JEE Main 2025 (January)

Chapter-wise Qs Bank

Physics

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1
Content
Questions
1. Mathematics in Physics 4
2. Units and Dimensions 5
3. Motion In One Dimension 7
4. Motion In Two Dimensions 8
5. Laws of Motion 9
6. Work Power Energy 10
7. Center of Mass Momentum and Collision 13
8. Rotational Motion 15
9. Gravitation 18
10. Mechanical Properties of Solids 20
11. Mechanical Properties of Fluids 21
12. Oscillations 23
13. Waves and Sound 25
14. Thermal Properties of Matter 26
15. Thermodynamics 28
16. Kinetic Theory of Gases 31
17. Electrostatics 32
18. Capacitance 36
19. Current Electricity 38
20. Magnetic Properties of Matter 41
21. Magnetic Effects of Current 42
22. Electromagnetic Induction 45
23. Alternating Current 47
24. Ray Optics 48
25. Wave Optics 54
26. Dual Nature of Matter 56
27. Atomic Physics 58
28. Nuclear Physics 59
29. Electromagnetic Waves 60
30. Semiconductors 61
31. Experimental Physics 65

Answer Keys 66

2
Solutions
1. Mathematics in Physics 70
2. Units and Dimensions 71
3. Motion In One Dimension 73
4. Motion In Two Dimensions 75
5. Laws of Motion 77
6. Work Power Energy 78
7. Center of Mass Momentum and Collision 82
8. Rotational Motion 86
9. Gravitation 92
10. Mechanical Properties of Solids 95
11. Mechanical Properties of Fluids 96
12. Oscillations 100
13. Waves and Sound 102
14. Thermal Properties of Matter 103
15. Thermodynamics 106
16. Kinetic Theory of Gases 110
17. Electrostatics 111
18. Capacitance 117
19. Current Electricity 121
20. Magnetic Properties of Matter 126
21. Magnetic Effects of Current 127
22. Electromagnetic Induction 134
23. Alternating Current 136
24. Ray Optics 137
25. Wave Optics 148
26. Dual Nature of Matter 151
27. Atomic Physics 154
28. Nuclear Physics 156
29. Electromagnetic Waves 157
30. Semiconductors 159
31. Experimental Physics 163

3
Mathematics in Physics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. A physical quantity Q is related to four observables a, b, c, d as follows : Q = ab

cd
where,
a = (60 ± 3)Pa; b = (20 ± 0.1)m; c = (40 ± 0.2)Nsm
−2
and d = (50 ± 0.1)m, then the percentage error in Q
is x

1000
, where x = ________ .

Q2. For an experimental expression y = 32.3×1125

27.4
, where all the digits are significant. Then to report the value of y
we should write
(1) y = 1326.19 (2) y = 1330
(3) y = 1326.186 (4) y = 1326.2

Q3. Two particles are located at equal distance from origin. The position vectors of those are represented by
¯
A = 2^
i + 3n^
^
j + 2k and B̄ = 2^i − 2^j + 4pk
^
, respectively. If both the vectors are at right angle to each other, the
value of n −1
is _____ .

Q4. The energy of a system is given as E(t) = α 3

e
−βt
, where t is the time and β = 0.3 s . The errors in the
−1

measurement of α and t are 1.2% and 1.6%, respectively. At t = 5 s, maximum percentage error in the energy is
:
(1) 6% (2) 8.4%
(3) 11.6% (4) 4%

Q5. The maximum percentage error in the measurment of density of a wire is [Given, mass of wire
= (0.60 ± 0.003)g radius of wire = (0.50 ± 0.01)cm length of wire = (10.00 ± 0.05)cm]
(1) 8 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 7

4
 Units and Dimensions Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. The expression given below shows the variation of velocity (v) with time (t), v = At 2
+
Bt

C+t
. The dimension of
ABC is :
(1) [M 0 1
L
−3
T ] (2) [M 0
L
2 −2
T ]

(3) [M 0 1
L
−2
T ] (4) [M 0
L
2 −3
T ]

Q2. The pair of physical quantities not having same dimensions is :

(1) Pressure and Young's modulus (2) Surface tension and impulse
(3) Torque and energy (4) Angular momentum and Planck's constant

Q3. Match List - I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

Q4. Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II
(A) Magnetic induction (I) Ampere meter 2

(B) Magnetic intensity (II) Weber

(C) Magnetic flux (III) Gauss
(D) Magnetic moment (IV) Ampere/meter
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Q5. In a measurement, it is asked to find modulus of elasticity per unit torque applied on the system. The measured
quantity has dimension of [M a b
L T ]
c
. If b = −3, the value of c is ________

5
 Units and Dimensions Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q6. Match List - I with List - II.

(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Q7. The position of a particle moving on x-axis is given by x(t) = A sin t + B cos 2
t + Ct
2
+ D , where t is time.
The dimension of ABC

D
is
(1) L 2
T
−2
(2) L2

(3) L (4) L3
T
−2

Q8. The electric flux is ϕ = ασ + βλ where λ and σ are linear and surface charge density, respectively. ( α

β
)

represents
(1) electric field (2) area
(3) charge (4) displacement

Q9. Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II

2 −2
(A) Permeability of f ree space (I) [M L T ]

−2 −1
(B) Magnetic f ield (II) [M T A ]

−2 −2
(C) Magnetic moment (III) [M L T A ]

2
(D) Torsional constant (IV) [L A]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

Q10. If B is magnetic field and μ is permeability of free space, then the dimensions of (B/μ
0 0) is
(1) ML 2 −2
T A
−1
(2) MT −2
A
−1

(3) L −1
A (4) LT −2
A
−1

Q11. Which one of the following is the correct dimensional formula for the capacitance in F ? M, L, T and C stand
for unit of mass, length, time and charge,
(1) [F] = [C 2
M
−1
L
−2
T ]
2
(2) [F] = [C 2
M
−2
L
2
T ]
2

(3) [F] = [CM −2 −2

L T
−2
] (4) [F] = [CM −1 −2
L T ]
2

6
Motion In One Dimension Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. The maximum speed of a boat in still water is 27 km/h. Now this boat is moving downstream in a river flowing
at 9 km/h. A man in the boat throws a ball vertically upwards with speed of 10 m/s. Range of the ball as
observed by an observer at rest on the river bank, is _______ cm. (Take g = 10 m/s ) 2

Q2. Two cars P and Q are moving on a road in the same direction. Accleration of car P increases linearly with time
whereas car Q moves with a constant accleration. Both cars cross each other at time t = 0, for the first time.
The maximum possible number of crossing(s) (including the crossing at t = 0) is ________.

Q3. The velocity-time graph of an object moving along a straight line is shown in figure. What is the distance
covered by the object between t = 0 to t = 4 s ?

(1) 30 m (2) 11 m
(3) 10 m (4) 13 m

Q4. The motion of an airplane is represented by velocity-time graph as shown below. The distance covered by

airplane in the first 30.5 second is _______ km .

(1) 12 (2) 3
(3) 6 (4) 9

7
Motion In Two Dimensions Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. Two projectiles are fired with same initial speed from same point on ground at angles of (45 ∘
− α) and
(45
∘
+ α), respectively, with the horizontal direction. The ratio of their maximum heights attained is :
(1) 1−tan α

1+tan α
(2) 1−sin 2α

1+sin 2α

(3) 1+sin 2α

1−sin 2α
(4) 1+sin α

1−sin α

Q2. The position vector of a moving body at any instant of time is given as r→ = (5t ^i − 5t^j)m. The magnitude and
2

direction of velocity at t = 2 s is,

(1) 5√15 m/s, making an angle of tan −1
4 with - ve (2) 5√15 m/s, making an angle of tan −1
4 with + ve
Y axis X axis
(3) 5√17 m/s, making an angle of tan −1
4 with + ve (4) 5√17 m/s, making an angle of tan −1
4 with - ve
X axis Y axis

Q3. A particle is projected at an angle of 30 from horizontal at a speed of 60 m/s. The height traversed by the
∘

particle in the first second is h and height traversed in the last second, before it reaches the maximum height, is
0

h1 . The ratio h 0 : h1 is _________ [Take, g = 10 m/s ] 2

Q4. A ball of mass 100 g is projected with velocity 20 m/s at 60 with horizontal. The decrease in kinetic energy of
∘

the ball during the motion from point of projection to highest point is
(1) 5 J (2) 15 J
(3) 20 J (4) zero

8
Laws of Motion Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. A car of mass ' m ' moves on a banked road having radius ' r ' and banking angle θ. To avoid slipping from
banked road, the maximum permissible speed of the car is v . The coefficient of friction μ between the wheels
0

of the car and the banked road is

2 2

(1) μ = v +rg tan θ

o

2
(2) μ = v −rg tan θ
0

2
rg+v o tan θ rg−v tan θ
0
2 2

(3) μ = v −rg tan θ

0

2
(4) μ = v +rg tan θ
o

2
rg+v tan θ rg−v tan θ
o
0

Q2.

A string of length L is fixed at one end and carries a mass of M at the other end. The mass makes ( 3

π
) rotations
per second about the vertical axis passing through end of the string as shown. The tension in the string is … …
ML.

Q3. A massless spring gets elongated by amount x under a tension of 5 N . Its elongation is x under the tension of
1 2

7 N . For the elongation of (5x 1

, the tension in the spring will be,
− 2x 2 )

(1) 39 N (2) 15 N
(3) 11 N (4) 20 N

9
Work Power Energy Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. A body of mass ' m ' connected to a massless and unstretchable string goes in verticle circle of radius ' R 'under
gravity g. The other end of the string is fixed at the center of circle. If velocity at top of circular path is n√gR,
where, n ⩾ 1, then ratio of kinetic energy of the body at bottom to that at top of the circle is
2 2

(1) n
2
n +4
(2) n +4

n
2

(3) n+4

n
(4) n

n+4

Q2. A sand dropper drops sand of mass m(t) on a conveyer belt at a rate proportional to the square root of speed (v)
of the belt, i.e. dm

dt
. If P is the power delivered to run the belt at constant speed then which of the
∝ √v

following relationship is true?

(1) P ∝ √v (2) P ∝ v
(3) P 2
∝ v
5
(4) P 2
∝ v
3

Q3. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion
A: In a central force field, the work done is independent of the path chosen. Reason R: Every force encountered
in mechanics does not have an associated potential energy. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) A is false but R is true (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A

Q4. A bead of mass ' m ' slides without friction on the wall of a vertical circular hoop of radius ' R ' as shown in
figure. The bead moves under the combined action of gravity and a massless spring ( k ) attached to the bottom
of the hoop. The equilibrium length of the spring is ' R '. If the bead is released from top of the hoop with
(negligible) zero initial speed, velocity of bead, when the length of spring becomes ' R ', would be (spring

constant is ' k ', g is accleration due to gravity)

(1) √3Rg + 2
kR (2) 2√gR + kR
2

m m

(3) √2Rg + 2
kR (4) √2Rg + 4kR
2

m m

Q5. A body of mass 4 kg is placed on a plane at a point P having coordinate (3, 4)m. Under the action of force
→
^ ^
F = (2i + 3j)N , it moves to a new point Q having coordinates (6, 10)m in 4 sec . The average power and
instanteous power at the end of 4 sec are in the ratio of :
(1) 13 : 6 (2) 4 : 3
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 6 : 13

10
Work Power Energy Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q6. A force F = α + βx acts on an object in the x -direction. The work done by the force is 5 J when the object is
2

displaced by 1 m . If the constant α = 1 N then β will be

(1) 15 N/m 2
(2) 12 N/m 2

(3) 8 N/m 2
(4) 10 N/m 2

Q7. A force f = x y^
2
i + y ^
2
j acts on a particle in a plane x + y = 10. The work done by this force during a
displacement from (0, 0) to (4 m, 2 m) is Joule (round off to the nearest integer)

Q8. A ball having kinetic energy KE, is projected at an angle of 60 from the horizontal. What will be the kinetic
∘

energy of ball at the highest point of its flight ?

(1) (KE)

8
(2) (KE)

(3) (KE)

16
(4) (KE)

Q9. A bob of mass m is suspended at a point O by a light string of length l and left to perform vertical motion
(circular) as shown in figure. Initially, by applying horizontal velocity v at the point ' A ', the string becomes
0

slack when, the bob reaches at the point ' D '. The ratio of the kinetic energy of the bob at the points B and C is

______ -.
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 3

Q10. A body of mass 100 g is moving in circular path of radius 2 m on vertical plane as shown in figure. The
velocity of the body at point A is 10 m/s. The ratio of its kinetic energies at point B and C is :

11
Work Power Energy Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(Take acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s )2

(1) 2+√ 2

3
(2) 2+√ 3

(3) 3+√ 3

2
(4) 3−√ 2

Q11. A force →
F = 2^ j + k is applied on a particle and it undergoes a displacement ^
i + b^
^
j − k. What will be the
i − 2^
^

value of b, if work done on the particle is zero.

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 1

12
Center of Mass Momentum and Collision Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. As shown below, bob A of a pendulum having massless string of length ' R ' is released from 60 to the vertical.
∘

It hits another bob B of half the mass that is at rest on a friction less table in the center. Assuming elastic
collision, the magnitude of the velocity of bob A after the collision will be (take g as acceleration due to

gravity.)
(1) 4

3
√ Rg (2) 2

3
√ Rg

(3) √Rg (4) 1

3
√ Rg

Q2. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) :
Three identical spheres of same mass undergo one dimensional motion as shown in figure with initial velocities
vA = 5 m/s, vB = 2 m/s, vC = 4 m/s . If we wait sufficiently long for elastic collision to happen, then
vA = 4 m/s, vB = 2 m/s ,vC
= 5 m/s will be the final velocities. Reason (R): In an elastic collision between
identical masses, two objects exchange their velocities. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (4) (A) is true but (R) is false
explanation of (A)

Q3. The center of mass of a thin rectangular plate (fig - x ) with sides of length a and b, whose mass per unit area

(σ) varies as σ = σ0x

ab
(where σ is a constant), would be
0

13
Center of Mass Momentum and Collision Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) ( 2

3
a,
b

2
) (2) ( a

2
,
2
b
)

(3) ( 1

3
a,
b

2
) (4) ( 2

3
a,
2

3
b)

Q4. A uniform rod of mass 250 g having length 100 cm is balanced on a sharp edge at 40 cm mark. A mass of 400 g
is suspended at 10 cm mark. To maintain the balance of the rod, the mass to be suspended at 90 cm mark, is
(1) 190 g (2) 200 g
(3) 300 g (4) 290 g

Q5. A balloon and its content having mass M is moving up with an acceleration ' a '. The mass that must be released
from the content so that the balloon starts moving up with an acceleration ' 3a will be (Take ' g ' as acceleration
′

due to gravity)
(1) 2Ma

3a+g
(2) 3Ma

2a−g

(3) 3Ma

2a+g
(4) 2Ma

3a−g

Q6. Consider a circular disc of radius 20 cm with centre located at the origin. A circular hole of radius 5 cm is cut
from this disc in such a way that the edge of the hole touches the edge of the disc. The distance of centre of
mass of residual or remaining disc from the origin will be
(1) 2.0 cm (2) 1.5 cm
(3) 1.0 cm (4) 0.5 cm

14
 Rotational Motion Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. The coordinates of a particle with respect to origin in a given reference frame is (1, 1, 1) meters. If a force of
→
^ ^ ^
F = i − j + k acts on the particle, then the magnitude of torque (with respect to origin) in z-direction is ______.

Q2.

Three equal masses m are kept at vertices (A, B, C) of an equilateral triangle of side a in free space. At t = 0,
−
−
−
−
−
−→ → → → → →
they are given an initial velocity V→ A
→
= V 0 AC, V B = V 0 BA and V→ C = V 0 CB . Here, AC, CB and BA are unit
vectors along the edges of the triangle. If the three masses interact gravitationally, then the magnitude of the net
angular momentum of the system at the point of collision is :
(1) 3amV 0 (2) 3

2
a mV 0

(3) √3

2
a mV 0
(4) 1

2
a mV 0

Q3. Two iron solid discs of negligible thickness have radii R and R and moment of intertia I and I ,
1 2 1 2

respectively. For R 2 = 2R 1 , the ratio of I and I would be 1/x, where x = ________ -

1 2

Q4. The moment of inertia of a solid disc rotating along its diameter is 2.5 times higher than the moment of inertia
of a ring rotating in similar way. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere which has same radius as the disc and
rotating in similar way, is n times higher than the moment of inertia of the given ring. Here,
$\mathrm{n}=_________ Consider all the bodies have equal masses.

Q5. A uniform solid cylinder of mass ' m ' and radius ' r ' rolls along an inclined rough plane of inclination 45 . If it ∘

starts to roll from rest from the top of the plane then the linear acceleration of the cylinder's axis will be
(1) 1

√2
g (2) 1
g
3√ 2

(3) √2 g
(4) √2g
3

Q6. An object of mass ' m ' is projected from origin in a vertical xy plane at an angle 45 with the x axis with an ∘

initial velocity v . The magnitude and direction of the angular momentum of the object with respect to origin,
0

when it reaches at the maximum height, will be [ g is acceleration due to gravity]

(1) (2)
3 3
mv o
along negative z-axis mv o
along positive z-axis
2√ 2g 4√ 2g
3 3

(3) mv o
along negative z-axis (4) mv o
along positive z-axis
4√ 2g 2√ 2g

Q7. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same mass and of same radius are rolled on an inclined plane. Let the
time taken to reach the bottom by the solid sphere and the hollow sphere be t and t , respectively, then 1 2

15
Rotational Motion Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) t 1 > t2 (2) t 1 = t2

(3) t 1 < t2 (4) t 1 = 2t 2

Q8. A solid sphere is rolling without slipping on a horizontal plane. The ratio of the linear kinetic energy of the
centre of mass of the sphere and rotational kinetic energy is :
(1) 3

4
(2) 4

(3) 5

2
(4) 2

Q9. A solid sphere of mass ' m ' and radius ' r ' is allowed to roll without slipping from the highest point of an
inclined plane of length ' L ' and makes an angle 30 with the horizontal. The speed of the particle at the bottom
∘

of the plane is v . If the angle of inclination is increased to 45 while keeping L constant. Then the new speed
1
∘

of the sphere at the bottom of the plane is v . The ratio v

2
2
1
: v
2
2
is
(1) 1 : √2 (2) 1 : √3
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 2

Q10. A circular disk of radius R meter and mass M kg is rotating around the axis perpendicular to the disk. An
external torque is applied to the disk such that θ(t) = 5t 2
− 8t , where θ(t) is the angular position of the
rotating disc as a function of time t. How much power is delivered by the applied torque, when t = 2 s ?
(1) 72MR 2
(2) 8MR 2

(3) 108MR 2
(4) 60MR 2

Q11. A uniform circular disc of radius ' R ' and mass ' M ' is rotating about an axis perpendicular to its plane and
passing through its centre. A small circular part of radius R/2 is removed from the original disc as shown in
the figure. Find the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the original disc about the axis as given above.

