*Note: It has been noted by the Candidates, the body language, expressions and behavior during

the interview are taking into consideration.

Q1: What do you know about FLYNAS?

Nas Air was founded in 2007. Operations started in February that year and firmed up an
order for the acquisition of 20 aircraft of the A320 family. The company changed its
name from Nasair to Flynas in 2013.
Flynas is a leading Saudi Arabian low-cost carrier with 38 aircraft, operating to 70
domestic and international destinations.
It has an agreement with Airbus to purchase 250 new A320neo aircraft. Flynas is proud
to receive its 35 Airbus A320neo aircraft and add them to its fleet.
Flynas has ranked in the 4-star low-cost carrier category, the highest category of the
low-cost airline in the world by APEX rating.

Chief Executive Officer & Managing Director: Bander Almohanna

Fleet:

A320: 38.
Flynas continues to grow and invest in its product with a recent agreement with Airbus
to purchase 120 new with a mix of A320neo and A321neoXLR aircraft. We have now
received a total of 23 A320neo aircraft of this particular model and we look forward to
receiving more over the coming years, allowing us to have the most modern fleet in
world aviation. Our new aircraft provide passengers with greater comfort at affordable
prices while still being environmentally friendly.

Q1: Examples of CRM SKILLS?

Leadership / Communication / Acknowledge / Fatigue Management / Adaptation

Q2: Memory Items. How many?

1.- GPWS/EGPWS CAUTIONS "PULL UP TOGA"

2.- GPWS/EGPWS WARNINGS "PULL UP TOGA"
3.- STALL RECOVERY "STALL, I HAVE CONTROL"
4.- STALL WARNING AT LIFT OFF "STALL, TOGA 15°"
5.- WINDSHEAR AHEAD
6.- REACTIVE WINDSHEAR "WINDSHEAR TOGA"
7.- EMERG DESCENT "EMERGENCY DESCENT"
8.- TCAS WARNINGS "TCAS, I have control or TCAS Blue"
9.- UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION "UNRELIABLE SPEED"
10.- LOSS OF BRAKING "LOSS OF BRAKING"

Q3: Why at the Take Off, the Autopilot may be connected only after reaching 100 ft?

The flight crew can engage AP1 or AP2 by pressing the corresponding pushbutton on
the FCU if the aircraft has been airborne for at least 5 s. It is easier for the pilot to read
100 ft in the altimeter rather than start timing at Lift Off.
Q4: The Flight Plan (FPL) has a wrong ‘Trip Fuel’ value, how would you realize of
such error?

You could calculate the Trip Fuel using the ‘Quick Determination of Flight Planning’
table located in ‘Performance’ Chapter => FPL Flight Planning => FPL-FLP Flight
Preparation => FPL-FLP-QFP Quick Determination of Flight Planning.

Air Distance + (FL x LDG REF difference) + Perf Factor in % = TRIP FUEL

Q5: You realize you have Unreliable Speed at 350 ft after Take Off. Tell us what would
you do?

1.- Call Out ‘Unreliable Speed’

2.- ‘AP’, ‘A/THR’ & ‘FD’………………………………………………...……..OFF
3.- Below THRUST RED ALT ............................................................... 15° / TOGA
Above THRUST RED ALT and Below FL 100…................................. 10° / CLB
Above THRUST RED ALT and Above FL 100....................................... 5° / CLB
4.- FLAPS (if CONF 0(1)(2)(3))............................... MAINTAIN CURRENT CONF
FLAPS (if CONF FULL)............................. SELECT CONF 3 AND MAINTAIN
5.- SPEEDBRAKES............................................................... CHECK RETRACTED
L/G...................................................................................................................... UP
6.- When at, or above MSA or Circuit Altitude: Level off for troubleshooting.

Q6: From where does the FMGC and the FAC calculate the ‘Gross Weight’ and what
will trigger the “Check Weight’ message (difference between FMCG and FAC
calculated Gross Weights)?

The FMGC computes the Gross Weight according to the entered ZFW and the FOB.
The FAC also computes its own GW and CG, based on aerodynamic data as follows:
‐ First, the FAC computes VS1G (stall speed). From VS1G it computes the FAC
gross weight which is also sent to the ELAC:
• When the aircraft is below 14 500 ft and 250 kt, it computes this from current
angle of attack, speed/Mach, altitude, thrust, and CG.
• When the aircraft is above 14 500 ft or 250 kt, it computes this out of the GW,
which it has memorized and updated with a fuel consumption model set in the FAC.

The “CHECK WEIGHT” message appears on the MCDU when the Gross Weight (GW)
computed by the FMGC and the GW computed by the FAC disagree by more than 7
tons.

Q7: Define VLS?

VLS: Lowest Selectable Speed.

Represented by the top of an amber strip along the airspeed scale on the PFD.
Computed by the FAC based on FMS weight data, and on aerodynamic data as a
backup, and corresponds to 1.13 VS during take-off or following a touch and go.
Becomes 1.23 VS, after retraction of one step of flaps.
Becomes 1.28 VS, when in clean configuration.
Note: If in CONF 0 VLS were 1.23 VS (instead of 1.28 VS), the alpha protection strip
would hit the VLS strip on the PFD.
Above 20 000 ft, VLS is corrected for Mach effect to maintain a buffet margin of 0.2 g.
In addition, VLS increases when the speed-brakes are extended.

Q8: What is Ground Speed Mini function?

The objective of the Ground Speed Mini function is to take advantage of the aircraft
inertia, when the wind varies during the approach. This objective is achieved by
providing the adequate indicated speed target (i.e. the managed speed target represented
by the magenta triangle). When the aircraft flies this indicated air speed target, the
energy of the aircraft is maintained above a minimum level ensuring aerodynamic
margins versus stall.

The GS mini function is active when:

‐ The speed is managed and,
‐ The FMS flight phase is the approach phase.

During the approach, the FG continuously computes the managed speed target in order
to take into account the gusts or wind changes.

The computation of the managed speed target uses the tower headwind component, the
current headwind component, and the VAPP.

TOWER HEADWIND COMPONENT

The tower wind is the average wind provided by the ATIS or the tower. The flight crew
enters the tower wind in the MAG WIND field on the PERF APPR page.
The tower headwind component is the projection of the MAG WIND on the runway
axis. This computation is based on the runway inserted in the FMS active F-PLN.

CURRENT HEADWIND COMPONENT

The projection of the current wind measured by the ADIRS on the aircraft longitudinal
axis is the current headwind component (instantaneous headwind).

