03-04-2025

1016CMD303031240055 MD

CHEMISTRY

1) Which oxide of manganese is most acidic in nature?

(1) MnO
(2) Mn2O7
(3) Mn2O3
(4) MnO2

2) Which of the following actinoid show oxidation states upto +7?

(i) Am (ii) Pu
(iii) U (iv) Np

(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iv
(3) iii and iv
(4) i and iii

3) How many statement are wrong ?

A : Cr+3 is violet in colour in aqueous solution .
B: is strong oxidising agent
C : The no. of unpaired e– in Fe2+ is 4.
D : Zn2+ is colourless.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 2

4) Which of the following sentence is not suitable for the capacity of transition metal to form
complex compounds ?

(1) Transition metal ions are small in size.

(2) Nuclear charge of transtion metal ion in comparatively more.
(3) Co-ordination and covalent bond is non directional.
(4) Transition metal ions possesses variable oxidation states.

5) What is the difference in atomic radii of two metallic transition elements to prepare alloys ?

(1) 20%
(2) more than 15%
(3) less than 15%
(4) 24.5%

6) Which of the following species is not obtained when KMnO4 is decomposed at 513 K ?

(1) K2MnO4
(2) O2
(3) MnO
(4) MnO2

7) Assertion (A): Ti+3 salts are coloured

Reason (R): d-d transition is possible from d1-d9 configuration

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

8) [Fe(H2O)6]+2 and [Fe(CN)6]–4 differs in :-

(1) Geometry, magnetic moment

(2) Magnetic moment, charge on central metal atom
(3) Geometry, hybridisation
(4) Hybridisation, No. of unpaired 'e'

9) Ammonia forms the complex [Cu(NH3)4]2+ with Cu ion in alkaline sol. but not in acidic sol. the
reason for this is :-

(1) In alkaline sol. Cu(OH)2 is ppt. which is soluble in excess of alkali

(2) Copper hydroxide is amphoteric substance.
(3) In acidic sol. hydration protects Cu2+ ions.
⊕
(4) In acidic sol. protons are co-ordinated with NH3 molecules forming NH4 ions

10) Incorrect match is :

–
(1) Al2Cl6 : Dimerisation takes place through 3C – 2e bond
(2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 : Prussian Blue
(3) Na2S2O3 : Removes undecomposed silver halide from photographic plate
(4) Zeise's salt : π-donor ligand is C2H4

11) Consider the following complexes-

(1) Trans - [Co(NH3)4 Cl2]+
(2) Cis - [Co(NH3)2 (en)2]+3
(3) Trans - [Co(NH3)2 (en)2]+3
(4)
(5)
(6)
Choose the correct code ?

(1) 1, 2 are optically active and 3 is optically inactive.

(2) 2 is optically active and 1, 3 are optically inactive.
(3) 4, 5 are coloured and 6 is colourless.
(4) 4 is coloured and 5, 6 are colourless.

12) Which of the following species show linkage and ionisation isomer but not show geometrical
isomer :

(1) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2
(2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Br2
(3) [Co(NH3)4(CN)2]Cl
(4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]

13) Assertion : In the group 2 reagent, the function of HCl is to decrease the concentration of S–2
ions.
Reason : This decrease in the concentration of S–2 is due to odd ion effect of H+

(1) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct for the Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not correct for the Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion and Reason are incorrect

14) Which of the following conversion is incorrect :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Match the List-I with List-II

List-I (Cation) List-II (Group reagent)

A. Cu+2 i. H2S + HCl

B. Al+3, Fe+3 ii. (NH4)2CO3 + NH4OH

C. Co+2, Ni+2 iii. NH4OH + NH4Cl

D. Ba+2, Ca+2 iv. H2S + NH4OH

Correct match is.
(1) A–iv; B–ii; C–iii; D–i
(2) A–i; B–iii; C–iv; D–ii
(3) A–iii; B–i; C–iv; D–ii
(4) A–i; B–iii; C–ii; D–iv

16) When a violet layer is obtained first in layer test then which statement is correct.

(1) I– confirmed
(2) Br– May or may not be present
(3) I–, Br– present
(4) Both (1) and (2)

17) Statements regarding 16 group elements are given below :-

(I) Reducing property of dioxide increases from SO2 to TeO2.
(II) Acidic nature increases from SO3 to TeO3.
(III) Stability of halides decreases in the order
(IV) Amongst tetrafluorides SF4 is gas, SeF4 is liquid and TeF4 is solid.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) I, II and III only

(2) I, II, III and IV
(3) III and IV only
(4) I, II and IV only

18) Assertion : Pb+4 compounds are stronger oxidizing agents than Sn4+ compounds
Reason : The higher oxidation states for the group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier
members of the group due to 'inert pair effect'.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

19) The ease of liquification of noble gases decreases in the order :-

(1) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He

(2) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
(3) Xe > Ar > Kr > Ne > He
(4) Xe > He > Kr > Ar > Ne

20)

Which of the following order is correct :-

(1) H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3PO2 → Reducing Power

(2) H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3PO2 → Acidic strength
(3) HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4 → Acidic strength
(4) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3 → Extent of hydrolysis
21) Which complex is inner orbital complex ?

+2
(1) [Ni(NH3)6]
–2
(2) [Mn(CN)6]
–3
(3) [FeF6]
+2
(4) [Co(H2O)6]

22) The magnitude of CFSE (Δ0) is related to configuration of d-orbital in the given coordination
entity ? because : (P = Pairing energy)

(1) If Δ0 < P, confi. = = WFL & high spin complex

(2) If Δ0 > P, confi. = = SFL & Low spin complex

(3) If Δ0 > P, confi. = = SFL & high spin complex

(4) If Δ0 > P, confi. = = SFL & high spin complex

23)
The reactant 'A' is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The product obtained when ethyl alcohol is distilled with bleaching powder is :-

(1) Chloroform
(2) Ethyl chloride
(3) Acetaldehyde
(4) Chloral

25) Reactivity order towards reaction is :-

(I) CH2–Br (II) CH2 = CH – CH2–Br

(III) (IV) Br

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > I > III > IV
(3) II > I > IV > III
(4) I > II > IV > III

26) Which reaction is not correct :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Assertion (A) : Melting point of p-dichlorobenzene is more than that of ortho and meta isomers.
Reason (R) : Para-isomer is more symmetric so that fits in crystal lattice better as compared to
ortho and meta.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

28) Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally introduces
which one of the following functional group?

