choose the incorrect statement
defence, that is present at the time of birth (1) The pattern of inheritance of Mendelian
(3) PMNL is the main cytokine barrier disorders can not be traced in a family by
(4) Acquired immunity is attained due to pedigree analysis
primary immune response which is of high (2) "XX - XY" is the chromosomal method of
intensity sex determination in humans and fruit fly
70. Given below are two statements: One is (3) Gametes are produced by meiosis in
labeled as Assertion A and the other is female bees
labeled as Reason R: (4) Henking could not explain the
Assertion (A): Biological response modifiers significance of X-body
such as α-interferons are used to activate 74. Study the following pedigree.
immune system to destroy tumors.
Reason (R): Interferon protects non- infected
cells from further bacterial infection.
In the light of above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A)
Identify the inherited trait from the following
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
based on the above pedigree
the correct explanation of (A)
(1) Phenylketonuria
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Sickle cell anaemia
71. Which of the following is incorrect about
(4) Colour blindness
AIDS?
75. The size of VNTR varies in size from 0.1 to
(1) It spreads due to conscious behaviour
20 kb because
patterns
(1) Mutations never keep on accumulating
(2) It is a congenital disease
generation after generation
(3) HIV is an enveloped retrovirus
(2) The numbers of repeat of a small DNA
(4) RNA genome of the HIV virus replicates
sequence shows very high degree of
to form viral DNA in the macrophages with
polymorphism
the help of the enzyme reverse transcriptase
(3) The copy number of a small DNA
72. The given table showing convergent
evolution of placental mammals and sequence always remains same in all
Australian marsupials. chromosomes in an individual
Placental mammal Australian marsupial (4) VNTR are only protein coding sequences
76. Peptide hormone which stimulates
A) Flying squirrel Flying phalanger
erythropoiesis is
B) Anteater Numbat
(1) Thyroxine (2) Testosterone
C) Bobcat Spotted cuscus
(3) Cortisol (4) Erythropoietin
D) Mouse Marsupial mouse
10
77. Given below are two statements: (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Statement I: DNA fingerprinting is the basis false
of paternity testing in case of disputes, as the 80. Select the incorrect statement from the
polymorphisms are inheritable from parents following regarding insulin.
to children. (1) Insulin from animal source, may develop
Statement II: DNA collected from different allergy in some patients.
tissues of an individual usually show the (2) Recombinant insulin does not induce
same degree of polymorphism. unwanted immunological responses.
In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) Chain A and chain B are linked together
the correct answer from the options given
below: by disulphide bridges.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Proinsulin matures into insulin by
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is
acquiring C-peptide
true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is 81. Given below are two statements:
false Statement - I: Very low concentration of a
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are bacteria or virus (at a time when the
false symptoms of the disease are not yet visible)
78. In the treatment for SCID, the patient can be detected by amplification of their
requires periodic infusion of genetically nucleic acid by PCR.
engineered lymphocytes with functional Statement II: PCR is used to detect the
ADA cDNA because. antibodies of HIV.
(1) These cells do not produce ADA In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
(2) These cells are immortal
below:
(3) These cells become active in thymus (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) These cells are not immortal (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is
true
79. Given below are two statements:
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
Statement I : Toxicity testing of drugs in false
transgenic animals will allow us to obtain (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
results in less time. false
82. Choose the incorrect statement
Statement II: Transgenic animals are made
(1) Medulla oblongata contains centres which
that carry genes which make them more
sensitive to toxic substances than non- control gastric secretions
transgenic animals. (2) Brain stem forms the connections
In the light of the above statements, choose between the brain and spinal cord
the correct answer from the options given
(3) The cerebrum wraps around a structure
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true called thalamus
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is (4) Hypothalamus alone regulates sexual
true
behaviour, olfaction and expression of
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
false emotional reactions