(1) 7

32
MR
2
(2) 9

32
MR
2

(3) 17

32
MR
2
(4) 13

32
MR
2

Q12. The position vectors of two 1 kg particles, (A) and (B), are given by→
r A = (α 1 t ^
2
i + α 2 t^
^
j + α 3 tk)m and
→
^ 2^ ^
r B = (β 1 ti + β 2 t j + β 3 tk)m , respectively;
2
(α 1 = 1 m/s , α 2 = 3nm/s, α 3 = 2 m/s, β 1 = 2 m/s, β 2 = −1 m/s , β 3 = 4pm/s)
2
, where t is time, n and p
−
→
are constants. At t = 1 s, VA =
→
VB and velocities V→ and V→ of the particles are orthogonal to each other.
A B

16
Rotational Motion Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

At t = 1 s, the magnitude of angular momentum of particle (A) with respect to the position of particle (B) is
√ Lkgm
2
s
−1
. The value of L is _______ .

Q13. The torque due to the force (2^i + ^j + 2k)

^
about the origin, acting on a particle whose position vector is
(^
i +^
^
j + k) , would be
(1) ^ ^
i − k (2) ^i + k
^

(3) ^j + k
^ (4) ^i − ^j + k
^

17
Gravitation Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. Two planets, A and B are orbiting a common star in circular orbits of radii R and R , respectively, with
A B

RB = 2RA . The planet B is 4√2 times more massive than planet A. The ratio ( LB

LA
) of angular momentum
(LB) of planet B to that of planet A (L A) is closest to integer ________.

Q2. Earth has mass 8 times and radius 2 times that of a planet. If the escape velocity from the earth is 11.2 km/s,
the escape velocity in km/s from the planet will be :
(1) 2.8 (2) 11.2
(3) 5.6 (4) 8.4

Q3. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius ' R ' around the earth. A second satellite is launched into an
orbit of radius 1.03 R . The time period of revolution of the second satellite is larger than the first one
approximately by
(1) 9% (2) 3%
(3) 4.5% (4) 2.5%

Q4. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is ' g '. If the diameter of earth is reduced to one third of its
original value and mass remains unchanged, then the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth is
…… g.

Q5. If a satellite orbiting the Earth is 9 times closer to the Earth than the Moon, what is the time period of rotation of
the satellite? Given rotational time period of Moon = 27 days and gravitational attraction between the satellite
and the moon is neglected.
(1) 27 days (2) 1 day
(3) 81 days (4) 3 days

Q6. A satellite of mass M

2
is revolving around earth in a circular orbit at a height of R

3
from earth surface. The
angular momentum of the satellite is M √ GM R

x
. The value of x is ______ , where M and R are the mass and
radius of earth, respectively. ( G is the gravitational constant)

Q7. A small point of mass m is placed at a distance 2R from the centre ' O of a big uniform solid sphere of mass M
′

and radius R . The gravitational force on ' m ' due to M is F . A spherical part of radius R/3 is removed from the
1

big sphere as shown in the figure and the gravitational force on m due to remaining part of M is found to be F . 2

The value of ratio F 1 : F2 is

18
Gravitation Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) 12 : 11 (2) 11 : 10
(3) 12 : 9 (4) 16 : 9

19
Mechanical Properties of Solids Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. The fractional compression ( ΔV

V
) of water at the depth of 2.5 km below the sea level is ______ %. Given, the
Bulk modulus of water = 2 × 10 9
N m , density of water = 10
−2 3 −3
kgm , acceleration due to gravity
= g = 10 m s
−2
.
(1) 1.25 (2) 1.0
(3) 1.75 (4) 1.5

Q2. The volume contraction of a solid copper cube of edge length 10 cm , when subjected to a hydraulic pressure of
7 × 10
6
Pa , would be ____ mm . (Given bulk modulus of copper = 1.4 × 10
3 11
N m
−2
)

Q3. The increase in pressure required to decrease the volume of a water sample by 0.2% is P × 10 5
Nm
−2
. Bulk
modulus of water is 2.15 × 10 9
Nm
−2
. The value of P is … …

20
Mechanical Properties of Fluids Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. In a hydraulic lift, the surface area of the input piston is 6 cm and that of the output piston is 1500 cm . If 100
2 2

N force is applied to the input piston to raise the output piston by 20 cm, then the work done is _______ kJ.

Q2. In the experiment for measurement of viscosity ' η ' of given liquid with a ball having radius R, consider
following statements. A. Graph between terminal velocity V and R will be a parabola. B. The terminal velocities
of different diameter balls are constant for a given liquid. C. Measurement of terminal velocity is dependent on
the temperature. D. This experiment can be utilized to assess the density of a given liquid. E. If balls are
dropped with some initial speed, the value of η will change. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A, B and E Only (2) B, D and E Only
(3) A, C and D Only (4) C, D and E Only

Q3. Consider following statements: A. Surface tension arises due to extra energy of the molecules at the interior as
compared to the molecules at the surface, of a liquid. B. As the temperature of liquid rises, the coefficient of
viscosity increases. C. As the temperature of gas increases, the coefficient of viscosity increases D. The onset of
turbulence is determined by Reynold's number. E. In a steady flow two stream lines never intersect. Choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C, D, E Only (2) A, D, E Only
(3) B, C, D Only (4) A, B, C Only

Q4. A 400 g solid cube having an edge of length 10 cm floats in water. How much volume of the cube is outside the
water ? (Given : density of water = 1000 kg m −3
)
(1) 1400 cm 3
(2) 600 cm 3

(3) 4000 cm 3
(4) 400 cm 3

Q5. A thin transparent film with refractive index 1.4 , is held on circular ring of radius 1.8 cm . The fluid in the film
evaporates such that transmission through the film at wavelength 560 nm goes to a minimum every 12 seconds.
Assuming that the film is flat on its two sides, the rate of evaporation is ____ π × 10 −13 3
m /s .

Q6. The amount of work done to break a big water drop of radius ' R ' into 27 small drops of equal radius is 10 J .
The work done required to break the same big drop into 64 small drops of equal radius will be
(1) 15 J (2) 5 J
(3) 20 J (4) 10 J

Q7. An air bubble of radius 0.1 cm lies at a depth of 20 cm below the free surface of a liquid of density 1000 kg/m . 3

If the pressure inside the bubble is 2100 N/m greater than the atmospheric pressure, then the surface tension of
2

the liquid in SI unit is (use g = 10 m/s )

2

(1) 0.1 (2) 0.05

(3) 0.02 (4) 0.25

Q8. Given below are two statements: Statement I: The hot water flows faster than cold water Statement II: Soap
water has higher surface tension as compared to fresh water. In the light above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

21
Mechanical Properties of Fluids Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q9. Water flows in a horizontal pipe whose one end is closed with a valve. The reading of the pressure gauge
attached to the pipe is P . The reading of the pressure gauge falls to P when the valve is opened. The speed of
1 2

water flowing in the pipe is proportional to

(1) P 1 − P2 (2) (P 1 − P2)
4

(3) (P 1
2
− P2) (4) √P 1 − P2

Q10. An air bubble of radius 1.0 mm is observed at a depth of 20 cm below the free surface of a liquid having
surface tension 0.095 J/m and density 10
2 3
kg/m
3
. The difference between pressure inside the bubble and
atmospheric pressure is _____ N/m . (Take g = 10 m/s )
2 2

Q11. Two soap bubbles of radius 2 cm and 4 cm , respectively, are in contact with each other. The radius of
curvature of the common surface, in cm , is ______ .

Q12. A small rigid spherical ball of mass M is dropped in a long vertical tube containing glycerine. The velocity of
the ball becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is half of the density of the ball, then the
viscous force acting on the ball will be (consider g as acceleration due to gravity)
(1) 2 Mg (2) Mg
(3) 3

2
Mg (4) Mg

Q13.

A tube of length L is shown in the figure. The radius of cross section at the point (1) is 2 cm and at the point
(2) is 1 cm , respectively. If the velocity of water entering at point (1) is 2 m/s, then velocity of water leaving
the point (2) will be
(1) 4 m/s (2) 2 m/s
(3) 6 m/s (4) 8 m/s

Q14. A tube of length 1 m is filled completely with an ideal liquid of mass 2 M , and closed at both ends. The tube is
rotated uniformly in horizontal plane about one of its ends. If the force exerted by the liquid at the other end is
F then angular velocity of the tube is √ F

αM
in SI unit. The value of α is __________.

22
Oscillations Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Time period of a simple pendulum is longer at the top of a mountain than that at the base of the
mountain. Reason (R): Time period of a simple pendulum decreases with increasing value of acceleration due to
gravity and vice-versa. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)

Q2. Two bodies A and B of equal mass are suspended from two massless springs of spring constant k and k , 1 2

respectively. If the bodies oscillate vertically such that their amplitudes are equal, the ratio of the maximum
velocity of A to the maximum velocity of B is
(1) k1

k2
(2) √ k1

k2

(3) √ k2
(4) k2

k1
k1

Q3. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Knowing initial position x and initial momentum p is enough to determine the position and
0 0

momentum at any time t for a simple harmonic motion with a given angular frequency ω. Reason (R): The
amplitude and phase can be expressed in terms of x and p . In the light of the above statements, choose the
0 0

correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
correct explanation of (A) explanation of (A)

Q4. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with time period 2 s and amplitude 1 cm . If D and d are the
total distance and displacement covered by the particle in 12.5 s , then D

d
is
(1) 16

5
(2) 10
(3) 15

4
(4) 25

Q5. A particle oscillates along the x-axis according to the law, x(t) = x 0
2
sin (
t

2
) where x
0 . The kinetic
= 1 m

energy (K) of the particle as a function of x is correctly represented by the graph

23
Oscillations Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q6. A light hollow cube of side length 10 cm and mass 10 g , is floating in water. It is pushed down and released to
execute simple harmonic oscillations. The time period of oscillations is yπ × 10 −2
s, where the value of y is
(Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s , density of water = 10
2 3 3
kg/m )
(1) 6 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 1

Q7. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A simple pendulum is taken to a planet of mass and radius, 4 times and 2 times, respectively,
than the Earth. The time period of the pendulum remains same on earth and the planet. Reason (R): The mass of
the pendulum remains unchanged at Earth and the other planet. In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
explanation of (A) correct explanation of (A)

24
Waves and Sound Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion
A: A sound wave has higher speed in solids than gases. Reason R: Gases have higher value of Bulk modulus
than solids. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (2) A is true but R is false
explanation of A
(3) A is false but R is true (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A

Q2. The equation of a transverse wave travelling along a string is y(x, t) = 4.0 sin [20 × 10 −3
x + 600t]mm , where
x is in mm and t is in second. The velocity of the wave is :
(1) −60 m/s (2) −30 m/s
(3) +30 m/s (4) +60 m/s

Q3. A closed organ and an open organ tube are filled by two different gases having same bulk modulus but different
densities ρ and ρ , respectively. The frequency of 9
1
′
2
th
harmonic of closed tube is identical with 4 th
harmonic
of open tube. If the length of the closed tube is 10 cm and the density ratio of the gases is ρ 1 : ρ2 = 1 : 16 , then
the length of the open tube is :
(1) 15

7
cm (2) 20

7
cm

(3) 15

9
cm (4) 20

9
cm

25
Thermal Properties of Matter Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. A cup of coffee cools from 90 ∘

C to 80 ∘
C in t minutes when the room temperature is 20 ∘
C . The time taken by
the similar cup of coffee to cool from 80 ∘
C to 60 ∘
C at the same room temperature is :
(1) 13

10
t (2) 10

13
t

(3) 5

13
t (4) 13

5
t

Q2. Which of the following figure represents the relation between Celsius and Fahrenheit temperatures ?
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q3. The temperature of a body in air falls from 40 ∘

C to 24 ∘
C in 4 minutes. The temperature of the air is 16 ∘
C . The
temperature of the body in the next 4 minutes will be:

26
Thermal Properties of Matter Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

∘
(1) 14 ∘

3
C (2) 42

3
C

(3) 28 ∘

3
C (4) 56 ∘

3
C

Q4. A gun fires a lead bullet of temperature 300 K into a wooden block. The bullet having melting temperature of
600 K penetrates into the block and melts down. If the total heat required for the process is 625 J , then the mass
of the bullet is grams. (Latent heat of fusion of lead = 2.5 × 10 4
JKg
−1
and specific heat capacity of lead
−1 −1
= 125JKg K )

(1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 5 (4) 15

Q5. An amount of ice of mass 10 −3

kg and temperature −10 ∘
C is transformed to vapour of temperature 110 ∘
C by
applying heat. The total amount of work required for this conversion is, (Take, specific heat of ice
= 2100Jkg
−1
K
−1
, specific heat of water = 4180Jkg −1
K
−1
, specific heat of steam = 1920Jkg −1
K
−1
, Latent
heat of ice = 3.35 × 10 5
Jkg
−1
and Latent heat of steam = 2.25 × 10 6
Jkg
−1
)
(1) 3043 J (2) 3024 J
(3) 3003 J (4) 3022 J

Q6. Two spherical bodies of same materials having radii 0.2 m and 0.8 m are placed in same atmosphere. The
temperature of the smaller body is 800 K and temperature of the bigger body is 400 K . If the energy radiated
from the smaller body is E, the energy radiated from the bigger body is (assume, effect of the surrounding
temperature to be negligible),
(1) 16 E (2) E
(3) 64 E (4) 256 E

Q7. Three conductors of same length having thermal conductivity k 1, k2 and k are connected as shown in figure.
3

Area of cross sections of 1 and 2 st nd

conductor are same and for 3 rd
conductor it is double of the 1 conductor.
st

The temperatures are given in the figure. In steady state condition, the value of θ is _______ ∘
C . (Given :
k1 = 60Js
−1
m
−1
K
−1
, k2 = 120Js
−1
m
−1 −1
K , k3 = 135Js
−1
m
−1
K
−1
)

27
 Thermodynamics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. The workdone in an adiabatic change in an ideal gas depends upon only :
(1) change in its temperature (2) change in its volume
(3) change in its pressure (4) change in its specific heat

Q2. A container of fixed volume contains a gas at 27 ∘

C . To double the pressure of the gas, the temperature of gas
should be raised to ______ ∘
C .

Q3. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : With the increase in the pressure of an ideal gas, the volume falls off more rapidly in an
isothermal process in comparison to the adiabatic process. Reason (R) : In isothermal process, PV = constant,
while in adiabatic process PV γ
= constant. Here γ is the ratio of specific heats, P is the pressure and V is the
volume of the ideal gas. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
explanation of (A) correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Q4.

A poly-atomic molecule ( C V = 3R, CP = 4R , where R is gas constant) goes from phase space point
A (PA = 10
5
Pa, VA = 4 × 10
−6
m )
3
to point B (PB = 5 × 10
4
Pa, VB = 6 × 10
−6 3
m ) to point C (P C = 10
4

Pa, VC = 8 × 10
−6 3
m ) . A to B is an adiabatic path and B to C is an isothermal path. The net heat absorbed per
unit mole by the system is :
(1) 500R(ln 3 + ln 4) (2) 450R(ln 4 − ln 3)
(3) 500R ln 2 (4) 400R ln 4

Q5. A Carnot engine (E) is working between two temperatures 473 K and 273 K . In a new system two engines -
engine E works between 473 K to 373 K and engine E works between 373 K to 273 K . If η
1 2
, η1
12
and η are
2

the efficiencies of the engines E, E and E , respectively, then

1 2

(1) η 12
= η1η2 (2) η 12
≥ η1 + η2

(3) η12
= η1 + η2 (4) η 12
< η1 + η2

Q6. An ideal gas goes from an initial state to final state. During the process, the pressure of gas increases linearly
with temperature. A. The work done by gas during the process is zero. B. The heat added to gas is different from
change in its internal energy. C. The volume of the gas is increased. D. The internal energy of the gas is
increased. E. The process is isochoric (constant volume process) Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) E Only (2) A, B, C, D Only
(3) A, D, E Only (4) A, C Only

28
 Thermodynamics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q7. The temperature of 1 mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is increased by 50 ∘

C at constant pressure. The total heat
added and change in internal energy are E and E , respectively. If
1 2
E1

E2
=
x

9
then the value of x is _____

Q8. The magnitude of heat exchanged by a system for the given cyclic process ABCA (as shown in figure) is (in SI

unit) :
(1) 5π (2) 40π
(3) 10π (4) zero

Q9. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In an insulated container, a gas is adiabatically shrunk to half of its initial volume. The
temperature of the gas decreases. Reason (R): Free expansion of an ideal gas is an irreversible and an adiabatic
process. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the (2) (A) is false but (R) is true
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)

Q10.
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I LIST-II

A. Pressure varies inversely with volume of an ideal gas. I. Adiabatic process

B. Heat absorbed goes partly to increase internal energy and partly to do work. II. Isochoric process

C. Heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system. III. Isothermal process

D. No work is done on or by a gas. IV . Isobaric process

Choose the correct answer f rom the options given below:

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Q11. An ideal gas initially at 0 ∘

C temperature, is compressed suddenly to one fourth of its volume. If the ratio of
specific heat at constant pressure to that at constant volume is 3/2, the change in temperature due to the
thermodynamic process is _____ K.

Q12. Water of mass m gram is slowly heated to increase the temperature from T to T The change in entropy of the
1 z

water, given specific heat of water is 1Jkg −1 −1

K , is :
(1) m ln ( T2

T1
) (2) zero
(3) m ln ( T1

T2
) (4) m (T 2 − T1)

29
 Thermodynamics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q13.

Using the given P − V diagram, the work done by an ideal gas along the path ABCD is :
(1) 3P 0 V0 (2) −4P 0 V0

(3) −3P 0 V0 (4) 4P 0 V0

Q14. Given are statements for certain thermodynamic variables, (A) Internal energy, volume (V) and mass (M) are
extensive variables. (B) Pressure (P), temperature (T) and density ( ρ ) are intensive variables. (C) Volume (V),
temperature (T) and density ( ρ ) are intensive variables. (D) Mass (M), temperature (T) and internal energy are
extensive variables. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (B) and (C) Only (2) (C) and (D) Only
(3) (D) and (A) Only (4) (A) and (B) Only

Q15. For a diatomic gas, if γ 1 = (

Cp

Cv
) for rigid molecules and γ 2 = (
Cp

Cv
) for another diatomic molecules, but also
having vibrational modes. Then, which one of the following options is correct ? (Cp and Cv are specific heats
of the gas at constant pressure and volume)
(1) γ 2 = γ1 (2) 2γ 2 = γ1

(3) γ 2 < γ1 (4) γ 2 > γ1

30
Kinetic Theory of Gases Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. For a particular ideal gas which of the following graphs represents the variation of mean squared velocity of the
gas molecules with temperature?
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q2. The kinetic energy of translation of the molecules in 50 g of CO gas at 17

2
∘
C is
(1) 4205.5 J (2) 4102.8 J
(3) 3582.7 J (4) 3986.3 J

Q3. The ratio of vapour densities of two gases at the same temperature is 4

25
, then the ratio of r.m.s. velocities will
be:
(1) 25

4
(2) 2

(3) 5

2
(4) 4

25

31
Electrostatics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. An electric dipole of mass m, charge q, and length l is placed in a uniform electric field →
E = E i. When the
^
0

dipole is rotated slightly from its equilibrium position and released, the time period of its oscillations will be:
(1) 1
√
ml
(2) 2π√ ml

2π 2qE 0 qE
0

(3) 1
√
2 ml (4) 2π√ ml

2π qE 0 2qE 0

Q2. List - I List - II

Electric f ield inside (distance r > 0 f rom center)

(A) of a unif ormly charged spherical shell with (I) σ/ϵ 0

surf ace charge density σ, and radius R.