VAPP COMPUTATION

Above 400 ft:

The FG continuously computes the managed speed target that is equal to VAPP plus an
additional increment. This increment takes into account the headwind variation during
the final approach. Managed speed target = VAPP + (current headwind component -
tower headwind component). The managed speed target has the following limits:
‐ VAPP, as the minimum value
‐ VFE next in CONF 0, 1, 2 or 3, VFE -5 kt in CONF FULL, as the maximum value.

Below 400 ft:

The FMS computes the VAPP, and displays it on the PERF APPR page. The VAPP
computation takes into account the tower headwind component. VAPP is computed as
follows:
‐ VAPP = VLS+1/3 of the TWR HEADWIND COMPONENT (+15 kt as the maximum
value and 0 kt as the minimum value (no wind or tailwind)), or
‐ VAPP = VLS +5 kt, whichever is the highest.

Q9: Mention the GOLDEN RULES of Airbus:

1 - FLY, NAVIGATE, COMMUNICATE IN THIS ORDER USING APPROPRIATE

TASK SHARING
2 - USE THE APPROPRIATE LEVEL OF AUTOMATION AT ALL TIMES
3 - UNDERSTAND FMA ALL TIMES
4 - TAKE ACTIONS IF THINGS DO NOT GO AS EXPECTED

Q10: When are the Spoilers inhibited?

The system (SECs) automatically retracts the spoilers to their zero position, if it detects
a fault or loses electrical control. If the system loses hydraulic pressure, the spoiler
retains the deflection it had at the time of the loss.
When a spoiler surface on one wing fails, the symmetric one on the other wing is
inhibited.
If an inhibition occurs when the spoilers are extended, they automatically retract and
remain retracted until the inhibition condition disappears and the pilots reset the lever.

Spoilers extension is inhibited, if:

‐ SEC1 and SEC3 both have faults, or
‐ An elevator (L or R) has a fault, or
‐ Alpha Floor activation, or
‐ Angle-of-attack protection is active, or
‐ Flaps are in configuration 3 or FULL, or
‐ Thrust levers above MCT position.

Q11: Describe GEN 1 LINE:

With the GEN 1 LINE pb-sw (on the EMER ELEC PWR panel) in the OFF position,
the GEN 1 line contactor is open and GEN 2 supplies the AC BUS 1 channel. GEN 1
remains running and supplies one fuel pump in each wing tank.

GEN 1 LINE pb-sw:

- OFF: GEN 1 line contactor opens.
The AC BUS 1 channel is supplied from GEN 2 through bus tie contactors. This
is used for smoked drill.
- SMOKE light: When smoke is detected for more than 5 s in the air extraction
duct of the avionics ventilation system, the SMOKE light of the GEN 1 LINE
pb-sw comes ON.

Q12: You experience and Engine Fail at 350 ft. What would be your actions?

ENGINE FAILURE DURING INITIAL CLIMB

This procedure is similar to the “Engine Failure after V1” procedure. If the failure
occurs above V2 however, maintain SRS commanded attitude. In any case, the
minimum speed must be V2. When an Engine Failure is detected, the FMGS produces
predictions based on the engine-out configuration and any pre-selected speeds entered
in the MCDU are deleted.
Q13: What is ‘Soft Altitude Mode (Cruise)’?

The soft altitude mode engages when the aircraft reaches the FCU altitude set as the
cruise flight level (entered in the F-PLN or on PROG page). The FMGS engages the
“soft altitude” (SOFT ALT) mode two (2) minutes after the cruise flight level is
captured and Mach stabilized.
The soft altitude mode corrects minor deviations from the Mach target by allowing a
±50 ft variation from the CRZ FL. This feature improves fuel efficiency, passenger
comfort and minimizes the changes in thrust.
(SOFT ALT) mode allows the aircraft to deviate ± 50 ft from the target altitude to
minimize the thrust variation and reduce the fuel consumption.
If the FMA does not display ALT CRZ at the assigned flight level, soft altitude mode
will not engage.

Q14: When is TCAS system inhibited?

The TCAS mode is not available, when:

‐ The TCAS system is failed (NAV TCAS FAULT)
‐ The TCAS mode is failed (AUTO FLT TCAS MODE FAULT)
‐ The TCAS system is in TA mode
‐ FDs are inoperative.

The TCAS mode arming and engagement are inhibited when:

‐ The TA mode is manually selected (on the TCAS control panel)
‐ The aircraft is below 900 ft radio height
‐ The EGPWS, WINDSHEAR or STALL warning is triggered.

Q15: How many Flight Controls Computers are? What do their acronyms mean?
What are their functions?

Seven flight control computers process pilot and autopilot inputs according to normal,
alternate, or direct flight control laws. Computers interpret pilot input and move the
flight control surfaces, as necessary, to follow their orders. The computers will prevent
excessive manoeuvres and exceedance of the safe envelope in pitch and roll axis.
The flight controls are electrically or mechanically (Rudder only) controlled and all
surfaces are hydraulically actuated.

The computers are:

2 ELACs (Elevator Aileron Computer). For: Normal Elevator, Aileron control and
Stabilizer control.
3 SECs (Spoilers Elevator Computer). For: Spoilers control, Standby Elevator and
Stabilizer control.
2 FACs (Flight Augmentation Computer) For: Electrical Rudder control.

*Note: In addition, 2 FCDC (Flight Control Data Concentrators) acquire data from the
ELACs and SECs and send it to the electronic instrument system (EIS) and the
centralized fault display system (CFDS).

Q16: What does LAND ASAP in red and amber mean?

If Red LAND ASAP is part of the procedure, land as soon as possible at the nearest
airport at which a safe landing can be made. It is applicable to a time-critical situation.
If amber LAND ASAP is part of the procedure, consider landing at the nearest suitable
airport. The suitability criteria should be defined in accordance with the Operator´s
policy.

Also, the colour coding means:

For Red, the operating procedure, technic, etc… may result in personal injury or loss of
life if not followed.
For Amber, the operating procedure, technic, etc… may result in damage to the
equipment if not followed.

Q17: What type (levels) of ECAM messages are there?

- Level 1: It is an Amber Caution that requires crew monitoring: Failures leading

to a loss of redundancy or system degradation (e.g.: FCDC fault)
There is no aural warning and represents a caution message (amber) on E/WD
generally without procedure.
- Level 2: It is an Amber Caution. The flight crew should be aware of the
configuration or failure, but does not need to take any immediate action.
However, time and situation permitting, these cautions should be considered
without delay to prevent any further degradation of the affected system:
System failure without any direct consequence on the flight safety (e.g.: HYD G
SYS LO PR)
There is an aural Single Chime with MASTER CAUTION light amber steady, a
caution message (amber) on E/WD and there is an automatic call of the relevant
system page on the S/D.
- Level 3: Red warning. The configuration, or failure requires immediate action as
the aircraft is in dangerous configuration, or with limited flight conditions (e.g.:
stall, over-speed). The system failure is altering flight safety (e.g.: Engine fire,
excess Cabin altitude). Aural Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC), specific
sound or synthetic voice. MASTER WARN light red flashing or specific red
light.
A Warning message (red) appears on E/WD and an automatic call of the
relevant system page is displayed on the S/D.