11
83. Given below are two statements: One is (1) Rabies, dysentery, small pox
labeled as Assertion A and the other is (2) Measles, plague, Toxoplasmosis
(3) Mumps, pertusis, hepatitis
labeled as Reason R:
(4) Diphtheria, plague, dysentery
Assertion (A): The possibility of a female 87. Match the following column I and column II
becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare. and choose the correct option
Column I Column II
Reason (R): Mother of such a female has to
A) Round worm i) Stinging cells
be at least carrier and the father should be
B) Earth worm ii) Sac-like gut
haemophilic (unviable in the later stage of
C) Flat worm iii) Complete gut
life). iv) Closed blood
D) Hydra
In the light of above statements, choose the vascular system
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
most appropriate answer from the options
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
given below. (3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is (4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
the correct explanation of (A) 88. Given below are two statements: One is
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not labeled as Reason (R):
the correct explanation of (A) Assertion (A): The body cavity that is present
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct in round worms is called pseudocoelom
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct Reason (R): The body cavity in these animals
84. Match the column I and column II and is not lined by mesoderm, instead, the
choose the correct option mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in
A) Pre-historic cave i) 10,000 years between the exoderm and endoderm.
art back In the light of above statements, choose the
ii) 18,000 years most appropriate answer from the options
B) Agriculture
ago given below.
C) Neanderthal man iii) 1.5 mya (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
iv) Between the correct explanation of (A)
D) Homo erectus 1,00,000 -40,000 (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
years back
the correct explanation of (A)
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D–iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
89. Which of the following cell junctions
85. In human, trachea divides into a right and left
primary bronchi at the level of perform cementing to keep the neighbouring
(1) 5th cervical vertebra cells together?
(2) 7th thoracic vertebra (1) Neuro-muscular junctions
(3) 7th cervical vertebra (2) Gap junctions
(4) 5th thoracic vertebra
SECTION - B (3) Adhering junctions
86. Identify the bacterial diseases among the (4) Tight junctions
following sets 12
90. Study the following statements 94. Match the following column-1 with
a) Lymph has the same mineral distribution column-ll w.r.t. reproductive system of
as that in plasma cockroach and choose the correct option
b) Lymph is also an important carrier for Column-I Column-II
nutrients, hormones etc., i) 2nd-6th abdominal
A) Testis
c) Lymphatic system collects interstitial fluid segments
and drains it back to the major arteries ii) 4th-6th abdominal
B) Ovary
d) Fats are absorbed through lymph in the segments
lacteals present in the intestinal villi iii) 6th abdominal
C) Mushroom gland
Which of the above are correct? segment
(1) a, b and d (2) b and c iv) 6th-7th
(3) c and d (4) a, b, c and d D) Spermatheca
abdominal segments
91. Given below are two statements: One is (1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
labeled as Assertion A and the other is (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
labeled as Reason R: (3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
Assertion (A): Net filtration pressure (4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
decreases at Malpighian body when the 95. Age pyramid which represents declining
amount of plasma proteins exceeds their population size would appear when
normal amount in the plasma (1) Pre-reproductive and post reproductive
Reason (R): Blood colloidal osmotic pressure individuals are equal in number
which is caused due to plasma proteins (2) Pre-reproductive individuals are more
opposes the glomerular hydrostatic pressure. than post-reproductive individuals.
In the light of above statements, choose the (3) Pre-reproductive individual and
most appropriate answer from the options reproductive individuals are equal in number
given below. (4) Post reproductive individuals are more
(1) Both A and R correct, R is the correct than pre- reproductive individuals
explanation of A 96. Read the following four statements (A-D) :
(2) A is true but R is false (A) In all connective tissues, cells secrete
(3) A is false but R is true fibres.
(4) Both A and R correct. R is not correct (B) Fibres in connective tissue provide
explanation of A. strength, elasticity and flexibility to the
92. Which drug interferes with the transport of tissue.
the neurotransmitter dopamine? (C) Connective tissues are avascular
(1) Hashish (D) Cardiac muscles are derived from
(2) Cocaine mesoderm
(3) Heroin Which of the above statements are correct?
(4) Cannabinoid (1) B and D (2) A and D
93. The most abundant and widely distributed (3) B and C (4) C and D
tissue in the body of complex animals is 97. A population has more young individuals
(1) Epithelial tissue compared to the older and reproductive
(2) Nervous tissue individuals. What would be the status of the
(3) Muscular tissue population after some years?
(4) Connective tissue (1) It will decline (2) It will stabilize
(3) It will increase
(4) It will stabilize, then decline
13
98. Which of the following statements is not 102. A point object is moving on the principal
applicable to logistic growth of a population? axis of a concave mirror of focal length 24
(1) This type of growth is also called cm towards the mirror. When it is at a
Verhulst- Pearl logistic growth distance of 60 cm from the mirror, its
(2) Phase of acceleration is preceeded by velocity is 9 cm/sec. What is the velocity of
deceleration phase. the image at that instant?
(3) It occurs when resources are limited (1) 5cm /sec (2) 12 cm /sec
(4) Growth rate at initial stage is slow.
99. Which of the following best exemplifies (3) 4 cm /sec (4) 9 cm /sec
resource partitioning? 103. A bubble in glass slab (  = 1.5) when
(1) Cuscuta and hedge plant viewed from one side appears at 5cm and
(2) Warbler bird species 2cm from other side, then thickness of slab is
(3) Wasp and fig fruit
(4) Barnacles and whales (1) 3.75 cm (2) 2 cm
100. Given below are two statements: one is (3) 10.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
104. The refractive index of the material of a
labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A): Logistic growth model is prism is 2 and its refracting angle is 30o.
considered a more realistic one. One of the refracting surfaces of the prism is
Reason (R): Resources for growth for most silvered. A beam of monochromatic light
animal populations are finite and become entering the prism from the other face will
limiting sooner or later. retrace its path after reflection from the
In the light of the above statements, choose silvered surface if its angle of incidence on
the most appropriate answer from the options the prism is
given below: (1) 60o (2) 0o
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(3) 30o (4) 45o
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT 105. An object and its real image are located at
the correct explanation of A distances 25 cm and 40 cm respectively from
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
the two principal focii of a convex lens. The
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
PHYSICS focal length lens is
SECTION – A
101. Figure shows two plane mirrors parallel to (1) 10 cm (2) 10 10 cm
each other and an object O placed between (3) 15 cm (4) 65 cm
them. Then the distance of the first three
106. Which of the following is not due to total
images from the mirror M2will be:(in cm)
internal reflection?
(1) Working of optical fibre
(2) Difference between apparent and real
depth of a pond
(3) Mirage on hot summer days
(1) 5, 10, 15 (2) 5, 15, 30 (4) Brilliance of diamond
(3) 5, 25, 35 (4) 5, 15, 25
14
107. If the focal length of objective lens is 1
increased then magnifying power of (1)  (2) 
2
(1) Microscope will increase but that of
3
telescope decrease. (3) 2  (4) 
2
(2) Microscope and telescope both will
112. In a Fraunhofer's diffraction obtained by a
increase.
single slit aperture, the value of path
(3) Microscope and telescope both will difference for nth order of minima is:
decrease.
(1) n  (2) 2n 
(4) Microscope will decrease but that of
telescope increase. (3) (2n – 1)  /2 (4) (2n – 1) 