Electric f ield at distance r>0 f rom a unif ormly

(B) charged inf inite plane sheet with surf ace (II) σ/2ϵ 0

Match List - I with List - II. charge density σ. Choose the

Electric f ield outside (distance r>0 f rom center)

(C) of a unif ormly charged spherical shell with (III) 0

surf ace charge density σ, and radius R.

Electric f ield between 2 oppositely charged

2
σR
(D) inf inite plane parallel sheets with unif orm (IV) 2
ϵ0 r

surf ace charge density σ.

correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

Q3. A point charge causes an electric flux of −2 × 10 4 2

Nm C
−1
to pass through a spherical Gaussian surface of 8.0
cm radius, centred on the charge. The value of the point charge is : (Given ϵ 0 = 8.85 × 10
−12
C
2
N
−1
m
−2
)
(1) 15.7 × 10 −8
C (2) 17.7 × 10 −8
C

(3) −15.7 × 10 −8
C (4) −17.7 × 10 −8
C

Q4. An electric dipole is placed at a distance of 2 cm from an infinite plane sheet having positive charge density σ . o

Choose the correct option from the following.

32
Electrostatics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) Potential energy and torque both are maximum. (2) Torque on dipole is zero and net force is directed
away from the sheet.
(3) Torque on dipole is zero and net force acts (4) Potential energy of dipole is minimum and torque
towards the sheet. is zero.

Q5. Three infinitely long wires with linear charge density λ are placed along the x − axis, y-axis and z− axis
respectively. Which of the following denotes an equipotential surface?
(1) xyz = constant (2) xy + yz + zx = constant
(3) (x 2 2
+ y ) (y
2 2
+ z ) (z
2 2
+ x ) = constant (4) (x + y)(y + z)(z + x) = constant

Q6. A particle of mass ' m ' and charge ' q ' is fastened to one end ' A ' of a massless string having equilibrium length
l, whose other end is fixed at point ' O '. The whole system is placed on a frictionless horizontal plane and is
initially at rest. If uniform electric field is switched on along the direction as shown in figure, then the speed of

the particle when it crosses the x -axis is

(1) √ qEl (2) √ qEl

2 m m

(3) √ qEl (4) √ 2qEl

4 m m

Q7. An electric dipole of dipole moment 6 × 10 −6

Cm is placed in uniform electric field of magnitude 10 6
V/m .
Initially, the dipole moment is parallel to electric field. The work that needs to be done on the dipole to make its
dipole moment opposite to the field, will be ____ J.

Q8. A square loop of sides a = 1 m is held normally in front of a point charge q = 1C. The flux of the electric field

through the shaded region is 5

p
×
1

ε0
Nm

C
, where the value of p is _____.

Q9. A small uncharged conducting sphere is placed in contact with an identical sphere but having 4 × 10 −8
C charge
and then removed to a distance such that the force of repulsion between them is 9 × 10 −3
N . The distance
between them is (Take 1

4πϵ o
as 9 × 10 9
inSI units)
(1) 3 cm (2) 2 cm
(3) 4 cm (4) 1 cm

33
Electrostatics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q10.

2 2

(1) Kq
0
(4 − 2√ 2) (2) Kq
0
(3 − √ 2)
a a
2 2

(3) Kq
0
(4√ 2 − 2) (4) Kq
0
(3√ 2 − 2)
a a

Q11. A point particle of charge Q is located at P along the axis of an electric dipole 1 at a distance r as shown in the
figure. The point P is also on the equatorial plane of a second electric dipole 2 at a distance r . The dipoles are
made of opposite charge q separated by a distance 2a. For the charge particle at P not to experience any net

force, which of the following correctly describes the situation?

(1) a

r
∼ 10 (2) a

r
∼ 20

(3) a

r
∼ 0.5 (4) a

r
∼ 3

Q12. A positive ion A and a negative ion B has charges 6.67 × 10 −19
C and 9.6 × 10 −10
, and masses
C

19.2 × 10
−27
kg and 9 × 10 −27
kg respectively. At an instant, the ions are separated by a certain distance r. At
that instant the ratio of the magnitudes of electrostatic force to gravitational force is P × 10
45
, where the value
of 10P is (Take 1

4πε 0
= 9 × 10 Nm C
9 2 −1
and universal gravitational constant as 6.67 × 10 −11
Nm
2
kg
−2

)
Assume that charge may not be an integral multiple of electrons.

Q13. Two charges 7μc and −4μc are placed at (−7 cm, 0, 0) and (7 cm, 0, 0) respectively. Given,
ϵ 0 = 8.85 × 10
−12
C
2
N
−1
m
−2
, the electrostatic potential energy of the charge configuration is :
(1) -1.8 J (2) -2.0 J
(3) -1.5 J (4) -1.2 J

34
Electrostatics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q14. Two point charges −4μc and 4μc, constituting an electric dipole, are placed at (−9, 0, 0)cm and (9, 0, 0)cm in
a uniform electric field of strength 10 4
NC
−1
. The work done on the dipole in rotating it from the equilibrium
through 180 is :
∘

(1) 18.4 mJ (2) 14.4 mJ

(3) 12.4 mJ (4) 16.4 mJ

Q15. An electron is made to enter symmetrically between two parallel and equally but oppositely charged metal
plates, each of 10 cm length. The electron emerges out of the electric field region with a horizontal component
of velocity 10 6
m/s . If the magnitude of the electric field between the plates is 9.1 V/cm, then the vertical
component of velocity of electron is (mass of electron = 9.1 × 10 −31
kg and charge of electron
= 1.6 × 10
−19
C )
(1) 0 (2) 1 × 10 6
m/s

(3) 16 × 10 6
m/s (4) 16 × 10 4
m/s

Q16. A line charge of length ' a '

2
is kept at the center of an edge BC of a cube ABCDEF GH having edge length '
a ' as shown in the figure. If the density of line charge is λ C per unit length, then the total electric flux through

all the faces of the cube will be . (Take, ϵ as the free space permittivity)
0

(1) λa

2ϵ 0
(2) λa

4ϵ 0

(3) λa

16ϵ 0
(4) λa

8ϵ 0

Q17. For a short dipole placed at origin O, the dipole moment P is along x-axis, as shown in the figure. If the
electric potential and electric field at A are V and E , respectively, then the correct combination of the electric
0 0

potential and electric field, respectively, at point B on the y-axis is given by

(1) V and
0
E0

4
(2) zero and E0

16

(3) zero and E0

8
(4) V0

2
and E0

16

35
Capacitance Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. A capacitor, C 1 = 6μ F is charged to a potential difference of V 0 = 5 V using a 5 V battery. The battery is

removed and another capacitor, C 2 = 12μ F is inserted in place of the battery. When the switch 'S' is closed, the
charge flows between the capacitors for some time until equilibrium condition is reached. What are the charges
(q1 and q 2) on the capacitors C and C when equilibrium condition is reached.
1 2

(1) q 1 = 10μC, q2 = 20μC (2) q 1 = 30μC, q2 = 15μC

(3) q 1 = 20μC, q2 = 10μC (4) q 1 = 15μC, q2 = 30μC

Q2. A parallel plate capacitor consisting of two circular plates of radius 10 cm is being charged by a constant current
of 0.15 A . If the rate of change of potential difference between the plates is 7 × 10 8
V/s then the integer value
of the distance between the parallel plates is ( Take, ϵ 0 = 9 × 10
−12 F

m
,π =
22

7
) ________ μm.

Q3. Two capacitors C and C are connected in parallel to a battery. Charge-time graph is shown below for the two
1 2

capacitors. The energy stored with them are U and U , respectively. Which of the given statements is true?
1 2

(1) C 2 > C1, U2 < U1 (2) C 1 > C2, U1 > U2

(3) C 1 > C2, U1 < U2 (4) C 2 > C1, U2 > U1

Q4. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 1μ F is charged to a potential difference of 20 V . The distance
between plates is 1μ m. The energy density between plates of capacitor is.
(1) 2 × 10 −4
J/m
3
(2) 1.8 × 10 5
J/m
3

(3) 1.8 × 10 3
J/m
3
(4) 2 × 10 2
J/m
3

Q5. A parallel plate capacitor was made with two rectangular plates, each with a length of l = 3 cm and breath of
b = 1 cm . The distance between the plates is 3μ m. Out of the following, which are the ways to increase the
capacitance by a factor of 10 ? A. l = 30 cm, b = 1 cm, d = 1μ m B. l = 3 cm, b = 1 cm, d = 30μ m C.
l = 6 cm, b = 5 cm, d = 3μ m D. l = 1 cm, b = 1 cm, d = 10μ m E. l = 5 cm, b = 2 cm, d = 1μ m

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A only (2) C only
(3) B and D only (4) C and E only

36
Capacitance Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q6. Consider a parallel plate capacitor of area A (of each plate) and separation 'd' between the plates. If E is the
electric field and ε is the permittivity of free space between the plates, then potential energy stored in the
0

capacitor is
(1) ε 2
0E Ad (2) 1

2
2
ε0E Ad

(3) 1

4
2
ε0E Ad (4) 3

4
2
ε0E Ad

Q7. Identify the valid statements relevant to the given circuit at the instant when the key is closed.

A. There will be no current through resistor R. B. There will be maximum current in the connecting wires. C.
Potential difference between the capacitor plates A and B is minimum. D. Charge on the capacitor plates is
minimum. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C Only (2) A, B, D Only
(3) C, D Only (4) B, C, D Only

Q8. A time varying potential difference is applied between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance
2.5μ F . The dielectric constant of the medium between the capacitor plates is 1 . It produces an instantaneous
displacement current of 0.25 mA in the intervening space between the capacitor plates, the magnitude of the rate
of change of the potential difference will be _____ Vs . −1

Q9. At steady state the charge on the capacitor, as shown in the circuit below, is μC .

Q10. A parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance 40μ F is connected to a 100 V power supply. Now the intermediate
space between the plates is filled with a dielectric material of dielectric constant K = 2. Due to the
introduction of dielectric material, the extra charge and the change in the electrostatic energy in the capacitor,
respectively, are
(1) 4 mC and 0.2 J (2) 8 mC and 2.0 J
(3) 2 mC and 0.4 J (4) 2 mC and 0.2 J

37
Current Electricity Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. The difference of temperature in a material can convert heat energy into electrical energy. To harvest the heat
energy, the material should have
(1) high thermal conductivity and high electrical (2) low thermal conductivity and low electrical
conductivity conductivity
(3) high thermal conductivity and low electrical (4) low thermal conductivity and high electrical
conductivity conductivity

Q2. A wire of resistance R is bent into an equilateral triangle and an identical wire is bent into a square. The ratio of
resistance between the two end points of an edge of the triangle to that of the square is Options
(1) 8/9 (2) 27/32
(3) 32/27 (4) 9/8

Q3. Find the equivalent resistance between two ends of the following circuit

(1) r

9
(2) r

(3) r (4) r

Q4. The value of current I in the electrical circuit as given below, when potential at A is equal to the potential at B,

will be ____ A.

Q5. A wire of resistance 9Ω is bent to form an equilateral triangle. Then the equivalent resistance across any two
vertices will be _____ ohm.

Q6. A galvanometer having a coil of resistance 30Ω need 20 mA of current for full-scale deflection. If a maximum
current of 3 A is to be measured using this galvanometer, the resistance of the shunt to be added to the
galvanometer should be 30

X
Ω , where X is Options
(1) 596 (2) 149
(3) 298 (4) 447

38
Current Electricity Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q7.

What is the current through the battery in the circuit shown below
(1) 1.5 A (2) 0.5 A
(3) 0.25 A (4) 1.0 A

Q8. Given below are two statements : Statement-I : The equivalent emf of two nonideal batteries connected in
parallel is smaller than either of the two emfs. Statement-II : The equivalent internal resistance of two nonideal
batteries connected in parallel is smaller than the internal resistance of either of the two batteries. In the light of
the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false (2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true (4) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false

Q9.

Sliding contact of a potentiometer is in the middle of the potentiometer wire having resistance R p = 1Ω as
shown in the figure. An external resistance of R e = 2Ω is connected via the sliding contact. The electric current
in the circuit is :
(1) 0.9 A (2) 1.35 A
(3) 0.3 A (4) 1.0 A

Q10. Which of the following resistivity ( ρ ) v/s temperature (T) curves is most suitable to be used in wire bound
standard resistors?

39
Current Electricity Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q11. The net current flowing in the given circuit is_______ A.

40
Magnetic Properties of Matter Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1.

A bar magnet has total length 2l = 20 units and the field point P is at a distance d = 10 units from the centre of
the magnet. If the relative uncertainty of length measurement is 1%, then uncertainty of the magnetic field at
point P is :
(1) 4% (2) 15%
(3) 5% (4) 10%

41
Magnetic Effects of Current Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. Consider a long straight wire of a circular cross-section (radius a) carrying a steady current I. The current is
uniformly distributed across this cross-section. The distances from the centre of the wire's cross-section at
which the magnetic field [inside the wire, outside the wire] is half of the maximum possible magnetic field, any
where due to the wire, will be
(1) [a/4, 3a/2] (2) [a/4, 2a]
(3) [a/2, 2a] (4) [a/2, 3a]

Q2. The magnetic field inside a 200 turns solenoid of radius 10 cm is 2.9 × 10 −4
. If the solenoid carries a
Tesla

current of 0.29 A , then the length of the solenoid is ________ πcm.

Q3. Consider a long thin conducting wire carrying a uniform current I. A particle having mass " M " and charge " q "
is released at a distance " a " from the wire with a speed v along the direction of current in the wire. The
0

particle gets attracted to the wire due to magnetic force. The particle turns round when it is at distance x from
the wire. The value of x is [ μ is vacuum permeability]
0
4πmv

(1) ae (2) a [1 −
o
− mvo
qμ I
o ]
2qμoI

(3) a [1 − qμoI
mv
] (4) a

Q4.

An infinite wire has a circular bend of radius a, and carrying a current I as shown in figure. The magnitude of
magnetic field at the origin O of the arc is given by :
(1) μ0

4π
I

a
[
π

2
+ 1] (2) μ0

4π
I

a
[
3π

2
+ 2]

(3) μ0

2π
I

a
[
π

2
+ 2] (4) μ0

4π
I

a
[
3π

2
+ 1]

Q5. A current of 5A exists in a square loop of side 1

√2
m. Then the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the centre
of the square loop will be p × 10 −6
. where, value of p is _____ . [ Take μ
T 0 = 4π × 10
−7
TmA
−1
] .

Q6. A long straight wire of a circular cross-section with radius ' a ' carries a steady current I . The current I is
uniformly distributed across this cross-section. The plot of magnitude of magnetic field B with distance r from
the centre of the wire is given by

42
Magnetic Effects of Current Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q7.

N equally spaced charges each of value q , are placed on a circle of radius R . The circle rotates about its axis
with an angular velocity ω as shown in the figure. A bigger Amperian loop B encloses the whole circle where as
a smaller Amperian loop A encloses a small segment. The difference between enclosed currents, I A , for the
− IB

given Amperian loops is

2

(1) 2π

N
qω (2) N

2π
qω

(3) N

π
qω (4) N

2π
qω

Q8. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A electron in a certain region of uniform magnetic field is moving with constant velocity in a
straight line path. Reason (R): The magnetic field in that region is along the direction of velocity of the electron.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

43
Magnetic Effects of Current Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
explanation of (A)

Q9. A tightly wound long solenoid carries a current of 1.5 A . An electron is executing uniform circular motion
inside the solenoid with a time period of 75 ns . The number of turns per metre in the solenoid is … … -. [Take
mass of electron m e = 9 × 10
−31
kg , charge of electron |q
e| = 1.6 × 10
−19
C ,
−7 N −9
μ0 = 4π × 10 2
, 1 ns = 10 s]
A

Q10. Consider a moving coil galvanomenter (MCG): A. The torsional constant in moving coil galvanometer has
dimentions [ML 2
T
−2
] B. Increasing the current sensitivity may not necessarily increase the voltage
sensitivity. C. If we increase number of turns (N) to its double (2 N), then the voltage sensitivity doubles. D.
MCG can be converted into an ammeter by introducing a shunt resistance of large value in parallel with
galvanometer. E. Current sensitivity of MCG depends inversely on number of turns of coil. Choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) A, D Only (2) A, B, E Only
(3) B, D, E Only (4) A, B Only

Q11. An electron projected perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B moves in a circle. If Bohr's quantization is
applicable, then the radius of the electronic orbit in the first excited state is :
(1) √ h (2) √ 2h

πeeB πeB

(3) √ h (4) √ 4 h

2πeB πeB

Q12. A proton is moving undeflected in a region of crossed electric and magnetic fields at a constant speed of
2 × 10
5
ms
−1
. When the electric field is switched off, the proton moves along a circular path of radius 2 cm .
The magnitude of electric field is x × 10 4
. The value of x is _______ Take the mass of the proton
N/C

= 1.6 × 10
−27
kg .

Q13. Two long parallel wires X and Y , separated by a distance of 6 cm , carry currents of 5A and 4A, respectively,
in opposite directions as shown in the figure. Magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at point P at a distance
of 4 cm from wire Y is x × 10 −5
T . The value of x is__________ . Take permeability of free space as

μ0 = 4π × 10
−7
SI units.

44
Electromagnetic Induction Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

→ about an axis
Q1. A coil of area A and N turns is rotating with angular velocity ω in a uniform magnetic field B
→ →
perpendicular to B. Magnetic flux φ and induced emf ε across it, at an instant when B is parallel to the plane of
coil, are :
(1) φ = AB, ε = 0 (2) φ = 0, ε = 0
(3) φ = 0, ε = NABω (4) φ = AB, ε = NABω

Q2. Consider I and I are the currents flowing simultaneously in two nearby coils 1 & 2, respectively. If L
1 2 1 = self
inductance of coil 1, M 12 = mutual inductance of coil 1 with respect to coil 2, then the value of induced emf in
coil 1 will be Options
(1) ε1 = −L1
dI2

dt
− M12
dI1

dt
(2) ε 1 = −L1
dI1

dt
− M12
dI2

dt

(3) ε1 = −L1
dI1

dt
− M12
dI1

dt
(4) ε 1 = −L1
dI1

dt
+ M12
dI2

dt

Q3. A uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T acts perpendicular to a circular copper disc 20 cm in radius. The disc is
having a uniform angular velocity of 10πrads −1
about an axis through its centre and perpendicular to the disc.
What is the potential difference developed between the axis of the disc and the rim ? (π = 3.14)
(1) 0.5024 V (2) V

(3) 0.2512V V (4) 0.1256V V

Q4.

A conducting bar moves on two conducting rails as shown in the figure. A constant magnetic field B exists into
the page. The bar starts to move from the vertex at time t = 0 with a constant velocity. If the induced EMF is
E ∝ t , then value of n is _.
n

Q5. Regarding self-inductance: A. The self-inductance of the coil depends on its geometry. B. Self-inductance does
not depend on the permeability of the medium. C. Self-induced e.m.f. opposes any change in the current in a
circuit. D. Self-inductance is electromagnetic analogue of mass in mechanics. E. Work needs to be done against
self-induced e.m.f. in establishing the current. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C, E only (2) B, C, D, E only
(3) A, C, D, E only (4) A, B, C, D only

Q6.