Q18: Which are the 5 different types of aural alerts from the EGPWS?

Mode 1 (Excessive rate of descent):

CAUTION “SINK RATE, SINK RATE”
WARNING “PULL UP”
Mode 2 (Excessive terrain closure rate):
CAUTION "TERRAIN, TERRAIN"
WARNING "PULL UP… TERRAIN"
Mode 3 (Altitude loss after take-off or go-around):
CAUTION "DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK"
Mode 4 (Terrain clearance not sufficient, if not in landing configuration):
CAUTION "TOO LOW TERRAIN… TOO LOW GEAR"
“TOO LOW TERRAIN… TOO LOW FLAPS"
 "TOO LOW TERRAIN"
Mode 5 (Excessive descent below the glide slope):
CAUTION "GLIDESLOPE”

Q19: Define ‘Stabilization Criteria’:

Fly the Aircraft to be at 1000 ft (Instrumental or Visual Approach) or at 500 ft

(Circling) with the next parameters:
- On profile: within 1 dot (ILS), 100ft (NPA), within 1 light high or low on the
VASI/PAPI (visual).
- Established on the correct lateral and vertical flight path.
- Landing Configuration.
- IAS = VAPP TARGET (managed or selected) -5/+10kts.
- V/S is not higher, than 1000 FPM.
- Stabilized approach power if auto-thrust is not engaged.
- Spoilers are armed.
- Checklists are Completed.

Callouts:
- SPEED: If speed > APP Speed (-5 +10)
- LOCALIZER or GLIDESLOPE: (LOC) Half Dot, (G/S) Half Dot.
- SINK RATE: V/S > 1000ft/min
- BANK: Bank > 7 degrees
- PITCH: +10/-2.5
- V/DEV RNAV: Vertical 1/2 dot.
- L/DEV RNAV Lateral 0.15 NM
- COURSE: NDB 5 degrees, VOR 2.5 degrees, Track/FPA: 1/2 dot.
- PILOT MONITORING CALLOUT: “Correcting”

Q20: What is a RNAV Approach?

Area Navigation (RNAV) allows to navigate “point-to-point”, the aircraft position

being determined by the on-board navigation system using the information from several
navigation aids such as VOR/DME or DME/DME or GNSS (GPS). It is not needed to
navigate directly to and from the navigation aids. For example, this allows to create
approach constituted by a succession of non-aligned straight segments. But in all cases,
the path is geographically defined.
The Performance Based Navigation (PBN) concept specifies RNAV system
performance requirements in terms of accuracy, integrity, availability, continuity and
functionality needed for the proposed operations in the context of a particular Airspace
Concept, when supported by the appropriate navigation infrastructure.

RNP Approach
The term “RNAV IAP” covers different kinds of approaches:
- RNP APCH: requires a FMS equipment with GPS position update and RAIM integrity
or equivalent.
- RNP APCH AR: RNP-0.3 is the current navigation accuracy standard in approach.
RNP-0.3 means that the aircraft position error must be less than 0.3NM, with a
probability of 95%. Normally, an FMS with GPS updating is required to demonstrate
RNP-0.3, but the same RNP value can be achieved by an FMS with DME/DME
updating, provided the density of DME ground facilities is sufficient to support it.
If DME coverage is demonstrated to be satisfactory, Authorities may accept RNP-0.3
RNAV approaches without GPS. Specific DME may need to be operative (NOTAM)

The AFM/FM documents will reflect the certification status of the particular aircraft
type.
RNP APCH does not include specific requirements for communications or ATS
surveillance.
The minimum navigation equipment that is required to enter RNP APCH airspace is one
RNAV system that uses GNSS.
The minimum equipment configuration requested to initiate the procedure is provided in
the Special Operations section of the FCOM.

Minimum Required equipment for RNP (RNAV1 /RNAV2) approaches

- 1 FMGS
- 1 MCDU
- 1 GPS or 1 VOR/DME or 2 DME
- 1 FD (in NAV mode)
- 2 IRS
- 2 NDs

Operating procedures

1) Pre-flight planning

i) Appropriate flight plan suffixes for RNP APCH procedure must be filed and the on-
board navigation data must be current and include appropriate procedures.

ii) In addition to the normal pre-flight planning checks, the following must be included:
- The pilot must ensure that approaches which may be used for the intended flight
(including alternate aerodromes) are selected from a valid navigation database (current
AIRAC cycle), have been verified by the appropriate process (navigation database
integrity process) and are not prohibited by a company instruction or NOTAM;
- During the pre-flight phase, the pilot should ensure sufficient means are available to
navigate and land at the destination or at an alternate aerodrome in the case of loss of
RNP APCH airborne capability;
- Pilots must take account of any NOTAMs or briefing material that could adversely
affect the aircraft system operation, or the availability or suitability of the procedures at
the airport of landing, or any alternate airport; and
- For missed approach procedures based on conventional means (VOR, NDB), pilots
must ensure that the appropriate airborne equipment required for this procedure is
installed in the aircraft and is operational and that the associated ground-based
NAVAIDs are operational.
- RAIM availability prediction should take into account the latest GPS constellation,
NOTAMs and avionics model.
- In the event of a predicted, continuous loss of appropriate level of fault detection of
more than five minutes for any part of the RNP APCH operation, the flight planning
should be revised (e.g. delaying the departure or planning a different departure
procedure).
- The availability of the NAVAID infrastructure, required for the intended routes,
including any non-RNAV contingencies, must be confirmed for the period of intended
operations using all available information.

iii) GNSS availability

- RAIM levels required for RNP APCH down to LNAV or LNAV/VNAV minima can
be verified either through NOTAMs (where available) or through prediction services.
- RAIM availability prediction should take into account the latest GPS constellation
NOTAMs and avionics model (when available).
- In the event of a predicted, continuous loss of appropriate level of fault detection of
more than five minutes for any part of the RNP APCH operation, the flight planning
should be revised (e.g. delaying the departure or planning a different departure
procedure).

2) General procedures
i) If an aircraft not meeting RNP APCH criteria receives a clearance from ATC to
conduct an RNP APCH procedure, the pilot must advise ATC that he/she is unable to
accept the clearance and must request alternate instructions.

ii) If the missed approach procedure is based on conventional means (e.g. NDB, VOR,
DME), related navigation equipment must be installed and be serviceable.

iii) Pilots are encouraged to use flight director and/or autopilot in lateral navigation
mode, if available.

