Q1. Choose the most appropriate antonym of the underlined word.

In the coming decade, new robotic technologies could further aggravate the problem.
(a) vex

(b) provoke
(c) relieve
(d) irk
Ans. c
Q2. Select the most appropriate idiom for the underlined phrase.

That watch was very expensive when I bought it.

(a) In a nutshell
(b) Under the rose
(c) Under the weather
(d) Cost an arm and a leg

Ans. d
Q3. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
We___ make poor assumptions.
(a) Consistently
(b) Consistent
(c) More consist
(d) Consist
Ans. a
Q4. Choose the work that can substitute the given group of words.
Opinion or doctrine at variance with the orthodox or accepted doctrine

(a) Heresy
(b) Bourgeois
(c) Plinth
(d) Tenet
Ans. a
Q5. The question below consist of a set of lablelled sentences. Out of the four options given,
select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
P. Celts believed that on the night before the new year, the night before the new year, the
boundary between the worlds of the living and the dead became blurred.
Q. Halloween’s origins date back to the ancient Celtic festival of Samhain.

R. The Celts, who lived 2,000 years ago, mostly in the area that is now Ireland, the United
Kingdom and northern France, celebrated their new year on November 1.

S. This day marked the end of summer and the harvest and the beginning of the dark, cold
winter, associated with human death.

(a) PQRS
(b) RSPQ
(c) PQSR
(d) QRSP
Ans. d

Q6. Select the most appropriate idiom for the underlined phrase.
I tried my best to get along with her, but I guess she is a difficult person to deal with.
(a) A wild goose chase
(b) A hard nut to crack
(c) A piece of cake

(d) All ears

Ans. b
Q7. Choose the word that can substitute the given group of words.
The sound made by cats
(a) Grunt

(b) Cheep
(c) Meow
(d) Bell
Ans. c
Q8. The question below consist of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given,
select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
P. Standing is a famer’s home in China’s Henan Province in the summer of 2018, paleontologists
Fenglu Han and Haishui Jiang peered down into a box of rounded lumps of rock.
Q. The farmer had collected the trove near his home in Neixiang County, which is renowned for
its dino
R. One stony orb in particular caught the scientists eyes.

S. About the size and shape of a billiard ball, the fossil was unlike any dinosaur egg they’d seen
before.

(a) PQRS
(b) SPQR
(c) QPSR
(d) RQPS
Ans. a

Q9. Choose the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

A rustic area that has a refreshing lack of billboards and shopping malls reminds of my home
town.
(a) Open
(b) Countryfied
(c) Urbane

(d) Insecure
Ans. b
Q10. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
You are mistaken if you think that you are the ______ creature in this world.
(a) So beautiful

(b) beautiful
(c) more beautiful
(d) most beautiful
Ans. d

Comprehension:
Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blanks out of the four
alternatives.
Storms are getting stronger elsewhere too. Hurricane Otis recently (1)________ the Mexican
city of Acapulco, for instance. Otis developed from a regular storm into a (2)_________
hurricane in record time, and was the first time in history that a hurricane in the Eastern Pacific
made landfall and sustained itself as a the strongest “Category 5” storm. Tropical Cyclone Tej
(3)_________ the Arabian Peninsula the week before with 480mm of rainfall in the Al–Ghaydah
region in Yemen – eight times the annual average.
SubQuestion No : 11
Q11. Select the most appropriate option for blank ________ (2)
(a) Liable

(b) Hounding
(c) Huge
(d) Timid
Ans. c

Comprehension:
Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blanks out of the four
alternatives. Storms are getting stronger elsewhere too. Hurricane Otis recently (1)________ the
Mexican city of Acapulco, for instance. Otis developed from a regular storm into a (2)_________
hurricane in record time, and was the first time in history that a hurricane in the Eastern Pacific made
landfall and sustained itself as a the strongest “Category 5” storm. Tropical Cyclone Tej (3)_________
the Arabian Peninsula the week before with 480mm of rainfall in the Al–Ghaydah region in Yemen –
eight times the annual average.

SubQuestion No : 12

Q12. Select the most appropriate option for blank ________ (3)

(a) Masticated

(b) Hit

(c) Hired

(d) Blasted

Ans. b
Comprehension:

Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blanks out of the four
alternatives. Storms are getting stronger elsewhere too. Hurricane Otis recently (1)________ the
Mexican city of Acapulco, for instance. Otis developed from a regular storm into a (2)_________
hurricane in record time, and was the first time in history that a hurricane in the Eastern Pacific made
landfall and sustained itself as a the strongest “Category 5” storm. Tropical Cyclone Tej (3)_________
the Arabian Peninsula the week before with 480mm of rainfall in the Al–Ghaydah region in Yemen –
eight times the annual average.

SubQuestion No : 13

Q13. Select the most appropriate option for blank ________(1)

(a) Devastated

(b) Manifested

(c) Demonstrated

(d) Cultivated

Ans. a

Comprehension:

Read the following passage and answer the questions given below. Because birthday balloons are cheap
and colorful, children like to buy and play with them. Balloons were first used for scientific experiments
and transportation, but it wasn’t long before it found its way into people’s hands as an instrument of
fun. Michael Faraday made the first rubber balloon in 1824, which was for use in his laboratory. Faraday
achieved this by laying two sheets of rubber one on another, then put flour in the middle to prevent
them joining all the way through and then sealed them together at the edges. Faraday found that upon
filling the balloons with hydrogen, they were able to ascend to a considerable level, however he was
disappointed by the fact that the hydrogen kept escaping. The following year, Thomas Hancock, a British
inventor and rubber manufacturer, started selling balloon making kits. By 1847 British entrepreneurs
were already selling the first balloons made of vulcanized rubber, which was tougher and was more
elastic.

SubQuestion No : 14

Q14. What can be the suitable title for the given passage ?

(a) Birthdays and balloons

(b) Balloons for fun

(c) Craze for balloons and their histroy

(d) Rubber industry

Ans. c
Comprehension:

Read the following passage and answer the questions given below. Because birthday balloons are cheap
and colorful, children like to buy and play with them. Balloons were first used for scientific experiments
and transportation, but it wasn’t long before it found its way into people’s hands as an instrument of
fun. Michael Faraday made the first rubber balloon in 1824, which was for use in his laboratory. Faraday
achieved this by laying two sheets of rubber one on another, then put flour in the middle to prevent
them joining all the way through and then sealed them together at the edges. Faraday found that upon
filling the balloons with hydrogen, they were able to ascend to a considerable level, however he was
disappointed by the fact that the hydrogen kept escaping. The following year, Thomas Hancock, a British
inventor and rubber manufacturer, started selling balloon making kits. By 1847 British entrepreneurs
were already selling the first balloons made of vulcanized rubber, which was tougher and was more
elastic.

SubQuestion No : 15

Q15. Which of the following words means the same as the word ‘ascend’ used in the passage?

