EMBRYOLOGY MCQ WITH KEY

1) BLOCK 4; GIT
1. The number of swellings develop from first arch and responsible for the development of anterior 2/3 rd of tongue are
a. Five
b. Four
c. Six
d. Three
e. Two
(Ans-d)
2. The posterior 1/3 of tongue is supplied by glossopharyngeal nerve because it develops from
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th
e. 6th
(Ans-c)
3. The odontoblast of the tooth develops from the mesenchyme derived from
a. Ectoderm
b. intermediate mesoderm
c. lateral plate mesoderm
d. neural crest cells
e. Paraxial mesoderm
(Ans-d)
4. The hypoglossal nerve supply tongue musculature as it develops from?
a. Cervical somites
b. Occipital somites
c. Somatic mesoderm
d. splanchnic mesoderm
e. Thoracic somite
(Ans-a)
5. The vagus nerve supply which tongue muscle?
a. Genioglossus
b. Hyoglossus
c. Palatoglossus
d. Palatopharyngeus
e. Thyroglossus
(Ans-)
6. The copula or hypobranchial eminence is formed by
a. 1,2,3
b. 1,2,4
c. 2,3,4
d. 1,2,6
e. 3,4,6
(Ans-)
7. Polyhydramnios is a result of:s
a. Acquired hiatal hernia
b. Congenital hiatal hernia
c. Esophageal atresia
d. Esophageal fistula
e. Trachea esophageal septum
(Ans-c)
8. The pharyngeal gut extends from buccopharyngeal membrane to the
a. Liver outgrowth
b. Pancreatic bud
c. Respiratory diverticulum
d. Ventral mesentery
e. Vitelline duct.
(Ans-c)
9. Regarding the development of stomachthe longitudinal rotation of the stomach results in:
a. left vagus supplies the anterior wall of stomach
b. leftvagus supplies the posterior wall .
c. Shifting of cardiac part to the right side.
 d. Shifting of pyloric part to the left side.
e. ventral mesogastriumis attached to the greater curvature of the stomach
(Ans-a)
10. Rotation about anterioposterior axis pulls the dorsal mesogastrium to left, creating
a. Falciform ligament
b. Greater omentum
c. Lesser omentum
d. Omental bursa
e. Triangular ligament
(Ans-)
11. Vitelline duct is:
a. Another name for umbilical cord
b. Foregut connection to yolk sac
c. Hindgut connection to yolk sac
d. Incorporated in umbilical cord
e. Midgut connection to septum transversum
(Ans-d)
12. Ventral mesentery extends from:
a. Caudal foregut to upper duodenum
b. Caudal foregut to upper ileum
c. Caudal foregut to upper jejunum
d. Caudal midgut to upper colon
e. Caudal midgut to upper hindgut
(Ans-a)
13. The omphaloceledevelops due to:
a. failure of fusion of caudocranial body folds
b. failure of fusion of lateral body folds
c. Failure of gut to return to abdominal cavity
d. Failure of gut to return to thoracic cavity
e. Loops of intestine and heart lying outside body
(Ans-c)
14. Second rotation of stomach is:
a. Anticlockwise direction around its longitudinal axis
b. Anticlockwise rotation around its horizontal axis
c. Clockwise direction around its longitudinal axis
d. Clockwise rotation around its anteroposterior axis
e. Clockwise rotation around its transverse axis
(Ans-d)
15. Greater omentum forms due to rotation of:
a. Duodenam
b. Jejunum
c. Pancreas
d. Stomach
e. Transverse colon
(Ans-d)
16. The organs which become secondarily retroperitoneal is;
a. Ileum
b. Jejunum
c. Pancreas
d. Stomach
e. Transverse colon
(Ans-c)
17. The lesser omentum is further differentiated into hepatoduodenal and
a. Coronary ligament
b. Falciform ligament
c. Gastrohepatic ligament
d. Greater omentum
e. Triangular ligament
(Ans-c)
18. During the development of liver:
a. Hepatic duct epithelial cells are derived from splanchnic mesoderm.
b. Liver primodium develops as an outgrowth from proximal end of foregut.
 c. The hepatic sinusoids are derived from vitelline and umbilical veins.
d. The Kupffer cells are derived from hepatic diverticulum
e. The liver parenchymal cells are derived from mesoderm of septum transversum
(Ans-c)
19. The ventral mesentery is derived from
a. Septum primum
b. Septum secundum
c. Septum spurium
d. Septum tranversum
(Ans-d)
20. The main pancreatic duct is formed by:
a. The distal part of the dorsal pancreatic duct and entire ventral pancreatic duct
b. The distal part of the dorsal pancreatic duct only
c. The entire ventral pancreatic duct
d. The proximal part of dorsal pancreatic duct and entire ventral pancreatic duct
e. The proximal part of the dorsal pancreatic duct only
(Ans-d)
21. Ventral bud of Pancreas gives rise to:
a. Body
b. Neck
c. Tail
d. Uncinate process
e. Upper part of head
(Ans-d)

