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Iit Mock Test - 08 (06!03!2025) Phase - III

The document is an IIT Mock Test containing various physics questions related to thermodynamics, fluid mechanics, and material properties. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answers and deducts 1 mark for incorrect responses. The test emphasizes the importance of mental control, patience, and self-confidence for success.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
38 views10 pages

Iit Mock Test - 08 (06!03!2025) Phase - III

The document is an IIT Mock Test containing various physics questions related to thermodynamics, fluid mechanics, and material properties. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answers and deducts 1 mark for incorrect responses. The test emphasizes the importance of mental control, patience, and self-confidence for success.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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FOCUSSING ON MEDICAL NEET AND IIT – JEE Date:06-03-2025

IIT MOCK TEST -08 (PHASE-III) TIME: 3 hrs


EACH QUESTION CARRIES 4 MARKS. FOR EACH CORRECT RESPONS CELL: 9346193397
THE CANDIDATE WILL GET 4 MARKS.FOR EACH INCORRECT RESPONSE
1 MARK WILL BE DEDUCTED FROM THE TOTAL SCORE.
1. HAVE CONTROL OF MIND→ HAVE PATIENCE TO WORK → HAVE CONFIDENCE IN YOURSELF =>100% SUCCESS

1. A gas can be taken from A to B via two different process ACB and ADB. When path ACB is used 60 j of heat flows into
the system and 30 J of work is done by the system. If path ADB is used work done by the system is 10 J. the heat Flow
into the system in path ADB is :
1) 40 J
2) 80 J
3) 100 J
4) 20 J
2. A litre of dry air at STP expands adiabatically to a volume of 3 litre. If 𝛾 = 1.40, the work done by air is
(31.4 = 4.6555) [Take air to be an ideal gas]
1) 60.7 J 2) 90.5 J 3) 100.8 J 4) 48 J
3. The excess pressure inside a liquid drop is 500 𝑁𝑚 −2. If the radius of the drop is 2 mm, the surface tension of liquid is
1) 500 × 10−3 𝑁𝑚−1 2) 400 × 10−5 𝑁𝑚 −1 3) 500 × 10−4 𝑁𝑚 −1 4) 200 × 10−3 𝑁𝑚 −1
2
4. A solid metallic cube having total surface area 24 𝑚 is uniformly heated. If its temperature is increased by 10℃ ,
calculate the increase in volume of the cube. (Given : 𝛼 = 5.0 × 10−4 ℃−1
1) 2.4 × 106 𝑐𝑚 3 2) 1.2 × 105 𝑐𝑚 3 3) 6.0 × 104 𝑐𝑚 3 4) 4.8 × 105 𝑐𝑚 3
5. Under the same load, wire A having length 5.0 m and cross section 2.5 × 10−5 𝑚 2 stretches uniformly by the same
amount as another wire B of length 6.0 m and a cross section of 3.0 × 10−5 𝑚 2 stretches. The ratio of the Young’s
modulus of wire A to that of wire B will be :
1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : 10 4) 1 : 2
6. A gas bubble of diameter D rises steadily through a liquid of density 𝜌 at the speed of 𝑣. The coefficient of viscosity of
the liquid is (neglecting density of air )
𝐷 2𝑔𝜌 𝐷 2 𝑔𝜌 2𝐷 2 𝑔𝜌 𝐷 2 𝑔𝜌
1) 9𝑣 2) 18𝑣 3) 9𝑣 4) 𝑣
7. Density of substance at 0℃ is 10 g/cc and at 100℃, its density is 9.7 g/cc. the coefficient of linear expansion of the
substance will be (in /℃)
1) 102 2) 10−2 3) 10−3 4) 10−4
8. Two wires of equal length and cross-sectional area 𝐴1 and 𝐴2 are suspended as shown in figure. Their Young’s modulii
are 𝑌1 and 𝑌2 respectively. The equivalent Young’s modulus will be :
1) 𝑌1 + 𝑌2
𝑌 𝐴 +𝑌 𝐴
2) 1 1 2 2
𝐴1 +𝐴2
𝑌1 𝑌2
3)
𝑌1 +𝑌2
4) √𝑌1 𝑌2
9. The venture – meter works on
1) Huygen’s principle 2) Bernoulli’s principle 3) The principle of parallel axes 4) The principle of perpendicular axes
10. Water is moving with a speed of 5.18 𝑚𝑠 −1 through a pipe with a cross – sectional area of 4.20 𝑐𝑚 2 . The water
gradually descends 9.66 𝑚 as the pipe increase in area to 7.60 𝑐𝑚 2 . The speed of flow at the lower level is
1) 3.0 𝑚𝑠 −1 2) 5.7 𝑚𝑠 −1 3) 3.82 𝑚𝑠 −1 4) 2.86 𝑚𝑠 −1
2. HAVE CONTROL OF MIND→ HAVE PATIENCE TO WORK → HAVE CONFIDENCE IN YOURSELF =>100% SUCCESS

11. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water ad water rises in it to a height h. the mass of the water in the capillary
is 5 g. another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is :
1) 5.0 g 2) 10.0 g 3) 20.0 g 4) 2.5 g
12. A small solid sphere of radius 𝑅 made of material of bulk modulus 𝐾 is surrounded by a liquid in a cylindrical container
having crosssectional area 𝐴. A massless piston of area 𝐴 floats on the surface of the liquid when a mass m is placed
on the piston to compress the liquid, the fractional change in the radius of the sphere 𝛿𝑅/𝑅 is :
𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔 3𝑚𝑔
1) 𝐴𝐾 2) 3𝐴𝐾 3) 𝐴 4) 𝐴𝐾
13. The coefficients of linear expansion of steel and brass are 11 × 10−6 /℃ and 19 × 10−6 /℃respectivley. If their
difference in lengths at all temperatures has to be kept constant is 30 cm, their lengths at 0℃ should be
1) 71.25 cm and 41.25 cm 2) 92 cm and 52 cm 3) 92 cm and 62 cm 4) 92.25 cm and 32.25 cm
14. In the figure shown, radius of the limbs of the manometer are 𝑟1 and 𝑟2 (< 𝑟1 ). The surface tension of the liquid is 𝑇.
The difference of the heights of the liquid column ℎ is equal to (Assume that the angle of contact is zero).
2𝑇 1 1
1) ( − )
𝜌𝑔 𝑟2 𝑟1
𝑇 1 1
2) ( − )
𝜌𝑔 𝑟1 𝑟 2
2𝑇 1 1
3) ( + )
𝜌𝑔 𝑟 𝑟
1 2
𝑇 1 1
4) ( + )
𝜌𝑔 𝑟1 𝑟2
15. Match the column I and Column II
Column – I Column – II
A) Magnus effect i) Pascal’s law
B) Loss of energy ii) Bernoulli’s theorem
C) Pressure is same at the same level in a liquid iii) Viscous force
D) Venturimeter iv) Lifting of Asbestos roofs
1) A –iv, B –ii, C –v, D –I 2) A –I, B –ii, C –iii, D – iv 3) A –ii, B –v, C –iv, D –iii 4) A –iv, B –iii, C –I, D –ii
16. A rod fixed between two points at 20℃. The coefficient of linear expansion of material of rod is 1.1 × 10−5 /℃ and
Young’s modulus is 1.2 × 1011 𝑁/𝑚 2. Find the stress developed in the rod if temperature of rod becomes 10℃
1) 1.32 × 107 𝑁/𝑚 2 2) 1.10 × 1015 𝑁/𝑚 2 3) 2.32 × 109 𝑁/𝑚 2 4) 1.10 × 106 𝑁/𝑚 2
17. For an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, the fractional change in its pressure is equal to (where 𝛾 is the ratio of
specific heats)
𝑉 𝑑𝑉 1 𝑑𝑉 𝑑𝑉
1) – 𝛾 𝑑𝑉 2) – 𝛾 𝑉 3) − 𝛾 𝑉 4) 𝑉
18. The terminal velocity of a copper ball of radius 5 mm falling through a tank of oil at room temperature is 10 𝑐𝑚 𝑠 −1 . If
the viscosity of oil at room temperature is 0.9 𝑘𝑔 𝑚 −1 𝑠 −1 , the viscous drag force is :
1) 4.23 × 10−6 𝑁 2) 8.48 × 10−3 𝑁 3) 8.48 × 10−5 𝑁 4) 4.23 × 10−3 𝑁
19. Statement –I : A capillary is dipped in a liquid and liquid rises to a height ℎ in it. As the temperature of the liquid is
raised, the height ℎ increases (if the density of the liquid and the angle of contact remain the same).
Statement 2 : Surface tension of a liquid decreases with the rise in its temperature.
1) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true; statement -2 is not the correct explanation for Statement -1
2) Statement -1 is false, Statement -2 is true
3) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is false
4) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true, Statement -2 is the correct explanation for statement -1
3. HAVE CONTROL OF MIND→ HAVE PATIENCE TO WORK → HAVE CONFIDENCE IN YOURSELF =>100% SUCCESS

20. The density of a uniform rod with cross-section 𝐴 is ′𝜌′, its specific heat capacity is ′𝐶′and its coefficient of linear
expansion is 𝛼. the amount of heat required to cause an increment in its length by 𝑙 is :
𝐴𝑙𝜌𝐶 𝛼 𝐴𝑙𝜌𝐶 2𝐴𝑙𝜌𝐶
1) 𝛼 2) 𝐴𝑙𝜌𝐶 3) 2𝛼 4) 𝛼
21. Steam is passed into 22g of water at 20℃. The mass of water that will be present when the water acquires a
temperature of 90℃ (Latent heat of steam is 540 cal/g) is
1) 24.8 g 2) 24 g 3) 36.6 g 4) 30 g
22. Two copper vessels A and B have the same base area but of different shapes. A take twice the volume of water as that
B requires to fill upto a particular common height. Then the correct statement among the following is :
1) Vessel B weighs twice that of A 2) Pressure on the base area of vessels A and B is same
3) Pressure on the base area of A and B is not same 4) Both vessels A and B weigh the same
23. A soap bubble is very slowly blown on the end of a glass tube by a mechanical pump which supplies a fixed volume
per minute whatever the internal pressure may be. Which graph represents the variation of excess pressure 𝑝 inside
the bubble with time :

1) 2) 3) 4)

24. A glass tube of radius 0.7 mm is dipped vertically in water, height of the capillary above the water level is 1 cm. find
out the value of coantact angle at the top of capillary, surface tension of water is = 7.0 × 10−2 𝑁/𝑚 densitiy of water
is 103 𝑘𝑔/𝑚 3. For glass – water interface, angle of contact 𝜃 = 00
1) 00
𝜋
2) 2
𝜋
3) 6
𝜋
4)
3
25. The pressure at the bottom of a tank of water is 3𝑃 where 𝑃 is the atmospheric pressure. If the water is drawn out till
the level of water is lowered by one fifth, the pressure at the bottom of the tank will now be
13 8 4
1) 2𝑃 2) ( 5 ) 𝑃 3) (5) 𝑃 4) (5) 𝑃
26. Let 𝐶𝑃 and 𝐶𝑉 represent specific heat capacity of a gas. For oxygen 𝑐𝑝 − 𝑐𝑣 = 𝑥 and for hydrogen , 𝑐𝑝 − 𝑐𝑣 = 𝑦. The
𝑥
ratio
𝑦
1
1) 1 2) 2 3) 16 4) 16
27. A sphere and a cube having equal surface area are made of the same material. The two are heated to the same
temperature and kept in identical surrounding. The ratio of their initial rates of cooling is
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
1) 1 : 1 2) √ 2 : 1 3) √ 3 : 1 4) √ 6 ∶ 1
4. HAVE CONTROL OF MIND→ HAVE PATIENCE TO WORK → HAVE CONFIDENCE IN YOURSELF =>100% SUCCESS

