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02-02-2025 SR - Super60, Elite, Target & LIIT BT's Jee-Adv (2023-P1) GTA-16 Q.paper

The document outlines an examination paper for the JEE-Advanced 2023 model conducted by Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, detailing the structure and marking scheme for Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry sections. Each subject is divided into different sections with varying question types and scoring rules. The exam is scheduled for February 2, 2025, with a total maximum score of 180 marks.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
49 views27 pages

02-02-2025 SR - Super60, Elite, Target & LIIT BT's Jee-Adv (2023-P1) GTA-16 Q.paper

The document outlines an examination paper for the JEE-Advanced 2023 model conducted by Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, detailing the structure and marking scheme for Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry sections. Each subject is divided into different sections with varying question types and scoring rules. The exam is scheduled for February 2, 2025, with a total maximum score of 180 marks.

Uploaded by

m9063606354
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.

 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI


A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
Sec: Sr.Super60, Elite,Target & LIIT BT's Paper -1(2023-P1-Model) Date: 02-02-2025
Time: 09.00Am to 12.00Pm GTA-16 Max. Marks: 180
02-02-2025_ Sr.Super60, Elite, Target & LIIT BT's_Jee-Adv(2023-P1) _GTA-16_Syllabus

MATHEMATICS : TOTAL SYLLABUS

PHYSICS : TOTAL SYLLABUS

CHEMISTRY : TOTAL SYLLABUS

Name of the Student: ___________________ H.T. NO:


Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 02-02-2025_Sr.Super60, Elite, Target & LIIT BT's_ Jee-Adv(2023-P1) _GTA-16_Q.P

JEE-ADVANCED-2023-P1-Model
Time:3Hr’s IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Max Marks: 180
MATHEMATICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – I(Q.N : 1 – 3) +4 -2 3 12
Choice with partial mark#
Questions with Single Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 4 – 7) +3 -1 4 12
Choice
Questions with NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
Sec – III(Q.N : 8 – 13) +4 0 6 24
Type
Sec – IV(Q.N : 14 – 17) Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 17 60

PHYSICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – I(Q.N : 18 – 20) +4 -2 3 12
Choice with partial mark
Questions with Single Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 21 – 24) +3 -1 4 12
Choice
Questions with NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
Sec – III(Q.N : 25 – 30) +4 0 6 24
Type
Sec – IV(Q.N : 31 – 34) Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 17 60

CHEMISTRY:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – I(Q.N : 35 – 37) +4 -2 3 12
Choice with partial mark
Questions with Single Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 38 – 41) +3 -1 4 12
Choice
Questions with NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
Sec – III(Q.N : 42 – 47) +4 0 6 24
Type
Sec – IV(Q.N : 48 – 51) Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 17 60

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 02-02-2025_Sr.Super60, Elite, Target & LIIT BT's_ Jee-Adv(2023-P1) _GTA-16_Q.P
MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 60

SECTION–I
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains THERE (03) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks :+4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct ;
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and it is a correct option ;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4
marks;choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;choosing ONLY
(A) will get +1 mark;choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0
marks; andchoosing any other combination of options will get -2 marks.

   
2
1. Let  a 1 x 2  3 x  1  a  1 x 4  x 2  1  0 x  R , then which of the following
is/are CORRECT?
 2 2 
A) a   , 
 3 3 
2
B) Largest possible value of a is
3
C) Number of possible integral values of a is 3
D) Sum of all possible integral values of a is 0
2. For the set of given equations/inequations og 2 x og y 2  1  0 ;   
sin x cos y  1  cos x sin y and x  y  8 , which of the following statements is/are
CORRECT?
A) Number of real pairs in the form of pair (x, y) satisfying the equations/inequations
is 2.
B) Number of real pairs in the form of pair (x, y) satisfying the equations/inequations is
4.
C) Sum of real values of x satisfying the equations/inequations is the fundamental period
 4x 
of the function f  x  sin   .
 5 
D) Sum of real values of y satisfying the equations/inequations is the fundamental period
4x
of f  x   sin .
5
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3. Let T be the line passing through the points P(–2, 7) and Q(2, –5). Let F1 be the set of all