(1) –CHCl2
(2) –CHO
(3) –CH2Cl
(4) –COOH

29) B is ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) CH4

30) Which of the following reaction will produce ether as major product?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31)
Which is correct about Y :-

(1) It gives fehling solution test

(2) It gives tollen's test
(3) It gives 2, 4-D.N.P test
(4) It does not give Iodoform test

32) Identify R in the following sequence of reaction –

(1) Benzoic acid

(2) Phenyl acetic acid
(3) Benzyl alcohol
(4) Benzamide

33) Which of the following amine can be prepared by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis ?

(1) Dimethyl Amine

(2) Aniline
(3) Ethyl amine
(4) Trimethyl amine

34)

Which is wrongly match

Distinguish
Pair
Reagent

Methyl Alcohol and Ethyl

1 I2 + Base
Alcohol

2 Fehling Solution
and CH3CHO

3 Phenol and Carboxylic Acid NaHCO3

Propan-1-amine and propan-2-

4 Hinsberg reagent
amine
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) In the following reaction the reason why meta-nitro product also formed is :

(1) low temperature

(2) –NH2 group is highly meta-directive
(3) Formation of anilinium ion
(4) –NO2 substitution always takes place at meta-position

36) Which of the following is not formed when mixture of ethanal and propanal is treated with dil
NaOH followed by heating ?

(1) CH3–CH=CH–CHO

(2)

(3)
(4)

37)

Sugar that does not react with tollen's reagent -

(1) Lactose
(2) Maltose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Fructose

38) Arrange the following carbonyl compounds in decreasing order of their reactivity towards

nucleophilic addition reaction.

(1) ii > iii > i > iv

(2) ii > i > iv > iii
(3) iii > ii > i > iv
(4) iii > i > iv > ii

39) Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar:-

(a)

(b)

(c)
(d)

(1) a, b, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) b, c
(4) c, d

40) Nitrogen can be estimated by Kjeldahl's method for which of the following compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) In carius method for estimation of halogen 0.8 g of an organic compound gave 0.94 g of AgBr.
The percentage of Bromine present in the organic compound is (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u and Br =
80 u)

(1) 45.00
(2) 50.00
(3) 55.00
(4) 60.00

42) Chromatography paper is used in :

(1) Adsorption chromatography

(2) Column chromatography
(3) Thin layer chromatography
(4) Partition chromatography

43) A sample of 0.50 g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldhal's method, the
ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 mL of 0.5 M H2SO4, the residual acid required 60 mL of 0.5 M
solution of NaOH for neutralisation what is the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.

(1) 56.0
(2) 70.0
(3) 52.0
(4) 46.5

44) Starting from propanoic acid the following reactions were carried out as following

Product [Z] will be?

(1) CH3–CH2–Br
(2) CH3–CH2–NH2
(3) CH3–CH2–COBr
(4) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2

45) Consider the following compounds :

The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is :

(1) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)

(2) (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)
(3) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(4) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)

PHYSICS

1) A coil of magnetic dipole moment M and moment of inertia I is kept such that its dipole moment is
perpendicular to magnetic field B. Find out the maximum angular speed of coil, when it is released.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

2) Calculate the torque acting upon the following structure carrying current I due to the magnetic
field B. Both the magnetic field and structure are in the plane of the paper as shown.

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4) 5πR2IB

3) A charged particle of mass m is moving with a speed u in a circle of radius r. If the magnetic field
induction at the center is B, the charge on the particle is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A beam of proton is moving horizontally towards you. As it approaches it passes through a

magnetic field directed downwards. The beam deflects-

(1) To your left side

(2) To your right side
(3) Does not deflect
(4) Nothing can be said

5) Keeping current constant, the variation of magnetic field (B) at the center of arc with the angle
(θ) subtended by the arc at the center can be best represented by-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A current carrying wire AB of the length 2πR is turned along a circle as shown in figure. The

magnetic field at O.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(2π–θ)

(4)
(2π–θ)

7) A long solenoid carrying a current produces magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is
doubled and the number of turns per meter is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is-

(1) B
(2) 2B
(3) 4B
(4) B/2
8) A charge particle having charge q, accelerated through a potential difference V, enters a
perpendicular magnetic field in which it experience a force F. If V is increased to 5V, the particle
will experience a force :-

(1) F
(2) 5F

(3)

(4)

9) The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying current I is M and magnetic field at its centre is B1.
When dipole moment is doubled by keeping current constant, the magnetic field at the centre of loop

is B2. The ratio of is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) 2

10) A battery is connected between two points A and B on the circumference of a uniform
conducting ring of radius r and resistance R. One of the arc subtends an angle θ at the center, then

value of magnetic field at center due to ring is :-

(1) Zero, if θ = 180°

(2) Zero for all values of θ
(3) Proportional to 2(180° – θ)
(4) Inversely proportional to r

11) Current in a purely inductive AC circuit is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

12) In LCR circuit, find reading of AC voltmeter and ammeter.

(1) 200 V, 1 A
(2) 200 V, 2 A
(3) 100 V, 1 A
(4) 100 V, 2 A

13) A Ω resistor and a 500 μF capacitor are connected in series to an AC source of 250 V / 50 Hz.
Find the peak value of current flow in the circuit.

(1)

(2) 12.5 A
(3) 12.5 πA
(4) Zero

14) The figure shows variation of R, XL and XC with frequency f in a series L,C,R circuit. Then, for

what frequency point, the circuit is inductive ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All points

15) We have two statements for choke coil.

Statement-I :- A choke coil is preferred to a rheostat in AC circuit.
Statement-II :- Choke coil consumes almost zero power.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

16) Determine the magnetic flux associated with the rectangular loop placed in the magnetic field of

a current carrying infinite wire.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The deflection in galvanometer will be-

(1) Towards right

(2) Towards left
(3) Zero
(4) unpredictable

18) The magnetic flux linked with an area enclosed by a wire loop, varies with time as follows- ϕB =
(t2 – 5t + 6) Weber What will be the ratio of the induced emf at t = 2 second to the induced emf in
first 2 seconds in the loop.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

19) A rod of length ℓ moves in magnetic field. Then-

(1) The end 1 is positive.

