1.

What is the primary goal of cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) in psychiatric

nursing?
A. To enhance medication compliance
B. To change maladaptive thinking patterns
C. To improve social skills
D. To increase physical activity

Rationale: CBT aims to identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors, which
can help improve emotional regulation and develop personal coping strategies.

2. Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the pathophysiology of

schizophrenia?
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Norepinephrine
D. Acetylcholine

Rationale: Dopamine dysregulation is a major factor in the pathophysiology of

schizophrenia, leading to symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions.

3. In psychiatric nursing, which of the following is an example of a positive symptom of

schizophrenia?
A. Anhedonia
B. Alogia
C. Hallucinations
D. Affective flattening

Rationale: Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include the presence of abnormal behaviors

or experiences, such as hallucinations and delusions.

4. Which therapeutic communication technique involves restating what the client has
said in different words to ensure understanding?
A. Clarification
B. Reflection
C. Summarization
D. Paraphrasing

Rationale: Paraphrasing involves restating the client’s message in the nurse’s own words to
confirm understanding and encourage further communication.

5. A client with major depressive disorder has been prescribed an SSRI. Which of the
following side effects is most commonly associated with SSRIs?
A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
C. Sexual dysfunction
D. Weight loss

Rationale: Sexual dysfunction, including decreased libido and anorgasmia, is a common side
effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

6. Which intervention is most appropriate for a client experiencing a panic attack?

A. Encourage deep, slow breathing
B. Provide a detailed explanation of the symptoms
C. Suggest engaging in physical exercise
D. Offer a high-carbohydrate snack

Rationale - Deep, slow breathing can help reduce the hyperventilation and anxiety associated
with panic attacks, promoting relaxation.

7. What is the primary function of the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)?

A. To diagnose psychiatric disorders
B. To assess cognitive function
C. To evaluate mood disorders
D. To determine the need for hospitalization

Rationale: The MMSE is a brief 30-point questionnaire used to screen for cognitive
impairment and assess cognitive function.

8. Which of the following is a key feature of borderline personality disorder?

A. Excessive need for admiration
B. Persistent avoidance of social interactions
C. Unstable interpersonal relationships
D. Grandiosity and lack of empathy

Rationale: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by instability in interpersonal

relationships, self-image, and affects, along with marked impulsivity.

9. When caring for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), which of the
following should the nurse include in the care plan?
A. Encourage the client to resist performing rituals
B. Allow the client to perform rituals without restriction
C. Avoid discussing the client’s obsessions
D. Implement strict time limits on ritual performance

Rationale: Encouraging the client to resist performing rituals and gradually reducing
ritualistic behaviors can help decrease the severity of OCD symptoms.
10. In the context of substance use disorders, what does the term "dual diagnosis" refer
to?
A. Co-occurrence of two different substance use disorders
B. The presence of both substances uses disorder and a psychiatric disorder
C. Diagnosis of substance use disorder in two different family members
D. Use of two substances simultaneously

Rationale: Dual diagnosis refers to the co-occurrence of a substance use disorder and another
psychiatric disorder in the same individual.

11. Which medication is commonly used for the treatment of bipolar disorder?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Lithium
C. Diazepam
D. Haloperidol

Rationale: Lithium is a mood stabilizer commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder
to help control mood swings.

12. Which symptom is a hallmark of delirium?

A. Gradual onset of memory loss
B. Sudden onset of confusion
C. Persistent low mood
D. Hallucinations without disorientation

Rationale: Delirium is characterized by a sudden onset of confusion, disturbance in attention,

and a fluctuating course.

13. In group therapy, what is the primary benefit of the installation of hope?
A. It reduces symptoms of anxiety
B. It fosters optimism among group members
C. It promotes adherence to treatment
D. It increases cognitive flexibility

Rationale: The installation of hope in group therapy helps members to become more
optimistic about their recovery, which can enhance motivation and participation in the
therapeutic process.

14. What is the primary purpose of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

A. To treat chronic pain
B. To manage severe, treatment-resistant depression
C. To enhance memory function
D. To reduce anxiety in phobias
Rationale: ECT is primarily used to treat severe, treatment-resistant depression, as well as
some other psychiatric conditions, when other treatments have failed.

15. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of antisocial personality disorder?

A. Excessive dependency on others
B. Disregard for the rights of others
C. Extreme mood swings
D. Fear of abandonment

Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard

for, and violation of, the rights of others.

16. In psychiatric nursing, what does the term "flight of ideas" refer to?
A. Rapidly shifting from one topic to another
B. Persistent focus on a single topic
C. Gradual onset of memory loss
D. Repeated thoughts about death

Rationale: "Flight of ideas" is a symptom where the person rapidly shifts from one topic to
another, often seen in manic episodes.

17. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for a client with anorexia
nervosa?
A. Allowing the client to exercise excessively
B. Monitoring meals and weight regularly
C. Providing unrestricted access to food
D. Avoiding any discussion about food and weight

Rationale: Regular monitoring of meals and weight helps ensure the client is receiving
adequate nutrition and helps to manage the symptoms of anorexia nervosa.

18. Which type of therapy focuses on resolving unconscious conflicts and desires?
A. Cognitive-behavioural therapy
B. Psychodynamic therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Solution-focused therapy

Rationale: Psychodynamic therapy focuses on exploring and resolving unconscious conflicts

and desires that are believed to influence behavior.

19. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing flashbacks.

Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?
A. Encourage the client to avoid discussing the trauma
B. Help the client use grounding techniques
C. Suggest the client stay alone during flashbacks
D. Provide detailed explanations of why flashbacks occur

Rationale: Grounding techniques can help the client stay connected to the present and reduce
the intensity of flashbacks.

20. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder

(GAD)?
A. Intense, episodic fear
B. Chronic, excessive worry
C. Obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors
D. Sudden panic attacks

Rationale: Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is characterized by chronic, excessive worry

about various aspects of daily life, which is difficult to control.

21. What is the primary neurotransmitter implicated in schizophrenia?

A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Norepinephrine
D) Acetylcholine

Rationale: Schizophrenia is often associated with an overactivity of dopamine pathways in

the brain.

22. Which medication is commonly used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder?

A) Fluoxetine
B) Lithium
C) Haloperidol
D) Diazepam

Rationale: Lithium is a well-known mood stabilizer that helps to manage and prevent the
recurrence of manic and depressive episodes in bipolar disorder.

23. Which symptom is not typically associated with major depressive disorder?
A) Anhedonia
B) Insomnia
C) Elevated mood
D) Feelings of worthlessness
Rationale: Major depressive disorder is characterized by persistent low mood, not elevated
mood.

24. Which class of medications is most commonly used to treat anxiety disorders?
A) Antipsychotics
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Stimulants
D) Anticonvulsants

Rationale: Benzodiazepines are effective in reducing anxiety and are commonly prescribed
for anxiety disorders due to their rapid onset of action.
25. What is the primary mechanism of action of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
(SSRIs)?
A) Block dopamine receptors
B) Inhibit the reuptake of serotonin
C) Increase norepinephrine release
D) Enhance GABA activity

Rationale: SSRIs increase serotonin levels in the brain by preventing its reabsorption into
neurons, thus enhancing mood.

26. Which antipsychotic medication is known for causing significant weight gain and
metabolic syndrome?
A) Risperidone
B) Olanzapine
C) Aripiprazole
D) Ziprasidone

Rationale: Olanzapine is associated with higher risks of weight gain due to Serotonin
Receptor Antagonism: Blocks 5-HT2C receptors, increasing appetite. Histamine Receptor
Antagonism: Blocks H1 receptors, leading to sedation and increased appetite.

27. Which antidepressant is known for its significant sedative effects and is often
prescribed for patients with insomnia?
A) Fluoxetine
B) Bupropion
C) Trazodone
D) Sertraline
Rationale: Trazodone is often used off-label for insomnia because its strong sedative
properties, resulting from its antagonism of histamine H1 and alpha-1 adrenergic receptors,
help promote sleep in addition to its antidepressant effects.

28. Which mood stabilizer requires regular monitoring of blood levels due to its narrow
therapeutic index?
A) Valproate
B) Carbamazepine
C) Lithium
D) Lamotrigine

Rationale: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index, meaning the effective dose is close to the
toxic dose, thus requiring regular blood monitoring.