(a) Rise

(b) Slide

(c) Dip

(d) Dive

Ans. a

Comprehension:

Read the following passage and answer the questions given below. Because birthday balloons are cheap
and colorful, children like to buy and play with them. Balloons were first used for scientific experiments
and transportation, but it wasn’t long before it found its way into people’s hands as an instrument of
fun. Michael Faraday made the first rubber balloon in 1824, which was for use in his laboratory. Faraday
achieved this by laying two sheets of rubber one on another, then put flour in the middle to prevent
them joining all the way through and then sealed them together at the edges. Faraday found that upon
filling the balloons with hydrogen, they were able to ascend to a considerable level, however he was
disappointed by the fact that the hydrogen kept escaping. The following year, Thomas Hancock, a British
inventor and rubber manufacturer, started selling balloon making kits. By 1847 British entrepreneurs
were already selling the first balloons made of vulcanized rubber, which was tougher and was more
elastic.

SubQuestion No : 16

Q16. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding Thomas Hancock?

(a) He made kits from balloons.

(b) He was a rubber manufacturer.

(c) He made the first rubber balloon.

(d) He was a British inventor.

Ans. c

Comprehension:

Read the following passage and answer the questions given below. Because birthday balloons are cheap
and colorful, children like to buy and play with them. Balloons were first used for scientific experiments
and transportation, but it wasn’t long before it found its way into people’s hands as an instrument of
fun. Michael Faraday made the first rubber balloon in 1824, which was for use in his laboratory. Faraday
achieved this by laying two sheets of rubber one on another, then put flour in the middle to prevent
them joining all the way through and then sealed them together at the edges. Faraday found that upon
filling the balloons with hydrogen, they were able to ascend to a considerable level, however he was
disappointed by the fact that the hydrogen kept escaping. The following year, Thomas Hancock, a British
inventor and rubber manufacturer, started selling balloon making kits. By 1847 British entrepreneurs
were already selling the first balloons made of vulcanized rubber, which was tougher and was more
elastic.

SubQuestion No : 17

Q17. Where did Michael Faraday use his first rubber balloon?

(a) His laboratory

(b) His child’s school

(c) His home

(d) His neighborhood

Ans. a

Q1. The ratio of cost of bottle and lunch box are 9 : 5. The cost of bottle is Rs. 400 more than cost of
lunch box.

(a) Rs. 900

(b) Rs. 500

(c) Rs. 300

(d) Rs. 700

Ans. b

Q2. The product of the three consecutive odd numbers is 6783. What is the of the three numbers?

(a) 57

(b) 43

(c) 49

(d) 55
Ans. a

𝟏.𝟒𝟒×𝟏.𝟒𝟒+𝟎.𝟐𝟔×𝟎.𝟐𝟔+𝟏.𝟒
Q3. What is the value of √𝟐.𝟓𝟔×𝟐.𝟓𝟔+𝟎.𝟎𝟔×𝟎.𝟎𝟔−𝟎.𝟏𝟐×𝟐.𝟓𝟔 ?

(a) 0.78

(b) 0.68

(c) 0.58

(d) 0.98

Ans. b

Q4. Pipe R alone can fill a tank in 144 hours and Pipe S alone can fill the same tank in 216 hours. If
both the pipes are opened on alternate hours one at a time and pipe S is opened for first hour, then in
how much time the tank will be completely full?

(a) 173 hours

(b) 150 hours

(c) 180 hours

(d) 153 hours

Ans. a

Q5. The average of 24 consecutive even numbers is 133, If the next even number is also considered,
then what will be the new average?

(a) 134

(b) 138

(c) 140

(d) 132

Ans. a

Q6. Rs. 5800 is lent at the rate of 24 percent per annum on compound interest (compounded in every
four months). What will be the compound interest of 8 months?

(a) Rs. 1598.85

(b) Rs. 1427.85

(c) Rs. 1450.65

(d) Rs. 1648.75

Ans. a
Q7. The perimeter of the top of a rectangular table is 22 metre and its area is 30 metre 2. What is the
length of its diagonal?

(a) √37 metres

(b) √71 metres

(c) √61 metres

(d) √51 metres

Ans. c

Q8. The ratio of selling price to the cost price is 6 : 11. What is the loss percentage?

(a) 42.71 percent

(b) 45.45 percent

(c) 50.68 percent

(d) 52.68 percent

Ans. b

Q9. If f(x) = 𝒙𝟐 + 𝟐𝒙 + 𝟕, then what is the remainder when f(x) is divided by x + 5?

(a) 20

(b) -22

(c) -20

(d) 22

Ans. d

Q10. Pankaj sells two calculators at the rate of Rs. 594 per calculator. He earns a profit of 10 percent
on one calculator and loses 10 percent on the other calculator. What will be the total profit or loss in
whole transaction?

(a) Rs. 10 profit

(b) Rs. 12 loss

(c) Rs. 18 profit

(d) Rs. 16 loss

Ans. b
𝟑 𝟏+𝒕𝒂𝒏𝜽
Q11. If 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽 = 𝟓, then what is the value of 𝟏−𝒕𝒂𝒏𝜽 ?

(a) -6
(b) 6

(c) -7

(d) 7

Ans. c

Q12. Rohit donates 35 percent of his income to a school and deposits 45 percent of the remainder in
his bank. If he has Rs. 3575 now, then what is the income of Rohit?

(a) Rs. 12000

(b) Rs. 13000

(c) Rs. 10000

(d) Rs. 11000

Ans. c

Q13. A bus moves at the speed of 68 km/hr after repairing and moves at the speed of 34 km/hr before
repairing. It covers a distance of K km in 8 hours after repairing. How much time will it take to cover a
distance of K/4 km before repairing?

(a) 5 hours

(b) 6 hours

(c) 8 hours

(d) 4 hours

Ans.

Q14. The diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 10 cm. What is the area of the rhombus?

(a) 20 cm²

(b) 40 cm²

(c) 80 cm²

(d) 30 cm²

Ans. b

Q15. S1, S2 and $3 alone can complete a work in 12 days, 18 days and 24 days respectively. They
received Rs. 3024 to complete the work. They begin the work together but Si leaves the work after 3
days and 53 leaves the work 7 days before the completion of the work. 52 has completed the
remaining work alone. What is the share of 52 from the total money?

(a) Rs. 2000

(b) Rs. 1900

(c) Rs. 1800

(d) Rs. 1500

Ans. c

Q16. If m = 1500 and n = 2000, then m is how much percentage less than n?

(a) 12.5 percent

(b) 25 percent

(c) 10 percent

(d) 50 percent

Ans. b

Q17. What is the value of 24 × 16+15×16+17x16-23-21-24×15+25×26-9×8

(a) 531

(b) 631

(c) 641

(d) 541

Ans. b

Q18. A car covers a distance of 35 km in 42 minutes. If its speed is decreased by 30 km hr, then what
will be the time taken by it to cover the same distance?

(a) 105 minutes

(b) 70 minutes

(c) 85 minutes

(d) 120 minutes

Ans. a

Q19. Amir gave two successive discounts of 10 percent and 20 percent on a pencil. If the marked price
of the pencil is Rs. 9850, then what is the value of discount?

(a) Rs. 2758

(b) Rs. 2688

(c) Rs. 3128

(d) Rs. 2698

Ans. a
Q20. 18 people sit around a circular table. What is the probability that 2 particular persons will always
sit together?
3
(a)
17

2
(b) 17
1
(c) 8
5
(d)
17

Ans. b

Q21. If a, b and c are the roots of the cubic equation 7x3+4x-7=0, then what is the value of a³+b³+3?