28. How much heat energy is gained when 5 kg of water at 20℃ is brought to its boiling point ? [Specific heat of water =
4.2 𝑘𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝑐 −1 )
1) 1680 kJ 2) 1700 kJ 3) 1720 kJ 4) 1740 kJ
29. A tank is filled with water upto a height H. water is allowed to come out of a hole P in one of the walls at a depth h
below the surface of water (see fig.) express the horizontal distance X in terms of H and h.
1) 𝑋 = √ℎ(𝐻 − ℎ)


2) 𝑋 = √ 2 (𝐻 − ℎ)

3) 𝑋 = 2√ℎ(𝐻 − ℎ)

4) 𝑋 = 4√ℎ(𝐻 − ℎ)
30. There are two identical vessels filled with equal amounts of ice. The vessels are of different metals. If the ice melts in
the two vessels in 20 and 35 minutes respectively, the ratio of the coefficients of thermal conductivity of the two
metals is
1) 4 : 7 2) 7 : 4 3) 16 : 49 4) 49 : 16
31. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those
processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1,
2, 3 and 4 is :
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 1
32. Assertion (A) : The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring.
Reason (R) : A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is true but (R) is false
3) (A) is false but (R) is true
4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

33. Two communicating vessels contain mercury. The diameter of one vessel is n times larger than the diameter of the
other. A column of water of height h is poured into the left vessel . the mercury level will rise in the right-hand vessel
(s = relative density of mercury and 𝜌 = density of water) by
𝑛2 ℎ
1)
(𝑛+1)2𝑠

2) (𝑛2+1)𝑠

3) (𝑛+1)2𝑠

4) 𝑛2 𝑠
34. An ideal gas is expanding such that 𝑃𝑇 3 = constant, the coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is :
1 2 4 3
1) 𝑇 2) 𝑇 3) 𝑇 4) 𝑇
5. HAVE CONTROL OF MIND→ HAVE PATIENCE TO WORK → HAVE CONFIDENCE IN YOURSELF =>100% SUCCESS

35. In thermodynamics, heat and work are :


1) Point functions 2) Extensive thermodynamic state variables
3) Path functions 4) Intensive thermodynamic state variables
36. Heat is given to an ideal gas in an isothermal process.
A. Internal energy of the gas will decrease. B. Internal energy of the gas will increases
C. Internal energy of the gas will not change. D. The gas will do positive work
E. The gas will do negative work
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) A and E only 2) B and D only 3) C and E only 4) C and D only
37. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 4 moles of a rigid diatomic gas from 0℃ to 50℃ when no
work is done is (R is the universal gas constant)
1) 250 𝑅 2) 750 𝑅 3) 175 𝑅 4) 500 𝑅
38. An ideal gas follows a process described by the equation 𝑃𝑉 2 = 𝐶 from the initial (𝑃1 , 𝑉1 , 𝑇1 ) to final (𝑃2 , 𝑉2 , 𝑇2 )
thermodynamic states, where C is a constant. Then :
1) If 𝑃1 > 𝑃2 then 𝑉1 > 𝑉2 2) If 𝑃1 > 𝑃2 then 𝑇1 < 𝑇2
3) If 𝑉2 > 𝑉1 then 𝑇2 > 𝑇1 4) If 𝑉2 > 𝑉1 then 𝑇2 < 𝑇1
39. A lead bullet penetrates into a solid object and melts. Assuming that 40% of its kinetic energy is used to heat it, the
initial speed of bullet is : (Given , initial temperature of the bullet = 127℃, Melting point of the bullet = 327℃, Latent
heat of fusion of lead = 2.5 × 104 𝐽 𝐾𝑔−1 , Specific heat capacity of lead = 125 𝐽/𝑘𝑔 𝐾)
1) 125 𝑚𝑠 −1 2) 500 𝑚𝑠 −1 3) 250 𝑚𝑠 −1 4) 600 𝑚𝑠 −1
40. If 𝑌, 𝐾 and 𝜂 are the values of Young’s modulus, bulk modulus and modulus of rigidity of any material respectively.
Choose the correct relation for these parameters.
9𝐾𝜂 3𝑌𝐾 9𝐾𝜂 𝑌𝜂
1) 𝑌 = 3𝐾−𝜂 𝑁/𝑚2 2) 𝜂 = 9𝐾+𝑌 𝑁/𝑚2 3) 𝑌 = 2𝜂+3𝐾 𝑁/𝑚 2 4) 𝐾 = 9𝜂−3𝑌 𝑁/𝑚2
41. On a temperature scale ‘X’. the boiling point of water is 65 0X and the freezing point is -150X. Assume that the X scale
is linear. The equivalent temperature corresponding to -950X on the Farenheit scale would be :
1) −63℉ 2) −112℉ 3) −48℉ 4) −148℉
42. Match List I with List II :
List I List II
A. Isothermal Process I. Work done by the gas decreases internal energy
B. Adiabatic process II. No change in internal energy
C. Isochoric Process III. The heat absorbed goes partly to increase internal energy and partly to do work
D. Isobaric Process IV. No work is done on or by the gas
1) A –II, B –I, C –III, D –IV 2) A –II, B –I, C –IV, D –III 3) A –I, B –II, C –IV, D –III 4) A –I, B –II, C –III, D –IV
43. A rigid diatomic ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic process at room temperature. The relation between temperature
and volume for this process is 𝑇𝑉 𝑥 = constant, then x is :
3 2 2 5
1) 5 2) 5 3) 3 4) 3
44. A solid sphere , of radius R acquires a terminal velocity 𝑣1 when falling (due to gravity) through a viscous fluid having a
coefficient of viscosity ℎ. The sphere is broken into 27 identical solid spheres. If each of these spheres acquires a
terminal velocity, 𝑣2 , when falling through the same fluid, the ratio (𝑣1 /𝑣2 ) equals :
1) 9 2) 1/27 3) 1/9 4) 27
45. A 100 g of iron nail is hit by a 1.5 kg hammer striking at a velocity of 60𝑚𝑠 −1 . What will be the rise in the
temperature of the nail if one fourth of energy of the hammer goes into heating the nail ? [Specific heat capacity of
iron = 0.42 𝐽𝑔−1 ℃−1 ]
1) 675℃ 2) 1600 ℃ 3) 16.07 ℃ 4) 6.75 ℃
6. AVE CONTROL OF MIND→ HAVE PATIENCE TO WORK → HAVE CONFIDENCE IN YOURSELF =>100% SUCCESS

