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AP Bio 2020 Practice 3

Biology SL (China Spring H S)

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AP Biology
®

Practice Exam #3
and Notes
For the
Spring 2020
Exam

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Contents

I. Practice Exam
Exam Content and Format. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Administering the Practice Exam. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Answer Sheet for Multiple-Choice Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
AP® Biology Practice Exam. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .7

II. Notes on the Practice Exam

Multiple-Choice Section. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 72
Answer Key and Question Alignment to Course Framework. . . . . . . . . 102
Free-Response Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 104

Contact Us. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 112

AP Biology Practice Exam 3

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Practice Exam

Exam Content and Format

The AP Biology Exam is approximately 3 hours in length. There are two sections.
• Section I is 1 hour, 30 minutes and consists of 60 multiple-choice questions,
accounting for 50 percent of the final score.

• Section II is 1 hour, 30 minutes and consists of 2 long free-response

questions and 4 short free-response questions, accounting for 50 percent
of the final score.

Administering the Practice Exam

This section contains instructions for administering the AP Biology Practice
Exam. You may wish to use these instructions to create an exam situation that
resembles an actual administration. If so, read the indented, boldface directions
to the students; all other instructions are for administering the exam and need
not be read aloud. Before beginning testing, have all exam materials ready for
distribution. These include test booklets and answer sheets. (Reminder: Final
instructions for every AP Exam are published in the AP Exam Instructions book.)

SECTION I: Multiple Choice

When you are ready to begin Section I, say:

Section I is the multiple-choice portion of the exam. Mark all of your

responses on your answer sheet, one response per question. If you need
to erase, do so carefully and completely. Your score on the multiple-
choice section will be based solely on the number of questions answered
correctly. You may use a four-function (with square root), scientific, or
graphing calculator. Are there any questions?

You have 1 hour and 30 minutes for this section. Open your Section I
booklet and begin.

Note Start Time here ________ . Note Stop Time here ________ . After 1 hour
and 20 minutes, say:

There are 10 minutes remaining.

After 10 minutes, say:

Stop working. I will now collect your Section I booklet and multiple-
choice answer sheet.

There is a 10-minute break between Sections I and II.

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SECTION II: Free Response

After the break, say:

Section II is the free-response portion of the exam.

You have 1 hour and 30 minutes to answer the questions. You are
responsible for pacing yourself, and may proceed freely from one
question to the next. Write your answers on the lined pages provided for
each question. If you need more paper during the exam, raise your hand.
At the top of each extra piece of paper you use, be sure to write your
name and the number of the question you are working on. Are there any
questions? Open your Section II booklet and begin.

Note Start Time here ________ . Note Stop Time here ________ . After 1 hour
and 20 minutes, say:
There are 10 minutes remaining.

After 10 minutes, say:

Stop working and close your exam booklet. Put your exam booklet on
your desk, face up. Remain in your seat, without talking, while the exam
materials are collected.

If any students used extra paper for the free-response section, have those students staple
the extra sheet/s to the first page corresponding to that question in their exam booklets.
Collect a Section II booklet from each student and check that each student wrote answers
on the lined pages corresponding to each question. Then say:

The exam is over. You are now dismissed.

AP Biology Practice Exam 5

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Name:

AP® Biology
Answer Sheet
for Multiple-Choice Section

No. Answer No. Answer

1 31
2 32
3 33
4 34
5 35
6 36
7 37
8 38
9 39
10 40
11 41
12 42
13 43
14 44
15 45
16 46
17 47
18 48
19 49
20 50
21 51
22 52
23 53
24 54
25 55
26 56
27 57
28 58
29 59
30 60

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AP Biology Exam
®

SECTION I: Multiple Choice

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Instructions
At a Glance
Section I of this exam contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Indicate all of your answers
Total Time to the Section I questions on the answer sheet. No credit will be given for anything written
1 hour and 30 minutes in this exam booklet, but you may use the booklet for notes or scratch work.
Number of Questions
60 Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not
Percent of Total Score spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and come back to
50% the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will
Writing Instrument know the answers to all of the multiple-choice questions.
Pencil required
Electronic Device Your total score on Section I is based only on the number of questions answered correctly.
Calculator allowed Points are not deducted for incorrect answers or unanswered questions.

AP Biology Practice Exam 7

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AP® BIOLOGY EQUATIONS AND FORMULAS

Statistical Analysis and Probability
Mean Standard Deviation x = sample mean
n 2
1 Â (xi - x ) n = sample size
nÂ
x = xi s =
i=1 n -1
s = sample standard deviation (i.e., the sample-based
Standard Error of the Mean Chi-Square estimate of the standard deviation of the
population)
SE x =
s  o  e 2
n 2   e o = observed results

Chi-Square Table e = expected results

p Degrees of Freedom
value  = sum of all
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
0.05 3.84 5.99 7.81 9.49 11.07 12.59 14.07 15.51
Degrees of freedom are equal to the number of
0.01 6.63 9.21 11.34 13.28 15.09 16.81 18.48 20.09 distinct possible outcomes minus one.

Laws of Probability Metric Prefixes

If A and B are mutually exclusive, then:
Factor Prefix Symbol
P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)
10 9 giga G
If A and B are independent, then: 10 6 mega M
P(A and B) = P(A)  P(B) 10 3 kilo k
10 – 1 deci d
Hardy-Weinberg Equations
10 – 2 centi c
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 p = frequency of allele 1 in a
10 – 3 milli m
population
p+q=1 10 – 6 micro μ
q = frequency of allele 2 in a 10 – 9 nano n
population 10 – 12 pico p

Mode = value that occurs most frequently in a data set

Median = middle value that separates the greater and lesser halves of a data set

Mean = sum of all data points divided by number of data points

Range = value obtained by subtracting the smallest observation (sample minimum) from the greatest (sample maximum)

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Rate and Growth Water Potential ( Y )

Rate dY = amount of change Y = Y P + YS
dY dt = change in time
dt YP = pressure potential
B = birth rate
Population Growth
D = death rate YS = solute potential
dN
= B-D N = population size
dt The water potential will be equal to the
Exponential Growth K = carrying capacity solute potential of a solution in an open
container because the pressure potential of
rmax = maximum per capita
dN the solution in an open container is zero.
= rmax N growth rate of population
dt
The Solute Potential of a Solution
Logistic Growth

( )
YS = -iCRT
dN K-N
= rmax N
dt K i = ionization constant (1.0 for sucrose
because sucrose does not ionize in
Simpson’s Diversity Index water)

( )
2
n C = molar concentration
Diversity Index = 1 - Â
N
R = pressure constant
݊ ൌ total number of organisms of a particular species
( R = 0.0831 liter bars/mole K)
ܰ ൌ total number of organisms of all species T = temperature in Kelvin (ºC + 273)

pH = – log[H+]
Surface Area and Volume

Surface Area of a Sphere Volume of a Sphere r = radius

SA  4 r 2 4
V   r3 l = length
3
Surface Area of a Rectangular Volume of a Rectangular Solid h = height
Solid V  lwh
w = width
SA  2lh  2lw  2wh
Volume of a Cylinder s = length of one
Surface Area of a Cylinder V   r 2h side of a
SA  2 rh  2 r 2 cube
Volume of a Cube SA = surface area
Surface Area of a Cube V  s3
SA  6s 2 V = volume

AP Biology Practice Exam 9

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BIOLOGY
SECTION I
Time—1 hour and 30 minutes
60 Questions
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by four suggested answers or
completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then enter the letter in the corresponding space on the
answer sheet.