(2) Electric field inside rod in non zero.
(3) The emf induced in rod is BVℓ.
(4) All.

20) A metallic rod of length ℓ is hinged at the point M and rotating about an axis, passing through
that point and perpendicular to the plane of paper, with angular velocity ω. A magnetic field B is
acting in the region parallel to plane of paper. The potential difference between point M and N :-

(1) Is always zero

(2)
Varies between 0 to Bωℓ2

(3)
Is always Bωℓ2
(4) Is always Bωℓ2

21) Find the current through the 5 mH inductor in steady state.

(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 3 A
(4) 4 A

22) A parallel plate capacitor is being charged by a battery as shown in the figure. If two circular
amperian loop x and y are drawn, then will be zero along :-

(1) x only
(2) y only
(3) Both x and y
(4) Neither x, nor y

23) EM wave can't transport :-

(1) Momentum
(2) Energy
(3) Charge
(4) Both (1) & (2)

24) Find voltage across RL in given circuit :-

(1) 1.8 volt

(2) 3.6 volt
(3) 4.2 volt
(4) 5.4 volt

25) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

Intrinsic
(a) (p) ne >> nh
semiconductor

p-type
(b) (q) ne = nh
semiconductor

n-type
(c) (r) nh >> ne
semiconductor
(1) a-q, b-p, c-r
(2) a-p, b-q, c-r
(3) a-q, b-r, c-p
(4) a-r, b-p, c-q
26) In the given circuit, power developed in 1 kΩ resistor is :-

(1) 36 mW
(2) 12 mW
(3) 144 mW
(4) 64 mW

27) In filter used in rectifier :-

(a) Capacitor is connected in parallel to load resistance
(b) Capacitor is connected in series of load resistance
(c) Inductor is connected in series of load resistance
(d) Inductor is connected in parallel of load resistance

(1) a, c
(2) a, d
(3) b, c
(4) b, d

28) The reading of ammeter in the following circuit is

(1) Zero
(2) 1 mA
(3) 4 mA
(4) 3 mA

29) In the given circuit, each diode has a forward bias resistance of 30Ω and infinite resistance in

reverse bias, then current I will be :-

(1) 37.5 mA
(2) 23.5 mA
(3) 20 mA
(4) 27.5 mA
30) Given combination of logic gates is equivalent to logic gate :-

(1) OR
(2) AND
(3) NOR
(4) NAND

31) Statement-1 : A concave mirror always produces a virtual image independent of the location of
the object.
Statement-2 : An object placed between the pole and focus of concave mirror produces a virtual
and enlarged image.

(1) Statement-1 is right and statement-2 wrong.

(2) Statemnent-1 is wrong and statement-2 right.
(3) Statement-1 is right and statement-2 right.
(4) Both are wrong

32) A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane perpendicular to the
principal axis. If the power of the original lens is 4D, then the power of a cut lens will be :-

(1) 2D
(2) 3D
(3) 4D
(4) 5D

33) The magnifying power of a microscope with an objective of 5 mm focal length is approximately
400. The length of its tube is 20 cm. Then, the focal length of the eye-piece in normal adjustment is :-

(1) 200 cm
(2) 160 cm
(3) 2.5 cm
(4) 0.1 cm

34)

A light ray incident normally on one face of an equilateral prism and emerges out grazingly at the
other face. The refractive index of the prism is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)
35) For a spherical mirror, the parallax is removed when the object is at 15 cm from mirror and the
image coincides with the reference pin at 10 cm. Find the focal length of the mirror :-

(1) –3 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) –6 cm

36) If YDSE experiment is performed in water instead of air, then -

(1) fringe pattern is formed but fringe width is less.

(2) fringe pattern is formed but fringe width is more.
(3) fringe pattern is formed and its fringe width remains unchanged.
(4) fringe pattern is not formed at all.

37) If two coherent light waves produce minima of fifth order, the path difference between the
waves is

(1) 5λ
(2) 5λ/2
(3) 7λ/2
(4) 9λ/2

38) If in Young's double slit experiment, the distance between the slits is halved and the distance
between slit and screen is doubled, then the fringe width will become -

(1) half
(2) double
(3) four times
(4) unchanged

39) A polariser and an analyser are inclined to each other at 45°. The intensity of polarised light
emerging from the analyser is I. The intensity of unpolarized light incident on the polariser is -

(1)

(2) 2I
(3) 4I
(4) I

40) Assertion (A) : The de-Broglie wavelength of a molecule varies inversely as the square root of
temperature.
Reason (R) : The root mean square velocity of the molecule depends on the square root of
temperature.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

41) Monochromatic light of frequency 2.5 × 1014 Hz is produced by laser. The power emitted is 3.315
mW. The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source will be
(approximately):-

(1) 5 × 1015
(2) 2 × 1016
(3) 5 × 1017
(4) 2 × 1014

42) If proton and alpha particles are accelerated in a uniform electric field from rest, then find ratio
of their de-broglie wavelengths, at time t :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) An electron of mass m and charge e, having initial velocity v = v0 , enters into a uniform electric
field E = –E0 at t = 0. Find the time after which its de-broglie wavelength becomes half of initial.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

44) What is value of frequency at point A ?

(1) 5 × 1014 Hz
(2) 1015 Hz
(3) 5 × 1016 Hz
(4) 1016 Hz

45) Radiation of wavelength 1000Å falls on a photo sensitive surface having work function 2.4 eV.
The stopping potential is :-

(1) 1 V
(2) 2.4 V
(3) 10 V
(4) 12.4 V

BIOLOGY

1)

Which of the following are correct regarding linked genes ?

(I) are located near each other on the same chromosome
(II) Violate the law of independent assortment
(III) Segregate together during meiosis

(1) Only I and II

(2) Only I and III
(3) Only II and III
(4) I, II, III

2) Find the incorrect statement :

(1) DNA replication takes place in S-phase of the cell cycle of eukaryotes.
(2) Semi-conservative method of DNA replication was first proposed by Watson & Crick.
(3) DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified by Franklins.
(4) DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides.