(a) - 3

(b) 7

(c) 3

(d) 21

Ans. c
𝒕𝒂𝒏 𝜽+𝟏
Q22. If 𝜽 = 30 degree, then what is the value of 𝒄𝒐𝒕𝜽+𝟏
?

(a) √3

(b) √3+1

(c) √3+2
1
(d)
√3

Ans. d

Q23 The table given below shows the marked price and value of discount of 7 articles.

Articles Marked price Discount

D 1100 500
E 700 200
F 900 500
G 600 400
H 400 300
I 500 200
J 1000 200

Selling price Marked price – Discount

What is the difference between the average selling price and the average marked price of all the
articles?

(a) 328.57

(b) 389.21

(c) 292.57

(d) 240.85

Ans. a

Q24. The line chart given below shows the number of monuments in 5 different cities.

What is the average number of monuments in all the cities?

(a) 31

(b) 63

(c) 47

(d) 59

Ans. d

Q25. In the given set of equation, x + 2y + 3z = 10 2x + 3y + z = 13 x + y + 2z = 7 what is the solution of

set?

(a) x = 2 y = 3 z = 1

(b) x = - 1 , y = 2 z = 3

(c) x = 1 , y = 2 z = 3

(d) x = 3 , y = 2 z = 1

Ans. d
𝟏 𝒙𝟐 −𝟏
Q26. If x² + = 51, then what is the value of (𝒙 > 𝟎)?
𝒙𝟐 𝒙
(a) 7

(b) 6

(c) 8

(d) 4

Ans. a

Q27. The breadth of a rectangular hall is 9/11 of its length. If the area of the floor is 99 metre, then
what is the difference between the length and breadth of the hall?

(a) 3 metres

(b) 4 metres

(c) 1 metre

(d) 2 metres

Ans. d

Q28. A boy bought 50 chocolates for Rs. 1200. If the average price of 30 chocolates is Rs. 30, then
what is the average price of remaining chocolates?

(a) Rs. 10

(b) Rs. 20

(c) Rs. 15

(d) Rs. 25

Ans. c

Q29. The ratio of two numbers is 5: 2. If both numbers are increased by 6, the ratio becomes 2: 1.
What is the sum of the initial two mumbers?

(a) 42

(b) 46

(c) 32

(d) 40

Ans. a

Q30. in an equilateral triangle STU, inradius is 𝟏𝟎√𝟑 cm. What is the length of side of this equilateral
triangle?

(a) 40√3 cm

(b) 36√3 cm
(c) 60 cm

(d) 30 cm

Ans. c

Q31. The compound interest (compounding half yearly) received on Rs. 20000 for 1 year is Rs. 6450
What is the rate of interest per annum?

(a) 20 percent

(b) 45 percent

(c) 30 percent

(d) 25 percent

Ans. c

Q32. If a certain sum of money becomes thrice of itself in 15 years 4 months at simple interest, then
what will be the annual rate of interest?

(a) 17.28 регcent

(b) 15.42 percent

(c) 13.04 percent

(d) 16.84 percent

Ans. c

Q33. Radii of two circles are 10 cm and 2 cm. Distance between their centre is 17 cm. What is the
length of the Direct common tangent?

(a) 12 cm

(b) 16 cm

(c) 14 cm

(d) 15 cm

Ans. d

Q34. If three dices are thrown simultaneously, then what is the probability of getting a sum of 4?
1
(a)
48
1
(b) 36
1
(c) 54
1
(d)
74
Ans. d

Q1. Consider the five three letter words given below and the answer the questions based on it.

(Left) NOR RST IKL RPN KJA (right)

The given words are arranged in the alphabetical order from left to right. Which word will occupy the
third place from right?

(a) RST

(b) NOR

(c) KJA

(d) RPN

Ans. b

Q2. In the question given below, relationships between different elements are shown in the
statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer:

Statements:

I. X-Y-Z

II. Y > A ≥ B ≤ D

Conclusions:

I. X-B

II. X < D

(a) If both conclusions I and II are true

(b) If only conclusion I is true

(c) If only conclusion II is true

(d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true

Ans. b

Q3. If ‘x' means '-' , '-' means '+', '+' means '÷' and '÷' means 'x', then 60-30+5×7÷8=?

(a) 20

(b) 18

(c) 10

(d) 5

Ans. c
Q4. P.Q. R. S. T. U and V are seven friends sitting in a single row facing North. 5 is to the immediate
right of R. T and P are neighbours of U.Q is to the immediate left of R and on second place from left
most end. P is at the right most end. Who is sitting on the immediate right of S?

(a) U

(b) P

(c) V

(d) T

Ans. d

Q5. Select that missing pair (Fifth number: Sixth number) which is related in the same way as the first
number is related to the second number and third number is related to fourth number. (NOTE:
Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its
constituent digits. E.g.13-Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into t and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is
not allowed)

17:136:: 21:168?

(a) 10:45

(b) 15:120

(c) 9:721

(d) 11:80

Ans. b

Q6. Ramesh is 7th rank ahead of Ashok in the class of 39 students. If Ashok's Rank is 17th from the
last, what is Ramesh's rank from the start?

(a) 15

(b) 18

(c) 16

(d) 11

Ans. c

Q7. Select that missing pair (Fifth number: Sixth number) which is related in the same way as the first
number is related to the second number and third number is related to fourth mumber. (NOTE:
Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its
constituent digits. Eg.13-Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is
not allowed)
6:25::7:36::?

(a) 10:81

(b) 8:91

(c) 13:121

(d) 11:144

Ans. a

Q8. ‘A × B' means 'A is the brother of B', 'A + B' means 'A is the father of B', 'A - B' means 'A is the
sister of B' and 'A ÷ B' means 'A is the wife of B'. If J + K ÷ P × Z + Q - T, then how is K. related to Z?

(a) Husband's mother

(b) Brother's wife

(c) Husband's father

(d) Husband's sister

Ans. b

Q9. If 24 P 8 Q 2 = 28 and 9 P 6 Q 2 = 12, 1 and 9 P6 Q2 = 12, then 14 P 7 Q 1 = ?

(a) 19

(b) 20

(c) 21

(d) 11

Ans. c

Q10. If ‘+’ means ‘× ′,′ × ′means ’-‘ , ‘-‘ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ’+’, then which of the following
equation is NOT correct?

(a) 24-8+4>30-10×4

(b) 10×4+3>4÷10×3

(c) 10+8÷20=9+11÷1

(d) 40×30÷60=50×40÷60

Ans. b

Q11. In the following question, select the odd letter/letters from the given alternatives.

(a) PONM
(b) FEDC

(c) ZYXW

(d) HGFD

Ans. d

Q12. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that
will complete the series.

AQM, YOK, WMI, UKG,?

(a) SHE

(b) SIE

(c) TIM

(d) SHM

Ans. b

Q13. Rajat walks 8 km towards East. He turns right and walks 4 km. He again turns right and walks 8
km. How far and in which direction is his starting point from the finishing point?

