07.12.

2014

Test No. 2
 Test No. 2

Laws of Motion; Work, Energy and Power; Motion of System of Particles and
Physics Rigid Body

Chemistry States of Matter: Gases and Liquid, Thermodynamics, Equilibrium, Redox Reactions

Salient Features and Classification of Plants into Major Groups-Algae,

Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms: Angiosperms-
Classification up to Class, Characteristic Features and Examples, Morphology
of Flowering Plants: Root, Stem, Leaf, Inflorescence-Racemose and Cymose,
Biology Flower, Fruit and Seed, Structual Organisation in Animals : Animal tissues;
Morphology, Anatomy and Functions of Different Systems (Digestive,
Circulatory, Respiratory, Nervous and Reproductive) of Animals (Cockroach).
(Brief Account only), Chemical Constituents of Living Cells: Biomolecules -
Structure and Function of Proteins, Carbodydrates, Lipids, Nucleic Acids;
Enzymes-Types, Properties, Enzyme Action.
Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

Time : 3 Hrs. T EST – 2 MM : 720

[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. A block of mass m kg is connected to string on an 4. If a body follows Newton’s first law of motion, then
inclined plane. Tension in string is (g = 10 m/s2) incorrect statement is
(1) State of rest remains constant
(2) State of motion remains constant
m (3) It cannot change the shape of body
 = 0.8
30º
(4) Both (2) & (3)
5. Which statement is incorrect?
mg (1) In Newton’s third law forces exist in pairs
(1) (2) Zero
2
(2) First law can be derived from second law
(3) 0.69mg (4) mg (3) Second law is defined for unbalanced force
2. Tension in the massless string joining A and B is (4) Newton’s first law is applicable only for inertial
frame of reference
A B
6. Variation of force F acting on a body with time t is
20 N 5 kg 5 kg 20 N
as shown in figure. Change in momentum of the
Frictionless body in the interval 4 s to 8 s is

(1) Zero
F (N)
(2) 40 N 20
(3) 20 N
(4) 10 N
3. A bullet fired against a glass window pane makes a 0 t (s)
hole in it but the glass pane is not cracked due to 4 8

(1) Inertia of motion (1) 10 kg ms–1

(2) Inertia of rest (2) 5 kg ms–1
(3) Inertia of direction (3) 100 kg ms–1
(4) Due to momentum of bullet (4) 20 kg ms–1
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 Test - 2 (Code A)

7. A particle of mass 0.5 kg is moving in circular path 11. A rocket is set to fire from ground so that gases are
of radius 1 m with constant speed 10 m/s. The ejected from it at 5 kg/s at 3 km/s. The accelerating
magnitude of average force, when particle travels force on the rocket is
from A to B will be (1) 10 N (2) 15 kN
v
B (3) 8 N (4) 15 N
v 12. A man is standing on a weighing machine in a lift.
/3 The lift is going up with an acceleration of 5 m/s2.
A Then the apparent weight shown by the weighing
machine is 60 kg wt. If lift is going upward with
constant velocity then the reading shown by the
machine is

3v 2 v2 (1) 400 kg wt (2) 20 kg wt

(1) (2)
2r 2r (3) 40 kg wt (4) 80 kg wt
13. All surfaces shown in the figure are frictionless.
3v 2 6v 2
(3) (4) A block of mass 5 kg is kept on a wedge of mass
r 2r 20 kg. If the block remains stationary w.r.t. wedge,
8. A 6 kg bomb at rest explodes into three equal pieces the magnitude of force F is (g = 10 m/s2)
P, Q and R. If P and Q fly with equal speeds
20 m/s making an angle of 60° with each other. The 5 kg
angle between the direction of P and R is F
20 kg
  45°
(1) (2)
4 2
(1) 250 N (2) 200 N
3 5
(3) (4) (3) 50 N (4) 20 N
4 6
14. A stream of water flowing horizontally with a speed
9. A constant retardation stops a block moving with
of 10 m/s gushes out of a tube of cross-section area
speed 30 km/h upto a distance x. If retardation of
10 cm2 and hits a vertical wall nearby. The force
half magnitude is applied on the same block moving
exerted on the wall by the impact of water.
with speed 60 km/h, then stopping distance is
[assuming it rebounds]
(1) 4x (2) 2x
(1) 500 N (2) 20 N
(3) x (4) 8x
(3) 100 N (4) 200 N
10. Maximum constant speed with which a car can move 15. Two billiard balls each of mass m kg moving in
on a flat horizontal circular road of radius of opposite directions with speed 5 m/s collide and
curvature 10 m and coefficient of static friction 0.2 rebound with the same speed. The magnitude of
is (g = 10 m/s2) impulse imparted to each ball due to other is
(1) 4.4 m/s (2) 8 m/s (1) 5m kg ms–1 (2) 10m kg ms–1
(3) 0.44 m/s (4) 4 m/s (3) 20m kg ms–1 (4) Zero
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Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

16. A rain drop of mass 0.5 g falling from a height 2 km. 21. Two light springs have force constants 3k and 2k.
It hits the ground with a speed of 40 m/s. Work done Each spring is extended by same force. If their
by the resistive force is (g = 10 m/s2) elastic potential energies are U1 and U2 respectively,
(1) 9 J (2) –0.96 J U1  U2
then U  U is
(3) –9.6 J (4) –10 J 2 1

17. A body comes to a stop by skidding in 5 m. During

this process, the force on the body due to the road 5 3
(1) (2)
is 100 N and is opposed to the motion. Work done 3 2
on the body by the road is
2
(1) 500 J (2) –500 J (3) (4) 5
3
(3) Zero (4) 50 J
22. A block of mass m is placed at the floor of elevator.
18. A body of mass 1 kg is moving a plane. At an instant
The elevator starts from rest and accelerating
force on the body is (2iˆ  jˆ) N and velocity of body upward with uniform acceleration a. The work done
is (3iˆ  3 jˆ) m/s. The instantaneous rate of change by normal reaction on the block during first
in kinetic energy is 4 second is
(1) 30 J/s (2) 9 J/s
(3) 90 J/s (4) 3 J/s a