3) Match the Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

Provide the template

A. i. Capping
during translation

Unusual nucleotide
B. is added to the ii. Splicing
5' end of hnRNA

Adenylate residues
C. iii. m-RNA
are added at 3'-end

Introns are removed

D. and exons are joined iv. r-RNA
in a defined order

Play structural and

E. catalytic role during v. Tailing
translation
 A B C D E

(1) i ii iii iv v

(2) v iv ii i iii

(3) iii i v ii iv

(4) ii iii iv v i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Match the Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(A) Dominant character (I) Green seed colour

(B) Recessive character (II) Round seed shape

(III) Yellow seed colour

(IV) Wrinkled seed shape

(1) A-I,II ; B-III,IV
(2) A-I,IV ; B-II,III
(3) A-II,III ; B-I,IV
(4) A-III,IV ; B-I,II

5) Select the correct option :

Statement-I : The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has sugar polymers that protrude from
its surface and the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene I.
Statement-II : The gene (I) has three allele IA, IB and i.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II are correct.

6) Assertion (A) : Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation.

Reason (R) : The repressor binds to operator region and prevents RNA polymerase from
transcribing the operon.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

7) Okazaki fragments are synthesized on

(1) Leading strand, towards fork
(2) Lagging strand, towards fork
(3) Leading strand, away from fork
(4) Lagging strand, away from fork

8) Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types of amino acid, it is called.

(1) Wobbling of codon

(2) Overlapping of gene
(3) Universal codons
(4) Degeneracy of genetic code

9) RNA can act as a

I. Genetic material
II. Messenger
III. Adapter
IV. Structural
V. Catalyst

(1) I, II, III

(2) III, IV, V
(3) I, II, III, IV, V
(4) I, II, V

10) Which one of the following is better for transmission of genetic information ?

(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) Protein
(4) Lipid

11) The process in which amino acid linked to their cognate t-RNA is known as :-

(1) Methylation of t-RNA

(2) Formylation of t-RNA
(3) Deamination of t-RNA
(4) Aminoacylation of t-RNA

12) Which of the following is an optional step in the process of DNA fingerprinting ?

(1) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease

(2) Polymerase chain reaction
(3) Southern blotting
(4) Gel electrophoresis

13) What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following strand of DNA ?
5'ATGCCGTACGGACTG3' Coding strand
3'TACGGCATGCCTGAC5' Template strand

(1) 5'AUGCCGUACGGACUG3'
(2) 5'ATGCCGTACGGACTG3'
(3) 3'AUGCCGUACGGACUG5'
(4) 3'UACGGCAUGCCUGAC5'

14) Choose the polypeptide chain which is responsible for sickle cell RBC.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

Which of the following statements are correct in context of polycistronic mRNA?

(a) Codes for more than one polypeptide
(b) Commonly found in eukaryotes

(c) More than one stop codons are present (d) More than one ribosomes may be attached to such
mRNA at same time.
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, d

16) Drosophila melanogaster has types of hereditary variations that can be seen with power
microscopes.
Choose correct option for a and b?

(1) a – many ; b – high

(2) a – many ; b – low
(3) a – few ; b – high
(4) a – few ; b – low

17) Mendel conducted ___A___ experiment using several ___B___ pea lines.
Fill in the blank with correct option :

(1) A-Self pollination, B-True breeding

(2) A-Cross pollination, B-Hybrid varieties
(3) A-Self pollination, B-Hybrid varieties
(4) A-Cross pollination, B-True breeding

18) In a plant, red fruit (R) dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over dwarfness
(t). If a plant with genotype "RRTT" is crossed with a plant that is rrtt. Then :-

(1) 25% will be tall with red fruit

(2) 50% will be tall with red fruit
(3) 75% will be tall with red fruit
(4) All of the offspring will be tall with red fruits.

19) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were sex-linked.
(2) The genes for eye colour & body colour in drosophila were located on the Y chromosome.
When the two genes in a dihybrid cross were situated on the same chromosome, the proportion
(3)
of parental gene combinations were much higher than the non-parental type.
Today genetic maps are extensively used as a starting point in the sequencing of whole
(4)
genomes.

20) Two pink flowered dog flower plants were crossed. What type of phenotype is expected in
progeny ?

(1) Only red flowered plants

(2) Only pink flowered plants
(3) Red flowered as well as pink flowered plant
(4) Red, pink as well as white flowered plant

21) From the symptoms given below identify the genetic disorder?
Short stature, Round head, furrowed tongue, Palm is broad with characteristic palm crease.

(1) Down's syndrome

(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Turner's syndrome
(4) None

22) Choose the correct statements :

A. Dominance is an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for (in case
of more than one phenotype is influenced by same gene).
B. Human skin colour is classic example of polygenic inheritance.
C. Henking discovered X-body
D. Regulation of Lac operon may be negative or positive.
E. Human genome is said to have approximately 6.6 ×109 bp.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, C and D only

(2) B, C and D only
(3) A and E only
(4) B and D only

23) Which of the following organism is known for production of blood cholesterol lowering Agent ?

(1) Trichoderm polysporus

(2) Aspergillus niger
(3) Monascus purpureus
(4) Lactobacillus

24) How many of the statements are incorrect ?

(i) LAB play very beneficial role in checking diseases causing microbe.
(ii) Streptokinase produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus is used as a blood cholesterol lowering
agents.
(iii) BOD is measure of inorganic matter present in the water.
(iv) The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly by the efforts of IARI and
KVIC.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

25) Identify A and B in these statements :-

____A_____ species are free living fungi that are very common in the root ecosystem.
____B_____ are autotrophic microbes widely distributed in aquatic and terrestrial environment many
of which can fix atmospheric nitrogen.

(1) A - Trichoderma, B - Cyanobacteria

(2) A - Cyanobacteria, B - Trichoderma
(3) A - Bacillus, B - Trichoderma
(4) A - Lady bird, B - Cyanobacteria

26) Assertion (A) : Leech on cattle, ticks on dogs, copepods on marine fish and lice on human are
examples of ectoparasite.
Reason (R) : Ectoparasite lives on the body of host.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct

27) A sparrow eating any seed is no less a................... .