22. The dorsal mesentery extends from lower end of esophagus to:
a. Ileocecal valve
b. Cloacal region of hind gut
c. The junction of right 2/3rd of transverse colon to left 1/3rd of transverse colon
d. Left 1/3rd of hind gut
e. Right 2/3rd of transverse colon
(Ans-c)
23. Dorsal mesogastrium forms the:
a. Falciform ligament
b. Gastrohepatic ligament
c. Gastrolienal ligament
d. Hepatoduodenal ligament
e. Right colic ligament
(Ans-e)
24. Adult derivative of Ventral mesentery:
a. Falciform ligament
b. Greater omentum
c. Ligamentumteres
d. Ligamentumvenosum
e. Omental bursa
(Ans-a)
25. Meckel’s diverticulum
a. Always contain gastric mucosa
b. Develops from hindgut
c. Is 5 feet from ileocecal junction
d. Represents remains of vitelline duct
e. Supplied by inferior mesenteric artery
(Ans-d)
26. The derivative of foregut is;
a. Caecum
b. Jejunum
c. Liver
d. Nasopharynx
 e. Rectum
(Ans-e)
27. Developmental cause of pyloric stenosis in an infant is
a. Absence of its blood supply
b. Absence of its vagal supply
c. Hypertrophy of circular muscle
d. Hypertrophy of longitudinal muscle
e. Hypertrophy of mucosa
(Ans-c)
28. The adult remnant of ventral mesogastrium, formed of two layers of peritoneum connecting liver and stomach is
a. Coronary ligament
b. Left triangular ligament
c. Lesser omentum
d. Ligamentumteres
e. Ligamentumvenosum
(Ans-c)
29. Artery of foregut
a. Celiac trunk
b. Inferior mesenteric
c. Left gastric
d. Superior mesenteric
e. Superior pancreaticodudenal
(Ans-a)
30. A surgeon accidentally gave a nick to the right margin of hepatoduodenal ligament, which is derivative of;
a. Dorsal mesentery
b. Greater omentum
c. Lesser omentum
d. Lesser sac
e. Omental bursa
(Ans-c)
31. Sinusoids of liver develop from
a. Liver bud
b. Septum transversum
c. Surrounding mesenchyme
d. Vitelline duct
e. Vitelline veins
(Ans-e)
32. The derivative of foregut is;
a. Caecum
b. Jejunum
c. Liver
d. Nasopharynx
e. Rectum
(Ans-c)
33. Derivatives of midgut is:
a. Duodenum 4th part
b. Larynx
c. Lower respiratory system
d. Pancreas
e. Spleen
(Ans-a)
34. Which one is the derivative of midgut:
a. appendix
b. esophagus
c. gallbladder
d. liver
e. stomach
(Ans-a)
35. Physiological herniation of midgut occurs in one of the following weeks:
a. 3rd
b. 4th
c. 5th
 d. 6th
e. 7th
(Ans-d)
36. First part of midgut that re-enters the abdomen is:
a. Ascending colon
b. Descending colon
c. Ileum
d. Proximal jejunum
e. Transverse colson
(Ans-d)
37. During development, return of herniation of intestinal loop occurs in week;
a. 10th
b. 6th
c. 7th
d. 8th
e. 9th
(Ans-a)
38. The mesentery proper is the mesentery of
a. Caecum
b. Duodenum
c. Jejunum
d. Liver
e. Rectum
(Ans-c)
39. The artery of hindgut is:
a. Celiac
b. Inferior mesenteric
c. Middle colic
d. Superior mesenteric
e. Superior rectal
(Ans-b)
40. Regarding cloaca:
a. Allantois enters anterior portion of cloaca
b. Covered ventrally by endoderm
c. Divided by anorectal septum
d. Ectoderm lined cavity
e. Hindgut enters anterior region of cloaca
(Ans-a)

41. The cloaca of the embryo contributes to the :

a. Bladder.
b. Descending colon.
c. gonad
d. Permanent kidney.
e. Ureter.
(Ans-a)
42. Hirscspruing disease results from absence of:
a. Myelination
b. Parasympathetic ganglia
c. Sensory ganglia
d. Spinal ganglia
e. Sympathetic ganglia
(Ans-b)
43. Lower part of Anal canal develops from:
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Intermediate mesoderm
d. Paraxial mesoderm
e. Urogenital sinus
 (Ans-a)
44. In case of anal canal the point of demarcation between ectodermal and endodermal portions is:
a. Anal columns
b. Anal shincter
c. Anal sinus
d. Hilton’s white line
e. Pectinate line
(Ans-e)
45. The result of abnormalities in the development of urorectal septum is;
a. Gastroschisis
b. Imperforate anus
c. Megacolon
d. Rectal atresia
e. Rectourethral fistula
(Ans-e)