3) Prior to commencing the procedure

i) In addition to the normal procedure prior to commencing the approach (before the
IAF and in compatibility with crew workload), the pilot must verify the correct
procedure was loaded by comparison with the approach charts. This check must
include:
- the waypoint sequence; and
- reasonableness of the tracks and distances of the approach legs, and the accuracy of
the inbound course and length of the FAS.

ii) The pilot must also check using the published charts, the map display or CDU, which
waypoints are fly-by and which are fly-over.

iii) For multi-sensor systems, the pilot must verify, during the approach, that the GNSS
sensor is used for position computation.

iv) For an RNP system with ABAS requiring barometric corrected altitude, the current
airport barometric altimeter setting should be input at the appropriate time and location,
consistent with the performance of the flight operation.

v) When the operation is predicated on the availability of ABAS, the pilot should
perform a new RAIM availability check if ETA is more than 15 minutes different from
the ETA used during the pre-flight planning. This check is also processed automatically
2 NM before the FAF.

vi) ATC tactical interventions in the terminal area may include radar headings, “direct
to” clearances which bypass the initial legs of an approach, interception of an initial or
intermediate segment of an approach, or the insertion of waypoints loaded from the
database. In complying with ATC instructions, the pilot should be aware of the
implications for the RNP system:
- the manual entry of coordinates into the RNP system by the pilot for operation within
the terminal area is not permitted; and
- “direct to” clearances may be accepted to the IF provided that the resulting track
change at the IF does not exceed 45 degrees.

vii) The lateral definition of the flight path between the FAF and the MAPt must not be
revised by the pilot under any circumstances.

4) During the procedure

i) The aircraft must be established on the final approach course no later than the FAF
before starting the descent (to ensure terrain and obstacle clearance).

ii) The crew must check the approach mode annunciator (or equivalent) is properly
indicating approach mode integrity within 2 NM before the FAF.

iii) The appropriate displays must be selected so that the following information can be
monitored:
- the RNAV-computed desired path (DTK); and
- the aircraft position relative to the path (cross-track deviation) for FTE
monitoring.

iv) The procedure must be discontinued:

- if the navigation display is flagged invalid; or
- in case of LOI alerting function; or
- if integrity alerting function is annunciated not available before passing the FAF;
or
- if FTE is excessive.

v) The missed approach must be flown in accordance with the published procedure. Use
of the RNP system during the missed approach is acceptable, provided:
- the RNP system is operational (e.g. no loss of function, no NSE alert, no failure
indication); and
- the whole procedure (including the missed approach) is loaded from the
navigation database.

vi) During the RNP APCH procedure, pilots must use a lateral deviation indicator, flight
director and/or autopilot in lateral navigation mode. Pilots of aircraft with a lateral
deviation indicator (e.g. CDI) must ensure that lateral deviation indicator scaling (full-
scale deflection) is suitable for the navigation accuracy associated with the various
segments of the procedure (i.e. ±1.0 NM for the initial and intermediate segments, ±0.3
NM for the FAS down to LNAV or LNAV/VNAV minima, and ±1.0 NM for the
missed approach segment). All pilots are expected to maintain procedure center lines, as
depicted by on-board lateral deviation indicators and/or flight guidance during the
whole approach procedure, unless authorized to deviate by ATC or under emergency
conditions.
For normal operations, cross-track error/deviation (the difference between the RNP
system computed path and the aircraft position relative to the path) should be limited to
±1⁄2 the navigation accuracy associated with the procedure (i.e. 0.5 NM for the initial
and intermediate segments, 0.15 NM for the FAS, and 0.5 NM for the missed approach
segment). Brief deviations from this standard (e.g. overshoots or undershoots) during
and immediately after turns, up to a maximum of one-times the navigation accuracy (i.e.
1.0 NM for the initial and intermediate segments), are allowable.

vii) When Barometric VNAV is used for vertical path guidance during the FAS,
deviations above and below the Barometric VNAV path must not exceed +/-75 ft,
respectively.

viii) Pilots must execute a missed approach if the lateral deviations or vertical
deviations, if provided, exceed the criteria above, unless the pilot has in sight the visual
references required to continue the approach.

5) Normal procedures

vi) If an aircraft not meeting RNP APCH criteria receives a clearance from ATC to
conduct an RNP APCH procedure, the pilot must advise ATC that he/she is unable to
accept the clearance and must request alternate instructions.

vii) The pilot must comply with any instructions or procedures identified by the
manufacturer as necessary to comply with the performance requirements in this
navigation specification.

viii) If the missed approach procedure is based on conventional means (e.g. NDB, VOR,
DME), related navigation equipment must be installed and be serviceable.

ix) Pilots are encouraged to use flight director and/or autopilot in lateral navigation
mode, if available.

6) Contingency procedures

i) The pilot must notify ATC of any loss of the RNP APCH capability, together with the
proposed course of action. If unable to comply with the requirements of an RNP APCH
procedure, pilots must advise ATS as soon as possible. The loss of RNP APCH
capability includes any failure or event causing the aircraft to no longer satisfy the RNP
APCH requirements of the procedure.

ii) In the event of communications failure, the pilot must continue with the RNP APCH
in accordance with the published lost communications procedure.

f) Navigation Database

Navigation database must be current and appropriate for the region of intended
operation.
Q21: What information is provided by the ADRs?

ADIRUS are divided in two parts, either of which can work separately in case of failure
in the other:
• The ADR part (Air Data Reference) which supplies barometric altitude, airspeed,
Mach, angle of attack, temperature and overspeed warnings.
• The IR part (Inertial Reference) which supplies attitude, flight path vector, track,
heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed and aircraft position.

Q22: What is MEA, MORA and MOCA?

MEA (MINIMUM EN-ROUTE IFR ALTITUDE):

The lowest published altitude between radio fixes that meets obstacle clearance
requirements between those fixes and in many countries assures acceptable navigational
signal coverage. The MEA applies to the entire width of the airway, segment, or route
between the radio fixes defining the airway, segment or route.

MORA (MINIMUM OFF-ROUTE ALTITUDE):

Route MORA values are computed on the basis of an area extending 10 NM to either
side of route centreline and including a 10 NM radius beyond the radio fix/reporting
point or mileage break defining the route segment. MORA values clear all terrain and
man-made obstacles by 1 000 feet in areas where the highest terrain elevation or
obstacles are up to 5 000 ft. A clearance of 2 000 feet is provided above all terrain or
obstacles that are 5 001 feet and above.

MOCA (MINIMUM OBSTACLE CLEARANCE ALTITUDE):

The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway
routes or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire
route segment. MOCA is the sum of:
• the maximum terrain or obstacle elevation, whichever is higher; plus
1000 ft for elevation up to and including 6 000 ft; or
• 2000 ft for elevation exceeding 6 000 ft rounded up to the next 100 ft.
The lowest MOCA to be indicated is 2 000 ft.