pairs of circles  S1, S2  such that T is tangent to S1 at P and tangent to S 2 at Q, and also

that S1 and S 2 touch each other at a point, say M. Let E1 be the set representing the locus

of M as the pair  S1, S2  varies in F1 . Let the set of all straight line segments joining a
pair of distinct points of E1 and passing through the point R(1, 1) be F2 . Let E2 be the
set of the midpoints of the line segments in the set F2 . Then, which of the following
statement(s) is (are) TRUE?
4 7
A) The point (2, –5) does NOT lies in E1 B) The point  ,  does NOT lies in E2
 5 5 

1   3
C) The point  ,1 does NOT lies in E2 D) The point 0,  does NOT lies in E1
 2   2 
SECTION–II
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
 a  b 
With reference to the graph shown, the value of tan1 a  tan1 b  tan1 
1  ab 
4. is

equal to

A) 0 B)  C)  D) Does not exist


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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 02-02-2025_Sr.Super60, Elite, Target & LIIT BT's_ Jee-Adv(2023-P1) _GTA-16_Q.P

5.
 
Number of points of discontinuity of the function f  x   sgn x 2  x  1   x 2  x  1
 
in x  0,3 ([.] denotes greatest integer function, sgn {.} denotes signum function)
A) 8 B) 5 C) 2 D) 6
1
dx
6. The value of integral  is
 2
1 x  x  1   4
x  3x 12

1  
A) B) 0 C) D)
2 2 2 4
 3
7. L1 is a tangent drawn to the curve x 2  4 y 2  16 at A5,  . L2 is another tangent
 2 

parallel to L1 which meets the curve at B. L3 and L4 are normals to the curve at A and
B. Lines L1, L2 , L3 , L4 forms a rectangle, then which of the following is INCORRECT?
A) Equation of tangent at B is 6y = 5x + 6
B) Equation of normal at B is 12x + 10y + 75 = 0
32
C) Radius of largest circle inscribed in the rectangle is
61

109
D) Radius of the circle circumscribing the rectangle is
2
SECTION-III
(NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
 For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme
Full Marks :+4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
      
If L  2  2n sin 2   tan   , then [2L] is equal to ([.] denotes G.I.F)
 2n1   2n2 
8.
n1

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24 194
9. Let the mean and the variance of 5 observations x1, x2 , x3 , x4 , x5 be and
5 25
7
respectively. If the mean and variance of the first 4 observations are and ‘a’
2
respectively, then  4a  x5   7 is equal to

10. Assuming all the terms of A.P  an  are integers with a1  2019 and for all n  I  there
always exists positive integer m such that a1  a2  a3  .....  an2  an1  an  am ,
then the number of such sequences is ___
11. If A1, A2 , A3 , A4 be the areas of the triangular faces of a tetrahedron, and h1, h2 , h3 , h4 be
the corresponding altitudes of the tetrahedron. If volume of tetrahedron is 5 cubic units,
 A1  A2  A3  A4 h1  h2  h3  h4 
then the minimum value of is
120

12.
 
There is exactly one real x  0,  such that
 2 
 2 x 
 
 tan  cot 4 x  1 cos ec 2 x  tan 2 x  1.
 2 

Find the positive integer k such that cos 2022 x  sin k x

 2 2 4 4 6 6 8 8 
13. The value of  . . . . . . . . .........   is _______. Where [.] denotes G.I.F.
1 3 3 5 5 7 7 9
 
SECTION–IV
(MATCHING TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
 Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
 Each set has TWO lists :List-I and List-II.
 List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
 FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the
condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks:+3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: –1 In all other cases.