2) RENAL
1. The permanent kidney develops from;
a. Mesenchyme
b. Mesonephros
c. Metanephros
d. Paramesonephros
e. Pronephros
(Ans-c)
2. The mesonephros develops during which week?
a. 2nd
b. 3rd
c. 4th
d. 5th
e. 6th
(Ans-c)
3. The proximal convoluted tubules of adult kidneys are derived from?
a. Mesonephric duct
b. Mesonephric tubules
c. Metanephricblastema
d. Pronephric tubules
e. Ureteric bud
(Ans-e)
4. The mesonephros disappears during development but one of its component remains that is;
a. Bowman capsule
b. Mesonephric duct
c. Paramesonephric duct
d. Renal corpuscle
e. Urogenital ridge
(Ans-b)
5. The major calyces develops from
a. Mesonephric duct
b. Paramesonephric duct
c. Renal pelvis
d. Ureteric bud
e. Urogenital ridge
(Ans-c)
6. During their ascent, kidneys pass through the arterial fork formed by:
a. Gonadal arteries
b. Inferior mesenteric arteries
c. Renal arteries
d. Sacral arteries
e. Umbilical arteries
(Ans-e)
7. Ureteric bud expands to form
a. Distal Convoluted tubules
 b. Major calyces
c. Minor calyces
d. Proximal Convoluted tubules
e. Renal pelvis
(Ans-)
8. The number of collecting tubules that develop from ureteric bud isupto;
a. 1 million
b. 2 million
c. 3 million
d. 4million
e. 5 million
(Ans-c)
9. An infant is brought to a paediatrician by his mother with c/o dribbling of urine from umbilicus. The child is most
likely suffering from:
a. Exstrophy of bladder
b. Exstrophy of cloaca
c. Urachal cyst
d. Urachal fistula
e. Urachal sinus
(Ans-d)
10. The upper part of primitive urogenital sinus gives rise to:
a. Urinary bladder
b. Part of urethra in females
c. Entire urethra in males
d. Epididymis
e. Ductus deferens
(Ans-)
11. A 3year old child presented in OPD with history of intellectual disability. O/E it was found that his testes were
enlarged. On ultrasound kidneys were also showing benign enlargement. He was diagnosed as having;
a. BardetBiedal syndrome
b. Meckel Gruber Syndrome
c. Potter sequence
d. WAGR syndrome
e. Wilms tumor
(Ans-d)
12. A 2yr old baby girl presented with flattened face. O/E it was found that she is having club feet. She was diagnosed as a
case of
a. BardetBiedal syndrome
b. Meckel Gruber Syndrome
c. Potter sequence
d. WAGR syndrome
e. Wilms tumor
(Ans-c)
13. The Potter Sequence is characterized by
a. Anuria, oligohydramnios and lung hypoplasia
b. Polyuria, hematuria and lung hypoplasia
c. Polyuria, polydipsia and lung hyperplasia
d. Polyuria, polydipsia and lung hypoplasia
e. Polyuria, polyhydramnios and lung hypoplasia
(Ans-a)
14. A three year old child presented in OPD with history of intellectual disability. O/E it was found that his head was
enlarged but eyes were very small. On ultrasound kidneys were cystic in appearance. The Dx was
a. BardetBiedal syndrome
b. Meckel Gruber Syndrome
c. Potter sequence
d. WAGR syndrome
e. Wilm’s tumor
(Ans-a)
15. A young lady presented in OPd with H/O repeated urinary infections. On I/Vpyelogram double ureter abnormality
was found. One ureter was opening in bladder and the other is opening in
a. Broad ligament
b. Ovary
c. Peritoneum
d. Uterus
e. Vagina
(Ans-e)
16. The ascent of kidney is due to diminution od body curvature and growth of body in;
a. lumbar and sacral region
b. lumbar region
c. sacral region
d. thoracic and lumbar region
e. thoracic region
(Ans-a)
17. During development, in the pelvis the metanephros receive its blood supply from
a. aorta
b. coeliac trunk
c. gonadal arteries
d. inferior mesenteric artery
e. superior mesenteric artery
(Ans-a)
18. The initial development of kidney occur in which region?
a. Abdomen
b. Neck
c. Pelvis
d. Perineum
e. Thorax
(Ans-c)
19. During development and ascent the kidneys are pushed together resulting in:
a. Atresia of kidney
b. Cystic disease
c. Horse shoe kidney
d. Pelvic kidney
e. Wilm’s tumor
(Ans-c)
20. The horse shoe kidney usually lies at the level of lower lumbar vertebrae as its ascent is prevented by root of

a. Gonadal arteries
b. Inferior mesenteric arteries
c. Renal arteries
d. Sacral arteries
e. Umbilical arteries
(Ans-b)
21. A one year old female child presented in emercency department with H/O renal failure. After investigation it was
found that she had polycystic kidneys. She was diagnosed as a case of
a. Autosomal dominant polycystic disease
b. Autosomal recessive polycystic disease
c. BardetBiedal syndrome
d. Meckel Gruber Syndrome
e. Wilms tumor
(Ans-b)
22. The definitive kidney becomes functional in which week?
a. 10th
b. 12th
 c. 14th
d. 20th
e. 24th
(Ans-b)
23. The tip of the urorectal septum forms;
a. urethra
b. anal orifice
c. vagina
d. perineum
e. perineal body
(Ans-e)
24. The bladder is connected to the umbilicus in adult as;
a. Allantois
b. Lateral umbilical ligament
c. Medial umbilical ligament
d. Median umbilical ligament
e. Urachus
(Ans-d)
25. The prostatic and membranous urethra develops from pelvic part of;
a. Allantois
b. Cloaca
c. Urachus
d. Urethra
e. Urogenital sinus
(Ans-e)
26. The trigone of bladder develops from mesoderm of;
a. Allantois
b. Cloaca
c. Mesonephric duct
d. Paramesonephric duct
e. Urogenital ridge
(Ans-c)
27. A newborn was born with a congenital defect in which the bladder mucosa was exposed to the exterior. This is due to
defect in ;
a. Allantois
b. Cloaca
c. genital swelling
d. Urachus
e. ventral body wall
(Ans-e)