Q23: ‘DITCHING’ button functions…

Q24: What do you know about ‘RAM AIR’?

An emergency ram air inlet ventilates the cockpit and cabin to remove smoke, or if both
packs fail. The emergency ram air inlet valve is controlled by the RAM AIR pushbutton
on the AIR COND panel. This pushbutton opens the ram air valve, provided that
ditching is not selected.
When the RAM AIR pushbutton is ON: The outflow valve opens about 50 %, provided
that it is under automatic control and ΔP is less than 1 PSI. The outflow valve does not
automatically open if it is under manual control, even if ΔP is less than 1 PSI. If ΔP is
greater than 1 PSI, the check valve located downstream the ram air door will not open,
even if the ram air door has been selected open. No airflow will then be supplied.

Q25: When is the PTU inhibited?

The power transfer unit is inhibited when the differential pressure between the green
and the yellow systems is less than 500 PSI, the yellow pump push-button is selected
OFF and the cargo door is being operated (after cargo door operation it is inhibited for
40 seconds) and during the first engine start.

Q26: What do you know about INFLIGHT FUEL MANAGEMENT?

The fuel on board must be periodically checked in flight to determine if the remaining
fuel is not less than the minimum fuel required to continue the intended flight. This will
help the PIC to detect possible fuel consumption higher than anticipated or a fuel leak.

The PIC must ensure that fuel checks are carried out at regular intervals throughout the
flight. At each check, the remaining fuel must be recorded and evaluated so as to

1) Compare actual consumption with planned consumption;

2) Check that the fuel remaining will be sufficient to complete the flight;
3) Determine the expected fuel remaining on arrival at the destination.

Subtract "Fuel used" from the block fuel (recorded before engine start) and compare this
figure with the "Remaining fuel on board". If there is no major discrepancy, the figures
read on the aircraft should be used.

This type of monitoring would detect fuel leaks and provide a more reliable basis of
calculation in case of either Fuel Quantity Indicator (FQI) or Fuel Used (FU) failure
during flight.

However, without any failure or fuel leak, some discrepancies, which may be
considered large (more than 1000 kg on some aircraft), can be evidenced. This may be
due to:

i) APU consumption (up to 150 kg/h) which is not recorded by FU

ii) FQI errors on block fuel and on FOB
iii) FU indication tolerance

In case of in-flight re-planning, the PIC may not have to select a destination alternate if
both:

1) The remaining flying time to destination does not exceed 6 hours, and
2) Two separate runways are available and usable at the destination aerodrome and the
appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination aerodrome, or any
combination thereof, indicate that for the period from one hour before until one hour
after the expected time of arrival at the destination aerodrome, the ceiling will be at least
2000 ft or circling height + 500 ft, whichever is greater, and the visibility will be at least
5 km.

Q27: What is the ‘Engine Fail in Cruise procedure?

As soon as the engine failure is recognized, the PF simultaneously:

‐ Sets all thrust levers to MCT
‐ Disconnects A/THR.
In cruise, the PF:
‐ Sets a HDG as appropriate and pulls
‐ Determines the engine out recovery altitude.
When ready for descent, the PF:
‐ Sets the SPEED and pulls
‐ Sets the engine out recovery altitude and pulls to engage for OPEN DES.

When appropriate, the PF requires the ECAM/OEB actions.

At high flight levels, close to the weight limits, the aircraft speed quickly reduces. Thus,
the flight crew should not delay to descent. The crew must not decelerate below green
dot. The A/THR is disconnected to avoid any engine thrust reduction when selecting
speed according to strategy or when pulling for OPEN DES to initiate the descent. With
the A/THR disconnected, the target speed is controlled by the elevator when in OPEN
DES. Carrying out the ECAM actions should not be hurried, as it is important to
complete the drill.
Q28: When is the ‘Low Energy Speed’ alert inhibited?

“SPEED SPEED SPEED”

The Low-Energy aural alert is inhibited when:

‐ TOGA is selected, or
‐ Below 100 ft RA, or
‐ Above 2 000 ft RA, or
‐ Alpha-floor, or the ground proximity warning system alert is triggered, or
‐ In alternate or direct law, or
‐ If both radio altimeters fail.

Q29: What is the Take-Off Segment?

 The first segment (Take-Off segment) starts when the aircraft reaches the screen
height, that is 35 ft (15ft on Wet & Contaminated Runways).
 The aircraft keeps climbing at the take-off safety speed, that is V2 speed, until
the gear is retracted.
 The objective of this segment is to expedite the climb and to make sure there is
reduction in drag.
 Since retracting the flaps very close to the ground is dangerous, operators choose
the option of retracting the gear.
 The first segment ends as soon as the landing gear is retracted.

Q30: Tell me the EGT Limitations (IAE V2500 A5):

Q31: ADIRS PANEL Questions:

1. What info does the IR Supply?

Heading, Track, Attitude, Angular rate, Flight path vector, Acceleration, Ground Speed,
Aircraft Position.

2. What info does the ADR supplies?

Altitude, Airspeed, Mach, Overspeed warning, Angle of Attack, Temperature.
 3. What would be missing on the Captain’s PFD if IR1 fails or is turned
OFF?
Attitude and Navigation Information.

4. What action would recover the attitude and navigation information?

Selecting CAPT 3 on EIS switching panel ATT HDG selector.

5. When do we need to select ATT and what must be done after selecting it?
We can select ATT if the IR system loses its ability to navigate (indicated by
FLASHING FAULT light). After selecting ATT, keep Speed-Heading and FL constant
for 30sec, the HDG must be entered through the MCDU and has to be reset about every
10 minutes.

6. With the loss of ADR 1, what would be lost on the CPT’s PFD?
Airspeed and Altitude

7. What would restore the lost ALTITUDE and AIRSPEED information?

Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel AIR DATA selector.

8. IRS ON BAT light, what does it mean?

The ON BAT light comes on in amber when the a/c battery supplies at least one IRS,
also come on for few seconds at the beginning of a complete IRS alignment.

9. What does a STEADY amber IR FAULT light indicate?

The respective IR is lost.

10. What does a STEADY ALIGN light indicate?

IR is in the alignment process.

11. What does a FLASHING ALIGN light indicate?

IR alignment faulty due to:
● No coordinates inserted on MCDU;
● Moving of aircraft during the alignment;
● Coordinates differ 1° or more from the last coordinates recorded (last arrival stop).

12. What does a FLASHING amber IR FAULT light indicate?

The ATT and HDG information may be recovered in ATT Mode (check QRH
procedure), the IR has lost the navigation portion.