19. A particle is displaced by a force F  ( y iˆ  x ˆj ) and
it moves from (1, 2) to (3, 4). The work done by this
force is
m
(1) 10 J (2) 12 J
(3) 36 J (4) 20 J
1
2⎡ g⎤ 16ma 2
20. A simple pendulum is taken from position A to B. The (1) 8ma ⎢1  ⎥ (2) 1
work done by gravity on block m is ⎣ a⎦ ⎡ g⎤
⎢1  a ⎥
⎣ ⎦

60° l 8ma 2
(3) 8ma2 (4) 1
⎡ g⎤
m B ⎢1  a ⎥
⎣ ⎦
m A
23. A position dependent force F = (4 – x) N acts on a
mgl mgl body of mass 1 kg and displaces it from x = 0 to
(1) (2) x = 1 m. The work done is
2 2
(1) 3 J (2) 5 J
 3 mgl
(3) mgl (4) (3) 3.5 J (4) 7 J
2
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 Test - 2 (Code A)

24. A particle is dropped from some height. Taking g to 29. Potential energy and displacement curve is given in
be constant everywhere, kinetic energy K of the diagram.
particle with respect to time t is given as
U (J)
K K 20

(1) (2)
t t x (m)
0 2 4 6
K K The force at x = 5 m is
(1) 2.5 N (2) 10 N
(3) (4)
t t (3) –10 N (4) Zero
30. The potential energy of a particle in conservative
25. A body is dropped from a certain height. When
it loses 20 J of its potential energy it acquires a p q
field is given as U  2
 , where p and q are
velocity 2 m/s. The mass of a body is r r
(1) 2 kg (2) 20 kg constant. The value of r at equilibrium is

(3) 5 kg (4) 10 kg 2q q
(1) (2)
26. The potential energy of a spring when stretched p p
through a distance 2 cm is 10 J. The amount of work
that must be done on this spring to stretch it through 2p 2p
an additional distance 2 cm will be (3) (4)
q q
(1) 30 J (2) 10 J  
31. Let  be a angular velocity and v be a linear
(3) Zero (4) –30 J velocity of a body rotating on circular path, then the
 
27. A truck of mass 15,000 kg moves up an inclined value of ·v is
plane of slope 1 in 100 at a speed of 18 kmph. The
power of the truck is (g = 10 ms–2) (1) Zero (2) –1

(1) 7.5 kW (2) 75 kW (3) 1 (4) Positive

(3) 750 kW (4) 7500 kW 32. The radius of gyration of hollow sphere of radius R
w.r.t. tangential axis on it, is
28. A body of mass m is revolving in vertical circle
connected with a string. If ratio of tension in the 7 5
string at lowest and highest point is 4, then tension (1) R (2) R
5 3
in the string at highest point is
(1) 2mg (2) 8mg 2 2
(3) R (4) R
(3) 6mg (4) 3mg 5 3
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Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015
33. The moment of inertia of a annular disc of mass M, 39. If couple acts on a rigid body, then a rigid body is in
inner diameter R1 and outer diameter R2 about the
(1) Translational equilibrium
perpendicular axis through the centre is
(2) Rotational equilibrium
M 2 M 2
(1) [R1  R22 ] (2) [R1  R22 ] (3) Translational & rotational equilibrium
2 2
M 2 M 2 (4) Neither translational nor rotational equilibrium
(3) [R1  R22 ] (4) [R1  R22 ]
8 8 40. A circular ring of mass M and radius R is rolling
34. An engine develops 1 kW power when rotating at a without slipping with angular speed  on a horizontal
speed of 600 rpm. The average torque of engine is plane as given in figure. The magnitude of angular
momentum of ring about an axis which is
(1) 15.94 Nm (2) 15.91 Nm perpendicular to the plane of paper and pass through
(3) 1.591 Nm (4) 15.92 Nm a origin O is
35. If angular momentum of a rigid body is increased by y
50%. The percentage change in rotational kinetic
energy is [Assuming constant moment of inertia]

(1) 125% (2) 225%
(3) 150% (4) 100%
x
O
36. A particle of mass m1 is projected vertically upward
and m 2 is projected downward. Then the MR 2 
acceleration of centre of mass of the system is (1) (2) MR 2
2
(1) g (2) 2g
3MR 2 
g (3) 2MR 2 (4)
(3) (m1 + m2)g (4) 2
(m1  m2 )
41. If coefficient of friction between objects and the
37. The maximum angle of inclination of inclined plane incline are same but not sufficient for pure rolling.
Minimum time will be taken in reaching the bottom
⎛ 1⎞
with horizontal for pure rolling of a ring is ⎜ if s  ⎟ by
⎝ 2 ⎠
(1) Hollow sphere (2) Solid sphere

(1) (2) tan–1(2) (3) Ring (4) All take same time
2
42. A circular disc is in pure rolling. The distance covered
 1⎞
1 ⎛ by its centre of mass in one revolution is S0. Then
(3) (4) tan ⎜ ⎟
4 ⎝2⎠ displacement covered by topmost point of disc is
38. The fraction of total energy of spherical shell in
translational motion is S0
(1) S0 (2)
2
(1) 40% (2) 60%
(3) 50% (4) 30% (3) 3 S0 (4) 2S0
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 Test - 2 (Code A)

43. A hollow cylinder of mass 20 kg and radius 0.5 m is (1) vp = 0, ap = 0 (2) vp = v, ap = 0

free to rotate about its fixed horizontal geometrical
axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder
v2 v2
with one end attached to it and other end is pulled. (3) v p  v , ap  (4) v p  0, ap 
Tension in the string required to produce an angular R R
acceleration of 1 revolutions s–2 is

(1) 10 N (2) 20 N  dL
45. If   , conservation of angular momentum
dt
(3) 20 N (4) 10 N
explains,
44. A disc is in pure rolling on a stationary surface with
constant angular velocity. At any instant for the lower  
most point of the disc (1) If   0 , then L  0

 
R (2) If   0 , then L  constant
V
 
(3) If   0 , then p  0
P
 
(for velocity v and acceleration a) (4) If   0 , then p  constant

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. The average kinetic energy (in joules) of the 48. I, II and III are three isotherms respectively at T1,
molecules in 4 g of CH4 at 27° is T2 and T3 temperature. The temperature will be in
order
(1) 934.87 J (2) 93.487 J
(3) 837.5 J (4) 924.3 J
47. Consider the arrangement of bulbs shown below.