BLOCK 5

3) GENITAL

1. The primordial germ cells are formed in 2nd week of development, from the
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Epiblast
d. Hypoblast
e. Mesoderm
(Ans-c)
2. The key to sex diamorphism is the Y chromosome which contains a gene SRY. The SRY protein is called;
a. ADPKD
b. ARPKD
 c. GDNF
d. TDF
e. WAGR
(Ans-d)
3. By 3rd week the PGCs reside in the;
a. Epiblast
b. Gonadal ridge
c. Hypoblast
d. Intermediate mesoderm
e. Yolk sac
(Ans-e)
4. Germ cells reside in the gonadal ridges in which week?
a.
4th
b.
5th
c.
6th
d.
7th
e. 8th
(Ans-c)
5. Genetic sex of an embryo is determined at the time of;
a. Birth
b. Fertilization
c. Meiosis
d. Mitosis
e. Ovulation
(Ans-b)
6. The inductive influence on the development of definitive gonad is carried by;
a. Primodial germ cell
b. SRY gene
c. Surrounding mesenchyme.
d. Tested determining factor
e. Y chromosome
(Ans-)
7. Indifferent gonad is characterized by presence of
a. cortical cords
b. medullary cords
c. primitive sex cords formed by the epithelium
d. primordial cells
e. tunica albuginea
(Ans-a)
8. Regarding testes development:
a. At periphery cords form rete testis
b. Cords penetrate deep into cortex
c. Cortical portions of cords develop
d. Epithelial cells of cords form Sertoli cells
e. Primitive sex cords degenerate
(Ans-)
9. The ductus deferens of the adult male is derived embryologically from which of the following?
a. The mesonephric duct
b. The mesonephric tubules
c. The paramesonephric duct.
d. The paramesonephric tubules
e. The uterovaginalprimordium
(Ans-a)
10. In the male incomplete fusion of the urethral folds with meatus found on dorsum of penis, is known as:
a. bifid penis
 b. ectopia of the bladder
c. epispadias
d. extrophy of bladder
e. hypospadias
(Ans-c)
11. Regarding sex of embryo Sex determining region is located on
a. Autosomal genes
b. Gonadal ridge
c. Primordial germ cells
d. X chromosome
e. Y chromosome
(Ans-e)
12. The derivatives of mesonephric duct in males
a. Appendix vesiculosa
b. Duct of epoophoron
c. Duct of Gartner
d. Paroopheron
e. Ureter
(Ans-e)
13. Interstitial cells of Leydig are derived from:
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Mesenchyme of gonadal ridge
d. mesoderm
e. Surface epithelium of testis
(Ans-c)
14. The ducts that develop in embryos of both sexes, but become dominant in the development of the male reproductive
system are;
a. Biliary
b. Gubernaculum
c. Mesonephric
d. Oviduct
e. Paramesonephric
(Ans-)
15. During an operation of inguinal hernia, a surgeon showed to his assistant that it is an indirect inguinal hernia. This
hernia develops due to persistent pathway that is formed during descend of
a. Adrenals
b. Kidney
c. Ovaries
d. Testes
e. Urinary bladder
(Ans-d)
16. The ejaculatory ducts develop from terminal part of ;
a. Allantois
b. Cloaca
c. Mesonephric duct
d. Paramesonephric duct
e. Urogenital ridge
(Ans-c)
17. Efferent ductules of testes arise from the remnants of
a. Allantois
b. Cloaca
c. Mesonephric duct
d. Paramesonephric duct
e. Urogenital ridge
(Ans-c)
18. The paradydimis is the vestigial remnant of;
a. Epididymis
b. Epigenital tubules
 c. Mesonephric duct
d. Paragenital tubules
e. Paramesonephric duct
(Ans-d)
19. From the tail of epididymis onwards the mesonephric ducts form;
a. Appendix epididymis
b. Ductus deferens
c. Ductus epididymis
d. Ejaculatory duct
e. Seminal vesicle
(Ans-b)
20. Prostate gland develops from multiple outgrowths arising from prostatic urethra which in turn develops from;
a. Allantois
b. Cloaca
c. Phallus
d. Urachus
e. Urogenital sinus
(Ans-e)
21. During development of testes the primitive sex cords break and form a network called;
a. DuctuliEfferentes
b. Ductus deferens
c. Epidydimis
d. Rete testes
e. Tunica albuginea
(Ans-d)