(1) Predator
(2) Parasite
(3) Competitor
(4) Amensal
28) Given below are two statements:
Statement – I : The wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable egg laying
sites.
Statement – II : In return for the favour of pollination the fig offers the wasp some of its developing
seeds as food for the developing wasp larvae.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answers from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true

29) (1) In general, A appear to be more adversely affected by competition than B

(2) The relationship between herbivores & plants is C .

A B C

Herbivores
(1) Carnivores Competition
& Plants

Herbivores
(2) Carnivores Predation
& Plants

Herbivores
(3) Carnivores Predation
& Plants

Herbivores
(4) Carnivores Competition
& Plants
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) Which of the following statement is correct about commensalism ?

(1) It is a type of negative interaction.

(2) Clown fish and sea anemone show this interaction.
(3) In this both organisms are benefited.
(4) Cuscuta and hedge plant show this interaction

31) Choose the incorrect statement :-

Population ecology is an important area of ecology because it links ecology to population

(1)
genetics and evolution.
(2) A population has certain attributes whereas, an individual organism does not.
(3) Individual has birth rate and death rate.
(4) Sex ratio is characteristic of a population.

32) Verhulst - Pearl logistic growth equation is expressed by -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) log S = Z log A + log C

33) Which of the following contribute to increase in population density?

(i) Natality (ii) Immigration
(iii) Mortality (iv) Emigration

(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) iii and iv
(4) iv and i

34) Detritus food chain consist of.................which are ...............?

(1) Saprotrophs; Autotrophic Organism

(2) Herbivores; Primary Consumers
(3) Decomposers; Heterotrophic Organisms
(4) Producers; Chemoautotrophic Organisms

35) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately.

(1) 150 billion tons

(2) 155 billion tons
(3) 55 billion tons
(4) 170 billion tons

36) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Plants capture only 2-10 percent of the photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)
(2) Ecosystems are exempted from the second law of thermodynamics.
(3) Only 10 percent of the energy is transferred from one trophic level to next trophic level.
(4) There is a unidirectional flow of energy from the sun to producers and then to consumers.

37) The number of trophic level in the grazing food chain is restricted as the transfer of energy
follows :-

(1) PAR (2 - 10%)

(2) First law of thermodynamics
(3) 10% Law
(4) Gause's principle

38) Which of the following biotic component of ecosystem are also known as secondary producers ?
(1) Phytoplanktons
(2) Zooplanktons
(3) Higher plants
(4) Cyanobacteria

39)

Match list-I with list-II

List-I List-II

A Primary consumers i Top carnivore

B Tertiary consumers ii Herbivore

C Producers iii Carnivore

D Secondary consumers iv Plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

40) When we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem and its biodiversity at all levels is called :

(1) Ex-situ conservation

(2) High Endemism
(3) In-situ conservation
(4) Sacred groves

41) Match column–I with column–II with respect to rivet popper hypothesis and choose the most
appropriate match.

Column–I Column–II

(i) Airplane (a) Key-stone species

(ii) Rivets (b) Ecosystem

(iii) Rivets on wings (c) Species

(1) (i)–(a); (ii)–(b), (iii)–(c)
(2) (i)–(c); (ii)–(b), (iii)–(a)
(3) (i)–(b); (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a)
(4) (i)–(b); (ii)–(a), (iii)–(c)

42) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
 (A) Alexander Von humboldt (i) Diversity-productivity

(B) Robert May (ii) Rivet-popper hypothesis

(C) Paul Ehrlich (iii) Species-Area relationship

(D) David Tilman (iv) Global species diversity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

43) When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an obligatory
way will also :-

(1) Increased in number

(2) Become extinct
(3) Decreased in number
(4) Remains unaffected

44) Which one of the following is not an example of in-situ conservation ?

(1) National parks

(2) Sacred grooves
(3) Wild life sanctuaries
(4) Wild life safari parks

45) In many cultures, tract of forest were set aside and all the trees and wildlife within were
venerated and given total protection, called as-

(1) National parks

(2) Biosphere reserves
(3) Sacred grooves
(4) Wildlife sanctuaries

46) Which one of the statement is incorrect regarding genetic engineering-

Genetic engineering is a quick and reliable technique for producing GM plants but is facing
(1)
resistance from people
(2) It is facing resistance because it contains bacterial gene which may be toxic and cause allergy
The technique of genetic engineering allow us to isolate & introduce only desire genes without
(3)
introducing undesirable genes
Traditional hybridization procedure lead to inclusion of undesirable gene along with desirable
(4)
gene

47) The technique of using Live organisms or enzymes from organism to produce products and
processes useful to human is :-

(1) Bioprospecting
(2) Biotechnology
(3) Biopiracy
(4) Bioinformatics

48) Choose the correct option based on the given statements below –
Statement – I : Restriction endonuclease cuts at palindromic DNA sequence only.
Statement – II : Restriction endonuclease enzyme breaks the hydrogen bonds of sugar- phosphate
backbone of DNA.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both, statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4) Both, statement I and statement II are correct

49) Select wrong option for restriction enzyme ?

(1) It recognizes palindromic sequence

(2) It is an endonuclease
(3) It is isolated from virus
(4) It can produce sticky ends

50) Choose the suitable option for blank space –

A good cloning vector has ___________.

(1) Only one restriction site for one enzyme

(2) Many restriction sites for many enzymes
(3) Many restriction sites but only one for each enzyme
(4) One restriction site, which can be cut by multiple enzymes.

51) Match list-I with list-II

List-I List-II

Replacement of
Gene
(a) (i) mutated gene by a
gun
normal healthy gene

Gene Used for transfer

(b) (ii)
therapy of gene

Gene Total DNA in the

(c) (iii)
cloning haploid cell of organism

To obtain identical
(d) Genome (iv) copies of a particular
DNA molecule.
(1) a–i, b–iii, c–ii, d–iv
(2) a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–i
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
(4) a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv

52) X - gal a chromogenic substrate use for -

(1) Selection of Transformant from Non Transformant in pBR322 Vector.