13. What does the amber ADR FAULT light indicate?

A fault is detected in the AIR DATA reference part.

14. What happen if you lose all ADRs?

▪︎AP, A/THR are lost

▪︎Flight Controls revert to ALT law
NAV ADR 1+2+3 FAULT warning is triggered and ECAM procedure may require
three ADRs to be switched OFF to replace the PFD’s normal speed scale and altitude
indication by the BUSS (Back- Up Speed Scale) if installed, and GPS altitude
information.

15. How do you fast align an IR?

Turn the NAV selectors to OFF and back to NAV in less than five seconds.

Q32: HYDRAULIC PANEL Questions:

1. Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all hydraulic system?

NO, you must have at least one.

2. What occurs when you press the RAT MAN ON pb?

The RAT extends automatically providing pressure to the BLUE HYD system.

3. Does the PTU transfer Hydraulic fluid?

NO.

4. How many Hydraulic pumps are in the GREEN system?

 1 ENG;
 1 PTU.

5. How many Hydraulic pumps are in the BLUE system?

 1 Electric;
 1 RAT.

6. How many hydraulic are in the YELLOW system?

 1 ENG;
 1 Electric;
 1 PTU;
 1 Hand pump.

7. When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operates when set to AUTO?
If AC power is available, it operates:
 In Flight;
 On Ground if one ENG is running, or
 If the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb on the maintenance panel was pushed.

8. What is the normal system hydraulic pressure?

3,000 PSI ± 200.

9. Does the RAT automatically deploy with the loss of BLUE pressure?
NO, it must be deployed manually by the RAT MAN ON pb.

10. If the ACCU PRESS indicator is low, what should you do?
Obtain ground clearance, then turn ON the YELLOW ELEC PUMP to recharge the
brake accumulator.

11. When does the PTU operate with the pb in AUTO?

 Differential pressure between GREEN and YELLOW is more than 500 PSI;
 During the Second ENG start for an Automatic Test.
 12. When is the PTU inhibited?
On Ground:
 PTU pb is OFF;
 First ENG Start;
 One ENG is running and PARK BRAKE is ON or N/W STRG in towing position; 
Cargo Door operation.

13. If the ECAM actions lead you to turn OFF the PTU for a reservoir
overheat, will the FAULT light go out?
NO, not until the overheat is present.

14. If the FAULT light in the PTU is ON, are there any other indications on
the HYD panel?
YES, also a FAULT light illuminated in the respective ENG PUMP pb.

15. When is the BLUE PUMP inhibited?

On Ground with BOTH ENGs shutdown.

16. Name several items that run from ONLY the GREEN system?
 Landing Gear;
 Norm Brakes;
 REV ENG #1.

17. Name several items that run from only the YELLOW system?
 Alternate Brake;
 Brake Accumulator;
 Cargo doors;
 REV ENG #2;
 Yaw Damp #2.

18. What does an Amber FAULT light in the PTU pb indicate?

(POLL)
 Overheat in the reservoir;
 Low air pressure in the reservoir;
 Low Fluid level in the reservoir.

19. What does an Amber FAULT light in the ENG PUMP pb indicate?
(POLL)
 Pump pressure low;
 Overheats in the reservoir;
 Low air pressure in the reservoir;
 Low level in the reservoir.

20. What does a FAULT light in the BLUE or YELLOW ELEC PUMP pb
indicate? (POLL)
 Pump pressure low;
 Overheats in the reservoir;
 Low air pressure in the reservoir;  Low level in the reservoir;
 Overheats in the pump.

21. With the switch set to OFF, when does the YELLOW electric pump
comes on automatically? And what does it power?
When the Cargo door lever is set to OPEN or CLOSE, this inhibit the operation of all
system component except Alternate Braking and REV ENG #2.
 22. What is the function of the Hydraulic priority valves?
Hydraulic power to Flaps, Slats, Landing Gear, N/W STRG and EMERG GEN is cut off
if pressure drops below a predetermined value.

23. What is the purpose of the Hand pump?

To provide YELLOW hydraulic pressure for Cargo door operation.

Q33: How many controllers are in the pressurization system?

Two. Only one operates at a time. They Swap roles 70s after each LDG or if the
operating system fails.

Q34: How do you manually switch between controllers (CPCs)?

Switching the MODE SEL pb to MAN, for at least 10s, the returning it to AUTO.

Q35: What is the Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)?

‐ Wingtip brakes (WTBs), activated in case of asymmetry, mechanism overspeed,

symmetrical runaway, or un-commanded movement of the surfaces. They cannot be
released in flight. They use blue and green hydraulic power for the slats and for the right
wing flaps, and blue and yellow hydraulic power for the left wing flaps.

Note: If the flap wingtip brakes are on, the pilot can still operate the slats, and if the slat
wingtip brakes are on, he can still operate the flaps.

Q36: What is the ‘Load Alleviation Function’ (LAF)?

The load alleviation function permits to alleviate the wing structure loads.

The function is achieved through the upward deflection of:

‐ The two ailerons only, or
‐ The two ailerons associated to the spoilers 4 and 5.

The LAF has 2 sub-functions:

‐ A sub-function activated in case of stable maneuver (ailerons deflections only)
‐ A sub-function activated in case of gust detection (ailerons and spoilers deflection)

In case of continuous turbulences, the two LAF sub-functions can be activated

independently (the highest alleviation is taken into account).
The LAF is available when the aircraft is in clean configuration and in Normal law. The
LAF orders are added to those generated by the normal law.

Q40: Why does Alternate Law becomes Direct law whenever landing gear down on
Airbus?

The only Direct Law landings are if you are already downgraded to Alternate Law
before gear down. A normal landing is in the ‘Flare’ mode of normal law. Since, there is
no ‘Flare’ mode in Alternate Law, hence the reversion to Direct Law at gear down.
Normal Law and Alternate Law both have the same characteristics in pitch, i.e.
adjusting the sidestick adjusts the flight path of the aircraft. Without ‘Flare’ mode, an
attempt to land in Normal/Alternate law would result in the aircrafts flight path
shallowing as you pulled back the stick to flare and a resultant float until you ran out of
speed.
Because there is no ‘Flare’ in alternate law, airbus designed the system to give the
aircraft in direct law like any conventional aircraft to fly.

Q41: Ground Spoilers and Reverse relation:

FULL EXTENSION – REJECTED TAKEOFF PHASE

▪ If the ground spoilers are armed and the wheel speed exceeds 72 kt, the ground
spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are reset to idle.
▪ If the ground spoilers are not armed and the wheel speed exceeds 72 kt, the ground
spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other
thrust lever remains at idle).