29. What is a common side effect of the atypical antipsychotic clozapine?

A) Tardive dyskinesia
B) Agranulocytosis
C) Hypertension
D) Bradycardia

Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening decrease in

white blood cells, requiring regular blood count monitoring.

30. Which medication is commonly used for the treatment of attention deficit
hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
A) Lorazepam
B) Methylphenidate
C) Haloperidol
D) Fluoxetine

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a stimulant that enhances dopamine and norepinephrine

activity in the brain, improving attention and reducing impulsiveness and hyperactivity in
ADHD.

31. What is the primary use of naltrexone in psychiatric treatment?

A) Treating schizophrenia
B) Managing bipolar disorder
C) Preventing opioid and alcohol relapse
D) Treating major depressive disorder
Rationale: Naltrexone is used to prevent relapse in patients recovering from opioid or
alcohol dependence by blocking the euphoric effects.

32. Which antidepressant is also used to assist with smoking cessation?

A) Sertraline
B) Bupropion
C) Paroxetine
D) Escitalopram

Rationale: Bupropion is effective in smoking cessation due to its action on dopamine and
norepinephrine pathways, reducing nicotine cravings and withdrawal symptoms.

33. Which antipsychotic is considered to have the lowest risk for extrapyramidal side
effects (EPS)?
A) Haloperidol
B) Chlorpromazine
C) Quetiapine
D) Fluphenazine

Rationale: Quetiapine has a lower risk of causing EPS compared to other antipsychotics,
making it a preferred choice for patients at risk of these side effects.

34. Which medication is commonly prescribed for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
and has a low potential for dependence?
A) Alprazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Buspirone
D) Clonazepam

Rationale: Buspirone is effective for GAD and has a low potential for abuse and
dependence, making it a suitable long-term treatment option.

35. Which medication is often used as an adjunct to antipsychotic treatment for its
mood-stabilizing properties in schizoaffective disorder?
A) Carbamazepine
B) Lithium
C) Lamotrigine
D) Valproate

Rationale: Valproate is used with antipsychotics for schizoaffective disorder because it

effectively stabilizes mood, helping manage both mood swings and psychotic symptoms.
36. Which antipsychotic is approved for the treatment of Tourette syndrome?
A) Risperidone
B) Aripiprazole
C) Clozapine
D) Olanzapine

Rationale: Aripiprazole is FDA-approved for the treatment of Tourette syndrome and helps
manage tics associated with the condition.

37. Which medication is used for the management of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?
A) Disulfiram
B) Naltrexone
C) Lorazepam
D) Acamprosate

Rationale: Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is used to manage acute alcohol withdrawal

symptoms due to its sedative and anticonvulsant properties.

38. Which medication is primarily used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

A) Haloperidol
B) Fluoxetine
C) Lithium
D) Clozapine

Rationale: SSRIs like fluoxetine are the first-line treatment for OCD, helping to reduce
obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors.

39. What is the mechanism of action of the atypical antipsychotic risperidone?

A) Dopamine agonist
B) Serotonin and dopamine antagonist
C) Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
D) GABA receptor modulator

Rationale: Risperidone works by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, which helps
reduce psychotic symptoms.

40. Which medication is an antipsychotic and also used for the treatment of acute manic
episodes in bipolar disorder?
A) Haloperidol
B) Lithium
C) Olanzapine
D) Fluoxetine

Rationale: Olanzapine is an antipsychotic that is also effective in managing acute manic

episodes in bipolar disorder. Olanzapine blocks dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A
receptors, which helps reduce manic episodes

41. Which of the following is NOT a primary symptom of schizophrenia?

A) Hallucinations
B) Delusions
C) Disorganized speech
D) Obsessive-compulsive behaviours

Rationale: The primary symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations, delusions, and

disorganized speech. Obsessive-compulsive behaviours are not characteristic of
schizophrenia.

42. What is the term used to describe the inability to distinguish between reality and
hallucinations in schizophrenia?
A) Delusional disorder
B) Psychosis
C) Depersonalization
D) Derealization

Rationale: Psychosis refers to a state where there is a significant loss of contact with reality,
including hallucinations and delusions.

43. Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with schizophrenia?

A) Visual
B) Olfactory
C) Auditory
D) Tactile

Rationale: Auditory hallucinations are the most common type in schizophrenia, where
individuals hear voices or sounds that are not present.

44. What is the term for a belief that is strongly held despite evidence to the contrary
and is a common symptom of schizophrenia?
A) Delusion
 B) Illusion
C) Compulsion
D) Obsession

Rationale: Delusions are false beliefs that are resistant to reasoning and contrary
evidence. They are a key symptom of schizophrenia.
45. In schizophrenia, which symptom type is characterized by a lack of motivation and
emotional expression?
A) Positive symptoms
B) Negative symptoms
C) Cognitive symptoms
D) Affective symptoms

Rationale: Negative symptoms include diminished emotional expression, lack of motivation,

and reduced ability to experience pleasure.

46. Which of the following is a common cognitive symptom of schizophrenia?

A) Disorganized speech
B) Difficulty with attention and memory
C) Auditory hallucinations
D) Paranoia

Rationale: Cognitive symptoms involve difficulties with attention, memory, and executive
functioning. Disorganized speech is a symptom of disorganized behaviour.

47. What is the first-line drug used to treat schizophrenia?

A) Antidepressants
B) Antipsychotics
C) Anxiolytics
D) Mood stabilizers

Rationale: Antipsychotic medications are the primary treatment for schizophrenia, aiming to
reduce symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions.

48. What is the name of the current standard diagnostic manual used to classify
schizophrenia and other mental disorders?
A) DSM- V
B) ICD-10
C) DSM-IV
 D) ICD-9

Rationale: The DSM-5 (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth
Edition) is the current standard for diagnosing mental health conditions, including
schizophrenia.

49. Which of the following is NOT a subtype of schizophrenia according to DSM-5?

A) Paranoid
B) Disorganized
C) Catatonic
D) Undifferentiated

Rationale: The DSM-5 removed schizophrenia subtypes because they overlapped, offered
limited clinical utility, and did not capture the variability of symptoms over time. The DSM-5
now uses a dimensional approach, focusing on the severity and impact of symptoms rather
than rigid categories.

50. Which of the following is a major risk factor for developing schizophrenia?
A) High socioeconomic status
B) High levels of physical activity
C) Family history of schizophrenia
D) Positive childhood experiences

Rationale: Genetic predisposition is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia. Family

history increases the likelihood of developing the disorder.

51. In schizophrenia, what does the term "disorganized behavior" refer to?
A) Paranoid .
B) Unpredictable and inappropriate actions
C) Severe mood swings
D) Persistent depressive episodes

Rationale: Disorganized behavior includes actions that are erratic or inappropriate and lack a
coherent plan or purpose.

52. What is the primary goal of cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) in treating

schizophrenia?
A) To eliminate hallucinations entirely
B) To help patients manage symptoms and improve functioning
C) To provide medication alternatives
D) To replace antipsychotic medications
Rationale: CBT aims to help individuals manage symptoms, challenge delusional thoughts,
and improve their overall functioning, rather than eliminating symptoms entirely.

53. Which of the following is a common side effect of antipsychotic medications?

A) Hyperactivity
B) Weight gain
C) Increased libido
D) Improved memory

Rationale: Weight gain is a common side effect due to several factors, including changes in
metabolism, increased appetite, or alterations in how the body processes and stores fat.

54. Which symptom of schizophrenia involves a lack of speech or reduction in speech

output?
A) Alogia
B) Avolition
C) Anhedonia
D) Agitation

Rationale: Alogia refers to poverty of speech or diminished speech output, which is a

negative symptom of schizophrenia.

55. What is the purpose of assessing a patient's "prodromal" phase in schizophrenia?

A) To determine the effectiveness of antipsychotic medication
B) To identify early warning signs before full-blown symptoms develop
C) To evaluate the current severity of symptoms
D) To diagnose the type of schizophrenia

Rationale: The prodromal phase includes early signs and symptoms that precede the full
onset of schizophrenia, helping in early intervention and management.