46. 2𝐼𝑂3− + 𝑥𝐼 − + 12𝐻 + → 6𝐼2 + 6𝐻2 𝑂 What is the value of x ?


1) 12 2) 2 3) 6 4) 10
47. 4.0 moles of argon and 5.0 moles of 𝑃𝐶𝑙5 are introduced into an evacuated flask of 100 litre capacity at 610 K. the
system is allowed to equilibrate. At equilibrium, the total pressure of mixture was found to be 6.0 atm. The 𝐾𝑝 for the
reaction is [Given : 𝑅 = 0.082 𝐿 𝑎𝑡𝑚 𝐾 −1 𝑚𝑜𝑙−1 ]
1) 2.25 2) 6.24 3) 12.13 4) 15.24
48. What is the oxidation number of carbon in 𝐶3 𝑂2 (carbon suboxide) ?
1) +4/3 2) +10/3 3) +2 4) +2/3
49. The equilibrium 𝑆𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑔) ⇌ 𝑆𝑂2 (𝑔) + 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑔) is attained at 25℃ in a closed container and an inert gas helium is
introduced, which of the following statement is correct ?
1) More chlorine is formed 2) Concentration of 𝑆𝑂2 is reduced
3) More 𝑆𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2 is formed 4) Concentration of 𝑆𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2 , 𝑆𝑂2 and 𝐶𝑙2 does not change
50. At 550 𝐾, the 𝐾𝑐 for the following reaction is 104 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐿 𝑋(𝑔) + 𝑌 (𝑔) ⇌ 𝑍 (𝑔). At equilibrium, it was observed
1 1
that [𝑋] = 2 [𝑌] = 2 [𝑍]. What is value of [𝑍] (𝑖𝑛 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1 )
1) 2 × 10−4 2) 10−4 3) 2 × 104 4) 104
(1) (2)
51. If the equilibrium constant for 𝐴 ⇌ 𝐵 + 𝐶 is 𝐾𝑒𝑞 and that of 𝐵 + 𝐶 ⇌ 𝑃 is 𝐾𝑒𝑞 , the equilibrium constant for 𝐴 ⇌ 𝑃
is :
(1) (2) (2) (1) (1) (2) (1) (2)
1) 𝐾𝑒𝑞 /𝐾𝑒𝑞 2) 𝐾𝑒𝑞 − 𝐾𝑒𝑞 3) 𝐾𝑒𝑞 + 𝐾𝑒𝑞 4) 𝐾𝑒𝑞 𝐾𝑒𝑞
52. Conjugate acid of 𝑁𝐻2− is
1) 𝑁𝐻4+ 2) 𝑁𝐻3 3) 𝑁𝐻2− 4) 𝑁𝐻2−
3
53. For the reaction 𝐹𝑒2 𝑁(𝑠) + 2 𝐻2 (𝑔) ⇌ 2 𝐹𝑒 (𝑠) + 𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔)
−1 1 3
1) 𝐾𝑐 = 𝐾𝑝 (𝑅𝑇) 2) 𝐾𝑐 = 𝐾𝑝 (𝑅𝑇) 2 3) 𝐾𝑐 = 𝐾𝑝 (𝑅𝑇)2 4) 𝐾𝑐 = 𝐾𝑝 (𝑅𝑇)2
54. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 𝐾, and the reaction quotient is 𝑄. For a particular reaction mixture, the ratio
𝐾
is 0.33. this means that :
𝑄
1) The reaction mixture will equilibrate to form more reactant species
2) The reaction mixture will equilibrate to form more product species
3) The equilibrium ratio of reactant to product concentrations will be 3
4) The equilibrium ratio of reactant to product concentration will be 0.33
55. Match Column – I with Column – II and choose the correct option from the given codes.
Column –I (Compound) Column – II (Oxidation state)
A) Cr2O3 (i) +2
B) V2O5 (ii) +5
C) Ti Cl4 (iii) +3
D) CaCO3 (iv) +4
1) A –I, B –iv, C –iii, D –ii 2) A –iii, B –ii, C –iv, D –I 3) A –ii, B –I, C –iv, D –iii 4) A – iv, B –ii, C –I, D –iii
56. For the reaction 2𝐴(𝑔) ⇌ 𝐵 (𝑔) + 3𝐶(𝑔), at a given temperature, 𝐾𝑐 = 16. What must be the volume of the flask, if a
mixture of 2 mole each of A, B and C exist in equilibrium ?
1 1
1) 4 2) 2 3) 1 4) None of these
57. Which of the following is not an intramolecular redox reaction ?
1) 𝑁𝐻4 𝑁𝑂2 ⟶ 𝑁2 + 2𝐻2 𝑂 2) 2𝑀𝑛2 𝑂7 ⟶ 4𝑀𝑛𝑂2 + 3𝑂2 3) 2𝐾𝐶𝑙𝑂3 ⟶ 2𝐾𝐶𝑙 + 3𝑂2 4) 2𝐻2 𝑂2 ⟶ 2𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝑂2
58. 𝑀𝑛3+ ions are unstable in solution and undergo disproportionation to give 𝑀𝑛2+ , 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 and 𝐻 + ions. What will be
the balanced equation for the reaction ?
1) 3𝑀𝑛3+ + 4𝐻2 𝑂 ⟶ 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 + 𝑀𝑛2+ + 8𝐻 + 2) 𝑀𝑛3+ + 4𝐻2 𝑂 ⟶ 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 + 4𝐻 +
+
3) 𝑀𝑛 + 2𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 + 4𝐻 4) 2𝑀𝑛3+ + 2𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 + 𝑀𝑛2+ + 4𝐻 +
59. At a certain temperature, only 50% 𝐻𝐼 is dissociated into 𝐻2 and 𝐼2 at equilibrium. The equilibrium constant is :
1) 1.0 2) 3.0 3) 0.5 4) 0.25
7. HAVE CONTROL OF MIND→ HAVE PATIENCE TO WORK → HAVE CONFIDENCE IN YOURSELF =>100% SUCCESS