108. A vessel is half filled with a liquid of 113. In a photoelectric experiment the graph of
refractive index  . The other half of the frequency  of incident light (in Hz) and
stopping potential V (in volt) is shown
vessel is filled with an immiscible liquid of
below. From figure the value of the Planck's
refractive index 1.5  . The apparent depth of
constant is (e is the elementary charge)
vessel is 50% of the actual depth. The value
of  is

(1) 1.6 (2) 1.67

(3) 1.5 (4) 1.4
109. If  is phase difference between current(I)
and voltage (V), the wattles component of
current is: ab cb
(1) e (2) e
cb ab
(1) I cos  (2) I sin 
ac ac
(3) I tan  (4) I cos 2  (3) e (4) e
bc ab
110. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their 114. The total energy of an electron in an atom in
axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential
light I0 is incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 energies are, respectively
is kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis (1) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV
makes an angle 45o with that of P1. The
(2) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
intensity of transmitted light through P2 is
(3) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
I I
(1) 0 (2) 0 (4) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
4 8
115. In a p-n junction diode, change in
I I temperature due to heating
(3) 0 (4) 0
16 2 (1) Affects only reverse resistance
111. In an interference pattern of two waves fringe (2) Affects only forward resistance
width is  . If the frequency of source is
(3) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
doubled then fringe width will become:
(4) Affects the overall V-I characteristics of
p-n junction
15
116. Assertion(A): If earth suddenly stops rotating (1) T (2) T(1-p)
about its axis, then the value of acceleration
T
due to gravity will become same at all the (3) (4) T 1  p
1 p
places.
Reason(R): The value of acceleration due to 121. In the P-V diagram, I is the initial state and F
gravity is dependent on rotation of earth and is the final state. The gas goes from I to F by
latitude (i) IAF (ii) IBF, (iii) ICF. The heat absorbed
by the gas is
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
explains (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does
not explains (A).
(3) (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. (1) the same in all three processes
117. In Young‟s double slit experiment, the (2) the same in (i) and (ii)
separation between the slits is 0.1mm, the
(3) greater in (i) than in (iii)
wavelength of light used is 600 nm and the
interference pattern is observed on a screen 1 (4) the same in (i) and (iii)
m away from the slits. Find the separation 122. A vessel contains Ne and O2 two non-reactive
between the successive bright fringes. gases and the ratio of their partial pressure is
(1) 2 mm (2) 6 mm 3:2. The ratio of mass density of neon and
oxygen in the vessel will be
(3) 4 mm (4) 3 mm
118. If the ratio of concentration of electrons to 16 15
(1) (2)
7 15 16
that of holes in a semiconductor is and
5 3 2
(3) (4)
7 2 3
ratio of currents due to electrons to hols is
4 123. The flow speeds of air on the lower and upper
. The ratio of drift velocities is surfaces of the wing of an aeroplane and v
4 5 and 3 V respectively. The density of air is p
(1) (2) and surface area of wing is A. The dynamic
7 8
lift on the wing is
4 5
(3) (4) (1) pv 2 A (2) 3pv 2 A
5 4
3 2
119. A perfect gas at 270 C is heated at constant (3) pv A (4) 2pv 2 A
pressure so as to triple its volume. The 2
temperature of the gas will be 124. A cell develops the same power across two
(1) 81 C 0
(2) 900 C 0 resistances R1 and R2 separately. The internal
0
resistance of the cell is
(3) 627 C (4) 4500C
R1  R 2
120. The period of small oscillation of a simple (1) R1  R 2 (2)
2
pendulum is T. The ratio of density of liquid
to the density of material of the bob is R 1R 2
p(p  1). When immersed in the liquid, the (3) R1R 2 (4)
2
time period of small oscillation will now be
16
125. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 129. In an electrolyte 3.2 1018 bivalent positive
60 . Shows full scale deflection when a ions drift to the right per second while
current of 1.0 amp passes through it. It can
3.6 1018 monovalent negative ions drift to
converted into an ammeter to read currents up
to 5.0 amp by the left per second. Then, the current is