56. Which neurotransmitter is most commonly associated with the pathophysiology of

schizophrenia?
A) Serotonin
B) Norepinephrine
C) Dopamine
D) GABA
Rationale: Dopamine dysregulation is strongly associated with schizophrenia, particularly in
relation to psychotic symptoms.

57. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a factor contributing to

schizophrenia?
A) Genetic predisposition
B) Prenatal exposure to infections
C) Heavy cannabis use during adolescence
D) Adequate family support and communication

Rationale: Adequate family support and communication are protective factors, not
contributing factors, for schizophrenia.

58. What is the primary focus of family therapy in managing schizophrenia?

A) Directly treating the symptoms of schizophrenia
B) Providing psychoeducation and improving family dynamics
C) Prescribing antipsychotic medication
D) Addressing substance abuse

Rationale: Family therapy focuses on educating family members about schizophrenia and
improving family dynamics to support the patient’s treatment and recovery.

59. What is avolition in the context of schizophrenia?

A) Excessive movement
B) Reduced emotional expression
C) Lack of motivation
D) False beliefs

Rationale: Avolition refers to a significant reduction in motivation to engage in purposeful

activities.

60. What is the main difference between hallucinations and delusions in schizophrenia?
A) Hallucinations are sensory experiences; delusions are false beliefs.
B) Delusions are sensory experiences; hallucinations are false beliefs.
C) Both are sensory experiences.
D) Both are false beliefs.

Rationale: Hallucinations involve perceiving things that aren't there, while delusions are
firmly held false beliefs.
 61. Psychoanalysis includes
A. Interpretation of dream and emotions
B. Free association
C. Exploring expressed thoughts
D. All of the above.

Rationale – Psychoanalysis involves techniques such as interpretation of dreams and

emotions, free association, and exploring expressed thoughts. All these methods are used to
understand unconscious conflicts and feelings.

62. In following which is not a part of nursing care after giving ECT
A. Assess vital signs
B. Allow the patient to sleep for 30-60 minutes
C. Do not give anything to drink or eat up to 6-8 hours after procedure
D. Help the patient to perform his daily activity

Rationale - After ECT, it is standard to monitor vital signs, allow the patient to rest, and
help with daily activities, but restricting food and drink for 6-8 hours is not
recommended. Patients can usually have fluids and a light meal after they are fully
awake.

63. Nursing care during giving ECT include except

A. Restrain the thighs
B. Flexion of the head
C. Observe the patient for grandmal seizures
D. Administer Diazepam

Rationale - All the options provided are part of nursing care during ECT. Restraining the
thighs, flexing the head, and observing for seizures are necessary precautions to ensure
patient safety during the procedure.
64. Before giving ECT, patient is encouraged to empty bladder because
A. It may cause renal failure
B. It will reduce effectivity of treatment
C. Patient may spoil the bed during procedure
D. It may cause urinary retention

Rationale - The primary reason for emptying the bladder is to prevent accidental
urination during the procedure, which could be embarrassing for the patient and is
unhygienic.

65. In following which is not a part of nursing care before giving ECT
A. Give plenty of fluid before giving ECT
B. Remove all make up
C. Loosen the tight clothes
D. Remove all metallic articles

Rationale - Patients should not be given plenty of fluids before ECT to avoid the risk of
aspiration. Removing makeup, loosening tight clothes, and removing metallic articles are
important preparatory steps.

66. Before giving ECT all the metallic articles are removed from patient's body because
A. They may be misplaced
B. They may be left
C. Electric current may pass on body parts
D. It may cause difficult to handle patient

Rationale - Metallic objects can conduct electricity and pose a risk during ECT.
67. ECT was invented by
A. Eugen Bleuler
B. Freud
C. Cerlete and bini
D. Friedmann and Edvin

Rationale - Ugo Cerletti and Lucio Bini were the first to invent electroconvulsive therapy
(ECT) in the year 1938.

68. The therapy which is also known as therapeutic community

A. Milieu therapy
B. Marital therapy
C. Group therapy
D. Flooding

Rationale - Milieu therapy involves creating a supportive therapeutic environment for

patients.

69. The therapy which is aimed at providing a healthy environment which helps in
early recovery of the patient
A. Milieu therapy
B. Aversion therapy
C. Flooding
D. Hypnosis

Rationale - Milieu therapy focuses on creating a structured environment that promotes

healing and recovery.