60. Le –Chatelier principle is not applicable to


1) 𝐻2 (𝑔) + 𝐼2 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝐻𝐼(𝑔) 2) 𝐹𝑒(𝑆) + 𝑆(𝑠) ⇌ 𝐹𝑒𝑆(𝑠)
3) 𝑁2 (𝑔) + 3𝐻2 (𝑔)(𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔) 4) 𝑁2 (𝑔) + 𝑂2 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝑂(𝑔)
𝐾𝑎 𝐾𝑏
61. Given 𝐻𝐹 + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝐻3 𝑂+ + 𝐹 − 𝐹 − + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝐻𝐹 + 𝑂𝐻− Which of the following reaction is correct ?
1 𝐾
1) 𝐾𝑏 = 𝐾𝑤 2) 𝐾𝑏 = 𝐾 3) 𝐾𝑎 × 𝐾𝑏 = 𝐾𝑤 4) 𝐾𝑎 = 𝐾𝑤
𝑤 𝑏
62. Solubility of 𝑀𝑋2 type electrolyte is 0.5 × 10−4 𝑚𝑜𝑙/𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒. The value of 𝐾𝑠𝑝 of the electrolyte is
1) 5 × 10−13 2) 25 × 10−10 3) 1.25 × 10−13 4) 5 × 1012
63. A solution is prepared by mixing 10 mL of 1.0 M acetic acid and 20 mL of 0.5 M sodium acetate and diluted to 100 mL.
if the 𝑝𝐾𝑎 of acetic acid is 4.76, then the pH of the solution is
1) 4.76 2) 3.76 3) 5.76 4) 9.24
64. The equilibrium concentrations of the species in the reaction 𝐴 + 𝐵 ⇌ 𝐶 + 𝐷 are 2, 3, 10 and 6 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1 ,
respectively at 300𝐾, ∆𝐺 0 for the reaction is (𝑅 = 2 𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾)
1) 1372.60 cal 2) -137.26 cal 3) -1381.80 cal 4) -13.73 cal
65. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction . Sucrose + 𝐻2 𝑂 ⇌ Glucose + Fructose If the
13 0
equilibrium constant (𝐾𝑐 ) is 2 × 10 at 300 K, the value of ∆𝑟 𝐺 at the same temperature will be :
1) 8.314 𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐾 −1 × 300 𝐾 × ln (2 × 1013 ) 2) 8.314 𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙−1 𝐾 −1 × 300 𝐾 × ln(3 × 1013 )
3) −8.314 𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙−1 𝐾 −1 × 300 𝐾 × ln (4 × 1013 ) 4) −8.314 𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐾 −1 × 300 𝐾 × ln (2 × 1013 )
66. The pH of 0.01 M 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞) solution will be
1) 9 2) 7.01 3) 2 4) 12
67. In which one of the following equilibria, 𝐾𝑝 ≠ 𝐾𝑐 ?
1) 2𝐶 (𝑠) + 𝑂2 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝐶𝑂(𝑔) 2) 2𝐻𝐼 (𝑔) ⇌ 𝐻2 (𝑔) + 𝐼2 (𝑔)
( )
3) 𝑁𝑂2 (𝑔) + 𝑆𝑂2 (𝑔) ⇌ 𝑁𝑂 𝑔 + 𝑆𝑂3 (𝑔) 4) 2𝑁𝑂(𝑔) ⇌ 𝑁2 (𝑔) + 𝑂2 (𝑔)
68. Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction ?
1) 𝑋𝑒𝐹4 + 𝑂2 𝐹2 ⟶ 𝑋𝑒𝐹6 + 𝑂2 2) 𝑋𝑒𝐹2 + 𝑃𝐹5 ⟶ [𝑋𝑒𝐹]+ 𝑃𝐹6−
3) 𝑋𝑒𝐹6 + 𝐻2 𝑂 ⟶ 𝑋𝑒𝑂𝐹4 + 2𝐻𝐹 4) 𝑋𝑒𝐹6 + 2𝐻2 𝑂 ⟶ 𝑋𝑒𝑂2 𝐹2 + 4𝐻𝐹
69. Assertion : Phenolphthalein is a pH dependent indicator, remains colourless in acidic solution and gives pink colour in
basic medium.
Reason : Phenolphthalein is a weak acid. It doesn’t dissociate in basic medium
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is true but (R) is false
3) (A) is false but (R) is true
4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
70. The exothermic formation of 𝐶𝐼𝐹3 is represented by the equation : 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑔) + 3𝐹2 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝐶𝑙𝐹3 (𝑔); ∆𝐻 = −329 𝑘𝐽
which of the following will increase the quantity of 𝐶𝑖𝐹3 in an equilibrium mixture of 𝐶𝑙2 , 𝐹2 and 𝐶𝐼𝐹3 ?
1) Adding 𝐹2 2) Increasing the volume of the container
3) Removing 𝐶𝑙2 4) Increasing the temperature
71. The oxidation states of 𝐶𝑟 in [𝐶𝑟(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]𝐶𝑙3 , [𝐶𝑟(𝐶6 𝐻6 )2 ], and 𝐾2 [𝐶𝑟(𝐶𝑁)2 (𝑂)2 (𝑂2 )(𝑁𝐻3 )] respectively are :
1) +3, +4, an +6 2) +3, +2 and +4 3) +3, 0 and +6 4) +3, 0, and +4
−5 −5
72. 𝐾𝑎 for 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 is 1.8 × 10 and 𝐾𝑏 for 𝑁𝐻4 𝑂𝐻 is 1.8 × 10 . The pH of ammonium acetate will be
1) 7.005 2) 4.75 3) 7.0 4) Between 6 and 7
73. Statement I : The extent of dissociation of an acid depends on the strength ad polarity of the 𝐻 − 𝐴 bond where 𝐴 is
an electronegative element).
Statement II : As the strength of 𝐻 − 𝐴 bond increases, the energy required to break the bond decreases.
1) Both statement I and II are correct
2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect
74. Amongst the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state :
1) [𝑀𝑛𝑂4 ]− 2) [𝐶𝑟(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3− 3) 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂3 4) 𝐶𝑟𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2

