09-02-2025

7501CMD303001240049 MD

PHYSICS

1) In a U tube experiment, a column AB of water is balanced by a column CD of paraffin. The relative

density of paraffin is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The circular scale of a micrometer has 200 divisions and pitch of 2 mm. Find the measured value

of thickness of a thin sheet.

(1) 3.41 mm
(2) 6.41 mm
(3) 3.46 mm
(4) 3.51 mm

3) When torque is acting on a body, then body :-

(1) Continue in the state of rest or uniform motion along a straight line
(2) Gets linear acceleration
(3) Rotates at constant speed
(4) Gets angular acceleration

4)

For a particle executing S.H.M., when the potential energy of the oscillator becomes 1/8 the
maximum potential energy, the displacement of the oscillator in terms of amplitude A will be..........

(1) A/√2
(2) A/2√2
(3) A/2
(4) A/3√2

5) If the number of divisions on the circular scale is 100 and number of full rotations given to screw
is 8 and distance moved by the screw is 4 mm, then what will be least count of the screw gauge?

(1) 0.001 mm
(2) 0.005 mm
(3) 0.010 mm
(4) 0.100 mm

6) A metal wire (Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2) whose radius is 0.5 mm can bear maximum strain of 10–3. How
much maximum weight can be suspended on the wire :-

(1) 100 N
(2) 137 N
(3) 125 N
(4) 157 N

7) A tuning fork of frequency 330 Hz resonates with an air column of length 120 cm in a cylindrical
tube. Find minimum height of water required for observing resonance. (velocity of sound 330 ms–1)

(1) 75 cm
(2) 50 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 45 cm

8) A uniform circular disc A of radius r is made from a copper plate of thickness t and another
uniform circular disc B of radius 2r is made from a copper plate of thickness t/2. The relation
between the moments of inertia IA and IB about their own axis is

(1) IA > IB
(2) IA = IB
(3) IA < IB
(4) depends on the values of t and r.

9) A closed vessel X contains 4 mole of H2 and another closed vessel Y contains 6 mole of O2 at same
temperature, then :

(1) Kinetic energy of a hydrogen molecule is same as that of an oxygen molecule

(2)
Kinetic energy of a hydrogen molecule is of kinetic energy of an oxygen molecule

(3)
Kinetic energy of a hydrogen molecule is times of kinetic energy of an oxygen molecule
(4)
Kinetic energy of a hydrogen molecule is times of the kinetic energy of an oxygen molecule.

10)

If the volume of a block of aluminium is decreased by 1%, the pressure (stress) on its surface is
increased by:

(Bulk modulus of Al = 7.5 × 1010 Nm–2) :-

(1) 7.5 × 1010N m–2
(2) 7.5 × 108N m–2
(3) 7.5 × 106N m–2
(4) 7.5 × 104N m–2

11) The length of a wire is doubled, when 20 × 108 N/m2 stress is developed in it. Its Young's
modulus of elasticity in N/m2 will be :-

(1) 20 × 108
(2) 20 × 109
(3) 20 × 1010
(4) 10 × 108

12) A car is moving on a circular road of radius 100m. At some instant its speed is 20 m/s and is
increasing at the rate of 3 m/s2. The magnitude of its acceleration is

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

13) The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by :-

y = 3 sin (50 t – x),

where x and y are in metres and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the wave
velocity is :-

(1) 3π

(2)
π
(3) 2π

(4)
π

14) The centre of mass of a body :

(1) Lies always outside the body

(2) May lie within, outside, on the surface of the body
(3) Lies always inside the body
(4) Lies always on the surface of the body

15)

From the given displacement time graph of an oscillating particle, find the maximum velocity of the
particle

(1) 2 ms-1
(2) π ms-1
(3) 0.2π ms-1
(4) 0.4π ms-1

16) A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger circular disc of radius 2R such that the
circumferences of the discs coincide. The centre of mass of the new disc is αR from the centre of the
bigger disc. The value of α is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A vernier callipers has 20 divisions on the vernier scale which coincide with 18 divisions on the
main scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. Then find out the value of main scale
division.

(1) 0.4 mm
(2) 4 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 2 mm

18) N moles of an ideal diatomic gas are in a cylinder at temperature T. Suppose on supplying heat
to the gas, its temperature remain constant but n moles get dissociated into atoms. Heat supplied to
the gas is :

(1) Zero

(2)
nRT
(3)
nRT

(4)
(N – n)RT

19) A spring of force constant k is cut in two parts at its one third length. When both the parts are
stretched by same amount, the work done in the two parts, will be

(1) equal in both

(2) greater for the longer part
(3) greater for the shorter part
(4) data insufficient

20) In the given diagram the distance travelled by the plank when A and B exchange their positions:

(1) 2 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 4.8 m
(4) 5.4 m

21) A block of mass m rests on a platform. The platform is given vertical up and down SHM with an
amplitude d. What can be the maximum frequency so that the block never leaves the platform?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Two identical blocks of ice float in water as shown. Then :-

(1) Block A displaces a greater volume of water since the pressure acts on a smaller bottom area.
(2) Block B displaces a greater volume of water since the pressure is less on its bottom.
(3) The two blocks displace equal volumes of water since they have the same weight.
(4) Block A displaces a greater volume of water since its submerged end is lower in the water.