FULL EXTENSION - LANDING PHASE

The ground spoilers will automatically extend when the following conditions are met:

‐ Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
• Both main landing gears on ground,
• Both thrust levers at or below Idle position, or Reverse selected on at least one
engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
‐ Speed brake lever in the retracted position but ground spoilers not armed and:
• Both main landing gears on ground,
• Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT
position).

PARTIAL EXTENSION
In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate thrust
lever handling during flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed when the
following conditions are met:
‐ Ground spoilers armed,
‐ Both main landing gears on ground,
‐ Both thrust levers at or below the Climb position.

Q42: Tell me about Protections in ‘Normal Law’:

Flight control normal law covers:

‐ three-axis control
‐ flight envelope protection
‐ alleviation of maneuver loads.

Depending on the phase of the flight, protections are active in one of the following
modes:

Ground mode
Is a direct relationship between sidestick deflection and elevator deflection, without auto
trim. Active on ground until five (5) seconds after lift-off and active again five (5)
seconds after landing. There is a direct and proportional relationship between side stick
and control surfaces.
Deflection Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer set to zero 5s after landing (THS only
manual controllable).

Rotation Mode (Only NEO Aircraft)

The objective of the rotation mode is to provide a homogeneous rotation for all possible
weights, CG and configurations, while minimizing the risk of a tail strike. The rotation
mode is a Pitch rate demand control law, providing tail strike protection.
The rotation mode is active from 70 kts during Take-Off roll until 10 seconds after lift-
off and pitch attitude is above 8º.

Flight Mode
Active 5s after lift-off stays until flare mode.
The normal-law flight mode is a load-factor-demand mode with automatic trim and
protection throughout the flight envelope.
Following normal law, the sidestick controllers set the elevator and THS to maintain
load factor proportional to stick deflection and independent of speed.
With the sidestick at neutral, wings level, the system maintains 1 g in pitch, and there is
no need for the pilot to trim by changing speed or configuration. Therefore, pilots only
need to perform minor corrections on the sidestick, if the aircraft deviates from its
intended flight path. If the pilot senses an overcontrol, the sidestick should be released.

Flare mode
When the aircraft passes 50 ft RA, the THS is frozen and the normal flight mode
changes to flare mode as the aircraft descends to land. Flare mode is essentially a direct
stick-to-elevator relationship (with some damping provided by the load factor and the
pitch rate feedbacks).
The system memorizes the aircraft's attitude at 50 ft, and it becomes the initial reference
for pitch attitude control.
As the aircraft descends through 30 ft, the system begins to reduce the pitch attitude to
-2 °nose down over a period of 8 seconds. Consequently, to flare the aircraft, a gentle
nose-up action by the pilot is required.

PROTECTIONS IN NORMAL LAW

The normal law protects the aircraft throughout the flight envelope, as follows:
‐ load factor limitation
‐ pitch attitude protection
‐ high-angle-of-attack (AOA) protection
‐ high-speed protection.

LOAD FACTOR PROTECTION

High load factors can be encountered during evasive maneuvers due to potential
collisions, or CFIT ...
Pulling "g" is efficient, if the resulting maneuver is really flown with this "g" number. If
the aircraft is not able to fly this trajectory, or to perform this maneuver, pulling "g" will
be detrimental.
The load factor is automatically limited to:
+2.5 g to -1 g for clean configuration.
+2 g to 0 for other configurations.
With load factor protection, the PF may immediately and instinctively pull the sidestick
full aft: The aircraft will initially fly a 2.5 g maneuver without losing time. Load factor
protection enables immediate PF reaction, without any risk of overstressing the aircraft.
Flight experience has also revealed that an immediate 2.5 g reaction provides larger
obstacle clearance, than a hesitant and delayed high G Load maneuver (two-second
delay).

PITCH ATTITUDE PROTECTION

Excessive pitch attitudes, caused by upsets or inappropriate maneuvers, lead to
hazardous situations:
• Too high a nose-up ▸ Very rapid energy loss
• Too low a nose-down ▸ Very rapid energy gain

Furthermore, there is no emergency situation that requires flying at excessive attitudes.

For these reasons, pitch attitude protection limits pitch attitude:
‐ 30 ° nose up in conf 0 to 3 (progressively reduced to 25 ° at low speed).
‐ 25 ° nose up in conf FULL (progressively reduced to 20 ° at low speed).
‐ 15 ° nose down (indicated by green symbols “=” on the PFD’s pitch scale).

The flight director bars disappear from the PFD when the pitch attitude exceeds 25 ° up
or 13 ° down. They return to the display when the pitch angle returns to the region
between 22 ° up and 10 ° down.
Pitch attitude protection enhances high speed protection, high load factor protection,
and high AOA protection.

HIGH ANGLE-OF-ATTACK PROTECTION (AOA)

In the normal law, the aircraft is protected against stall, in dynamic maneuvers or gusts.
When the current angle-of-attack becomes greater than αPROT, the high angle-of-attack
(AOA) protection activates.
Without pilot input, the F/CTL computers will maintain the AOA equal to αPROT. The
AOA can be further increased by the pilot input, up to a maximum value equal to
αMAX. When the High AOA protection is activated, the normal law demand is
modified and the side stick input is an angle-of-attack demand, instead of a load factor
demand.
The PF must not deliberately fly the aircraft in the High AOA, except for brief periods,
when maximum maneuvering speed is required.

The angle-of-attack will not exceed αMAX, even if the pilot gently pulls the sidestick
all the way back. The pilot can hold full back stick, if it is needed, and the aircraft
stabilizes at an angle-of-attack close to but less than the 1 g stall. When flying at
αMAX, the PF can make gentle turns, if necessary. If the pilot releases the sidestick, the
angle-of-attack returns to αPROT and stays there. As the aircraft enters protection at the
amber and black strip (αPROT), the system inhibits further nose-up trim beyond the
point already reached. The nose-down trim remains available, if the pilot pushes the
stick forward.
In the case of application of GPWS or windshear procedures, aircraft protections
provide maximum lift / maximum thrust / minimum drag. Therefore, CFIT escape
manoeuvres will be much more efficient.

HIGH SPEED PROTECTION

The aircraft automatically recovers, following a high speed upset. Depending on the
flight conditions (high acceleration, low pitch attitude), High Speed Protection is
activated at/or above VMO/MMO.
When it is activated, the pitch trim is frozen. Positive spiral static stability is introduced
to 0 ° bank angle (instead of 33 ° in normal law),
As the speed increases above VMO/MMO, the sidestick nose-down authority is
progressively reduced, and a permanent nose-up order is applied to aid recovery to
normal flight conditions.

