LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2024-25

MOCK AILET 06

Date of Exam : Candidate Name : _____________

Duration : 120 Minutes
Batch : _____________
Max. Marks : 150
Centre Name : __________ Contact No. : _____________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

c o m
1.
2.

rs .
No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to be answered in the

3.

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OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer ALL the Questions.
There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). For every wrong

4.

n
answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.

a
Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided,

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with a BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.

The 5S
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candidate
7L
(a) Kolkata p
Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b).

ohas to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :

(b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi

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Right Method Wrong Methods

5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above shall be
considered wrong answer.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as9Gwrong
tr-5F7D answer.
1C7B5K7G
7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than the details
required and in the spaces provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet along with
candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand over the original OMR
Response Sheet to the invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair 5S7L
means by any candidate will result in the cancellation of his/her
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candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to
face criminal prosecution.
11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators etc. are strictly
not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
 BREAK-UP OF MARKS

Part Subject Q. No. Marks

1-5, 13-17, 25-29, 37-41, 49-53, 61-65, 73-
Section A - English Language 50
77, 85-89, 97-101, 109-113
A
6-12, 18-24, 30-36, 42-48, 54-60, 66-72,
Section B - Logical Reasoning 70
78-84, 90-96, 102-108, 114-120
Current Affairs and General
B 121-150 30
Knowledge

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tr-5F7D9G1C7B

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 Directions (Q.1-Q.120): Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately
and completely answer the question.

PART – A
Passage (Q.1-Q.12): The Liar Paradox, a classic conundrum in the realm of logical reasoning, has perplexed
philosophers and logicians for centuries. At its core, the paradox arises from a simple self-referential statement:
“This statement is false.” If the statement is true, then it must be false as it claims. Conversely, if it is false, then
it must be true. This self-contradiction challenges our conventional understanding of truth and falsity.
To delve deeper, consider the statement ( L ): “L is false.” If ( L ) is true, then what it asserts must hold, implying
that ( L ) is false. However, if ( L ) is false, then it is not the case that ( L ) is false, which means ( L ) must be

A pictorial depiction of this can be –

c o m
true. This cyclical reasoning creates a paradox, as ( L ) cannot consistently be either true or false. Mind-bending,
ain’t it!!!

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r an
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Various approaches have been proposed to resolve the Liar Paradox. One approach is to reject the principle of
bivalence and adopt a multi-valued logic, where statements can have more than two truth values. Another
tr-5R7Uapproach

To
9P1S7T5S7Lis to refine the concept of truth itself, as seen in Alfred Tarski’s semantic theory of truth, which

distinguishes between object-level and meta-level statements to avoid self-reference.

The paradox also has practical implications in fields such as computer science and artificial intelligence. Self-
referential statements can lead to inconsistencies in formal systems and algorithms, necessitating careful
handling to ensure logical coherence.
In contemporary discussions, the Liar Paradox continues to be a fertile ground for exploring the nature of truth,
language, and logic. It serves as a reminder of the complexities inherent in seemingly simple statements and the
profound challenges they pose to our understanding of logical reasoning.7GMoreover, the paradox invites us to
reconsider the very foundations of our logical frameworks,tr-5F 7D9G1C7B5Kongoing research and debate in both
prompting
philosophical and practical domains. As we grapple with these intricate issues, the Liar Paradox remains a
testament to the enduring complexity and richness of logical inquiry.
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. Select the appropriate option to fill the blank.
Self-referential statements can
5S 7L create __________ in structured frameworks and computational processes,
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
requiring precise management to maintain logical consistency.
(a) integration challenges (b) contradictions
(c) synchronization errors (d) computational inefficiencies
2. The author uses the phrase, "Mind-bending, ain't it!!" in the second paragraph. What is the most likely tone this
indicates?
(a) Technical and precise (b) Sarcastic and mocking
(c) Informal and engaging (d) Formal and reserved

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3. Select the option that is true for both (1) and (2) below:
1. Practical systems must account for self-referential inconsistencies.
2. Philosophical inquiries into truth and logic have real-world implications.
(a) (1) is true but (2) is false.
(b) Both (1) and (2) are true.
(c) (2) is true but (1) cannot be inferred from the text.
(d) (1) is true but (2) cannot be inferred from the text.
4. Select the option that substitutes the underlined word correctly as per context in the given line: “In contemporary
discussions, the Liar Paradox continues to be a fertile ground…”
(a) Quiescent (b) Vapid (c) Profound (d) Fecund
5. Which of the following lines in the last paragraph is an example of personification?
(a) In contemporary discussions, the Liar Paradox continues to be a fertile ground for exploring the nature of
truth, language, and logic.

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(b) It serves as a reminder of the complexities inherent in seemingly simple statements and the profound
challenges they pose to our understanding of logical reasoning.

c
ongoing research and debate in both philosophical and practical domains.

rs .
(c) Moreover, the paradox invites us to reconsider the very foundations of our logical frameworks, prompting

(d) As we grapple with these intricate issues, the Liar Paradox remains a testament to the enduring complexity
and richness of logical inquiry.

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n
SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING
6.
the passage?

p r a
How does the Liar Paradox impact fields such as computer science and artificial intelligence, as inferred from

(a) By promoting the development of more efficient algorithms.

(b) By necessitating robust handling of self-referential statements to avoid inconsistencies.
tr-5R7U(c)

7.
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To
proving that artificial intelligence cannot handle logical reasoning.
(d) By encouraging the exclusive use of multi-valued logic systems.
Which assumption underlies the passage's discussion of potential solutions to the Liar Paradox?
(a) Traditional binary logic is sufficient to handle all forms of logical paradoxes.
(b) The principles of logic as currently understood are inherently flawed.
(c) Modifications to our understanding of truth can help resolve self-referential paradoxes.
(d) All logical systems must eventually be replaced by multi-valued logic systems.
8. In examining the implications of the Liar Paradox for philosophical and 5K logical
7G
frameworks, a scholar conducts
7D9G1C7B
the following thought experiments: tr- 5F

i. Consider a logical system adhering strictly to binary truth values (true or false) to resolve the Liar Paradox.
It turns out that the paradox remains unresolved, illustrating the limitations of binary logic.
ii. Consider a logical system that uses multi-valued logic (beyond true and false) to approach the Liar
Paradox. It turns out that while some contradictions are avoided, new complexities arise that challenge the
application of the system.
iii. Consider applying1S Alfred
5S7LTarski’s semantic theory of truth, which differentiates between language levels to
tr-5R7U9P 7T
handle the Liar Paradox. This approach manages to circumvent the self-referential issue, but raises
questions about its applicability to everyday language and other logical paradoxes.
What, if anything, can be concluded from these thought experiments?
(a) Multi-valued logic systems provide a complete resolution to all logical paradoxes.
(b) Alfred Tarski’s semantic theory of truth is the only effective solution to the Liar Paradox.
(c) Different logical frameworks offer partial solutions to the Liar Paradox, but each has its own limitations.
(d) None of the above conclusions can be drawn.

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9. What is the primary philosophical challenge posed by the Liar Paradox as discussed in the passage?
(a) It questions the effectiveness of multi-valued logic systems.
(b) It exposes the limitations of traditional binary logic systems in handling self-referential statements.
(c) It undermines the basic principles of computational theory in artificial intelligence.
(d) It suggests that all logical statements are inherently contradictory.
10. As per a new logic regime, words are coded in a certain way. Code for LOGIC is O15J9F. What will be the code
for PARADOX?
(a) S1U1G16Z (b) S1U1G15A (c) S4U4H15A (d) S1U1G15Z
11. TRUE: 79622 :: FALSE : ?
(a) 21112195 (b) 212615821 (c) 212615822 (d) 212315822
12. In a certain code REASONING is coded as 3 and APPROACH is coded as 6. Then what will be the code for
STATEMENT?
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 1 (d) 7

c o m
Passage (Q.13-Q.24): A meeting of existential philosophers tends to be the spectacle one might expect: black

rs .
berets whisper in hushed tones about death and anxiety; nervous hands and pursed lips smoke cigarettes in hotel
rooms; throats are cleared to deliver scholarly papers to the chosen few. There are, however, spectacles you will
rarely see: the kind that children leave in their wake.

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This is a gathering of predominately male philosophers, and male philosophers are notoriously bad fathers. Of

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course, there are exceptions, but think of Socrates shooing his family away in his final moments so that he can
have alone time with his philosophical buddies, or, even worse, Jean-Jacques Rousseau writing Emile (1762), a

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tract about raising kids, while abandoning his own. Instead of being bad parents, many of the titans of European
existentialism – Friedrich Nietzsche, Søren Kierkegaard, Jean-Paul Sartre – remained childless.

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We defied the odds: we are both philosophers, existentialists even, and both of us are fathers. How this happened
9P1S7T5S7L
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noble or well-considered: honeymoon babies, unexpected, but welcome, babies – that’s how we

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became fathers. And our tenure as parents has often been a haphazard mess, anything but thoroughly
philosophical. Occasionally over the years, though, we’ve drawn on the wisdom of the fathers of philosophy,
even the childless fathers of existentialism, and in so doing have become marginally better parents.
First, a word about childlessness: it would be easy to chalk up an existentialist’s avoidance of fatherhood to his
guiding ideals of autonomy and freedom. We are, according to Sartre, ‘condemned to be free’, and this strange
life sentence means that we must at every point choose our own path forward. This doesn’t suggest that one can’t
take influence from another but, ultimately, individuals are solely responsible for the choices they make. The
imperative to have children, one that remains widespread, should
tr-5F7D9Gnot
1C7Btherefore
5K7G have the usual traction for an
existentialist. He or she is wholly free in declining to procreate and raise a brood of kids. For an existentialist,
there is no shame in this.
Many philosophers steer clear of child-rearing because of the sheer difficulty of parenting well. ‘Raising children
is an uncertain thing,’ the pre-Socratic philosopher Democritus tells us. ‘Success is reached only after a life of
battle and worry.’ Many philosophers – many people – are not well-equipped for this battle. Some know it, and
opt out. In our culture, it is5Stempting
7L to interpret avoiding parenting as a refusal to be appropriately responsible.
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While there is nothing particularly wrong about this interpretation, it exerts a type of pressure that leads many to
become horrible parents.