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14. Match the following List–I and List–II.
List–I List–II
I) If A and B are non–singular real matrices such that det (A) = 3 and P) 190
1
A1  B1   A  B  , then det  B  
II) a x p  0 0 1 Q) 3
   
Let A   y q b  and B   0 1 0 (a, b, c, x, y, z, p, q, r  N).
   
r c z  1 0 0
  

 
If tr AB  AB3  AB 5  ....  AB19  210 , then the number of

ordered triplets (p, q, r) is _____ (tr(A) denotes sum of principal


diagonal elements of A)
III) 1 2 4  2 4 5 R) 5
   
Consider A   0 1 3 , B   4 0 0 . If C  Cij   A20  B
      33
 0 1 1  5 0 0
   

and C22C33  C23C32  2m , then m =


IV) Consider three matrices A   a  , B  b  and S) 11
 ij  35  ij  59
i j
C  A B   cij  . It is given that aij  and bij  ,
  39 3 j 2 3i  1
then value of the element C28 is _____
T) 20
Then CORRECT options is
A) I–R, II–S, III–Q, IV–R B) I–Q, II–P, III–T, IV–R
C) I–R, II–Q, III–T, IV–P D) I–P, II–T, III–R, IV–S

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15. There is a rectangular table as shown in the figure, which has three chairs on two sides
each.

Three married couples sit on these chairs. Then answer the following grid.
List–I List–II
I) Probability that couples sit either infront of each other or P) 0.2333
adjacently.
II) Probability that no couple sit either infront of each other or Q) 0.1000
adjacently.
III) Probability that exactly one couple sit infront of each other or R) 0.1555
adjacently.
IV) Probability that no two ladies sit infront of each other or S) 0.1322
adjacently.
T) 0.1333
Then CORRECT options is
A) I–P, II–Q, III–R, IV–S B) I–T, II–R, III–P, IV–Q
C) I–R, II–T, III–P, IV–Q D) I–R, II–T, III–Q, IV–P

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16. Consider the curves 2 z  2a  z  z and z  4a  3a where z  x  iy and a  R .


List–I List–II
I) If z1 is the point of intersection of common tangents of two P) A prime number
z
curves (not parallel to imaginary axis), then 1 is
a
II) If A is the area of triangle formed by chord of contact and Q) Perfect square
common tangents drawn from z1 (used in 1st part) to the curve
4A
z  4a  3a then is
3a 2
III) Number of common points in both curves is R) Perfect cube
IV) If equation of chord of contact from z1 (used in part I) to the S) Multiple of 10
zz
curve 2 z  2a  z  z is  ka , then k is
2
T) Multiple of 5
Then CORRECT options is
A) I–P, II–R, III–T, IV–Q B) I–P, II–Q, III–T, IV–R
C) I–P, II–R, III–P, IV–Q D) I–P, II–Q, III–P, IV–R
1 1 1 1 1 1
e tan x
xe tan x
x 2e tan x
17. Consider I1   dx, I 2   dx, I 3   dx , then
2 2 2
0 1 x 0 1 x 0 1 x
List–I List–II
I) I1  I 2  P) 3
2
II) I1  I 2  4 I3  Q) 1
III) I1  I 2  1 R) 2 e /4 1

I1  I 2  2 I 3
IV) 2 I1  I 2  S) 2 e /4

2 I3  1
T) 2e /4  3
Then CORRECT options is
A) I–R, II–T, III–Q, IV–R B) I–S, II–T, III–P, IV–R
C) I–R, II–S, III–T, IV–P D) I–P, II–T, III–R, IV–S

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PHYSICS Max Marks: 60
SECTION–I
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains THERE (03) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks :+4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct ;
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and it is a correct option ;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4
marks;choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;choosing ONLY
(A) will get +1 mark;choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0
marks; andchoosing any other combination of options will get -2 marks.

