FORCE

1. (A) Define couple.

(B) State the S.I. unit of moment of couple.

2. A brass ball is hanging from a stiff cotton thread. Draw a neat labelled diagram showing the
forces acting on the brass ball and the cotton thread.

3. (A) Derive the relation between CGS and SI units of force.

(B) Classify the following into contact and non-contact forces: Tension, Friction,
Gravitational force, Magnetic force.

4. Where is the centre of gravity of the following objects situated?

A. Ring
B. rhombus
C. Scalene triangle
D. Cylinder

5. A uniform metre scale is in equilibrium position. Calculate the mass of the ruler.

6. (A) On what factor does the position of the centre of gravity of a body depend?
(B) What is the S.I. unit of the moment of force?

7. Name the factors affecting the turning effect of a body.

8. A metallic ball is hanging by a string from a fixed support. Draw a neat labelled diagram
showing the forces acting on the ball and the string.

9. A boy of mass 30 kg is sitting at a distance of 2 m from the middle of a see-saw. Where

should a boy of mass 40 kg sit, so as to ante balance the sea-saw?

10. Force is applied on a body capable of rotation about an axis, yet no rotation occurs. Explain.

11. A uniform metre scale rests horizontally on a knife edge at the 60 cm mark when a mass of
10 g is suspended from one end. From which end this mass is suspended? What is the mass
of the metre scale?

12. A mechanic can open a nut by applying 120 N force while using a lever of 50 cm in a length.
How long handle is required if he wishes to open it by applying a force of 40 N only.

WORK, POWER, ENERGY

1. Define 1 kilowatt hour. How is it related to joule?

2. A satellite revolves around a planet in a circular orbit what is the work done by the satellite at
any instant? Give a reason.

3. Give one example each when:

(A) Chemical energy changes into electrical energy.
(B) Electrical energy changes into sound energy.

4. A crane 'A' lifts a heavy load in 5 seconds, whereas another crane 'B' does the same work in 2
seconds. Compare the power of crane A to that of crane B.

5. Two bodies A and B have masses in the ratio 5:1 and their kinetic energies are in the ratio
125:9. Find the ratio of their velocities.

6. (A) State and define the S.I. unit of power.

(B) How is the unit horse power related to the S.I unit of power.

7. State the energy changes in the following case while in use:

(A) An electric iron.
(B) A ceiling fan.

8. A metal ball of mass 60 g falls on a concrete floor from a vertical height of 2.8 m and
rebounds to a height of 1.3 m. Find the change in K.E. in S.I. units.

9. What is the work done by a force when the force is:

(A) normal to the displacement produced.
(B) in the same direction as the displacement produced.

10. Write the energy conversions in the following:

(A) Microphone
(B) Lighted candles

11. If the power of a motor 100 kW at what speed can it raise a load of 50,000 N?

12. A boy weighing 40 kgf climbs up a stair of 30 steps each 20 cm high in 4 minute and a girl
weighting 30 kgf does the same in 3 minutes. Compare:
(A) the work done by them.
(B) the power development by them. (g = 10 m/s²)

13. How is work done by force measured when the force:

(A) is in the direction of displacement
(B) is at an angle to the direction of displacement

14. Rajan exerts a force of 150 N in pulling a cart at a constant speed of 10 m/s. Calculate the
power exerted.
15. (A) Name the physical quantity measured in terms of horse-power.
(B) Explain briefly why the work done by a fielder when he takes a catch in a cricket match
is negative.

16. (A) When does a force do work?

(B) What is the work done by the moon when it revolves around the earth?

17. Calculate the change in kinetic energy of a moving body if its velocity is reduced to ⅓ of the
initial velocity?

18. State the energy changes in the following devices while in use:
(A) a loudspeaker.
(B) a glowing electric bulb.

19. (A) What is nuclear energy?

(B) Name the process used for producing electricity using nuclear energy.

20. State one important advantage and disadvantage each of using nuclear energy for producing
electricity.

21. A body is thrown vertically upwards. Its velocity keeps on decreasing. What happens to its
kinetic energy as its velocity becomes zero?

22. A force is applied on a body of mass 20 kg moving with a velocity of 40 m/s. The body
attains a velocity of 50 m/s in 2 seconds calculate the work done by the body.