(a) 1.8 km, East

(b) 4 km, South

(c) 4 km, North

(d) 8 km, South

Ans. c

Q14. Consider the string given below made up of letters. How many A's are immediately preceded by
a B?

AAAABBAAAABBBBABBABA

(a) 5

(b) 4

(c) 2

(d) 3

Ans. b

Q15. A statement is followed by two arguments in the given question. Choose the correct option after
deciding which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.

Statement: Should we heed every word our parents say?

Argument:

I. Yes. Parents are never wrong

II. No. No advice should be followed blindly without mapping its pros and cons

(a) Only argument II is strong

(b) Neither I nor II argument is strong

(c) Both I and II are strong arguments

(d) Only argument I is strong

Ans. a

Q16. A statement is followed by a set of conclusions in the given question. Identify which conclusion
follows logically from the following statement.

Statement: Students in class A frequently bunk their Mathematics class

Conclusion:

I. Students of class A find Mathematics class less intrigung

II. Class A students are very kitelligent

(a) Only I follow

(b) Only II follows

(c) Neither I nor II follows

(d) Both I and II follow

Ans. a

Q17. In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based
on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion
logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some paper are ink.

II. All paper are pencil.

Conclusion:

I. Some pencil are not ink.

II. II. Some pencil are paper.

III. III. All ink are pencil.

(a) Only conclusion III follows

(b) Both conclusions II and III follows

(c) Both conclusions I and III follows

(d) Only conclusion II follows

Ans. d

Q18. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven friends sitting in a single row facing North. S is to the immediate
right of R. T and Pare neighbours of U.Q is to the immediate left of R and on second place from left
most end. P is at the right most end. Who is sitting second to the left of T?

(a) S

(b) P

(c) Q

(d) R

Ans. b

Q19. In the following question, four letter pairs are given. The letters on left side of (-) is related to the
letters on the right side of (-1 with some Logic Role Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic
Rule Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

(a) DRK-CPH

(b) XLE-WJB

(c) NBU-MZR

(d) GLP-HJL

Ans. d

Q20. In a certain code language, 'YCD' is written as '900', 'YBA' is written as "150". What is the code
for 'YFD' in that code language?

(a) 1500

(b) 1800

(c) 1200

(d) 1600

Ans. b

Q21. In the question given below, relationships between different elements are shown in the
statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer:
Statements:

I. P < N ≤ O ≤ = R

II. R < S < T

Conclusions:

I. P < T

II. N < S

(a) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true

(b) If only conclusion II is true

(c) If both conclusions I and II are true

(d) If only conclusion I is true

Ans. c

Q22. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

ERT: DQS :: AEM:?

(a) ZDL

(b) WAB

(c) XUN

(d) UXU

Ans. a

Q23. In a certain code language, 'MODEL' is written as '52", "JAPAN" is written as '45", What is the
code for 'PUBLIC' in that code language?

(a) 63

(b) 64

(c) 65

(d) 66

Ans. d

Q24. Consider the string given below made up of numbers from 0 to 9. How many odd numbers are
immediately followed by another odd number?

15168593598844652946

(a) 6
(b) 7

(c) 5

(d) 4

Ans. a

Q25. Each of the following problems has a question and two statements (I) and (II).

A and B are prime numbers. If A + B is odd, then what is the value of A?

I. A < B

II. Β – Α = 5

(a) If the question can be answered by using either of the statement (I) or (II) alone.

(b) If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

(c) If the question can be answered by using one of the statement alone but cannot be answered by
wing the other statement alone.

(d) If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either statement
alone.

Ans. a

Q26. Consider the string given below made up of symbols and numbers. How many letters are
immediately followed by S?

#T#T$JTV$V$$TTV$#J##

(a) 3

(b) 5

(c) 4

(d) 6

Ans. c

Q27. Consider the five three digit numbers given below and the answer the questions based on it.
(Left) 118 231 891 163 555 (right)

What is the sum of the unit digit of the largest and the smallest numbers given?

(a) 5

(b) 7

(c) 8

(d) 9
Ans. d

Q28. In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based
on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion
logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some red are money.

II. All pink are money.

Conclusion:

I. No red are pink.

II. Some money are red.

III. Some pink are not red.

(a) Only conclusion II follows

(b) All conclusion follows

(c) Only conclusion I follows

(d) Neither conclusion follows

Ans. a

Q29. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

180, 177, 168, 141, 60, ?

(a) -173

(b) -183

(c) -150

(d) 0

Ans. b

Q30. Select that missing pair (Third number: Fourth number) which is related in the same way as the
first number is related to the second amber and fifth number is related to sixth number (NOTE:
Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its
constituent digits. E.g.13-Operations on 13 such as adding subtracting multiplying etc. to 13 can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is
not allowed)

5:36::?::77:64

(a) 6:25
(b) 15:225

(c) 11:144

(d) 9:81

Ans. c

Q31. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

21, 10, 23, 6, 25,?

(a) 7

(b) 8

(c) 2

(d) 5

Ans. c

Q32. Aman ranked 11th from the top and 47th from the bottom in a class. How may student are there
in the class?

(a) 57

(b) 56

(c) 59

(d) 58

Ans. a

Q33. In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives. OPLN: MMHI
:: ?

(a) FULM: ERWJ

(b) TEHV: RBDQ

(c) NOCP: JKUT

(d) AFIJ: YCED

Ans. b

Q34. 6 players R1, R2, R3, R4, R5 and R6 run on 6 different days of a week starting from Monday to
Saturday. No two players run on the same day. Only one player runs between R5 and Ró. No player
runs after R3. Only one player runs between R3 and R6. R5 runs before Ro and after R1. R4 nins before
R.6. Who runs on Tuesday?

(a) R1
(b) R6

(c) R5

(d) R4

Ans. c

Q1. When designing a part for manufacturing using Fused Deposition Modeling (FDM), what aspect is
crucial to enhance the part's strength and durability?

(a) Increasing the infill density of the part.

(b) Using a larger nozzle diameter.

(c) Selecting a faster printing speed.

(d) Choosing a higher nozzle temperature.

Ans. a

Q2. Which instrument is most appropriate for measuring the surface roughness of a finely machined
component?

(a) Optical profilometer

(b) Micrometer

(c) Dial indicator

(d) Vernier caliper

Ans. a

Q3. Which modern construction material is known for its high strength-to-weight ratio and is
commonly used in innovative architectural designs?

(a) Brick

(b) Plywood

(c) Carbon Fiber

(d) Reinforced Concrete

Ans. c

Q4. Which government initiative in India primarily focuses on improving the technological
infrastructure in education?

(a) NDEAR

(b) MDMS

(c) SSA
(d) RMSA

Ans. a

Q5. In a screw jack, if the pitch of the screw is increased while keeping the length of the handle
constant, what effect does it have on the mechanical advantage of the jack?

(a) No change in mechanical advantage

(b) Increases the mechanical advantage

(c) Decreases the mechanical advantage

(d) The mechanical advantage becomes unpredictable

Ans. c

Q6. During the heat treatment of a medium-carbon steel, which of the following microstructural
changes is most likely to occur when the steel is rapidly cooled (quenched) from the austenitizing
temperature?