(2) Blue white screening in which white is Recombinant and Blue is non Recombinant.
(3) Blue white screening in which white is non Recombinant.
(4) Selection of Recombinant in Ampicilin containing medium.

53) Taq DNA polymerase enzyme which is used in PCR, it-

(1) Was obtained from thermus aquaticus thermosensitive bacteria

(2) is used in annealing step of PCR
(3) show its best efficiency at 72ºC temperature
(4) More than one options are correct

54) Assertion : Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from centre of palindromic
sites.
Reason : Vector needs to have single recognition site for commonly used restriction enzyme.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but the Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

55) The given figure shows a simple stirred tank bioreactor with their parts labelled A, B and C.

Identify A, B & C :

A-Sterile air, B-Motor,

(1)
C-Steam for sterilisation
A-Culture broth, B-Motor,
(2)
C-Acid/base for pH control
A-Motor, B-Steam for sterilisation,
(3)
C-Sterile air
A-Sterile air, B-Culture broth
(4)
C-Motor
56) Identify the incorrect statements :

(1) Plants whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called genetically modified plants.
Green revolution succeeded in tripling the food supply and it was enough to feed growing
(2)
human population
(3) Genetic modification reduce reliance on chemical pesticides.
(4) GM has been used to create tailor made plants to supply alternative resource to industries.

57) Read the following statement and choose the correct option :
Statement I - All/Every strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce protein that kill certain insects.
Statement II - Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxin but once an insect ingest the inactive
toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

58) Vitamin A rich transgenic crop is -

(1) Cotton
(2) Pea
(3) Rice
(4) Tobacco

59) Adenosine deaminase deficiency disorder is caused due to the _________ of the gene responsible
for adenosine deaminase enzyme.

(1) Addition
(2) Deletion
(3) Duplication
(4) Inversion

60) Which of the following method of diagnosis is based on the principle of antigen-antibody
interaction ?

(1) Serum analysis

(2) Urine analysis
(3) ELISA
(4) Polymerase chain reaction

61) Fill in the blanks :

Transgenic __A__ are being used to test the safety of polio vaccine and could replace the use of
__B__.

(1) A-Mice, B-Monkey

(2) A-Mice, B-Rabbit
(3) A-Monkey, B-Mice
(4) A-Pig, B-Monkey

62) Amount of human protein present in milk produced by 'Rosie' cow-

(1) 2.4 gram/litre

(2) 2.4 gram/mililitre
(3) 2.4 miligram/litre
(4) 2.4 kilogram/mililitre

63) Choose correct statements –

I. Several attempts have also been made to patent uses, products and processes based on indian
traditional herbal medicines, eg. Turmeric, Neem.
II. The interest in the manipulation of microbes, plants and animals has raised serious ethical
questions.
III. There are an estimated 3,00,000 varieties of rice in india alone.

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only
(3) I, II and III
(4) I and III only

64) Match of the following column :-

(1) ELISA (a) Control corn borer

(2) CryIAb (b) Antigen antibody interaction

(3) Vaccine safety (c) Humulin

(4) Eli lilly (d) Transgenic mice

(1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(2) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
(3) 1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(4) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

65) The gas responsible for puffing-up appearance of dough comes from -

(1) Respiration
(2) Photosynthesis
(3) Fermentation
(4) Photorespiration

66) Which of the following statement is incorrect about microbes in industrial products ?

Statins produced by the yeast Monascus purpuras have been commercialised as blood -
(1)
cholesterol lowering agents.
 Wine and Beer are produced by distillation whereas whisky, brandy and run are produced
(2)
without distillation of fermented broth.
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commonly called brewer's yeast.
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used for commercial production of Ethanol.

67) Biogas is mixture of gases containing predominantly ______ produced by the microbial activity
and which may be used as fuel.

(1) Methane
(2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Hydrogen

68) Use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests is called as :

(1) Biocontrol
(2) Bioremediation
(3) Biomagnification
(4) Biofortification

69) Choose the incorrect one among given statements :

(1) The primary lymphoid organs are bone marrow and thymus.
(2) Secondary lymphoid organs provide the site for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen.
(3) At the time of puberty thymus attain very small size.
Both bone narrow and thymus provide micro-environment for development and maturation of B-
(4)
lymphocytes.

70) Match List - I and List - II :-

List-I List-II

(a) Datura (i) Hallucinogen

(b) Charas (ii) Slows down body functions

(c) Morphine (iii) Stimulant

(d) Cocaine (iv) Effect on Cardio vascular system

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :-
(1) (a) - (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
(2) (a) - (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii)
(4) (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)

71) Anamnestic response is -

(1) Feeble
(2) Low intensified
(3) Highly intensified
(4) primary response

72) An intestinal parasite which causes blockage of the intestinal passage and whose eggs are
excreted along with the faeces of infected person is :-

(1) Wuchereria bancrofti

(2) Ascaris
(3) Epidermophyton
(4) Microsporum

73) The exaggerated response of immune system to certain antigens in the environment is called -

(1) Autoimmune disease

(2) Allergy
(3) Infections disease
(4) cancer

74) Which one of the following is not related to smoking ?

(1) Urinary bladder cancer

(2) Intestinal ulcer
(3) Emphysema
(4) Decrease in blood pressure

75) Which measure would be particularly useful for prevention and control of alcohol and drug
abuse among adolescents ?
(a) Avoid undue peer pressure
(b) Seeking professional and medical help
(c) Looking for danger sign
(d) Education and counselling
(e) Seeking help from parents and peers

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, c, d, e
(3) c, e
(4) a, b, c, d, e

76) Assertion : The foetus receives some antibodies from their mother through placenta during
pregnancy; this is an example of passive immunity.
Reason : When readymade antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents
called passive immunity.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
77) Statement-I : Vaccination is a process which provide innate immunity.
Statement-II : Innate immunity is present by birth to resist genetic disorders.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

78) Fill in the blanks :-

Morphine is a very effective __(A)__ and __(B)__.