23. A girl of mass 35 kg climbs up from the first floor of a building at a height 4 m above the
ground to the third floor at a height 12 m above the ground what will be the increase in her
gravitational potential energy?

24. (A) State the principle of conservation of energy.

(B) Name the form of energy which a body may possess even when it is not in motion.

25. A ball is placed on a compressed spring. When the spring is replaced, the ball is observed to
fly away.

(A) What form of energy does the compressed spring possess?

(B) Why does the ball fly away?

26. A body of mass 0.2 kg falls from a height of 10 m to a height of 6 m above the ground. Find
the loss in potential energy taking place in the body. [g = 10 m/s²]
27. A moving body weighing 400 N possesses 500 J of kinetic energy. Calculate the velocity
with which the body is moving (g = 10 m/s²)

28. What happens to the potential energy when

(A) One proton and one electron
(B) one electron and one electron are brought closer to each other?

29. Mark true and false in the following statements and state the reason:
(A) Time taken to complete an action is irrelevant in energy.
(B) Momentum of a system can be changed without changing its kinetic energy.

MACHINES

1. (A) Identify the class of the lever shown in the diagram below.

(B) How is it possible to increase the M.A. of the above lever without increasing its Length?

2. The diagram below shows a claw hammer used to remove a nail:

(A) To which class of lever does it belong?

(B) Give one more example of the same class of lever mentioned by you in (A) for which the
mechanical advantage is greater than one.

3. The diagram below shows a lever in use:

(A) To which class of levers does it belong?

(B) Without changing the dimensions of lever, if the load is shifted towards the fulcrum what
happens to the mechanical advantage of the lever?

4. State the basic principle on which simple machines work. Explain why a single fixed pulley
is used despite no gain in mechanical advantage.
5. Scissors for cutting cloth have blades much longer than handles. Why?

6. Why a jack screw provided with a long arm?

7. A boy uses a single fixed pulley to lift a load of 50 kgf to same height. Another boy uses a
single movable pulley to lift the same load to the same height. Compare the effort applied by
them. Give a reason to support your answer.

8. Identify and classify the following into levers as class I, class II or class III:

9. With reference to the terms Mechanical Advantage, Velocity Ratio and Efficiency of a
machine name and define the term that will not change for a machine of a given design.

10. What is the relationship between the mechanical advantage and the velocity ratio for:
(A) Ideal machine
(B) Practical machine

11. Which class of levers has a mechanical advantage always greater than one? What change can
be done in the lever to increase its mechanical advantage?

12. State four functions of a simple machine.

13. While using a machine, you observe that the output is not equal to the energy input. State the
reason for this and state how can you increase the efficiency of the machine to 100% if its
possible.

14. Every day you use your body as a machine. Explaining the movement, show that three
classes of levers are observed in a human body.

REFRACTION OF LIGHT AT PLANE SURFACES

1. A ray of light falls normally on a rectangular glass slab. Draw a ray diagram showing the
path of the ray till it emerges out of the slab.
2. Complete the path of the monochromatic light ray AB incident on the surface PQ of the
equilateral glass prism PQR till it emerges out of the prism due to refraction.

3. A pond appears to be 2.7 m deep. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 find the actual depth
of pond.

4. (A) Define critical angle.

(B) State one important factor which affects the critical angle of a given medium.

5. (A) What is the relation between the refractive index of water with respect to air aμw and
refractive index of air with respect to water wμa.
(B) If the refractive index of water respect to air ( aμw) is 5/3 Calculate the refractive index of
air with respect to water (wμa).

6. (A) State the relation between the critical angle and the absolute refractive index of a
medium.
(B) Which colour of light has a higher critical angle? Red light or green light.

7. The following diagram shows as 60°, 30°, 90° glass prism of critical angle 42°. Copy the
diagram and complete the path of incident ray AB emerging out of the prism marking the
angle of incidence on each surface.

8. Draw a labelled diagram to show the path of a monochromatic ray of light in a prism kept at
its angle of minimum deviation.

9. How is the refractive index of a material it related to?

(A) Real and apparent depth?
(B) Velocity of light in vacuum or air and the velocity of light in a given medium?

10. State the conditions required for total internal reflection of light to take place.

11. A ray of light travels from water to air as shown in the diagram given below:
 (C) Copy the diagram and complete the path of the ray. Given the critical angle for water is
48°.
(D) State the condition so that total internal reflection occurs in the above diagram.