(a) The formation of pearlite and ferrite

(b) The retention of austenite

(c) The formation of martensite

(d) The formation of cementite and ferrite

Ans. c

Q7. Consider a steady-state, steady-flow process in a control volume. If the mass flow rate entering
the control volume is 5 kg/s, what is the mass flow rate exiting the control volume?

(a) 0 kg/s

(b) 5 kg/s

(c) 10 kg/s

(d) -10 kg/s

Ans. b

Q8. In a vibration isolation system using damping, which of the following statements best describes
the effect of increasing the damping ratio beyond the critical damping ratio?

(a) It has no significant effect on the isolation performance.

(b) It causes the system to become underdamped, leading to increased oscillations.

(c) It maximizes energy dissipation and improves isolation efficiency.

(d) It reduces the speed of response of the system, leading to poorer isolation.
Ans. d

Q9. Which of the following is a practical application of the principle of induced EMF?

(a) Illuminating a room with LED lighting

(b) Recharging a smartphone using a wireless charger

(c) Cooling a room using an air conditioner

(d) Heating food in a microwave oven

Ans. b

Q10. What distinct feature of Kaplan turbines contributes to their high efficiency in low head, high
flow hydroelectric power plants?

(a) Adjustable wicket gates and fixed runner blades.

(b) Fixed blades and a simple runner design.

(c) Adjustable runner blades and fixed wicket gates.

(d) Both adjustable runner blades and wicket gates.

Ans. d

Q11. What is the significance of 'Scoping' in the EIA process?

(a) It involves the actual mitigation of environmental impacts

(b) It identifies the key issues and impacts to be focused on in the EIA

(c) It determines the project's financial viability

(d) It is the final stage where the decision is made whether to approve the project or not

Ans. b

Q12. In construction planning, what is the primary purpose of a Gantt Chart?

(a) To visualize the project schedule, showing the start and finish dates of elements.

(b) To allocate budget for different phases of construction.

(c) To assess environmental impact of the construction project.

(d) To provide a detailed architectural design of the project

Ans. a

Q13. What principle is primarily used in wind turbines to convert wind energy into electrical energy?

(a) Piezoelectric effect

(b) Chemical reaction

(c) Electromagnetic induction

(d) Photovoltaic effect

Ans. c

Q14. A composite wall consists of three different materials with thermal conductivities k, k and k₁ &
thickness d₁. d2, and d3 respectively. If the wall is subject to steady heat conduction, which of the
following expressions represents the overall heat transfer coefficient (U) of the wall?
𝑘1 +𝑘2 +𝑘3
(a) 𝑈 =
𝑑1 +𝑑2 +𝑑3

1
(b) 𝑈 = 𝑑1 𝑑 𝑑
+ 2+ 3
𝑘1 𝑘2 𝑘3

1
(c) 𝑈 = × (𝑘1 + 𝑘2 + 𝑘3 )
𝑑1 +𝑑2 +𝑑3

𝑘 ×𝑘 ×𝑘
(d) 𝑈 = 𝑑 1+𝑑2 +𝑑3
1 2 3

Ans. b

Q15. Consider a thin-walled open section beam shaped like a "U. If a vertical shear force is applied at
the centroid of its cross-section, how will the beam react?

(a) It will bend without twisting

(b) It will bend and twist

(c) It will neither bend nor twist

(d) It will twist without bending

Ans.
Q16. At a given pressure, the compressibility factor (Z) of a real gas increases with an increase in
temperature. This observation suggests that:

(a) the gas behaves more ideally at higher temperatures.

(b) temperature has no significant impact on the real gas behavior.

(c) the gas will liquefy at higher temperatures.

(d) the gas behaves less ideally at higher temperatures

Ans. a

Q17. A ball of mass 0.5 kg moving at 10 m's collides with another stationary ball of mass 1 kg and
comes to a complete stop. What is the velocity of the second ball post-collision? (Assume an elastic
collision)

(a) 5 m/s
(b) 10 m/s

(c) 7.5 m/s

(d) 15 m/s

Ans. a

Q18. A belt-driven system consists of two pulleys, one with a radius of 0.5 meters and the other with a
radius of 0.2 meters. If the larger pulley rotates at 60 RPM (revolutions per minute), and the tension in
the belt remains constant, what is the rotational speed of the smaller pulley?

(a) 60 RPM

(b) 150 RPM

(c) 120 RPM

(d) 24 RPM

Ans. b

Q19. A fluid with a density of 1000 kg/m³ flows steadily through a horizontal pipe with a change in
diameter. At a certain section, the diameter is 0.1 m. and the pressure is 200 kPa. If the velocity at this
section is 2 m/s, what is the pressure at another section where the diameter is 0.2 m. assuming
inviscid flow and using the Bernoulli equation? (May choose the newest value)

(a) 198.7 kPa

(b) 196.5 kPa

(c) 199.0 kPa

(d) 201.8 kPa

Ans. d
Q20. When designing a gating system for a sand-casting process, to minimize turbulence and facilitate
smooth flow of the molten metal, the gating system should be designed such that:

(a) The cross-sectional area of the runners is larger than the sprue and smaller than the gates.

(b) The cross-sectional area of the sprue, runners, and gates are all equal.

(c) The cross-sectional area of the sprue is larger than that of the runners and gates.

(d) The cross-sectional area of the sprue is smaller than that of the runners and gates.

Ans. d

Q21. In the context of Indian manufacturing industries, which standard is adopted for implementing
an effective environmental management system (EMS), analogous to the ISO 14001?

(a) ISO 14001:2017

(b) ISO 14001:2015

(c) ISO 9001:2015

(d) ISO 15001:2016

Ans. b

Q22. In a typical hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, what occurs at the cathode?

(a) Protons (H+) are converted into hydrogen gas (H2).

(b) Water (H2O) is electrolyzed to produce oxygen and hydrogen ions.

(c) Hydrogen gas (H2) is oxidized to produce electrons.

(d) Oxygen gas (O2) reacts with electrons and hydrogen ions to form water.

Ans. d

Q23. In an air-standard Otto cycle, how does the specific heat ratio (7) of the working fluid affect the
thermal efficiency of the cycle?

(a) The efficiency is independent of y.

(b) An increase in y increases the efficiency.

(c) An increase in y decreases the efficiency.

(d) The efficiency initially increases with y but then decreases after a certain point.

Ans. b

Q24. What impact does effective site management have on construction productivity?

(a) Increases productivity by optimizing resource allocation

(b) No impact, as productivity is solely dependent on worker skills

(c) Reduces productivity by limiting worker autonomy

(d) Decreases productivity due to increased overhead costs

Ans. a

Q25. In a vacuum, two parallel wires carrying currents /, and 1, are separated by a distance d. If the
currents are flowing in opposite directions, what is the force per unit length between the wires?
𝜇0 𝐼1 𝐼2
(a) 𝜋𝑑
directed towards each other πα
𝜇0 𝐼1 𝐼2
(b) 2𝜋𝑑
directed away from each other
𝜇0 𝐼1𝐼2
(c) directed away from each other 4πά
4𝜋𝑑
 𝜇0 𝐼1 𝐼2
(d) directed towards each other
2𝜋𝑑

Ans. b

Q26. Which statement best explains why real gases deviate from the ideal gas law at high pressures?