In the given circuit the sliding contact is pulled outwards such that electric current in the circuit changes at the
rate of 8 A/s. At an instant when R is 12Ω, the value of the current in the circuit will be ______ A.

Q7. A rectangular metallic loop is moving out of a uniform magnetic field region to a field free region with a
constant speed. When the loop is partially inside the magnate field, the plot of magnitude of induced emf (ε)
with time (t) is given by

45
Electromagnetic Induction Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

46
Alternating Current Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Choke coil is simply a coil having a large inductance but a small resistance. Choke coils are
used with fluorescent mercury-tube fittings. If household electric power is directly connected to a mercury tube,
the tube will be damaged. Reason (R): By using the choke coil, the voltage across the tube is reduced by a
factor (R/√R 2 2
+ ω L )
2
, where ω is frequency of the supply across resistor R and inductor L . If the choke
coil were not used, the voltage across the resistor would be the same as the applied voltage. In the light of the
above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)

Q2. An alternating current is given by I = I A sin ωt + I B cos ωt . The r.m.s current will be
(1) (2) √
|I +I B | 2 2
A
I +I
A B
√2
2

(3) √I 2
+ I
2 (4) √I
2

A
+I
2

B
A B
2

Q3. In a series LCR circuit, a resistor of 300Ω, a capacitor of 25 nF and an inductor of 100 mH are used. For
maximum current in the circuit, the angular frequency of the ac source is _____ ×10 radians s . 4 −1

Q4. A series LCR circuit is connected to an alternating source of emf E. The current amplitude at resonant frequency
is I . If the value of resistance R becomes twice of its initial value then amplitude of current at resonance will
0

be
(1) 2I 0 (2) I 0

(3) I0

2
(4) I0

√2

47
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. At the interface between two materials having refractive indices n and n , the critical angle for reflection of an
1 2

em wave is θ . The n material is replaced by another material having refractive index n such that the critical
1C 2 3

angle at the interface between n and n materials is θ . If n

1 3 2C 3 > n2 > n1;
n2

n3
=
2

5
and sin θ 2C − sin θ1C =
1

2
,
then θ1C is
(1) sin −1
(
1

6
) (2) sin−1
(
1

3
)

(3) sin −1
(
−5

6
) (4) sin−1
(
2

3
)

Q2. Let u and v be the distances of the object and the image from a lens of focal length f . The correct graphical
representation of u and v for a convex lens when |u| >, is
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q3. Two light beams fall on a transparent material block at point 1 and 2 with angle θ and θ respectively, as shown
1
′
2

in figure. After refraction, the beams intersect at point 3 which is exactly on the interface at other end of the
block. Given : the distance between 1 and 2, d = 4√3 cm and θ 1 = θ2 = cos
−1
(
n2

2n1
), where refractive index

48
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

of the block n 2 > refractive index of the outside medium n , then the thickness of the block is ________ cm.
1

Q4. Two identical symmetric double convex lenses of focal length f are cut into two equal parts L 1, L2 by AB plane
and L 3, L4 by XY plane as shown in figure respectively. The ratio of focal lengths of lenses L and L is
1 3

(1) 1:1 (2) 1:2

(3) 1:4 (4) 2:1

Q5. A convex lens made of glass (refractive index = 1.5 ) has focal length 24 cm in air. When it is totally immersed
in water (refractive index = 1.33 ), its focal length changes to
(1) 24 cm (2) 96 cm
(3) 48 cm (4) 72 cm

Q6.

Two concave refracting surfaces of equal radii of curvature and refractive index 1.5 face each other in air as

49
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

shown in figure. A point object O is placed midway, between P and B . The separation between the images of O,
formed by each refracting surface is :
(1) 0.214 R (2) 0.411 R
(3) 0.124 R (4) 0.114 R

Q7. A thin prism P with angle 4 made of glass having refractive index 1.54 , is combined with another thin prism
1
∘

P2 made of glass having refractive index 1.72 to get dispersion without deviation. The angle of the prism P in 2

degrees is
(1) 3 (2) 16/3
(3) 4 (4) 1.5

Q8. A hemispherical vessel is completely filled with a liquid of refractive index μ. A small coin is kept at the lowest
point (O) of the vessel as shown in figure. The minimum value of the refractive index of the liquid so that a
person can see the coin from point E (at the level of the vessel) is

(1) √3 (2) √3

(3) 3

2
(4) √2

Q9. A concave mirror produces an image of an object such that the distance between the object and image is 20 cm .
If the magnification of the image is ' -3 ', then the magnitude of the radius of curvature of the mirror is :
(1) 30 cm (2) 3.75 cm
(3) 15 cm (4) 7.5 cm

Q10. In a long glass tube, mixture of two liquids A and B with refractive indices 1.3 and 1.4 respectively, forms a
convex refractive meniscus towards A. If an object placed at 13 cm from the vertex of the meniscus in A forms
an image with a magnification of ' −2 then the radius of curvature of meniscus is :
′

(1) 1

3
cm (2) 4

3
cm

(3) 1 cm (4) 2

3
cm

Q11. What is the relative decrease in focal length of a lens for an increase in optical power by 0.1 D from 2.5D ? ['D'
stands for dioptre]
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.04
(3) 0.40 (4) 0.1

Q12. A thin plano convex lens made of glass of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.2.
When the plane side of the lens is silver coated for complete reflection, the lens immersed in the liquid
behaves like a concave mirror of focal length 0.2 m . The radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lens
is

50
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) 0.20 m (2) 0.25 m

(3) 0.15 m (4) 0.10 m

Q13. A plano-convex lens having radius of curvature of first surface 2 cm exhibits focal length of f in air. Another
1

plano-convex lens with first surface radius of curvature 3 cm has focal length of f when it is immersed in a
2

liquid of refractive index 1.2 . If both the lenses are made of same glass of refractive index 1.5 , the ratio of f 1

and f will be
2

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 2 : 3

Q14. A photograph of a landscape is captured by a drone camera at a height of 18 km . The size of the camera film
is 2 cm × 2 cm and the area of the landscape photographed is 400 km . The focal length of the lens in the
2

drone camera is :
(1) 1.8 cm (2) 0.9 cm
(3) 2.8 cm (4) 2.5 cm

Q15. A spherical surface of radius of curvature R, separates air from glass (refractive index = 1.5 ). The centre of
curvature is in the glass medium. A point object ' O ' placed in air on the optic axis of the surface, so that its
real image is formed at ' I ' inside glass. The line OI intersects the spherical surface at P and PO = PI. The
distance PO equals to
(1) 5 R (2) 3 R
(3) 1.5 R (4) 2 R

Q16. Given a thin convex lens (refractive index μ ), kept in a liquid (refractive index μ
2 1, μ1 < μ2 ) having radii of
curvatures |R | and |R |. Its second surface is silver polished. Where should an object be placed on the optic
1 2

axis so that a real and inverted image is formed at the same place?
(1) μ1|R1|⋅|R2|

μ2(|R1|+|R2|)−μ1|R2|
(2) μ1|R1|⋅|R2|

μ2(|R1|+|R2|)−μ1|R1|

(3) (4)
(μ2+μ1)|R1| μ1|R1|⋅|R2|

(μ2−μ1)
μ2(2|R1|+|R2|)−μ1√ |R1|⋅|R2|

Q17. What is the lateral shift of a ray refracted through a parallel-sided glass slab of thickness ' h ' in terms of the
angle of incidence ' i ' and angle of refraction ' r ', if the glass slab is placed in air medium?
(1) h tan(i−r)

tan r
(2) h sin(i−r)

cos r

(3) h (4) h cos(i−r)

sin r

Q18. A concave mirror of focal length f in air is dipped in a liquid of refractive index μ. Its focal length in the liquid
will be:
(1) μf (2) f
(3) (4)
f f

(μ−1) μ

Q19. 5 The refractive index of the material of a glass prism is √3. The angle of minimum deviation is equal to the
angle of the prism. What is the angle of the prism?
(1) 60 ∘
(2) 58 ∘

(3) 48 ∘
(4) 50 ∘

51
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q20. Given is a thin convex lens of glass (refractive index μ ) and each side having radius of curvature R. One side
is polished for complete reflection. At what distance from the lens, an object be placed on the optic axis so that
the image gets formed on the object itself ?
(1) R/μ (2) R/(2μ − 3)
(3) μR (4) R/(2μ − 1)

Q21. In the diagram given below, there are three lenses formed. Considering negligible thickness of each of them as
compared to |R | and |R |, i.e., the radii of curvature for upper and lower surfaces of the glass lens, the power
1 2

of the combination is
(1) 1

6
(
1

|R1|
−
1

|R2|
) (2) − 1

6
(
1

|R1|
+
1

|R2|
)

(3) 1

6
(
1

|R1|
+
1

|R2|
) (4) − 1

6
(
1

|R1|
−
1

|R2|
)

Q22. The driver sitting inside a parked car is watching vehicles approaching from behind with the help of his side
view mirror, which is a convex mirror with radius of curvature R = 2 m. Another car approaches him from
behind with a uniform speed of 90 km/hr. When the car is at a distance of 24 m from him, the magnitude of
the acceleration of the image of the car in the side view mirror is ' a '. The value of 100 a is _______ m/s . 2

Q23. A symmetric thin biconvex lens is cut into four equal parts by two planes AB and CD as shown in figure. If
the power of original lens is 4 D then the power of a part of the divided lens is

(1) D (2) 8D
(3) 2D (4) 4D

52
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q24. A transparent film of refractive index, 2.0 is coated on a glass slab of refractive index, 1.45. What is the
minimum thickness of transparent film to be coated for the maximum transmission of Green light of
wavelength 550 nm . [Assume that the light is incident nearly perpendicular to the glass surface.]
(1) 137.5 nm (2) 275 nm
(3) 94.8 nm (4) 68.7 nm

53
Wave Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. A double slit interference experiment performed with a light of wavelength 600 nm forms an interference fringe
pattern on a screen with 10 th bright fringe having its centre at a distance of 10 mm from the central maximum.
Distance of the centre of the same 10th bright fringe from the central maximum when the source of light is
replaced by another source of wavelength 660 nm would be _________ mm .

Q2. Which of the following phenomena can not be explained by wave theory of light?
(1) Compton effect (2) Refraction of light
(3) Reflection of light (4) Diffraction of light

Q3. The Young's double slit interference experiment is performed using light consisting of 480 nm and 600 nm
wavelengths to form interference patterns. The least number of the bright fringes of 480 nm light that are
required for the first coincidence with the bright fringes formed by 600 nm light is
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8

Q4. Young's double slit inteference apparatus is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.44. It has slit separation
of 1.5 mm . The slits are illuminated by a parallel beam of light whose wavelength in air is 690 nm . The fringe-
width on a screen placed behind the plane of slits at a distance of 0.72 m , will be :
(1) 0.23 mm (2) 0.33 mm
(3) 0.63 mm (4) 0.46 mm

Q5. In a Young's double slit experiment, three polarizers are kept as shown in the figure. The transmission axes of
P1 and P are orthogonal to each other. The polarizer P covers both the slits with its transmission axis at 45 to
2 3
∘

those of P and P . An unpolarized light of wavelength λ and intensity I is incident on P and P . The intensity
1 2 0 1 2

at a point after P where the path difference between the light waves from s and s is
3 1 2
λ

3
, is

(1) I0

2
(2) I0

(3) I0

3
(4) I 0

Q6. The ratio of the power of a light source S to that the light source S is 2. S is emitting 2 × 10 photons per
1 2 1
15

second at 600 nm . If the wavelength of the source S is 300 nm , then the number of photons per second
2

emitted by S is … … ×10 .
2
14

54
Wave Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q7. The width of one of the two slits in Young's double slit experiment is d while that of the other slit is x d. If the
ratio of the maximum to the minimum intensity in the interference pattern on the screen is 9 : 4 then what is the
value of x ? (Assume that the field strength varies according to the slit width.)
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 2

Q8. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion-(A) : If Young's double slit experiment is performed in an optically denser medium than air, then the
consecutive fringes come closer. Reason-(R) : The speed of light reduces in an optically denser medium than air
while its frequency does not change. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
correct explanation of (A) explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Q9. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In Young's double slit experiment, the fringes produced by red light are closer as compared to
those produced by blue light. Reason (R): The fringe width is directly proportional to the wavelength of light. In
the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
explanation of (A)

55
Dual Nature of Matter Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. If λ and K are de Broglie wavelength and kinetic energy, respectively, of a particle with constant mass. The
correct graphical representation for the particle will be
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q2. In an experiment with photoelectric effect, the stopping potential,

(1) increases with increase in the intensity of the (2) decreases with increase in the intensity of the
incident light incident light
(3) increases with increase in the wavelength of the (4) is ( 1

e
) times the maximum kinetic energy of the
incident light emitted photoelectrons

Q3. A proton of mass ' m ' has same energy as that of a photon of wavelength ' λ '. If the proton is moving at non-
p

relativistic speed, then ratio of its de Broglie wavelength to the wavelength of photon is.
(1) 1
√
E
(2) 1
√
2E

c mp c mp

(3) 1
√
E
(4) 1
√
E

2c mp c 2 mp

Q4. An electron of mass ' m ' with an initial velocity→

v = v ^
i (v 0 > 0)
→
enters an electric field E = −E k
^
. If the
0 o

initial de Broglie wavelength is λ , the value after time t would be

0

56
Dual Nature of Matter Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) λ0
(2) 2
e E t
2
0
2

λ o √1 +
2 2 2
e E t
0
√ 1+ m v
2 2
2 2 o
m v
0

(3) λ0

2 2 2
(4) λ 0
e Eo t
√ 1−
2 2
m v
o

Q5. In photoelectric effect, the stopping potential (V 0 )v/s frequency (ν) curve is plotted. ( h is the Planck's constant
and ϕ is work function of metal ) (A) V is linear. (B) The slope of V curve = (C) h constant is
ϕ0
0 0 v/sν 0 v/sν
h

related to the slope of V 0 v/sν line. (D) The value of electric charge of electron is not required to determine h
using the V 0 v/sν curve. (E) The work function can be estimated without knowing the value of h. Choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (C) and (E) only
(3) (A), (B) and (C) only (4) (D) and (E) only

Q6. The energy E and momentum p of a moving body of mass m are related by some equation. Given that c
represents the speed of light, identify the correct equation
(1) E 2
= pc
2 2
+ m c
2
(2) E 2 2
= p c
2
+ m c
2 2

(3) E 2
= pc
2 2
+ m c
4
(4) E 2 2
= p c
2
+ m c
2 4

Q7. A sub-atomic particle of mass 10 −30

kg is moving with a velocity 2.21 × 10 6
m/s . Under the matter wave
consideration, the particle will behave closely like (h = 6.63 × 10
−34
J. s)

(1) Visible radiation (2) Gamma rays

(3) Infra-red radiation (4) X-rays

Q8. In photoelectric effect an em-wave is incident on a metal surface and electrons are ejected from the surface. If
the work function of the metal is 2.14 eV and stopping potential is 2 V , what is the wavelength of the em-wave
? (Given hc = 1242eVnm where h is the Planck's constant and c is the speed of light in vaccum.)
(1) 300 nm (2) 400 nm
(3) 600 nm (4) 200 nm

Q9. An electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom has the orbital radius of 5.3 × 10 −11
m while that for the
electron in third excited state is 8.48 × 10 −10
m . The ratio of the de Broglie wavelengths of electron in the
excited state to that in the ground state is
(1) 3 (2) 16
(3) 9 (4) 4

Q10. The work functions of cesium (Cs) and lithium (Li) metals are 1.9 eV and 2.5 eV , respectively. If we incident
a light of wavelength 550 nm on these two metal surfaces, then photo-electric effect is possible for the case of
(1) Both Cs and Li (2) Neither Cs nor Li
(3) Cs only (4) Li only

Q11. A light source of wavelength λ illuminates a metal surface and electrons are ejected with maximum kinetic
energy of 2 eV . If the same surface is illuminated by a light source of wavelength λ

2
, then the maximum
kinetic energy of ejected electrons will be (The work function of metal is 1 eV )
(1) 3 eV (2) 2 eV
(3) 6 eV (4) 5 eV

57
Atomic Physics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Emission of electrons in photoelectric effect can be suppressed by applying a sufficiently
negative electron potential to the photoemissive substance. Reason (R) : A negative electric potential, which
stops the emission of electrons from the surface of a photoemissive substance, varies linearly with frequency of
incident radiation. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
explanation of (A) correct explanation of (A)

Q2. The number of spectral lines emitted by atomic hydrogen that is in the 4 th
energy level, is
(1) 3 (2) 1
(3) 6 (4) 0

Q3. The frequency of revolution of the electron in Bohr's orbit varies with n, the principal quantum number as
(1) 1

n
4
(2) 1

n
2

(3) 1

n
(4) 1

n
3

Q4. During the transition of electron from state A to state C of a Bohr atom, the wavelength of emitted radiation is
2000 Å and it becomes 6000Å when the electron jumps from state B to state C. Then the wavelength of the
radiation emitted during the transition of electrons from state A to state B is
(1) 4000Å (2) 2000Å
(3) 3000Å (4) 6000Å

Q5. Arrange the following in the ascending order of wavelength (λ) : (A) Microwaves (λ 1) (B) Ultraviolet rays (λ
2)

(C) Infrared rays (λ 3) (D) X-rays (λ

4) Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) λ 4 < λ3 < λ2 < λ1 (2) λ 3 < λ4 < λ2 < λ1

(3) λ 4 < λ3 < λ1 < λ2 (4) λ 4 < λ2 < λ3 < λ1

58
Nuclear Physics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. Choose the correct nuclear process from the below options [p: proton, n : neutron, e : electron, e : positron, v :
− +

neutrino, v̄ : antineutrino]
(1) n → p + e +
+ v̄ (2) n → p + e +
+ v

(3) n → p + e −
+ v (4) n → p + e −
+ v̄

Q2. A radioactive nucleus n has 3 times the decay constant as compared to the decay constant of another
2

radioactive nucleus n . If initial number of both nuclei are the same, what is the ratio of number of nuclei of n
1 2

to the number of nuclei of n , after one half-life of n ?