Therefore, in a dive situation:

• If there is no sidestick input on the sidestick, the aircraft will slightly overshoot
VMO/MMO and fly back towards the envelope.
• If the sidestick is maintained full forward, the aircraft will significantly overshoot
VMO/MMO. At approximately VMO +16 / MMO +0.04, the pitch nose-down authority
smoothly reduces to zero (which does not mean that the aircraft stabilizes at that speed).

The PF, therefore, has full authority to perform a high speed/steep dive escape
maneuver, when required, via a reflex action on the sidestick.
High Speed Protection is deactivated, when the aircraft speed decreases below
VMO/MMO, where the usual normal control laws are recovered.

BANK ANGLE PROTECTION

Inside the normal flight envelope, the system maintains positive spiral static stability for
bank angles above 33°. If the pilot releases the sidestick at a bank angle greater than
33°, the bank angle automatically reduces to 33 °. Up to 33 °, the system holds the roll
attitude constant when the sidestick is at neutral. If the pilot holds full lateral sidestick
deflection, the bank angle goes to 67 ° and no further.
If Angle-of-Attack protection is active, and the pilot maintains full lateral deflection on
the sidestick, the bank angle will not go beyond 45 °.

LOAD ALLEVIATION FUNCTION (LAF)

The load alleviation function permits to alleviate the wing structure loads.
The function is achieved through the upward deflection of:
‐ The two ailerons only, or
‐ The two ailerons associated to the spoilers 4 and 5.

The LAF is available when the aircraft is in clean configuration and in Normal law. The
LAF orders are added to those generated by the normal law.

Q43: How is the reconfiguration control laws?

ALTERNATE LAW (with reduced protections):

LOAD FACTOR LIMITATION

The load factor limitation is similar to that under normal law.

PITCH ATTITUDE PROTECTION

There is no pitch attitude protection. Amber “X”s replace the green double bars “=” on
the PFD.
LOW SPEED STABILITY (Replaces AOA)
An artificial low speed stability replaces the normal angle-of-attack protection.
Is active from about 5 kt up to about 10 kt above stall warning speed. A gentle progressive nose
down signal is introduced, which tends to keep the speed from falling below these values. The pilot
can override this demand.

HIGH SPEED STABILITY

Above VMO or MMO, a nose up demand is introduced to avoid an excessive increase in speed. The
pilot can override this demand.
In addition, the aural overspeed warning (VMO + 4 or MMO + 0.006) remains available.

BANK ANGLE PROTECTION

Not provided.

ALTERNATE LAW (without reduced protections):

This is identical to alternate law except that it does not include the low-speed stability or
the high-speed stability. It includes only the load factor limitation.

DIRECT LAW

The pitch direct law is a direct stick-to-elevator relationship (elevator deflection is

proportional to stick deflection).
In all configurations the maximum elevator deflection varies as a function of CG.
It is a compromise between adequate controllability with the CG forward, and not-too-
sensitive control with the CG aft.
There is no automatic trim: the pilot must trim manually.
The PFD displays in amber the message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM”.
No protections are operative.
The α floor function is inoperative.
Overspeed and stall warnings are available as for alternate law.

MECHANICAL BACK-UP

The purpose of the mechanical backup is to achieve all safety objectives in MMEL
dispatch condition: to manage a temporary and total electrical loss, the temporary loss
of five fly-by-wire computers, the loss of both elevators, or the total loss of ailerons and
spoilers.
PITCH: The pilot manually applies trim to the THS to control the aircraft in pitch. The
PFDs display “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” in red.
LATERAL: The pilot uses the rudder pedals as the mechanical backup to laterally
control the aircraft.

Q44: When will you reject take off after 100 kts?

Above 100 kt, and below V1: Rejecting the take-off at these speeds is more serious,
particularly on slippery runways. It could lead to a hazardous situation, if the speed is
approaching V1. At these speeds, the captain should be "go-minded" and very few
situations should lead to the decision to reject the take-off:
1) Any red ECAM warning
2) Sudden loss of engine thrust
3) Malfunctions or conditions that give unambiguous indications that the aircraft will
not fly safely
4) Any amber ECAM caution listed below:
‐ SIDESTICK FAULT
‐ ENG FAIL
‐ ENG REVERSER FAULT
‐ ENG REVERSE UNLOCKED
‐ ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT

Below 100kt take off should be rejected if any Ecam caution/warning.

Q45: When speed is 20 knots before V1 and EGT has reach the red indication, and
nose steering vibration. What will you do?

Exceeding the EGT red line or nose gear vibration should not result in the decision to
reject take-off above 100 kt. In case of tire failure between V1 minus 20 kt and V1,
unless debris from the tires has caused serious engine anomalies, it is far better to get
airborne, reduce the fuel load, and land with a full runway length available. The V1 call
has precedence over any other call.

Q46: Low visibility procedures.

Q47: Icing conditions definition and what is the visibility that defines this condition?

Icing conditions may be expected when the OAT (on the ground and for take-off) or
when TAT (in flight) is at or below 10°C, and there is visible moisture in the air (such
as clouds, fog with low visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals) or
standing water, slush, ice or snow is present on the taxiways or runways. (AFM
definition)

Freezing conditions: visible moisture in any form (such as fog with visibility below 1.5
km, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals) or standing water, slush, ice or snow is present on
the runway.

Freezing fog (Metar code: FZFG) is a suspension of numerous tiny, supercooled water
droplets which freeze upon impact with ground or other exposed objects, generally
reducing the horizontal visibility at the earth's surface to less than 1 km (5/8 mile).

Q48: Go Around and Discontinued Approach differences.

When at or above the FCU selected altitude:

• GO AROUND, or
• Discontinued Approach Technique:
Announce “CANCEL APPROACH”
Select Lateral Mode – NAV / HDG
Select Vertical Mode – V/S / OPEN CLB
 Select and Adjust – SPEED

When below the FCU selected altitude:

• GO AROUND
Q49: Why do we add 50 feet to our MDA minimums?
We add 50 ft at MDA due to inertia of the aircraft... in order to avoid over shut the
minimum altitude in case of go around, however it’s not mandatory, it’s an operator
recommendation...

Q50: Explain Fail Operational / Fail Passive.

A Fail Operational System is a system which after failure of any single component, is
capable of completing an approach, flare and touchdown, or approach, flare, touchdown
and rollout by using the remaining operating elements of the Fail Operational system.
The failure effects of single components of the system, airplane or equipment external
to the airplane which could have an effect on touchdown or rollout performance must be
considered when evaluating Fail Operational systems. (CATIII Dual)

A Fail Passive System is a system which in the event of a failure, causes no significant
deviation of aircraft flight path or attitude (out of trim condition). The capability to
continue the operation may be lost and an alternate course of action (e.g., a missed
approach) may be required. (CAT 3 Single)