1. Many species of corals are threatened by the 2. A researcher measured the temperature at which
increasing temperatures and decreasing pH of two different samples of double-stranded DNA
ocean waters. One species, denature (separate into single strands). Sample
Stylophora pistillata, has been found to thrive in 1 denatured at a significantly lower temperature
water that is warmer and has a lower pH than than sample 2 did. Based on the data, the
the water that corals typically thrive in. researcher claims that the DNA in sample 2 is
Additionally, researchers have found that the composed of a higher percentage of guanine and
tolerance for the new water conditions is cytosine than the DNA in sample 1 is.
heritable.
Which of the following best supports the
Which of the following statements best explains researcher’s claim?
the changes seen in S. pistillata in response to
the changing water conditions? (A) The bonds between guanine and cytosine
are covalent bonds, which require more
(A) The corals’ adaptation is an example of energy to disrupt than those between
natural selection because the tolerance is adenine and thymine.
in response to a changing environment (B) Guanine-cytosine pairs denature at a higher
and has a genetic basis. temperature because they have more
(B) The corals’ adaptation is an example of the hydrogen bonds between them than
founder effect because the majority of adenine-thymine pairs do.
corals do not have a tolerance for warmer (C) Adenine-thymine pairs require less energy
water. to separate because adenine and thymine
(C) The corals’ adaptation is an example of are both single-ring bases.
genetic drift because the change was a (D) Guanine-cytosine pairs require more
chance event and not the result of energy to separate because one is a purine
selection in response to environmental and one is a pyrimidine.
change.
(D) The corals’ adaptation is an example of
adaptive radiation because it has resulted
in a wide range of species adapting to the
new ocean conditions.

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3. Researchers studying the bacterium Escherichia coli split a population of the bacteria into two samples.
Sample 1 was transformed with a plasmid containing a gene that makes the bacteria resistant to the antibiotic
kanamycin. Sample 2 was transformed with a plasmid lacking the antibiotic resistance gene. A portion of
each sample was then added to growth plates containing just nutrients or growth plates containing nutrients and
kanamycin.

After being allowed to grow for 24 hours at 37˜C , the number of colonies on each growth plate was counted
(Table 1).

TABLE 1. BACTERIAL GROWTH FOLLOWING TRANSFORMATION WITH OR

WITHOUT THE KANAMYCIN RESISTANCE GENE

Transforming Plasmid
Plate # Contains Kanamycin Growth Media Results
Resistance Gene
1 Too many colonies to
No Nutrient only
count (lawn)
2 Too many colonies to
Yes Nutrient only
count (lawn)
3 No Nutrient with antibiotic No colonies observed
4 Yes Nutrient with antibiotic 7 colonies observed

Which of the following claims is best supported by the data in Table 1 ?

(A) The transformation procedure killed all the bacteria that were added to plate 3.
(B) More bacteria on plates 1 and 2 were successfully transformed than on any other plate.
(C) None of the bacteria on plate 2 were successfully transformed with the kanamycin resistance gene.
(D) Only the bacteria that were successfully transformed with the kanamycin resistance gene grew on
plate 4 .

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AP Biology Practice Exam 11

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4. The fertilization of ovules from plant Q by

pollen from plant R results in the production of
seeds. What percent of the genes in each
offspring’s chloroplasts will have been inherited
from plant R ?

(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%

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Questions 5 - 8

High levels of certain plant nutrients in runoff can lead to rapid growth of algae (an algal bloom) in aquatic
ecosystems. These algal blooms are generally followed by algal death and decomposition, which consumes large
amounts of dissolved oxygen in the water and results in oxygen levels insufficient to support aerobic respiration.
This process is known as eutrophication. The amount of algae present in a body of water can be estimated from the
amount of chlorophyll a in a sample of the water. A researcher studying eutrophication collected samples at different
times of the year in a freshwater ecosystem. The samples were analyzed for total nitrogen and chlorophyll a
concentration (Figure 1) as well as total phosphorus and chlorophyll a concentration (Figure 2).

Figure 1. Amount of chlorophyll a in relation to the Figure 2. Amount of chlorophyll a in relation to the
amount of total nitrogen amount of total phosphorous

5. Which of the following best explains how higher 6. Which of the following was the dependent
concentrations of nitrogen and phosphorus variable in the researcher’s study?
contribute to eutrophication?
(A) The concentration of chlorophyll a
(A) An increase in the population of algae (B) The concentration of total nitrogen and
results in more nitrogen and phosphorus phosphorus
in the water, causing severe
(C) The slope of the trend line showing the rate
eutrophication.
of change
(B) Both bacteria and algae require nitrogen
(D) The variance of the data points from the
and phosphorus, so the algae must grow
trend line
faster to compete with bacteria.
(C) Nitrogen and phosphorus stimulate
oxidative phosphorylation, which
consumes the available oxygen in the
water.
(D) Algae require nitrogen and phosphorus to
build macromolecules, so higher
concentrations of these nutrients can
result in algal blooms.

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AP Biology Practice Exam 13

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7. Which of the following describes the 8. Which of the following investigations would
relationship between the amount of chlorophyll enable researchers to test the claim that an
a in a water sample and the concentration of increased concentration of algae has a negative
nitrogen in that sample? effect on the number of aquatic invertebrates in
the ecosystem?
(A) As the concentration of chlorophyll a
increases, the concentration of nitrogen (A) Examining the contents of the digestive
decreases. tracts of aquatic invertebrates and looking
(B) The concentrations of nitrogen and for the presence of algae
chlorophyll a are directly correlated. (B) Examining the growth rate of algae in the
(C) The concentrations of chlorophyll a and absence of aquatic invertebrates
nitrogen increase throughout the year. (C) Counting the number of aquatic
(D) There is no relationship between the invertebrates at different concentrations
concentrations of chlorophyll a and of chlorophyll a in the water
nitrogen. (D) Counting the number of aquatic
invertebrates at different concentrations
of nitrogen and phosphorus in the water

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9. Amylase is an enzyme that converts 11. Lactase is the enzyme needed to digest lactose,
carbohydrate polymers into monomers. the sugar found in milk. Most mammals
Glycogen synthase is one of the enzymes produce lactase when they are young but stop
involved in converting carbohydrate monomers once nursing ends. In humans however, many
into polymers. people continue to produce lactase into
adulthood and are referred to as
Which of the following best explains the lactase-persistent.
reactions of these enzymes?
Which of the following mutations is most likely
(A) Amylase aids in the removal of a water to cause lactase persistence in humans?
molecule to break covalent bonds
whereas glycogen synthase aids in the (A) A nucleotide substitution in the coding
addition of a water molecule to form region of the lactase gene that interferes
covalent bonds. with the interaction between lactase and
(B) Amylase aids in the addition of a water lactose
molecule to break covalent bonds (B) A mutation that turns off the expression of
whereas glycogen synthase aids in the transcription factors that activate the
removal of a water molecule to form expression of lactase
covalent bonds. (C) A mutation that increases the binding of
(C) Amylase aids in the addition of a water transcription factors to the promoter of
molecule to form covalent bonds whereas the lactase gene
glycogen synthase aids in the removal of (D) The insertion of a single nucleotide into the
a water molecule to break covalent bonds. lactase gene that results in the formation
(D) Amylase aids in the removal of a water of a stop codon
molecule to form covalent bonds whereas
glycogen synthase aids in the addition of
a water molecule to break covalent bonds.

10. Which of the following describes the most likely

location of cholesterol in an animal cell?