(1) putting in series a resistance of 15 (1) 1.6 Amp to the left
(2) putting in series a resistance of 240 (2) 1.6 Amp to the right
(3) putting in parallel a resistance of 15 (3) 0.45 Amp to the left
(4) putting in parallel a resistance of 240 (4) 0.45 Amp to the right
126. Assertion: The electric bulbs glows 130. A copper wire of length 1m and radius 1mm
immediately when switch is on. is connected in series with another wire of
Reason: The drift velocity of electrons in a iron of length 2m and radius 3mm. A steady
metallic wire is very high current is passed through this combination.
(1) If both the assertion and reason are true The ratio of current densities in copper and
and reason is a true explanation of the iron wires will be
assertion.
(1) 18 : 1 (2) 9 : 1
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true
but the reason is not the correct explanation (3) 6 : 1 (4) 2 : 3
of assertion.
131. A block of ice at – 100 C is slowly heated and
(3) If the assertion is true but reason is false converted to steam at 1000 C. Which of
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. following curves represents the phenomenon
qualitatively
127. Two similar coils of radius R are lying
concentrically with their planes at right
angles to each other. The currents flowing in
them are I and 2I, respectively. The resultant
magnetic field induction at the centre will be

0I 5 0 I
(1) (2)
R 2R
30 I 0I
(3) (4)
2R 2R
128. Variation in electric field for uniformly
charged sphere is shown in figure then value
of x

R R
(1) (2)
3 4
R 3R
(3) (4)
2 8 17
132. The electric field in a region surrounding the (2) q p s r
origin is uniform and along the x – axis. A (3) p q s r
small circle is drawn with the centre at the
origin cutting the axes at points A, B, C, D (4) p q r s
having coordinates (a,0); (0,a); (-a, 0); (0, -a) 1th
respectively as shown in the figure. Then the 135. A body floats with volume outside water
4
potential is minimum at the point
and half of the volume outside a liquid, then
the density of liquid is
(1) 1.5 kgm 3 (2) 1500 kg m3

(3) 100 kgm 3 (4) 2000 kg m3

(1) A (2) B SECTION - B

(3) C (4) D 136. A beam of light from a source L is incident

normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain
133. A circular loop has a radius of 5cm and it is distance x from the source. The beam is
carrying a current of 0.1 A, its magnetic reflected back as a spot on a scale placed just
moment is above the source L. When the mirror is
(1) 1.32 104 amp  m2 rotated through a small angle  , the spot of
the light is found to move through a distance
(2) 2.62  104 amp  m 2 y on the scale. The angle  is given by
(3) 5.25 104 amp  m 2 y x
(1) (2)
x 2y
(4) 7.85 104 amp  m 2