(1) A = Sedative, B = Painkiller

(2) A = Hallucinogen, B = Painkiller
(3) A = Painkiller, B = Cannabinoid
(4) A = Cannabinoid, B = Sedative

79) One of the most infectious human disease is -

(1) Allergy
(2) Common cold
(3) Typhoid
(4) Cancer

80) Whcih of the following era are known as age of reptiles and age of mammals respectively :-

(1) paleogoic, mosozoic

(2) Mesozoic, Cenozoic
(3) Cenozoic, Paleozoic
(4) Proterozoic, Cenozoic

81) Which of following is not a Australian marsupial?

(1) Bobcat
(2) Tasmanian wolf
(3) Spotted cuscus
(4) Numbat

82) Match the columns and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A. Chemical evolution I. Darwin

B. Branching descent II. de Vries

C. Saltation III. Thomas Malthus

D. Work on population IV. Oparin and Haldane

 A B C D

(1) I II III IV

(2) IV III I II

(3) IV I II III

(4) IV II I III
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) Living fossil which is connecting link between fishes and amphibian-

(1) Limulus
(2) Coelacanth
(3) Ichthyophis
(4) Platypus

84) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A) :- Homology is accounted for the idea of branching descent.
Reason (R) :- Same structure was developed along different directions due to adaptations to
different needs and evolved into the different species.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

85) How many of the following groups evolved from Psilophytons?

Bryophytes, Herbaceous lycopods, Gnetales, Progymnosperms, Sphenopsids, Ferns

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two

86) The first organisms that invaded land, were:

(1) Coelacanth
(2) Amphibians
(3) Reptiles
(4) Plants

87)

When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occured in an isolated geographical area,
one can call this ____________ :-

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Natural selection
(3) Adaptive divergence
(4) Convergent evolution

88) Select an incorrect statement with respect to Biston bitularia :-

(1) Before the Industralisation :- Natural selection of dark moths

(2) After Industralisation :- Reduced growth of lichens on stems
(3) Before Industralisation :- Natural selection of white winged moth
(4) After Industrialisation :- No variants are completely wiped out

89) Match the hominids with their correct brain size :

(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc

(b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1400 cc
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc

Select the correct option:

(a) (b) (c)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Which of the following structure shows divergent evolution :

(1) Wing of a bird and wing of a moth

(2) Wing of a bird and flipper of whale
(3) Wing of a bird and dorsal fin of a shark
(4) Wing of a bird and hind limb of rabbit
 ANSWER KEYS

CHEMISTRY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 3 3 3 1 4 4 1 2 1 3 4 2 4 3 3 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 1 1 1 4 1 2 4 1 3 3 3 4 3 4 3 2 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 1 2 1

PHYSICS

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 1 2 1 1 1 4 2 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 3 4 3 4 1 3 3 2 2 1 3 4 4 1 4 3 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 1 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 3 3 1 1 4 4 3 2 4 2 1 3 2 2 4 4 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 3 3 1 1 1 4 3 2 3 3 1 3 4 2 3 2 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 4 3 4 2 1 3 3 3 2 3 2 1 2 3 3 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 1 4 1 3 2 2 4 4 1 4 1 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 2 1 1 4 4 1 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

CHEMISTRY

6) NCERT Pg. # 218

7) Answer- Option(1)
Explanation - Let's analyze both the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully.
Concept- Assertion (A): Ti3+ salts are colored. This is true. Ti3+ has an electronic configuration
0
of [Ar] 3d1 4s . The presence of an unpaired d electron allows for d-d transitions.

17) NCERT-XII, Pg.No. 188

18) Inert pair effect.

19) Order of ease of liquification :-

Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He

23)

24) CaOCl2 + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Cl2

CH3CH2OH + CH3CHO + 2HCl
CH3CHO + CCl3CHO + 3HCl

25) Reactivity towards ∝ stability of carbocation.

[Carbocation stability]

26)
27) O– m– p-dichlorobenzene
b.p.(K) 453 249 323

28)

It is Reimer Tiemann Reaction.

29) CH3 – C ≡ N + H2O CH4

30)

31)

Y is which gives 2,4-D.N.P. test.

32)

33) 1° amine in which NH2 not attached to benzene can be prepared by Gabriel Phthdimide
synthesis ∴ Ethyl Amine (CH3CH2NH2) can be prepared

34)

Propan - 1 - amine & Propan - 2- amine, both are 1o Amine. Hence Cannot be distinguished by
Hinsberg reagent.
35)
Aniline on protonation gives anilinium ion which is meta directing. So considerable amount of
meta product is formed.

36)

38)

Reactivity of carbonyl compounds

39) Disaccharides which donot have Hemi acetal group are non reducing sugar.

40) Theory based NCERT Page No. 358

41)

% Br = ;

42)

NCERT XI Pg. # 353

43)

=
= 1.4 × 40 = 56.0
M = molarity of H2SO4, V = Volume of H2SO4
m = weight of sample of molarity M
V1 = Volume of NaOH of molarity M
 44)

45) Rate of hydrolysis ∝ +ve charge at carbonyl carbon of Acid derivatives

PHYSICS

46) w = = MB [cosθ1-cosθ2]; θ1 = 0º, θ2 = 90º

= = MB

ω=

47) τ = MB sin θ (θ = 90º)

τ = (IA) B

τ = (I)

τ=

48)

I=

B=

B=

q=

50) B =
51)

B=

B=

B=
∵ (2π – θ) (r) = 2πR

r=

52) B = μ0ni
i' = (2i)
n' = n/2
B' = μ0n'i'

B' = μ0
B' = B

53) F = qvB sin θ (θ = 90°)

54) , M = IA = I(πr2)

, M' = 2M = IA' = Iπ(r')2

55) 0 for all value of θ

56) V = V0sin100πt
ω = 100π
 A

57) Z = R = 50 Ω

VR = V = 100 V

58) R =

I0 = 12.5 π amp.