75. What is the conjugate base of 𝑂𝐻 ?
1) 𝑂2− 2) 𝑂 − 3) 𝐻2 𝑂 4) 𝑂2
8. HAVE CONTROL OF MIND→ HAVE PATIENCE TO WORK → HAVE CONFIDENCE IN YOURSELF =>100% SUCCESS

76. Which of the following chemical reactions depict the oxidizing behavior of 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 ?
1) 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 ⟶ 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 2) 2 𝑃𝐶𝑙5 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 ⟶ 2𝑃𝑂𝐶𝑙3 + 2 𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 𝑆𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2

3) 2𝐻𝐼 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 ⟶ 𝐼2 + 𝑆𝑂2 + 2𝐻2 𝑂 4) 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 ⟶ 𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4 + 2𝐻2 𝑂


77. Statement I : In a reaction 𝑍𝑛(𝑠) + 𝐶𝑢𝑆𝑂4 (𝑎𝑞) ⟶ 𝑍𝑛𝑆𝑂4 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐶𝑢(𝑠) 𝑍𝑛 is a reductant but itself get oxidized.
Statement II : In a redox reaction, oxidant is reduced by accepting electrons and reductant is oxidized by losing
electrons.
1) Both statement I and II are correct
2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect
78. Which of the following are disproportionation reactions ?
A) 𝐶𝑙2 + 2𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 ⟶ 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑂 B) 𝐻2 𝑂2 ⟶ 2𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝑂2
C) 2𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 ⟶ 𝐾2 𝑀𝑛𝑂4 + 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 + 𝑂2 D) 3𝑀𝑛𝑂42− + 4𝐻+ ⟶ 2𝑀𝑛𝑂4− + 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 + 2𝐻2 𝑂
1) A, B, C only 2) A, B, D only 3) A, C only 4) A, B, C, D
1
79. For the reaction 𝑆𝑂2 (𝑔) + 2 𝑂2 (𝑔) ⇌ 𝑆𝑂3 (𝑔), the percentage yield of product at different pressure is shown in the
figure. Then, which among the following is true ?
1) Pressure has no effect
2) 𝑝1 < 𝑝2 < 𝑝3
3) 𝑝1 > 𝑝2 > 𝑝3
4) 𝑝1 = 𝑝2 = 𝑝3 ≠ 0
4
80. Statement I : Oxidation state of carbon in 𝐶3 𝐻4 is – ( )
3
Statement II : Electrons are never shared in fraction.
1) Both statement I and II are correct 2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect 4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect
81. Match Column –I with Column – II and choose the correct option from the given codes.
Column – I Column – II
1
A) 𝑝𝐾𝑤 i) 7 + (𝑝𝐾𝑎 − 𝑝𝐾𝑏 )
2
B) 𝐾𝑤 ii) – log(𝐾𝑎 )
C) 𝑝𝐾𝑎 iii) 14
D) 𝑝𝐻 iv) 𝐾𝑎 × 𝐾𝑏
1) A –ii; B –iv; C –iii; D –I 2) A –iii; B –iv; C –I; D –ii 3) A –iv; B –I; C –ii; D –iii 4) A –iii; B –iv; C –ii; D –I
82. The solubility product of 𝐴𝑔𝐼 at 25℃ is 1.0 × 10−16 𝑚𝑜𝑙2 𝐿−2 . the solubility of 𝐴𝑔𝐼 in 10−4 𝑁 solution of 𝐾𝐼 at 25℃
is approximately (in mol 𝐿−1 )
1) 1.0 × 10−8 2) 1.0 × 10−16 3) 1.0 × 10−12 4) 1.0 × 10−10
−𝑦
83. At 298 K the molar solubility of 𝐶𝑑(𝑂𝐻)2 in 0.1 𝑀 𝐾𝑂𝐻 solution is 𝑥 × 10 . The values of 𝑥 and 𝑦 are respectively
(at 298 𝐾, 𝐾𝑆𝑃 of 𝐶𝑑(𝑂𝐻)2 = 2.5 × 10−14 )
1) 2.5, 14 2) 25, 13 3) 25, 14 4) 2.5, 16
84. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the 𝐻+ ion concentration in
the mixture ?
1) 1.11 × 10−4 𝑀 2) 3.7 × 10−4 𝑀 3) 3.7 × 10−3 𝑀 4) 1.11 × 10−3 𝑀
85. The 𝑝𝐾𝑎 of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. the 𝑝𝑂𝐻 of an aqueous buffer solution of HA in which 50% of the acid is ionized is
1) 7.0 2) 4.5 3) 2.5 4) 9.5
86. What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction 𝑃4 (𝑠) + 5𝑂2 (𝑔) ⇌ 𝑃4 𝑂10 (𝑠) ?
1) 𝐾𝑐 = [𝑂2 ]5 2) 𝐾𝑐 = [𝑃4 𝑂10 ]/5[𝑃4 ][𝑂2 ] 3) 𝐾𝑐 = [𝑃4 𝑂10 ]/[𝑃4 ][𝑂2 ]5 4) 𝐾𝑐 = 1/[𝑂2 ]5
87. The solubility of 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 will be maximum in which of the following ?
1) 0.01 𝑀 𝐾𝐶𝑙 2) 0.01 𝑀 𝐻𝐶𝑙 3) 0.01 𝑀 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 4) Deionised water
88. For the reaction 𝐶 (𝑠) + 𝐶𝑂2 (𝑔) ⟶ 2𝐶𝑂(𝑔), 𝐾𝑝 = 63 atm at 1000 K. if an equilibrium : 𝑃𝐶𝑂 = 10 𝑃𝐶𝑂2 , then the
total pressure of the gases at equilibrium is
1) 6.3 atm 2) 6.93 atm 3) 0.63 atm 4) 0.693 atm
2− + − 3+
89. In the reaction 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7 + 14𝐻 + 6𝐼 ⟶ 2𝐶𝑟 + 7𝐻2 𝑂 + 3𝐼2 which element is reduced ?