22. The seminiferous tubules when canalized join the rete testes which in turn enter the;
a. DuctuliEfferentes
b. Ductus deferens
c. Epidydimis
d. Medullary cords
e. Sex cords
(Ans-a)
23. Simple cuboidal epithelium on the surface of ovary is derived from epithelium of
a. Cloaca
b. Coelom
c. Gonadal ridge
d. Mesonephros
e. Urogenital sinus
(Ans-c)
24. In females primitive sex cords dissociate and form
a. Acinus
b. Clusters
c. Cords
d. Follicles
e. Lobules
(Ans-b)
25. The follicular cells around each oogonium is derived from
a. Cloaca
b. Coelom
c. Gonadal ridge
d. Ovarian epithelium
 e. Urogenital sinus
(Ans-d)
26. The paramesonephric ducts are stimulated to form uterus under the influence of;
a. Estrogen
b. Growth hormone
c. Luteinizing hormone
d. Progesterone
e. Prolactin
(Ans-a)
27. Lack of fusion of paramesonephric ducts results in
a. Cervical atresia
b. Double vagina
c. Uterus arcuatus
d. Uterus bicornis
e. Uterus didelphys
(Ans-e)
28. The uterine tube develops from the
a. Genital tubercle
b. Mesonephreic ducts
c. Paramesonephric ducts
d. Pronephros
e. Urogenital sinus
(Ans-c)
29. One of the main derivative of paramesonephric duct in females is
a. Ovarian ligament
b. Round ligament of uterus
c. Urethra
d. Uterus
e. Vagina
(Ans-d)
30. Regarding paramesonephric ducts:
a. Caudal portion opens into abdominal cavity
b. Horizontal part crosses vitelline duct
c. Join and project into urogenital sinus at mullerian tubercle
d. Lower 1/3 from both sides fuse to form vaginal canal only
e. Opens into the urogenital sinus above mullerian tubercle
(Ans-c)
31. The paramesonephric ducts arise as longitudinal invagination of epithelium of;
a. Genital tubercle
b. Pronephros
c. Urogenital diaphragm
d. Urogenital ridge*
e. Urogenital sinus
(Ans-d)
32. The paramesonephric duct open cranially as funnel shape structure in abdominal cavity called;
a. Cilia
b. Fimbria
c. Flagella
d. Villi
(Ans-b)
33. The lower part of paramesonephric ducts grow medially and crosses
a. Bladder
b. Mesonephric ducts
c. Obturator nerve
d. Ovarian artery
 e. Ureter
(Ans-b)
34. The mesonephric ducts in females open in urogenital sinus
a. above mullerian tubercle
b. above the genital tubercle
c. below the mullerian tubercle
d. on each side of genital tubercle
e. on each side of mullerian tubercle
(Ans-e)
35. The broad ligament is formed when;
a. Mesonephric duct move downwards
b. Mesonephric duct move medially
c. Paramesonephric duct move caudomedially
d. Paramesonephric duct move laterally
e. Paramesonephric duct move medially
(Ans-c)
36. The broad ligament divides the pelvic cavity in two pouches;
a. Uterorectal and rectovesical
b. Uterorectal and urorectal
c. Uterorectal and uterovesical
d. vesicorectal and uterovesical
(Ans-c)
37. The vagina develops from two solid evagination known as;
a. Epoophoron
b. Genital bulbs
c. Paroophoron
d. Sinovaginal bulbs
e. Vaginal fornix
(Ans-d)
38. The vagina has dual origin; upper part from uterine canal and lower part from
a. Genital tubercle
b. Pronephros
c. Urogenital diaphragm
d. Urogenital ridge
e. Urogenital sinus
(Ans-e)
39. The gardener cyst develops from the vestigial portion of
a. Mesonephric duct
b. Paramesonephric duct
c. Urogenital diaphragm
d. Urogenital ridge
e. Urogenital sinus
(Ans-a)
40. The congenital abnormality in which the uterus is indented in the middle is called;
a. Double uterus
b. Double vagina
c. Uterus arcuatus
d. Uterus bicornis
e. Uterus didelphys
(Ans-c)
 41. The clitoris in females develops from;
a. Genital tubercle
b. Phallus
c. Urogenital diaphragm
d. Urogenital ridge
e. Urogenital sinus
(Ans-a)
42. In some individuals the sex characteristics of both sexes are present. This condition is known as;
a. ambiguous genitalia
b. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
c. Gonadal dysgenesis
d. Hermaphroditism
e. Thyrotoxicosis
(Ans-d)