18. Three identical smooth steel beads are free to slide on a long fixed horizontal shaft. Beads
2 and 3 are at rest and are approached by the bead 1 at a speed u. The coefficient of
restitution for all collisions is e, where 0 < e < 1.

u 1  e 
A) Speed of bead 1 after the first collision is
2

u 1  e
2
B) Speed of bead 3 after the second collision is
4
eu 1  e
C) Velocity of centre of mass of beads 2 and 3 after the second collision is
4
D) Final velocity of centre of mass of beads 1, 2 and 3 after the second collision is
independent of the value of e
19. A metallic rod AB of length 1m is clamped at two points X and Y as shown in the figure
such that AX = BY = 0.3m

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Density and Young’s modulus of the rod are 9.0  103 kg m 3 and

1.44  1011 Nm 2 respectively. Standing longitudinal waves are set up in the rod. Then
(Assume clamped point as node)
A) Minimum frequency of oscillation of rod is 20 kHz
B) Minimum frequency of oscillation of rod is 10 kHz
C) Rod may oscillate with odd harmonics
D) Rod may oscillate with even harmonics
20. A conducting rod (mass M, length L) having uniform linear mass density is free to
oscillate in a vertical plane about a horizontal axis passing through one of its end (O).
The lower end of the rod slides along a smooth conducting, circular strip as shown in the
figure. 
A uniform magnetic field B exists in the region parallel to the axis of rotation in the
direction as shown. If at t = 0, switch S is closed and rod is released from the position
shown in diagram, then choose the correct alternatives (neglect effect of magnetic force
on rod)

3g
A) Angular frequency of oscillations is
2L
3g
B) Maximum angular speed of rod will be  0
2L

BL2 0 3g
C) Maximum induced current in the circuit is if switch S is closed
2R 2L

BL2 0 3g
D) Maximum induced current in the circuit is if switch S is closed
R 2L

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SECTION–II
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
21. An infinite number of uniform discs having same thickness and made of same material
are pivoted at their respective centres and arranged in such a manner that centres of all
the discs are at the same horizontal level. Radius of biggest disc is R and successive discs
rd
 1
have radii   of radius of disc to its left. A rod having same mass as the mass of
 3
largest disc is placed over the discs, touching all of them. There is no friction between the
discs but friction is sufficient between the rod and the discs, so that the rod does not slip.
Then the acceleration of the rod is

8g 3g g g
A) B) C) D)
25 25 25 50
22. Three particles of masses m A , mB , and m D are kept at the vertices A, B, and D
respectively of a parallelogram as shown. The centre of mass of the three particles lies at
the point ‘P’ which is the midpoint of AO (O is the intersection point of the diagonals of
the parallelogram). Now, another mass mC has to be kept at ‘C’ so that the centre of mass
of the four particles lies at Q (Q is the midpoint of OC). Choose the correct option:

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A) mC  3m A B) mC  4m A C) mC  4mB D) mC  2mD
23. Two beads of mass M and m can move without friction on a horizontal wire as shown in
the figure. Initially M is moving with a speed v0 and m is stationary. During subsequent
motion speed of m will increase. If all collisions are perfectly elastic then maximum
speed attained by m is (here M >> m)

m M
A) v0 B)v0 C) v0 D) 2v0
M m
24. A particle of mass m moving with a velocity v0 enters a stationary object of mass M (free
to move) as shown in the figure. All surfaces are frictionless and the system shown in the
figure is lying on a smooth horizontal plane. Time taken by the particle of mass m to
move from end A to end B of the object of mass M is

2   R    R       R   R     R 
A) B) n   C) n   D) n  
v0  v  v0    v0   R 
0
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SECTION-III
(NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
 For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreenvirtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme
Full Marks :+4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
25. A tube of length 1 m and radius a carries a viscous fluid whose velocity V is given as,
 r 2 

V  V0 1   where r is the distance of fluid particle from the axis of the tube. The
 a 2 
V0a 2
volume of fluid flowing across a section of tube in unit time is . Find the value of
n
n.
26. In a Coolidge tube the accelerating voltage is doubled and as a result the difference
between the wavelength of K line and minimum X–ray wavelength is increased by
 