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 SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
13. In the passage, the author uses the expression "spectacles you will rarely see: the kind that children leave in their
wake." What does the author mean by this statement?
(a) Events and scenes of disarray and play typical of children, which are uncommon at philosophical
gatherings.
(b) Unusual philosophical theories that are metaphorically described as playful ideas left behind by children.
(c) Rare philosophical discussions that are inspired by the innocence and curiosity of children.
(d) The unlikely occurrence of children attending philosophical meetings, leaving physical traces behind.
14. The word ‘exceptions’ in the line ‘Of course, there are exceptions, but think of Socrates shooing his family
away in his final moments’, refers to:
(a) Instances where philosophers chose to prioritize their scholarly work over family responsibilities.
(b) Occasions when philosophers actively engaged in family life, contrary to the usual neglect.

15. m
(c) Philosophers who did not conform to the typical neglectful behavior towards their families.

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(d) Theoretical discussions that deviate from standard philosophical teachings about family and duty.
What the author is trying to imply is that:

c
rs .
(a) philosophical inclinations necessarily dictate personal life choices, such as the decision to remain childless.
(b) the existential philosophy compels its adherents to reject traditional familial roles to maintain intellectual purity.
(c) there are valid reasons to choose not to have children, particularly when such decisions are grounded in
profound personal or philosophical beliefs.

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(d) philosophers who choose not to have children are often unable to reconcile their intellectual pursuits with

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the demands of parenting.
16.
well-equipped for this battle”?
(a) Simile (b) Synecdoche

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Which of the following literary devices is being used in the line, “Many philosophers – many people – are not

(c) Anaphora (d) Onomatopoeia

17. What does
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5S7L the phrase “condemned to be free” mean in the context of the passage?
(a) It suggests that existential philosophers feel burdened by their responsibilities and obligations to society.

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(b) It indicates a judicial punishment imposed on philosophers for their radical beliefs about autonomy.
(c) It implies that freedom is a choice that existential philosophers embrace with enthusiasm and positive
anticipation.
(d) It expresses the paradox that existentialists must face the burden of making choices independently, without
guidance from traditional norms.
SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING
18. The authors suggest that existential philosophers often opt out of7Dparenting
tr-5F 9G1C7B5K7Gdue to their values of autonomy and
freedom. What assumption is critical to supporting the argument that existentialists' avoidance of parenting is
primarily guided by their philosophical beliefs about freedom and autonomy?
(a) Existentialists prioritize their philosophical principles over societal expectations in all aspects of their lives.
(b) Parenting necessarily restricts one's autonomy and freedom.
(c) All existentialists interpret freedom and autonomy in the same way.
(d) Societal pressures regarding parenting are universally acknowledged and felt among existential
philosophers.
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5S7L

19. The passage implies that being a parent and a philosopher are often seen as incompatible roles. What can be
inferred about the societal expectations of philosophers based on this implication?
(a) Society expects philosophers to remain objective and detached from personal relationships.
(b) Philosophers are generally expected to contribute to academic and intellectual communities rather than to
their families.
(c) The general public holds philosophers to higher moral standards in all aspects of personal life.
(d) Philosophical work is undervalued in societies that emphasize family roles.

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20. The authors state that they "defied the odds" by becoming fathers despite being existential philosophers. Which
conclusion is best supported by this statement?
(a) It is uncommon for existential philosophers to take on the role of parent.
(b) The authors believe their decision to become parents has significantly influenced their philosophical work.
(c) The philosophical community generally disapproves of existential philosophers who choose to become
parents.
(d) Being a parent has led the authors to reject some existentialist principles.
21. Consider the statement from the passage: "For an existentialist, there is no shame in [choosing not to have
children]." Do you agree with the implication that existentialist philosophy provides a moral justification for
choosing not to parent, thereby negating societal pressure? Support your position.
(a) Agree, because existentialism promotes individual choice and autonomy over societal norms.
(b) Disagree, because existentialism inherently values non-conformity, which could include rejecting
traditional family roles.

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(c) Agree, because existentialism discourages any form of personal commitment that restricts freedom.

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(d) Disagree, because existentialist philosophy does not provide specific guidance on personal lifestyle choices
such as parenting.

c
22.

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In the question below, two statements are given followed by conclusions: I, II and III. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and

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decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
Statements:
Some Hotels are Rooms.
Some Rooms are Spectacles.

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Conclusions:
I. Some Rooms are not Spectacles.
II. No Hotels are Spectacles.

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23.
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9P1SSome

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Spectacles are Hotels.

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(a) Either II or III follows
(c) Only I and III follows
(b) Only I follows
(d) Either I or III follows
In the question below, three statements are given followed by conclusions: I, II and III. You have to take the
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions
and decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
Statements:
Some Philosophers are Fathers. tr-5F7D9G1C7B
5K7G
Some Fathers are Childs.
All Fathers are Parents.
Conclusions:
I. No Parents is Philosophers.
II. Some Childs are Parents.
III. Some Philosophers are Parents.
(a) Only II follows
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
5S7L (b) II and either I or III follows
(c) Only II and III follow (d) Either I or III follows
24. In the question below, three statements are given followed by conclusions: I, II and III. You have to take the
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions
and decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
Statements:
Some babies are years.
Some years are queens.
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 No queen is a baby.
Conclusions:
I. All babies are years.
II. Some queens are years.
III. No years are babies
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or III follows (d) None of the conclusions follow
Passage (Q.25-Q.36): What is Business Email Compromise?
Business email compromise (BEC) is an exploit in which an attacker obtains access to a business email account
and imitates the owner’s identity, in order to defraud the company and its employees, customers or partners.
Often, an attacker will create an account with an email address almost identical to one on the corporate network,
relying on the assumed trust between the victim and their email account. BEC is sometimes described as a “man-

m
in-the-email attack.”

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Carried out by transnational criminal organizations that employ lawyers, linguists, hackers, and social engineers,

c
business email compromise can take a variety of forms. In most cases, scammers will focus their efforts on the

.
employees with access to company finances, and attempt to trick them into performing wire transfers to bank

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accounts thought to be trusted, when in reality the money ends up in accounts owned by the criminals.
BEC Exploits

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Although the perpetrators of BEC use a combination of tactics to trick their victims, a common plan involves
the attacker gaining access to a business network utilizing a spear-phishing attack in conjunction with some form

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of malware. If the attacker stays undetected, they can spend time studying all facets of the organization, from
vendors, to billing systems, to the correspondence habits of executives and other employees.

usually5Sto
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At an appropriate time — usually when the employee being impersonated is out of the office — the attacker will
send a bogus email to an employee in the finance department. A request is made for an immediate wire transfer,
any trusted vendor. The targeted employee thinks the money is being sent to the expected account, but
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by the criminal group.

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account numbers have been altered slightly, and the transfer is actually deposited in the account controlled

If the money fraud fails to be spotted in a timely manner, the funds can often be close to impossible to recover,
due to any number of laundering techniques that transfer the funds into other accounts.
Specific Types of BEC
Often, messages sent by perpetrators will follow a number of archetypes. As defined by the FBI, there are 5
major types of BEC scams:
● False Invoice Scheme: Companies with foreign suppliers are often
5K7G targeted with this tactic, wherein
5F7D9G1C7B
attackers pretend to be the suppliers requesting fund tr-transfers for payments to an account owned by
fraudsters.
● CEO Fraud: Attackers pose as the company CEO or any executive and send an email to employees in
finance, requesting them to transfer money to the account they control.
● Account Compromise: An executive or employee’s email account is hacked and used to request invoice
payments to vendors listed in their email contacts. Payments are then sent to fraudulent bank accounts.
● Attorney Impersonation: 5S7L An attacker will impersonate a lawyer or other representative from the law firm
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
responsible for sensitive matters. These types of attack often occur through email or phone, during the end
of the business day where the victims are low level employees without the knowledge or authority to question
the validity of the communication.
● Data Theft: HR and bookkeeping employees will be targeted in order to obtain personal or otherwise
sensitive information about the employees or executives. This data can be very helpful for future attacks.

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 Why Business Email Compromise is Important
Enterprise security is essential, and a compromised email system can seriously damage legitimate business
interests. Safeguarding a company’s finances and privacy will not only empower employees but also ensure
business longevity.
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
25. Select the option that correctly completes the following analogy:
Doctors : cardiologist :: BEC criminals : _____________
(a) Linguist (b) Social engineer (c) Hacker (d) Lawyer
26. Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence: This text is most likely to be published as a __________.
(a) Popular science book (b) University textbook
(c) Corporate security guideline (d) Technical research paper
27.
(a) analyze the financial implications of cyber fraud on global economies.
(b) elucidate the mechanisms and dangers of Business Email Compromise.

c o m
Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence: The purpose of the passage is to _______________.

28.
(c) examine the role of technology in enhancing corporate security measures.
(d) discuss the ethical considerations in the use of email surveillance.
Which of the following statements is correct as per the passage?

rs .
(a) BEC fraud primarily targets individuals rather than organizations.
(b) BEC schemes are executed by teams with diverse expertise.

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(c) The most common type of BEC fraud involves the theft of personal data from executives.
(d) BEC attacks are usually conducted without the aid of digital tools or technology.
29. What we can say is that BEC is __________.
(a) predominantly a technological exploit.
(b) primarily a financial deception.
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30.
9P1S7T5S7L
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largely based on the misuse of organizational trust.
(d) a culmination of multiple scamming techniques.
SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING
What underlying assumption is most critically manipulated by perpetrators of BEC scams to ensure the success
of their fraudulent activities?
(a) Organizations rely exclusively on automated controls for transaction validation.
(b) Implicit trust in the authenticity of communication from recognized authority figures or established
contacts overrides standard verification protocols.
9G1C7B5K7G
(c) Comprehensive awareness and understanding of BEC tacticstr-5F7Dare uniformly integrated across all levels of
corporate employees.
(d) Financial oversight mechanisms are inherently designed to overlook discrepancies in transaction details
beneath a certain monetary threshold.
31. Evaluate the extent to which the integration of malware is indispensable for the orchestration of Business Email
Compromise (BEC) attacks.
(a) Strongly agree,
tr-5R7Uasserting
9P1S7T5S7Lthat malware is the cornerstone for gaining the requisite unauthorized access to
sensitive business communications.
(b) Moderately agree, positing that while not indispensable, malware significantly enhances the efficiency and
scope of network infiltration, thereby augmenting the BEC attack’s probability of success.
(c) Moderately disagree, recognizing that while malware can augment certain aspects of BEC strategies, the
fundamental reliance on social engineering diminishes the necessity of malware for the scam’s success.
(d) Strongly disagree, advocating that the quintessence of BEC scams resides in social manipulation and
identity deception, independent of any technological aids such as malware.