12. When a ray of light passes from air to glass, for what angle of incidence, the ray will not be
deviated.

13. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate how a ray of light incident obliquely on one face of a
rectangular glass slab of uniform thickness emerges.

14. Calculate the refractive index of a liquid with respect to air applying Snell's law (use
geometric construction).

15. Copy the diagram given below and complete the path of light ray till it emerges out of the
prism. The critical angle of glass is 42°. In your diagram mark the angles wherever necessary.

16. State the dependence of angle of deviation:

(A) on the refractive index of the material of the prism.
(B) on the wavelength of light

17. The speed of light in glass is 2 × 10⁵ km/s. What is the refractive index of glass?

18. Draw the diagram below and clearly show the path taken by the emergent ray.

19. (A) A ray of light passes from water to air how does the speed of light change?
(B) Which colour of light travels fastest in any medium except air.
20. Light passes through a rectangular glass slab and through a triangular glass prism. In what
way does the direction of the two emergent beams differ and why?

21. Draw a diagram of ray refracting from when it is traveling from denser to rarer medium.

22. A coin placed at the bottom of a tank appears to be raised water is poured into it. Explain.

LENS

1. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens in order to get:

(A) an enlarged real image
(B) enlarged virtual image

2. The power of a lens is - 5D.

(A) Find its focal length.
(B) Name the type of lens.

3. State the position of the object in front of a converging lens if.

(A) It produces a real and same size image of the object.
(B) It is used as a magnifying lens.

4. Draw a ray diagram to show how a convex lens can be used as a magnifying glass.

5. Name a lens that always forms a virtual and erect image.

6. Ranbir claims to have obtained an image twice the size of the object with a concave lens. Is
he correct? Give a reason for your answer.

7. What happens to the image formed by a convex lens if its lower part is blackened?

8. Is it possible for a lens to act as a convergent lens in one medium and a divergent lens in
another?

9. Can we obtain a real image with the help of on a concave lens?

10. An object is placed in front of a convex lens such that the image formed has the same size as
that of the object. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this.

11. State three characteristics of the image of an extended source formed by a concave lens.

12. We can burn a piece of paper by focusing the sun rays by using a particular type of lens.
(A) Name the type of lens used for the above purposes.
(B) Draw a ray diagram to support your answer.

13. State the position of the object in front of a converging lens if:
(A) It produces a real and same size image of the object.
 (B) It is used as a magnifying lens.

14. A ray of light, after refraction through a concave lens, emerges parallel to the principal axis.
Draw a ray diagram to show the incident ray and its corresponding emergent ray. Can we
obtain a real image with the help of concave lens?

15. (A) When does a ray of light falling on the lens pass through it undeviated?
(B) Which lens can produce a real and inverted image of an object?

16. You are provided with a printed piece of paper. Using this paper, how will you differentiate
between a convex lens and a concave lens?

17. Fig. (A) and (B) are shown below, the incident and transmitted rays through lens kept in a
box in each case. Draw the lens and complete the path of rays through it.

18. The power of lens is - 5 D.

(A) Find its focal length.
(B) Name the type of lens.

19. Express the power of a concave lens of focal length 20 cm with its sign.

20. Two lenses have power of (A) + 2D (B) - 4D. What is the focal length of each lens?

SPECTRUM

1. The wavelength for the light of red and blue colours are nearly 7.8 × 10 –7 m and 4.8 × 10-7 m
respectively.
(A) Which colour has the greater speed in vacuum?
(B) Which colour has a greater speed in glass?

2. In electromagnetic radiation is used for photography in fog.

(A) Identify the radiation.
(B) Why is this radiation ideal for this purpose?

3. (A) Why is the ratio of the velocities of light of wavelengths, 4000 Å and 8000 Å in vacuum
1:1?
(B) Which of the above wavelength has a higher frequency?

4. (A) Name the radiations which are absorbed by greenhouse gases in the earth's atmosphere.
 (B) A radiation X is focused by a particular device on the bulb of a thermometer and mercury
in the thermometer shows a rapid increase. Name the radiation X.

5. Calculate the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave of frequency 15 MHz.

6. (A) Name the high energetic invisible electromagnetic waves which help in the study of the
structure of crystals.
(B) State an additional use of the waves mentioned above.