1) 𝐼 2) 𝑂 3) 𝐻 4) 𝐶𝑟
9. HAVE CONTROL OF MIND→ HAVE PATIENCE TO WORK → HAVE CONFIDENCE IN YOURSELF =>100% SUCCESS

90. Change in volume of the system does not alter which of the following equilibria ?
1) 𝑁2 (𝑔) + 𝑂2 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝑂(𝑔) 2) 𝑃𝐶𝑙5 (𝑔) ⇌ 𝑃𝐶𝑙3 (𝑔) + 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑔)
3) 𝑁2 (𝑔) + 3𝐻2 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔) 4) 𝑆𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑔) ⇌ 𝑆𝑂2 (𝑔) + 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑔)
91. If the sum of an infinite GP 𝑎, 𝑎𝑟, 𝑎𝑟 2 , 𝑎𝑟 3 , … is 15 and the sum of the squares of its each term is 150, then the sum of
𝑎𝑟 2 , 𝑎𝑟 4 , 𝑎𝑟 6 , … is
1) 5/2 2) 1/2 3) 25/2 4) 9/2
th
92. 5 term of a GP is 2, then the product of its 9 terms is
1) 256 2) 512 3) 1024 4) None of these
93. A person is to count 4500 currency notes. Let 𝑎𝑛 denotes the number of notes he counts in the 𝑛𝑡ℎ min. if 𝑎1 = 𝑎2 =
⋯ = 𝑎10 = 150 and 𝑎10 , 𝑎11 , … are in AP with common difference -2, then the time taken by him to count all notes is
1) 24 min 2) 34 min 3) 125 min 4) 135 min
94. If x, y and z are in AP and tan−1 𝑥 , tan−1 𝑦 and tan−1 𝑧 are also in AP, then
1) 𝑥 = 𝑦 = 𝑧 2) 2𝑥 = 3𝑦 = 6𝑧 3) 6𝑥 = 3𝑦 = 2𝑧 4) 6𝑥 = 4𝑦 = 3𝑧
95. The product of three consecutive terms of a GP is 512. If 4 is added to each of the first and the second of these terms,
the three terms now form an AP. Then, the sum of the original three terms of the give GP is
1) 36 2) 28 3) 32 4) 24
96. If a, b and c are the greatest values of 19Cp 20Cq and 21Cr respectively, then
𝑎 𝑏 𝑐 𝑎 𝑏 𝑐 𝑎 𝑏 𝑐 𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
1) = = 2) = = 3) = = 4) = =
10 11 42 11 22 21 10 11 21 11 22 42
3 1 9
2
97. If the term independent of x in the expansion of (2 𝑥 − 3𝑥 ) is k, then 18 k is equal to
1) 5 2) 7 3) 9 4) 11
98. If (2021)3762 is divided by 17, then the remainder is
1) 1 2) 3 3) 2 4) 4
12
99. The sum of all those terms which are rational numbers in the expansion of (21/3 + 31/4 ) is
1) 89 2) 27 3) 35 4) 43
100. The ratio of the coefficient of the middle term in the expansion of (1 + 𝑥)20 and the sum of the coefficients of
two middle terms in expansion of (1 + 𝑥)19 is ….,
1) 1 2) 0 3) 2 4) None
36 𝑥 12 12
101. If (44 ) 𝑘 is the term, independent of x, in the binomial expansion of ( 4 − 𝑥2
) , then k is equal to
1) 56 2) 55 3) 54 4) 45
102. A student is to answer 10 out of 13 questions in an examination such that he must choose atleast 4 from the
first five questions. The number of choices available to him is
1) 140 2) 196 3) 280 4) 346
103. The number of ways in which 6 men and 5 women can dine at a round table, if no two women are to sit
together, is given by
1) 6 ! × 5! 2) 30 3) 5 ! × 4! 4) 7 ! × 5!
104. The number of integers greater than 6000 that can be formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6, 7 and 8 without
repetition, is
1) 216 2) 192 3) 120 4) 72
105. The total number of numbers, lying between 100 and 1000 that can be formed with the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, if
the repetition of digits is not allowed and numbers are divisible by either 3 or 5, is
1) 23 2) 32 3) 34 4) 43
106. Words with or without meaning are to be formed using all the letters of the word EXAMINATION. The
probability that the letter M appears at the fourth position in any such word is
1 1 1 2
1) 66 2) 11 3) 9 4) 11
107. A bag contains 4 red and 6 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag, its colour is observed and this ball
along with two additional balls of the same colour are returned to the bag. If now a ball is drawn at random from the
bag, then the probability that this drawn ball red, is
3 2 1 3
1) 10 2) 5 3) 5 4) 4
1 𝐴 1 𝐵 2
108. It is given that the events A and B are such that 𝑃(𝐴) = 4 , 𝑃 (𝐵 ) = 2 and 𝑃 ( 𝐴) = 3. Then, 𝑃 (𝐵) is equal to
1 1 1 2
1) 2
2) 6 3) 3 4) 3
10.HAVE CONTROL OF MIND→ HAVE PATIENCE TO WORK → HAVE CONFIDENCE IN YOURSELF =>100% SUCCESS