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32. Considering the multi-disciplinary nature of the expertise involved (lawyers, linguists, hackers), and the
meticulous planning evident in BEC schemes, what can be inferred about the organizational structure and
operational scope of the entities orchestrating these attacks?
(a) These entities function as autonomous, niche cells, each specializing in isolated incidents of BEC without
broader collaborative networks.
(b) They likely constitute extensive syndicates with significant logistical and financial backing, capable of
sustained and coordinated global operations.
(c) They are ad hoc conglomerates temporarily assembled for specific heists, disbanding post-operation.
(d) They operate as quasi-official entities, potentially with clandestine support or acquiescence from certain
governmental or quasi-governmental bodies.
33. In the passage, the False Invoice Scheme involves attackers impersonating foreign suppliers and requesting fund
transfers to fraudulent accounts, while CEO Fraud involves attackers posing as company executives to direct
employees to transfer money to their controlled accounts. Which of the following situations most closely
parallels the reasoning found in these descriptions?

o m
(a) A software company regularly updates its system to prevent unauthorized access, but attackers introduce a

c
backdoor through a seemingly benign software update, gaining control over the company’s data.

rs .
(b) An individual receives a call from someone claiming to be from their bank, asking to verify account details
for security purposes, which actually leads to unauthorized access to the individual’s bank account.
(c) A charity organization receives a large donation from an anonymous donor, who later requests a refund to a
different account due to an alleged mistake in the donation amount.

k e
(d) During a routine audit, discrepancies are found indicating that an employee has been embezzling funds by
redirecting payments intended for vendors to a personal account.

an
Directions (Q.34-Q.36): Due to increased Business Email Compromise frauds, XYZ ltd. has created an Email

r
checking system to filter out the spam emails. The email is termed fraud when any of the following conditions
are checked:
i. The
9P1S7T5S7L
tr-5R7Uii.

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email should contain pop ups that contains virus.
The email should not show full name and address of the sender or email address that have not been updated

34.
T
or validated within the last six months.
iii. The email should not display any label that contains non-standard abbreviations or characters.
iv. The email should not contain any attachments that take more space than the pre mentioned space
requirement.
Which of the following email is not fraudulent as per the new checking system?
(a) An email displaying label that did not contain standard abbreviations.
(b) The email contained pop-up adds that contained malware.
(c) An email received from an email ID which was not validated
tr-5F7Dfor
9G1C87B
months.
5K7G
(d) An email having unnecessary files of 1-2GB.
35. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the conditions used in XYZ Ltd.'s new email checking
system?
(a) Condition (i) is concerned with the presence of viruses in pop-ups.
(b) Condition (ii) requires the sender's email address to be validated within the last year.
(c) Condition (iii) 7U
allows for
5S7Llabels with non-standard abbreviations if they are common.
tr-5R 9P1S7T
(d) Condition (iv) specifies that emails with any attachments are considered fraudulent.
36. Can XYZ Ltd.'s email checking system identify phishing emails?
(a) XYZ Ltd.'s email checking system will necessarily identify some (but not all) phishing emails.
(b) XYZ Ltd.'s email checking system may identify only some (but not all) phishing emails.
(c) XYZ Ltd.'s email checking system will not identify any phishing emails.
(d) XYZ Ltd.'s email checking system will identify all phishing emails.

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 Passage (Q.37-Q.48): Healthy oceans and a circular economy
The West Africa Coastal Area Management Programme has initiated studies to assess the environmental and
economic impact of plastic pollution in the region. These studies also aim to explore the benefits of moving to a
circular economy: An economic system that reuses or regenerates materials or products in a sustainable way.
The programme expects that a circular economy will create new economic opportunities through markets for
reusing products and materials. Rather than discarding products, they can be put back into the economy. This
can create demand for services and technologies related to collecting and processing them.
The programme can benefit from research on sustainable plastic management from other regions to achieve its
objectives.
Research partnership
The Centre for Blue Governance has expertise in blue economy, marine ecosystem management, climate change
and circular economy. It has extensively researched plastic pollution in Portsmouth, a port city in the United

These strategies could be relevant for initiatives in west Africa. They include:

c o m
Kingdom, and beyond. We have found that sustainable plastic management can be achieved in various ways.

rs .
Inclusive partnerships: Collaborating with businesses, campaigners and citizens on the Revolution Plastics
initiative, we apply research to develop eco-friendly fabrics and combat microplastic pollution.
Awareness campaigns through art: Community awareness of the harmful effects of plastic pollution is necessary.

about plastic pollution.

k e
Through the Masibambisane project in South Africa, we explored street art, theatre and song to create awareness

n
The project achieved significant results in KwaMhlanga, in South Africa’s Mpumalanga province. It

a
demonstrated that raising awareness through art could inspire people to change their behaviour. These

r
communities now have a deeper understanding of the urgent need to act against plastic pollution.

sustainable
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
p
In addition, the introduction of sorting facilities close to homes increased recycling rates and encouraged

o
5S7L habits. The west African programme can incorporate these lessons into the e-book it is planning. This
is a way to share information about best practices and encourage action in communities.

T
Reuse and recycling projects: Through our inDIGO-EU and Microseap projects we reduced plastic waste by
promoting recycling and reuse. For example, the INdIGO project has developed biodegradable fishing gear that
reduces the environmental impact of ocean fishing in the UK and France. Based on this project, the West Africa
Coastal Area Management Programme can develop a sustainable alternative to the gear used for small-scale
fishing in the region.
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
7D 9G1C7B5K7G
37. Which of the following best describes the tone of the author tr-
in5Fthe passage?
(a) Analytical (b) Optimistic (c) Inquisitive (d) Persuasive
38. Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.
The word ‘healthy’ in the name ‘healthy ocean’ alludes to the ___________.
(a) diverse species and biomes within marine environments.
(b) regulatory measures enforced to limit ocean exploitation.
(c) global initiatives targeting
tr-5R7U9P 1S7T5S7L ocean conservation.
(d) ecological balance and minimal pollution levels.
39. Which of the following is a suitable title for the passage?
(a) Strategies for Economic Expansion in West Africa
(b) Global Art Movements Against Pollution
(c) Transforming Plastic Pollution Management: Towards a Circular Economy in West Africa
(d) Implementing Sustainable Technologies in Developing Regions

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40. Select the appropriate option to fill the blank.
The ‘bio’ in biodegradable points to the fact that the __________ of fishing is ___________.
(a) equipment, recyclable (b) process, sustainable
(c) impact, minimal (d) gear, environmentally decomposable
41. A suitable follow-up question that can be asked to the author is:
(a) How do you evaluate the economic impact of art projects on public awareness?
(b) What specific challenges do you foresee in adapting the circular economy model in West Africa compared
to the regions previously studied?
(c) Could you list all the countries involved in the West Africa Coastal Area Management Programme?
(d) What are the statistical outcomes of plastic recycling in Portsmouth?
SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

m
42. What assumption underlies the programme’s strategy of using art for awareness campaigns about plastic
pollution?

populations.

. o
(a) Art transcends linguistic barriers and can convey complex environmental messages effectively to diverse

c
(b) Engagement with artistic representations will inherently motivate behavioral change regarding plastic use

rs
and disposal.
(c) The impact of art on public consciousness is more sustainable and long-lasting than traditional
informational campaigns.

k e
(d) Art-based campaigns are inherently non-disruptive and will be universally welcomed within community

43.
settings.

an
Conclude the likely impact on local economies if the programme's efforts to promote reusing products and
materials succeed.

r
(b) Job
tr-5R7U(c)

o p
(a) The local economy will initially contract as demand for new products declines.
creation in recycling and reuse sectors will boost the economy.
9P1S7T5S7L
Increased imports of recycling technologies will temporarily raise trade deficits.

44.
T
(d) Traditional businesses will adapt by integrating circular economy practices.
From the programme’s emphasis on research from other regions, what can one infer about the perceived
effectiveness of local research initiatives in West Africa?
(a) Local initiatives are valued but are perceived to be underfunded and less extensive compared to
international efforts.
(b) There is a perceived deficiency in local research capabilities, leading to a reliance on insights from
international studies.
(c) Emphasis on international research indicates a strategic alignment rather
tr-5F7D9G1C7B
5K7G than a commentary on the quality

of local research.
(d) The program’s approach suggests that West Africa has an abundance of well-equipped and capable local
research institutions.
45. Which of the following would most strengthen the argument that establishing sorting facilities close to homes in
West African communities will significantly increase recycling rates?
(a) Data from urban areas5Sin7LEurope show high participation in recycling programs when facilities are located
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
within residential complexes.
(b) Surveys conducted in West Africa indicate that convenience is not a major factor influencing the decision
to recycle; instead, economic incentives are more critical.
(c) Reports from a pilot project in a West African city showed that when sorting facilities were removed from
neighborhoods, there was a notable decrease in recycling activity among residents.
(d) A longitudinal study in West Africa demonstrated that communities with sorting facilities within walking
distance had a 40% higher rate of recycling compared to those without such facilities.

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 Directions (Q.46-Q.48): Each of the following questions consists of three statements followed by four
conclusions. Consider the statements to be true even if they vary with the commonly known facts and find out
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) the given statements and choose the appropriate alternative from
the given choices.
46. Statements:
Many economies are managements.
No economy is United Kingdom.
All managements are art.
Conclusions:
I. Some economies are art.
II. Some United Kingdoms are not art.
III. Some managements are United Kingdoms.
IV. Some United Kingdoms are managements.

