1 Which of the following scientists hypothesized that it would be

possible for particles to have wave-like properties? Was it:

(a) Planck (b) Heisenberg (c) Einstein (d) de Broglie

2 In the filling of electron orbitals for the element sulfur, which has 16
electrons, the number of electrons in the 3p orbitals is:
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 0

3 What is the atomic weight of a hypothetical element consisting of two isotopes, one with
mass = 64.23 amu (26.0%), and one with mass = 65.32 amu?
(a) 65.3 amu (b) 64.4 amu (c) 64.9 amu (d) 65.0 amu

4 What is the frequency of light having a wavelength of 4.50 x 10-6 cm?

(a) 2.84 x 10-12 s-1 (b) 2.10 x 104 s-1 (c) 4.29 x 1014 s-1 (d) 6.67 x 1015 s-1

5 Which of the responses contains all the statements that are consistent with the Bohr
theory of the atom (and no others)?
(1) An electron can remain in a particular orbit as long as it continually absorbs radiation
of a definite frequency.
(2) The lowest energy orbits are those closest to the nucleus.
(3) An electron can jump from the K shell (n = 1 major energy level) to the M shell (n = 3
major energy level) by emitting radiation of a definite frequency.
(a) 1,2,3 (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1,2

6 The Heisenberg Principle states that _____________.

(a) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.
(b) two atoms of the same element must have the same number of protons. (c) it is
impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an electron
simultaneously. (d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically
equivalent sets of orbitals singly before they pair up in any orbital of the set.

7 The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sublevel for which l =
3 is: (a) 2 (b) 10 (c) 6 (d) 14

8 Which azimuthal quantum numbers can exist for n = 3?

(a) l = 0 (b) l = 0, 1 (c) l = 0, 1, 2 (d) l = 0, 1, 2, 3

9 If l = 1, what value can ml have?

(a) ml = -1 (b) ml = +1 (c) ml = 0 (d) ml = -1, 0, +1

10 How many electrons can the second principal quantum level hold?
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 18

11 Which of the following has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p6?

(a) Ca (b) Ar (c) K+ (d) Both b and c
 12 How many electrons are there in the valence shell of the O2– ion?
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 16

222
13 Rn is unstable and decays by losing 6 neutrons and 2 protons. What is the final
decay product?
(a) 218Bi (b) 216Bi (c) 216Pb (d) 214Po

14 Which one of the following species contains an unpaired electron?

(a) N2 (b) N2O (c) NO2 (d) NO3–

15 How many protons (p), neutrons (n), and electrons (e) are present in
(a) 200 p 80 n 198 e (b) 80 p 120 n 78 e (c) 120 p 80 n 118 e
(d) 80 p 200 n 78 e

16 During _____ only energy is released

(a) Alpha decay (b) Positron emission (c) Gamma decay (d) Beta decay

17 How many orbitals are contained in an atom with atomic number 13?
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 3

18 The number of unpaired electrons in an atom of 8Q is

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

19 Which of the following atom contain the highest number of electrons in the outermost
shell? (a) 8O (b) 10Ne (c) 15P (d) 19K
20 In the spectrum of hydrogen atom, the series which falls in ultraviolet region is
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series (c) Paschen series (d) Brackett series
21 The Balmer series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in
(a) ultraviolet region (b) visible region (c) infrared region (d) none of these

22 The idea of stationary orbits was first given by

(a) Rutherford (b) JJ Thomson (c) Niels Bohr (d) Max Planck

23. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in an orbit is

(a) 2n (b) n2 (c) 2n2 (d) 2n + 1

24. The maximum number of electrons is the outermost orbit is

(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 18 (d) 32

25. Factors governing the formation of an ionic bond are

(a) low ionisation energy of metal and high electron affinity of non-metal atom
(b) high ionisation energy of metal and high electron affinity of non-metal atom
(c) low ionisation energy of metal atom and low electron affinity of non-metal atom
(d) high ionisation energy of metal and low electron affinity of non-metal atom
26. The lattice energy is the amount of energy that
(a) is released when one cation combines with one anion
(b) is released when one mole of cations combine with one mole of anions
(c) is released when one mole of an ionic compound is formed from its cations and anions
(d) is absorbed when one mole of an ionic compound is formed from its cation and anions
27 The most favourable conditions for the formation of an ionic compound is
(a) low charge on ions, small cation and small anion
(b) high charge on ions, large cation and large anion
(c) high charge on ions, small cation and large anion
(d) low charge on ions, large cation and small anion