200%. If the wavelength of K line is 0.25 P  A . Find the value of P. Initial
 

accelerating voltage is 12.4 kV. (Given hc = 12400 eV A )
27. A planar spiral coil of inner radius R and outer radius 2R is made from a thin insulated
wire which is tightly wound in N turns as shown in figure. A time varying magnetic field
B  B0 sin t is present in the region and it is directed perpendicular to the plane of the
coil as shown. The amplitude of induced emf in the coil across the terminal A and B is
21 NR 2 B0
given by . Find the value of n.
n

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28. For the given thermodynamic process, 1 mole of an ideal gas is expanded from a volume
V0 to 2V0 under the process AB. If the maximum temperature attained by the gas during
nP0V0
the process is Tmax  , then find the value of n.
8R

29. A point charge q  9C is moving towards the center of conducting sphere which is
earthed, at a speed of 100 m/s as shown. Find the current (in mA) flowing through the
switch S at given instant.

30. A charged particle of charge ‘q’ and mass ‘m’ is projected in to a region which contains
both the electric and magnetic fields as shown in the figure with velocity v at an angle
qE
450 with x direction. If v  , then find the net deviation in particle’s motion (in
m
degree). (Neglect the effect of gravity)

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SECTION–IV
(MATCHING TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
 Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
 Each set has TWO lists :List-I and List-II.
 List-I has Fourentries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
 FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the
condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks:+3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: –1 In all other cases.
31. In the adjacent circuit shown, all ammeters and batteries are ideal. Internal resistances of
all the batteries are negligible. Point R is grounded. Match the List–I with List–II.

List–I List–II
P) Potential at point B 1) 15
SI unit
13
Q) Potential at point D 2) 175
SI unit
13
R) Reading of Ammeter A1 3) 3 SI unit
S) Reading of Ammeter A2 4) 227
SI unit
13
A) P–1, Q–2, R–3, S–4 B) P–4, Q–2, R–3, S–1
C) P–1, Q–3, R–2, S–4 D) P–4, Q–3, R–2, S–1

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32. In Young’s double–slit experiment, the point source S is placed 5 mm from the central
axis as shown. If   500 nm , then match the following list. Match List–I with List–II.

List–I List–II
P) Nature and order of interference at point P, 1) Bright fringe of order 200
OP  10 mm
Q) Nature and order of interference at point O 2) Bright fringe of order 380
R) If a transparent paper having refractive index   1.50 3) Bright fringe of order 400
and of thickness t = 0.02 mm is pasted on S1 . Then the
nature and order of interference at P
S) After inserting the transparent paper in front of the slit 4) Bright fringe of order 180
S1 , the nature and order of interference at ‘O’
A) P–1, Q–3, R–4, S–2 B) P–1, Q–3, R–2, S–4
C) P–3, Q–1, R–2, S–4 D) P–3, Q–2, R–1, S–4

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33. List-I specifies a point P at distance r from the centre (or) axis of symmetrical
distribution of mass. List-II gives the variation of Gravitational field intensity at P as a
function of r (> 0). Match the entries of List-I with List-II
List–I List–II
P) P lies outside a long cylinder having uniform mass density 1) 1
g 2
r
Q) P lies inside a uniform spherical shell 2) 1
g
r
R) P lies inside a uniform solid sphere 3) g  r
S) P lies outside a solid sphere of radius R and its density varies 4) g  r 0
P x2
as   0 , where x is distance from centre of the sphere
R2
A) P–2, Q–4, R–3, S–1 B P–4, Q–1, R–3, S–2
C) P–2, Q–3, R–2, S–4 D) P–4, Q–1, R–2, S–3
34. A satellite of mass m is revolving in an elliptical orbit around a planet of mass M. When
3 GM
the satellite is at distance R from the planet, its velocity is which is
2 R
perpendicular to its acceleration. Let r, k, U and L be the distance, kinetic energy,
potential energy and angular momentum of satellite at farthest point. Then match the
entries in List-I with
List-II.
List–I List–II
P) r 1) 1
R
Q) 2 L2 2) 2
3GMm 2 R
R) 6kR 3) 3
GMm
S) 6UR 4) 1
GMm 2
A) P–3, Q–1, R–4, S–3 B) P–3, Q–1, R–4, S–2
C) P–3, Q–2, R–3, S–2 D) P–3, Q–2, R–4, S–1
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CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 60
SECTION–I
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains THERE (03) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks :+4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct;
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4
marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks; choosing
ONLY (A) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark; choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will
get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get -2 marks.