59) At A : XC > XL
At B : XC = XL
At C : XC < XL

61) dϕB =
dϕB = B dA cos0°

dϕB = (b dx)

dϕ3 =

ϕB =
62) No relative motion between the coils, will result in no change in magnetic flux linked with
coil-1 due to the magnetic field created by primary current in coil-1. So there will not be any
induced current in coil-1. hence, the deflection in galvanometer will be zero. (null)

63) Instantaneous induced emf

⇒ einst = = 5 – 2t
at t = 2 second ⇒ einst. = 5 –2 × 2 = 1 volt
Average induced emf (from t = 0 second to t = 2 second)

⇒ eavg. =

⇒
⇒ 3 volts

now ratio

64)
RHP Rule
Eend = 1 +ve
2 –ve
e = VBℓ

65)
Magnetic flux is not cut by rotational motion of rod so induced emf is zero.
(e = 0)

66) Steady State

 = 4A

69)
∴ VR = 3.6 mA × 1.5 kΩ
L

= 5.4 volt

70) ∵ Intrinsic semiconductor - Pure (ne = nh)

p-type semiconductor - nh >> ne (holes majority)
n-type semiconductor - ne >> nh (electron majority)

71) From ckt, current in 1 kΩ resistor is

Power = I V
= (8 × 10–3) × 8
= 64 mW

72) In filter circuit capacitor connected in parallel and inductor connected in series with load
resistance.

73) Here 2nd zener diode is in F.B. so diode replace by connecting wire.

I=

74)

Equivalent circuit
Req. = 80 + 20 = 100Ω

I= = = 20 mA

75) Y = = = A . B = AND gate

78)

⇒ fe = 2.5 cm

79)
i = 0, A = 60°, e = 90°
if i = 0 then r1 = 0
A = r1 + r2
A = r2 = 60°
μ × sin r2 = 1 × sin e

80) Using the mirror formula :

Here, u = –15 cm , v = –10 cm

f = –6 cm
(Negative sign indicates the concave mirror)

82)

Path difference for 5th order minima

84)

Say intensity of unpolarized light is I0.

Then,

output from polariser =

Output from analyser

= cos2 45° = = I (given)

Therefore,
I0 = 4I

86) The number of photons emitted per second is

= 2 × 1016
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 284, Part-2

87) = qE ⇒ a =
v = u + at

For proton, v = 0 + ⇒ λp = =

For alpha, v = 0 + ⇒ λα =

88) E = –E0

vf = u + at

0
vf = v +

λf =

λi =

λf = (given)

So,

⇒t=
 90) From PEE equation, eV = hν – ϕ =
0 0

0
eV =
= 12.4 – 2.4 = 10.0 eV
V0 = 10.0 volt

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Pg. # 67

92) NCERT-XII, Page No. # 81, 88

93) NCERT XII Pg # 94,95

94) NCERT XII Page-No.78

95) NCERT (XII) Page No. # 77

96) XII NCERT Page No. # 101

97) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 91

98) NCERT XII Page No. 96

99) NCERT Pg. # 95

100) NCERT Pg. # 88

101) NCERT XII, Pg. # 98(E), 109(H)

102) NCERT Pg. # 106

103) NCERT-XII, Pg # 92

104) NCERT XII Pg. # 74

105)
NCERT Pg. No. 93

106) NCERT XII Pg. # 67

107) NCERT XII Page No. 70

108) NCERT Pg. # 63

109) NCERT, Pg. # 67-68

110) NCERT Pg. # 60

111) NCERT Pg. No. # 91

112) NCERT Pg. No. # 62, 69

113) NCERT, Pg # 153

114) NCERT, Pg. # 151, 153, 154, 155

115) NCERT, Pg. # 156, 157, 158

116)

NCERT XII Pg. # 200

117)

NCERT XII Pg. # 197, 199

118) NCERT, Pg. # 200

119) NCERT, Pg. # 197

120) NCERT XII Pg # 201

121)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 191

122) NCERT XII, Page No. 195

123) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 193

124)

NCERT XII, Page No. 210

125) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 207

126) NCERT XII Pg. # 209(E)/228(H) Para : 12.4

127) NCERT Pg. # 211

128) Module

129)

NCERT Pg. No. # 210 (E), 229 (H)

130) NCERT, Pg # 224 (E), 245 (H)

131)

NCERT XII Pg. # 221 (E), 241 (H)

132) NCERT, Pg # 220 (E), 240 (H)

133) NCERT Pg. # 223(E), 243(H)

134) NCERT Pg. # 224(E), 245(H)

135) NCERT Pg. # 225(E), 245(H)

136) NCERT Pg # 147

137) NCERT Pg.# 163

138) NCERT XII, Pg. # 196

139) NCERT XII Page No. # 195

140) NCERT XII, Pg. # 199

141) NCERT Pg.# 164, 170

142) NCERT XII Page No. # 170

143) NCERT Pg # 152

144) NCERT Pg. # 167, 169

145) NCERT, Pg. # 174

146)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 208

147) NCERT XII Page-No-208

148) NCERT, Pg. # 208

149) NCERT XII Pg.-211

150)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 183 (E), 200 (H)

151) NCERT Pg # 213 (E), 201-202 (H)

152) NCERT XII Pg.-213

153) NCERT XII, Pg. # 214 & 215

154) NCERT, Pg. # 230

155) NCERT Pg. # 151

156) NCERT Pg. # 152 (E), 167 (H)

157) NCERT XII, Pg. # 155

158) NCERT-XII, Pg # 186

159) NCERT Pg. # 137

160) NCERT Pg. No. # 158, 159

161)

NCERT Pg. No. 151

162)

NCERT XII, Page # 133

163) NCERT Pg. # 137

164) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 160 (Para 8.5)

165) NCERT XII Pg.#162,163 (E) 176(H)

166) NCERT-XII, Page No. 152 (E) Para = 8.2.3 and 164 (H)
Some maternal antibodies (preformed antibodies) like Ig-G reaches in foetus through placenta
provides passive immunity to the foetus.

167) NCERT Page No. 134

168) NCERT Pg. # 142

169)

NCERT Pg.# 147

170) NCERT Pg. # 122

171) NCERT- P.no. 118

Bobcat is placental mammal.

172) NCERT- Pg.No. 111, 118, 119

Work of Thomas Malthus on population influenced Darwin.

173) NCERT Pg. # 122

174) NCERT Pg # 114, 126

175) NCERT Pg # 122

176) NCERT(XII) Pg#138/148(H) Para:7.8

177) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 133

178)

NCERT XII Pg. No. # 116

179) NCERT(XII) Pg#140/151(H) Para:7.9

180) NCERT-XI Pg. # 114-115