23)
A body weighs 50 g in air and 40 g in water. How much would it weigh in a liquid of relative density
1.5 :-

(1) 30 g
(2) 35 g
(3) 65 g
(4) 45 g

24) Six moles of an ideal gas perform a cycle shown in figure. If the temperature are TA = 600 K, TB
= 800 K, TC = 2200 K and TD = 1200 K, the work done per cycle is approximately :

(1) 20 kJ
(2) 30 kJ
(3) 40 kJ
(4) 60 kJ

25) Two sound waves represented by

y1 = 10 sin (2000πt + 2x) and

y2 = 10 sin are superposed at any point at a particular instant. The resultant

amplitude is :

(1) 10 units
(2) 20 units
(3) 14.1 units
(4) zero

26) A boy whirls a stone in a horizontal circle 1.8 m above the ground by means of a string with
radius 1.2 m. while whirling the stone string was horizontal, it breaks and stone flies off
horizontally, striking the ground 9.1 m away. The centripetal acceleration during the circular motion
was: (use g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 94 m/s2
(2) 141 m/s2
(3) 188 m/s2
(4) 282 m/s2

27) Pressure at the bottom of a tank of water is 3P, where P is atmospheric pressure. If the water is
drawn out till the level of water is lowered by one fifth, then the pressure at the bottom of the tank is
:-
(1) 2P
(2) 13P/5
(3) 8P/5
(4) 4P/5

28) A force of (5 + 3x) N acts on a body of mass 20 kg along the x axis and displaces it from x = 2m
to x = 6m, the work done by the force is:-

(1) 20 J
(2) 48 J
(3) 68 J
(4) 86 J

29) Read the screw gauge

* Main scale has 1/2 mm marks
* Circular scale has 50 divisions. * In complete rotation, the screw advanced by 1/2 mm

(1) 6.90 mm
(2) 6.95 mm
(3) 6.93 mm
(4) 6.97 mm

30)

A position dependent force F acting on a particle and its force-position curve is shown in the figure.
Work done on the particle, when its displacement 0 to 5 m is :-

(1) 35J
(2) 25J
(3) 15J
(4) 5J

31) If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = 19.5 kg m–3) is 0.2 ms–1 in a viscous liquid
(density=1.5 kg m–3), the terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 kg m–3) of the same size
in the same liquid is
(1) 0.1 ms–1
(2) 0.2 ms–1
(3) 0.4 ms–1
(4) 0.133 ms–1

32) How long after the beginning of motion is the displacement of a harmonically oscillating point
equal to one half its amplitude, if the period is 24 sec and initial phase is zero at mean position ?

(1) 12 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 4 sec
(4) 6 sec

33) A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the
figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to :-

(1)
D

(2)
D

(3)
D
(4) D

34) Three particles of masses 1 kg, 2 kg and 3 kg are subjected to forces

and respectively. Find the magnitude of the acceleration of
the CM of the system.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A uniform rod AB of length ℓ and mass m is free to rotate about A. The rod is released from rest
in the horizontal position. The initial angular acceleration of the rod will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) The density of water is 1.0 g/cm3. The density of the oil in the left column of the U-tube shown

below is :-

(1) 0.20 g/cm3

(2) 0.80 g/cm3
(3) 1.0 g/cm3
(4) 1.3 g/cm3

37) In a resonance tube experiment, the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm of air column and the
second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is–

(1) 0.5 cm
(2) 1.0 cm
(3) 1.5 cm
(4) 2 cm

38) The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is nine times that of steel. In the composite
cylindrical bar shown in figure, what will be the temperature at the junction of copper and steel ?

(1) 75°C
(2) 67°C
(3) 33°C
(4) 25°C

39) A block of aluminium of mass 1 kg and volume 3.6 × 10–4m3 is suspended from a string and then
completely immersed in a container of water. The decrease in tension in the string after immersion
is :-

(1) 9.8 N
(2) 6.2 N
(3) 3.6 N
(4) 1.0 N

40) Collision between objects is perfectly inelastic & mass of each block is 2 kg, then loss in kinetic

energy of system will be :-

(1) 325 J
(2) 350 J
(3) 450 J
(4) 50 J

41) Two bodies P and Q having surface temperature TP and TQ respectively. Body P appears bluish
while body Q appears reddish. What can we say about their temperatures : -

(1) TP = TQ
(2) TP < TQ
(3) TP > TQ
(4) None

42) Find moment of inertia of the system for axis in the plane :-

(1) 14 kg m2
(2) 12 kg m2
(3) 10 kg m2
(4) None

43) P-V graph for an ideal gas undergoing polytropic process PVm = constant is shown here. Find the
value of m :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Suppose ideal gas equation follows VP3 = constant. Initial temperature and volume of the gas are
T and V respectively. If gas expands to 27V, then its temperature will become :

(1) T
(2) 9T
(3) 27T
(4) T/9

45) A particle is projected vertically upward with initial velocity 25 ms-1. During third second of its
motion, which of the following statement is correct? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) Displacement of the particle is 30 m

(2) Distance covered by the particle is 30 m
(3) Distance covered by the particle is 2.5 m
(4) Distance covered by the particle is 5 m

CHEMISTRY

1) The ion has

Five equatorial lone pair on the central I atom and two axial bonding pairs in the trigonal
(1)
bipyramidal arrangement
Five equatorial lone pairs on the central I atom and two axial bonding pairs in the pentagonal
(2)
bipyramidal arrangement
Three equatorial lone pairs on the central I atom and two axial bonding pairs in a trigonal
(3)
bipyramidal arrangement
Two equatorial lone pairs on the central I atom and three axial bonding pairs in a trigonal
(4)
bipyramidal arrangement
2) Order of reactivity for dehydrohalogenation is :-

(1) III > II > I

(2) III > I > II
(3) II > I > III
(4) I > II > III

3) Most stable resonating structure is?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The hybridisation and geometry of BrF3 molecules are :

(1) sp3d and T shaped

(2) sp2d2 and tetragonal
(3) sp3d and bent
(4) none of these

5)
Correct statement for product.