47.
(a) Only I follows
Statements:
(b) Only II follows (c) Only III follows

m
(d) Only IV follows

c o
No Africa is a Plastic.
No Plastic is an equipment No equipment is a Pollution.
Conclusions:

rs .
e
I. Some Africa are Pollution.
II. No Pollution is Africa.
III. Some Pollution are Plastics.
IV. Some equipments are Africa.
(a) Only II follows

an
(b) Either I or II follows k
48.
(c) I and II follow
Statements:

p r
(d) II and III follow

All communities
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
5S7L
No France is a campaign.

Conclusions:
T
No France is a coastal area.
o
are France.

I. No coastal area is a community.

II. No campaign is a coastal area.
III. Some campaigns are not communities.
IV. Some communities are not coastal areas.
(a) II or III follows (b) I, II and III follow
(c) I, II and IV follow (d) I, III and tr-
IV5Ffollow
7D9G1C7B5K
7G

Passage (Q.49-Q.60): Prime issues in inheritance and succession

In a society in which inheritance exists, two issues are of prime importance for the distribution of wealth and for
the social and political structure of the society: (1) the issue of the extent to which owners of property shall have
the power by their own decision to determine the course of inheritance and (2) the issue of whether or not estates
shall be allowed or even required to pass undivided to one single heir.
5S7L
Freedom of testation
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
The power of an owner of property to determine who is to have it upon his death is thought to stimulate economic
activity: it is also considered desirable that a property owner be allowed to modify the rigid rules of the intestacy
laws so as to adapt them to the particular situation of his family by preferring, for instance, a disabled child over
one of proven capacity. The freedom to disinherit a child may be used to induce filial obedience, but freedom of
testation also implies the freedom of making provision for charity. The possibility of abuse for ends of spite,
arbitrariness, or whimsy is the price society has to pay for such power. Freedom of testation developed slowly,
and nowhere does it exist without limitations. The questions of what the limits shall be, especially to what extent

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 an owner of property shall be free to disinherit close members of his family and to what extent he shall have the
power to tie up property from beyond the grave, have been answered in widely diverse ways.
Historical development
In an archaic society in which property is owned by the kinship or neighbourhood group rather than by
individuals, freedom of testation cannot exist. Transition from group to individual ownership has rarely if ever
occurred in one single step. As to land, even when its use was regarded as rightfully belonging to an individual,
its free alienation by sale or gift, and even more so by will, was for long periods hedged in by superior rights of
the kinship group, the village, or the feudal lord. Transition to free alienation has often been achieved by means
of subterfuge, such as the adoption of the “purchaser” or “devisee” as a son, or, once free alienation had become
possible inter vivos (between living persons) but not yet upon death, by fictitious sale or gift to a middleman
who would promise to let the grantor keep the property as long as he should live and upon his death to deal with
it as directed by the grantor. Such use of adoption occurred in ancient Babylonia, China, Japan, India, and other
societies of an archaic patriarchic order.

49.
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Select the option that can be the most suitable introductory line to this text.

c o m
critical socioeconomic questions.

rs .
(a) In societies transitioning from collective to individual ownership, the personal distribution of assets raises

(b) The right of property owners to control posthumous asset distribution poses significant philosophical and
practical dilemmas.

k e
(c) Historical shifts in property ownership reflect a broader narrative of legal and economic evolution.
(d) The evolution of inheritance rights, from communal to individual-centric, marks a pivotal shift in societal

50.
structures.

r an
Select the option that correctly identifies the type of situation expressed in the line: "As to land, even when its

p
use was regarded as rightfully belonging to an individual,"
(a) Interrogation (b) Consequence (c) Condition (d) Reason
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
51.
meaning.
5S7L

To
Select the option that substitutes the underlined words/phrases in the given sentence without changing its

“In an (1)archaic society in which property is owned by the kinship or neighbourhood group rather than by
individuals, freedom of testation (2)cannot exist.”
(a) (1)primitive (2) is not feasible (b) (1)antiquated (2) is not possible
(c) (1)traditional (2) is unattainable (d) (1)ancient (2) is inconceivable
52. The likely source of this text is:
(a) A scholarly article on legal anthropology or comparative law.
7B5K7G
(b) A popular magazine feature on historical property rights.tr-5F7D9G1C
(c) An introductory textbook on social history.
(d) A legal practitioner's guide to estate planning.
53. The evolution of testamentary freedom was gradual, and it is universally ___________________ by various
impediments
(a) checked (b) proliferated (c) embroidered (d) alleviated
5S 7L
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING
54. The passage posits that the liberty to disinherit serves as a mechanism to foster filial obedience. Which of the
following propositions, if substantiated, would most critically undermine this presupposition?
(a) Numerous societies where testamentary freedom is prevalent exhibit a pervasive pattern of familial strife.
(b) Empirical research indicates that monetary incentives wield minimal influence over interpersonal familial
dynamics.
(c) Jurisdictions that curtail the capacity to disinherit often report enhanced familial cohesion.
(d) Inheritance modalities have undergone profound transformations since their historical antecedents.
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55. Which of the following scenarios is/are possible?
(a) In a society with high testamentary freedom, a significant increase in economic growth is observed despite
the presence of rigid social structures that limit individual financial autonomy.
(b) A society enforces strict inheritance laws that mandate equal distribution among all descendants, yet it
reports higher rates of familial disputes compared to societies with more flexible testamentary norms.
(c) A community allows complete freedom of testation but observes a decline in charitable contributions, as
property owners increasingly choose to pass their estates undivided to single heirs, focusing on
consolidating family wealth.
(d) In a society that has recently shifted from communal to individual property rights, individuals show a
preference for leaving their estates to the state rather than to family members, in an effort to strengthen
state resources.
56. Which of the following statements represents a fallacy based on the discussion of testamentary freedom and
inheritance practices as outlined in the passage?

m
(a) Societies that allow property owners complete testamentary freedom will naturally evolve into more

o
economically prosperous communities because individuals are motivated by the ability to control their
posthumous property distribution.

c
undervalues individual rights and overvalues collective stability.

rs .
(b) If a society restricts an individual's right to disinherit family members, it must be because the society

(c) The gradual shift from communal to individual property rights historically included mechanisms like

freedom to manage their property.

k e
adoption or fictitious sales to circumvent restrictions, indicating that individuals inherently desire the

(d) Since freedom of testation is considered desirable to adapt intestacy laws to individual family situations, all

57.

r n
societies should eventually adopt unlimited testamentary freedom to ensure the optimal distribution of estates.

a
Drawing from the historical context provided about the transition from group to individual ownership in the

p
passage, what can be most accurately inferred about the broader societal implications of this shift in legal and
cultural norms regarding property rights?
tr-5R7U(a) 7T5S7L
9P1SSocieties

To
that have transitioned from communal to individual ownership norms likely developed more
complex legal systems to manage and regulate the newfound individual property rights, facilitating
economic diversification and individual wealth accumulation.
(b) The transition from communal to individual property rights primarily aimed at dismantling traditional
kinship bonds, as individual property rights often erode communal ties and responsibilities.
(c) Societies moving from group ownership to individual ownership saw a decrease in property disputes
because individual ownership clarifies legal boundaries and ownership responsibilities.
(d) The shift from communal to individual property rights was universally welcomed across all strata of
society, as it aligned with the natural human inclination towards individualism and personal ownership.
5K7G
tr-5F7D9G1C7B
Directions (Q.58-Q.60): In a certain code
'produce become turn late' is coded as 'naeq xpbz ujlp ymho'
'late become fire possible' is coded as 'xpbz ixxt mjwv naeq'
'possible turn since anything' is coded as 'ymho mjwv whrj ydun'
'produce anything there all' is coded as 'ujlp ydun ylot evtx'
58. "ydun ymho naeq" could7Tbe a code for which of the following?
7U9P1S 5S7L
(a) become sincetr-5Rall (b) anything turn late
(c) turn late all (d) since anything produce
59. What does the code 'whrj' stand for?
(a) produce (b) turn (c) since (d) possible
60. "ydun mjwv xliq" could be a code for which of the following?
(a) possible better anything (b) possible late anything
(c) all possible anything (d) turn possible anything

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 Passage (Q.61-Q.72): If you spend much time around sports, you will have experienced the vice of pride, or
superbia. It is an inordinate desire for one’s own excellence, or an inflated sense of self. Likely, you have
experienced pride so much in sports that you fail to notice it anymore. Sport, in broad strokes, has a culture of
bragging and self-aggrandisement, which is sometimes called ‘marketing’. Other times, pride hides in plain sight
as ‘self-belief’. It sometimes seems that sporting social media is a bunch of people shouting their achievements
past each other, bragging in direct or subtle ways. Admittedly, this is probably part of what we enjoy about sports
– the self-congratulatory brazenness of it all. It is entertaining.
Pride’s entertainment value is ordered toward the external goods of sport – fame and marketability. It is an asset
of sports for that reason. But pride is also performance-relevant, or ordered to internal goods of a competition. It
can help us win – not in every case, but in many. Pride commits two errors. The first is an epistemic (knowledge)
error. The proud sportsperson perceives themself to be more capable than they actually are. The second error is
an error of valuing. The proud sportsperson believes themself to be superior to others and prioritises themself
accordingly.

o m
Pride’s epistemic error is unlikely to enhance performance. Imagine the runner who perceives her abilities as far
greater than they are. She may start a race at a pace commensurate with her projections, then crash and burn. The

c
rs .
proud footballer may put himself in a situation above his abilities and lose possession of the ball as a result. To
succeed in sports, we need high levels of ability, but we also need to perceive our limits accurately.
However, pride’s error of valuing is likely to enhance performance. The sportsperson who over-values themself

k e
is inclined to inordinately strive for greatness and to be engaged in the activity of reputation protection. And
pride’s greatest secret is that it is always under threat. It needs to prove that it is the best. This provides ample
motivation to dig deep and fight for glory.

an
Pride can be present at the level of the group, with certain teams trash-talking or wishing ill of opposing teams.

r
In individual sports, like swimming and singles tennis, solo players lack these intramural tensions. Still, they

p
may be motivated to outperform competitors, deeming themselves superior. Pride can motivate performances in
every case, but how pride appears will vary across situations.
tr-5R7U9P1S7T

