22-12-2024 JR - Super60 Sterling BT Jee-Adv (2023-p1) Wta-22 Q. Paper
22-12-2024 JR - Super60 Sterling BT Jee-Adv (2023-p1) Wta-22 Q. Paper
JEE-ADVANCE-2023-P1-Model
Time:3Hr’s IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Max Marks: 180
MATHEMATICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – I(Q.N : 1 – 3) +4 -2 3 12
Choice with partial mark
Questions with Single Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 4 – 7) +3 -1 4 12
Choice
Sec – III(Q.N : 8 – 13) Questions with Integer Answer Type +4 0 6 24
Sec – IV(Q.N : 14 – 17) Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 17 60
PHYSICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – I(Q.N : 18 – 20) +4 -2 3 12
Choice with partial mark
Questions with Single Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 21 – 24) +3 -1 4 12
Choice
Sec – III(Q.N : 25 – 30) Questions with Integer Answer Type +4 0 6 24
Sec – IV(Q.N : 31 – 34) Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 17 60
CHEMISTRY:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – I(Q.N : 35 – 37) +4 -2 3 12
Choice with partial mark
Questions with Single Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 38 – 41) +3 -1 4 12
Choice
Sec – III(Q.N : 42 – 47) Questions with Integer Answer Type +4 0 6 24
Sec – IV(Q.N : 48 – 51) Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 17 60
SECTION – I
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains THERE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks :+4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct ;
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and it is a correct option ;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark; choosing no option (i.e.
the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get -2 marks.
1. The values of parameter a for which the point of minimum of the function
x2 x 2
f ( x) 1 a x x satisfies the inequality 2
2 3
0 are
x 5x 6
A) (2 3,3 3) B) (3 3, 2 3) C) ( 2 3,3 3) D) (3 2,2 3)
2. Let f : R R be a function defined by f ( x) ( x 3) n1 ( x 5) n2 , n1 , n2 N . Then which
of the following is True ?
A) For n1 3, n 2 4, there exists (3,5) where f attains local maxima
B) For n1 4, n2 3 , there exists (3,5) where f attains local minima
C) For n1 3, n2 5, there exists (3,5) where f attains local maxima
D) For n1 4, n 2 6, there exists (3,5) where f attains local maxima
2 3
3. If the function f ( x ) 4 x2 3 4 x2 1 then which of the following
is/are correct ?
A) f ( x) has greatest value 28
B) f ( x) has least value K [ K ] 9 . is G .I .F
C) The slope of the tangent of f ( x) at x 1 equals (8 2 3)
D) f '(2) 0
SECTION – II
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases
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4. Let f ( x ) 2 x 3(1 3a ) x 6(a 2 a ) x b where a , b R . Find the smallest integral
3 2
which f has exactly one point of local maxima and one point of local minima is
A) (,1) (9, ) B) (,1] [9, ) C) (,1) [9, ) D) [1,9]
6. Let f ( x) 4 sin 3 x 9cos 2 x 6sin x 3 for 0 x then the maximum value
of f ( x) occurs at x =
5
A) 0 B) C) D)
6 2
7. Let f ( x ) x 1 2 x and g ( x ) x bx c are two given functions such that
2
f ( x) and g ( x) attain their maximum and minimum values respectively for same
value of x then the value of b is
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
SECTION-III
(NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the place
designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered; Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
18. In a linear simple harmonic motion (SHM). Select the correct statement (s)
A) Restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement
B) The acceleration and displacement are opposite in direction
C) The velocity is maximum at mean position
D) The acceleration is minimum at extreme points
19. Three simple harmonic motions in the same direction having the same amplitude and same
period are superposed. If each differ in phase from the next by 45 , then
C) the energy associated with the resulting motion is (3 2 2) times the energy
associated with any single motion.
D) the resultant motion is not simple harmonic
20. Two identical blocks P and Q have mass m each. They are attached to two identical springs
having spring constant K each are initially unstretched. Now the left spring (along with P)
A
is compressed by and the right spring (along with Q) is compressed by A. Both the
2
blocks are released simultaneously. They collide perfectly inelastically. Initially time
period of both the blocks was T. Then
TM 2 A T 2 A
C)
T 1 Mg D) 1
TM Mg
23. When a particle of mass m is attached to a vertical spring of spring constant k and released,
its motion is described by y (t ) y0 sin 2 t , where ‘y’ is measured from the lower end of
unstretched spring. Then is
1 g g g 2g
A) B) C) D)
2 y0 y0 2 y0 y0
24. The x-t graph of a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion as shown in figure. The
4
acceleration of the particle at t sec is
3
3 2 2 2 3 2
A) cms 2 B) cms 2 C) cms 2 D) cms 2
32 32 32 32
U 4(1 cos 4 x) J . The time period of the particle for small oscillation (sin ) is s .