N2 He Ne P
I
1L 1L 0.5 L II
600 mmHg 200 mmHg 400 mmHg III
What is the pressure of the system when all the
stopcocks are opened? V
(1) 420 mmHg (1) T1 = T2 = T3
(2) 400 mmHg (2) T1 > T2 = T3
(3) 580 mmHg (3) T1 < T2 < T3
(4) 640 mmHg (4) T1 > T2 > T3
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Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

49. The temperature at which a real gas obeys the ideal 54. For a particular reaction, H° = –35 kJ and
gas laws over a fairly wide range of pressure is S° = –110 JK–1mol–1. The reaction is
(1) Inversion temperature (1) Spontaneous at all temperatures
(2) Boyle’s temperature (2) Non-spontaneous at all temperatures
(3) Critical temperature (3) Spontaneous at temperature below 45.18°C
(4) Reduced temperature (4) Spontaneous at temperature above 45.18°C
50. A 2 litre flask contains 60 g O2 gas at 27°C. What 55. In which of the following pairs, both properties are
mass of O2 must be released to reduce the pressure intensive?
in the flask to 12 atm?
(1) Pressure, entropy
(1) 30.8 g (2) 34.2 g
(2) Volume, density
(3) 28.8 g (4) 20 g
(3) Concentration, specific heat capacity
51. When an ideal gas expands in vacuum, work done
is (R = gas constant) (4) Internal energy, density
(1) R (2) 2R 56. Two balloons A and B are taken below at
(3) 4R (4) Zero temperature 400 K. Maximum capacity of balloon A
and balloon B are 800 mL and 1200 mL respectively.
52. Heat absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic When the temperature of balloons are raised, which
process shown in figure is one will burst first?
V (in L)
50
600 mL 1000 mL
A B

(1) Balloon A
10
(2) Balloon B
P (in kPa) (3) Both balloons simultaneously
10 50
(1) 400 J (2) 200 J (4) Balloon will not burst
(3) 100 J (4) 500 J 57. The compressibility factor for a gas under critical
condition is
53. The entropy change in an adiabatic process is
(1) Zero 8 3
(1) (2)
(2) Always positive 3 8

(3) Always negative

1
(3) 1 (4)
(4) May be positive or negative 5
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 Test - 2 (Code A)

58. The pressure-volume behaviour of various 


 NH3 (g)  H2S(g),
61. For NH4HS(s) 
thermodynamic processes is shown in graphs.
if K p = 81 atm 2 , then equilibrium pressure of
mixture is
Pressure (P)
A
(1) 9 atm (2) 18 atm
B (3) 81 atm (4) 27 atm
C 62. Which of the following groups of gases will have
D same rate of diffusion under identical physical
Volume (V) conditions?
(1) CO, CO2, C3O2 (2) CO, CO2, C2H4
A, B, C and D represent which of the following
thermodynamic processes respectively? (3) C3H8, CO2, N2O (4) CO2, C2H4, N2O
(1) Isobaric, isothermal, adiabatic & isochoric 63. What is the value of compressibility factor (Z) for
0.04 mole of real gas at 0.2 atm pressure? Assuming
(2) Isochoric, isothermal, adiabatic & isobaric the size of the gas molecule (b) is negligible
(3) Isobaric, adiabatic, isothermal & isochoric (Given a = 104 atm L2 mol–2, RT = 120 L atm mol–1)
(4) Isobaric, isothermal, isochoric & adiabatic 2 1
(1) (2)
59. Which of the following relationships is not true? 3 5

1 1
8RT (3) (4)
(1) Average speed = 6 4
M
64. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1 (1) Both surface tension and viscosity decrease with
(2) PV  mNu2
3 increase of temperature
(2) Glass is a highly viscous liquid
Pb
(3) Z  1  , at high pressure (3) The unit of surface tension is Nm–1 in the S.I.
RT
system

KT (4) All of these

(4) Average kinetic energy of the gas =
2 65. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal
moles of CO and He at same temperature and
60. 2.24 litre of an ideal gas at STP requires 6 cal to
pressure. If the total pressure of the mixture was
raise the temperature by 15°C at constant volume.
found 1 atm, the partial pressure of He in the
Calculate the value of Cp (in cal K–1mol–1).
mixture is
(1) 4 (2) 6 (1) 0.2 atm (2) 1 atm
(3) 8 (4) 12 (3) 0.7 atm (4) 0.5 atm
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Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

66. The equilibrium constant in terms of pressure of a 72. The conjugate acid and base of HO2 are

reaction, A  B   C  D is 200. If volume of respectively
reaction flask is trippled, then the equilibrium
(2) O 2 and O
2

constant in terms of concentration is (1) O2 and H2O2 2

(1) 200 (2) 400 (3) H2O2 and O2

2 2
(4) O2 and O2
(3) 800 (4) 100
73. HX is a weak acid (Ka = 10–5). It forms a salt NaX
67. In the manufacturing of H2SO4 with the following on reacting with NaOH. The degree of hydrolysis of
equilibrium, 10–3 M NaX is


 (1) 0.01% (2) 0.1%
2SO2 (g)  O2 (g) 
 2SO3 (g) + q,
(3) 0.001% (4) 0.05%
reaction proceeds in the forward direciton if
(1) Temperature is increased 74. In a buffer solution containing equal concentration
– – –9
of B and HB, the Kb for B is 10 . The pH of buffer
(2) SO3 is added solution is
(3) Some O2 is removed (1) 4 (2) 9
(4) Pressure is increased (3) 5 (4) 6
68. 0.1 M CH3COOH is 0.1% ionised, then its pH is 75. The compound whose 0.1 M solution is basic, is
(1) 1.5 (2) 4
(1) Ammonium acetate (2) Ammonium chloride
(3) 5 (4) 3
(3) Sodium phthalate (4) CH3COONa + HCl
69. Which is not the example of common ion effect?
76. The equivalent weight of CO 2 in the following
(1) NaCl + AgCl (2) H2S + HCl reaction is
(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl (4) CH3COOH + KOH Sunlight
6CO2  12H2O   C6H12O6  6O2  6H2O
70. Ksp of Ca(OH)2 is 1.8 × 10–11 at temperature 30°C,
then calculate solubility of Ca(OH)2 at pH = 10. (1) 22 (2) 11
(1) 4.5 × 10–4 M (2) 1.8 × 10–3 M
44
(3) 1.8 × 10–5 M (4) 4.5 × 10–5 M (3) 24 (4)
24
71. At a temperature under high pressure
77. Which is intramolecular redox reaction?
K W (H2O)  1012
(1) (NH4)2Cr2O7  N2 + Cr2O3 + H2O
A solution of pH = 6.4, under these conditions is said
(2) 2KClO3  2KCl + 3O2
to be
(1) Acidic (2) Basic (3) NH4NO2  N2 + 2H2O