(1) Product is alicyclic compound

(2) Product not shows test of unsaturation
(3) Product contain open chain
(4) Product contain acetylinic bond

6) The IUPAC name of :-

(1) 3,4–Dimethyl–6–Ethyl heptane

(2) 2–Ethyl–4,5–dimethyl heptane
(3) 3,4,6–Trimethyl octane
(4) 3,5,6–Trimethyl octane

7) Consider the following oxides

GeO, CO2, CO, GeO2, SiO2, SnO2, SnO
Which of the following option is correct?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) For p-orbital, the magnetic quantum number has value

(1) – 1
(2) 0
(3) +1
(4) All of the above are correct

9) N2 and O2 are converted into monoanions and , respectively. Which of the following
statements is wrong?

(1) In , N–N bond weakens.

(2) In , O–O bond order increases.
(3) In , O–O bond order decreases.
(4) becomes paramagnetic.

10) Which one has the highest boiling point ?

(1) Kr
(2) Xe
(3) He
(4) Ne

11) Free energy change at 300K for following reaction will be :-

2CuO(s) → Cu2O(s) + O2(g)

Given that
ΔH = 145.6 kJ mol–1 & ΔS = 116 JK–1 mol–1 :-

(1) 110.8 kJ mol–1

(2) 221.5 kJ mol–1
(3) 55.4 kJ mol–1
(4) 145.6 kJ mol–1

12)

Which of the following prosses maximum covalent characted.

(1) AgF
(2) AgCl
(3) AgBr
(4) AgI

13) + H2O; X is :-

(1) H2SO4(SO3)
(2) H2SO4 + HNO3
(3) H2SO4 + CH2 = CH2
(4) H2SO4 + AlCl3

14) An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C,
38.71% and H, 9.67% and O, 51.62%. The empirical formula of the compound would be :-

(1) CHO
(2) CH4O
(3) CH3O
(4) CH2O

15) When a salt of weak acid and weak base is dissolved in water at 25°C, the pH of the resulting
solution will always :-

(1) be 7
(2) be greater than 7
(3) be less than 7
(4) depend upon Ka and Kb values

16) Assertion: Bonding molecular orbital has greater stability than corresponding antibonding
molecular orbital
Rason: The electron density in a bonding molecular orbital is located away from the space between
the nuclei while in antibonding molecular orbital it is located between the nuclei of the bonded
atoms.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and reason are false
17)

The Ksp for Cr(OH)3 is 1.6 × 10–30. The solubility of this compound in water is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Correct order regarding the bond energy

(1) Cl–Cl > Br–Br > F–F > I–I

(2) P–P > N–N < As–As
(3) S–S < O–O < Se–Se
(4) C–C < Si–Si < Ge–Ge

19) The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is :-

(1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

(2) B < Tl < Ga < Al < In
(3) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < TI

20) Which of following is most stable anion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
21)

Kp / Kc for the reaction,

CO(g) + CO2(g) is :-
(1) RT

(2)

(3)
(4) 1

22) Out of the following which is not the set of intensive properties?

(1) boiling point, pH, molarity

(2) volume, area, length
(3) freezing point, temperature, emf
(4) refractive index, molality, density

23) Incorrect statement about following reaction is:

(1) Carbon free radical is involved

(2) CO2 gas is release at cathode
(3) pH of solution is increases
(4) Butane is form as major product

24) Which of the following species does not exists

(A) [SiF6]2–,
(B) [GeCl6]2– and
(C) [CCl6]2– ?

(1) (A) and (B)

(2) (B) and (C)
(3) Only (C)
(4) (A) and (C)

25) What will be the molality of a solution having 18 g glucose dissolved in 500 g of water :-

(1) 1 m
(2) 0.5 m
(3) 2 m
(4) 0.2 m

26) The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H, yet the
dipole moment of NH3(1.5 D) is larger than that of NF3 (0.2D). This is because
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Which acts as reducing agent as well as oxidising agent ?

(1) H2O2
–
(2) ClO4
(3) F2
–
(4) MnO4

28)
Above reaction is an example of :-

(1) Isomerization
(2) Polymerization
(3) Cracking
(4) Dehydrogenation

29) The number of π bond electrons in ;

CH2 = CH – CH2 – CN is :

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 18
(4) 20

30)

Identify major product

(1)

A= ,B=

(2)

A= ,B=

(3) A = ,B=

(4)

A= , B=

31) Which step is chain propagation step ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) For and equilibrium,

which of the following statement is true?

(1) The pressure changes do not affect the equilibrium

(2) More of ice melts if pressure on the system is increased
(3) More of liquid freezes if pressure on the system is increased
(4) None of these
33) Which will be the nodal planes in dxy orbital :–

(1) xz & yz
(2) xy & zy
(3) zy & yx
(4) None of the above

34)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Pb+4 is an oxidising agent

(2) Sn+2 is a reducing agent
(3) Stability order (Tl+ > Tl+3)
(4) In+3 is an oxidising agent

36) Calculate the ratio of ionisation energy of Li2+ & He+, ions :-

(1) 2.25 eV
(2) 5.2 eV
(3) 1.7 eV
(4) none

37) The value of equilibrium constant for reaction H2 + I2 2HI in which equilibrium
concentration of HI, H2 and I2 is 0.7, 0.1 and 0.1 mol L–1 is :

(1) 0.36
(2) 36
(3) 49
(4) 0.4
38)
Product X?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) ; ΔH = –100 kJ/mol

Then calculate enthalpy for the reaction :-
2H2O(ℓ) → 2H2(g) + O2(g)

(1) –100 kJ
(2) –200 kJ
(3) 200 kJ
(4) 100 kJ

40) Assertion:– Formation of Cl– ion is exothermic whereas O2– ion formation is endothermic
Reason:– EA2 of oxygen is endothermic and greater than its exothermic EA1 value of oxygen.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is False but reason is true