7. (A) Name the prism required for obtaining a spectrum of ultraviolet light.
(B) Name the radiation which can be detected by a thermopile.

8. Is it possible that a glass slab disperses the light? If not, why?

9. Name the four colours of spectrum of white light which have wavelength longer than the
blue light. Also, name the light amongst the given, which shows maximum deviation.

10. If the wavelength for the light of orange and violet colours are approximately 7 × 10 –7 m and
4 × 10–7 m respectively, mention.
(A) Which colour has a ow vacuum? greater speed in
(B) Which colour has a greater speed in glass?

11. (A) Why is white light considered to be polychromatic in nature?

(B) Give the range of wavelength of these electromagnetic waves which are visible to us.

12. Mention two properties of infrared radiation that are not true for visible light.

13. An electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum having frequency of 30 MHz. What is its
wavelength?

14. What is the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave where frequency is 10 12 Hz? Name the
electromagnetic wave.

15. (A) Name the high energetic invisible electromagnetic waves which help in detecting purity
of gems.
(B) State an additional use mentioned above.

16. (A) Name a prism required for obtaining a spectrum of ultraviolet light.
(B) Name the radiations which can be detected by a thermopile.

17. Name any four regions of electromagnetic spectrum (other than visible light) in increasing
order of wavelength.

18. Name a radiation:

(A) that is used for photography at night.
(B) where wavelength range is from 100 Å to 4000 Å.
 SOUND

1. Why are the echoes not heard in the rooms?

2. Why echo cannot be heard, if the distance between the sound source and the reflecting
surface is less than 17 metres?

3. Why are musical instruments like guitar provided with a hollow box?

4. Why are strings of different thickness provided on a stringed instrument?

5. A man playing a flute is able to produce notes of different frequencies. If he closes the holes
near his mouth, will the pitch of the note produced, increase or decrease? Give a reason.

6. Two waves of the same pitch have amplitudes in the ratio 1:3. What will be the ratio of their:
(A) Intensities and
(B) frequencies?

7. What are natural and damped vibrations? Draw their displacement-time graphs also.

8. Explain the resonance in air column and tuning fork.

9. When tuning fork (vibrating) is held close to ear. One hears a faint hum. The same (vibrating)
tuning fork is placed on table, such that its handle is in contact with table, one hears a loud
sound. Explain.

10. (A) Define resonant vibrations.

(B) Which characteristic of sound, makes it possible to recognize a person by his voice
without seeing him?

11. Which characteristics of sound will change if there is a change in: ad

(A) its amplitude
(B) its waveform.

12. (A) Name one factor which affects the frequency of sound emitted due to vibrations in an air
column.
(B) Name the unit used for measuring the sound level.

13. Which characteristics of sound will change if there is a change in

(A) frequency,
(B) its waveform?

14. What change, if any, do we expect in a musical sound when we change:

(A) its frequency
(B) its amplitude
15. Draw a graph for a wave representing wave disturbance and time for a sound changing but
from low pitch to high pitch, keeping the amplitude of sound wave same.

16. Which wave characteristics determine the:

(A) loudness
(B) pitch of sound?
Draw two different waveforms and mark this characteristic on it.

17. Draw diagrams to represent soft sound and loud sound.

18. On what factors periods of natural vibrations of the body depends?

19. Give any two examples of damped vibrations.

20. What is the condition for resonance?

21. (A) Name one factor on which the frequency of sound emitted due to vibrations in an air
column depends.
(B) How does the frequency depend on the factor stated in part (A).

22. What is driving force?

23. How can frequency of a note be increased by an air column?

24. Why is a loud sound heard at resonance?

25. Explain why stringed musical instruments like guitar, are provided with a hollow box?

26. What happens to the amplitude of the vibrations of a undergoing (A) forced vibrations and
(B) resonance?

27. A bucket kept under a running tap is getting filled with water. A person sitting at a distance is
able to get an idea when the bucket is about to be filled.
(A) What change takes place in the sound give this idea?
(B) What causes the change in the sound?

28. What is a musical sound? Give an example.

29. How do you account for the fact that two strings can be used to give notes of the same pitch
and loudness but of different quality?