(A) Embedded in the plasma membrane

(B) Dissolved in the cytosol
(C) Suspended in the stroma of the chloroplast
(D) Bound to free ribosomes

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AP Biology Practice Exam 15

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Figure 1. The relative concentrations of both the cyclin and CDK components of MPF

12. Maturation promoting factor, MPF , is a cyclin-CDK complex that catalyzes the phosphorylation of other
proteins to start mitosis. The activity level of MPF is dependent on the relative concentrations of the cyclin
and CDK components of MPF (Figure 1).
Based on Figure 1, which of the following describes the role of cyclin in the regulation of the cell cycle?

(A) During G1 phase, the cyclin level decreases to signal the start of the resting phase of the cell cycle.
(B) During M phase, the cyclin level peaks, resulting in an increased binding frequency with CDK .
(C) During S phase, the cyclin level remains the same because DNA replication is occurring.
(D) During G2 phase, the cyclin level remains low, causing MPF activity to decrease, which leads cells to
initiate mitosis.

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13. Modern bananas originated from a cross 14. Belding’s ground squirrels (Spermophilus
between a tetraploid banana species and a beldingi) live in closely related groups. When
diploid banana species. The product of this they feed in the open, certain individuals (guard
cross was the triploid Cavendish banana strain, a squirrels) watch for predators instead of feeding.
sterile hybrid that is only grown asexually. The guard squirrels give an alarm call when a
Recently, the Panama fungus has been observed predator is sighted, allowing the rest of the
more frequently parasitizing the Cavendish group to run to safety. Researchers have noted
banana, and scientists claim that this type of that, because the alarm call draws attention to
banana is on the brink of extinction. the guard, the guard is more likely to be caught
by the predator and therefore has a lower
Which of the following provides the best survival rate in comparison with the other
explanation of the scientists’ claim regarding the squirrels.
threat to the Cavendish banana?
Which of the following best explains the
(A) The triploid genome of the Cavendish behavior of the guard squirrels?
banana makes it susceptible to the
(A) The behavior of the guard squirrels
negative impact of recessive alleles.
increases the survival of close relatives
(B) Having three of each chromosome that share the genes of the guard squirrels.
interferes with normal function of the
(B) The guard squirrels confuse the predator,
cells and increases the likelihood of
lowering the predator’s success rate
contracting a disease.
because the predator cannot tell which
(C) The lack of genetic diversity of the squirrel is producing the sound.
Cavendish banana decreases the chance
(C) Guard squirrels typically have recessive
that a variation exists in the population
alleles, and by sacrificing themselves,
that is immune to the fungus.
they lessen the chance that recessive
(D) Asexual reproduction increases the alleles will get passed on.
mutation rate during replication, resulting
(D) Guard squirrels are typically females who
in a greater chance that the offspring have
have already reproduced, so they are no
a dysfunctional immune system.
longer needed by the group.

15. If 30% of the nucleotides in a single-stranded

RNA molecule are adenine, then what percent
are expected to be thymine?

(A) 0%
(B) 20%
(C) 30%
(D) 70%

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AP Biology Practice Exam 17

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Questions 16 - 19

Melanocytes are skin cells that can become cancerous and develop into a cancer known as melanoma. Some
cancerous melanocytes have developed resistance to the drugs currently used to treat melanoma. As a result,
researchers are investigating the effects of a new compound (drug X) on four different melanoma cell lines.
Researchers analyzed cell survival in two cell lines (Figure 1) and oxygen consumption in the presence of drug X in
all four cell lines (Figure 2). Figure 3 shows the proposed mechanism by which drug X affects cells.

Figure 1. Percent survival of normal melanocytes and cancerous melanocyte (melanoma) lines 1 and 2 after treatment
with different concentrations of drug X

Figure 2. Oxygen consumption per cell in four melanoma lines after treatment with either solvent alone or solvent
containing drug X. Error bars represent ±2SE x .

Figure 3. Pathway leading to cell survival, growth, and proliferation and the likely effect of drug X

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16. Which of the following best describes the data in 18. Based on the information presented, which of
Figure 1 ? the following best explains why the researchers
measured oxygen consumption as an indicator of
(A) As the concentration of drug X increases, the effectiveness of drug X ?
there is an increase in melanoma cell
survival. (A) Oxygen provides the source of electrons
(B) At a concentration above 10 mM, drug X for cellular respiration and is necessary
reduces melanoma cell survival. for energy production.
(C) At a concentration below 25 mM, drug X (B) Oxygen consumption increases the
increases survival in all melanoma cell mutation rate and causes cells to become
lines. cancerous.
(D) At a concentration of 25 mM, drug X has a (C) Oxygen activates apoptosis, which results
greater effect on melanoma line 1 than on in the death of melanoma cells.
melanoma line 2 . (D) Oxygen accepts electrons in oxidative
phosphorylation, a process necessary for
melanoma cell survival.

17. Based on Figure 2, which of the following best

supports the claim that drug X inhibits oxygen
consumption?

(A) In the absence of drug X, melanoma lines

1 and 4 consume similar amounts of
oxygen.
(B) In the presence of drug X, melanoma line
2 consumes statistically more oxygen per
cell than does melanoma line 3.
(C) Melanoma line 3 consumes statistically
less oxygen per cell in the presence of
drug X than it does in the presence of the
solvent alone.
(D) Melanoma line 2 in the presence of drug
X consumes statistically less oxygen than
does melanoma line 4 in the absence of
drug X.

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AP Biology Practice Exam 19

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19. A researcher has identified a compound that reverses the effect of drug X. Based on Figure 3, which of the
following best explains how the compound acts in the pathway to reverse the effects of drug X ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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20. Which of the following best explains how

molecules such as O 2 and CO 2 can move across
the membrane of a cell?

(A) The majority of the cell membrane

contains protein channels that allow this
type of molecule into the cell.
(B) The majority of the cell membrane is
nonpolar, which allows small, nonpolar
molecules to freely cross.
(C) The phospholipids of the membrane are
tightly packed, so only small molecules
and ions can fit between phospholipids.
(D) ATP is hydrolyzed to provide energy to
help O 2 and CO 2 move against their
concentration gradient and across the
membrane.

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AP Biology Practice Exam 21

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21. Scientists investigated the effect of oxygen levels on the net rate of carbon fixation in two types of plants. The
plants were grown in either well-watered soil (control) or dry soil and then exposed to either 21% or 1% O 2 .
The net rate of CO 2 fixation for both types of plants was measured. Data are shown in Figure 1 and Figure 2 .

Figure 1. Net rate of CO 2 fixation in two types Figure 2. Net rate of CO 2 fixation in two types
of plants grown in wet (control) or dry soil of plants grown in wet (control) or dry soil at
at 21% O 2 1% O 2

Which of the following statements about the rate of CO 2 fixation in the two types of plants is supported by the
data shown in the figures?

(A) At 21% O 2 , plant type 2 has a lower rate of CO 2 fixation than plant type 1 does in both types of soil.
(B) At 1% O 2 , plant type 2 has a higher rate of CO 2 fixation than plant type 1 does in the dry soil but not in
the control soil.
(C) Plant types 1 and 2 have a statistically different rate of CO 2 fixation in both soil types at both oxygen
levels.
(D) The rate of CO 2 fixation is the same in both types of plants in the control soil at both oxygen levels.