28 Ionic compounds are generally

(a) solids having large melting points and good conductors of electricity
(b) gases having low melting points and poor conductors of electricity
(c) solids having low melting points and good conductors of electricity
(d) solids having high melting points and bad conductors of electricity

29 A covalent bond involves

(a) sharing of electrons between a metal and a non-metal atom
(b) sharing of electrons between two metal atoms
(c) sharing of electrons between two atoms having similar electronegativity
(d) sharing of electrons between two atoms having a large difference in electronegativity

30 The total number of electron pairs in a nitrogen molecule is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7

31 The covalent compounds are soluble in

(a) all acids (b) all bases (c) all solvents (d) non-polar solvents

32 The compounds which contain both ionic and covalent bonds are
(a) CHCl3 and CCl4 (b) KCl and AlCl3 (c) KCN and NaOH (d) H2 and CH4

33 A co-ordinate bond is formed by

(a) complete transfer of electrons (b) sharing of electrons contributed by both the atoms
(c) sharing of electrons contributed by one atom only (d) none of these

34 The types of bonds present in sulphuric acid molecules are

(a) only covalent (b) ionic and covalent (c) co-ordinate and covalent (d) co-ordinate, covalent
and ionic

35 The polarity of a covalent bond is due to

(a) lesser electronegativity difference between two atoms (b) greater electronegativity difference
between two atoms (c) lesser bond energy (d) greater bond energy

36 Methanol is soluble in water due to

(a) covalent bond nature (b) ionic bond nature (c) hydrogen bonding (d) its poisonous nature
37 In ice crystal, the H2O molecules are held together in a
(a) planar structure (b) linear structure (c) tetrahedral three dimensional structure (d) none of
these

38 The density of ice (solid) is lesser than that of water (liquid) because it has
(a) open cage like structure with no empty spaces
(b) open cage like structure with large empty spaces
(c) intermolecular H-bonding
(d) intramolecular H-bonding

39 The density of water is maximum at

(a) 273 K (b) 277 K (c) 281 K (d) 285 K

40 The electrical conductivity of metals is due to

(a) mobile protons is the nucleus (b) mobile nucleus in the nucleus
(c) mobile electrons in outer vacant spaces (d) mobile electrons in inner vacant spaces

41 According to VSEPR theory,

(a) the lone pairs only decide the structure of the molecule
(b) the bond pairs only decide the structure of the molecule
(c) the lone pairs and bond pairs both decide the structure of the molecule
(d) none of these

42 In which of the following, the central atom is surrounded by four electron pairs
(a) H2O (b) NH3 (c) CH4 (d) All

43 The molecule among CCl4, PCl3, SF4 and NH3 that does not contain lone pairs of electrons
around the central atom is (a) CCl4 (b) PCl3 (c) SF4 (d) NH3

44 Which of the following are isostructrual

(a) SO2 and CO2 (b) SO2 and H2O (c) BCl3 and CHCl3 (d) NH3 and CH4

45 The molecular shapes of H2O, NH3 and CH4 are

(a) similar with 2, 1 and 0 lone pairs of electrons respectively
(b) similar with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively
(c) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively
(d) different with 2, 1 and 0 lone pairs of electrons respectively

46 The molecule of NH3 is

(a) tetrahedral with bond angle 109° 28′ (b) pyramidal with bond angle 107° 20′
(c) trigonal with bond angle 120° (d) linear with bond angle 180°

47 The NH4+ and SO42– ions have

(a) tetrahedral geometry (b) triangular geometry (c) pyramidal geometry (d) square planar
geometry
48 Which is incorrect?
(a) all molecules with polar bonds have dipole moment
(b) all molecules with polar bonds may or may not have dipole moment
(c) the greater the difference in electronegativity between two atoms, greater is the polarity
(d) if the electronegativity difference between two atoms is greater than 1.7, the bond will be
ionic