1 1

(1) 1/8 (2) 8

(3) 4 (4) 1/4

Q3. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The binding energy per nucleon is found to be practically independent of the atomic number A,
for nuclei with mass numbers between 30 and 170. Reason (R): Nuclear force is long range. In the light of the
above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
explanation of (A) correct explanation of (A)

59
Electromagnetic Waves Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Electromagnetic waves carry energy but not momentum. Reason (R): Mass of a photon is zero.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
explanation of (A) correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) (A) is true but (R) is false

Q2. A plane electromagnetic wave propagates along the +x direction in free space. The components of the electric
→ and magnetic field, B
field, E → vectors associated with the wave in Cartesian frame are
(1) E x, By (2) E y, Bz

(3) E z, By (4) E y, Bx

Q3. Due to presence of an em-wave whose electric component is given by E = 100 sin(ωt − kx)NC , a cylinder −1

of length 200 cm holds certain amount of em-energy inside it. If another cylinder of same length but half
diameter than previous one holds same amount of em-energy, the magnitude of the electric field of the
corresponding em-wave should be modified as
(1) 400 sin(ωt − kx)NC −1
(2) 200 sin(ωt − kx)NC −1

(3) 50 sin(ωt − kx)NC −1

(4) 25 sin(ωt − kx)NC −1

Q4. The magnetic field of an E.M. wave is given by →

B = (
√3
^
i +
1 ^
j)30 sin [ω (t −
z
)] (S.I. Units). The
2 2 c

corresponding electric field in S.I. units is :

(1) →
E = (
1
^
i −
√3
^
j)30c sin [ω (t −
z
)]
(2) →
E = (
3
^
i +
1
^
j)30c cos [ω (t −
z
)]
2 2 c 4 4 c

(3) →
E = (
1 ^
i +
√3
^
j)30c sin [ω (t +
z
)]
(4) →
E = (
√3
^
i −
1 ^
j)30c sin [ω (t +
z
)]
2 2 c 2 2 c

Q5. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is

→
E = 57 cos [7.5 × 10 t − 5 × 10
6 −3
(3x + 4y)](4^
i − 3^
j)N /C . The associated magnetic field in Tesla is
(1) ⇀
B=
57
8
cos [7.5 × 10 t − 5 × 10
6 −3
(2) B = −
^
(3x + 4y)](k)
→
57
cos [7.5 × 10 t − 5 × 10
6 −3 ^
(3x + 4y)](k)
3×10 8
3×10

(3) →
B = −
57
cos [7.5 × 10 t − 5 × 10
6 −3 (4)
→
^
(3x + 4y)](5k)
B =
57
cos [7.5 × 10 t − 5 × 10
6 −3 ^
(3x + 4y)](5k)
8 8
3×10 3×10

Q6. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 MHz travels in free space along the +x direction. At a particular
point in space and time, the electric field vector of the wave is E y = 9.3Vm
−1
. Then, the magnetic field vector
of the wave at that point is
(1) B z = 6.2 × 10
−8
T (2) B z = 3.1 × 10
−8
T

(3) B z = 1.55 × 10
−8
T (4) B z = 9.3 × 10
−8
T

Q7. A parallel plate capacitor of area A = 16 cm and separation between the plates 10 cm , is charged by a DC
2

current. Consider a hypothetical plane surface of area A 0 = 3.2 cm

2
inside the capacitor and parallel to the
plates. At an instant, the current through the circuit is 6A. At the same instant the displacement current through
A0 is ________ mA .

60
Semiconductors Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1.

For the circuit shown above, equivalent GATE is :

(1) OR gate (2) NAND gate
(3) NOT gate (4) AND gate

Q2. The truth table for the circuit given below is :

61
Semiconductors Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q3. Which of the following circuits has the same outpur as that of the given circuit?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q4.

In the circuit shown here, assuming threshold voltage of diode is negligibly small, then voltage V AB is correctly

62
Semiconductors Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

represented by :
(1) V AB would be zero at all times (2)

(3) (4)

Q5. Consider the following statements: A. The junction area of solar cell is made very narrow compared to a photo
diode. B. Solar cells are not connected with any external bias. C. LED is made of lightly doped p-n junction. D.
Increase of forward current results in continuous increase of LED light intensity. E. LEDs have to be connected
in forward bias for emission of light. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, E Only (2) B, D, E Only
(3) A, C Only (4) A, C, E Only

Q6. The output of the circuit is low (zero) for :

(A) X = 0, Y = 0 (B) X = 0, Y = 1 (C) X = 1, Y = 0 (D) X = 1, Y = 1 Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
(1) (B), (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only (4) (A), (B) and (D) only

Q7. Refer to the circuit diagram given in the figure. which of the following observations are correct? A. Total
resistance of circuit is 6Ω B. Current in Ammeter is 1 A C. Potential across AB is 4 Volts. D. Potential across
CD is 4 Volts E. Total resistance of the circuit is 8Ω. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and D Only (2) A, B and C Only

(3) A, C and D Only (4) B, C and E Only

63
Semiconductors Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q8. Which of the following circuits represents a forward biased diode?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) and (D) only (2) (B), (D) and (E) only
(3) (C) and (E) only (4) (B), (C) and (E) only

Q9.

A B Y

0 0 1

0 1 1

1 0 0

1 1 1

To obtain the given truth table, following logic gate should be placed at G:
(1) OR Gate (2) AND Gate
(3) NOR Gate (4) NAND Gate

64
Experimental Physics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. A tiny metallic rectangular sheet has length and breadth of 5 mm and 2.5 mm , respectively. Using a specially
designed screw gauge which has pitch of 0.75 mm and 15 divisions in the circular scale, you are asked to find
the area of the sheet. In this measurement, the maximum fractional error will be x

100
where x is _________.

Q2. The least count of a screw guage is 0.01 mm . If the pitch is increased by 75% and number of divisions on the
circular scale is reduced by 50%, the new least count will be _____ ×10 −3
mm

Q3. Given below are two statements : Statement I : In a vernier callipers, one vernier scale division is always
smaller than one main scale division. Statement II : The vernier constant is given by one main scale division
multiplied by the number of vernier scale divisions. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

65
Answer Keys Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

MATHEMATICS IN PHYSICS
1. (7700) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (2)

UNITS AND DIMENSIONS

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (0) 6. (4) 7. (1) 8. (4)
9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (1)

MOTION IN ONE DIMENSION

1. (2000) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (1)

MOTION IN TWO DIMENSIONS

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (5) 4. (2)

LAWS OF MOTION
1. (3) 2. (36) 3. (3)

WORK POWER ENERGY

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (152) 8. (4)
9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (2)

CENTER OF MASS MOMENTUM AND COLLISION

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (3)

ROTATIONAL MOTION
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (16) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (3)
9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (90) 13. (1)

GRAVITATION
1. (8) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (9) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (1)

MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS

1. (1) 2. (50) 3. (43)

66
Answer Keys Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS

1. (5) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (54) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (1)
9. (4) 10. (2190) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (1)

OSCILLATIONS
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (4)

WAVES AND SOUND

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (4)

THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER

1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (40)

THERMODYNAMICS
1. (1) 2. (327) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (15) 8. (1)
9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (273) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (3)

KINETIC THEORY OF GASES

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3)

ELECTROSTATICS
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (12) 8. (48)
9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (5) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (4)
17. (2)

CAPACITANCE
1. (1) 2. (1320) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (100)
9. (16) 10. (1)

CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (2)
9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (1)

67
Answer Keys Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

MAGNETIC PROPERTIES OF MATTER

1. (1)

MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT

1. (3) 2. (8) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (8) 6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (3)
9. (250) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (1)

ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (4)

ALTERNATING CURRENT
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3)

RAY OPTICS
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (6) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (1) 8. (4)
9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16. (1)
17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (4) 22. (8) 23. (3) 24. (1)

WAVE OPTICS
1. (11) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (5) 7. (2) 8. (2)
9. (4)

DUAL NATURE OF MATTER

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (1)
9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (4)

ATOMIC PHYSICS
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (4)

NUCLEAR PHYSICS
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (1)

68
Answer Keys Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (1200)

SEMICONDUCTORS
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (4)
9. (3)

EXPERIMENTAL PHYSICS
1. (3) 2. (35) 3. (3)

69
Mathematics in Physics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1.
4
ab
Q =
cd

ΔQ Δa Δ b Δc Δd
⇒ × 100 = [ + 4 + + ] × 100
(7700) Q a b c d

x 3 0.1 0.2 0.1

⇒ = [ + 4( ) + ( ) + ] × 100
1000 60 20 40 50

⇒ x = 7700

2. (2) y = 32.3×1125

27.4
= 1326.18

So we need to report to three significant digit.

So, y = 1330
3. →
A ⋅ B = 0
→

4 − 6n + 8p = 0

→ →
| A| = | B |

2 2
4 + 9n + 4 = 4 + 4 + 16p

2 2

(3) 9n = 16p

3
P = + n
4

4 − 6n ± 6n = 0

12n = 4

1
n =
3

4. dE = 3α dαe
2 −βt
+ α e
3 −βt
(−β)dt

dE 3dα

(1) E
=
α
+ (−β)dt

ΔE 3Δα
= + βΔt
E α

(\%) Δt = 1.6% × 5 = 8%
3Δα
%( ) = 3 × 1.2% = 3.6%
α

Putting values we get

⇒ 3.6 + 8 × 0.3 = 6%

5. d =
m
=
m
⇒
dρ
=
dm
+
2dR
+
dℓ

2
vol. ρ m R ℓ
πR ℓ
(2)
dρ 0.003 2 × 0.01 0.05
⇒ = ( + + ) 100 = 5%
ρ 0.6 0.5 10

70
Units and Dimensions Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1. −1 2
[B][T]
[LT ] = [A] [T ] =
[C] + [T]

[C] = [T]

(4) [A] = [LT

−3
]

−1
[B] = [LT ]

2 −3
[ABC] = [L T ]

2. (2) [Angular momentum ]= ML 2

T
−1

[Planck's Constant] = ML 2
T
−1

[Torque] = ML 2
T
−2

[Energy] = ML 2
T
−2

[Surface tension] = MT −2

[Impulse]= MLT −1

[Pressure ]= ML −1
T
−2

[Young's modulus] = ML −1
T
−2

−2

3. (3) (A) [Y] = F

Δℓ
⇒
MLT

2
= ML
−1
T
−2

A( ) L
ℓ

→
→
(B) Torque (τ→) = r × F

→
(τ ) = L × MLT
−2
= ML
2
T
−2
(IV)

(C) Coefficient of viscosity ⇒ F = ηA

dV

dt

η → Pa ⋅ sec
−2
MLT −1 −1
[η] = × T = ML T
2
L

(D) Gravitational constant (G)

GM1 M2
F =
2
r
2 −2 2
F ⋅ r MLT × L −1 3 −2
[G] = = = M L T
2
m1 m2
M

4. (4) (A) Magnetic induction → Gauss (III)

(B) Magnetic intensity
(H =
B

μ
) → Ampere / meter (IV)
(C) Magnetic flux → Weber (Wb) (II)
(D) Magnetic moment → Ampere-meter 2

→ →
( M = i A)

5. (0) [Modulus of elasticity] = ML −1

T
−2

[Torque] = ML 2
T
−2

[Modulus of elasticity per unit torque]

−1 −2
ML T −3
= = L
2 −2
ML T

71
Units and Dimensions Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

6. Angular impulse = [ML

2
T
−1
]

0 2 −2
Latent Heat = [M L T ]

(4)
3 −3 −2
Electrical resistivity = [ML T A ]

2 −3 −1
Electromotive force = [ML T A ]

7. Dimension [x(t)] = [L]

[A] = [L]

[B] = [L]

−2
[C] = [LT ]
(1)
[D] = [L]

−2
ABC L × L × LT
2 −2
[ ] = [ ] = [L T ]
D L

8. α ≡
ϕ

ϕ
(4) β =
λ

α λ
≡ ≡ displacement
β σ

9. (2) (A) B =
μ0 i
&qvB = F
2πr
−2
Br Fr MLT ×L −2 −2
μ0 ≡ ≡ ≡ ≡ MLT A
i qvi 2 −1
A TLT
−2

(B) B ≡ F MLT −2 −1
≡ = MT A
−1
qV ATLT

(C) M = iA ≡ AL
2

(D) τ = Cθ ⇒ C ≡ ML
2
T
−2

10. (3) For a current carrying loop at centre

μ0 i
B =
2R

B i
−1
∴ ≡ ≡ [AL ]
μ0 R

11. Q
2

Energy =
2C

2
[C ]

(1) ∴ [F] =
2 −2
[ML T ]

2 −1 −2 +2
= [C M L T ]

72
Motion In One Dimension Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

→
1. (2000) v b = 9 + 27 = 36 km/hr

→ 1000
v b = 36 × = 10 m/sec
36000

2 × 10
Time of flight = = 2sec
10

Range = 10 × 2 = 20 m = 2000 cm

2. (3) a p = kt, k is constant

aQ = a, a is constant
aQP = aQ − ap = a − kt

as initial velocities are not mentioned in question, so will have to assume two cases.
Case-I
uOP and a QP
in same direction

Total number of crossing = 2 Case-II

73
Motion In One Dimension Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

uQP and a QP in opposite direction

Total number of crossing = 3

3. (1) Distance travelled = displacement when direction of velocity remains constant
⇒ Distance = Area

1
= (2 s + 4 s)(10 m/s)
2

= 30 m

4. (1) Distance = area under the graph

d = 300 × 2 + 400 × 28.5

= 600 + 114000

= 12000 m

74
Motion In Two Dimensions Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1.
2
(u sin θ)
HMax =
2 g

2 2
(Hmax ) u sin (45 − α)
1
=
2 2
(Hmax ) u sin (45 + α)
2

(2) 1 1
2

( cos α − sin α)
√2 √2

=
2
1 1
( cos α + sin α)
√2 √2

1 − sin 2α
=
1 + sin 2α

2. → 2^
r = 5t i − 5tj

(4) →
^ ^
v = 10 i − 5 j

→
^ ^
v = 20 i − 5 j at t = 2sec

20
tan θ = = 4
5
−1
θ = tan 4

From -veY-axis

75
Motion In Two Dimensions Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

3.

(5)

1
S1 = 30 × 1 − × 10 × 1 = 25
2

−10
S3 = 30 + ( ) × (2 × 3 − 1) = 5
2

S1 25
= = 5
S3 5

4.

(2)

1
2
ki = mv
2

1 2 1
∘ 2
kf = m(v cos 60 ) = mv
2 8

3 3
2
Δk = ki − kf = mv = × 0.1 × 400 = 15 J
8 8

76
Laws of Motion Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1.

(3)

2
mv

So, N = mg cos θ +
r
0
sin θ
2
μmv
0
fr = μmg cos θ + sin θ
r

2
mv
0
And cos θ = mg sin θ + fr
r
2 2
mv mv
0 0
⇒ cos θ − mg sin θ = μ (mg cos θ + sin θ)
r r

2 2
⇒ (v − gr tan θ) = μ (v tan θ + gr)
0 0

2
v − gr tan θ
0
⇒ μ =
2
gr + v tan θ
0

2. ω =
3
× 2π = 6rad/s
(36) π

R = L sin θ

and T = M √g
2
+ ω R
4 2

Also, T sin θ = M ω 2
⋅ L sin θ

⇒ T = M (36)L

⇒ T = 36ML

3. kx1 = 5 N

kx2 = 7 N
(3)
k (5x1 − 2x2 ) = 5kx1 − 2kx2

= 5 × 5 − 2 × 7 = 11 N

77
Work Power Energy Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1.

(2)

2
v 0 = √v + 2g(2R)

2
v0 = √n gR + 4gR

2
2
kbottom v n + 4
0
∴ = =
2 2
ktrog v n

2. (3) Power = F→ ⋅ V→
dp
and F =
dt
= Rate of change of linear momentum
3

F = V ⋅
dm

dt
= K1 V 2 ,K is constant
3

Power (P ) = (KV 2
) ⋅ (V )

= KV 2

So, P 2
∝ V
5

3. (2) Assertion is correct as central forces are conservative in nature, i.e. work done is independent of path.

Reason is true as some forces in mechanics like, friction are non-conservative because work done depends on path
and only conservative forces have an associated potential energy.
Also, reason does not explain assertion.
4.

(1)

78
Work Power Energy Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

∘
Work done by gravity = mg (2R − R cos 60 )

3mgR
=
2
1
2 2
Work done by spring = − k (0 − R )
2

1
2
= kR
2

Net work = change in kinetic energy

2
3mgR
i.e.
kR 1 2
+ = mv
2 2 2
2

or 2 kR
v = 3gR +
m

or v = √3gR +
kR

5. ^ ^ ^ ^
(2 i + 3 j ) ⋅ (3 i + 6 j )
⟨p⟩ = = 6
4
→
⎛ F 1 3 ⎞
→
^ ^
a = = i + j
⎝ m 2 4 ⎠

(4) 1 3
→
^ ^ ^ ^
v at t = 4sec = ( i + j ) × 4 = (2 i + 3 j )
2 4

^ ^ ^
Pins = (2 i + 3)(2 i + 3 j ) = 13

⟨P⟩ 6
=
Pins 13

6. (2) F = α + βx
2

Work done ∫ dw = ∫ F ⋅ dx

2
⇒ ΔW = ∫ F ⋅ dx = ∫ (α + βx ) dx

1
3
∣ βx ∣ β
⇒ ΔW = ∣αx + ∣ = α + = 5
∣ 3 ∣ 3
0

Given α = 1
β
So, 3
= 4

2
⇒ β = 12 N/m

7. y = 10 − x

4 2

2 2
w = ∫ x (10 − x)dx + ∫ y dy
0 0

4 2
3 4 3
10x x ∣ y ∣

(152) =
3
−
4 ∣
∣ +
3 ∣
∣

0 0

640 256 8
= − +
3 4 3

= 216 × 64

= 152 J

8. (4) Initial K.E,

1 2
K.E. = mu
2

79
Work Power Energy Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Speed at heighest point

u
∘
V = u cos 60 =
2

1 u 2

∴ KE2 = m( )
2 2

1 1
2
= × mu
4 2

KE
=
4

9. 1
mv
2
=
1
mv
2
+ mgh
A B
2 2

1 1 ℓ
2
⇒ m(5 gℓ) = mv + mg
B
2 2 2

5mgℓ mgℓ
⇒ − = KEB
2 2

(2) ⇒ KEB = 2mgℓ

1 1 ℓ
2 2
mv = mv + mg
C D
2 2 2

1 ℓ
⇒ KEC = mgℓ + mg = mgℓ
2 2

KEB
⇒ = 2
KEC

10.

(3)

80
Work Power Energy Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1 1 R√3
2
m × 100 + 0 = mV + mg (R − )
B
2 2 2

√3
2
100 = V + 2gR (1 − ]
B
2

2
V = 100 − 20(2 − √3)
B

2
V = 60 + 20√3)
B

1 m
2
K. EB = mV = (60 + 20√3)
B
2 2

1 1
m(100) = mV
2 2

3R
100 = mg ( )
2

2
100 V = 60
C

2
V = 40
C

1 1
2
K. EC = mVV = m(40)
C
2 2

60 + 20√3 3 √3 3 + √3
K. EB = = + =
40 2 2 2

11. w = 0

∴
→
F ⋅ S = 0

^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(2) (2 i + b j + k) ⋅ ( i − 2 j − k) = 0

2 − 2b − 1 = 0

1
b =
2

81
Center of Mass Momentum and Collision Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1.

(4)

Velocity of a just before hitting :

R
u = √2 g = √gR
2

Just after collision, let velocity of A and B are v and v respectively

1 2

∴ by COM:

m
mu = mv1 + v2
2

2v1 + v2 = 2u. . . (i)

v2 − v1
e = 1 =
u

⇒ v2 − v1 = u. . (ii)

From (i) -(ii)

u 1
⇒ 3v1 = u ⇒ v1 = = √gR
3 3

82
Center of Mass Momentum and Collision Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

2.

(1)
3. dm = σdA

σ0 x
d = σ(dx)(dy) = (dx)(dy)
ab
(σ0 x)

∫ xdm ∫ x (dx)(dy)
ab
xcom = =
σ0
∫ dm ∫ (dx)(dy)
0
(1)
ab

a 2 b
∫ x dx ∫ dy 2a
0 0
= =
b b 3
∫ xdx ∫ dy
0 0

σ0 x
∫ y( ) (dx)(dy)
∫ ydm ab

ycom = =
σ0 x
∫ dm ∫ (dx)(dy)
ab
a b
∫ xdx ∫ ydy
0 0 b
= =
a b 2
∫ xdx ∫ dy
0 0

i.e., r→ com
≡ (
2a

3
,
b

2
)

83
Center of Mass Momentum and Collision Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

4.