70. Putting a bitter taste on nails for nail - biting is an example of

A. Flooding
B. Aversion therapy
C. Systematic desensitization
D. Hypnosis
Rationale - Aversion therapy involves associating an unpleasant stimulus (bitter taste)
with an unwanted behavior (nail-biting) to discourage the behavior.

71. Roles of nurse in psychiatric ward include except

A. Observe the patient for presence of side effect of antipsychotic drugs if he taking
B. Follow five rights while administering drugs
C. If psychiatric symptoms subside, then sudden stopping of the drug
D. Advise the patient not to use any psychoactive substances

Rationale - Abruptly stopping psychiatric medication can lead to relapse or withdrawal

symptoms; medications should be tapered off under medical supervision.

72. One of the most important nursing roles during providing care to the patient
who is on lithium
A. Assess blood lithium level
B. Restrict salt and fluid intake
C. Maintain intake output chart
D. Give medicine before meal

Rationale - Monitoring blood lithium levels is crucial to avoid toxicity, a significant risk
with lithium therapy.

73. To reduce metallic taste of lithium, it should be given

A. In the morning
B. After sleeping
C. In powder form
D. During or after meal

Rationale - Taking lithium with food can help reduce the metallic taste and
gastrointestinal discomfort.

74. O.D (Once a day) dose of antipsychotic should be taken at bed time because
A. During sleeping it absorbs very fast
B. During sleeping it absorbs slowly
C. They have sedative effect
D. During night it is more effective

Rationale - Many antipsychotics have sedative effects, making it preferable to take them
at bedtime

75. Generally, antidepressant medication is advised to be taken -

A. at bed time
B. in the morning
C. before going to office
D. at any time

Rationale - Antidepressants are typically taken in the morning to avoid insomnia, a

common side effect.

76. Nursing care to the patient who is on antidepressants includes except

A. Advice the pt to take medicines at bed time due to its sedative effect
B. Give medicines empty stomach to increase absorption
C. Do not give medicines empty stomach because it may cause nausea and vomiting
D. Give plenty of fluids

Rationale - Antidepressants should generally be taken with food to minimize

gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea.

77. In following which is not an antiparkinsonian drug

A. THP ( Trihexyphenidyl)
B. Procyclidine hydrochloride
C. Risperidone
D. Carbidopa
Rationale - Risperidone is an antipsychotic drug, not an antiparkinsonian drug.

78. The drugs which are used to treat extra pyramidal symptoms occurred as a side
effect of antipsychotics
A. Psychotic drugs
B. Antiparkinsonian drugs
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Phenobarbitones

Rationale - Antiparkinsonian drugs are used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, which

are side effects of antipsychotics.

79. In following which is not a part of nursing care to the patient who is taking
antipsychotic drug
A. Give a piece of lemon or chewing to reduce dry mouth
B. Advise the pt to take antacids because they will increase absorption of
antipsychotic drug
C. Advise the pt not to take antacids because they will decrease absorption of
antipsychotics
D. Explain the pt not to increase or decrease or stop taking drugs without discussing the
doctor

Rationale - Antacids can interfere with the absorption of antipsychotic medications and
should be avoided close to the time of taking these drugs.

80. Tri-hexyl phenidyl is a

A. Antimanic drug
B. Analgesic drug
C. Antiparkinsonian drug
D. Benzodiazepine

Rationale - Trihexyphenidyl (often misspelled as "tri-hexyl phenidyl") is an

anticholinergic drug used to treat symptoms of Parkinson's disease and extrapyramidal
side effects.
81. Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of mania?
A) Fatigue
B) Excessive sleep
C) Elevated mood
D) Lack of appetite

Rationale: Mania is characterized by an abnormally elevated mood, which can include

euphoria, irritability, or expansiveness.

82. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with mania?

A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) Acetylcholine
D) GABA

Rationale: Elevated dopamine levels are strongly associated with the elevated mood and
energy seen in mania.