61.
5S7L

To SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

From the passage provided, identify the statements that are factual (F) and those that are opinions (O).
i. Pride is both an asset and a liability in sports, enhancing performance in some cases while undermining it
in others.
ii. Athletes often don’t realize their own pride or its impact on their performance.
iii. The sports industry often overlooks the negative aspects of pride due to its marketability.
iv. Pride commits two errors: an epistemic error and an error of valuing.
(a) F- (iii) & (iv); O- (i) & (ii) (b) F- (i), (ii) & (iii); O- (iv)
9G1C7B5K7G
(c) F- (ii) & (iii); O- (i) & (iv) (d) F- (iv); O-tr-5F
(i),
7D(ii) & (iii)
62. Based on the content discussed in the passage, select the idiomatic expression that most appropriately addresses
the themes or implications of the text.
(a) The ball is in their court (b) Pulling the wool over their eyes
(c) A double-edged sword (d) Biting the hand that feeds
63. Considering the content and structure of the provided passage, under which category does the text best fit?
5S7L
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
(a) Analytical (b) Expository (c) Descriptive (d) Inspirational
64. In the context of the passage, what does the author mean by the term "epistemic" in the phrase "epistemic error"?
(a) Related to ethical judgments
(b) Concerned with emotional understanding
(c) Pertaining to knowledge or the understanding of information
(d) Involving practical skill errors

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65. Which of the following is being implied by the author in the passage?
(a) Athletes should be trained to suppress their pride in order to improve their performance.
(b) The cultural norms of sports inherently discourage expressions of pride among athletes.
(c) Athletes may lack self-awareness regarding how their pride affects their competitive behavior.
(d) Pride is universally detrimental to athletic performance across all sports.
SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING
66. Considering the distinction between individual and team sports as depicted in the passage, what might be inferred
about the manifestation of pride in individual sports compared to its expression in team sports?
(a) Pride in individual sports is primarily concentrated on surpassing personal achievements and direct rivals,
unlike in team sports where it also involves group dynamics and mutual motivations.
(b) The prevalence of pride is significantly lower in individual sports due to the absence of direct team
interaction and collective goals.

and do not engage in overt competitive behaviors like trash-talking.

m
(c) Individual sports suffer less from the negative consequences of pride since athletes operate independently

o
(d) Individual athletes experience less competitive pressure due to a reduced emphasis on pride-driven

c
67.
performance compared to team sports.

rs .
What underlying assumption about the competitive framework in sports does the passage inherently rely upon?
(a) Athletes inherently view competition as a zero-sum game, where one's gain is necessarily another's loss,

k e
thereby fostering an environment where pride can flourish and dominate interpersonal dynamics.
(b) The nature of competition in sports is predominantly influenced by external perceptions such as media and
public opinion, which shape athletes' prideful behaviors and self-assessment.

n
(c) Competitive success in sports is primarily defined by personal and team achievements that surpass

a
previous historical benchmarks, thus aligning with an intrinsic motivation that is separate from pride.

r
(d) Competition in sports inherently involves a dynamic comparison between an athlete's self-perception and

tr-5R7UGiven
68.
5S7L
p
their actual performance, which can be skewed by prideful self-assessment.

o
9P1S7T the discussion of pride in the context of sports, which of the following statements would the author most

T
likely agree with concerning the interplay between pride and performance?
(a) Pride, when properly channeled, serves primarily as a protective mechanism that shields athletes from the
potential psychological impacts of underperformance, thereby indirectly contributing to their resilience in
competitive scenarios.
(b) The inherent self-aggrandizement common in sports culture is a necessary trait for athletes, as it enhances
their marketability and visibility, which are as crucial as actual performance in the modern sporting arena.
(c) Pride’s role in enhancing sports performance is largely overestimated, as it more frequently leads athletes
to make strategic errors due to a distorted self-perception of their abilities and competitive standing.
9G1C7B5K7G
(d) Pride’s dual role as both a motivational force and a potential
tr-5F7Dsource of cognitive distortion necessitates a
nuanced approach to coaching, where athletes are encouraged to balance self-confidence with realistic self-
awareness.
69. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument that pride’s error of valuing, despite its
potential drawbacks, significantly contributes to enhanced athletic performance in sports?
(a) Research has shown that athletes who exhibit higher levels of pride consistently report greater personal
satisfactiontr-and
5R7Umental
9P1S7T5Shealth
7L benefits, which correlate strongly with prolonged athletic careers.
(b) Studies indicate that athletes with a heightened sense of pride demonstrate increased adrenaline and
cortisol levels during competition, which can improve focus and physical performance under pressure.
(c) A meta-analysis of team sports outcomes revealed that teams expressing collective pride before major
matches had significantly higher win rates compared to those that emphasized humility and teamwork in
their pre-game discussions.
(d) Longitudinal data from competitive sports leagues shows that athletes who score highly on pride-related
psychological assessments tend to outperform their less prideful counterparts, especially in high-stakes
scenarios.
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 Directions (Q.70-Q.72): In each of the given questions, one statement has been given followed by two
conclusions. Find which of the given conclusions is true.
70. Statements:
P < R ≥ I = C; L > E ≥ R
Conclusions:
I. E > C
II. C = E
(a) If only conclusion I is true. (b) If only conclusion II is true.
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
71. Statements:
B ≤ C = D > E; F > C
Conclusions:
I. F ≥ B
II. C ≥ E
(a) If only conclusion I is true.

o m
(b) If only conclusion II is true.

c
72.
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true.
Statements:
J = K ≥ L ≤ M; K < S; J > T

rs .
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Conclusions:
I. L < S
II. M > T
k e
(a) If only conclusion I is true.
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true.

r an (b) If only conclusion II is true.

(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

p
Passage (Q.73-Q.84): The bitcoin whitepaper was published in 2008, at a moment when trust in the state and
the mainstream financial system was at an all-time low. It promised a different kind of money, as so many
9P1S7T5S7L
tr-5R7Uordinary

were.
To
people lost their trust in the global financial system along with their homes. Suddenly it had an appeal
beyond these niche communities, with people who had never heard of Thiel and didn’t care what his politics

In the early 2010s, bitcoin was predominantly bought and owned by affluent white men in tech and investment
circles. But, by 2021, advocates were shilling the token as a pathway to generational wealth for Black Americans.
Historically, Black Americans have struggled to build intergenerational wealth. Centuries of economic practices,
from slavery to redlining, made it almost impossible to hold property, to own homes, or to build and transfer
wealth from generation to generation. To this day, Black Americans still have the lowest rate of home ownership
of any racial group in the United States. These rates have only declined 5K
tr-5F7D9G1C7B
since
7G the financial crash, falling as low
in 2019 as they were in the early 1960s, when race-based financial discrimination was still legal.
In the absence of a clear pathway to the good life, crypto was framed as a way out of financial distress. Phrases
like ‘financial inclusion’ and ‘economic empowerment’ were parried by unofficial Black ambassadors, among
them JayZ and Mike Tyson. The phrase ‘bitcoin investor’ might still conjure someone from a Brett Easton Ellis
novel: white, monied, functionally sociopathic, but the accounts told a different story; by 2021, Black Americans
were more likely to hold cryptocurrency
5S7L
than white investors were. Young people, Black folk, the poor and the
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
indebted were all scrambling into the latest scheme, in the hope of winning a secure future. Buying in at the
height of the market, most were left holding the bag. Crypto did not level the playing field. It exposed the
vulnerable to fraud and scams. It offset risk on to the poorest in society, all while paying lip service to a dream.
No shots. No leagues. And ‘we’ didn’t all get to make it.

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 SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
73. In the passage, the phrase "all while paying lip service to a dream" is employed to criticize which group or
entity's superficial support of an idealistic but unattainable vision?
(a) Affluent early adopters of Bitcoin
(b) Proponents of cryptocurrency as a vehicle for generational wealth
(c) Regulatory bodies overseeing financial markets
(d) Black American communities striving for economic empowerment
74. In the context of the passage, the term "whitepaper" used in reference to Bitcoin, is best described as which of
the following?
(a) A governmental policy document outlining the legal framework for digital currencies.
(b) A scholarly article providing peer-reviewed research on the cryptographic algorithms used in Bitcoin.
(c) An official report summarizing the economic impacts of cryptocurrencies on global financial systems.

75.
m
(d) An authoritative report that presents the principles and philosophy underlying a new project or technology.

o
The author employs single quotation marks around the word 'we' in the sentence "And ‘we’ didn’t all get to make
it." What is the purpose of this punctuation in the given context?

c
rs .
(a) To indicate skepticism or irony about the inclusivity of the group referred to as 'we'.
(b) To emphasize the unity and collective identity of those who invested in cryptocurrency.
(c) To denote a direct quotation from a source advocating for cryptocurrency investment.

cryptocurrency.

k e
(d) To highlight the specific group of individuals who managed to achieve financial success through

76.
accumulating wealth:

r
i. Historical economic practices such as slavery.
an
Select the option that displays the reasons cited by the author to argue that Black Americans have struggled in

p
ii. Decreased rates of home ownership since the financial crash.
iii. Difficulty in owning homes due to systemic financial discrimination.
tr-5R7Uiv.

77.
7T5S7L
9P1SHigh

(a) i, ii, and iv o

participation rates in cryptocurrency investments.

T
v. Lack of educational opportunities in financial literacy.
(b) ii and v (c) Only iii (d) i and iii
Which of the following best describes the author's attitude towards cryptocurrency as conveyed in the passage?
(a) Guardedly optimistic (b) Critical and skeptical
(c) Indifferent (d) Supportive
SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING
78. Based on the narrative regarding Bitcoin and its impact on different
tr-5F7D9G1Ccommunities,
7B5K7G which of the following best
represents the implications of cryptocurrency adoption for historically marginalized groups, according to the
text?
(a) Cryptocurrency, represented by Bitcoin, successfully democratized financial access for historically
marginalized groups, notably improving their economic conditions.
(b) The push towards cryptocurrency like Bitcoin provided only a temporary illusion of financial inclusion,
ultimately exposing marginalized communities to greater financial risks without substantial gains.
(c) The adoptiontr-5Rof
7UBitcoin among historically marginalized communities led to an overall increase in the rate
9P1S7T5S7L
of home ownership within these groups.
(d) Bitcoin's rise in popularity within historically marginalized groups is primarily due to the substantial and
consistent financial returns it provided to early investors from these communities.