49 The favourable conditions for the formation of H–bonding are

(a) high electronegativity and small size of the atom bonded to H–atom (b) low electronegativity
and large size of the atom bonded to H–atom (c) high electronegativity and large size of the atom
bonded to H–atom (d) low electronegativity and small size of the atom bonded to H–atom

50 The bond angles in a trigonal bipyramid molecules are

(a) 90° (b) 120° (c) 109.5° (d) 120°, 90°

51 In a bond between two atoms X and Y, the shared electron pair does not lie in the centre. The
bond is (a) single bond (b) non-polar bond (c) polar bond (d) co-ordinate bond

52 When one s and two p orbitals hybridize we get

(a) three new orbitals at 90° to each other (b) three new orbitals at 120° to each other
(c) two new orbitals at 180° to each other (d) two new orbitals at 90° to each other

53 sp3 hybridization leads to

(a) trigonal geometry with bond angles 120° each (b) tetrahedral geometry with bond angles
109.5° each (c) tetrahedral geometry with bond angles 90° each (d) square planar geometry with
bond angles 90° each

54 The shape of BF3 molecule is planar with bond angles equal to 120° each. It is due to
(a) sp3 hybridized B atom (b) sp2 hybridized B atom (c) sp hybridized B atom (d) dsp2 hybridized
B atom

55 Valence bond theory was proposed by

(a) Rutherford (b) Neils Bohr (c) Heitler and London (d) Hund and Mulliken

56 What mass in grams of copper will be deposited from a solution of Cu2+ by a current of 2.50
A in 2.00 hr? (a) 23.7 (b) 0.187 (c) 1.65 (d) 5.93

57 How many grams of copper would be produced by the reduction of Cu2+ if 3.0 amperes of
current are passed through a copper (II) nitrate solution for one hour?
(a) 18.20 (b) 3.56 (c) 31.80 (d) 63.50

58. How many grams of Ni can be electroplated from a solution of nickel chloride by four
faradays of electricity? (a) 29.3 (b) 58.7 (c) 117.4 (d) 176.1

59. How many grams of Cu could be produced from CuSO4 by 0.5 faradays of charge?
(a) 15.9 (b) 63.5 (c) 127.0 (d) 31.75
60. How many grams of copper will be deposited from a solution of CuSO4 by a current of 3
amperes in 2 hours? (a) 5 g (b) 7 g (c) 8 g (d) 11 g

61 On passing one faraday of electricity, one mole of metal is deposited from the solution of
(a) KCl (b) BaCl2 (c) AlCl3 (d) none of these

62 A certain current liberated 1.008 g of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of copper can be
deposited by the same current flowing for the same time in CuSO4 solution? (Cu = 63.5)
(a) 31.75 g (b) 63.5 g (c) 127 g (d) 15.875 g

63 An acid is a compound that gives H+ ions in water and a base is a compound that gives OH–
ions in water. This concept was given by
(a) Arrhenius (b) Lewis (c) Bronsted (d) Lowry

64 According to Bronsted-Lowry concept, an acid is a substance that

(a) accepts a proton (b) releases a proton (c) accepts an electron pair (d) releases an electron pair

65 A substance accepts a proton. According to Bronsted-Lowry concept it is

(a) an acid (b) a base (c) a neutral substance (d) amphoteric

66 In the following reaction

H2O + HCl → H3O+ + Cl–
the species that acts as a Bronsted base is (a) H2O (b) HCl (c) H3O+ (d) Cl–

67 In the following hypothetical reaction

The conjugate base of the acid HA is

(a) B– (b) HA (c) A– (d) none of these

68 In the reaction between NH3 and HCl

the conjugate acid of NH3 is

(a) HCl (b) NH4+ (c) Cl– (d) none of these

69 The strength of an acid depends upon

(a) the concentration of H+ ions in aqueous solution (b) the concentration of electrons pairs in
aqueous solution (c) the tendency to release the electron pair (d) the tendency to gain the electron
pair

70 The dissociation constant of an acid HA is given by

71 The pH of 0.001 M HCl is (a) 0.001 (b) 10–3 (c) 3 (d) –3

72 The pH of a solution of HCl is 1. The amount of acid present in one litre of the solution will
be (a) 3.65 g lit–1 (b) 0.365 g lit–1 (c) 36.5 g lit–1 (d) 1.0 g lit–1