K
The value of K is ………
28. A particle of mass 1kg is hanging from a spring of force constant 100 Nm 1 . The mass is
pulled slightly downward and released so that it executes free simple harmonic motion with
time period T. The time when the kinetic energy and potential energy of the system will
T
become equal is . The value of x is
x
29. A particle executes S.H.M with amplitude ‘a’ and time period (T) the displacement of the
1rd 2 2A
particle when its speed is of the maximum speed is then the value of x is
3 x
30. A particle executes simple harmonic motion represented by displacement function
as x(t ) Asin(t ). If the position and velocity of the particle at t = 0s are 2cm
and 2cms 1 respectively, then its amplitude is x 2cm where the value of x is ____
m
I. P) time period of ocillation T 2 spring
k
is initially relaxed when force is applied
2mg
II. Q) amplitude of oscillation is A spring is
k
initially relaxed when force is applied
m
III. R) maximum velocity attained by block is 2 g .
k
Before force is applied block is in equilibrium position
Column - I Column - II
I) the block’s mass in kg P) -0.20
II) the block’s displacement at t = 0 in meter Q) -200
III) the block’s acceleration at t = 0.1s in m/s2 R)0.20
IV) the block’s maximum kinetic energy in joule S) 4.0
A) I-S, II-R, III-Q, IV-P B) I-R, II-S, III-Q, IV-P
C) I-R, II-P, III-Q, IV-S D) I-R, II-Q, III-S, IV-P
35. The correct statement(s) for the following addition reactions is (are)
H3C H
i) B
r2/CHCl3
M and N
H CH3
H 3C CH 3
ii)
Br2 / CHCl3
O and P
H H
A) (M and O) and (N and P) are two pairs of enantiomers
B)Bromination proceeds through trans-addition in both the reactions
C) O and P are identical molecules
D) (M and O) and (N and P) two pairs of diastereomers
36. Consider the sequence of reacations.
CH 3CH 2 C C H i ) NaNH 2
ii ) CH 3CH 2 Br
X
H 2 / Pd BaSO4
Y
Alkaline KMnO4
Z
Identify the correct statement (s) for above sequence of reactions
A) x is 1-hexyne
B) y is formed by synaddition mechanism from x
C) z is an optically inactive
D) Z is a mesoproduct
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37. One mole of a hydrocarbon A reacts with one mole of bromine giving a dibromo
compound, C5 H10 Br2 . Compound A on treatment with cold dilute alkaline potassium
permanganate solution forms a compound, C5 H12O2 . On ozonolysis A gives
equimolarquantities of propanone and ethanal. Correct statements about this is/are
A) A has 9 primary hydrogens
B) Dibromoproduct is a vic-dibromo product
C) After addition of KMnO4 a gem diol is formed
2
D) A has two sp carbons
SECTION – II
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases
38. Which compound would give 5-keto-2-methyl hexanal upon ozonolysis ?
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH 3
CH 3
CH3
CH3
A) B) C) CH3 D)
2
39. Ph C C CH 3
Hg
H
A; A is
O Ph OH
Ph Ph Ph
O OH
H3C H 3C H3C H3C
A) B) C) D)
40. Hydrogenation of the adjoining compound in the presence of poisoned palladium catalyst
gives
H 3C H
CH 3
H 3C H H
A) an optically active compound B) an optically inactive compound
C) a racemic mixture D) a diastereomeric mixture
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41. The number of structural and configurational isomers of a bromo compound, C5 H 9 Br ,
formed by the addition of HBr to 2-pentyne respectively, are
A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 4 C) 4 and 2 D) 2 and 1
SECTION-III
(NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the place
designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered; Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
42. An alkyl halide X, of formula C6 H13Cl on treatment with potassium ter-butoxide gives
two isomeric alkenes Y and Z (C6 H12 ) . Both alkenes on hydrogenation gives
2, 3-dimethyl butane. If z involves reductive ozonolysis, find the number of lone pairs of
electrons in sp 3 hybrid orbitals of organic product
43. Find out the number of stereo isomers formed when cis-2-butene is reacted with bromine
in the presence of CCl4
44. When an aqueous solution of 1 mole of potassium succinate undergoes Kolbe’s
electrolysis to give X lit of CO2 and Y lit of hydro carbon (Assume both are gases) at
STP, find out X Y (nearest integer)
45. Find out the total number of cyclic isomers possible for a hydrocarbon with the molecular
formulae C4 H 6
HC CH2
iv) Ph C C H v) Ph HC CH 2 vi)
vii) Ph C C Ph
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SECTION – IV
(MATCHING TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the
condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks:+3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: –1 In all other cases..
48. Consider the sequence of reactions
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
I) A is P)
II) B is Q) O
CH 3
III) C is R)
IV) D is S)
Br
Br
A) I-S, II-R, III-Q, IV-P B) I-R, II-S, III-Q, IV-P
C) I-S, II-R, III-P, IV-Q D) I-R, II-Q, III-S, IV-P
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49. Match the product from List-II for the reaction given in List-I (Major product only)
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
I) P) Ph CH CH 2
N H 2O2 ,
II) ph Q) Ph
N H 2O2 ,
III) R) CH 2 CH 2
N H 2O2 ,
IV) S)
H 2O2 ,
N
Ph
A) I-S, II-R, III-Q, IV-P B) I-R, II-S, III-Q, IV-P
C) I-R, II-P, III-S, IV-Q D) I-R, II-Q, III-S, IV-P
50. Consider the sequence of reactions
NaOH Cl2 , h Cl2 , h
CH 3COOH ( aq )
A
Soda lim e
B (1 eq )
C Na , dry ether
D
(1 eq )
Br2 CCl4 Fe tube
E
Alc . KOH
F (1 eq )
G alK . KOH
NaNH 2
H red hot
I
Correct match for List-I to List- II
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
I) Formation of B P) HCCl3
from A
II) If 2 equivalents of Q) H 2C CH Br
Cl2 is added to C gives
III) After addition of alc. R) HC CH
KOH for G gives
IV) Gives red PPt with S) Decarboxylation
ammonical Cu2Cl2
A) I-S, II-R, III-Q, IV-P B) I-R, II-S, III-Q, IV-P
C) I-R, II-P, III-S, IV-Q D) I-S, II-P, III-Q, IV-R
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
I) P) gem-dihalide
Br2
CCl4
HBr
(2 eq )
III) HC CH CH 2 CH 2 CH3 CH3 R) Reddish brown colour
disappears