(1)

τNet = 0 ⇒ (400 g × 30) = (250 g × 10)(mg × 50)

12000 − 2500 9500

m = =
50 50

M = 190 g

5.

(1)

F − mg = ma

F = ma + mg

F − (m − x)g = (m − x)3a

Put F
Ma + mg − mg + xg = 3ma − 3xa

2ma
x =
g + 3a

6.

(3)

mass of disc = m

m
mass of cut part =
16

84
Center of Mass Momentum and Collision Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

m
m×0− ×15
16
Xcom = m
m−
16

= 1 cm.

85
Rotational Motion Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1. →
∣^
i
^
j
^∣
k
∣ ∣
→ →
τ = r × F = ∣1 1 1∣
∣ ∣
(2) ∣1 −1 1∣

→ ^ ^
τ = k(−1 − 1) = −2k

→| = 2Nm
|τ

2.

(3)

a
d =
2 √3

Angular momentum of one mass about point O

L = mvd

a
= mv0 ⋅
2√ 3

Net angular momentum about point O

Lnet = 32

√3mv0 a
=
2

3.

(16)

Given R 2 = 2R1

2
M1 = σ × πR = Mo
1

2
M2 = σ × πR = Mo
2

2 2 2
M2 = σ × πR = σ × π[2R1 ] = σ × 4πR = 4Mo
2 1
2
M R
1 1
2
I1 M1 R
2 1 1 1 1
= = = × =
I2 2 2
M R M2 R 4 4 16
2 2 2

86
Rotational Motion Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

4.

(4)

2 2 2
MR MR 2MR
1 2 1
I1 = , I2 = , I3 =
4 2 5

According to problem

2
MR
1
2
I1 R
4 5 1
= 2.5 ⇒ = ⇒ = 5…
I2 2 2 2
MR R
2 2

Now we are provided with information that

I3
= n
I2
2
2MR
1
2
5
4R1
⇒ = n ⇒ = n
2 2
MR
2 5R
2
2

From Eq', (1) and (2)

⇒ n = 4

5.

(3)

87
Rotational Motion Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

2g 2g √2
⇒ a = sin θ = = g
3 3√2 3

6.

(3)

2
v0
( ) 2
√2 v
0
H = =
2 g 4 g

L = mvh
2
v0 v
0
L = m
√2 4 g

7.

(3)

88
Rotational Motion Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

2ℓ
t = √
acm

g sin θ
acm =
Icm
1 +
2
MR

5 g sin θ
a1 = acm = … . . Solid
1
7

3 g sin θ
a2 = acm = … . . Hollow
2
5

a1 > a 2

t1 < t2

8. KE(T ) =
1
mv
2

2
(3) 2
1 2 v 1 2
2 2
KE(R) = ⋅ mR ⋅ = mv ( )
2 5 R
2 2 5
KE

So,
(T ) 5
=
KE(R) 2

9.

(1)

using WET
Wg = kf − ki

Mg L sin θ = kf − ki

K.E. in pure rolling 1

2
mV
2
cm
+
1

2
Icm ω
2

2
1 1 2 V
2 2
= mV + × mR
2 2 5 2
R

7
2
mV
10
7 2
mgL sin θ = mV − 0
10 f

2
V ∝ sin θ
f

2 ∘
V1 sin θ1 sin 30 1
( ) = = =
∘
V2 sin θ2 sin 45 √2

89
Rotational Motion Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

10.
2
θ = 5t − 8t

dθ
ω = = 10t − 8
dt

dω
α = = 10
dt

∴ p = τω
(4) = (Iα)ω

2
mR
= ( ) αω
2

2
mR
= ( ) (10)(10
2

Put t = 2
2
p = 60mR

11.

(4)

2
MR
Icomplete =
2
2 2
M R 1 M R
Iremoved = ( )( ) + ( )( )
4 2 2 4 2

2
3M R
=
32
2 2
MR 3M M R 13
2
I = − = MR
2 32 32

12. (90) At t = 1
^ ^ ^
rAB = −1 i + (3n + 1) j + (2 − 4p)k

At t = 1
^ ^ ^
vA = 2 i + 3n j + 2k

^ ^ ^
vB = 2 i − 2 j + 4pk

→ →
v A − v B = 0, 4 − 6n + 8p = 0
2 2
|vA | = |vB | (3n) + 4 = 4 + 16p

3n = −4p

4 + 16p = 0

1 1
p = − ,n =
4 3

^ ^ ^
rAB = − i + 2 j + 3k

^ ^ ^
v A = 2 i + j + 2k

→
∴ L = m |r AB × v A | = 90 →

90
Rotational Motion Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

13. ˙
τ = ṙ × F

∣^ ^ ^∣
i j k
∣ ∣
τ = ∣1 1 1∣
(1) ∣ ∣
∣2 1 2∣

^ ^ ^
τ = i (2 − 1) − j[0] + k(1 − 2)

^ ^
= i − k

91
Gravitation Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1. (8) L = mv 0R = m√
GM
R = m√GMR
R

here M is mass of star

LB mB RB
= √
LA mA RA

2
= 4√2√
1

LB
= 8
LA

2. 2GM
Vescape = √
R

(Vescape ) MP RE 1
(3) Planet
= √( ) × ( ) =
(Vescape ) ME RP 2
Earth

1
( Vescape ) = ( Vescape ) = 5.6 km/s
Planet Earth
2

3.

(3)

3/2
T1 ∝ (R)

and T 2 ∝ (1.03R)
3/2

3/2
⇒ T2 = (1.03R) ⋅ T1 ≈ 1.045T1

So T will larger by 4.5% w.r.t. T .

2 1

4. (9) ∵ acceleration due to gravity on surface is given by

GM
g =
2
Re

Now since diameter is reduced to 1/3 , radius also reduces to 1/3 , keeping mass constant
rd rd

New value of acceleration due to gravity on Earth's surface is

′ GM GMe
g = 2
= 9 = 9 g
Re 2
R
( ) e
3

92
Gravitation Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

5.
2 3
T ∝ R
2 3
Tm R
( ) = ( )
Ts R/9

(2) Tm
3
= (3)
Ts

27
⇒ Ts = ( ) = 1 day
27

6.

(3)

GM 3GM
orbital velocity v0 = √ = √
4R/3 4R

M 4R
Angular momentum of satellite = v0
2 3

M 3GM 4R
= ⋅ √ ⋅
2 4R 3

GMR
= M√
3

x = 3

(ii) Since mass of satellite is comparable to the mass of earth.

93
Gravitation Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

M
G.M.
2 M 8R
2
= ω ⋅
2
4R 2 9
( )
3

81GM
ω = √
3
128R

Angular momentum of satellite about common centre of mass,

2
M 8R
L = ⋅ ( ) ⋅ ω
2 9

8
L = M √GMR( )
81

81
x = ≃ 10
8

7. F1 =
GMm
. . . . . (1)
2
(2R)

M
⎛ G( )m ⎞
GMm 27

F2 = − ⎜ ⎟
(1) (2R)
2 ⎜
4R
2 ⎟

⎝ ( ) ⎠
3

11 GMm
F2 = . . . . (2)
2
48
R

F1 : F2 = 12 : 11

94
Mechanical Properties of Solids Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1. B =
ρgh

Δv
( )
v

Δv ρgh
(1) × 100 = × 100
v B
3
1000 × 10 × 2.5 × 10
× 100%
9
2 × 10

= 1.25%

2. B =
ΔP

ΔV

(50) 7 × 10
6
3
−2
ΔV = × (10 × 10 )
11
1.4 × 10
3
Δ V = 50 mm

3. (43) Since bulk modulus is given as

−ΔP
B =
Δ V
( )
V

−ΔP
9
2.15 × 10 =
0.2
−( )
100

9 −3
ΔP = 2.15 × 10 × 2 × 10

6 5 2
= 4.3 × 10 = 43 × 10 N/m

95
Mechanical Properties of Fluids Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1.

(5)

F1 F2 100 F 50
= , = , F = × 1500
A1 A2 6 1500 3

3
F = 50 × 500 = 25 × 10 N

→ → 20
3
ω = F. S = 25 × 10 ×
100
3
= 5 × 10 = 5 kJ

2. (3) The terminal velocity of ball of radius R inside a liquid of viscosity η can be written as V
2
2R g

T =
n
(σ − ρ) ,
where σ is the density of ball and δ is the density of the liquid.
Hence,
A is correct since V T ∝ R
2
gives a parabola on a graph
C is correct since V T α
1

η
and η varies with temperature
D is correct since V T α(σ − ρ) i.e., varies with density of liquid.
3. (1) Surface tension arises due to extra energy of the molecules at the molecules at the surface as compared at the
interior of a liquid. The coefficient of viscosity for a liquid decreases with rise in temperature where as it increases
for gases with increase in temperature. The flow is turbulent for a Reynold's number greater than 2000. Stream
lines never intersect in a steady flow.
4. (2) Volume of cube inside water
Denslty of cube
= ( ) × Volume of cube
Denslty of water

Mass of cube
=
Denslty of water

400gm
=
3
1gm/cm

3
= 400 cm

Volume of cube outside water

= Volume of cube − Volume of cube inside water

3 3
= 1000 cm − 400 cm

3
= 600 cm

96
Mechanical Properties of Fluids Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

5. (54) For a thin film interference, a fringe for transmission is formed.

When
2μx = nλ

dx dn λ
⇒ = ( )
dt dt 2μ

−9
1 560 × 10 5
−8
= ( ) = × 10 m/s
12 2 × 1.4 3
2
V = Volume of film = πR x

dV dx
2
= πR
dt dt

2 5
−2 −8 3
= π(1.8 × 10 ) × 10 m /s
3
−13 3
= 54π × 10 m /s

6. R
2

2
W1 = s4π( ) × 27 − 4πR ⋅ s
(1) 3

2
⇒ W1 = 4πR ⋅ s(2) = 10 Joule

Now, W 2
2
= s4πR (4 − 1) = 4πR s × 3
2

10
⇒ W2 = 3 × = 15 Joule
2

7.

(2)

20
P1 = P0 + ρgh = P0 + 1000 × 10 ×
100

⇒ P1 = P0 + 2000

So, P 2 − P1 =
2S

R
= (
2S

−3
)
1×10

⇒ P2 = P0 + 2100

(given)
3
So, P0 + 2100 − P0 − 2000 = 2S × 10

3
⇒ 100 = 2S × 10

1
⇒ s = ( ) = 0.05
20

8. (1) Hot water is less viscous then cold water.

Surfactant reduces surface tension.

97
Mechanical Properties of Fluids Chapter-wise Question Bank
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9.

(4)

Using Bernoulli's theorem

1
2
P1 − P2 = ρv
2

v ∝ √P 1 − P 2

10.

(2190)

ΔP = Pin − P0

2 T 1000 × 10 × 20 2 × 0.095
= ρgh + = +
−3
R 100 10

= 2000 + 190

= 2190

11. (4) R = R2 R1

R2 −R1
=
4×2

2
= 4 cm

12.

(4)

mg − FB − f = 0
mg
⇒ mg − − f = 0
2
mg
∴ f =
2

98
Mechanical Properties of Fluids Chapter-wise Question Bank
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13.

(4)

2 2
A1 V1 = A2 V2 ⇒ 2π(2R) = V2 πR

∴ V2 = 8 m/s

14.

(1)

ℓ
2 2
F = 2Mω = Mw ℓ
2

F
ω = √
Mℓ

99
Oscillations Chapter-wise Question Bank
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1. (1) As h increases, g decreases, T increases

ℓ
T = 2π√
g

2
g R
0
g =
2
(R + h)

2. V1 = A1 ω 1

V 2 = A2 ω 2

A 1 = A2

K1
√
V1 ω1 m
(2) = =
V2 ω2 K2
√
m

V1 K1
= √
V2 K2

3. If we express position x(t) = A sin(ωt + ϕ)

then x0 = A sin ϕ

v0 = Aω cos ϕ

ωx0
(4) ⇒ tan ϕ =
v0

2
v
2 0
A = √x +
0
2
ω

Hence both position and linear momentum of a particle can be expressed as a function of time if we know initial
momentum and position
4. (4) A = 1 cm

12.5
n = = 6.25 cycles
2

∴ D = 4 × 6 + 1 = 25

d = 1

D
= 25
d

5. (4) x(t) = x 0 sin (

2 t
) =
x0
(1 − cos t)
2 2

100
Oscillations Chapter-wise Question Bank
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Clearly is mean position.

x0

6. (2) Additional buoyant force

2 3
gρa x = σa A

ρ g
A = x
σ a

σa
T = 2π√
ρg

−3

Now, σ =
10×10
= 10
−3
10

10 × 0.1
⇒ T = 2π√
3
10 × 10

−2
= 2π × 10

7. g =
GM

2
R
(4) G(4M )
′
g = = g
2
(2R)

A is correct, R is correct ; but since T doesn't depend on mass ; R doesn't explain A .

ℓ
= 2π√
g

101
Waves and Sound Chapter-wise Question Bank
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1. (2) Speed of sound in a medium depends on inertial and elastic properties as v = √ B

for gases and v = √ Y
for
P P

solids. Since the elastic property of solid happens to be many folds greater than that of gases, the speed of sound in
solids i5 higher than in gases.

Also, bulk modulus of gases varies between 0 and ∞ (B = −v dP

dv
) hence reason is false.

2.
−3 −1 −1
k = 20 × 10 mm = 20 m
−1
w = 600 s
(2)
W 600
v = = = 30 m/s
k 20

and x&t carry same sign

Therefore v = −30 m/s
3. 9
th
harmonic of closed pipe =
9 V1

4ℓ1

2 V2
th
4 harmonic of open pipe =
ℓ2

9 V1 2 V2

(4) ∴
4ℓ1
=
ℓ2

9 B 2 B ℓ2 8 ρ1
∴ √ = √ ⇒ = √
4ℓ1 ρ1 ℓ2 ρ2 ℓ1 9 ρ2

8 1 20
ℓ2 = ℓ1 × × = cm
9 4 9

102
Thermal Properties of Matter Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1. (4) By using average form of Newton's law of cooling

90 − 80 90 + 80
= k( − 20)
t 2

80 − 60 80 + 60
= k( − 20)
′
t 2

(i)/(ii)
′
10 × t 65
=
t × 20 50

65 65 13
′
t = × 2t = t = t
50 25 5

2. (4) C F−32 5 F 160

= ⇒ C = −
5 9 9 9

∘
3. ΔT = T2 − T1 = 16 C
∘
And T0 = 16 C

ΔT
∘
= −k (32 − 16 ) . . . (i)
t1

(24 − T3 ) 24 + T3
= −k ( − 16) . . . . (ii)
4 2

16
= −k(16)
4

(24 − T3 )
(4) ⇒ = −k (12 +
T3
− 16)
4 2

16 16
⇒ = T2
24 − T3 T3

T3
⇒ − 4 = 24 − T3
2

3T3
⇒ = 28
2

56
∘
⇒ T3 = C
3

103
Thermal Properties of Matter Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

4. 625 = msΔT + mL

4
625 = m [125 × 300 + 2.5 × 10 ]

625 = m[37500 + 25000]

(1) 625 = m[62500]

1
m = kg
100

M = 10 grams

5.

(1)

−3
ΔQ = m × S1 × ΔT = 10 × 2100 × 10 = 21 J
1

−3 5
ΔQ = m × Lf = 10 × 3.35 × 10 = 335 J
2

−3
ΔQ = m × Sw × ΔT = 10 × 4180 × 100 = 418 J
3

−3 6
ΔQ = m × Lv = 10 × 2.25 × 10 = 2250 J
4

−3
ΔQ = m × Sv × ΔT = 10 × 1920 × 10 = 19.2 J
5

ΔQ = 3043.2 J
net

6. dθ
= σeAT
4
⇒ P ∝ AT
4

dt
2 4
Psmaller (0.2) × 800
=
(2) Plarger (0.8)
2
× 400
4

1
× 16 = 1
16

∴ Plarger = Psmaller

7.

(40)

104
Thermal Properties of Matter Chapter-wise Question Bank
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2 L
R1 =
K1 A

2 L
R2 =
K2 A

L
R3 =
K3 A

θ − 100 θ − 0
+ = 0
R1 R2
R3
R1 +R2

θ = 40

105
Thermodynamics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1. (1) Work done in adiabatic process = nRΔT

1−γ

So, depends upon change in temperature.

2. V = constant

P1 P2
=
T1 T2

(327) P2 = 2P1

T2 = 2T1

= 2 × 300 = 600 K
∘
∴ = 327 C

3.

(1)

dP dP
( ) > ( )
dV dV
Adiabatic Isothermal

4. ΔQ
AB
= 0 adiabatic

ΔQ = ΔWBC
BC

−6
VC 8 × 10
= nRTℓn ( ) = 450Rℓn ( )
−6
VB 6 × 10
(2)
4
= 450Rℓn ( ) = 450R(ln 4 − ℓn3)
3

∴ ΔQ = ΔQ + ΔQ
AB BC

ΔQ = 450R(ℓn4 − ℓn3)

5. (4) Efficiencies of a carnot engine η = 1 − Tsink

Tsource

373 K 100
⇒η1 = 1 − =
473 K 473

273 K 100
η2 = 1 − =
373 K 373

273 K 100
η12 = 1 − =
473 K 473

200 100 100 100

η12 − η1 = − = <
473 473 473 373

⇒η12 − η1 < η2

or η12 < η1 + η2

6. (3) Given that

P = kT

106
Thermodynamics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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P
= constant
T

∴ Volume is constant or isochoric process.

∴ WD = 0

∴ Q = ΔU

Also temperature increases hence internal energy increases.

7. (15) Given that process is isobaric ΔT = 50 ∘
C

Q in isobaric process = nC p ΔT = E1

ΔU in isobaric process = nC v
ΔT = E2

E1 CP
∴ = = γ
E2 Cv

Given, gas is monoatomic

2
∴ γ = 1 +
f

2
= 1 +
3

5
=
3

Now, as per question.

5 x
=
3 9

x = 15

8.

(1)

107
Thermodynamics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1 2
W = πR
2

1 200 200
3 −6
= × π × ( × 10 ) × × 10
2 2 2

10π
= = 5π J
2

9. (2) If the container is insulated then temperature is expected to increase in adiabatic compression. So (A) is wrong.
And free expansion is irreversible and adiabatic process. So (R) is correct.
10. A → P ∝
1

V
(1)
⇒ PV = constant

⇒ nRT = const. ⇒ T = const.

Hence Isothermal III

B → IV
W ≠ 0, ΔU ≠ 0, ΔQ ≠ 0 [only isobaric]
C → IΔQ = 0 Adiabatic
D → II w = 0 Isochoric
III IV I II
11. γ =
3

2
γ−1
Tv = C

(273) 0.5
V0
0.5

273 V = T( )
0
4

T = 273 × 2 = 546

Δ T = 273

12. dQ = msdT

dQ msdT
dS = =
T T

(1) msdT Tf
ΔS = ∫ = ms ln
T Ti

T2
ΔS = m ln
T1

13.