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22. A researcher is conducting an experiment in which cells in different phases of the cell cycle are fused together.
The researcher then records what happens to the nuclei of the resulting cell (Table 1).
TABLE 1. COMBINATIONS OF CELLS THAT WERE FUSED AND THE PHASE OF NUCLEI IN THE
RESULTING CELL

Phase of Cell 1 Phase of Cell 2 Phase of Nuclei in

Resulting Cell
S phase G1 phase Two S-phase nuclei

One S-phase
S phase G2 phase nucleus and one
G2-phase nucleus

One G1-phase
G1 phase G2 phase nucleus and one
G2-phase nucleus

M phase Two M-phase

Interphase
nuclei
Which of the following research questions is best addressed by the experiment?

(A) How do chemical messengers affect a cell’s transition between the phases of the cell cycle?
(B) How does the number of chromosomes affect when a cell transitions to the next phase of the cell cycle?
(C) How does the amount of genetic information change throughout the cell cycle?
(D) How does the checkpoint at G2 serve to prevent the transmission of mutations?

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Figure 1. Protein synthesis in a prokaryotic cell

23. Which of the following best describes a characteristic of the process shown in Figure 1 that is unique to
prokaryotes?

(A) The mRNA is synthesized in a 5¢ to 3¢ direction.

(B) A single strand of the DNA is being used as a template for the transcription of the mRNA.
(C) The translation of the mRNA is occurring while the mRNA is still being transcribed.
(D) The enzyme that is transcribing the mRNA is RNA polymerase.

24. A scientist is investigating the possibility that two traits in a particular plant are determined by genes that are on
the same chromosome. The scientist crossed a plant that is homozygous dominant for both traits with a plant
that is homozygous recessive for both traits. The heterozygous offspring in the F1 generation were then
crossed with a plant that is homozygous recessive for both traits. The results expected if the genes
independently assort and the observed results are presented in the table.

Phenotype Expected Number in F2 Observed Number in F2

Long stems, white flowers 25 17

Short stems, red flowers 25 19

Long stems, red flowers 25 31

Short stems, white flowers 25 33

Total number of plants 100 100

Which of the following critical values should the scientist use for the chi-square analysis of the data?

(A) 3.00
(B) 3.84
(C) 7.81
(D) 8.00

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25. Sugar gliders and Northern flying squirrels are

mammals that have many morphological
similarities despite being genetically different.
Both are nocturnal and have large eyes to help
them see in the dark. Both live in trees and have
flaps of skin connecting their front and back
legs, and when their front and back legs are
extended, the flaps allow the animals to glide
from one tree branch to another. Sugar gliders
are native to Australia, and Northern flying
squirrels are native to North America.
Which of the following best explains the
morphological similarities between these two
species?

(A) The similarities in traits indicate the

species are the result of divergent
evolution from a common ancestor that
had the same traits that these two species
share.
(B) The traits evolved through sympatric
speciation, which often results in species
being highly similar because they evolve
in the same area.
(C) The two species evolved as the result of
two separate bottleneck events that
reduced the existing populations to a few
individuals who happened to have the
same traits.
(D) The similarities between the species
evolved independently as a result of
similar selective pressures in each
species’ environment.

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AP Biology Practice Exam 25

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Figure 1. Change in the population size of sea lions over time. Error bars represent ±2SE x .

26. Which of the following best estimates the population size of the sea lions in 2000 based on the data shown in
Figure 1 ?

(A) 100,000
(B) 125,000
(C) 175,000
(D) 285,000

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27. The figure shows a phylogenetic tree of various members of the order Proboscidea, which includes modern
elephants. Which of the following claims is best supported by the information in the figure ?

(A) The Asian and African elephants are the most closely related species shown on the tree.
(B) The mammoth diverged from its most recent common ancestor with African elephants before the
mastodon diverged from its most recent common ancestor with Stegodons.
(C) The mastodon and the Stegodon diverged from their common ancestor 2 million years ago.
(D) The common ancestor of the African elephant and the mastodon is the Palaeomastodon.

28. Which of the following describes the most direct

effect of a mutation in the DNA that encodes a
cell’s rRNA ?

(A) The cell’s ability to transport the amino

acids needed for translation will be
reduced.
(B) The cell’s ability to transcribe RNA
transcripts that will be translated will be
reduced.
(C) The cell’s ability to properly assemble
ribosomes and initiate translation will be
reduced.
(D) The cell’s ability to modify proteins after
they have been assembled will be
reduced.

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Questions 29 - 32

Figure 1. Incidence of protoporphyria in a particular family

Protoporphyria is a genetic disorder characterized by an extreme sensitivity to sunlight. One form of protoporphyria
is caused by a mutation in the ALAS2 gene that results in the accumulation of protoporphyrin, an organic compound,
in the blood, liver, and skin. The pedigree in Figure 1 shows the incidence of protoporphyria in a particular family.

29. Which of the following best describes the 31. One mutation in ALAS2 that is associated with
genotype of the individual identified with an protoporphyria is a four-nucleotide deletion.
asterisk in the pedigree in Figure 1 ? The protein expressed from the mutant allele is
20 amino acids shorter than the wild-type
(A) Two dominant ALAS2 alleles
protein.
(B) Two recessive ALAS2 alleles
Which of the following best explains why a
(C) One dominant ALAS2 allele and one
shortened protein is produced?
recessive ALAS2 allele
(D) One recessive ALAS2 allele and no second (A) The mutation disrupts the start codon,
allele for the ALAS2 gene preventing the ribosome from beginning
translation.
(B) The mutation introduces a premature stop
codon, causing translation to end early.
30. Which of the following best describes the (C) The mutation changes the gene’s regulatory
inheritance pattern illustrated in Figure 1 ? region, causing unregulated gene
expression.
(A) Protoporphyria has an autosomal recessive (D) The mutation affects posttranscriptional
inheritance pattern. modifications by preventing the removal
(B) Protoporphyria has an X-linked dominant of introns.
inheritance pattern.
(C) Protoporphyria has an X-linked recessive
inheritance pattern.
(D) Protoporphyria has a mitochondrial
inheritance pattern.

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32. A researcher claims that an individual has 34. Wolves, once native to Yellowstone National
protoporphyria, based on a physical exam. Park, were hunted to the point of complete
Which of the following techniques would most extinction in the park. As a result, the elk
likely confirm the researcher’s claim? population in the park flourished, putting extra
demands on the carrying capacity of the park.
(A) Transforming bacteria with the mutant Many other species, such as certain trees and
variation of ALAS2 to measure gene beavers, were negatively affected by the increase
expression in elk.
(B) Culturing cells from the individual in the
lab and measuring the cells’ growth rate Years later, wolves were reintroduced into the
park. While the elk population decreased after
(C) Using light microscopy to examine the
the wolves returned, the beaver and songbird
individual’s chromosomes during
populations began to increase as did the
metaphase
populations of various plant species.
(D) Determining the nucleotide sequence of the
individual’s ALAS2 alleles Which of the following best explains how
wolves are a keystone species in this ecosystem?

(A) Wolves help balance the population sizes

of other species, allowing more species to
33. Which of the following is evidence that thrive in the wolves’ presence than in
eukaryotes and prokaryotes share a common their absence.
ancestor? (B) Wolves prey on certain species, increasing
competition among other species, which
(A) All eukaryotes and prokaryotes contain results in a decrease in biodiversity in the
linear DNA. ecosystem.
(B) All eukaryotes and prokaryotes contain (C) Wolves are not affected by factors that
ribosomes. typically limit the population size;
(C) All eukaryotes and prokaryotes use organic therefore their population can grow
molecules as an energy source. exponentially, increasing the demand on
(D) All eukaryotes and prokaryotes are capable the parks’ resources.
of mitosis. (D) Wolves prey on other species without
having any natural predators themselves;
therefore their presence significantly
decreases many populations within the
community.