4) ENDOCRINES

43. The adrenal medulla develops from

a. Ectoderm
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Lateral plate mesoderm
d. Neural crest cells
e. Paraxial mesoderm
(Ans-d)
44. The primitive cortex of adrenal gland develops from mesothelium between root of mesentery and developing
a. Aorta
b. Gonads
c. Kidney
d. Spleen
e. Stomach
(Ans-b)
45. The superior parathyroid develops from
a. Fourth pouch
b. Second arch
c. Second pouch
d. Third arch
e. Third pouch
(Ans-a)
46. A 7 year old boy presents which a mass in the anterior midline of the neck, slightly above the larynx. The mass is
mobile and elevates upon protrusion of tongue. This mass is most likely a cyst that developed from which of the
following embryonic structure?
a. First pharyngeal cleft
b. First pharyngeal pouch
c. Second pharyngeal cleft
d. Second pharyngeal pouch
e. Thyroglossal duct
(Ans-e)
47. Third pouch gives rise to
a. Inferior Parathyroid
b. Lingual tonsil
c. Palatine tonsil
d. Pharyngeal tonsil
e. Superior parathyroid
(Ans-a)
48. Forth pouch gives rise to
a. Inferior Parathyroid
b. Lingual tonsil
c. Palatine tonsil
d. Pharyngeal tonsil
e. Ultimobranchial body
 (Ans-e)
49. During development of pituitary gland the infundibulum give rise to
a. Adenohypophysis
b. Diencephalon
c. Pars intermedia
d. Pars nervosa
e. Pars tuberalis
(Ans-d)
50. The pituitary gland develops from stomodeum and Rathke’s pouch a downward extension of;
a. Diencephlon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Prosencephlon
d. Rhombencephlon
e. Telencephlon
(Ans-a)
51. The thyroid gland develops from a duct that arise from under surface of;
a. Larynx
b. Pharynx
c. Thymus
d. Tongue
e. Trachea
(Ans-d)
52. The calcitonin is produced by parafollicular cells of thyroid which are derivative of;
a. Inferior Parathyroid
b. Lingual tonsil
c. Palatine tonsil
d. Pharyngeal tonsil
e. Ultimobranchial body
(Ans-e)
53. When do the islets of Langerhans develop from parenchyma of pancreatic tissue?
a. 12 week
b. 3rd week
c. 5th month
d. 7th month
e. 7th week
(Ans-a)
54. The insulin secretion from pancreatic islets begin in;
a. 12 week
b. 3rd week
c. 5th month
d. 7th month
e. 7th week
(Ans-c)
55. The origin of thyroid gland in adult life is indicated by formen;
a. Caecum
b. Insicive
c. Ovale
d. Rotundum
e. Spinosum
(Ans-a)
56. During development thyroid gland descend and reaches its final position in front of trachea in week?
 a. 10th
b. 12th
c. 16th
d. 3rd
e. 7th
(Ans-e)
57. The aberrant thyroid tissue is most commonly found in
a. Along thymus
b. Axilla
c. Base of tongue
d. Front of larynx
e. Mediastinum
(Ans-c)
58. A 3 year old child presented in OPD with large face, hands and feet. On investigation his growth amount was more
than normal. He was Dx as a case of :
a. Acromegaly
b. Cretinism
c. Cushing disease
d. Hermaphrodites
e. Hypopiturism
(Ans-a)