(3)

108
Thermodynamics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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Area under graph will be magnitude of graph and being counterclockwise graph it would be negative
Area = 2P0 × V0 + P0 V0 = 3P0 V0

W = −3P0 V0

14. (4) Extensive variables depend on size and amount of system.

Extensive : Volume, mass, internal energy
Intensive : Pressure, temperature, density
15. (3) For rigid diatomic molecules
f = 5

7
∴ γ1 = = 1.4
5

For non-rigid diatomic molecules

f = 5 + 2 = 7

9
γ2 = = 1.28
7

∴ γ1 > γ2

109
Kinetic Theory of Gases Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1. 3RT
Vms = √
(2) M

2
V = 3RT/M
rms

Hence we can conclude that V 2

rms
is directly proportional to temperature
y = mx

⇒ Graph will be straight line

2. (2) Kinetic energy of translation = 3

2
nRT

50 g 25
n = = mol
44 g 22
∘
T = 17 C = 290 K

⇒ Kinetic energy of translation

3 25
= ( ) (8.3)(290)J
2 22

= 4102.8 J

3. (3) (Vapor density) = ( Molar mass

), I.e, vd = M

2 2

3RT
vrms = √
M

v2 M1 25 5
= √ = √ =
v1 M2 4 2

110
Electrostatics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1.

(4)

τ = P E0 sin θ

If θ is small
τ = − (P E0 ) θ

2 2
l ml
I = m( ) ⋅ 2 =
2 2

2 2
ml ml
T = 2π√ = 2π√
2 ⋅ P E0 2 ⋅ q/E0

ml
T = 2π√
2qE0

2. (1) Inside uniformly charged spherical shell, E = 0

∴ A → III

For uniformly charged infinite plate

σ
E =
2ε0

∴ B → II

Outside of spherical shell

2
Q σR
E = =
4πε0 r2 ε0 r
2

∴ C → IV

Between two plates E =

σ

ε0

∴ D → I

3. Flux (ϕ) =
θinc

ϵ0
(4)
θinc = ϵ0 ϕ

−8
= − 17.7 × 10 C

4. (4) Electric field due to sheet E =

σ

2ε0

and torque on dipole τ˙ = P˙ × E˙

here τ→ = 0
and U = −P ⋅ E →
→ → should be minimum
5. (3) Potential due to an infinite wire is V = 2kλ ln r , where r is the distance from the wire.

Taking the point in space P (x, y, z)

111
Electrostatics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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Distance from wire along x-axis is r x

2
= √y + z
2

Distance from wire along y-axis is r y

2
= √x + z
2

Distance from wire along z-axis is r z

2
= √x + y
2

⇒ Potential at P due to wire along x-axis is

Vx = 2kλ ln rx

Potential at P due to wire along y-axis is

Vy = 2kλ ln ry

Potential at P due to wire along z-axis is

Vz = 2kλ ln rz

⇒ Not potential at P = V = Vx + Vy + Vz

or V = 2kλ ln rx + 2kλ ln ry + 2kλ ln rz

i.e. V = 2kλ ln(rx ry rz )

or
2 2 2 2 2 2
V = 2kλ ln(√y + z √z + x √x + y )

2 2 2 2 2 2
= kλ ln(y + z ) (z + x ) (x + y )

⇒ For equipotential surface

2 2 2 2 2 2
(x + y ) (y + z ) (z + x ) = constant

6.

(2)

Wall = Δk

We = kf − ki

ℓ 1
2
qE = mv − 0
2 2

qEℓ
v = √
m

112
Electrostatics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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7. (12) Work done in rotating a dipole = ΔU

W = (−P E cos θf ) − (−P E cos θi )

∘ ∘
or = 2P E (∵ θf = 180 and θi = 0 )

−6 6
= (2 × 6 × 10 × 10 ) J = 12 J

8.

(48)

q
Total flux through square = ϵ0
(
1

6
)

Lets divide square is 8 equal parts.

Flux is same for each part.
∴ Flux through shaded portion is 5

8
(Total flux)
q
5 1 5 1
= × =
8 ϵ0 6 48 ϵ0

∴ required Ans. is 48

113
Electrostatics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

9.

(2)

θ θ
k( )( )
2 2

F =
2
r
9 −8 −8
9 × 10 × (4 × 10 ) × 4 × 10
−3
9 × 10 =
2
4 × r
9 −16
9 × 10 × 16 × 10
2 −4
r = = 4 × 10
−3
4 × 9 × 10
−2
r = 2 × 10 m ⇒ 2 cm

10. Kq0 Kq0

u⊕ = (2 + ) q0 × 2
a √2a
(4)
Kq0 √2 Kq0
u0 = (2 + ) q0 × 2
a a

kq0 1
So, Δu = u2 − u1 = 2q0 [2√2 + 1 − 2 − ]
a √2

2 2
2q 4 − √2 − 1 2q (3 − √2)
0 0
⇒ Δu = [ ] =
4πε0 a √2 4πε0 a √2

2 2
2kq 3 − √2 kq
0 0
⇒ Δu = [ ] = (3√2 − 2)
a √2 a

114
Electrostatics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

11.

(4)

1 1 2a
⇒ − =
2 2 3/2
(r − a) (r + a) 2 2
(a + r )

4ar 2a
=
2 3/2
2 2 2 2
(r − a ) (a + r )

2 3/2
2 2 2 2
(r − a ) = 2r(a + r )

2 3/2
2 2
a a
(1 − ) = 2(1 + )
2 2
r r

2 3/2 a
2 2
(1 − x ) = 2(1 + x ) (x = )
i
2
2
(1 − x )
= 2
3/2
2
(1 + x )

Now for X = 3
We get
64 a
≈ 2 ⇒ ≈ 3
r
10√10

[But for a > r point charge will between the dipole where E→ ≠ 0 ]
12. Fe =
kq1 q2

2
r

Gm1 m2
Fg =
2
r

Fe kq1 q2

(5) Fg
=
Gm1 m2

9 −19 −10
9 × 10 × 6.67 × 10 × 9.6 × 10
=
−11 −27 −27
6.67 × 10 × 19.2 × 10 × 9 × 10
−20
10
=
−65
2 × 10

13. (1) P.E. of two charges

1 q1 q2
u =
4πε0 r

2 2 2
r = √(x2 − x1 ) + (y2 − y1 ) + (z2 − z1 )

= 14 cm
9 −6 −6
9 × 10 × 7 × 10 × (−4) × 10
∴ u =
−2
14 × 10

= −1.8 J

115
Electrostatics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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14. U = −PE cos θ

∘ ∘
wext = ΔU = Uf − Ui = −PE cos 180 + PE cos 0

wext = 2PE
(2) −6 4
= 2 × (4 × 10 ) (18) × 10

−2
= 144 × 10

= 14.4 mJ

15.

(3)

−2
ℓ 10 × 10
−7
⇒ t = = = 10
6
Vx 10

⇒ V y = uy + a y t

eE
−7
⇒ Vy = 0 + × 10
m
−19
1.6 × 10
−2 −7
⇒ Vy = × 9.1 × 10 × 10
−31
9.1 × 10
6
⇒ Vy = 16 × 10

16. Charge of the line charge =

aλ

1
Portion of wire inside cube =
4
(4) 1 aλ aλ
∴ qen = ( ) =
4 2 8

qen aλ
ϕ = =
ε0 8ε0

17. (2) At point A (axial)

2kp kp
|E0 | = , V0 =
3 2
r r

At point B (equatorial)
kp E0
|E| = =
3
(2r) 16

V = 0

116
Capacitance Chapter-wise Question Bank
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1.

(1)

′
q = 6 × 5 = 30μC
1

Finally

6 VC + 12 Vc = 30 + 0

18 VC = 30

30 5
VC = = Volt
18 3

6 × 5
⇒ q = = 10μC
1
3

12 × 5
⇒ q = = 20μC
2
3

2. Q = cV

Q it
V = =
c ε0 A
(1320) ( )
d

2
ε0 πr v
d = ( )
i t

117
Capacitance Chapter-wise Question Bank
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Putting values
−12 22 2
9 × 10 × × (0.1)
7 8
d = × (7 × 10 )
0.15

= 1320μ m

3. (4) For a capacitor at steady state

1 2
q = CV and U = CV
2

Since C and C are connected in parallel, V

1 2 1 = V2 .
Also from graph q 1 < q2

⇒ C1 V 1 < C2 V 2

i.e. C1 < C2 or C2 > C1

2
U1 C1 V C1
1
= = < 1
2
U2 C2 V C2
2

or U 1 < U2 or U 2 > U1

4. Energy density =
1
ε0 E
2

2
2
1 V
= ε0 ( )
(3) 2 d
2
1 20
−12 3
= (8.85 × 10 )( ) J/m
−6
2 10
3 3
≃ 1.8 × 10 J/m

5.

(4)

Aε0
We know C =
d
bℓε0
=
d

So to increase the capacitance by 10 factor ( A

d
) has to increase by 10 fator.
(30ℓ)bε0
For option (A) C
′
=
d
= 30C
( )
3

ℓbε0
For option (B) C
′
=
10d
=
C

10

(2ℓ)5bε0
For option (C) C
′
= = 10C
d
ℓ
( )bε0

For option (D)

3
′ C
C = =
10d 10
( )
3

118
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ℓ
( )5(2b)ε0

For option (E)

3
′
C = = 10C
d
( )
3

Clearly (C) and (E) are the situation for 10 C

6. (2) We know energy density
1 2
ρav = ε0 E
2

So potential energy = ρ av
× Volume
1 2
⇒ P.E. = ε0 E Ad
2

7. (4) Capacitor behaves like closed circuit at t = 0 and charge is zero.

AX, B✓, C✓, D✓

8. CdV
= Id
dt

dV Id
=
(100) dt C
−3
0.25 × 10
=
−6
2.5 × 10

= 100

9.

(16)

119
Capacitance Chapter-wise Question Bank
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5
i = ( )
25

Q = CV

5
−6
Q = (8 × 10 )( × 10)
25

−2
8 × 5 × 10
Q = ( ) = 16μC
25

10. Δq = (KC − C)V

−6
= 40 × 10 × 100
−3
= 4000 × 10 = 4mC

1 ′
1 2
1 2
2
ΔU = C V − CV = ( K − 1)CV
(1) 2 2 2

1 2
= CV (2 − 1)
2

1 1
2 −6
= CV = × 40 × 10 × 10000
2 2

= 0.2 J

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1. (4) Material should have low thermal conductivity and high electrical conductivity.
2. (3) For the wire bent into an equilateral triangle, each side has a resistance R

3
.

2R R
( )( )

(lets say)
3 3
2R
Req = = = R1
2R R 9
+
3 3

For the wire bent into a square, each side has a resistance R

4
.

3R R
( )( )
4 4 3R
Req = = = R3 (lets say)
3R R 16
+
4 4

2R

R1 9 32
⇒ = =
R3 3R 27
16

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3.

(1)

All are in parallel

r/3
Req = = r/9
3

4.

(2)

VA = VB ⇒ the bridge is balanced

10 20
⇒ =
R 40

R = 20Ω

40
I = = 2 A
20

122
Current Electricity Chapter-wise Question Bank
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5.

(2)

9Ω is the resistance of whole wire

∴ resistance of each wire = 3Ω.
∴ Equivalent resistance = 2Ω
6. (I − Ig ) R = Ig G

30
(2) (3 − 0.02) × R = 0.02 × G ⇒ R =
149

⇒ 149 = Required X

7. (2) Both are forward biased

hence Req = 10Ω

V 5 1
i = = = A
R 10 2

8. (2) In parallel connections

1 1 1
= +
req r1 r2

Eeq E1 E2
= +
req r1 r2

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If E 1 = E2 and r 1 = r2 , Eeq = E1 = E2

∴ Statement 1 is false.
req is less then both r and r 1 2

∴ Statement II is true
9. (4) The circuit can be considered as

0.5 × 2 5 10
∴ Req = 0.5 + = ( + )Ω
2 + 0.5 10 25

45 9
= = = 0.9
50 10

0.9
∴ i = = 1 A
0.9

10. (4) Resistivity is independent of temperature for wire bound resistors

11.

(1)

124
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Req = 2Ω

2
I = = 1 A
2

125
Magnetic Properties of Matter Chapter-wise Question Bank
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1.

(1)

μ0 m(2l)
Magnetic field at P , B = 4π 3
, where m is the pole strength
r

ΔB Δl ∣ Δr ∣
⇒ ( × 100) = ( ) × 100 + 3 ∣ ∣ × 100
B l ∣ r ∣

= 1% + 3% = 4%

126
Magnetic Effects of Current Chapter-wise Question Bank
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1. (3) Maximum possible magnetic field is at the surface

μ0 I
Bmax =
2πa

Bmax μ0 I
=
2 4πa

It can be obtained inside as well as outside the wire For inside,

μ0 I μ0 Ir
=
2
4πa 2πa
a
⇒ r =
2

For outside
μ0 I μ0 I
=
4πa 2πr

⇒ r = 2a

Correct answer [
a
, 2a]
2

2. (8) Assuming long solenoid

N
B = μ0 ( )i
ℓ

−7
μ0 Ni (4π × 10 ) (200)(0.29)
ℓ = = m
−4
B 2.9 × 10

= 8π cm

3.

(1)

127
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A → B

→ ^ ^
V = −vx i + vy j

→
B =
μ0 I
^
(−k)
2πr

→ → μ0 Iq
→
^ ^
F = q( v × B ) = [−vx j − vy i ]
2πr

μ0 Iq vy
ax = − ⋅
2π m r

μ0 Iq vx
ay = − ⋅
2πm r

vx dvx μ0 Iq vy
= −
dr 2π m r

vx dvx μ0 Iq dr
= −
vy 2π m r

v0 x1 dr
vx dvx μ0 Iq r
∫ = − ∫
2
2π m 2
0 2 a
√v − vx
0

2 2 2
Let, z = v − vx
0

2zdz = −2vx dvx

zdz = −vx dvx

vx dvx −zdz
= = −dz
2
z
2
√v − vx
0

then integral becomes

0
μ0 Iq x1
− ∫ dz = − ln
2π m a
v0

μ0 Iq x1
v0 = − ln
2π m a
2πmv
−
μ
∣
x1 = ae 0 H0 q ∣ … …
∣

For B → C
→
^ ^
v = −vx i − vy j

→ μ0 I
^
B = (−k)
2πr

→ → μ0 Iq
→
^ ^
F = q( v × B ) = (−vx j + vy i )
2πr

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μ0 Iq vy μ0 Iq vx
ax = + ay = − ⋅
2π m r 2π m r

vx dvx μ0 Iq vy
=
dr 2π m r
0 x
vx dvx μ0 Iq dr
∫ = ∫
2 2
2π m r
v0 x1
√v − vx
0

v0
μ0 Iq x
ln = −∫ dz = −v0
2π m x1
0
2π m
0
−
μ Iq
x = x1 e 0 … … (2)

From equation 1 and 2

4πmv0
−
μ Iq
X = ae 0

4.

(4)

μ0 i
B1 = ⊗
4πa

μ0 i 3π
B2 = ( )⊗
4π a 2

B3 = 0

μ0 i 3π
B = (1 )⊗
4π a 2

129
Magnetic Effects of Current Chapter-wise Question Bank
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5.

(8)

Let B be the magnetic field due to single side

μ0 i
then B = (sin θ1 + sin θ2 )
4π d
−7
10 × 5 × 2 1
−6
= × = 2 × 10
1
√2
2√2

∴ Bnet at centre O = 4B

−6
= 8 × 10

6. (4) We know inside the wire

μ0 I
B = ⋅ r (O < r < R)
2
2πR

μ0 I
And B = for (R < r)
2πr

130
Magnetic Effects of Current Chapter-wise Question Bank
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7.

(4)

Nq
IA =
2π

N qω
IA = , IB = 0
2π

N qω
IA = IB =
2π

8. (3) If the electron's velocity is along the direction of magnetic field then magnetic force on electron is zero and it
will not accelerate.
9. (250) Since time period of a revolving charge is 2πm

qB

Where B = magnetic field

due to a solenoid = μ 0 nI

2π m
∴ T =
q (μ0 nI)

−31
(2π) (9 × 10 )
−9
75 × 10 =
−19 −7
1.6 × 10 × 4π × 10 × n × 1.5

N = 250

10. (4) (A) τ = Cθ ⇒ [ML

2
T
−2
] = [C][1]

(B) C. S = ;
θ BNA
=
I C

V.S. = BNA

RC
[R also depends on ' N ']

131
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(C) V.S. ∝ NAB

CR
R → NR

(D) False [Theory]

(E) E [False]
C. S ∝ N

NAB
⇒∵ C. S. =
C

11. (1) mvr = nh

2π
...(i)
r =
vm

Bq
....(ii)
n = 2

rBq 2h
mr ( ) =
m 2π

h
r = √
πBq

q = e

h
r = √
πBe

12. Bvq = Eq

E = Bv

vm
r =
Bq
mv
B =
rq

(2) mv mv
2

E = ( )v =
rq rq

−27 10
1.6 × 10 × 4 × 10
=
−2 −19
2 × 10 × 1.6 × 10
4
= 2 × 10 N/C

x = 2

13.

(1)

132
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μ0 (5) μ0 4
B = −
2π × .01 2π × 0.04

100μ0
= −
4π
−7
= −100 × 10

−5
= −1 × 10 T

133
Electromagnetic Induction Chapter-wise Question Bank
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1.

(3)

ϕ = BAN ⋅ cos(ωt)

−dϕ
ε = = BAω N ⋅ sin(ωt)
dt

When B is parallel to plane, ωt

–
––
=
π

2
–
––

⇒ ϕ = 0, ε = BAω N

2. ϕ1 = L1 I1 + M12 I2

(2) dϕ1 dI I12 dI2

ε1 = − = −L1 − M12
dt 1 dt dt

3. B = 0.4 T

r = 20 cm

ω = 10πrad/s
(3)
1 2
E = BωR
2

= 0.2512 V

4. (1) As the bar moves without change in orientation, the length of bar will be proportional to its distance from the
vertex.
i.e. I = c(vt)

induced emf E = B/v

2
= cBv t

⇒ n = 1

5. (3) (A) L = μ f μ0 n
2
Al

(B) L = μ r μv n
2
AlX

(C) ✓
(D) ✓
(E) ✓

134
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6. ε −
LdI
− IR = 0
dt
(3)
12 − 3 × (−8) − I × 12 = 0

I = 3

7.

(4)

dϕ
E = −
dt

ϕ = Bbx

|E| = Bbv

135
Alternating Current Chapter-wise Question Bank
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1.

(2)

V
I =
√R2 +ω2 L2

R
VR = V
√ 2 2 2
R +ω L

2. I = IA sin ωt + IB cos ωt

2 2
Ima = √I + I
A B

(2)
2 2
I + I
A B
So, IRMS = √
2

3. ω =
1

√LC

1
(2) ω =

√25 × 10−9 × 100 × 10−3

+6
10
ω = = 2
5 × 10

4. (3) Initially, I
εm
0 =
R
εm I0
Finally, I 1
0
=
2R
=
2

136
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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n1
1. sin θ1C =
n2
n1
(3) sin θ2C =
n3

1
sin θ2C − sin θ1C =
2

n2 n1 1
n1 − =
n3 n2 2
n2 n2
n1 − n1 =
n3 2

2 n2
n1 ( − 1) =
5 2

n1 −5
=
n2 6

5
−1
= sin (− )
6

2. (3) (u + f )(v − f ) = f 2

3.