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Figure 1. A model of epinephrine signaling

35. Two types of cells, alpha and beta cells, produce signaling molecules that affect blood sugar levels in opposite
ways (Figure 1). Epinephrine is a chemical, often released during periods of exercise, that ultimately causes an
increase in blood sugar levels in the body.

Based on Figure 1, which of the following best explains how exercise causes blood glucose levels to rise?

(A) Epinephrine inhibits alpha cells, causing the release of glucagon, and activates beta cells, blocking the
release of insulin.
(B) Epinephrine activates alpha cells, blocking the release of glucagon, and inhibits beta cells, causing the
release of insulin.
(C) Epinephrine activates alpha cells, causing the release of glucagon, and inhibits beta cells, blocking the
release of insulin.
(D) Epinephrine inhibits alpha cells, blocking the release of glucagon, and activates beta cells, causing the
release of insulin.

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36. Pesticides are chemicals that are often sprayed

on crops to kill plant-eating insects, preventing
damage to the crops. While pesticides are
effective initially, many researchers claim that
any single pesticide will see reduced
effectiveness in as little as ten to fifteen years.

Which of the following best supports the claim

by scientists that the pesticides will eventually
lose their effectiveness?

(A) Insects will evolve to avoid any plant

sprayed with pesticides to increase their
chances of survival.
(B) Insects that are naturally resistant to the
pesticide will survive and reproduce more
than the insects that are sensitive to the
pesticide.
(C) The insects will build up a tolerance to the
pesticides, and eventually the pesticide
will not affect them.
(D) The pesticides will increase the mutation
rate in the insects, resulting in higher
genetic diversity and higher survival rate.

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37. Newborn babies and hibernating animals contain 38. In pea plants, flower color and the length of the
a large amount of brown adipose (fat) tissue flower’s pollen grains are genetically
(BAT). Certain proteins in the BAT cells determined. Researchers studying pea plants
increase the permeability of the inner crossed homozygous dominant pea plants with
mitochondrial membrane to protons, disrupting homozygous recessive pea plants. The F1 plants
the proton gradient. were then crossed, and the number of offspring
with each phenotype was recorded. The
Which of the following best predicts the effect
researchers’ observed data, however, differed
of disrupting the proton gradient in BAT ?
from the expected data. The researchers did a
(A) The pH of the matrix will increase, chi-square analysis and calculated the chi-square
allowing the production of more ATP per value to be 5.5.
gram of substrate. Based on their calculation, the researchers would
(B) The pH of the intermembrane space will most likely conclude which of the following?
decrease, allowing a steeper proton
gradient to form. (A) The genes that determine these two traits
(C) Electron transport and oxidative are likely on the same chromosome.
phosphorylation will be decoupled, (B) The differences between observed data and
generating more heat but less ATP. expected data are due to chance.
(D) The number of protons available to pass (C) The genes mutated since the researchers
through ATP synthase will increase, began the experiment and now have a
resulting in more ATP. different inheritance pattern.
(D) The allele frequencies of the offspring have
changed, suggesting the population is
evolving.

39. A massive increase in the growth of a specific

species of algae resulted in record-breaking
levels of a potentially dangerous toxin being
released into the water. A researcher
hypothesizes that the unusual growth of this
algal species was caused by an increase in water
temperature. The researcher designs an
experiment to test the hypothesis.

Which of the following is the dependent variable

in the researcher’s experiment?

(A) The growth of the algae

(B) The temperature of the water
(C) The concentration of toxin in the water
(D) The different species of algae growing in
the water

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40. Which of the following is the most likely effect

of a mutation in the gene coding for a DNA
repair enzyme?

(A) The cell containing the mutation will

divide more frequently because the cell
cycle checkpoints will not function
properly.
(B) Mutations will accumulate more quickly
because the cell will not be able to fix
errors in replication.
(C) The mutated gene will not be transcribed
because RNA polymerase cannot
transcribe mutated DNA.
(D) The cell will immediately undergo
apoptosis so that mutated DNA is not
replicated in future rounds of cell
division.

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Questions 41 - 45

Certain chemicals, including sodium fluoride (NaF ), are capable of inhibiting specific steps of glycolysis. Figure 1
shows the steps of the glycolysis pathway, indicating where various macromolecules enter the pathway as well as the
specific reaction inhibited by NaF .

Figure 1. Key steps in the metabolic pathway of glucose

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41. If NaF is added to cells undergoing cellular 44. Which of the following describes why a glucose
respiration, which of the following will most transporter is needed to move glucose into the
likely accumulate in the cells? cell?

(A) Glucose Transporter (A) Glucose is nonpolar and requires ATP to

move across the membrane.
(B) Pyruvate
(B) Glucose molecules are polar and need to
(C) Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
move from low concentration to high
(D) 2-phosphoglycerate concentration.
(C) Glucose molecules are charged, and
charged molecules are only ever actively
transported.
42. Based on Figure 1, the net number of ATP (D) Glucose is large and polar and cannot pass
molecules produced during glycolysis from the through the phospholipid bilayer.
metabolism of a single glucose molecule is
closest to which of the following?

(A) 0 45. Tarui disease is an inherited disorder that is

(B) 2 caused by mutations in PFKM , the gene that
(C) 4 encodes a subunit of phosphofructokinase, an
enzyme in the glycolysis pathway. Individuals
(D) 8
with Tarui disease produce little or no functional
phosphofructokinase in skeletal muscle cells.
Based on Figure 1, which of the following best
explains why a low carbohydrate diet is
43. An increase in the concentration of protons in
recommended for those with Tarui disease?
the cytosol will most likely have which of the
following effects on glycolysis?
(A) Carbohydrates are capable of undergoing
lactic acid fermentation, and amino acids
(A) Glycolytic enzymes will denature as a
and fatty acids are not.
result of the increased H + concentration.
(B) Carbohydrate metabolism requires all the
(B) Reaction rate will increase as a result of the reactions of glycolysis, and amino acids
increased H + concentration. and fatty acids do not.
(C) H + will replace phosphorous and inhibit (C) Carbohydrates cannot be used to
synthesize important metabolic enzymes
ATP formation from ADP .
like amino acids and fatty acids can be.
(D) The water potential will increase, resulting
(D) Carbohydrates cannot be stored, while
in a decrease in the rate of glycolysis.
amino acids and fatty acids can be.

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46. A mutation in the upland cotton plant causes the 48. Mosquitoes are frequently a target of insect
development of chloroplasts with a single outer control strategies because of their ability to
membrane and no internal membranes. Which spread disease. One strategy is to introduce
of the following would most likely be observed guppies, a type of freshwater fish, into areas
in chloroplasts of cotton plants with this where mosquitoes are a problem. Guppies can
mutation? consume large numbers of mosquito larvae,
which cuts down on the number of mosquitoes
(A) They would be unable to remove waste living to adulthood.
products, because internal transport
proteins would not be present. Researchers assessing the effectiveness of the
(B) They would be unable to generate the ATP guppy solution are concerned that the
introduction of guppies might cause more
and NADPH needed to make sugars,
problems than it is fixing. Guppies are hardy,
because these processes occur on
tolerant of a wide range of environmental
membranes within the chloroplast.
conditions, and fast-reproducing.
(C) They would be unable to take up carbon
dioxide, because CO 2 is transported into Which of the following predicts the most likely
the chloroplast in membrane-bound ecological problem that would occur if guppies
vesicles. are introduced into new areas to control the
(D) They would be unable to move within the mosquito population?
cell, because only organelles with double
(A) The guppies might have no natural
membranes are mobile.
predators, which will result in a dramatic
increase in the guppy population and an
increase in competition for other native
species.
47. A researcher is crossing two organisms that are (B) The guppy population will likely evolve to
heterozygous for three Mendelian, unlinked consume another food source instead of
traits (XxYyZz ). Which of the following is the the mosquito larvae.
fraction of offspring that are predicted to have (C) The larvae will evolve a mechanism that
the genotype xxyyzz ? will enable them to avoid predation from
the guppies.
(A) 1 / 64 (D) Predators in the area will consume the
(B) 1 / 32 guppies, requiring the addition of more
guppies on a regular basis.
(C) 1 / 16
(D) 1 / 8