41) Compare the Rate of EAR

(1) 2 > 1 > 3

(2) 1 > 2 > 3
(3) 3 > 2 > 1
(4) 3 > 1 > 2

42) Major product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Oxidation number of sodium in sodium amalgam is :-

(1) +2
(2) +1
(3) –2
(4) Zero

44) Pick out the isoelectronic structure from the following

I. II. H3O+ III. NH3 IV.

(1) I and II
(2) III and IV
(3) I and III
(4) II, III and IV

45) Assertion: Na+ and Al3+ are isoelectronic but the ionic radii of Al3+ is smaller than Na+
Reason: The nuclear attraction on the outermost shell of Al3+ is greater than that of Na+

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

BIOLOGY

1) Match the columns:

 Column-I Column-II

(1) Human urine (a) Cytokinin

Gibberella
(2) (b) Auxin
fujikuroi

(3) Herring fish DNA (c) Ethylene

(4) Ripening fruits (d) Abscisic acid

Aged leaves of
(5) (e) Gibberellins
plants
(1) 1-b, 2-e, 3-a, 4-c, 5-d
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-a
(3) 1-a, 2-e, 3-b, 4-d, 5-c
(4) 1-e, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b, 5-a

2) An example of inferior ovary is :-

(1) Rose
(2) Guava
(3) Mustard
(4) Brinjal

3) Cytokinin helps in delay of leaf senescence by :-

(1) increasing more water absorption by root

(2) increasing rate of translocation of organic solutes
(3) promoting nutrients mobilization
(4) formation of adventitious buds

4) Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone which :

(1) elevate calcium level in blood

(2) no effect on calcium
(3) elevate potassium level in blood
(4) lowers calcium level in blood

5) Who provided the evidence that glucose is formed during photosynthesis and is then stored in the
form of starch ?

(1) Sachs
(2) Engelmann
(3) Van Niel
(4) Blackmann

6) During EMP pathway, at how many steps :-

(A) ATP is utilised
(B) ATP is synthesised
(C) NADH+H+ is formed

(1) A – Two, B – Two, C – One.

(2) A – One, B – Two, C – Two.
(3) A – Two, B – Two, C – Four.
(4) A – Four, B – Two, C – Four.

7) During chloride shift :

(1) Cl move from RBC to plasma

(2) move from plasma to RBC
(3) Cl move from plasma to RBC
(4) move from WBC to RBC

8)

Match the column I with column II and select the correct option given below :-

Column – I Column – II
(Phase of cell cycle) (Event)

(A) G1 Phase (1) Replication of DNA

(B) S Phase (2) Quiescent phase

Condensation of
(C) G2 Phase (3)
chromatin

(D) G0 Phase (4) Tubulin synthesis

Interval between mitosis

(5) and initiation of DNA
replication
(1) A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2
(2) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-3
(3) A-5, B-1, C-4, D-2
(4) A-5, B-1, C-3, D-2

9) Assertion :- Emphysema is chronic respiratory disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged.
Reason :- Wheezing sound during breathing is main feature in emphysema.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

10) Identify the tissue stage shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a
plant.

Tissue Site of occurrence

(1) Sclerenchyma Seed coat of legumes

(2) Collenchyma Pulp of guava

(3) Collenchyma Petiole of leaf

(4) Parenchyma Fruit wall of nuts

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11)

Identify A,B,C,D and E in the given flowchart showing Z-scheme of light reaction.

A B C D E

H+ e–
(1) P700 P680 NADP+
acceptor acceptor

e– e– transpor
(2) Photo-system-I Photo-system-II NADPH
acceptor system

H+
(3) Photo-system-II e– acceptor P700 NADPH
acceptor

e– e– transport
(4) Photo-system-II Photo-system-I NADPH
acceptor system
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Match Column-I and Column-II :

Column-I CoIumn-II

(A) Synovial joint (i) Sutures

(B) Fibrous joint (ii) Hinge joint

Caitilaginous (iii) Intervertebral

(C)
joint disc
(1) A-iii ; B-i ; C-ii
(2) A-iii ; B-ii ; C-i
(3) A-i ; B-ii ; C-iii
(4) A-ii ; B-i ; C-iii

13) Find out correct match from the following table:

Column
Column II Column III
I

70-80%
Simple squamous
(i) PCT of electrolytes and
epithelium
H2O reabsorption

Cuboidal brush
Secretion
(ii) DCT border
of glucose
epitlielium

Small amount of
Extend
Collecting urea is absorbed
(iii) from cortex to
duct in medulla
medulla
from this region
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (iii) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (ii) only

14) S. A node is called pacemaker because :

(1) Only it can generate action potentials

(2) It is present in the right upper corner of the right atrium
(3) It can generate the maximum number of action potentials
(4) It is made up of cardiac muscle nodal tissue

15) Match column-I with Column-II and select correct option :-

Column-I Column-II
A Natural auxin I ABA
B Stress hormone II GA3
C Common GA III Zeatin
Natural
D IV IBA
cytokinin
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

16) Which of the following are the functions of mesosomes ?

(i) Cell wall formation
(ii) DNA replication
(iii) Cell divison
(iv) Cell respiration

(1) only i and ii

(2) only i, ii and iii
(3) only ii and iv
(4) i, ii, iii and iv

17) The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Calvin cycle. Select the option giving correct

identification together with what it represents ?

C = This step is not necessary because carbohydrates (sucrose, starch) are already synthesised
(1)
in the process
(2) A = This step results in the synthesis of 2 ATP and 2 NADH
(3) B = This step is catalysed by the enzyme which has both oxygenation and carboxylation activity
A = In this step, extra carbons in the form of acetyl group enter into the process to produce
(4)
more carbohydrate

18) Fill the missing spaces X, Y and Z in table given below :

 Blood Group Antigen Antibody

A A 'X'

B 'Y' Anti-A

O 'Z' Anti-A, B
(1) X - anti-B, Y - B, Z - nil
(2) X - B, Y - anti -B, Z - nil
(3) X - nil, Y - nil, Z- A
(4) X- anti- A, Y - B, Z - nil

19) Read the following statements (a-d).