30. How is it possible to recognize a person by his voice without seeing him?

31. State two differences between music and noise.

32. A vibrating tuning fork is placed over the mouth of a burette filled with water. The tap of the
burette is opened and the water level gradually starts falling. It is found that the sound from
the tuning fork becomes very loud for a particular length of the water column:
(A) Name the phenomenon taking place when this happens.
(B) Why does the sound become very loud for this length of the water column?

CURRENT ELECTRICITY

1. (A) Draw a closed-circuit diagram consisting of a 0.5 m long nichrome wire XY, an ammeter,
a voltmeter, four cells of 1.5 V each and a plug key.
(B) Following graph was plotted between V and I value:

What will be the values of V/I ratios when the potential difference is 0.8 V, 1.2 V and 1.6 V
respectively? What conclusion do you draw from these values?

2. Find the current drawn from the battery by the network of four resistors shown in the figure.

3. Define current and state its SI unit.

4. How is electric current measured in a circuit?

5. V-I graph for two wires A and B are shown in the figure. If both wires are of same length and
same thickness, which of the two is made of a material of high resistivity?

6. If a copper wire has a diameter 0.8 mm and resistivity 1.8 × 10 -8 Ω m, then calculate the
length of copper wire, so as to make its resistance of 16 Ω?

7. The V-I graph for a series combination and for a parallel combination of two resistors is
shown in the figure below.
 Which of the two A or B, represents the parallel combination? Give a reason for your answer.

8. A music system draws a current of 400 mA when connected to a 12 V battery.

(A) What is the resistance of the music system?
(B) The music system is left playing for several hours and finally the battery voltage drops
and the music system stops playing when the current drops to 320 mA. At what battery
voltage does the music system stop playing?

9. Write factors affecting the internal resistance of a cell.

10. The equivalent resistance of the following circuit diagram is 4 Ω. Calculate the value of
unknown resistor 'x'.

11. Define specific resistance and state its S.I. unit.

12. Define resistance and state its S.I. unit.

13. How does specific resistance of a substance depends on its temperature?

14. You have three resistors of values 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 5 Ω. How will you join them so that the total
resistance is more than 7 Ω?
(A) Draw a diagram for the arrangement.
(B) Calculate the equivalent resistance.

15. How does an increase in the temperature affect the specific resistance of a:
(A) Metal
(B) Semiconductor

16. Calculate the effective resistance across AB:

17. Calculate the total resistance across AB:

18. Consider the following circuit diagram. If R₁ = R₂ = R 3 = R4 = R5 = 3, Find the equivalent
resistance (RS) of the circuit.

ELECTRICAL POWER & ENERGY

1. You watch a 100 W television everyday for 2 hours a day. If the utility rate per kWh in your
area is ₹ 6/- per kWh, what will be the annual cost to run the appliance?

2. An electric bulb of resistance 200 Ω draws a current of 0.5 A.

Calculate:
(A) Power of the bulb
(B) Potential difference at its ends

3. An electrical appliance is used at 1000 kVA, 220 V. If the appliance is operated for 2 h,
calculate the energy consumed by the appliance in:
(A) kWh
(B) Joule

4. Two bulbs are marked 100 W, 220 V and 60 W, 110 V. Calculate the ratio of their resistances.

5. An electrical heater is rated 4 kW, 220 V. Find the cost of using this heater for 12 h, if one
kWh of electrical energy cost ₹ 3.25.

6. Name the material used for:

(A) Filament of electric bulb
(B) Heating element of a room heater

7. (A) An electric bulb is marked 100 W, 250 V. What information does this convey?
(B) How much current will the bulb draw, if connected to a 250 V supply?

8. Two bulbs A and B are rated 100 W, 120 V and 10 W, 120 V respectively. They are connected
in series across a 120 V source.
(A) Calculate the current through each bulb.
(B) Which bulb will consume more power?

9. (A) Define a kilowatt hour.

 (B) How kilowatt hour is related to joule?

10. State factors on which the amount of heat produced in a wire on passing current through it
depends.

11. How does the heat produce in a wire or a conductor depends on:
(A) current passing through the conductor.
(B) resistance of the conductor.

12. An electric heater is rated 1000 W - 200 V. Find:

(A) The resistance of the heating element.
(B) The current flowing through it.