83. Which of the following is not a diagnostic criterion for mania in the DSM-5?
A) Decreased need for sleep
B) Flight of ideas
C) Psychomotor retardation
D) Increased goal-directed activity

Rationale: Psychomotor retardation is associated with depressive episodes, not mania,

which is characterized by increased activity and restlessness.
84. A manic episode must last at least how many days for a diagnosis?
A) 3 days
B) 5 days
C) 7 days
D) 10 days

Rationale: According to the DSM-5, a manic episode must last at least 7 days unless
hospitalization is required sooner.

85. Which medication is considered a first-line treatment for mania?

A) Lithium
B) Fluoxetine
C) Clonazepam
D) Buspirone

Rationale: Lithium is a mood stabilizer commonly used as a first-line treatment for acute
manic episodes and maintenance therapy.

86. What is the term for rapid shifts in mood observed in some individuals with
mania?
A) Cyclothymia
B) Mood lability
C) Euthymia
D) Dysthymia

Rationale: Mood lability refers to rapid and unpredictable changes in mood, commonly
seen in mania.

87. Which of the following is commonly seen during a manic episode?

A) Excessive spending
B) Social withdrawal
C) Anhedonia
D) Decreased libido

Rationale: Manic episodes often involve impulsivity, such as excessive spending,

gambling, or other risky behaviors.

88. Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of mania?

A) Grandiosity
B) Distractibility
C) Hyperactivity
D) Pessimism

Rationale: Pessimism is more characteristic of depression; mania typically involves an

overly optimistic or grandiose outlook.

89. Mania can occur as part of which disorder?

A) Major depressive disorder
B) Bipolar I disorder
C) Generalized anxiety disorder
D) Schizophrenia

Rationale: Bipolar I disorder includes episodes of mania, distinguishing it from other

mood disorders like major depressive disorder.

90. Which cognitive symptom is often associated with mania?

A) Memory loss
B) Racing thoughts
C) Decreased concentration
D) Hallucinations

Rationale: Racing thoughts and rapid speech are common cognitive symptoms of mania.

91. Which of the following treatments is used for acute mania?

A) Antidepressants
B) Antipsychotics
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Stimulants

Rationale: Antipsychotics, such as olanzapine or risperidone, are often used to quickly

manage acute mania symptoms.

92. Which of the following is true regarding sleep in mania?

A) Increased sleep
B) Decreased need for sleep
C) Normal sleep patterns
D) Sleep paralysis

Rationale: A decreased need for sleep without feeling tired is a common symptom of
mania.

93. In mania, speech is often:

A) Monotone
B) Slow
C) Pressured
D) Muted

Rationale: Pressured speech, characterized by rapid and forceful talking, is common in

mania.

94. Which of the following behaviors is commonly increased in mania?

A) Risk-taking
B) Planning
C) Isolation
D) Pacing
Correct Answer: A) Risk-taking
Rationale: Mania often leads to increased risk-taking behaviors due to impulsivity and
impaired judgment.
95. Which psychological intervention can help manage mania?
A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
B) Exposure therapy
C) Hypnotherapy
D) Psychoanalysis

Rationale: CBT can help patients identify and manage triggers, develop coping
strategies, and improve medication adherence.

96. Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with severe mania?
A) Auditory
B) Visual
C) Olfactory
D) Tactile

Rationale: In severe mania, auditory hallucinations are more common than other types of
hallucinations.

97. A mixed episode includes symptoms of:

A) Mania and hypomania
B) Mania and depression
C) Hypomania and euthymia
D) Depression and euthymia
Rationale: A mixed episode involves concurrent symptoms of both mania and
depression.

98. Which of the following is a common side effect of lithium?

A) Weight loss
B) Polyuria
C) Hypertension
D) Dry mouth

Rationale: Lithium can cause polyuria due to its effects on renal function.

99. Manic episodes without major depressive episodes are most characteristic of:
A) Bipolar I disorder
B) Bipolar II disorder
C) Cyclothymic disorder
D) Major depressive disorder

Rationale: Bipolar I disorder can present with manic episodes without any history of
major depressive episodes.

100. Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of antidepressants in

mania?
A) Risk of inducing a manic episode
B) Sedation
C) Weight gain
D) Tolerance

Rationale: Antidepressants can trigger or worsen manic episodes in individuals with

bipolar disorder.