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Figure 1. Diagram of the cell cycle with key checkpoints

49. Which of the following describes a mutation that would lead to an increase in the frequency of nondisjunction?

(A) A mutation affecting checkpoint 1 proteins that forces cells to enter G0

(B) A mutation affecting checkpoint 2 proteins that allows cells to divide with DNA damage
(C) A mutation affecting checkpoint 3 proteins that prevents attachment of spindle fibers
(D) A mutation affecting checkpoint 2 proteins that prevents duplication of the chromosomes

50. Scientists studying a wild population of mantled 51. Which of the following best explains how the
howler monkeys found the average birth rate to prokaryotic expression of a metabolic protein
be 0.22 and the average death rate to be 0.12. At can be regulated when the protein is already
present at a high concentration?
the start of the study, the population consisted of
13 monkeys. (A) Repressor proteins can be activated and
Assuming no immigration or emigration, which bind to regulatory sequences to block
of the following best describes the change in transcription.
population size that will occur over the next (B) Transcription factors can bind to regulatory
year? sequences to increase RNA polymerase
binding.
(A) The population size will decrease because (C) Regulatory proteins can be inactivated to
a population of 13 is too small to sustain increase gene expression.
itself.
(D) Histone modification can prevent
(B) The population will decrease because more transcription of the gene.
monkeys are dying each year than are
being born.
(C) The population will increase exponentially
because it is so small that there are likely
few competitors and abundant resources.
(D) The population will increase because more
monkeys are being born each year than
are dying.

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Figure 1. Activity levels of two digestive enzymes over

a range of pH

52. Trypsin and pepsin are enzymes that function in

different areas of the digestive tract. One
functions in the stomach, where the pH is
between 1.5 and 3.5, while the other functions in
the small intestines, where the pH is between 6
and 8.
Based on Figure 1, which of the following best
describes where each enzyme functions?

(A) Pepsin works in the intestines because the

optimal pH for pepsin is basic.
(B) Trypsin works in the stomach because the
optimal pH for trypsin is basic.
(C) Pepsin works in the stomach because the
optimal pH for pepsin is acidic.
(D) Trypsin works in the stomach because the
optimal pH for trypsin is acidic.

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Questions 53 - 57

Figure 1. Experimental steps taken to determine whether the nutrient source in a growth chamber affects mating
preference

A population of fruit flies (Drosophila pseudoobscura) grown on a typical nutrient source was separated into several
growth chambers. Each of the new chambers was assigned a different source of carbohydrates for nutrition, either
starch or maltose, and maintained for many generations (Figure 1).

After a year, male and female flies were paired up in different combinations. The instances of mating between the
males and females grown on the same nutrient source and males and females grown on different nutrient sources
were recorded (Table 1).

TABLE 1. MATING INSTANCES BETWEEN MALES AND FEMALES GROWN ON

THE SAME OR DIFFERENT NUTRIENT SOURCES

Females Grown on Starch Females Grown on Maltose

Males Grown on Starch 22 9

Males Grown on Maltose 8 20

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To test whether the mating preferences were simply the result of being isolated in separate growth chambers, the
researchers tested the mating preferences of flies that were both grown on starch, but in either the same or different
chambers (Table 2).

TABLE 2. MATING INSTANCES BETWEEN MALES AND FEMALES GROWN ON

THE SAME NUTRIENT SOURCE IN THE SAME OR DIFFERENT CHAMBERS

Females Grown on Starch Females Grown on Starch

in Chamber 1 in Chamber 2

Males Grown on Starch in

18 15
Chamber 1

Males Grown on Starch in

12 15
Chamber 2

53. Which of the following best represents the null 54. For a population to be in Hardy-Weinberg
hypothesis for the experiment detailed in Figure equilibrium, certain conditions must be met.
1? Which of the following best explains a
characteristic of the fly populations that meets a
(A) The mating preferences of flies are not condition of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
dependent on the nutrient source on
which they are grown. (A) The population size of the flies was very
(B) Prolonged exposure to a different diet can small, which increases the likelihood of
change behavior in fruit flies. random mutations having a greater
impact.
(C) When crossed, flies grown on the same
medium will not produce viable (B) Since the flies were confined in chambers,
offspring. they did not experience any migration, so
no new alleles were introduced through
(D) Growing flies in a confined chamber will
migration.
not create a barrier to mating in fruit flies.
(C) Flies have a relatively short generation
time and therefore are more likely to pass
mutations to the next generation.
(D) The different food sources may have
exerted selective pressure on the fly
populations, giving an advantage to
certain flies.

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55. Which of the following claims is best supported 57. Which of the following combinations of flies
by the data in Tables 1 and 2 ? showed the highest number of mating instances?

(A) The population of flies has undergone (A) Males grown on maltose paired with
sympatric speciation. females grown on starch
(B) The flies have developed a form of (B) Males grown on starch paired with females
behavioral preference that could lead to grown on starch
divergence. (C) Males grown on maltose paired with
(C) A postzygotic barrier has evolved between females grown on maltose
the populations of flies that prevents the (D) Males grown on starch paired with females
birth of viable offspring. grown on maltose
(D) The flies have undergone allopatric
speciation, since only flies from the same
chamber mated.
58. The primary function of the kidney is to
exchange molecules across a membrane between
the blood and the urine. One type of kidney cell
56. Starch is a complex carbohydrate that is digested has a basic rectangular shape, except for a single
by the enzyme amylase. A mutation in the gene surface, which is lined with tiny, finger-like
projections that extend into the surrounding
that encodes amylase prevents the digestion of
extracellular space.
starch. The inability to digest starch is an
autosomal recessive trait. In a population of Which of the following best explains the
1,000 flies, 410 were unable to break down advantage these projections provide the cell?
starch.
(A) The projections increase the volume of the
Which of the following is closest to the number cell without affecting the surface area,
of flies expected to be heterozygous for the which increases the metabolic needs of
amylase mutation assuming all conditions of the cell.
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are met? (B) The projections increase the surface
area–to-volume ratio of the cell, which
(A) 0.13 allows for more efficient nutrient
(B) 0.36 exchange with the environment.
(C) The projections increase the speed at which
(C) 0.46
an individual molecule can move,
(D) 0.64 resulting in faster nutrient exchange with
the environment.
(D) The projections increase the selectivity of
the membrane because the small size of
the projections limits the number of
transport proteins that can be embedded
in the membrane.

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Figure 1. Diagram of the electron transport chain and ATP synthase in the membrane of mitochondria

59. On average, more ATP can be produced from an NADH molecule than can be produced from a molecule of
FADH2. Based on Figure 1, which of the following best explains the difference in ATP production between
these two molecules?

(A) NADH contributes more electrons to the electron transport chain than FADH2 does and therefore
provides more energy to pump protons.
(B) The electrons of FADH2 are transferred through three complexes of the electron transport chain whereas
those of NADH are transferred through all four complexes.
(C) FADH2 contributes more protons to the mitochondrial matrix, which decreases the proton gradient.
(D) The protons contributed by FADH2 are combined with O 2 to make water and are not pumped across the
membrane.