35. Choose the correct statement(s):


A) Kaolinite is a form of clay containing aluminium.
B) In froth floatation of sulphide ores NaCN forms soluble complex with PbS allowing
separation of ZnS.
C) Bauxite ore usually contains silica, iron oxides and TiO2 as impurities.
D) After concentration, mixture of oxide ores of iron is subjected to calcination/ roasting
to remove water, to decompose carbonates and to oxidise sulphides.
36. In the following reactions, K, L, M, and N are the major products.

The correct statement(s) about K, L, M, and N is(are)


A) L has asymmetric carbon(s) and N has no asymmetric carbon(s).
B) Both K and N have asymmetric carbon(s).
C) L and M are not isomers.
D) Both L and M have asymmetric carbon(s).
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37. Consider the following reaction scheme and choose the correct option(s) for the major
products P, Q, R, S, and T.

A) Both P and Q turn acidified dichromate green.


B) DU of R is 11.
C) S gives effervescence with sodium bicarbonate.
D) T gives positive iodoform test.
SECTION–II
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
38. In the scheme given below, W, X, Y and Z, respectively, are

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A) Cr2O72 , K 2Cr2O7 , CrO2Cl2 and PhCOOH

B) CrO42 , K 2Cr2O7 , CrOCl2 and PhCHO

C) FeO42 , K 2 FeO4 , FeCl3 and PhCHO

D) Cr2O72 , K 2Cr2O7 , CrO2Cl2 and PhCHO


1
39. Plotting against C m for aqueous solutions of a monobasic weak acid (HX)
m
P2
resulted in a straight line with Y–axis intercept of P and slope of S. The ratio is
S
[  m = molar conductivity
 m = limiting molar conductivity
C = molar concentration K a = dissociation constant of HX]
1
A) K a m B) C) K a D) 2 K a m
Ka
40. On decreasing the pH from 7 to 4 the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AgY of a

weak acid HY increases from 105 M to 104 M . Similarly, on decreasing the pH from 7
to 3 the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AgZ of a weak acid HZ increases from
103 M to 102 M . Choose the incorrect statement.
A) The pH of 0.1 M HY is less than the pH of 0.1 M HZ.
B) The pH of 0.1 M NaY is less than the pH of 0.1 M NaZ
C) The difference between of pK a (HX) and pK a (HY) is approximately 1.
D) Limiting molar conductivity of HY must be more than that of HZ.
41. Alitame, an artificial sweetener 2000 times sweeter than sucrose is a dipeptide made up
of the following components:
(i) Aspartic acid: An amino acid
(ii) Alanine: An amino acid
(iii) C–Terminal amide moiety: A novel amide moiety formed from
2, 2, 4, 4-tetramethylthietan-3-amine
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The structure of alitame is

A) B)
COOH
O H
H
H
N
N
S
NH2 H O
C) D)
SECTION-III
(NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
 For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreenvirtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme
Full Marks :+4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
42. Sodium dihydrogen phosphate on heating gives a dimer P which on further heating gives
a hexameric sodium salt Q. Q finds application in removal of hardness of water.
Assuming that the overall efficiency of conversion phosphorous in sodium dihydrogen
phosphate to Q is 85 % , the mass (in kg) of Q produced from 360 kg of sodium
dihydrogen phosphate by the above process is_____.
[Use, molar mass ( g mol 1 ): H = 1, O = 16, Na = 23, P = 31]

43. A gas has a compressibility factor of 0.75 and a molar volume of 0.6 dm3mol 1 at a
temperature of 600 K and pressure x atm. If it shows ideal gas behaviour at the same
temperature and pressure, the molar volume will be y dm3mol 1 . The value of 𝐱/𝐲 is _.