(a) Each actin filament is made of two F-actin.
(b) Each F-actin is a polymer of monomeric G-actin.
(c) A simple protein troponin is distributed at irregular intervals on the tropomyosin
(d) Tropomyosin also run close to F-actins at some points its length
How many of the above statements are correct:

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

20) Match the columns and choose the correct answer :

Column-A Column-B

Some of the columnar

or cuboidal cells get
(A) specialised for (i) Goblet cells
secretion and
are called

(B) Unicellular glands (ii) Mammary glands

(C) Exocrine glands (iii) Thyroid gland

(D) Endocrine glands (iv) Glandular epithelium

A B C D

(1) iii ii i iv

(2) iv i ii iii

(3) ii iv iii i

(4) iv i iii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Which of the following representation correctly explain the function of mitochondrion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which animal represent phylum coelenterata?

(1) Devil fish

(2) Cuttle fish
(3) Silver fish
(4) Jelly fish

23) Photosynthetic pigments such as a Chl a, Chl b, Xanthophyll and Carotene can be separated by
which of the following techniques ?

(1) Paper chromatography

(2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) X-ray diffusion
(4) ELISA test

24) In mango and coconut, the fruits are known as

(1) Drupe
(2) Pepa
(3) Pome
(4) Dry fruit

25) With reference to cockroach match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Anal cerci 1. 4th to 6th segments

 (B) Tegmina 2. 10th segment

(C) Testes 3. Fore wings

(D) Ommatidia 4. Sclerites

(E) Exoskeleton 5. Units of compound eyes

(1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-5, E-4
(2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-1
(3) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-2, E-1
(4) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-1

26) In the given diagram, how many labelled structure/(s) is/are diploid ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Five

27) Observe following diagram and identify it. After Identification choose the correct option where it

is located in human body :

(1) Bone and Cartilage

(2) Tendon & Ligament
(3) Found beneath skin
(4) Found in tendon

28) The cortex extends in between the medullary pyramids called :

(1) Renal pelvis

(2) Column of bertini
(3) column of bellini
(4) Bowman’s capsule

29) Identify the correct match from column I, II and III :

Column-I Column-II Column-Ill

Sexual behaviour
(1) Pons (a) Cerebral cortex (i)
and emotions

Below mid brain and

Association Memony and
(2) (b) upper side of (ii)
area Communication
medulla

Cerebral hemisphere
Limbic and deep structure Pneumotaxic
(3) (c) (iii)
system like amygdala and centre
hippocampus
(1) 1 = b = ii, 2 = a–i, 3 = c – iii
(2) 1 = a – i, 2 = b – ii, 3 = c – iii
(3) 1 = c – iii, 2 = b – ii, 3 = a – i
(4) 1 = b – iii, 2 = a – ii, 3 = c – i

30) Select wrong statement :

(1) Hb is red coloured iron containing pigment present in RBC

(2) One Hb can combine with maximum one O2 molecules
(3) dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin is related to pCO2
(4) 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers 4 ml of CO2 to alveoi

31) During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of:

(1) K+ from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid

(2) Na+ from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(3) K+ from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(4) Na+ from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid

32) Apical hook formation in dicot seedling is the function of which of the following phytohormone ?

(1) NAA
(2) Ethylene
(3) IBA
(4) Cytokinin

33) In integrated system, which system provides an organised network of point to point connection
for quick co-ordination ?
(1) Endocrine system
(2) Nervous system
(3) Muscular system
(4) Both (1) & (2)

34) Natural cytokinins are found in

(a) Young fruits
(b) Developing shoot buds
(c) Root apices

(1) Only a
(2) Only b and c
(3) Only c
(4) All a, b and c

35) In glomerulus -

(1) Afferent arteriole is thin than efferent arteriole

(2) Afferent capillaries are thin than efferent capillaries
(3) Afferent arteriole is thick than efferent arteriole
(4) Afferent capillaries are thick than efferent capillaries

36) ……A…….. is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase. A is ?

(1) Zinc
(2) Sodium
(3) Lipids
(4) Any of the above

37) Myosin filaments are :

(1) thin filament

(2) found only in I band
(3) absent from H zone
(4) attached to M line

38) Genetic dwarfism can be overcome by :

(1) Auxin
(2) Gibberellin
(3) ABA
(4) Ethylene

39) The class of enzymes, which catalyse conversion of glucose into glucose-6-phosphate is

(1) Dehydrogenase
(2) Transferase
(3) Hydrolase
(4) Lyase

40) Select the correct option for given figure :

(1) Triploblastic and Pseudo coelomate animal

(2) It absorbs nutrients from the body of host.
(3) Sexual bimorphism is present.
(4) It is an earthworm

41) During one turn of Krebs' cycle, number of CO2 molecules released is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) In the given graph, in which region will plant not respond to
increase in CO2 concentration?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) None

43) Which of the following hormone is not secreted by adenohypophysis ?

(1) GH
(2) TSH
(3) ACTH
(4) Oxytocin

44) If a cell has 2n = 24 chromosomes and DNA content is 2C, then correct option for each cell of
dyad of cells is :-

(1) 2n = 12, 4C
(2) 2n = 24, 4C
(3) n = 12, 2C
(4) n = 12, 4C

45) Identify the given diagram -

(1) Racemose inflorescence

(2) Cymose inflorescence
(3) Verticillastar inflorescence
(4) Hypanthodium Inflorescence

46) Semilunar patches of sclerenchyma above the phloem are the part of :-

(1) Pericycle of dicot root

(2) Pericycle of dicot stem
(3) Pericycle of monocot root
(4) Pericycle of monocot stem

47) Find out the correct matches from the given table

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Dicot stems Pericycle Collenchyma

Closed vascular Cambium

ii Monocot stems
bundle absent

Suberin
iii Dicot roots Endodermis
depositions

iv Monocot root Hypodermis Collenchyma

(1) (i), (iv)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii)
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv)
48) What is correct about given structure ?