(3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric (4) All of these

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 Test - 2 (Code A)

83. In the brown ring complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+, ratio of

78. 2 mole of FeC2O4 is oxidized by ‘x’ moles of MnO4
oxidation number of ‘Fe’ and nitrogen is
in acidic medium, then the value of ‘x’ is
3 2
3 1 (1) (2)
5 3
(1) (2)
5 5
1
(3) 0 (4)
6 5 3
(3) (4)
5 6 84. At 25°C and 1 atm, which one of the following has
non-zero standard enthalpy of formation (Hf°)?
79. Which one of the following is not a buffer solution?
(1) Cl2(g) (2) Br2(g)
(1) H3BO3 and Na2B4O7
(3) C (graphite) (4) Red phosphorus
(2) CH3COONa and CH3COOH
85. Cl 2 changes to Cl – and ClO3 in hot and
(3) H2CO3 and KHCO3
concentrated NaOH. Equivalent weight of Cl2 will be
(4) HCl and C6H5NH3 Cl
M M
(1) (2)
10 5
80. H2O(g)  H(g)  OH(g), H  x1 cal
3M 5M
(3) (4)
OH(g)  H(g)  O(g), H  x 2 cal 5 3
86. The oxidation number of sodium in Sodium-Mercury
On these value, bond energy of (O–H) bond is amalgam is
(in cal)
(1) Zero (2) +1
x1  x 2
(1) x1  x 2 (2) 1
2 (3) –1 (4)
2
x1  2x 2 2x1  x 2 87. Consider the following equilibria at 300 K and
(3) (4)
2 2 400 K with their equilibrium constants

81. Which has the minimum oxidation number of the 300 K 400 K
underlined atom in the following? 

I: A(g) 
 3B(g) K1  12 K2  6
(1) Cr O5 (2) K 3 Cr O8 

II : P(g) 
 Q(g) K1  4 K2  6
(3) Cr O2Cl2 (4) K 2 Cr 2 O7 Then,

82. The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two (1) I is endothermic, II is exothermic
types of sulphur atoms in Na2S4O6 is (2) I is exothermic, II is endothermic
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) I & II both are exothermic
(3) 4 (4) 3 (4) I & II both are endothermic

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Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

88. In which case S is positive? 90. In the dissociation of A2(g) into 2A(g), degree of
(1) H2O (l)  H2O (s) dissociation () varies with
D
according to which of
d
(2) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
the following graph? (D = vapour density before
(3) H2 (g)  2H (g) dissociation and d = vapour density after dissociation)
(4) H2 (g) + I2 (g)  2HI (g)  

89. Which is not true about free energy change (G)?

(1) (2)
(1) G  G  2.303RT logQ
D/d D/d
(2) G is an extensive property  

(3) G  –2.303RT logK, if G = 0

(3) (4)
(4) G  2.303RT logK, if G° = 0 D/d D/d

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Read the following statements w.r.t. artificial (1) Sulphated polysaccharides in cell wall
systems of classification.
(2) Belong to the group of kelps
(a) Based on morphology of chromosomes
(3) Biflagellated antherozoids
(b) Fossil evidence is essential to support the system
(c) They separated the closely related species. (4) They occur at great depths in oceans
(d) They gave equal weightage to vegetative and 93. Sexual reproduction is oogamous and accompanied
sexual characters by “complex post fertilisation developments” in a
(1) All statements are correct group of algae in which
(2) Statements (c) & (d) are correct (1) Spores and gametes are non-motile
(3) Only (a) is correct (2) Dominance of chlorophyll a and b is observed
(4) All statements are incorrect
(3) Pyrenoids act as storage body commonly
92. Algae, given in the following diagram, is
characterised by (4) Vegetative cells are covered by gelatinous
coating of algin
94. Find out the common character between algae and
bryophytes.
(1) External fertilisation
Branches
Axis
(2) Uncellular jacketed sex organs
(3) Diploid main plant body
(4) Diploid sporophytes

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 Test - 2 (Code A)

95. Sporophyte is multicellular and not free living in 100. In gymnosperms,

(1) Vascular amphibians of plant kingdom (1) Roots may be associated with fungus to form
(2) Non-vascular amphibians of plant kingdom coralloid roots

(3) Phanerogams without ovary (2) Roots may be associated with fungus to form
mycorrhiza
(4) Most algae and some bryophytes
(3) Vessels are usually found in xylem
96. Find correct statement w.r.t. bryophytes.
(4) Adventitious roots are associated with N2 fixing
(1) Less differentiated than that of algae bacteria to form coralloid roots
(2) They in general are of great economic 101. How many of the given statements are concerned
importance with angiosperms?
(3) Zygote do not undergo meiosis immediately (i) Secondary growth
(4) Rhizoids are unicellular or multicellular meant
(ii) Fertilisation occurs twice in male gametophyte
for storage of food
(iii) Heterosporous and meroblastic embryo
97. The first terrestrial plants possessing vascular
development
bundles are/have
(iv) PEN formation
(1) Found in dry, damp and shady places
(v) Male gametophyte with least number of cells
(2) Frequently grown as ornamentals
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Only megaphyllous
(4) All heterosporous (3) Five (4) Two

98. Choose odd one w.r.t. Selaginella. 102. Find odd one w.r.t. life cycle pattern.

(1) Strobili or cone (1) Cycas

(2) Microsporophyll (2) Ficus

(3) Multicilliated sperms (3) Fucus

(4) Heterosporous (4) Funaria

99. Find the incorrect statement. 103. Identify the mis-matched pair w.r.t. algae
(1) Male and female cones are borne on different Number of flagella &
plants in Cycas Algae Pigments position of insertions