134. A particle is making SHM with time period x y

(3) (4)
T. After starting from mean position, match y 2x
the time required to complete fraction of
137. A light has amplitude A and angle between
oscillation. Fraction of oscillation Time
analyser and polariser is 60o. Light is
required
transmitted by analyser has amplitude.
Column I Column II
A
(1) A 2 (2)
1th 5T 2
a) oscillation p)
8 12
3A A
th T (3) (4)
3 q) 2 2 2
b) oscillation
8 12
138. A proton moves on a circular path of radius
5 th 7T 6.6 x 10–3 m in a perpendicular magnetic
c) oscillation r)
8 12 field of 0.625 tesla. The de Broglie
wavelength associated with the proton will
d) 1 oscillation s) T be
a b c d (1) 1Å (2) 0.1Å
(1) q p r s (3) 0.01Å (4) 0.001Å
18
139. What is missing in the following nuclear In the given figure a particle of charge q,
reaction 1 H2 1 H2 2 He3  mass m & velocity V0 enters in a field B0
Find the value of L
(1) Positron (2) Meson
mV0 mV0
(3) Neutron (4) Electron (1) (2)
qB0 2qB0
140. In the fusion of U235.
2mV0 mV0
(i) Slow neutron is absorbed by U235. (3) (4)
qB0 3qB0
(ii) The products in the process are not same
144. A liquid take 5 minutes to cool from 800 C to
always, their atomic number varies from 34
500 C. The time it will take to cool from
to 58.
600C to 300C if surrounding temperature is
(iii) About 200 Mev energy is released per 200C
fission.
(1) 5 min (2) 9 min
(iv) The products are always Ba and Kr.
(3) 8 min (4) 6 min
(1) Only i, ii and iii are true
145. The electric potential V at any point O (x, y,
(2) Only ii and iii are true. z all in metres) in space is given by v=4x2
(3) Only i, iii, iv are true. volt. The electric field at the point (1m, 0,2m)
in volt/metre is
(4) Only i, ii and true.
(1) 8 along negative x – axis
141. Two discs have same mass and thickness
their materials are of densities d1, d2, the ratio (2) 8 along positive x – axis
of their moment of inertia about natural axis (3) 16 along negative x – axis
will be
(4) 16 along positive z – axis
(1) d1 : d2 (2) d1d2 : 1
146. A particle „A‟ of mass m and charge Q moves
(3) 1 : d1d2 (4) d2: d1 directly towards a fixed particle „B‟ which
142. The value of acceleration due to gravity at has charge Q. The speed of A is v when it is
certain height h above the free surface of far away from B. The minimum separation
between particles is proportional to
x
earth is where x is the value of
4 (1) v (2) v 2
acceleration due to gravity at surface of earth
(3) v 1 (4) v2
then “h” is
147. Two wires A and B made of same material
(1) R (2) 2R and having their lengths in the ratio 6 : 1 are
(3) 3R (4) 4R connected in series. The potential difference
across the wires are 3 V and 2 V respectively.
143. If rA and rB are the radii of A and B
r
respectively, then B is
rA
1 1
(1) (2)
4 2
(3) 1 (4) 2
19
148. An equilateral triangular loop of wire of side Statement-II: The orbital angular momentum
l carries a current i. The magnetic field h
is given by the relation l  l  1 and the
produced at the circumcenter of the loop is 2
 3 3i  9i
value of it is same for 2s-electron and 3s-
(1) 0 , (2) 0 , electron.
4 l 4 l
(1) Both S-I and S-II are correct.
 18i  6i
(3) 0 , (4) 0 , (2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect.
4 l 4 l
(3) S-I is correct, S-II is incorrect.
149. Consider the following two statements. (4) S-I in incorrect, S-II is correct.
(A) Kirchhoff's junction law follows from the 153. The atomic weights of two elements A and B
conservation of charge. are 40 u and 80 u respectively. If x g of A
(B) Kirchhoff's loop law follows from the contains y atoms, how many atoms are
conservation of energy. present in 2x g of B:

Which of the following is correct? y y

(1) (2)
2 4
(1) Both (A) and (B) are wrong
(3) y (4) 2y
(2) (A) is correct and (B) is wrong
154. An element is found in nature in two isotopic
(3) (A) is wrong and (B) is correct
forms with mass numbers (A - 1) and (A +
(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct 3). If the average atomic mass of the element
150. The electric field in a region is given by is found to be A, then the relative abundance
2E 3E of the heavier isotope in the nature will be.
E  0 ˆi  0 ˆj with E 0  4  103 N / C
5 5 (1) 66.6% (2) 75%
The flux of the field through a rectangular (3) 25% (4) 33.3%
surface area 0.4m2 in YZ plane is
155. The lattice energy of solid NaCl is 180
(1) 640Nm / C 2 2
(2) 320Nm / C kcal/mol. The dissolution of solid in water, in
the form of ions is endothermic to the extent
2
(3) 160Nm2 / C (4) 80Nm / C of 1 kcal/mol. If the hydration energies of
Na+ and Cl– are in the ratio 6:5, what is the
CHEMISTRY enthalpy of hydration of Na+ ion?
SECTION – A (1) 100 kcal/mol
151. What is the lowest energy of the spectral line (2) 82.6 kcal/mol
emitted in the Lyman series of hydrogen
(3) -97.6 kcal/mol
atom?
(4) -85.6 kcal/mol
5hR H c 4hR H c
(1) (2) 156. The standard enthalpies of formation of
36 3
CO2(g), H2O(l) and glucose (s) at 25oC are –
3hR H c 7hR H c 400 kJ/mole, –300 kJ/mole, –1300 kJ/mole
(3) (4) respectively. The standard enthalpy of
4 144
combustion per gram of glucose at 25oC is:
152. Statement-I: The orbital angular momentum (1) –2900 kJ (2) +2900 kJ
of 2s-electron is equal to that of 3s-electron.
(3) –16.11 kJ (4) +16.11 kJ
20
157. Match List-I (Molecules) with List-II (Bond at equilibrium, 50% of X(g) is dissociated.
order) and select the correct answer using the What is the partial pressure (in atm) of X(g)
codes. at equilibrium?
(1) 1 (2) 4
LIST-I LIST-II
(3) 2 (4) 0.5
I. Li2 A. 3 161. A mono-basic weak acid solution has a
II. N2 B. 1.5 molarity of 0.005 M and pH of 5. What is the
percentage ionisation of the solution?
III. Be2 C. 1 (1) 2.0 (2) 0.2
IV. O2 D. 0 (3) 0.5 (4) 20.0
162. A certain buffer solution contains equal
E. 2
concentration of X– and HX. The Ka for HX
Codes is 10-8. The pH of buffer is
(1) I – B, II – C, III – A, IV – E (1) 3 (2) 8
(3) 11 (4) 14
(2) I – C, II – A, III – D, IV – E 163. Solubility product constants (Ksp) of salt MX,
(3) I – D, II – A, III – E, IV – C MX2, M3X at temperature “T” are 4.0 ×10-8,
3.2 x 10-14, and 2.7×10-15 respectively.
(4) I – C, II – B, III – E, IV – A
Solubility (mol dm-3) of the salts at
158. Which of the following statements are temperature “T” are in the order:
correct? (1) MX > MX2> M3X
I. The hybridisation found in cation of solid (2) M3X > MX2> MX
PCl5 is sp3. (3) MX2> M3X > MX
II. In AB2L2 type, the BAB bond angle is (4) MX > M3X > MX2
always greater than the normal tetrahedral 164. What will be the degree of dissociation of 0.1
bond angle. (L=Lone pairs) M Mg(NO3)2 solution if Van‟t Hoff factor is
III. In ClO3–, NH3and XeO3, the 2.74?
hybridisation and the number of lone pairs on (1) 75% (2) 87%
the central atoms are same. (3) 100% (4) 92%
IV. In discrete P4 molecule, there are six P-P 165. Assertion: When a solution is separated from
bonds and four lone pairs of electrons. the pure solvent by a semipermeable
(1) I, II and III only membrane, the solvent molecules pass
(2) I, III and IV only through it from pure solvent side to the
(3) III and IV only solution side.
(4) I, II & IV only Reason: Diffusion of solvent occurs from a
159. 2HI(g) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) region of high concentration solution to a
The equilibrium constant of the above region of low concentration solution.
reaction is 6.4 at 300 K. If 0.25 mole each of (1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and
H2 and I2 are added to the system, the the Reason is a correct explanation of the
equilibrium constant will be: Assertion.
(1) 0.8 (2) 3.2 (2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but
(3) 1.6 (4) 6.4 Reason is not a correct explanation of the
o
160. At 600 C, Kp for the following reaction is 1 Assertion.
atm, X(g) Y(g) + Z(g) (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but Reason is True.
21
166. The specific conductivity of N/10 KCl transition metal oxides is attained in Sc2O3 to
solution at 20oC is 0.0212 ohm-1 cm-1 and the Mn2O7.
resistance of the cell containing this solution (C) Basic character increases from V2O3 to
at 20oC is 55  . The cell constant is: V2O4 to V2O5.
(1) 3.324 cm-1 (D) V2O4dissolves in acids to give VO43-
(2) 1.166 cm-1
salts.
(3) 2.372 cm-1
(E) CrO is basic but Cr2O3is amphoteric.
(4) 3.682 cm-1
(1) C and D only
167. 75% of a first order reaction is completed in
(2) B and C only
30 minutes. What is the time required for
(3) A and E only
93.75% of the reaction in minutes?
(4) B and D only
(1) 45 (2) 120
172. In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium
(3) 90 (4) 60
KMnO4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The
168. N 2 + 3H 2 2NH 3 + 22 K.cal change in oxidation state of manganese in
(g) (g) (g)
this reaction is from
The activation energy for forward reaction is
(1) +7 to +4 (2) +6 to +4
50 Kcal. What is the activation energy for the
(3) +7 to +3 (3) +6 to +5
backward reaction?
173. Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of
(1) +72 Kcal (2) –72 Kcal
(3) +28 Kcal (4) –28 Kcal the following pairs of elements have nearly
169. The stability of Cu is more than Cu+ salts in
2+
same atomic radii? (Numbers in the
aqueous solution due to
parenthesis are atomic numbers)
(1) hydration energy
(2) second ionisation enthalpy (1) Zr(40) and Hf(72)
(3) first ionisation enthalpy (2) Zr(40) and Ta(73)
(4) enthalpy of atomization (3) Ti(22) and Zr(40)
170. Identify the incorrect statement. (4) Zr(40) and Nb(41)
(1) Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than 174. More number of oxidation states are
Fe2+ (d6) in aqueous solution.
(2) The transition metals and their exhibited by the actinoids than by the
compounds are known for their catalytic lanthanoids. The main reason for this is
activity due to their ability to adopt multiple (1) more active nature of the actinoids.
oxidation states and to form complexes.
(2) more energy difference between 5f and
(3) Interstitial compounds are those that are
formed when small atoms like H, C or N are 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d
trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals. orbitals.