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79. Assuming the role of unofficial Black ambassadors like Jay-Z and Mike Tyson continues to influence the
perception of cryptocurrency, what might be a potential long-term effect on the cryptocurrency market according
to the themes discussed in the text?
(a) Their endorsement will stabilize the cryptocurrency market, making it a less volatile investment option.
(b) The influence of these ambassadors will significantly increase the overall wealth within Black
communities by promoting sound investment strategies.
(c) Celebrity endorsements may attract more participants from diverse backgrounds to the market, but could
also perpetuate cycles of speculative investments and financial loss.
(d) These endorsements will shift the primary cryptocurrency investors from tech-savvy individuals to
mainstream audiences, completely changing the market dynamics.
80. Which of the following statements most directly undermines the author's skepticism about the effectiveness of
cryptocurrency as a tool for financial empowerment in historically marginalized communities?
(a) Many individuals who invested in cryptocurrency at the height of its market value ultimately experienced
significant financial losses, reinforcing the cycle of economic vulnerability.

o m
(b) Regulatory bodies have struggled to keep pace with the rapid evolution of cryptocurrency, often leaving
investors without a safety net in cases of fraud or market collapse.

c
returns and financial security to early adopters from all backgrounds.

rs .
(c) Cryptocurrency has consistently outperformed traditional investment avenues, offering unprecedented

(d) The lack of traditional banking services in certain communities has made cryptocurrencies an appealing

81.
alternative, despite the associated risks.

k e
Which of the following statements does not correctly express the similarity between the early Bitcoin investor

n
demographic and the newer, more diverse group of investors as described in the text?

a
(a) Both early and newer Bitcoin investors viewed cryptocurrency as a potentially lucrative investment,

r
contributing to its popularity and speculative nature.

p
(b) Initial and later Bitcoin investors alike faced the inherent risks of cryptocurrency, such as market volatility
and potential for significant financial losses.
tr-5R7U(c) 7T5S7L
9P1SBoth

To
demographic groups were primarily driven by a distrust in traditional financial institutions and
systems, seeking alternative investment opportunities.
(d) Early and newer investors in Bitcoin shared similar levels of financial literacy and understanding of the
cryptocurrency market.
Directions (Q.82-Q.84): Each of these questions consists of some statements followed by two conclusions
marked I and II. Consider the given statements to be true, even though they seem to be at variance with the
commonly known facts, and then find out which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements,
disregarding the commonly known facts.
tr-5F7D9G1C 7B5K7G
82. Statements:
Some Bitcoins are cryptocurrencies.
Some cryptocurrencies are published.
No Publish is American.
Conclusions:
I. No Bitcoin is Published.
II. All Americans being7TBitcoin
5S7L
is a possibility.
tr-5R7U9P1S
(a) if only conclusion I follows. (b) if only conclusion II follows.
(c) if either conclusion I or II follows. (d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
83. Statements:
Some Bitcoin are cryptocurrencies.
Some Cryptocurrencies are published.
No published is an American.
Conclusions:
I. At least some Americans are cryptocurrencies.
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 II. Some cryptocurrencies not being Bitcoin is not a possibility.
(a) if only conclusion I follows. (b) if only conclusion II follows.
(c) if either conclusion I or II follows. (d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
84. Statements:
Some wealth are not finances.
No finance is a legal.
All discriminations are wealth.
Conclusions:
I. Some wealth is not legal.
II. All finances being wealth is a possibility.
(a) if only conclusion I follows. (b) if only conclusion II follows.
(c) if either conclusion I or II follows. (d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

m
Passage (Q.85-Q.96): I’ve emerged with an amalgam of values that’s both timeless and generationally distinct,

o
and my case is by no means unique. Young people still use their elders’ values as a launching point, much as
they have since antiquity. But as they grow into adulthood, Taylor says, ‘they are taking those values to new and

c
different places.’

rs .
The political scientist Amanda Friesen of Western University in Ontario, Canada has studied this phenomenon
across recent generations. She surveyed college students born in the 1990s and their parents and grandparents,

k e
asking them how they prioritised the values of caring, fairness, loyalty, obeying authority, and sanctity (keeping
things ‘pure’ or unblemished – for example, following religious doctrines without changing or diluting them).

n
Friesen picked out some substantive generational differences: for the most part, older generations valued

a
authority and sanctity more highly than their younger counterparts. This finding accords with those of researchers

r
like Inglehart, showing an incremental yet meaningful shift in values through the years. Just as striking, however,

p
were the similarities Friesen found. From one generation to the next, participants endorsed values of fairness and
caring – just as my parents did with me, and as I’m trying to do with my own sons. ‘There is this through-line,’
9P1S7T5S
tr-5R7UTaylor
7L

To
says. ‘Every individual life is important and should be respected. You recognise that we’re all different,
you celebrate that, and you try to build a society that accommodates that.’ Each generation, however, interprets
such bedrock values in its own way, based on the unique climate – cultural, social and economic – in which it
comes of age. Today’s younger cohorts, reared on fairness and harm-prevention, have come to embrace gay
rights and trans rights that a larger share of their parents’ generation rejected.
The ideological differences between generations are real: in a 2015 Pew survey, 73 per cent of US millennials
said they supported same-sex marriage, compared with just 45 per cent of their parents. But the values through-
line is just as real. Upcoming generations, following their elders’ example, are supporting what they see as the
most loving and equitable way forward, even as they advancetr-new ideas
5F7D9G about
1C7B5K 7G what that caring and justice ought
to look like. It’s an echo of what happened a generation before, when postwar cohorts in the US, Europe and
Australia started fighting for baseline civil rights in historically large numbers.

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

85. What is the “through-line” that Taylor is talking about?
(a) An unbroken tradition that demands strict adherence to the values upheld by preceding generations without
5S7L
alteration. tr-5R7U9P1S7T
(b) A consistent thread in the evolution of values that emphasizes the importance of respecting individual
differences while fostering a collective societal ethos.
(c) The gradual but inevitable progression towards more liberal societal norms, propelled by the younger
generation's rejection of outdated moral codes.
(d) The sequence of value transmission where each generation inherits only the most crucial ethical standards
from its predecessors, ensuring societal stability.

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86. From the given part of the passage make a very difficult VARC question for CAT with 4 options based on "The
author uses a number of phrases and idioms. Identify them from the following -
i. Launching point
ii. Comes of age
iii. Fighting for baseline civil rights
iv. bedrock values
(a) i, ii (b) i, iii, iv (c) i, ii, iii (d) ii, iii, iv
87. What is the author attempting to convey with the use of the word "echo" in the concluding line of the passage?
(a) The repetition of historical mistakes across generations due to the failure to learn from past experiences.
(b) The recurring patterns of value evolution across generations, reflecting past movements in contemporary
actions.
(c) The persistent sound of older generations' teachings that continue to resonate in the practices of the younger
generation.

beliefs.

c o m
(d) The diminishing impact of values over time as newer generations gradually move away from traditional

88.
passage?

rs .
Which of the following aspects of intergenerational differences/similarities has the author NOT discussed in the

(a) The generational shift towards valuing fairness and caring over authority and sanctity.

e
(b) The consistent endorsement of values like fairness and caring from one generation to the next.
(c) The interpretation of traditional values in new ways due to the unique societal contexts of each generation.

89.
k
(d) The economic impact of shifting values on intergenerational wealth and employment opportunities.

n
What is the motive of the author in enclosing the explanation "keeping things ‘pure’ or unblemished – for

a
example, following religious doctrines without changing or diluting them" within brackets in the second
paragraph?

p r
(a) To underscore the antiquated nature of the values of sanctity and authority which are no longer relevant to
modern
tr-5R7U9P1S7T

To
5S7L societal frameworks.
(b) To provide a brief digression that offers additional insight into how generational values have evolved over
time in religious contexts.
(c) To clarify the meaning of 'sanctity' by providing a concrete example, ensuring readers understand its
application in the context of value systems.
(d) To emphasize the resistance against modern values by older generations, highlighting their preference for
traditional and unaltered practices.
SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING
90. Based on the passage, consider the following scenario: A contemporary
tr-5F7D9G1C7B
debate
5K 7G arises over a new policy aimed
at enhancing trans rights. Various groups from different generations present their views. Which group's reaction
is most consistent with the generational values trends described by Amanda Friesen and the Pew survey findings?
(a) Millennials largely support the policy, citing a shift towards fairness and harm-prevention as core reasons.
(b) Baby Boomers support the policy more strongly than Millennials, emphasizing the importance of sanctity
and authority.
(c) Generation X opposes the policy, primarily on the grounds that it conflicts with traditional values of loyalty
and sanctity.
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
5S7L
(d) The Silent Generation leads the support for the policy, arguing it aligns with their historical advocacy for
change and fairness.

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91. In the passage, Taylor discusses the way each generation adapts and interprets core values based on their unique
socio-economic and cultural conditions. Considering this perspective, which scenario best exemplifies how
today’s young adults might interpret the value of fairness in a rapidly changing technological environment?
(a) Young adults lobby for traditional methods of teaching in schools, emphasizing the value of authority in
educational settings.
(b) Young adults advocate for stricter regulations on artificial intelligence to ensure equitable access and prevent
algorithmic bias.
(c) Young adults reject online learning platforms, viewing them as impersonal and inconsistent with the value
of caring.
(d) Young adults campaign for increased governmental surveillance online, valuing the sanctity of national
security over personal privacy.
92. In the passage, it is suggested that despite generational differences in the prioritization of values like authority
and sanctity, core values like fairness and caring remain important across generations. Which scenario would

m
most weaken the claim that fairness and caring are consistently valued across different generations?

o
(a) A survey reveals that a significant portion of Generation Z individuals prioritize innovation and individual
freedom over traditional societal values like fairness and caring.

c
rs .
(b) Historical analysis shows that Baby Boomers were the first to introduce the concepts of fairness and caring
as societal values, and these values have been declining in importance with each subsequent generation.
(c) Research indicates that while the Silent Generation and Baby Boomers highly valued fairness, Millennials
and Generation Z show a stronger inclination towards loyalty and sanctity.

k e
(d) Studies show that economic downturns lead to an increased emphasis on authority and obedience across all
generations, overshadowing values like fairness and caring temporarily.
93.
generational interpretation of core values?