(2) Angiosperms have highly reduced gametophytic (1) Spirogyra Chlorophyll a, b Aflagellate
generation
(2) Laminaria Chlorophyll a, c 2, unequal, lateral
(3) Male gametes are carried by pollen tube in
Pinus (3) Dictyota Chlorophyll a, c 2, equal, lateral
(4) Formation of endosperm in gymnosperms is a
(4) Porphyra Chlorophyll a, d Aflagellate
pre-fertilisation event
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Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

104. Which of the following event is a precursor to the 107. In sexual reproduction, the sex organs antheridia
seed habit considered an important step in and archegonia are produced on the leafy shoots in
evolution? (1) Riccia, Funaria
(1) Development of the zygotes into young (2) Selaginella, Marchantia
embryos within the monoecious gametophytes
(3) Marchantia, Polytrichum
(2) Development of zygotes into young
(4) Funaria, Sphagnum
sporophytes within the male gametophytes
108. Spread of pteridophytes is limited and restricted to
(3) Development of zygotes into zygospores within narrow geographical regions because
the female gametophytes
(1) They need water for triple fusion
(4) Development of the zygotes into young
(2) Gametophytes require cool, damp and shady
embryos within the female gametophytes
places to grow
105. Read the following statements: (3) They bind the soil along hilly slopes
(i) Sporophyte of Riccia possesses capsule only. (4) More than one option is correct
(ii) Red algae can trap the blue-green portion of 109. Dorsiventral plant body, closely appressed to the
light. substrate producing green, multicellular asexual
buds is seen in
(iii) Liverworts have multicellular rhizoids and
protonema stage in life cycle. (1) Chara (2) Marchantia

(iv) Branched stem is not a characteristic of all (3) Spirogyra (4) Funaria
gymnosperms. 110. Gametophyte with photosynthetic tissues is found/
developed in the life cycle of
(1) All statements are correct
a. Algae
(2) Only one statement is incorrect
b. Bryophytes
(3) Two statements are incorrect
c. Pteridophytes
(4) Three statements are incorrect
d. Gymnosperms
106. Choose the correct match.
e. Angiosperms
(1) Fucus - Anisogamy (1) c + d (2) b + c + e
(2) Zoochlorella and Trichophilous - Endozoic and (3) a + b + c (4) a + c + d
epizoic algae respectively
111. In Asparagus, roots get modified for
(3) First stage of moss gametophyte develops from (1) Respiration and mechanical support
the lateral bud of protonema which bearing
spirally arranged leaves (2) Storage of food
(3) Synthesis of PGRs and respiration
(4) Gelidium - Development of the zygotes into
young embryo takes place within the female (4) Anchorage of plant, storage reserve food
gametophyte material and respiration
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 Test - 2 (Code A)

112. In gymnospermic plants, female gametophyte 118. Find out the incorrect match
(1) Bears 2 or more archegonia and male sex (1) Strawberry – Aggregate fruit
organs
(2) Datura – Caryopsis fruit
(2) Is 7-celled and 8-nucleated
(3) Tomato – Berry fruit
(3) Is permanently retained within megasporangium
(4) Is released from megasporangium at 13-celled (4) Ficus – Composite fruit
stage 119. Match the Column-I and II w.r.t. seed of Zea mays
113. Respiratory roots in the plants growing in swampy Column-I Column-II
areas,
a. Coleorhiza (i) Plumule
(1) Grow vertically upwards
(2) Provide support and oxygen b. Proteinaceous (ii) Scutellum
endosperm
(3) Arise from lower nodes of the stem
c. Coleoptile (iii) Aleurone grains
(4) Store more nutrition for such conditions
114. In Opuntia, stem is modified into d. Large, shield shaped(iv) Radicle
cotyledon
(1) Phyllode
(v) Epiblast
(2) Spines
(3) Green leaf like structure (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(v)

(4) Fleshy and non-photosynthetic structure (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
115. Axillary buds develop into slender and spirally coiled (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
structure and help plants to climb as in
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(v)
(1) Euphorbia (2) Jasmine
120. Flower of chilli is
(3) Watermelon (4) Bougainvillea
(1) Actinomorphic, hypogynous
116. Inflorescence of Ficus plant possess
(2) Zygomorphic, epigynous
(1) Male flowers situated at the bottom of
receptacle (3) Actinomorphic, epigynous
(2) Presence of gall flowers between the male and (4) Zygomorphic, hypogynous
female flowers
121. Margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but
(3) Female flowers situated at the top near ostiole
not in any particular direction in
(4) Dichasial cyme ending in monochasial cyme
(1) Cassia and cotton
117. Both adhesion and cohesion conditions of stamens
are found in the flowers of (2) Cassia and Gulmohur

(1) Indigofera (2) Brassica (3) China rose and Lady’s finger
(3) Helianthus (4) Triticum (4) Calotropis and China rose
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Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

122. Choose the correct statement: 126. The lateral branches originate from the underground
(1) Pentamerous flowers are found in Brassica portion of main stem, grow horizontally beneath the
campestris soil and then come out obliquely upward giving rise
to leafy shoots in all of the following, except
(2) Gynoecium in Petunia is G (2) with axile
placentation (1) Banana

(3) Parthenocarpic fruits develop after fertilisation of (2) Chrysanthemum

ovary (3) Jasmine
(4) In Argemone, false septum makes ovary
(4) Pineapple
unilocular and single seeded
123. Choose the correct option. 127. Select the odd one w.r.t. Petiole.
(1) Become winged in lemon
A B C
(2) Short lived in Australian Acacia
(1) Salvia Variable length of Polyadelphous
filament of stamens (3) Help to hold blade to light
(2) Tomato Carpels are fused Axile placentation
(4) Bud is present in the axil of petiole
(3) Calotropis A single leaf arise at Twisted aestivation
each node in 128. Which of the following information is not provided
alternate manner
by floral diagram of family solanaceae?
(4) Cassia Flower can be divided Imbricate aestivation
into two similar halves (1) Aestivation of petals
by any plane passing
through the centre
(2) Adhesion of stamens
124. Given below is a diagram representing position of (3) Position of ovary
floral parts on thalamus. It is found in the flowers of
(4) Number of locules in ovary
129. The fruit of mango and coconut are different in how
many characteristics?
(a) Presence of differentiated pericarp
(b) Edible part
(c) Number of seed
(1) Brinjal (2) Rose
(d) Nature of endocarp
(3) Datura (4) Cucumber
(1) Two (2) Three
125. Plant of carrot possess
(3) Four (4) One
(1) Modified stem with fibrous roots
(2) Modified root for storage with reduced stem 130. Find odd one w.r.t. ex-albuminous seed.