13. Calculate the electrical energy consumed when a bulb of 40 W is used for 12.5 hours to
everyday for 30 days.

14. An electric iron is rated 250 V, 1 kW. Under normal working conditions, calculate.
(A) The resistance of its heating element
(B) The amount of heat that will be produced in 5 minutes.

15. Calculate the quantity of heat produced in a 2 Ω resistor carrying 2.5 A current in 5 minutes.

16. An electric bulb of resistance 500 Ω, draws a current of 0.4 A. Calculate the power of the
bulb and the potential difference at its end.

17. An electric iron is rated 220 V, 2 kW. If the iron is used for 2h daily find the cost of running it
for one week if it costs ₹ 4.25 per kWh.

18. Electric power P is given by the expression P = (Q × V):

(A) What do the symbol Q and V represent?
(B) Express power in terms of current and resistance explaining the symbols used their
in.

HOUSEHOLD CIRCUIT

1. Where is the main fuse connected in a house circuit?

2.
3. Give two reasons why different electrical appliances in a domestic (circuit are connected in
parallel.
4.
5. What do you mean by earthing, of an appliance? Why is it essential?
6.
7. Write any two advantages of ring system of house wiring.
8.
9. What are the two main systems of wiring commonly used in houses? Which of these systems
mentioned by you is better and why?
10.
11. Draw a labelled diagram of a three-pin socket.

12. Explain how local earthing is done.

13. Answer the following questions:

(A) The earthing of an electric appliance is useful only if the fuse is in the live wire.
Given the reason.
(B) Name the part of the appliance which is earthed.

14. Under what circumstances does one get an electric shock from an electric gadget?

15. Why should switches be. always connected to the live wire?

16. State one circumstance when one may get an electric shock from an electric gadget and one
preventive measure to be provided with the gadget to avoid it?

17. Point out the main difference between overloading and short-circuiting.

18. The figure shows the arrangement of three lamps and three switches connected with two
cells. Answer the following questions based on the figure.

(A) Name the switch or switches to be closed, so, as to light all three lamps.
(B) How are then the lamps connected: in series or in parallel.

19. What is meant by MCB? In place of which electric circuit part it is used?

20. Why on passing the same amount of current through the bulb, heats up the filament, while
the leads are not heated up?

21. Answer the following questions:

(A) A switch is not touched with wet hands while putting it on or off. Give a reason for
your answer.
(B) Name the wire to which a switch is connected.

22. (A) To which wire of a cable in, a power circuit should the metal case of a geyser be
connected?
(B) To which wire should the fuse be connected?
23. Identify-the following wires used in a household circuit
(A) The wire is also called as the phase wire.
(B) The wire is connected to the top terminal of a three-pin socket.

24. Why is it not advisable 'to use a piece of copper wire as fuse wire in an electric circuit?

25. Write advantages of connecting the appliances in parallel

26. What is the order of current drawn by appliances connected to the light circuit' of a
household?

ELECTROMAGNETISM

1. How is the strength of magnetic field near a straight current conductor.

(A) related to the strength of current in the conductor.
(B) is affected by changing the direction of flow of current in the conductor?

2. State two ways by which the strength of an electromagnet can be increased?

3. When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a mechanical

force. What should be the angle between the magnetic field and the length of the conductor,
so, that the force experienced is:
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum

4. You have been provided with a solenoid AB.

(A) What is the polarity at end A?

(B) Give one advantage of an electromagnet over a permanent magnet.

5. State two properties of the magnetic lines of force around a circular coil.

6. A magnet kept at the centre of two coils A and B is moved to and fro as shown in the
diagram. The two galvanometers show deflection.

State with a reason whether:

x> y
¿
 x< y .
[x and y are magnitudes of deflection]

7. Write some practical applications of an electromagnet.

8. The diagram below shows a current carrying loop or a circular coil passing through a sheet of
cardboard at the point M and N. The sheet of cardboard is sprinkled uniformly with iron
filings.

(A) Copy the diagram and draw an arrow on the circular coil to show the direction of current
flowing through it.
(B) Draw the pattern of arrangement of the iron filings when current is passed through the
loop.

9. List any two sources of magnetic fields.

10. In the following diagram an arrow shows the motion of the coil towards the bar magnet.
(A) State in which direction the current flows, A to B or B to A?
(B) Name the law used to come to the conclusion.