r an
If the information in the passage above is correct, which of the following must necessarily be true regarding the

p
(a) Each generation completely abandons the values of the previous generation in favor of entirely new values.
(b) Older generations universally reject the values of fairness and caring in favor of authority and sanctity.
tr-5R7U(c)

94.
7T5S7L
9P1SWhile

To
core values like fairness and caring are consistently endorsed, each generation interprets and applies
these values differently based on their unique socio-economic and cultural context.
(d) Younger generations always oppose the values held by older generations, leading to constant conflict and
lack of continuity in societal values.
Taylor introduces Sam as the son of the only brother of her father’s wife. How is Taylor related to Sam?
(a) Cousin (b) Brother (c) Son (d) Uncle
95. J is the daughter of I; H is the brother of I; G is the sister of H; K is the brother of J. How is H related to K?
(a) Mother (b) Father (c) Aunt (d) Uncle
5K7G
tr-5F7D9G1C7B
96. Pointing towards a girl, a boy said ”she is the daughter of the only son of the mother of my aunt. How boy is
related to the girl ?
(a) Brother (b) Nephew (c) Uncle (d) Son in law
Passage (Q.97-Q.108): Once upon a time, it was not just that philosophy was a part of science; rather, science
was a branch of philosophy. We need to remember that modern science began as natural philosophy – a
development of philosophy, 5S7L
an admixture of philosophy and science. Today, we think of Galileo, Johannes
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
Kepler, William Harvey, Robert Boyle, Christiaan Huygens, Robert Hooke, Edmond Halley and, of course, Isaac
Newton as trailblazing scientists, while we think of Francis Bacon, René Descartes, Thomas Hobbes, John
Locke, Baruch Spinoza and Gottfried Leibniz as philosophers. That division is, however, something we impose
on the past. It is profoundly anachronistic.
At the time, they would all have thought of themselves as natural philosophers. All were prepared to think about
fundamental problems of metaphysics and philosophy in addition to tackling more specialised problems of
physics, astronomy, chemistry, physiology, mathematics, mechanics and technology. Philosophy as imaginative
and critical thinking about fundamental problems was alive and well – and highly creative and productive. Both
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 Kepler and Galileo made careful observations and performed experiments, as good scientists should; but they
also adopted a metaphysical view of nature that held that ‘the book of nature is written in the language of
mathematics’ as Galileo put it. They both adopted the view, in sharp contrast to the orthodox Aristotelian
metaphysics of the times, that simple mathematical laws govern the way that natural phenomena occur, and this
metaphysical view played a crucial role in the discovery and acceptance of their great scientific discoveries
concerning the motions of the planets (Kepler), and the motion of terrestrial objects (Galileo). Descartes,
Huygens, Boyle, Newton and others adopted diverse versions of the then metaphysical view that the Universe is
made up of atoms.
But then science broke away from metaphysics, from philosophy, as a result of natural philosophers adopting a
profound misconception about the nature of science. As a result, natural philosophy died, the great divide
between science and philosophy was born, and the decline of philosophy began.
It was Newton who inadvertently killed off natural philosophy with his claim, in the third edition of his Principia,
to have derived his law of gravitation from the phenomena by induction.

o m
Paradoxically, the first edition of Newton’s Principia (1687) was quite explicitly a great work of natural

c
philosophy. There are, in the first edition, nine propositions all clearly labelled as ‘hypotheses’, some quite

rs .
clearly of a metaphysical character. By the third edition (1726), the first two of these hypotheses had become the
first two ‘Rules of Reasoning’, and the last five hypotheses, which concern the solar system, had become the
‘Phenomena’ of later editions. One hypothesis disappears altogether, and one other, not required for the main

inductive in character.

k e
argument, was tucked away among theorems. In the third edition there are two further ‘rules of reasoning’, both

97.
n
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

a
In the context of the passage, the author opts for the term "admixture" instead of "mixture" when discussing the

r
early relationship between science and philosophy. What could be the most likely reason for this choice of
wording?
(a) To5Simply
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
7L

o p
a transient and evolving nature of the early relationship between science and philosophy.
(b) To suggest a careful and deliberate combination with transformative properties that significantly shaped the

98.
nature of science.

T
(c) To highlight the simplicity and homogeneity of the early integration of philosophical elements into science.
(d) To denote the incomplete blending of two distinct academic fields during the formative years of modern
science.
In the provided passage, which literary device primarily underscores the thematic essence of the historical
discussion?
(a) Allegory (b) Irony (c) Anachronism (d) 7G
Synecdoche
5K
tr-5F7D9G1C7B
99. In the context of the passage, what does the term "inductive" refer to?
(a) The method of proving scientific theories through controlled experimentation.
(b) The technique of disproving previous metaphysical assumptions using empirical data.
(c) The process of deriving general principles from specific observations.
(d) The approach of integrating philosophical doctrines into scientific methods.
100. Which descriptor best 1S
fits 5S
the7L type of language used by the author in the passage?
tr-5R7U9P 7T
(a) Academic and Analytical (b) Conversational and Informal
(c) Technical and Jargon-laden (d) Narrative and Descriptive

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101. What best describes the connection between the first and second paragraphs of the passage?
(a) The first paragraph introduces a historical overview of natural philosophy which is contradicted by the
second paragraph.
(b) The first paragraph establishes the foundational figures in philosophy and science, while the second
highlights the modern implications of their theories.
(c) The first paragraph outlines the integration of metaphysical and scientific views, which the second
paragraph argues has become less relevant in modern times.
(d) The first paragraph presents historical examples of the integration of science and philosophy, which the
second paragraph explains led to a divergence due to misconceptions.

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

102. Based on the passage, which of the following can be reasonably inferred?
(a) Newton's shift from hypotheses to inductive reasoning led to the decline of natural philosophy.
(b) Kepler and Galileo's work was strictly empirical, without any metaphysical assumptions.

o m
(c) The divide between science and philosophy was always present, even in the early days of natural
philosophy.

c
(d) Descartes, Huygens, Boyle, and Newton never engaged in metaphysical thinking.

rs .
103. What assumption about the integration of mathematics into the study of natural phenomena best captures the
essence of Kepler and Galileo's approach?

k e
(a) They believed that natural phenomena could only be understood through qualitative descriptions.
(b) They adopted the metaphysical view that mathematical laws are fundamental to understanding nature.

n
(c) They rejected any metaphysical considerations in favor of purely empirical observations.

a
(d) They relied exclusively on Aristotelian metaphysics to guide their scientific discoveries.

r
104. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?

(b) The
tr-5R7U9P1S7T

o p
(a) Modern science and philosophy have always been distinct and separate disciplines.
evolution of science from natural philosophy involved the loss of valuable metaphysical insights.
5S7L
(c) Newton's work in the "Principia" was purely empirical and devoid of any hypotheses or metaphysical
elements.

nature. T
(d) Early natural philosophers like Kepler and Galileo ignored mathematical approaches to understanding

105. Based on the passage, which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?
(a) Evidence is found that early natural philosophers consistently rejected metaphysical considerations in their
work.
(b) A newly discovered manuscript by Newton reveals that he always considered his work purely empirical
and devoid of any philosophical influence. tr-5F7D9G1C7B
5K7G

(c) Historical records show that the divide between science and philosophy existed long before Newton’s time.
(d) New scientific discoveries demonstrate that metaphysical assumptions have no impact on the development
of scientific theories.
106. One evening Galileo and Newton sat in a park and they were facing opposite directions. If Galileo’s shadow is
falling to his right then which direction was Newton facing?
(a) North (b)5SEast
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
7L (c) West (d) South
107. Thomas is facing north. He turns 1200 in the anti-clockwise direction and then 3000 in the clockwise direction.
Which direction is he facing now?
(a) South-west (b) South (c) North-west (d) South-east
108. Robert and Harvey – were sitting in a park in the evening. Both were facing each other. Robert noticed that
Harvey’s shadow was falling to his right. Which direction was Robert facing?
(a) West (b) East (c) North (d) South

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 Passage (Q.109-Q.120): When astronomers made the first definitive measurements of the scale of our Galaxy a
century ago, they were overwhelmed by the size of the Universe they had mapped. Initially, there was great
skepticism that the so-called ‘spiral nebulae’ seen in deep photographs of the sky were in fact ‘island universes’
– structures as large as the Milky Way, but at much larger distances still. While the vast majority of science-
fiction stories stay within our Milky Way, much of the story of the past 100 years of astronomy has been the
discovery of just how much larger than that the Universe is. Our nearest galactic neighbour is about 2 million
light years away, while the light from the most distant galaxies our telescopes can see has been travelling to us
for most of the age of the Universe, about 13 billion years.
We discovered in the 1920s that the Universe has been expanding since the Big Bang. But about 20 years ago,
astronomers found that this expansion was speeding up, driven by a force whose physical nature we do not
understand, but to which we give the stop-gap name of ‘dark energy’. Dark energy operates on length- and time-
scales of the Universe as a whole: how could we capture such a concept in a piece of fiction?

m
The story doesn’t stop there. We can’t see galaxies from those parts of the Universe for which there hasn’t been

o
enough time since the Big Bang for the light to reach us. What lies beyond the observable bounds of the
Universe? Our simplest cosmological models suggest that the Universe is uniform in its properties on the largest

c
rs .
scales, and extends forever. A variant idea says that the Big Bang that birthed our Universe is only one of a
(possibly infinite) number of such explosions, and that the resulting ‘multiverse’ has an extent utterly beyond
our comprehension.

k e
The US astronomer Neil deGrasse Tyson once said: ‘The Universe is under no obligation to make sense to you.’
Similarly, the wonders of the Universe are under no obligation to make it easy for science-fiction writers to tell
stories about them. The Universe is mostly empty space, and the distances between stars in galaxies, and between

n
galaxies in the Universe, are incomprehensibly vast on human scales. Capturing the true scale of the Universe,

a
while somehow tying it to human endeavours and emotions, is a daunting challenge for any science-fiction
writer.

r
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
5S7L

o p
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
109. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the passage?