(3) Modified root with node and internodes (1) Bean (2) Gram
(4) Modified stem for storage of food (3) Pea (4) Maize
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 Test - 2 (Code A)

131. How many of the following plants have diadelphous 135. Mark the mis-matched pair:
and epipetalous conditions respectively?
(1) Sequoia – Direct pollination
Lupin, Tulip, Aloe, Lily, Chilli, Gloriosa, Petunia,
(2) Alternate phyllotaxy – China rose
Mulethi
(3) Micropyle – Small pore in seed as
(1) 2, 6 (2) 3, 2
well as ovule
(3) 2, 2 (4) 4, 2
(4) Volvox – Pyrenoids in
132. In which family sepals are persistent in fruits? cytoplasm
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Solanaceae 136. Consider the following four types of epithelium A, B,
(3) Liliaceae (4) Poaceae C and D. Find out the correct option regarding the
type of given epithelium matched with its location
133. Study of DNA sequences and crystals for resolving
with one exception in it.
confusions in classification, is used in
(1) Cytotaxonomy
(2) Chemotaxonomy
(3) Morphotaxonomy
(4) Karyotaxonomy (A) (B)

134. Choose the odd one (w.r.t. life cycle patterns).

(1) Free living gametophytes in
A. Algae
B. Bryophyte
C. Pteridophyte
(2) Free living sporophyte in (C) (D)
A. Pteridophyte
b. Gymnosperm Epithelium Location Exception

C. Angiosperm (1) A Walls of blood vessels, air Mesothelium

sacs of lungs, mesothelium
(3) Parasitic gametophytes in (2) B Proximal convoluted tubule Seminiferous
of nephron, seminiferous tubules of
A. Gymnosperm tubules of testes, ducts of testes
glands
B. Angiosperm
(3) C Lining of stomach, gastric Germinal
(4) Parasitic sporophytes in glands, intestinal glands, epithelium
germinal epithelium
A. Monocots (4) D Bronchioles, fall opi an Ventricles of
tubes, ventricles of brain brain
B. Pteridophytes
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Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

137. Blood supply is absent in 141. One of the following is a location of most abundant
(1) Bone (2) Adipose tissue cartilage in the human body.

(3) Skeletal muscle (4) Olfactory epithelium (1) Tracheal rings and costal cartilages

138. How many of the followging statements is/are (2) Intervertebral disc and pubic symphysis
correct regarding the given type of epithelial tissue? (3) Pinna and tip of nose
(4) Pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle
142. Which of the following is a feature of mammalian
bone only?
(1) Matrix containing salts of calcium and
(a) It is keratinised stratified squamous epithelium magnesium
lining buccal cavity, pharynx, tongue, (2) Lamellae
oesophagus etc.
(3) Harversian canals
(b) It is non-keratinised stratified squamous
epithelium which occurs in epidermis of skin of (4) Osteocytes
land vertebrates 143. Dense irregular connective tissue differs from dense
(c) The deepest layer of cells are squamous regular connective tissue in
resting upon basement membrane (1) Absence of collagen fibres
(d) It has limited role in secretion and absorption (2) Absence of fibroblast
and the main function is to provide protection
against chemical and mechanical stresses (3) Absence of ground substance

(1) One (2) Two (4) Orientation of collagen fibres

(3) Three (4) Four 144. In which of the following smooth muscle fibres
contract as separate units?
139. Which type of cell junction is communicating
junction in animals and helps neighbouring cells to (1) Muscle of gastro-intestinal tract
communicate with one another, by connecting their (2) Arrector pili muscle of skin dermis
cytoplasm?
(3) Iris muscles in eyes
(1) Desmosomes (2) Gap junction
(4) More than one option is correct
(3) Tight junction (4) Adhering junction
145. The type of neuron in which first a single process
140. Out of fibroblast, macrophages, few adipocytes, arises from the cyton and then it divides into an
plasma cells, mast cells, chondrin, collagen fibres, axon and a dendrite is found in
elastic fibres, modified polysaccharides, hyaluronic
acid, chondrocytes, ossein, how many are found in (1) Retina of eyes
areolar connective tissue? (2) Early embryos of invertebrates and vertebrates
(1) Eight (2) Six (3) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerves
(3) Nine (4) Seven (4) Grey matter of brain and spinal cord
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 Test - 2 (Code A)

146. Which of the following given tissue/gland is 149. Which of the following is an incorrect distinction
incorrectly matched with its location in human between the three types of muscular tissue shown
body? as A, B and C?

Column - I Column - II

(1) Unicellular gland -

Alimentary canal,
trachea

Adipose tissue - (A) (B) (C)

(2)
Beneath the skin,
A B C
around kidneys
and eye ball (1) Shape of Cylindrical Spindle Cylindrical
muscle fibre shaped
(2) Striations Present Absent Present
(3) (3) Branching in Present Absent Present
Dense regular - muscle fibre
Tendon, ligament (4) Intercalated Absent Absent Present
discs

150. Consider the following diagram of neural tissue with

certain labelled parts A, B, C and D.
(4) Dense irregular -
Skin Find out the incorrect statement.