BLOCK 6;HEAD & NECK

5) AXIAL SKELETON

59. Neurocranium includes

a. Calveria + cranial base
b. Cranial base + facial skeleton
c. Fascial skeleton + calveria
d. Vault + calveria
e. Vault +facial skeleton
(Ans-a)
60. At point where more than two bones meet is known as;
a. Chondrochranium
b. Fontanella
c. Glabella
d. Nasion
e. Suture
(Ans-b)
61. During birth the sutures allow the bones of the skull to overlap through a process called;
a. Effacement
b. Invasion
c. Molding
d. Quickening
e. Ripening
(Ans-c)
62. The sagittal suture is derived from;
a. Ectoderm
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Lateral plate mesoderm
d. Neural crest cells
e. Paraxial mesoderm
(Ans-d)
63. The anterior fontanelle closes by
a. 12 month
b. 18 month
c. 20 month
d. 24 month
 e. 6 month
(Ans-b)
64. A baby was born in Obs department with absent vault of skull. This condition is called;
a. Brachycephaly
b. Cranioschisis
c. Craniostenosis
d. Plagocephaly
e. Scaphocephaly
(Ans-b)
65. A newborn baby was brought to OPD of RIHS with complains of abnormal head development. O/E it was found
that there was frontal and occipital expansion of skull. This condition occurs due to early closure of which suture?
a. Coronal
b. Frontal
c. Lambdoid
d. Parieto-occipital
e. Sagittal
(Ans-e)
66. A one year old baby boy was brought to child clinic with complains of havingURIO/E it was found that he had
large head with small face and accentuated spinal curvature. The Dx was;
a. Achondroplasia
b. Cranioschisis
c. Craniostenosis
d. Dysostosis
e. Dysplasia
(Ans-a)
67. The sclerotome portion during development undergoes a process called
a. Capacitation
b. Condensation
c. Consolidation
d. Resegmentation
e. Segmentation
(Ans-d)
68. The pharyngeal apparatus is made up of how many arches
a. Five
b. Four
c. Six
d. Three
e. Two
(Ans-a)
69. The resegmentation of sclerotomes during development allows the
a. Intersegmental artery to lie between sclerotome
b. Myotome to attach to single vertebrae
c. Myotome to bridge the intervertebral disc
d. Spinal nerves to lie on body of vertebrae
e. To from spinal curvatures
(Ans-c)
70. The primary spinal curvatures during development are
a. Cervical and thoracic
b. Lumbar and coccygeal
c. Lumbar and sacral
d. Thoracic and lumbar
e. Thoracic and sacral
(Ans-e)
71. A young girl presented in neurosurgery department with abnormal spinal curvature. On xray it was found that L
2,3 and 4 are fused together. The Dx was
a. KlippelFeil sequence
b. Lordosis
c. Meningocele
d. Scoliosis
e. Spina bifida
(Ans-d)
72. The pharyngeal arches are separated internally by;
 a. clefts
b. grooves
c. membrane
d. pouches
(Ans-d)
73. In KlippelFeil sequence which vertebrae are fused?
a. Cervical
b. Coccygeal
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral
e. Thoracic
(Ans-a)
74. A new born was brought to neonatal emergency unit. The spinal cord was exposed to exterior in lower back region;
this condition is called;
a. Lordosis
b. Meningocele
c. Scoliosis
d. Spina bifida cystica
e. Spinal bifida occulta
(Ans-d)
75. The bony part of ribs develop from
a. Dermatome
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Myotome
d. Neural crest cells
e. Sclerotome
(Ans-e)
76. A 15 year old girl presented in OPD with complains of paraesthesia on the lateral side of arm and forearm. On Xray
she was found to have
a. Cervical rib
b. Kyphosis
c. Lordosis
d. Lumbar rib
e. Scoliosis
(Ans-a)
77. The sternum develops independently from which mesoderm?
a. Extraembryonic
b. Intermediate
c. Paraxial
d. Parietal layer of LPM
e. Visceral layer Of LPM
(Ans-d)
78. A myoung man was admitted in hospital with chest infection. O/E it was found that his sternum was sunken
posteriorly. The Dx is;
a. Cleft sternum
b. Hypoplasia
c. Metaplasia
d. PectusCarinatum
e. Pectusexcavatum*
(Ans-e)
79. In case of spina bifida, diagnosis can be done by measuring in amniotic fliud, the level of;
a. Alpha fetoprotein
b. Fibroblast growth factor
c. Insulin
d. serotinin
e. Thyroxin
(Ans-a)
80. The neurons of 5th, 7th ,9th and 10th cranial sensory ganglia develop from;
a. ectodermal placodes& lateral plate mesoderm
b. ectodermal placodes& neural crest cells
c. ectodermal placodes& paraxial mesoderm
d. ectodermal placodes&intermedeate mesoderm
 e. ectodermal placodes&somitomeres
(Ans-b)
81. The Meckels cartilage disappear during development and the remnant remain as
a. Malleus
b. Mandible
c. Premaxilla
d. Stapes
e. Zygomatic
(Ans-a)
82. Muscles of mastication are supplied by 5th cranial nerve as they develop from which pharyngeal arch
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th
e. 5th
(Ans-a)
83. The cartilage of second arch is known as
a. Arytenoid
b. Cricoid
c. Hyoid
d. Meckel’s
e. Reichert’s
(Ans-e)
84. The muscle of second pharyngeal arch is;
a. Digastric
b. Masseter
c. Mylohyoid
d. Pterygoid
e. Stapedius
(Ans-e)
85. The painless swelling that lies along the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid is due to presence of
a. cervical lymphadenitis
b. Cervical sinus.
c. Parathyroid
d. Pharyngeal tonsil
e. Thyroglossal duct
(Ans-b)
86. The palatine tonsil develops from
a. Fourth pouch
b. Second arch
c. Second pouch
d. Third arch
e. Third pouch
(Ans-c)
87. The bone that develops from 2nd arch is
a. Basi-occiput
b. Cribriform plate of Ethmoid
c. Greater wing of sphenoid
d. Squamous part of Parietal
e. Stapes
(Ans-e)
88. The bone that develops from 3rd arch is
a. Basi occiput
b. Cribriform plate of Ethmoid
c. Greater wing of sphenoid
d. Inferior part of body of hyoid bone
e. Squamous part of Parietal
(Ans-d)
89. The muscle that develops from 6th arch is
a. Buccinators
b. Hyoglossus
c. Intrinsic muscles of larynx
 d. Styloglossus
e. Stylopharyngeus
(Ans-c)
90. Laryngeal cartilages develop from following arches;
a. 1 & 2nd
b. 2nd and 3rd
c. 3rd and 4th
d. 4th and 5th
e. 4th and 6th
(Ans-e)
91. Tympanic cavity is the derivative of ;
a. First pouch
b. Second arch
c. Second pouch
d. Third arch
e. Third pouch
(Ans-a)
92. At the end of 4th week the center of the face is formed by;
a. frontal prominence
b. mandibular prominence
c. maxillary prominance
d. proctodeum
e. stomodeum
(Ans-e)
93. The landmark between primary and secondary palate is foramen
a. Incisive
b. Lacerum
c. Ovale
d. Spinosum
e. Stylomastoid
(Ans-a)
94. A neonate is observed to have a cleft PALATE. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this
malformation?
a. Abnormal development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches
b. Bony defects of the malar bone and mandible
c. Failure of the maxillary processes and lateral nasal swellings to fuse
d. Incomplete joining of the palatine shelves
e. Insufficient migration of neural crest cells
(Ans-d)
95. The nasolacrimal duct develop between
a. Mandibular and lateral nasal swelling
b. Mandibular and maxillary swelling
c. Maxillary and lateral nasal swelling
d. Maxillary and medial nasal swelling
e. Medial and lateral nasal swelling
(Ans-c)
96. A child presented in OPD with a midline upper cleft lip; that develops due to non-union of
a. Medial nasal and maxillary swelling
b. Two lateral nasal swellings
c. Two mandibular swellings
d. Two maxillary swellings
e. Two medial nasal swellings
(Ans-e)
97. The cleft palate is more common in females as;
palatal shelves fuse as compare to males
a. 1 week earlier
b. 1 week later
c. 2 weeks earlier.
d. 2 weeks later
e. 3 weeks later
(Ans-b)
 98. Fused medial nasal swellings form;
a. cheeks
b. Lower jaw
c. Lower lip
d. Mandible
e. Philtrum of lip
(Ans-e)
99. A child presented in OPD with a midline upper cleft lip; that develops due to non-union of
a. Medial nasal and maxillary swelling
b. Two lateral nasal swellings
c. Two mandibular swellings
d. Two maxillary swellings
e. Two medial nasal swellings
(Ans-e)
6) EYE;