(6)

137
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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n2
n1 × = n2 sin r
2n1

1
sin r =
2
∘
r = 30

d/2
tan r = ( )
t

d d √3 (4√3)√3
t = = =
2 tan r 2 2

= 6 cm

4.

(2)

f1
so f3
= 1 : 2

5. 1
= (
μℓ
− 1) [
1
−
1
]
8 μs R1 R2

1 2
= (1.5 − 1) [ ] . . . (i)
24 R
(2)
1 1.5 2
= ( − 1) ( )
′
f 1.33 R

1 1.5 × 3 2
= ( − 1) . . . (ii)
′
f 4 R

(i) divided by (ii)

′
f
= 4
24
′
f = 96 cm

6. (4) For B
μ2 μ1 μ2 − μ1
− =
V u R

1.5 1 0.5
+ =
V R −R
2

1.5 1 2
= − −
V 2R R

1.5 −5
= ⇒ VB = −0.6R
V 2R

For A

138
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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1.5 2 0.5
+ =
V 3R −R

1.5 1 2
= − −
V 2R 3R

1.5 7
= −
V 6R

9
VA = − R
7

Distance between images

9
= 2R − (0.6R + R) = 0.114R
7

7. (1) For dispersion without deviation,

(μ1 − 1) A1 = (μ2 − 1) A2
∘
⇒ (1.54 − 1)4 = (1.72 − 1)A2

0.54
∘
Or A2 = × 4 = 3
0.72

8.

(4)

For the rays from coin to reach the point E, the refracted rays must grazing the surface, i.e. they must be incident
at critical angle θ inside the liquid.
c

1
μ =
sin θc

μ is minimum when θ is maximum. c

Maximum value of θ c
= 45
∘

⇒ μ has a minimum value of √2.

9.

(3)

139
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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u
m = −3 = −
v

u = −x

v = −3x

⇒ 2x = 20 cm

x = 10 cm

uV (−10)(−30)
f = = = −7.5 cm
u + V (−10) + (−30)

R
f = −
2

R = −2f = 15 cm

10.

(4)

n2 n1 n2 − n1
−
v u R

1.4 1.3 0.1

− =
v −13 R

1.4 1 − R
=
v 10R

1.4 1 − R
=
v 10R

v/n2
m =
u/n1

(−13) 10R
− 2 × =
1.3 1 − R

2
R = cm
3

11. P =
1

1 1
So P1 = ⇒ F1 =
F1 2.5

1
(2) Next F2 =
2.6

∣ ΔF ∣ |F2 − F1 | ∣ F2 ∣
∣ ∣ = = ∣ − 1∣
∣ F1 ∣ F1 ∣ F ∣
1

∣ ΔF ∣ ∣ 2.5 ∣ 0.1
⇒ ∣ ∣ = ∣ − 1∣ = ≈ 0.04
∣ F1 ∣ ∣ 2.6 ∣ 2.6

140
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12.

(4)

1.5 1.5 − 1.2

=
v R

1.5R
v = = 5R
0.3

1.2 1.5 1.2 − 1.5

− =
f 5R −R

1.2 0.3
= × 2 ⇒ f = 2R ⇒ R = 0.1
f R

13. (2) For case (1)

1.5 1 (1.5 − 1)
− =
v1 ∝ R1

1 1.5 1 − 1.5
− =
f1 v1 ∝

(1.5−1)
...(1)
1
⇒ =
f1 R1

1 1
⇒ =
f1 2R1

For case (2)

141
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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1.5 1.2 (1.5 − 1.2)

− =
v1 ∞ R2

1.2 1.5 (1.2 − 1.5)

− =
f2 v1 ∝

1.2 0.3
⇒ =
f2 R2

1 1
⇒ =
f2 4R2

So clearly,
f1 2×2 1
= =
f2 4×3 3

14.

(1)

H = 18 km

142
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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Size of camera film = 2 cm × 2 cm

2
Aimage = 400 km

3 4
x = 20 × 10 m = 2 × 10 m

−2
y = 2 × 10 m

x 18Km
6
= 10 =
y f
−3
f = 18 × 10 m = 18 mm

f = 1.8 cm

15.

(1)

PO = u = −x

PI = v = x

PO = PI

μ2 μ1 μ2 − μ1
− =
v u R

1.5 1 1
+ =
x x 2R

5 1
=
2x 2R

X = 5R

143
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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16.

(1)

1 2 1
= −
feq fL fm

|R2 |
fm = −
2

1 μ2 1 1
= ( − 1) ( + )
fL μ1 R1 R2

1 μ2 − μ1 R1 + R2 2
= 2( )( ) +
feq μ1 R1 R2 R2

2 (μ2 − μ1 ) (R1 + R2 ) + μ1 R1
= [ ]
R2 μ1 R1

2 μ2 R1 + μ2 R2 − μ1 R1 − μ1 R2 + μ1 R1
= [ ]
R2 μ1 R1

1 2 [μ2 R1 + μ2 R2 − μ1 R2 ]
=
feq μ1 R1 R2

For same size of image

u = 2f

μ1 R1 R2
u =
μ2 R1 + μ2 R2 − μ1 R2

144
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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17.

(2)

AB = h sec r

¯
BC = h sec r sin( i − r)

h sin(i − r)
BC =
cos r

18. (2) Focal length of mirror will not change because focal length of mirror doesn't depend on medium.
19.
A+δ
min
sin( )
2

(1) μ = A
sin
2

Given δ min = A

A A
2 sin cos
sin A 2 2
√3 = =
A A
sin sin
2 2

A √3
cos =
2 2
∘
A = 60

20.

(4)

1 2 1
− = −
feq fl fm

2 2
= 2(μ − 1) +
R R

1 2(2μ − 1)
− =
feq R

R
feq = −
2(2μ − 1)

For concave mirror, object should be at 2f for the image to be at same point
R
Distance =
(2μ−1)

145
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21.

(4)

⇒ peq = p + p + p
1 2 3

4 1 1
⇒ p1 = ( − 1) ( − )
3 ∞ − |R1 |

1
⇒ p1 = ( )
3 |R1 |

1 1 1
⇒ p = ( )( − )
2
2 − |R1 | − |R2 |

1 1 1
⇒ p = ( − )
2
2 |R2 | |R1 |

1 1 1 1
⇒ p = ( )( − ) = −
3
3 − |R2 | ∞ 3 |R2 |

1 1 1 1 1 1
⇒ p = ( − ) − ( − )
eq
3 |R1 | |R2 | 2 |R1 | |R2 |

1 1 1
= − ( − )
6 |R1 | |R2 |

22. v =
uf
=
−24 ⋅ 1
=
24

u − f −24 − 1 25

−v 24 1
m = = − =
u 25(−24) 25
(8)
1 1 1
− =
v u f

−1 −1
2
vI = −m ⋅ v0 = ⋅ 25 =
2
(25) 25

146
Ray Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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Diff.
−1 dv 1 du dv du
( ) + ( ) = 0[ = vi ; = v0 ]
2 2
v dt u dt dt dt

+2 2
1 2 2
1
⋅ (vt ) − ⋅ aL − ⋅ (v0 ) + ⋅ a0 = 0
3 2 3 2
v v u u
aI 2 2
2 2
= ⋅ v − ⋅ v
I 0
2 3 3
v v u
2
2 2v
2 2
aI = ⋅ v − ⋅ v
I 3 0
v u

2 ⋅ 25 1 1 2 24 24
= ⋅ ⋅ − ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ 25 ⋅ 25
3
24 25 25 (24) 25 25

2 2
aI = −
24.25 24

2 −24 −2
a1 = ⋅ =
24 25 25

2
100a1 = × 100 = 8
25

23.

(3)
24.

(1)

For transmitted green light to be maxima, reflected green should be minima.

ΔP = 2μ0 t = nλ

nλ λ 550
⇒ t = ∴ tmin = = = 137.5
2μ0 2μ0 2 × 2

147
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1. (11) Position of the n th

bright fringe w.r.t. central maxima
in a YDSE is y n
= n
λD
.
d
′
y ′
10 λ
⇒ =
y10 λ
′

or ′ λ
y = y10
10
λ

660 nm
= ( ) 10 mm
600 nm

= 11 mm

2. (1) Compton effect refers to scattering of a photon by free electrons. This phenomenon provides an evidence for
particle nature of light.
3. n1 λ 1 D
=
n2 λ 2 D

d d
(1)
n480 = m600

nmin = 5

4.
−9
λD 690 × 10 × 0.72
ΔW = =
(1) d ⋅ μ 1.5 × 10
−3
× 1.44
−4
⇒ ΔW = 2.3 × 10 m = 0.23 mm

5.

(2)

148
Wave Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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I0
after passing through third poleriser, Intensity of both the waves must be 4

now, at a point where path diff is λ

3
, phase difference
Δx 2π
Δϕ = 2 K ( ) =
λ 3

2 2 2
I0 I0 I0 2π
∴ Ires = √( ) + ( ) + 2( ) cos
4 4 4 3

I0
=
4

6. (5) Since power emitting by a source is given as

Total energy emitted
=
time

(E1 photon ) × Number of photons (N )

=
t

P1 = (E1 ) n

hC
( ) n1
P1 (E1 ) n1 λ1

= =
P2 (E2 ) n2 hC
( ) n2
λ2

P1 λ2 n1
= ( )
P2 λ1 n2

Substituting the given values

15
300 2 × 10
2 = ( ) ×
600 n2

1
15 14
n2 = × 10 = 5 × 10 Photon /sec
2

7. I ∝ ( width )
2

2
√I1 + √I2 9
( ) =
√I1 − √I2 4

√I 1 + √I 2 3
(2) =
2
√I1 − √I2

(x + 1)d 3
=
(x − 1)d 2

⇒ 3x − 3 = 2x + 2

x = 5

8. (2) β( fringe width ) = λD

In denser medium, λ ↓⇒ β ↓ ⇒ fringe come closer

Also, μ =
c c
⇒ V =
V μ

149
Wave Optics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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Frequency remains same,

λvac. f λvac.
⇒ μ = ⇒ λmed =
λmed f μ

9. β =
λD

(4) d

λred < λblue

Assertion is false
Reason is true

150
Dual Nature of Matter Chapter-wise Question Bank
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1. λ =
h
=
h

mv √2mK

(2) 2
h
2
1
λ = ( )
2 m k

2
Y = cx

Upward facing parabola passing through origin.

2. (4) From Einstein photoelectric equation
hc
= ϕ + eVS
λ

Maximum K.E. = (K) max = eV s

(K)max
So, V S =
e

3. (4) Energy of photon = E =

hc

⇒ Wavelength of photon = λ = hc

E
2

Energy of proton = E =
1

2
mp v
2
=
P

2mp

⇒ Linear momentum of proton = P = √2mp E

Or de-Broglie wavelength of proton

h h
= λp = =
P
√2mp E

λp h E
Ratio = ×
λ √2mp E hc

1 E
= √
c 2mp

4. →
^
v = v0 i −
E0 e
^
tk
m

2 2 2
E e t
→ 2 0
| v | = √v +
0 2
m

h
λ0 =
mv0
(1)
h
′
λ =
2 2 2
E e t
0
mv0 √1 +
2 2
v m
0

λ0
′
λ =
2 2 2
E e t
0
√1 +
2 2
v m
0

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Dual Nature of Matter Chapter-wise Question Bank
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5. hv = ϕ + KEmax

KEmax = eV0
(2)
hv − ϕ
V0 =
e

(A) V 0
v/sV is linear correct
(B) Slope
h ϕ
v0 = ( )v − Wrong
e e

Slope h

(C) Correct
(D) Incorrect
(E) Correct
6. (4) We need to check the dimensions only.
With momentum the dimension
2 2 2
E = p C

And with mass E 2

= m c
2 4

So E 2
= p C
2 2
+ m c
2 4
(dimensionally)
7.
−34
h 6.63 × 10
λ = =
(4) p
10
−30
× 2.21 × 10
6

−10
= 3 × 10 m

Hence particle will behave as x-ray.

8. (1) ϕ = 2.14

VS = 2 V

Using photoelectric equation.

hc
= 2.14 + 2 = 4.14eV
λ
1242
λ = = 300 nm
4.14

9. (4) λ = mv
h

nh
mvr =
2π

nh
mv =
2πr

2πrh
λ =
nh
r
λ ∝
n
−11
λ1 r1 n4 5.3 × 10 × 4
= =
λ4 n1 r4 −11
1 × 84.8 × 10

λ1 1
=
λ4 4

152
Dual Nature of Matter Chapter-wise Question Bank
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10. ∴ Extra charge = 4mC

1 1
2 ′ 2
U1 = CV , U2 = C V
2 2

1
(3) ΔU = (C
′
− C) V
2

1
4 −6
= × 40 × 10 × 10
2

= 0.2 J

11. (4) Einstein's photoelectric equation

hc
KE = = ϕ0
λ

hc
2eV = − 1eV
λ

hc
= 3eV
λ

′
hc
KE = − ϕ0 = 6eV − 1eV
(λ/2)

= 5eV

153
Atomic Physics Chapter-wise Question Bank
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1. (4) Negative potential will slow the electrons and if it is sufficient, it will make the photocurrent zero.
eVs = hf − ϕ0

2.

(3)
3. f =
v
= (
V0
)(
1
)
2πr n 2πr0 n
2

(4)
V0 1 1
f = = ( ) = f0 ( )
3 3
2πr0 n n

4.

(3)

hc

λ1
= E0 z
2
(
1

2
−
1

2
) ....(i)
nc n
A

And hc

λ2
= E0 z
2
(
1

2
−
1

2
)
nc n
B

So for A and B ....(ii)

hc 2 1 1
= E0 z ( − )
λ3 2 2
n n
B A

Clearly subtracting equation (ii) from equation (i)

1 1 1 1 hc
2
hc [ − ] = E0 z [ − ] =
2 2
λ1 λ2 n n λ3
B A

1 1 1 1 (6000 − 2000) 1
⇒ = − ⇒ = =
λ3 λ1 λ2 λ3 6000 × 2000 3000

λ3 = 3000 Å

154
Atomic Physics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

5.

(4)

155
Nuclear Physics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1. (4) For all nuclear processes, charge must be conserved. Also, when a release of an electron ( e ) is always
−

accompanied by a release of an antineutrino ( v̄ )

Hence, n → p + e −
+¯
¯
v¯
is the correct answer.
2.
−3λt
N2 = N0 e
−λt
N 1 = N0 e

N2
−2λt
= e
N1
(4) thalf lifeofN
t

ln 2
t = n
1
λ
N0
−λt
= N0 e
2

λt = ln 2

ln 2
t =
λ
ln 2
−2λ
= e λ

N2 1
=
N1 4

3. (1) From graph between B.E/N \& A we can see BE/N is almost constant ⇒ correct
Reason ⇒ incorrect as nuclear forces are short range forces.

156
Electromagnetic Waves Chapter-wise Question Bank
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1. (3) EM wave carry both energy and momentum. Rest mass of photon is zero.
2.

(2)

Direction of propogation
→ →
= E × B

3. (2) Energy density of an EM wave =

1

2
εE
2
0
, whare E is the amplitude of the wave.
0

Since total energy is same for both cylinders

1 1
2 2 2 2
( εE ) πR L1 = ( εE ) πR L2
1 1 2 2
2 2

2 2 2 2
⇒ E R L1 = E R L2
1 1 2 2

E1 R1 L1 100 d L1
or E2 = √ = √ = 200 N/C
R2 L2 ( d/2) L1

[∵ L1 = L2 = 200 cm]

⇒ The amplitude of corresponding EM wave is 200 N/C

or the wave is E = 200 sin(ωt − kx)NC
−1

4. → √3
^
1
^
z
B = ( i + j ) 30 sin[ω (t − )]
(1) 2 2 c

→ →
→
E = B × c and E = B0 c

→ √3
Here E (
2
^
(− j ) +
1

2
^
i)

E0 = 30c

→ 1 √3 z
^ ^
E = ( i − j ) 30c sin[ω (t − )]
2 2 c

157
Electromagnetic Waves Chapter-wise Question Bank
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→
5. ^ ^
K = 3i + 4j

^ ^
3i + 4j
^
K =
5

^ ^
4i − 3j
^
(3) E =
5

^ ^ ^
B = K × E

^ ^
B = −Z

E0 57
B0 = =
8
C 3 × 10

6. E = BC

8
9.3 = B × 3 × 10
(2)
9.3
−8
B = = 3.1 × 10 T
8
3 × 10

7. (1200) i d = ic

∴ Total displacement current = 6 A

Through A 0

A0
i = ( )6
A

3.2
= × 6 = 1.2 A = 1200 mA
16

158
Semiconductors Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1. A B Y

0 0 0

(1) 0 1 1

1 0 1

1 1 1

⇒ OR Gate
2.

(4)
3.

(2)

¯
¯¯¯
P = A ⋅ B

Q = A ⋅ B

¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
¯¯
¯¯¯
¯¯¯
¯¯¯
¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯
Y = P + Q = A ⋅ B + A ⋅ B

¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
¯
¯¯¯ ¯¯
¯¯¯
¯¯¯
¯¯
= A ⋅ (B + B) = A ⋅ I

¯
¯¯¯
Y = A

4. (4) V = V 0 sin ωt

159
Semiconductors Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

5. (1) Clearly statement ' A ' is wrong as for solar cell junction area are mode wide. LED connected in forward biase
and its intensity increases upto certain value of current and further there is no charge as intensity saturates.
Also solar cells are not connected with any external bias.
6.

(1)

x y

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 0

160
Semiconductors Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

7.

(1)

Current through ammeter = 1 A

Rnet = 6Ω

161
Semiconductors Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

VAB = 0.5 × 4 = 2volt

VCD = 1 × 4 = 4volt

A, B \& D are correct

8. (4) For forward bias potential of p side should be higher than n side.
9.

(3)

¯¯
¯¯¯
¯¯¯ →
For NOR gate : AB
¯¯¯¯
= A + B

162
Experimental Physics Chapter-wise Question Bank
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

1.

(3)

Since least count of the instrument can be calculated as

pitch length
Least count =
No. of division on circular scale

0.75
= = 0.05 mm.
15

Here we are provided L = 5 mm& W = 2.5 mm L = 5 mm& W = 2.5 mm

∵ We know that
A = L. W

For calculating fractional error, we can write

dA dL dW
= +
A L W

Here dL = dW = 0.05 mm
dA 0.05 0.05
= +
A 5 2.5

dA 1 2 3
⇒ = + =
A 100 100 100

So, x = 3
2. Given least count of Screw Gauge = 0.01 mm

( pitch ) P
L.C = = = 0.01 mm
No. of circular turn N

P(1 + 0.75) P 1.75

(35) New pitch = = [ ]
N(1 − 0.5) N 0.5

= (0.01)3.5

= 0.035 mm

−3
= 35 × 10 mm

3. (3) In general one vernier scale division is smaller than one main scale division but in some modified cases it may
be not correct. Also least count is given by one main scale division / number of vernier scale division for normal
vernier calliper.

163