CALORIMETRY

1. From the graph of heating curve below, state the melting point and boiling point of the
substance.
2. It we heat equal masses of water and brass such that rate of heat supply is same, the rise in
temperature in both is different. Why?

3. Why are cooking vessels made up of metals and their handles of plastic?

4. State the principle of calorimetry.

5. (A) Differentiate between heat and temperature.

(B) What is meant by energy degradation?

6. Two metallic blocks P and Q having masses in ratio 2: 1 are supplied with the same amount
of heat. If their temperatures rise by same degree, compare their specific heat capacities.

7. The specific heat capacity of a substance A is 3,800 J/kg K and that of a substance B is 400
J/kg K. Which of the two substances is a good conductor of heat? Give a reason for your
answer.

8. Define heat capacity and state its SI unit.

9. What do you understand by the following statements:

(A) The heat capacity of the body is 60 J/K.
(B) The specific heat capacity of lead is 130 J/kg K.

10. State two factors upon which the heat absorbed by a body depends.

11. State whether the following statement is true for heat or for temperature.
(A) Form of internal energy obtained due to random motion of molecules.
(B) SI unit is joules (J).
(C) Measured by thermometer.
(D) When two bodies are in contact, resultant is total of the individual value.

RADIOACTIVITY

1. (A) Name the radioactive isotope used to find the age of fossils.
(B) Name the radioactive radiation which it emits?

2. What is the difference between gamma rays and X-rays?

3. What are radioactive substances? Give two examples of such substances.

4. Which nuclear radiation has the least penetrating power?

5. Name the three types of radiations.

6. State charge and mass of:

(A) α-particle
 (B) β-particle.

7. Is it possible for a hydrogen ( 1H¹) nucleus to emit an alpha particle? Give a reason for your
answer.
8. When does the nucleus of an atom tend to be radioactive?

9. An element ZSA decays to 85R222 after emitting 2 α-particles and 1 β-particle. Find the atomic
number and atomic mass of the element S.

10. A radioactive substance is oxidized: Will there be any change in the nature of its
radioactivity? Give a reason for your answer.

11. (A) What is nuclear energy?

(B) Name the process used for producing electricity using nuclear energy.

12. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decays according to the sequence

X β X1 α X2 α X3
→ → →
If the mass number and atomic number of X 3 are 172 and 69 respectively, what is the mass
number and atomic number of X?

13. State one important advantage and disadvantage each of using nuclear energy for producing
electricity.

14. (A) Describe a common use of X-rays.

(B) State a precaution taken by those who work with X-rays.

15. Do alpha and beta decay cause a change of element, called transmutation?

16. A nucleus of an element X which has a symbol 235 X92 emits α and then a β-radiations. The
final nucleus in Yab. Find 'a' and 'b'.

17. In β-emission from a radioactive substance an electron is ejected. Where from does this
electron come from?

18. Copy and complete the following nuclear equations by filling in the correct values in the
blanks:

19. A nucleus ΑΧ2 emits an alpha particle followed by γ-emission; therefore, it emits two β-
particles to form Χ3
(A) Copy and complete the value of A and Z for X3.

(B) Out of alpha, beta and gamma radiations

(a) Which radiation is the most penetrating?
(b) Which radiations are negatively charged?
20. What is background radiation? How can you detect background radiation?

21. Two important nuclear reactions are described incompletely by the following equations:

Fill in the gaps in these equations by employing the conservation of masses and atomic
number of the reacting species and product.

22. Show by equations, effect on the atomic number Z and the mass number A of the parent
nucleus brought about by two types of radioactive decay?

β Al γ …, 27Mg12 emits a beta particle and is transformed into

23. In the reaction, 27Mg12 → →
aluminium. Write the mass number and the atomic number of Aluminium.

24. Explain why are 6C14 and 7N14 called isobars.

25. Why are gamma radiation preferred over alpha radiations for radio therapy?

26. Why are you not allowed to touch radioactive substance by hand?

27. (A) What are isobars?

(B) Give one example of isobar.

28. Which of the radioactive radiations:

(A) Can cause severe genetical disorders.
(B) Are deflected by an electric field?

29. Given any two important sources of background radiation.

30. A nucleus 84X202 of an element emits an alpha particle followed by a beta particle. The final
nucleus is aYb. Find a and b.