(a) Intermolecular forces become negligible at high pressures.

(b) The kinetic energy of particles is proportional to temperature.

(c) Gas particles occupy a negligible volume.

(d) Gas particles have finite volume and experience intermolecular attractions.

Ans. d

Q27. Which of the following is a limitation of the traditional assignment model in operations
research?

(a) It can only be applied to maximize the objective function.

(b) It cannot handle the assignment of tasks to more agents than tasks.

(c) It requires the use of non-linear programming for solution.

(d) It can only handle problems with non-integer solutions.

Ans. b

Q28. In a three-element rectangular strain gauge rosette, one gauge is aligned along the x-axis (∈𝒙 ),
the second along the y-axis (∈𝒚), and the third at a 45-degree angle (∈𝟒𝟓). If the measured strains are
∈𝒙 = 300 microstrain, ∈𝒙 =100 microstrain, and no shear strain is present, what is the strain measured
by the 45-degree gauge?

(a) 250 microstrain

(b) 300 microstrain

(c) 150 microstrain

(d) 200 microstrain

Ans. d

Q29. In metal forming processes, increasing the working temperature of a metal generally leads to:

(a) Decreased yield strength and increased ductility.

(b) Decreased yield strength and decreased ductility.

(c) No significant change in yield strength but increased brittleness.

(d) Increased yield strength and decreased ductility

Ans. a
Q30. Which material is commonly used in high-temperature solar thermal energy storage systems for
its ability to store a large amount of heat?

(a) Silicon

(b) Molten salts

(c) Lithium-ion batteries

(d) Water

Ans. b

Q31. Which of the following pollutants is primarily responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer in
the Earth's atmosphere?

(a) Chlorofluorocarbons

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Methane

(d) Nitrous oxide

Ans. a

Q32. If a cylindrical shaft is designed with a basic size of 50 mm and a tolerance of ± 0.02 mm, and the
hole is designed with a basic size of 50.02 mm and a tolerance of ± 0.02 mm, the type of fit most likely
to be achieved is:

(a) Clearance fit

(b) Interference fit

(c) Loose fit

(d) Transition fit

Ans. d

Q33. Why is preheating necessary before welding high-carbon steels?

(a) To decrease the cooling rate after welding.

(b) To increase the speed of welding.

(c) To enhance the magnetic properties of the steel.

(d) To reduce the electrical resistance of the steel

Ans. a

Q34 In a six-cylinder engine with all cylinders in a single plane, the primary balancing of reciprocating
masses is perfect. If the mass of one reciprocating part is 0.5 kg and its stroke is 100 mm, what is the
total primary unbalanced force at 4000 RPM? (May choose the nearest value)
(a) 0

(b) 628.32 N

(c) 1

(d) 314.16 N

Ans. a

Q35. _____ is a process where small pieces from the tool rake face material are adhered to the
flowing chip and times removed from the surface.

(a) Adhesive wear

(b) Flank wear

(c) Crater wear

(d) Diffusion wear

Ans. c

Q36. In a bolted joint subjected to fluctuating tensile loads, which of the following factors does not
significantly influence the fatigue life of the bolt?

(a) Surface finish of the bolt

(b) Bolt material's ultimate tensile strength

(c) Size of the washer used with the bolt

(d) Magnitude of preload applied to the bolt

Ans. c

Q37. A damped harmonic oscillator with a damping ratio of 0.5 is subjected to a sinusoidal force of
frequency equal to its natural frequency. What will be the phase difference between the applied force
and the displacement response of the system?

(a) 180 degrees

(b) 45 degrees

(c) 30 degrees

(d) 0 degrees

Ans. b

Q38. In a four-bar linkage ABCD, where AB is the fixed link, BC is the coupler, and CD is the output
link, if the input link AB rotates at a constant angular velocity of 𝝎𝒂𝒃= 10 rad's, and at the instant of
interest the angle ∠ABC is 60 with |𝑨𝑩| = |𝑩𝑪| = |𝑪𝑫| =1 m, what is the angular velocity of the
output link CD (𝝎𝑪𝑫)?
(a) 10 rad/s

(b) 15 rad/s

(c) 5 rad/s

(d) 20 rad/s

Ans. a

Q39. Consider a double pendulum consisting of two masses m, and m, connected by massless rods of
lengths 𝒍𝟏 , and 𝒍𝟐 , respectively Using Lagrange's equation, which of the following represents a part of
the Lagrangian for this system?

(a) 𝐿 = 𝑚1 𝑔𝑙1 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃1 + 𝑚2 𝑔𝑙2 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃2

1
(b) 𝐿 = 𝑚1 𝑙12 𝜃12 + 𝑚2 𝑔𝑙2 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃2
2

(c) 𝐿 = 𝑚1 𝑔𝑙1 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃1 + 𝑚2 𝑔𝑙2 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃2

1 1
(d) 𝐿 = 𝑚1 𝑙12 𝜃12 + 𝑚2 𝑙22 𝜃22
2 2

Ans. b

Q40. In object-oriented programming (OOP), which of the following concepts allows different classes
to be treated as instances of the same superclass?

(a) Encapsulation

(b) Abstraction

(c) Polymorphism

(d) Inheritance

Ans. c

Q41. In a wind tunnel experiment, air flows over a 2 m long flat plate. If the Reynolds number at the
trailing edge of the plate is 5 x 10 and the kinematic viscosity of air is 1.5 x 10 mils, what is the free
stream velocity of the air? (May choose the nearest value)

(a) 30 m/s

(b) 63.72 m/s

(c) 53.03 m/s

(d) 37.5 m/s

Ans. d
Q42. Which of the following mechanisms primarily contributes to particle bonding during the sintering
process in powder metallurgy?

(a) Chemical reactions between different powders

(b) Diffusion of atoms across particle boundaries

(c) Mechanical interlocking of particles

(d) Melting and solidification of the powder

Ans. b

Q43. Which of the following file systems is specifically designed for flash storage devices like USB flash
drives and SD cards?

(a) ext4

(b) FAT32

(c) NTFS

(d) exFAT

Ans. d

Q44.

Choose the correct pair for the given figure depicting the stability of different forms of floating vessel?

(a) A-Zero stability, B-poor stability, C-Better stability, D=Negative stability

(b) A-Zero stability, B-Better stability, C=Good stability, D-Doubtful stability

(c) A-Doubtful stability, B=Good stability, C-Better stability, D-Zero stability

(d) A=Zero stability, B=Good stability, C-Better stability, De Doubtful stability

Ans. d

Q45. A black surface and a grey surface are exposed to the same radiative environment. Which of the
following statements is true regarding their emissivity (𝝐)?