100. The developing eye appear in embryo on which day?

a. 20
b. 22
c. 26
d. 28
e. 32
(Ans-b)
101. The optic vesicle grow as an outpocketing from;
a. Diencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Metencephalon
d. Myelencephalon
e. Prosencephlon
(Ans-e)
102. Smooth muscles of pupil of eye develop from
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Paraxial mesoderm
d. Somatic layer of lateral plate mesoderm
e. Visceral layer of lateral plate mesoderm
(Ans-a)
103. The lens of eye is an derivative of which of the following?
a. Ectoderm
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Lateral plate mesoderm
d. Neural crest cells
e. Paraxial mesoderm
(Ans-a)
104. The inferior side of optic cup is invaginated to allow which artery to enter the eye?
a. Choroidal
b. Ciliary
c. Hyloid
d. Irideal
e. Retinal
(Ans-c)

7) CNS

105. Which of the following cell types is derived from neuroepithelium cell?
a. Astrocytes
b. Melanocytes
c. Microglia
d. Odontoblast
e. Schwann cell
(Ans-)
106. The cerebral hemispheres develops from
a. Diencephalon
b. Metencephalon
c. Myelencephalon
d. Rhombencephlon
e. Telencephlon
(Ans-e)
107. A swelling on the back of lumbar region containing cerebrospinal fluid , meninges and spinal cord tissue is:
a. Meningeocoele
b. Meningeomyelocoele
c. Myeloschisis
d. Spina bifida cystica
e. Spina bifida occulta
(Ans-b)
108. The characteristics of diencephalon is absence of
a. Floor & alar plates
b. Floor & basal plates
c. Roof & alar plates
d. Roof & basal plates
e. Roof and sulcus limitans
(Ans-)
109. Marginal layer of basal plates expands and makes a bridge in
a. Medulla
b. Midbrain
c. Pons
d. Spinal cord
e. Thalamus
(Ans-c)
110. In mesencephalon two longitudinal elevations from migrating neuroblasts into marginal zone to form four
elevation called
a. Colliculi
b. Crura
c. Lamina terminalis
d. Rhombic lip
e. Telachoroideal
(Ans-a)
111. Rhombencephlic isthmus is present between
a. Forebrain & Midbrain
b. Hindbrain & spinal cord
c. Midbrain & hindbrain
d. Pons & medulla
e. Thalamus and hypothalamus
(Ans-)
112. The first glial cells population develops from Neuroepithelial cells is
a. Astrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Mesenchymal cells
d. Microglial cells
e. Oligodendrocytes
(Ans-a)
113. In CNS myelination is done by oligodendrocytes around multiple axons upto
a. 50
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30
e. 40
(Ans-a)
114. In development of prosencephlon the basal part grow & bulges into lateral ventricle and known as
a. Corpus striatum
b. Diencephlon
c. Foramen of Monro
d. Insula
 e. Thalamus
(Ans-a)
115. A baby was born with a large sized skull due to abnormal accumulation of CSF, known as hydrocephalous. Most
common site is obstruction of the flow of CSF is
a. Aqueduct of Sylvius
b. Foramen magnum
c. Foramen of luschka
d. Foramen of magendie
e. Foramen of monro
(Ans-a)
116. In development of prosencephlon the basal part grow & bulges into lateral ventricle and known as
a. Corpus striatum
b. Diencephlon
c. Foramen of Monro
d. Insula
e. Thalamus
(Ans-)
117. A baby was born with a large sized skull due to abnormal accumulation of CSF, known as hydrocephlous baby.
Most common cause is obstruction of the
a. Aqueduct of Sylvius
b. Foramen Magnum
c. Foramen of Luscka
d. Foramen of Magendie
e. Foramen of Monro
(Ans-a)
118. In mesencephalon two longitudinal elevations from migrating neuroblasts into marginal zone to form four
elevation called
a. Colliculi
b. Crura
c. Lamina terminalis
d. Rhombic lip
e. Telachoroideal
(Ans-a)