(4) The oxidation states of chromium in
(3) lesser energy difference between 5f and
CrO42- and Cr2O72- are not the same.
6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d
171. Which of the following statements are
incorrect? orbitals.
(A) All the transition metals except scandium (4) greater metallic character of the
form MO oxides which are ionic. lanthanoids than that of the corresponding
(B) The highest oxidation number
actinoids.
corresponding to the group number in
22
175. Statement I: Acid strength increases in the In the light of the above statements, choose
order given as the correct answer from the options given
HF< HCl <HBr<HI. below.
Statement II: As the size of the elements F, (1) A is true but R is false.
Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond (2) A is false but R is true.
strength of HF, HCl, HBr, and HI decreases (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
and so the acid strength increases.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is not the
In the light of the above statements, choose correct explanation of A.
the correct answer from the options given 179. The basic character of hydrides of the
below. 15thgroup elements decreases in the order.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (1) NH3> PH3> AsH3> SbH3
true. (2) SbH3> AsH3> PH3> NH3
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true. (3) SbH3> PH3> AsH3> NH3
(3) Both statement I and statement II are (4) NH3> SbH3> PH3> AsH3
false. 180. Given below are two statements:
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is Statement-I : The boiling points of the
false. following hydrides of group 16 elements
176. Which one of the following orders is not in increases in the order:
accordance with the property stated against H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te.
it? Statement-II: The boiling points of these
(1) F2> Cl2> Br2> I2 : Bond dissociation hydrides increase with increase in molecular
energy mass.
(2) F2> Cl2> Br2> I2 : Oxidising power In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) HI > HBr > HCl > HF : Acidic property the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
in water
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(4) F > Cl > Br > I : Electronegativity correct.
177. Match the terms given in Column-I with the (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
units given in Column-II incorrect.
Column-I Column-II (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(a) ˄m (i) S cm-1 incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II
(b) Ecell (ii) m-1
is correct.
(c)  (iii) S cm2mol-1 181. Which of the following statements about
(d) G* (iv) V noble gases is incorrect?
(1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c)-(iv) (d)-(i) (1) They are monoatomic.
(2) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(iii) (d)-(i) (2) They are colourless, odourless and
(3) (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii) tasteless gases.
(3) They are sparingly soluble in water.
(4) (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iii) (d)-(iv)
(4) They have extremely high melting and
178. Given below are two statements: One is boiling points.
labelled as Assertion A and the other is 182. Which of the following is incorrect
labelled as Reason R: statement?
Assertion A: Helium is used to dilute oxygen (1) SnF4 is ionic in nature.
in diving apparatus. (2) PbF4 is covalent in nature.
Reason R : Helium has high solubility in (3) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed.
blood. (4) GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable
than GeX2.
23
183. Which electronic configuration of an element mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mole of Q would
has abnormally high difference between be
second and third ionization energy? (1) 140 torr (2) 20 torr
(1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1 (3) 68 torr (4) 72 torr
(2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1 187. Correct statement(s) is/are:
(3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p2 A. Radioactive decay follows first order
(4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 kinetics.
184. Identify the product in the following B. If concentration of the reactant is doubled,
reaction: half life remain constant in the zero order
reaction.
C. For a zero order reaction, t1/2 is directly
proportional to the initial concentration of the
reactants and inversely proportional to the
rate constant.
D. For first order reaction, t1/2 is independent
of initial concentration of the reacting
species.
(1) Only A and B (2) A, C and D
(3) Only B (4) B and C
188. Statement-I: Rate of a reaction depends upon
the concentration of reactant for both zero
and first order reactions.
Statement-II: Units of rate of reaction will be
different for zero order reaction and first
order reactions.
185. (1) Both S-I and S-II are correct.
(2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect.
(3) S-I is correct, S-II is incorrect.
(4) S-I in incorrect, S-II is correct.
189. In one molal solution, which contains 0.5
mole of a solute, there will be
(1) 1000 g of solvent
(2) 250 mL of solvent
In the above reaction product P is (3) 500 g of solvent
(4) 100 mL of solvent
190. At what concentration of ZnSO4, the
reduction potential of Zn electrode is –
0.82 V (SRP of Zn electrode is
(–0.76 V)
(1) 1 M (2) 0.1 M
(2) 0.05 M (4) 0.01 M
191. The mixture that forms maximum boiling
azeotrope is
SECTION – B (1) Water + Nitric acid
186. The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q (2) Ethanol + Water
are 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total (3) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
vapour pressure of solution obtained by (4) Heptane + Octane
24
192. When 0.1 mole MnO42- is oxidised, the 196. The correct order of reactivity towards the
electrophilic substitution of the compounds
quantity of electricity required to completely
aniline (I), benzene (II) and nitrobenzene
oxidise MnO42- to MnO-4 is (III) is
(1) 96500 C (2) 2 x 96500 C (1) III > II > I (2) II > III > I
(3) 9650 C (4) 96.50 C (3) II > I > III (4) I > II > III
193. What is the IUPAC name of the organic 197. In the reaction
compound formed in the following chemical H  C  CH 
(i) NaNH2 /liq.NH3
X
(ii) CH3CH2Br
reaction?
Acetone 
(i) C2 H5MgBr, dry ether
 Product 
(i) NaNH2 /liq.NH3
(ii) CH3CH 2 Br
 Y , X and Y are
(ii) H O, H
2