(1) Content of DNA

(2) It is pentasaccharide
(3) It is aldose type sugar
(4) Both 1 & 3

49) NAD and NADP contain :-

(1) Niacin and Biotin respectively

(2) Riboflavin and Biotine respectively
(3) Riboflavin and Niacin respectively
(4) Niacin and Niacin respectively

50) Axillary bud is derived from the activity of :-

(1) Lateral meristem

(2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Apical meristem
(4) Parenchyma

51) Identify the configuration of polypeptide chains in given figure (a) & (b) :-

(a) (b)
(1) Primary Tertiary
(2) Secondary Tertiary
(3) Secondary Quaternary
(4) Primary Secondary

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
52) How many are amphibians?
Petromyzon, Bufo, Hyla, Sea urchin, Naja, Ichthyophis

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

53) SA node is located

(1) Upper lateral wall of left atrium

(2) Lower lateral wal of left atrium
(3) Upper lateral wall of right atrium
(4) Lower lateral wall of right atrium

54) Arrangement of microtubules in a flagellum and a centriole is respectively

(1) 9 + 2 and 9 + 1
(2) 9 + 1 and 9 + 0
(3) 9 + 0 and 9 + 2
(4) 9 + 2 and 9 + 0

55) What maintains cell shape, is associated with cellular movements and intracellular transport ?

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Golgibody
(3) Cytoskeleton
(4) ER

56) Inorganic compounds like sulphate, phosphate, etc., are also seen in the :

(1) Acid insoluble fraction

(2) Acid soluble fraction
(3) Retentate
(4) All of these

57) Seed dormancy is regulated by :-

(1) C2H4
(2) ABA
(3) IAA
(4) GA3

58) The chemical transformations occurring in glycolysis can be summarized as follows.

If NAD+ is not available, the pathway will be blocked at which of the reactions represented by A, B,
C, D and E.
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E

59) Which of the following are correctly matched ?

(A) Centriole duplication in cytoplasm S phase

(B) Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles Metaphase
(C) Chromosomes are moved to pole Anaphase
Chromosomes lost their identity as discrete
(D) Telophase
elements
(1) A, B, C only
(2) A, C, D only
(3) Only B & D
(4) C, D only

60) Which one is not a secondary messenger :

(1) cAMP
(2) IP3
(3) Ca+2
–3
(4) PO4

61) Go through the following diagram :-

a - Identify the animal.

b - Name the phylum to which it belong

(1) a-Balanoglossus, b-Hemichordata

(2) a-Sycon, b-Porifera
(3) a-Spongilla, b-Porifera
(4) a-Ascidia, b-Chordata

62) Read the given names carefully :-

Diatoms, Dinoflagellates, Chlorella, Fucus, Dictyota. In the given name. How many organism having
chl 'a', chl 'c' :-

(1) 2 only
(2) 3 only
(3) 4 only
(4) All

63) "On an average, (a) ml of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute which constitute
roughly (b) of the blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute."
What is (a) and (b) in above statement (respectively) ?

(1) 1100-1200 ; 1/6th

(2) 1100-1200 ; 1/5th
(3) 1000-1100 ; 1/6th
(4) 1000-2200 ; 1/5th

64) Match the column

(A) (B)

(I) Pila (a) Devil fish

(II) Pinctada (b) Cuttle fish

(III) Sepia (c) Sea-hare

(IV) Octopus (d) Apple snail

(V) Aplysia (e) Pearl oyester

Options:
(1) (i)→b; (ii)→d; (iii)→a; (iv)→ c; (v)→e
(2) (i) →d; (ii)→ e; (iii)→ c ; (iv)→a; (v)→b
(3) (i)→d; (ii)→e; (iii)→a; (iv)→c; (v)→b
(4) (i)→d; (ii)→e; (iii)→b; (iv)→a; (v)→c

65) Notochord is?

(1) Endodermal in origin and present on dorsal side

(2) Mesodermal in origin and present on dorsal side
(3) Mesodermal in origin present on ventral side
(4) Ectodermal and present on dorsal side

66) Which stage of meiosis – I last for months or years in some vertebrate oocytes?

(1) Pachytene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Zygotene

67) A ring of 6-8 blind ducts found at the junction of foregut and midgut in Cockroach is known as

(1) Intestinal caeca

(2) Hepatic caeca
(3) Malpighian tubules
(4) Collateral glands

68) Assertion :- An excessive loss of fluid from the body can activate osmoreceptors which stimulate
the hypothalamus to release ADH from neurohypophysis.
Reason :- ADH facilitates water reabsorption from latter parts of the tubule, thereby preventing
diuersis.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

69) Which of the following contains centres which control respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and
gastric secretions ?

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Pons
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Midbrain

70) Which of the following statement is false for electrical synapse ?

(1) Electric current can flow directly from one neuron to another neuron
(2) These synapses are rare in our body
(3) Membranes of pre and post synaptic neurons are in very close proximity
(4) They can be easily controlled by neurotransmitters

71) Pteridophytes are ristricted to narrow geographical distribution because :-

(1) The gametophytes require cool, damp and shady place to grow.
(2) They are vascular cryptogams.
(3) They need water for fertilisation.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

72) Which of the following is a feature of meristematic cells?