T
(a) To assess the technological advancements in telescopes that have enabled a deeper understanding of the
universe's structure.
(b) To elucidate the difficulties faced by science fiction writers in incorporating expansive astronomical
concepts into their narratives.
(c) To critique the methods used by astronomers to measure cosmic distances and the implications for our
understanding of the universe.
(d) To argue for a revision of the cosmological models based on the recent astronomical discoveries that
suggest a more complex universe. tr-5F7D9G1C7B
5K7G

110. Which of the following lines of the passage is using quantifiers?

(a) While the vast majority of science-fiction stories stay within our Milky Way, much of the story of the past
100 years of astronomy has been the discovery of just how much larger than that the Universe is.
(b) The story doesn’t stop there.
(c) ‘The Universe is under no obligation to make sense to you.’
(d) What lies beyond the observable bounds of the Universe?
1S7T5S7L
tr-5R7U9P
111. What does the author mean by the phrase "island universes"?
(a) Distinct ecosystems found on isolated islands, mirroring the diversity observed in the cosmos.
(b) A theoretical concept in astrophysics suggesting that each galaxy is surrounded by a unique space-time
continuum.
(c) Galaxies that are separate from our own Milky Way, each existing independently at vast distances across
the universe.
(d) Planetary systems that have conditions suitable for life, isolated from one another by the vastness of space.

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112. Which of the following is being implied by the author in the passage?
(a) Modern astrophysical technologies have resolved all major mysteries regarding the universe’s structure and
dynamics.
(b) The acceleration of the universe's expansion is now completely understood, thanks to recent discoveries in
dark energy.
(c) Despite advances in astronomy, our comprehension of the universe’s full scale and nature is still limited.
(d) Science fiction has kept pace with astronomical discoveries, accurately reflecting the latest scientific
consensus.
113. What literary device is used in the line "The Universe is under no obligation to make sense to you"?
(a) Metaphor (b) Simile (c) Personification (d) Onomatopoeia
SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING
114. Based on the passage, which of the following would be the most significant challenge for a science fiction writer
attempting to depict the concept of "dark energy" in a narrative?
(a) Developing characters who can manipulate dark energy to travel between galaxies.

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(b) Portraying the invisible and abstract nature of dark energy in a way that is scientifically accurate yet
engaging.
(c) Incorporating known alien species into the storyline that uses dark energy.
(d) Ensuring the story remains grounded in current-day Earthly issues and politics.

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fiction writing?

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115. Based on the passage, how does the concept of a multiverse challenge the boundaries of contemporary science

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(a) It simplifies the narrative structure by providing a single, cohesive explanation for various phenomena.

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(b) It complicates the creation of believable settings due to the infinite possibilities of different universes.

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(c) It necessitates the use of more advanced technological concepts that are not yet invented.

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(d) It limits the scope of stories to only those scenarios that are scientifically plausible.
116. Based 5S
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the concept of dark energy into their narratives?

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(a) Avoid using scientific concepts like dark energy to keep the story accessible and straightforward.
(b) Focus on the emotional and human impact of living in a universe dominated by dark energy.
(c) Emphasize the technical aspects of dark energy, making it the central plot device of the story.
(d) Create characters that are physically affected by dark energy to visualize its impact.
117. Which statement best illustrates the parallel drawn by the author between the discovery of dark energy and the
expansion of narrative possibilities in science fiction?
(a) The discovery of dark energy simplified the scientific community's understanding of the universe.
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(b) Dark energy's elusive nature mirrors the complex themestr-often
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(c) The expansion of the universe driven by dark energy has made space travel more feasible in scientific
theories.
(d) Learning about dark energy has limited the types of stories that can be told in science fiction.
118. If it possible to make only one meaningful word from the second, the fourth the sixth and the ninth letters of the
word PROACTIVE, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one word
can be formed tr-your
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(a) A (b) E (c) T (d) M

119. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FOREHAND each of which have as many letters between
them in the word as they have in English alphabet?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
120. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘NURSING’ which have as many letters between them as in the
alphabet?
(a) One (b) Three (c) Five (d) Six
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 PART – B
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS
121. Identify the individual who has been appointed as the new Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer
(CEO) of HDFC Ergo General Insurance in June 2024.
(a) Prem Prabhakar (b) Rajeev Agarwal (c) Rakesh Ranjan (d) Anuj Tyagi
122. In June 2024, Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX), the flagship initiative of the Ministry of Defence,
signed its 350th contract with which tech company to design and develop a miniaturised satellite?
(a) Salvo Securities & Intelligence Services (b) Space-Pixxel Technologies
(c) Zoom Techno (d) Maxar Technologies, India
123. Tsangpo is the other name in Tibet for ____________.
(a) Brahmaputra (b) Ganga (c) Koshi

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(d) Sindhu

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124. In June 2024, the US, Japan, and which other country conducted their first trilateral multi-domain exercise named
Freedom Edge on South Korea’s southern island of Jeju?

c
(a) South Korea (b) Russia (c) China (d) France

rs .
125. Helen Keller Day is celebrated annually on June 27 to honor Helen Keller, who overcame blindness and deafness
to become a renowned author and activist. What is the title of her autobiography?
(a) The Story of My Life (b) The light in our eyes

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(c) The Story of Light

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(d) The Silver Lining
126. On June 23, Pat Cummins made history by becoming the first player to pick up two hat-tricks in the T20 World
Cup. He plays for the national cricket team of which country?
(a) New Zealand
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(b) Australia

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(c) England (d) South Africa
In June 2024, the National Forensic Science University (NFSU) signed an MoU with the government of which

(a) Jharkhand
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state to set up a Centre of Excellence for matters related to identified crime cases?
(b) Tamil Nadu (c) Manipur
128. Maharana Pratap Singh was the 13th King of which of the following kingdoms?
(a) Mewar (b) Raisen (c) Kutch
(d) Haryana

(d) Gogunda
129. Bimbisara was the founder of which one of the following dynasties?
(a) Nanda (b) Haryanka (c) Maurya (d) 7G
Shunga
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130. What is the name of the joint exercise of IAF (Indian Air Force) and EAF (Egyptian Air Force) held in Egypt
from 21 to 26 June 2024?
(a) HIEGS (b) HOPEX (c) INEGX (d) HOGES
131. What is the name of the app launched by the Director-General of Railway Protection Force (RPF) to provide
detailed information on three new Criminal Acts under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023?
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(a) Sangam tr-5R7U9P1S(b) Sathi (c) Sangyaan (d) Sanket
132. Sebastian Vettel is one of the finest racing driver. He is belongs to which country?
(a) Japan (b) France (c) Germany (d) USA
133. In June 2024, Shafali Verma made history by scoring a record-breaking double century in women’s Test cricket,
surpassing the record of which cricketer?
(a) Annabel Sutherland (b) Ellyse Perry
(c) Alyssa Healy (d) Jessica Jonassen
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134. In June 2024, according to the Global Liveability Index published by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU),
which city topped the rankings?
(a) Copenhagen (b) Zürich (c) Melbourne (d) Vienna
135. In June 2024, Aadhar Housing Finance Limited signed a financing agreement for $60 million (in Indian rupee
equivalent) nonconvertible debentures with which bank or institution?
(a) Asian Development Bank (b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Bank (d) Capital One
136. In June 2024, Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA) signed an agreement worth over
₹850 crore with KFW Bank. KFW Bank is headquartered in which country?
(a) Germany (b) France (c) United Kingdom (d) Spain

m
137. In which of the following Indian state is the Chandauli National Park located?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Assam (d) Uttarakhand

c o
138. In June 2024, JSW Steel and JFE collaborated to introduce CPS technologies for blast furnace operations. JFE
Steel is headquartered in which country?

.
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(a) United Kingdom (b) Italy (c) France (d) Japan
139. Who was regarded by Gandhiji as his political Guru?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal
k e
140. Who was the First Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(a) K.S. Hegde (b) Hukum Singh

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(c) Ganesh Vasudev (d) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
141. What is the full form of UDAN scheme?
tr-5R7U(a) 7T5S7L
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Desh ka Aam Nagrik
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(b) Udta Desh ka Aam Naagrik
(c) Unick depiction of advance device
(d) None of the given option is correct.
142. In July 2024, under the Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor, the Ministry of Defence (MoD) signed an MoU
to establish three state-of-the-art testing facilities in which city?
(a) Coimbatore (b) Chennai (c) Madurai (d) Thanjavur
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143. Tarun Gogoi was the longest-serving Chief Minister of which 7D9G1C7B5K
state?
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(a) Bihar (b) West Bengal (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Assam
144. Govind sagar Lake is located in which of the following state?
(a) Punjab (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Andhra Pradesh
145. Power of the Supreme Court of India to decide the dispute between centre and state falls under __________.
(a) Advisory jurisdiction
tr-5R7U9P1S7T
5S7L (b) Original jurisdiction
(c) Appellate jurisdiction (d) Constitutional jurisdiction

146. Name the first ever state in the country to receive ISO Certification for the state owned tribal hostel?
(a) Bihar (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Odisha (d) West Bengal

147. When was the Geological Survey of India established?

(a) 1891 (b) 1952 (c) 1851 (d) 1871

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148. Constitution 73rd Amendment related to _______.
(a) Speakers and Deputy Speakers (b) Panchayati Raj
(c) Vice president (d) Divisions of states
149. In which year did CV Raman receive the Nobel Prize in Physics?
(a) 1930 (b) 1933 (c) 1936 (d) 1944
150. GST Day is observed annually on July 1. In which year was the Goods and Services Tax (GST) introduced?
(a) 2017 (b) 2018 (c) 2019 (d) 2020

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 Notes:

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Mock Objection Form (MOF)

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 SELF-ASSESSMENT PAGE
1. My sequence in today's Mock (write 1-3 in the box):
English Language General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Logical Reasoning

2. Approx time devoted to each section:

c o m
.
English Language General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Logical Reasoning

k e rs
3. I:
◻ was too distracted during the Mock today
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◻ think
tr-5R7U9P1S7T

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5S7LI used the wrong sequence
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◻ wrote today's Mock without any defined strategy around sequence, attempts etc in mind.

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 spent a lot of time on ____________________________________________ section.
 spent insufficient time on _______________________________________ section.
 couldn't understand the passage properly of these genres _______________, ________________, _______________.

Write a quick explanation of your mistakes.

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tr-5F7D9G1C7B

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tr-5R7U9P1S7T

That's it! Now go through this page before you write your next Mock and ensure we don't repeat the same
mistakes.

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