(a) ∈𝑏𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑘 =∈𝑔𝑟𝑒𝑦

(b) The relation between both surfaces cannot be expressed

(c) ∈𝑏𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑘 <∈𝑔𝑟𝑒𝑦

(d) ∈𝑏𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑘 >∈𝑔𝑟𝑒𝑦

Ans. d
Q46. If a sphere with a thermal diffusivity of 1 x 10m³/s reaches a Fourier number of 0.15 in 500
seconds, what is its characteristic dimension (radius

(a) 0.2 m

(b) 5.8 m

(c) 0.15 m

(d) 0.05 m

Ans. d

Q47. Which of the following is true statement for Lagrange's (Indirect Approach)?

(a) All forces considered.

(b) All forces handled via same expression.

(c) Free-body Diagrams useful.

(d) Intermediate forces less readily available.

Ans. d
Q48. A gear train consists of two spur gears. If the input gear has 24 teeth and rotates at 1200 RPM,
and the output gear has 72 teeth, what is the output speed in RPM?

(a) 3600 rpm

(b) 2400 rpm

(c) 400 rpm

(d) 800 rpm

Ans. c

Q49. In building construction, what is the primary purpose of using a damp-proof course (DPC)?

(a) To provide insulation to the building

(b) To prevent water seepage into the building from the ground

(c) To enhance the aesthetic appeal of the building

(d) To support the structural integrity of the building

Ans. b
Q50. Which of the following is considered an output peripheral in a computer system?

(a) Mouse

(b) Monitor

(c) Hard Drive

(d) Keyboard

Ans. b

Q51. In the tendering process, what is the primary purpose of a Request for Proposal (RFP)?

(a) To announce the project budget to potential contractors.

(b) To request a detailed project plan from potential contractors.

(c) To invite potential contractors to submit proposals for a project.

(d) To finalize the contract terms with the chosen contractor.

Ans. c

Q52. A company uses an Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model for inventory control. The annual
demand for their product is 10,000 units, the ordering cost per order is Rs.100, and the holding cost
per unit per year is Rs.2. What is the EOQ for this product? (May select the most closest value)

(a) 100 units

(b) 2000 units

(c) 50 units

(d) 1000 units

Ans. d

Q53. In a Rankine cycle, the implementation of regeneration through feedwater heating:

(a) Decreases the average temperature of heat addition, thereby reducing cycle efficiency.

(b) Has no impact on the average temperature of heat addition but increases the total heat input.

(c) Increases the total heat input, thereby decreasing the thermal efficiency of the cycle.

(d) Increases the average temperature of heat addition, thereby increasing cycle efficiency.

Ans. d

Q54. A vernier caliper has a main scale with a least count of 1 mm and a vernier scale with 10
divisions. If the 5th division of the vernier scale aligns with a main scale reading after the 20 mm mark,
what is the precise measurement?

(a) 20.50 mm
(b) 20.05 mm

(c) 20.25 mm

(d) 20.15 mm

Ans. a

Q55. A cylindrical rod made of a material with Poisson's ratio v -0.3 is stretched such that its length
increases by 5ts. If the diameter of the rod was initially 10 mm, what is the new diameter of the rod
after stretching?

(a) 9.85 mm

(b) 9.55 mm

(c) 10.00 mm

(d) 10.15 mm

Ans.

Q56. In the context of cement concrete, what is the primary purpose of adding aggregates?

(a) To decrease the setting time of concrete.

(b) To enhance the compressive strength and durability of concrete.

(c) To improve the color and texture of the finished surface.

(d) To increase the thermal expansion of concrete

Ans. b

Q57. What is the primary goal of the 'BharatNet’ project in the context of e-Governance in India?

(a) To establish a nationwide broadband network

(b) To provide digital literacy to rural citizens

(c) To digitize government records

(d) To promote online financial transactions such as UPI

Ans. a
Q58. In the design of mechanical components for dynamic loading, which expression correctly
represents Goodman line for assessing fatigue failure?

Where Kf = Fatigue stress concentration factor

𝑆𝑒 = modified endurance limit

𝑆𝑦𝑡 = Yield strength

𝑆𝑢𝑡 = Ultimate strength in tension

𝜎𝑚 = Mean stress

𝜎𝑎 = alternating stress
𝐾𝑓 𝑛𝑠 𝜎𝑎 𝑛𝑠 𝜎𝑚 2
(a) 𝑆𝑒
+( 𝑆𝑢𝑡
) =1

𝐾𝑓 𝜎𝑎 𝜎 𝜎𝑚
(b) 𝑆𝑒
+ 𝑆𝑚 = 𝑛𝑠
𝑦𝑡

𝐾𝑓𝜎𝑎 𝑛𝑠 𝜎𝑚 2 1
(c) 𝑆𝑒
+( 𝑆𝑢𝑡
) =
𝑛 𝑠

𝐾𝑓 𝜎𝑎 𝜎 1
(d) 𝑆𝑒
+ 𝑆𝑚 = 𝑛
𝑢𝑡 𝑠

Ans. d

Q59. On an S-N diagram, what does a flatter slope in the high-cycle fatigue region (beyond 10^3
cycles) typically indicate about a material's fatigue behavior?

(a) Greater resistance to fatigue failure

(b) Higher sensitivity to stress concentrations

(c) Lower endurance limit

(d) Increased impact of environmental factors on fatigue strength

Ans. a
Q60. In a compression test conducted on a concrete specimen using a Universal Testing Machine, if
the specimen fails at a load of 300 KN and the cross-sectional area of the specimen is 150 cm², what is
the compressive strength of the concrete?

(a) 200 kPa

(b) 20 MPa

(c) 2000 kPa

(d) 2 MPa

Ans. b

Q61. When using steam tables to determine the properties of superheated steam at a given pressure
and temperature, which of the following is a correct approach

(a) Use the saturated steam tables and adjust for superheat.

(b) Interpolate between two temperatures at constant pressure.

(c) Interpolate between two pressures at constant temperature.

(d) Directly read the values without any interpolation.

Ans. b

Q62. In a linear programming problem, the feasible region:

(a) is the set of all solutions that satisfy the constraint equations but not necessarily the non-negativity
restrictions.

(b) consists of only the boundary lines formed by the constraints.

(c) is defined by the intersection of all the constraint inequalities and the non-negativity restrictions.

(d) represents all possible values that satisfy the objective function.

Ans. c

Q63. A typical stress-strain curve for a ductile material shows regions of elastic and plastic
deformation. At a certain point on the curve, the material exhibits maximum stress before necking
occurs. This point is known as:

(a) Fracture point

(b) Proportional limit

(c) Yield point

(d) Ultimate tensile strength

Q64. In aggregate production planning, which strategy is most effective for a manufacturing company
facing highly variable demand while aiming to minimize changes in workforce levels?

(a) Implementing a Just-In-Time (JIT) production system.

(b) Maintaining a constant production rate and using inventory to absorb fluctuations in demand.

(c) Providing the service or product at an earlier time period.

(d) Frequently adjusting production rates to match demand and hiring temporary staff as needed.

Ans. b

Q65. Implementing the 5S methodology in a manufacturing setting primarily helps in:

(a) Optimizing the supply chain and logistics.

(b) Enhancing employee skills and capabilities.

(c) Reducing lead time for product development.

(d) Improving workplace organization and efficiency

Ans. d
Q66. According to Euler's theory, for a column with both ends pinned (hinged), if the length of the
column is doubled and all other factors remain constant, how does the critical buckling load change?