147. A non-myelinated nerve fibre differs from myelinated B

nerve fibre in/possessing
C
(1) Schwann cell
(2) Myelin sheath D

(3) Neurilemma (1) In a multipolar neuron, number of C is more

(4) Slower impulse conduction than number of A

148. Anisotropic band in a skeletal muscle fibre (2) A and B contain Nissl granules which are
absent in C
(1) Is unit of muscle contraction
(3) D make up more than one-half the volume of
(2) Contains both actin and myosin neural tissue in our body
(3) Contains only myosin (4) Usually the direction of impulse transmission is
(4) Contains only actin from C towards A
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Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

151. Find out the correct set of secondary metabolites 154. Which of the following is a correct description of
which are toxins. the organic compound shown?
(1) Vinblastin, Curcumin
(1) HOCH2 O
(2) Abrin, Ricin C5H10O5(Ribose)
OH Pentose sugar,
(3) Morphine, Codeine
found in RNA,
(4) Monoterpenes, Diterpenes OH OH non-reducing

152. Following diagram represents primary structure of a

protein with four labelled amino acids A, B, C O
Phospholipid
and D. Select the correct statement. (Lecithin)
O CH2 O C R1 Contains
glycerol, fatty
R2 C O CH O
(2) acids,
CH2 O P O CH2 CH2 phosphoric
N
acid and
C
N+
OH choline are
CH3 CH3
basic
CH3 constituent of
biomembranes

OH
COOH (3)
Cholesterol
SH CH2 Derived from 20 carbon
CH2OH CH2 CH2 CH2 saturated fatty acid,
arachidonic acid, used
- HN - CH - CO - NH - CH - CO - NH - CH - CO - NH - CH - CO - in synthesis of steroid
(A) (B) (C) (D) hormones, vitamin D
and bile salts
HO
(1) A is essential amino acid
O
(2) C is most complex amino acid
HN
Uracil, a purine
(3) D is represented by single letter code E found in RNA
(4)
(4) B is basic amino acid O
N
H
153. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
starch? 155. Cellulose differs from chitin in
(1) Starch consists of unbranched amylose and (a) Branching
branched amylopectin
(b) Type of glycosidic bond
(2) It is a polymer of -D-glucose
(c) Type of monomer unit
(3) Successive glucose units are linked together by
(d) Abundancy in biosphere
 1  6 linkages and at branching  1  4
linkage is found (1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (b), (c), (d)
(4) Starch turns blue black with iodine (3) (c) only (4) (c), (d)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 Test - 2 (Code A)

156. Which of the following is a glycosidic bond?

A B C D
(1) – C – O – C –
(1) Collagen Hormone Antibody Enables glucose
transport into cells
(2) C – S –
(2) Collagen Enzyme Insulin Sensory reception
(3) – CONH –
(3) Collagen Sensory Antibody Hormone
(4) More than one option is correct reception

157. Consider the following diagrams A and B showing (4) Collagen Enzyme Antibody Enables glucose
transport into cells
structure of protein.
159. Fats belong to same category of lipids as that of
Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) Oils and waxes
(2) Waxes and cholesterol
(3) Phospholipids and oils

N (4) Glycolipids and prostaglandins

160. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
C the organic compound shown?
(A) (B)
CH3 – (CH2)14 – COOH
(1) Structure (A) is absolutely necessary for many (1) It is palmitic acid
biological activities of proteins such as enzymes
(2) It is saturated fatty acid being a constituent of
(2) Human haemoglobin is represented by bees wax
structure (B)
(3) It is an essential fatty acid
(3) Keratin of hair is represented by structure (A) (4) Tripalmitin is a triglyceride consisting of three
(4) C terminal and N terminal in structure B palmitic acid molecules esterified with a glycerol
represent left and right end of protein 161. How many of the following statements are wrong
respectively w.r.t. Periplaneta?
158. Following is a table of some proteins and their (a) Coelom is reduced by presence of blood
functions with certain blanks A, B, C and D. Find containing cavity called haemocoel
out the correct option.
(b) Wings in male cockroach are relatively larger
than female wings
Protein Functions
(c) Diploid number of chromosome is 48 in female
(A) Intercellular ground substance
(d) Embryologically body is made of twenty
Trypsin (B) segments
(C) Fights infectious agents (1) One (2) Two
GLUT-4 (D) (3) Three (4) Four
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Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

162. Which of the following endocrine gland in cockroach 165. Which of the following is mis-matched w.r.t.
secretes juvenile hormone, which retains the Periplaneta?
nymphal characters and checks the appearance of
adult characters? (1) Head - Triangular in shape; lies at
right angles to longitudinal
(1) Prothoracic glands
axis of body and is
(2) Corpora allata
formed by fusion of six
(3) Corpora cardiaca segments
(4) Intercerebral gland cells
(2) Thorax - Consists of three
163. Select the correct sequence of podomeres in leg segments; each segment
of cockroach from proximal to distal end. of it bear a pair of walking
(1) Coxa - Tronchanter - Femur - Tibia - Tarsus legs and a pair of wings
(2) Tarsus - Tibia - Femur - Tronchanter - Coxa
(3) Abdomen of male - Consists of ten segments;
(3) Coxa - Femur - Tronchanter - Tibia - Tarsus Genital pouch or chamber
(4) Tarsus - Tronchanter - Femur - Tibia - Coxa lies at the hind end
bounded dorsally by 9 th
164. Given below is diagrammatic representation of
circulatory system of cockroach with three labelled and 10 th terga and
parts A, B and C. ventrally by 9th sternum.
It contains dorsal anus
A and ventral male genital
pore
B
(4) Abdomen of female - Consists of ten
th
segments; 7 sternum is
boat shaped and together
with 8 th and 9 th sterna
C forms a brood or genital
pouch

166. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. structure/

Select the correct statement w.r.t. labelled parts gland of cockroach and its total number in body?
(1) A opens in capillaries of head region
(1) Collaterial glands in female cockroach - 2
(2) B are 12 muscles which help in circulation of
blood (2) Malpighian tubules - 100 - 150
(3) C are funnel shaped chambers of heart lying
(3) Spiracles - 10
along mid ventral line of thorax and abdomen
(4) B and C are present in pericardial sinus of body (4) Ommatidia in each compound eye - 2000
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 Test - 2 (Code A)

167. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t. given mouth part 170. Anal cerci in cockroach are
of cockroach and its description/function.
(1) A pair of fifteen jointed structures arising from
9th sterna in both male and female, sensitive to
(1) Paired, containing vibrations
grinding and incising
region (2) A pair of unjointed structures arising from 10th
terga in both male and female, sensitive to
(2) Unpaired, bearing sound
chemoreceptors (3) A pair of fifteen jointed structures arising from
10th terga in both male and female sensitive to
(3) Unpaired, covering sound
mouth from dorsal side
forming upper lip (4) A pair of unjointed structures arising from 9th
sterna, in both male and female sensitive to
sound
(4) Paired, serves to hold
food paticles 171. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of
reproductive system of female cockroach with
certain labelled parts A, B, C and D. Find out the
incorrect description/function of the labelled part.
168. Gastric caecae in alimentary canal of cockroach are
(1) 6-8 blind tubules present at the junction of crop
and gizzard, which secrete digestive juice
(2) 6-8 blind tubules present at the junction of A
gizzard and midgut, which majorly absorbs food B
(3) 6-8 blind tubules present at the junction of
midgut and hindgut, which remove away waste
C
from haemolymph
D
(4) 6-8 blind tubules present at the junction of
gizzard and midgut, which secrete digestive
(1) A – Paired structures each having eight
juice
ovarioles lying laterally in 2nd-6th abdominal
169. Pseudopenis and titillator in male cockroach are a segments
part of
(2) B – Paired structures left and right of which left
(1) Left phallomere is larger, stores sperms received from male
(2) Right phallomere (3) C – Paired branched structures left and right of
(3) Ventral phallomere which left is larger, secrete wall of ootheca
(4) Anal style (4) D – It is vestibulum
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Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

172. Which of the following structures are present in 6- 175. Nephrocytes and urecose glands in cockroach
7th and 6th abdominal segment only in male and help in
female cockroach respectively? (1) Digestion
(1) Utricular gland and ovary (2) Respiration

(2) Phallic gland and vestibulum (3) Reproduction

(4) Excretion
(3) Utricular gland and spermathecae
176. Guanosine differs from cytosine in
(4) Seminal vesicles and genital chamber
(1) Guanosine is a nucleotide and cytosine a
173. The nymphal stage during development of nucleoside
Periplaneta americana (2) Guanosine having ribose sugar and cytosine
(1) Looks completely distinct from adult having deoxyribose sugar
(3) Guanosine being a nucleoside and cytosine a
(2) Undergoes thirteen moultings to reach to adult nitrogenous base
form
(4) Guanosine being a nitrogenous base and
(3) Bear wings but cannot fly cytosine a nucleoside

(4) Has well developed gonads and can reproduce 177. Which of the following factor affecting enzyme
activity is depicted in the given graph?
174. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t.
nervous system/sensory organ of cockroach?

Enzyme activity
(1) Brain - Represented by supra-
oesophageal ganglion;
supplies nerves to antennae
and compound eyes

(2) Nerve cord - Double, solid structure,

ventral in position, consists
of nine ganglia, three in (a) pH
thorax and six in abdomen (b) Temperature
(3) Compound eyes - Help in mosaic vision with (c) Substrate concentration
more resolution but less (d) Presence of non-competitive inhibitor
sensitivity during night
(1) (a) & (b)
(4) Antennae - Paired structures have (2) (b) & (c)
sensory receptors that help
in monitoring the (3) (c) & (d)
environment (4) (b) & (d)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 Test - 2 (Code A)

178. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t. (3) Coenzymes are organic cofactors but their
competitive inhibition? association with apoenzyme is only transient
(1) Malonate inhibits succinic dehydrogonase and usually occurring during course of catalysis
there is decrease in km and Vmax
(4) Haem is prosthetic group of peroxidase and
(2) Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase and there catalase and is tightly bound to respective
is decrease in Vmax but km remains same
enzymes
(3) Sulpha drugs inhibits enzymes synthesising folic
acid in bacteria which results in increase of km 180. Select the incorrect statement for B-DNA.
but no change in Vmax (1) One turn of helical strand involves ten base
(4) Glucose 6-phosphate inhibits hexokinase and pairs
there is increase in both km and Vmax
(2) At each step of ascent strand turns 34 Å
179. Select the incorrect statement.
(3) Rise per base pair is 0.34 nm
(1) Catalytic activity is lost when the cofactor is
removed from the enzyme (4) Nitrogen bases are projected more or less
(2) Zinc is a cofactor for lipolytic enzyme perpendicular to sugar-phosphate-sugar chain
carboxypeptidase backbone

  

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 Test No. 1

AK A S H TE
A ST
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D
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Test - 1 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

Test Date : 09-11-2014 T EST – 1

ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (1) 73. (4) 109. (1) 145. (3)
2. (3) 38. (2) 74. (2) 110. (4) 146 (1)
3. (1) 39. (3) 75. (4) 111. (3) 147. (4)
4. (3) 40. (2) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (3)
5. (1) 41. (2) 77. (2) 113. (3) 149. (3)
6. (1) 42. (1) 78. (2) 114. (4) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (3) 115. (2) 151. (2)
8. (3) 44. (2) 80. (3) 116. (3) 152. (2)
9. (2) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (3)
10. (1) 46. (4) 82. (2) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (3) 83. (2) 119. (3) 155. (1)
12. (2) 48. (4) 84. (2) 120. (1) 156. (2)
13. (4) 49. (3) 85. (2) 121. (4) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (4) 86. (2) 122. (2) 158. (2)
15. (2) 51. (4) 87. (3) 123. (2) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (3) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (4)
17. (2) 53. (3) 89. (2) 125. (3) 161. (2)
18. (4) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (4) 162. (4)
19. (1) 55. (2) 91. (3) 127. (4) 163. (4)
20. (2) 56. (2) 92. (4) 128. (3) 164. (2)
21. (4) 57. (1) 93. (2) 129. (2) 165. (3)
22. (3) 58. (4) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (2) 95. (4) 131. (1) 167. (4)
24. (1) 60. (4) 96. (1) 132. (3) 168. (3)
25. (3) 61. (3) 97. (3) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (1) 62. (2) 98. (2) 134. (2) 170. (4)
27. (3) 63. (4) 99. (4) 135. (3) 171. (3)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (3) 136. (1) 172. (3)
29. (1) 65. (3) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (4)
30. (3) 66. (1) 102. (2) 138. (2) 174. (1)
31. (3) 67. (2) 103. (3) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (3) 68. (3) 104. (1) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (3) 69. (3) 105. (2) 141. (4) 177. (4)
34. (1) 70. (4) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (3)
35. (4) 71. (4) 107. (3) 143. (2) 179. (3)
36. (3) 72. Deleted 108. (2) 144. (2) 180. (3)

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