(1) Large vacuole

(2) Presence of intercellular space
(3) Presence of one prominent nucleus
(4) Presence of thick cell wall

73) Identify the labelled part in the given figure and select the correct option.
 A B

(1) Heterocyst Mucilagenous sheath

(2) Mucilagenous Heterocyst sheath

(3) Heterocyst Capsid

(4) Pseudopodia Mucilaginous sheath

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74)

Lipid may be :

(1) Monoglyceride
(2) Diglyceride
(3) Triglyceride
(4) All the above

75) Following diagram represent which type of connective tissue :

(1) Dense regular

(2) Dense irregular
(3) Areolar
(4) Adipose

76) Basidiocarp and ascocarp are the fruiting bodies of fungi. They can be seen in :-
(1) Alternaria & Agaricus respectively
(2) Alternaria & Ustilago respectively
(3) Claviceps & Agaricus respectively
(4) Agaricus & Claviceps respectively

77) Which pair is true ?

Structure Presence

(1) Cristae Chloroplast

(2) Cisternae Golgi body

(3) Grana Mitochondria

(4) Tubule Lysosome

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Read the following statements & select the correct option :
(A) Gymnosperms do not show xerophytic characters.
(B) In Cycas coralloid roots are associated with mycorrhiza
(C) In conifers needle like leaves reduce the surface area.
(D) All gymnosperms are heterosporous

(1) 2 - correct, 2 - incorrect

(2) 3 - correct, 1 - incorrect
(3) 1 - correct, 3 - incorrect
(4) 0 - correct, 4 - incorrect

79) Due to malfunctioning of insulin hormone, what effect would be on blood sugar and disease
occur :

(1) Hyperglycemia, Diabetes Mellitus

(2) Hypoglycemia, Diabetes Insipidus
(3) Hypoglycemia, Diabetes Mellitus
(4) Hyperglycemia, Diabetes Insipidus

80) Epinephrine is secreted by :

(1) Adrenal medulla and increases the heart rate

(2) Adrenal medulla and decreases the heart rate
(3) Adrenal cortex and increases the heart rate
(4) Adrenal cortex and decreases the heart rate

81) Which of the following is incorrect match.

(1) Ear ossicles- Malleus, Incus and stapes
(2) Floating ribs-8th, 9th and 10th
(3) Pectoral girdle- Scapula and clavicle
(4) Pelvic girdle- Ilium, ischium and pubis

82)
According to the above phases answer for the following questions.
Identify the given structures of meiosis-I and meiosis-II ?

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Metaphase-I Anaphase-I Anaphase-II

(2) Metaphase-II Anaphase-I Anaphase-II

(3) Anaphase-I Anaphase-II Metaphase-I

(4) Metaphase-I Anaphase-II Anaphase-I

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) How many of the genera are vascular cryptogams in the list given below ?
Pinus, Cycas, Selginella, Sphagnum, Polytrichum, Pteris, Pteridium, Maize, Dryopteris, Brassica,
Lycopodium, Adiantum, Equisetum

(1) Nine
(2) Seven
(3) Twelve
(4) Eight

84) Which group of the animals belong to same phylum?

(1) Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm

(2) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
(3) Sponge, Sea-anemone, Starfish
(4) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito

85) Ovary is one chambered but it becomes two-chambered due to the formation of false septum in :-

(1) Tomato and Lemon

(2) Mustard and Argemone
(3) Dianthus and Primrose
(4) Sunflower and Marigold

86) How many plants in given list have 'vexillary aestivation'-

Sesbania, Tulip, Moong, Indigofera, Petunia, Lupin, SunHemp

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Two

87) Part of chromosome after secondary constriction is called :–

(1) Chromomere
(2) Telomere
(3) Satellite
(4) Nucleolar organiser

88) In which of the following animal the notochord is replaced by bony vertebral column in the adult:

(1) Ascidia
(2) Labeo
(3) Petromyzon
(4) Branchiostoma

89) How many additional ATP are used during synthesis of two molecules of hexose sugar in maize
than tomato ?

(1) 12
(2) 36
(3) 24
(4) 8

90) It is possible to make calculations of the net gain of ATP for every glucose molecule oxidised, but
in reality this can remain only a theoretical exercise because :-

(1) Practical calculations of net gain of ATP is a very expensive process

These calculations can be made only on certain assumptions which are not really valid in a
(2)
living system
For these calculations there is a need of vast knowledge of bioenergetics and we do not have
(3)
such knowledge
(4) These calculations are completely a wasteful process
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 4 2 2 4 4 3 1 2 1 3 4 2 3 1 3 2 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 3 2 4 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 4 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 1 1 2 3 3 4 2 2 1 4 1 3 4 3 2 1 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 3 4 1 1 1 1 3 2 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 4 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 3 4 1 1 3 3 3 3 4 4 2 3 2 4 3 1 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 1 1 1 2 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 4 3 1 4 2 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 4 3 2 2 3 4 4 3 2 1 3 4 3 2 2 2 2 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 1 3 4 4 3 1 4 2 4 2 1 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 2 2 2 2 3 2 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

ρpgh1 = ρwgh2

2) Least count =
zero error = (CSR) (least count)
Final reading = (MSR + CSR × L.C) – (zero error)
= (3 × 2 mm + 46 × .01 mm) – (.05mm)
= 6.41 mm

3) τ = Iα

4)

by the given figure we can say that the wave C lags behind by a phase angle of π/2 and the
wave B is ahead by a phase angle of π/2.