[Use: Gas constant, R = 8  102 L atm mol 1K 1 ]

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44. Kinetics of radioactivity obeys first order kinetics, and the rate of radioactivity is
independent of temperature. In a tracer study a radioactive isotope is injected into the
subject. The following plot is obtained when n A is plotted against time (in minutes):
A – radioactivity in arbitrary units

The value of n A at 30 min. Is _____


45. The effect of temperature on the absolute entropies of Sn(white) and Sn(grey) is given in
the following graph:

The Gibb’s energy of formation of Sn(grey) at 298 K (in J mol1 ) is _____.


Given,  f H  ( Sn, grey )  2.09kJmol 1

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46. The plot of the natural logarithm of the molar solubility (S) of Ag 2 SO4 ( s ) as a function
of the reciprocal of the absolute temperature is shown below

What is ΔHr (in KJ/mol) for the following reaction?


 2 Ag  (aq)  SO42 (aq )
Ag 2SO4 (s) 
Given, R  8.3 JK 1mol 1
47. Urea on heating gives a compound P by the following reaction:
6NH 2CONH 2 
 6NH3 + 3CO 2  P
P is used in the manufacture of a polymer used to make unbreakable crockery. The sum
of number of sp 2 hybridized carbon atoms, number of lone pairs and the number of
electrons involved in pi bond formation is _______
SECTION–IV
(MATCHING TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
 Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
 Each set has TWO lists :List-I and List-II.
 List-I has Fourentries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
 FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the
condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks:+3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: –1 In all other cases.

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48. Match the reactions (stoichiometry of the reactants not given) in List-I with one or more
of their products given in List-II and choose the correct option.
List–I List–II
P) C12 H 22O11  conc.H 2SO 4 
 1) H 2

Q) Cu  conc.H 2SO 4 
 2) C

R) S  conc.H 2SO 4 
 3) CO

S) C  conc.H 2SO4 
 4) CO 2

5) SO 2
6) SO3
A) P  1, 2;Q  1,5;R  5,6;S  4,5
B) P  2;Q  5;R  5;S  4,5
C) P  4,5;Q  5,6;R  1,5,6;S  1,4,5
D) P  3,6;Q  5;R  5,6;S  3,5
49. Match the complexes in List-I with one or more appropriate isomerism exhibited by them
in List-II and choose the correct option.
List–I List–II
P) [Co(en) 2 Cl2 ]Br 1) Optical isomerism
Q) K 3[Cr(C 2O 4 )3 ] 2) Coordination isomerism
R) [Pt(NH 3 )(H 2O)Cl 2 ] 3) Ionization isomerism
S) [Co(NH 3 )6 ][Cr(CN) 6 ] 4) Geometrical isomerism
5) Solvate isomerism
A) P  1,3;Q  1;R  4,5;S  2 B) P  1,3,4;Q  1;R  4;S  2
C) P  4;Q  2;R  5;S  3 D) P  1;Q  2;R  3;S  4

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50. Match each reaction in List-I with the feature of its major product in List-II and choose
the correct option.
List–I List–II
P) 1) Inversion of configuration

Q) 2) Retention of configuration
S

R) 3) Mixture of enantiomers

S) 4) Mixture of structural isomers

5) Mixture of diastereomers
A) P  1;Q  1;R  3;S  3 B) P  2;Q  1;R  5;S  4
C) P  4;Q  2;R  5;S  3 D) P  2;Q  1;R  5;S  3
51. The major products obtained from the reactions in List-II are the reactants for the named
reactions mentioned in List-I. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.
List–I List–II
P) Cannizzaro reaction 1)

Q) Reimer-Tiemann reaction 2)

R) Sandmeyer reaction 3)

S) Etard reaction 4)

5)

A) P  1;Q  1;R  3;S  3 B) P  2;Q  1;R  5;S  4


C) P  2;Q  1;R  5;S  3 D) P  2;Q  1;R  3;S  5
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