109. The mean and variance of a random variable X having a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively, then
𝑃(𝑋 = 1) is
1 1 1 1
1) 32 2) 16 3) 8 4) 4
110. Two cards are drawn successively with replacement from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Let X denote the
random variable of number of aces obtained in the two drawn cards. Then, 𝑃(𝑋 = 1) + 𝑃(𝑋 = 2) equals
25 52 49 24
1) 169 2) 169 3) 169 4) 169
111. The minimum number of times one has to toss a fair coin so that the probability of observing atleast one head
is atleast 90% is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 5 4) 4
112. A random variable X has the following probability distribution
𝑋∶ 1 2 3 4 5
𝑃 (𝑋): 𝐾 2 2𝐾 𝐾 2𝐾 5𝐾 2 The 𝑃(𝑋 > 2) is equal to
1 23 1 7
1) 6 2) 36 3) 36 4) 12
113. cot −1 (√cos 𝛼) − tan−1 (√cos 𝛼) = 𝑥, then sin 𝑥 is equal to
𝛼 𝛼 𝛼
1) 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 ( 2 ) 2) 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 ( 2 ) 3) tan 𝛼 4) cot ( 2 )
𝑦
114. If cos −1 𝑥 − cos −1 2 = 𝛼, then 4𝑥 2 − 4𝑥𝑦 cos 𝛼 + 𝑦 2 is equal to
1) −4 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝛼 2) 4 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝛼 3) 4 4) 2 sin 2 𝛼
−1 −1 ( 1 ) −1 ( 8 )
115. The sum of possible values of x for tan (𝑥 + 1) + cot = tan is
𝑥+1 31
−32 31 30 33
1) 4
2) − 4
3) − 4
4) − 4
3 5
116. The value of tan(2 tan−1 ( ) + sin−1 ( )) is equal to
5 13
−181 220 −291 151
1) 2) 3) 4)
69 21 76 63
𝜋
117. The number of real roots of the equation tan−1 √𝑥(𝑥 + 1) + sin−1 √𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1 = 4 is
1) 1 2) 4 3) 3 4) 0
√1+sin 𝑥+√1−sin 𝑥 𝜋 𝑑𝑦 5𝜋
118. If 𝑦(𝑥) = cot −1 ( ), 𝑥 ∈ ( 2 , 𝜋), then 𝑑𝑥 at 𝑥 = is
√1+sin 𝑥−√1−sin 𝑥 6
1 1
1) − 2 2) -1 3) 2 4) 0
119. If two different numbers are taken from the set {0, 1, 2, 3, … , 10}, then the probability that their sum as well
as absolute difference are both multiple of 4, is
6 12 14 7
1) 2) 3) 4)
55 55 45 55
120. A pack of cards has one card missing. Two cards are drawn randomly and are found to be spades. The
probability that the missing card is not a spade is
3 52 39 22
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 867 50 425

SYLLABUS FOR IIT MOCK TEST -09 (11-03-2025)

PHYSICS : KINETIC THEORY, OSCILLATIONS AND WAVES


CHEMISTRY : THE P-BLOCK ELEMENTS, ORGANIC CHEMISTRY – SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES &
TECHNIQUES, HYDROCARBONS
MATHEMATICS: Conic Sections, Straight lines, 3D- Geometry, Vector Algebra, Stastics, ,

ALLEN CLASSES

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