73 The pH of 0.1 M NaOH solution will be

(a) 1 (b) 0.1 (c) 13 (d) 14

74 A salt of weak acid and weak base on hydrolysis gives a solution which is
(a) acidic (b) basic (c) neutral (d) sometimes acidic, sometimes basic

75 The half-life of 32P, which is used as a label on red blood cells to determine blood volume, is
14.3 days. How many days are required for the activity of a sample of 32P to drop to 5.00% of its
initial level? (a) 26.8 days (b) 42.8 days (c) 61.8 days (d) 0.209 days

76 The half-life of Sulfur-35 is 88 days. If 8.0 g of Sulfur-35 exists on day one, what fraction
will remain after 264 days? (a) 0.5 g (b) 4.0 g (c) 0 g (d) 1.0 g

77 198Au has a half-life of 2.70 days. Assuming you start with a 10.0 mg sample of 198Au, how
much will remain after 10.0 days? (a) 0.246 mg (b) 130 mg (c) 0.768 mg (d) 9.44 mg

78 The half-life for the beta decay of 233Pa is 27.4 days. How many days must pass to reduce a
5.00 g sample of 233Pa to 0.625 g? (a) 109.6 days (b) 54.8 days (c) 82.2 days (d) 27.4 days

79 The half-life of tritium (Hydrogen-3) is 12.3 yr. If 48.0 mg of tritium is released from a
nuclear power plant during the course of an accident, what mass of this nuclide will remain after
49.2 yr? (a) 6.0 mg (b) 3.0 mg (c) 24.0 mg (d) 12.0 mg

80 How old is a fossil bone whose 14C content is 15.0 percent that of living bone?
(a) 25400 yr (b) 15600 yr (c) 380 yr (d) 6810 yr

81 Iodine-131 has a half-life of 8 days. How many grams of I-131 in a 4.0 g sample remain after
24 days? (a) 2.0 g (b) 1.0 g (c) 3.0 g (d) 1.5 g

82 The half-life of 45Ca is 165 days. After 1.0 year, what percentage of the original sample of
45
Ca remains? (a) 10.9 percent (b) 99.6 percent (c) 2.16 percent (d) 21.6 percent

83 Consider the reaction:

Which species is the oxidizing agent? (a) KI (b) Cl2 (c) KCl (d) I2

84 The oxidation number of N in NaNO2 is: (a) +5 (b) +2 (c) +3 (d) -3

85 In which of the following compounds is the bonding most covalent? (a)

NaCl (b) F2 (c) MgS
(d) Fe3C

86 Ammonia can be considered a Lewis base because it can donate:

(a) electrons (b) protons (c) hydronium ions (d) hydroxide ions

87 Which of the following is the weakest acid?

(a) hydrochloric acid (b) hydrofluoric acid (c) sulfuric acid (d) nitric acid

88 Which one of the following species is isoelectronic with the Al3+ cation?
(a) F – (b) Cl– (c) S2– (d) O-

89 For a given cell, the standard reduction potentials are +0.80 V for Ag + and
–0.76 V for Zn2+. Based on the reduction potentials, the ________ electrode is
where the reduction will occur and it is called the ___________
(a) Ag, cathode (b) Ag, anode (c) Zn, cathode (d) Zn, anode

90 Given the electrochemical reaction where the standard reduction potential of Ag + → Ag is

+0.80 V, and the standard reduction potential of Cu2+ → Cu is +0.34V, what is E˚ for the given
cell? (a) +1.26 V (b) +0.85 V (c) +0.46 V (d) -0.37 V

91 How long would it take to electroplate a flute with 28.3 g of silver (107.87 g/mol) at a
constant current of 2.0 A using AgNO3? (a) 211 min (b) 1688 min (c) 422 min (d)105 min

92 Copper metal (63.546 g/mol) is purified by electrolysis. How much copper metal (in grams)
could be produced from copper (II) oxide by applying a current of 10.0 amps at the appropriate
negative potential for 12.0 hours?
(a) 284 g (b) 14.2 g (c) 142 g (d) 4.48 g