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60. Which of the following best explains why ligase

is required for DNA replication?

(A) The lagging strand cannot be replicated

continuously, and ligase is needed to join
the fragments.
(B) Ligase forms the hydrogen bonds between
complementary bases in the two strands
of DNA.
(C) Ligase facilitates the binding of RNA
polymerase to the promoter region.
(D) Ligase enables the newly synthesized
DNA to twist into a double helix.

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END OF SECTION I

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY

CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION.

DO NOT GO ON TO SECTION II UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

____________________________________________________________________________

MAKE SURE YOU HAVE DONE THE FOLLOWING:

• PLACED YOUR AP ID LABEL ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET

• WRITTEN AND GRIDDED YOUR AP ID CORRECTLY ON YOUR
ANSWER SHEET
• TAKEN THE AP EXAM LABEL FROM THE FRONT OF THIS BOOKLET AND
PLACED IT ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET

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AP Biology Exam
®

SECTION II: Free Response

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

At a Glance Instructions
Total Time The questions for Section II are printed in this booklet. You may use the unlined pages to
1 hour and 30 minutes organize your answers and for scratch work, but you must write your answers on the
Number of Questions labeled pages provided for each question.
6 Each answer should be written in paragraph form; an outline or bulleted list alone is not
Percent of Total Score acceptable. Do not spend time restating the questions or providing more than the number
50%
of examples called for. For instance, if a question calls for two examples, you can earn
Writing Instrument
Pen with black or dark credit only for the first two examples that you provide. Labeled diagrams may be used to
blue ink supplement discussion, but unless specifically called for by the question, a diagram alone
Electronic Device will not receive credit. Write clearly and legibly. Begin each answer on a new page. Do not
Calculator allowed skip lines. Cross out any errors you make; crossed-out work will not be scored.
Suggested Time
Approximately Manage your time carefully. You may proceed freely from one question to the next. You
25 minutes per long may review your responses if you finish before the end of the exam is announced.
question, and 10 minutes
per short question.
Weight
Approximate weights:
Questions 1 and 2:
26% each
Questions 3 6:
12% each

AP Biology Practice Exam 45

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AP® BIOLOGY EQUATIONS AND FORMULAS

Statistical Analysis and Probability
Mean Standard Deviation x = sample mean
n 2
1 Â (xi - x ) n = sample size
nÂ
x = xi s =
i=1 n -1
s = sample standard deviation (i.e., the sample-based
Standard Error of the Mean Chi-Square estimate of the standard deviation of the
population)
SE x =
s  o  e 2
n 2   e o = observed results

Chi-Square Table e = expected results

p Degrees of Freedom
value  = sum of all
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
0.05 3.84 5.99 7.81 9.49 11.07 12.59 14.07 15.51
Degrees of freedom are equal to the number of
0.01 6.63 9.21 11.34 13.28 15.09 16.81 18.48 20.09 distinct possible outcomes minus one.

Laws of Probability Metric Prefixes

If A and B are mutually exclusive, then:
Factor Prefix Symbol
P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)
10 9 giga G
If A and B are independent, then: 10 6 mega M
P(A and B) = P(A)  P(B) 10 3 kilo k
10 – 1 deci d
Hardy-Weinberg Equations
10 – 2 centi c
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 p = frequency of allele 1 in a
10 – 3 milli m
population
p+q=1 10 – 6 micro μ
q = frequency of allele 2 in a 10 – 9 nano n
population 10 – 12 pico p

Mode = value that occurs most frequently in a data set

Median = middle value that separates the greater and lesser halves of a data set

Mean = sum of all data points divided by number of data points

Range = value obtained by subtracting the smallest observation (sample minimum) from the greatest (sample maximum)

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Rate and Growth Water Potential ( Y )

Rate dY = amount of change Y = Y P + YS
dY dt = change in time
dt YP = pressure potential
B = birth rate
Population Growth
D = death rate YS = solute potential
dN
= B-D N = population size
dt The water potential will be equal to the
Exponential Growth K = carrying capacity solute potential of a solution in an open
container because the pressure potential of
rmax = maximum per capita
dN the solution in an open container is zero.
= rmax N growth rate of population
dt
The Solute Potential of a Solution
Logistic Growth

( )
YS = -iCRT
dN K-N
= rmax N
dt K i = ionization constant (1.0 for sucrose
because sucrose does not ionize in
Simpson’s Diversity Index water)

( )
2
n C = molar concentration
Diversity Index = 1 - Â
N
R = pressure constant
݊ ൌ total number of organisms of a particular species
( R = 0.0831 liter bars/mole K)
ܰ ൌ total number of organisms of all species T = temperature in Kelvin (ºC + 273)

pH = – log[H+]
Surface Area and Volume

Surface Area of a Sphere Volume of a Sphere r = radius

SA  4 r 2 4
V   r3 l = length
3
Surface Area of a Rectangular Volume of a Rectangular Solid h = height
Solid V  lwh
w = width
SA  2lh  2lw  2wh
Volume of a Cylinder s = length of one
Surface Area of a Cylinder V   r 2h side of a
SA  2 rh  2 r 2 cube
Volume of a Cube SA = surface area
Surface Area of a Cube V  s3
SA  6s 2 V = volume

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BIOLOGY
SECTION II
Time—1 hour and 30 minutes
6 Questions

Directions: Questions 1 and 2 are long free-response questions that require about 25 minutes each to answer.
Questions 3 through 6 are short free-response questions that require about 10 minutes each to answer.
Read each question carefully and completely. Write your response in the space provided for each question. Only
material written in the space provided will be scored. Answers must be written out in paragraph form. Outlines,
bulleted lists, or diagrams alone are not acceptable.

Question 1 is on the following page.

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1. Cryptosporidium parvum (C. parvum) is a single-celled, eukaryotic parasite that infects human cells in the digestive
system and causes illness.

Although it is a eukaryote, C. parvum does not have functional mitochondria and generates ATP only through
glycolysis. C. parvum uses the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase to perform fermentation after glycolysis.

Two chemicals, gossypol and FX11, are noncompetitive inhibitors of lactate dehydrogenase. Researchers
investigated the effectiveness of gossypol and FX11 as drugs to kill C. parvum. In the experiment, human cells
were treated with different concentrations of either gossypol or FX11 after infection with C. parvum, and the
relative growth of C. parvum compared with that of control cells was measured (Figures 1 and 2).

Figure 1. Effect of different concentrations of gossypol Figure 2. Effect of different concentrations of FX11 on
on C. parvum growth C. parvum growth
(a) Describe how C. parvum obtains the glucose it needs for glycolysis after it has infected another cell.
Explain the role of lactate dehydrogenase in enabling C. parvum to continue producing ATP by glycolysis.

(b) Identify the independent variable used in the experiment. Identify the difference between the control cells
and the experimental cells used in the experiment. Justify the researchers using a different range of
concentrations for FX11 than was used for gossypol.

(c) Based on the data in Figure 1, identify the concentration of gossypol that reduced C. parvum growth to
50% of that in control cells.

(d) Researchers discovered a strain of C. parvum that expresses a functional variation of the lactate
dehydrogenase gene. A DNA sequence comparison showed that the variant differs from the normal sequence
in the region that codes for the enzyme’s allosteric site. Predict the effect of FX11 treatment on C. parvum
cells that express this variant of lactase dehydrogenase. Provide reasoning to support your prediction.
Explain how gossypol and FX11 might be used as drugs to treat C. parvum infections in humans without
negatively affecting human cells.