5)

Pitch =

L.C. =

6)

γ= ⇒ Stress = γ × Strain
= 2 × 10 × 10–3 = 2 × 108 N/m2
11

Now ⇒ Stress =
⇒ Weight = Stress × Area
Weight = 2 × 108 × π (0.5 × 10–3)2
= 157 N

7)

Length of tube = 120 cm

For fundamental frequency of water filled tube,
330 Hz = ⇒ ℓ1 = m = 25 cm
where ℓ1 is length of air column for first harmonic
Length of water column for 1st harmonic = 120 cm – 25 cm
= 95 cm
Length of water column for 2nd harmonic = 120 cm – 75 cm
= 45 cm
So, minimum height of water column required = 45 cm

8) mA = (σ.πr2.t)
mB = σ.π (2r)2 (t/2) = (σ2πr2t)
m B > mA
RB > RA
so, IB > IA

9) KE of a H2 molecule = KT

KE of a O2 molecule = KT

11)
⇒ Y = 20 × 108 N/m2

12)

at = 3 m/s2 = 5 m/s2

13)
⇒ A = 3m, ω = 25π rod/s

and
Maximum velocity of particle

= 3 × 25 π m/s

Wave velocity

14) COM may lie within (i.e. in solid sphere), outside on the surface of the body (L shaped
 Lamina)

15)

Vmax = Aω =

Vmax = 0.2 × = 0.2π m/s

16)

, distance αR =

17) 20 VSD = 18 MSD

1 VSD = MSD
L.C. = 1 MSD –1 VSD

0.1 mm = 1 MSD – MSD

0.1 =

1 MSD =

18) Q = Uf – Ui

19)

When a spring is cut into two parts each part has spring constant more than that of original
spring. If k = spring constant & ℓ0 = natural length, then for cut parts

If they are stretched by same amount then work done in shorter part will be double than that in the
case of longer part.

Because,

20)
mA = 90kg, mB = 40 kg, mC = 20 kg
Let plank moves by x along left.
mA(ℓ – x) + mB(–ℓ – x) + mC( – x) = 0
(mA – mB)ℓ = (mA + mB + mC)x
⇒ (90 – 40) × 12 = (90 + 40 + 20)x
x = 4m

21) amax. = g = ω2A

⇒ ω2 =

⇒ ω=

or f=

22)

Mg = ρω Vdis g

Vdis = (same for both A and B)

23)

(RD)liq =

1.5 =
ωL = 35gm

24) W = WAB + WBC + WCD + WDA

= 0 + 6R × 1400 + O – 6R × 600
= 6R × 800 = 6 × 8.3 × 8000 = 40 kJ

25) The resultant amplitude A of two waves of amplitudes a1 and a2 at a phase difference ϕ is,

A=
Substituting a1 = 10, a2 = 10 and ϕ = 90°,
we get A = 14.1 units

26)
 The time taken to fall on ground = =
velocity at time of string breaks

v= ⇒ v = 9.1 Centripetal acceleration = = = 187.856 =

188 m/s2

27)

3P = P + hρwg ⇒ hρwg = 2P
when water is drawn out, the pressure at bottom.

28)
= 20 + 48
= 68 J

29)

Thickness = 6.5mm + 45
= 6.95 mm

30)

W = (Area)1 – (Area)2

W = × (3 + 1) × 10 – × (2 + 1) × 10
=5J

31) vT =

= = 0.1 ms–1

32)

x = A sin ωt
 = A sin ωt ⇒ ωt =

t= ⇒t= = = 2 sec.

33)

For completing the vertical circle the minimum velocity of the body at B should be ,

where

Hence,
Now applying C.O.M.E. between O and A

ΔK + ΔU = 0 ⇒

or

34)

35)

36)

Using Pascal's law

Patm + ρoil g(10) = Patm + ρwg(8)

ρoil = ρw = 0.8 g/cm3

37)

38)
Let temp. of junction is T
at steady state

⇒
300 – 3 = T
4T = 300 ⇒ T = 75°C

39)

Decrease in tension = Buoyant Force

= ρω Vg
= 103 × 3.6 × 10–4 × 10 = 3.6 N

40) Loss in K.E.

2
=
For perfectly inelastic collision
(e = 0)

41) (Wein's law)

λblue < λred
Tblue > Tred
TP > TQ

42)

43) Slope →

–tan 37º = – m ×

44) VP3 = constant

 = constant
3 2
T ∝V

T2 = 9T1 = 9T

45)

u = 25
Velocity becomes zero at 2.5 sec.
So distance travelled in 3rd second
= |S2.5 – S2| × 2

S2.5 = 25 × 2.5 – × 10 × (2.5)2

= 31.25
S2 = 25 × 2 – 5 × 22 = 50 – 20 = 30
So distance=(31.25–30)×2=1.25×2 = 2.5m

CHEMISTRY

49)

53) l = 1 m = –1, 0, + 1

54) In both , electron is added to anti-bonding MO. So, bond order decreases and bonds
become weaker.

55) More is the atomic weight more will be boiling point

65) is more stable, since -ve charge is being shared by two electronegative
oxygen atom i.e. equivalent R.S.

66)

Ans: (2)
 74)

75) (A) → ESR

(B) → FRSR

76)
A & B chain propagation step.

78)

NCERT, Class-11th Part-I, Article no. 2.6.2,

Page no. 58, Edition 2023-24

83)

86) EAR ∝ stability of carbocation

∝ +M, +H, +I

89)

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Based.

96) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 229

98) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 163, 10.1.1

100)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 86

105)

NCERT XI Pg.# 175, 176, 177

106) NCERT XI Pg.# 129 para. 8.4.1

107)

NCERT XI Pg.# 143, 144

122)

NCERT pg-250

131)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 159

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 149

136)

NCERT XI Pg. # 93

137) NCERT pg- 74, 76

140) NCERT Pg. # 85

145) NCERT XI Pg. # 136 (E)

146)

Ncert page_ 105

147)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 252

152)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 26, 27

163)

NCERT XI Page # 13

167) NCERT XI Pg.# 133, 8.5.3.2

172) NCERT Pg.#169-170 10.4.1

175)

NCERT PG. 65

177)

NCERT Pg. No. 101

180)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 234