(1) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol (1) X = 2-butyne, Y = 2-hexyne

(2) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol (2) X = 1-butyne, Y = 2-hexyne
(3) Pentan-2-ol (4) Pentan-3-ol (3) X = 1-butyne, Y = 3-hexyne
194. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the (4) X = 2-butyne, Y = 3-hexyne
following sequence of reactions: 198. Compound X on reaction with O3followed by
Zn/H2O gives formaldehyde and 2-
methylpropanal as products. The compound
X is
(1) 3-methylbut-1-ene
(2) 2-methylbut-1-ene
(3) 2-methylbut-2-ene
(4) pent-2-ene
199. For the conversion of ethane to ethanoic acid
the proper reagent is:
(1) O2 / Mo2O3
(2) O2 / (CH3COO)2 Mn
(3) O2 / Cu (4) O2 / Zn
200. If 54 g of silver is deposited during an
electrolysis reaction, how much aluminium
will be deposited by the same amount of
electric current?
(1) 2.7 g (2) 4.5 g
(3) 27 g (4) 5.4 g

195. Elimination reaction of 2-bromopentane to

form pent-2-ene is
(A) β-Elimination reaction
(B) follows Zaitsev rule
(C) dehydrohalogenation reaction
(D) dehydration reaction
(1) (A), (B), (C) (2) (A), (C), (D)
(3) (B), (C), (D) (4) (A), (B), (D)

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