(a) It increases by a factor of two

(b) It decreases by a factor of four

(c) It decreases by a factor of sixteen

(d) It remains unchanged

Ans. b

Q67. In a Michelson interferometer, if the wavelength of the light source is halved, how does this
affect the resolution of the system?

(a) The resolution is quadrupled.

(b) The resolution remains unchanged.

(c) The resolution is doubled.

(d) The resolution is halved

Ans. c

Q68. Ultrasonic Machining (USM) is particularly effective for machining which type of materials?

(a) Soft, ductile materials

(b) Thermoplastics and polymers

(c) Hard and brittle materials such as ceramics

(d) High-strength ferrous metals

Ans. c

Q69. Consider a multi-stage air compressor operating under ideal conditions. If each stage of the
compressor is designed to have the same pressure ratio, which of the following statements is true
regarding the overall efficiency of the compressor?

(a) The efficiency first increases and then decreases with the number of stages.

(b) The number of stages has no impact on the efficiency.

(c) The efficiency decreases as the number of stages increases.

(d) The efficiency increases as the number of stages increases.

Ans. d

Q70. In a gyroscope, if the spin speed is doubled while keeping the mass and radius of the gyroscope
wheel constant, what is the effect on the gyroscopic couple assuming no external forces are acting?
(a) The gyroscopic couple is quadrupled
(b) The gyroscopic couple is halved

(c) The gyroscopic couple is doubled

(d) The gyroscopic couple remains the same

Ans. a

Q71. Which material is most suitable for making a cutting tool used in high-speed machining of
superalloys?

(a) High-Speed Steel

(b) Polycrystalline Diamond

(c) Cubic Boron Nitride

(d) Cemented Carbide

Ans. c

Q72. A cylindrical steel rod subjected to a tensile stress of 300 MPa has a yield strength in tension of
400 MPs and in compression of 350 MPa. According to the Maximum Shear Stress Theory (Tresca's
Criterion), at what stress level will the rod begin to yield?

(a) 400 MPa

(b) 300 MPa

(c) 380 MPa

(d) 190 MPa

Ans. c

Q73. A model airplane is being tested in a wind tunnel to study in aerodynamic properties. If the
airplane's speed (V), wing area (A), air density (𝝆), and the coefficient of drag (Cave known, which of
the following combinations would correctly yield the drug force (Fd) acting on the airplane sing
dimensional analysis?

(a) 𝑭𝒅 = 𝑪𝒅 × 𝟐𝝆 × 𝑽𝟐 × 𝑨
𝟏
(b) 𝑭𝒅 = 𝟐 × 𝑪𝒅 × 𝝆 × 𝑽𝟐 × 𝑨
𝟏 𝝆
(c) 𝑭𝒅 = 𝟐 × 𝑪𝒅 × 𝑽 × 𝑨
𝑽
(d) 𝑭𝒅 = 𝑪𝒅 × 𝝆 × 𝑨

Ans. b

Q74. In a one-dimensional steady-state heat conduction scenario, a rod of length L. with thermal
conductivity k experiences a temperature drop from 7, to 7, along its length. If the length of the rod is
doubled and all other conditions remain unchanged, the new temperature gradient in the rod will be:
(a) halved.

(b) quadrupled.

(c) unchanged.

(d) Doubled

Ans.

Q75. In surface grinding machines, which factor most significantly affects the surface finish of the
workpiece?

(a) The hardness of the grinding wheel

(b) The grain size of the grinding wheel

(c) The speed of the grinding wheel

(d) The material of the workpiece

Ans. b

Q76. A single degree of freedom system with a damping ratio of 0.05 is subjected to forced vibration
at a frequency that is 1.5 times its natural frequency. If the system's natural frequency is 10 Hz. what
is the frequency of the forced vibration?

(a) 10 Hz

(b) 25 Hz

(c) 20 Hz

(d) 15 Hz

Ans. d

Q77. A long, straight fin with uniform cross-sectional area operates in a steady-state condition. If the
thermal conductivity of the fin material increases, what is the impact on the fin's efficiency?

(a) The efficiency remains unchanged

(b) The efficiency decreases

(c) The efficiency first increases and then decreases

(d) The efficiency increases

Ans. d

Q78. For an MM/1 queuing system with an arrival rate of 6 customers per hour and a service rate of
10 customers per hour, what is the average number of customers in the system (L)?
(a) 2.4 customers

(b) 1.5 customers

(c) 3.0 customers

(d) 0.6 customers

Ans. b

Q79. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, the work done by the gas is given by:
𝑃1 𝑉1−𝑃2 𝑉2
(a) 𝑊 = 𝛾−1

1
(b) 𝑊 = 2 𝑚(𝑣22 − 𝑣12 )

𝑉
(c) 𝑊 = 𝑛𝑅𝑇 ln (𝑉2)
1

(d) 𝑊 = 𝑃(𝑉2 − 𝑉1 )

Ans. c

Q80. In a synchronous machine, when the load angle o is zero, what is the condition of the machine?

(a) The machine is operating at unity power factor.

(b) The machine is in a state of instability.

(c) The machine is not delivering any real power.

(d) The machine is generating maximum power.

Ans. c

Q81. in the context of grinding wheels, how does the grain size of the abrasive material affect the
surface finish and material removal rate (MRR) of the machining process?

(a) Coarser grain size results in a better surface finish and higher MRR.

(b) Finer grain size results in a better surface finish and higher MRR.

(c) Finer grain size results in a better surface finish but lower MRR.

(d) Coarser grain size results in a lower surface finish and lower MRR.

Ans. c

Q82. A mechanical system exhibits critical damping. Which of the following best describes the time it
takes for the system to return to equilibrium after being displaced?

(a) Longer than an undamped system but with oscillations

(b) Instantaneous
(c) Shortest possible time without oscillating

(d) Time is equal to that of an undamped system

Ans. c

Q83. In a statically determinate planar frame, if one of the horizontal members is removed, how will it
affect the structure's stability?

(a) The change will not affect the structure's stability.

(b) The structure will remain stable but more flexible.

(c) The structure will become more rigid.

(d) The structure will become unstable.

Ans. d

Q84. Two streams of moist air, Stream A and Stream B, are mixed. Stream A has a dry-bulb
temperature of 30°C and a relative humidity of 60%, and Stream B has a dry-bulb temperature of 20°C
and a relative humidity of 50%. Assuming no heat loss to the surroundings and a perfectly mixed final
state, which of the following outcomes is most likely for the mixture?

(a) Dry-bulb temperature higher than 30°C, relative humidity lower than both streams

(b) Dry-bulb temperature between 20°C and 30°C, relative humidity higher than both streams

(c) Dry-bulb temperature between 20°C and 30°C, relative humidity higher than both streams

(d) Dry-bulb temperature between 20°C and 30°C, relative humidity lower than both streams

Ans. c

Q85. Which of the following lost-core molding process is popularized by "The Ashland process" uses
thermosetting hybrid system of phenolic resin and polyurethane as the binder?

(a) Cold box

(b) No-bake

(c) Hot box

(d) Shell molding

Ans. a