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THIS PAGE MAY BE USED FOR TAKING NOTES AND PLANNING YOUR
ANSWERS. NOTES WRITTEN ON THIS PAGE WILL NOT BE SCORED.
WRITE ALL YOUR RESPONSES ON THE LINED PAGES.

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2. Many types of cancer are treated with a combination of therapies. In lung cancer, some tumors respond well to the
drug paclitaxel followed by radiation treatment. Paclitaxel is a chemical that disrupts mitosis. Instead of spindle
fibers originating from the two sides (poles) of the cell, paclitaxel-treated cells develop three poles and then divide
into three cells (tripolar division). Radiation therapy is more effective on tumor cells that have undergone tripolar
division than on cells that have undergone normal mitosis.

Researchers treated cancer cells in the lab with different concentrations of paclitaxel for 15 hours. The researchers
then determined the average percent of mitotic cells that were tripolar. The results are shown in Table 1.

TABLE 1. EFFECT OF PACLITAXEL CONCENTRATION ON

PERCENT OF MITOTIC CELLS THAT WERE TRIPOLAR

Average Percent of Mitotic

Concentration of
Cells that were Tripolar
Paclitaxel (nM)
(±2SE x )

0 0.0 ± 0.0

2 17.0 ± 3.0

4 48.0 ± 3.5

6 65.0 ± 5.0

8 70.0 ± 4.0

10 50.0 ± 2.0

The AURKA gene encodes an enzyme that helps assemble the spindle fibers, which signals the cells to continue
through mitosis. When researchers analyzed the levels of AURKA protein in different types of cancer cells, they
found that cancer cells expressing high levels of AURKA protein had more tripolar divisions when treated with
paclitaxel, than did cancer cells expressing low levels of AURKA protein.
(a) Describe the situations in which a normal human cell would enter the cell cycle and undergo mitotic cell
division. Explain how spindle fibers help ensure the products of mitosis are two identical cells with a full set
of chromosomes.
(b) Using the template in the space provided for your response, construct an appropriately labeled graph that
represents the data shown in Table 1. Based on the data, determine the concentration(s) of paclitaxel that is
(are) most effective in causing tripolar cell division.
(c) Based on the data, identify the lowest level of paclitaxel that will allow for at least 50% of the cells to be
tripolar. From the start codon through the stop codon, the length of the fully processed AURKA mRNA is
1,212 nucleotides. Calculate the number of amino acids in the polypeptide chain coded for by the mRNA.

(d) Predict the effect of a mutation that prevents the expression of AURKA on a normal (noncancerous) cell.

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THIS PAGE MAY BE USED FOR TAKING NOTES AND PLANNING YOUR ANSWERS.
NOTES WRITTEN ON THIS PAGE WILL NOT BE SCORED.
WRITE ALL YOUR RESPONSES ON THE LINED PAGES.

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PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 2

(data table reprinted for reference)

TABLE 1. EFFECT OF PACLITAXEL CONCENTRATION ON

PERCENT OF MITOTIC CELLS THAT WERE TRIPOLAR

Average Percent of Mitotic

Concentration of
Cells that were Tripolar
Paclitaxel (nM)
(±2SE x )

0 0.0 ± 0.0

2 17.0 ± 3.0

4 48.0 ± 3.5

6 65.0 ± 5.0

8 70.0 ± 4.0

10 50.0 ± 2.0

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3. In mice, fur color is a genetically determined trait. To observe the effects of natural selection on fur color in mice,
scientists set up six enclosures with either light- or dark-colored sand on the ground. The enclosures were isolated
from all ground predators and wild mice but accessible to predatory birds. The scientists placed equal numbers of
light- and dark-colored mice into each enclosure. A total of 500 mice were used in the experiment. After several
generations, the scientists sampled the mice and found that populations in the light sand enclosures were, on average,
lighter in color than the original population, while those in the dark sand enclosures were, on average, darker in color
than the mice in the original population.

(a) Describe the way the scientists will determine the evolutionary fitness of the mice in the experiment.
(b) Identify the independent variable in the scientists’ experiment.
(c) State the null hypothesis of this experiment.
(d) The scientists claim that the changes in the frequency of fur color were the result of natural selection.
Justify the researchers’ claim.

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4. The pinewood nematode is a eukaryote that infects certain species of pine trees, feeds on the cells surrounding the
trees’ transport system, and ultimately kills the trees. Trees are infected when nematode-carrying beetles feed off the
trees and inject the nematode into the trees when they bite through the bark. Once infected, pine trees increase the
production of chemicals that serve as a defense mechanism for the trees by negatively affecting the nematodes.

Researchers have found that pinewood nematodes contain symbiotic bacteria that can degrade the pine trees’
defensive chemicals. To investigate the role these bacteria play in nematode survival in the presence of these
defensive chemicals, researchers pretreated nematodes with antibiotics and then exposed them to α–pinene , one of
the defensive chemicals produced by the pine trees.

(a) Describe the relationship between a parasite and its host.

(b) Explain how producing the enzymes that digest α-pinene is beneficial to the bacterial species living within
the nematodes.

(c) Predict the effect of the antibiotic treatments on the mortality rate of the nematodes when exposed to
α-pinene .
(d) Provide reasoning to justify your prediction in part (c).

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5. A cross section of a chloroplast showing membranes and the spaces between membranes is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. A diagram of the cross section of a chloroplast

(a) Describe the major process that takes place in this eukaryotic organelle.

(b) Explain the function of the structure labeled with an X in Figure 1.

(c) On the template in the space provided for your response, represent the location where carbon fixation takes
place by writing � CF � and the location of the electron transport proteins by writing � ETP �.

(d) Explain how the shape and stacking of the thylakoids contributes to the rate of carbon fixation by the
chloroplast.

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6. Drosophila melanogaster (D. melanogaster) is a species of fruit fly frequently used by researchers in genetic
studies. Members of this species have two of each of four different chromosomes: the sex chromosome (flies have
X and Y ) and three autosomes (chromosomes 2 , 3, and 4 ). Researchers studying D. melanogaster conducted
genetic crosses to investigate a particular X-linked recessive trait encoded by a single gene (Table 1). Affected flies
have the trait.

TABLE 1. CROSSES PERFORMED AND THE PHENOTYPES OF THE RESULTING

OFFSPRING

Percent of Percent of Percent of

Phenotype of Phenotype of
Total Male Female
Females Males
Cross Number Population Offspring Offspring
Used in the Used in the
That Are That Are That Are
Cross Cross
Affected Affected Affected
1 Unaffected Affected 0 0 0

2 Affected Unaffected 50 100 0

3 Unaffected Unaffected 25 50 0

4 Affected Affected 100 100 100

(a) Identify the genotypes of the male and female flies used in cross 2 .
(b) Identify the cross in which the female parent was most likely heterozygous.

(c) The researchers hypothesize that crossing any unaffected female and an affected male will result in a 0%
chance of producing an affected male offspring. Evaluate the validity of the hypothesis.
(d) Explain how the results exclude the possibility that the trait is encoded by a mitochondrial gene.

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STOP

END OF EXAM

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION.
___________________________________________

THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS APPLY TO THE COVERS OF THE SECTION II BOOKLET.

MAKE SURE YOU HAVE DONE THE FOLLOWING:

• COMPLETED THE IDENTIFICATION INFORMATION AS REQUESTED ON THE

FRONT AND BACK COVERS OF THE SECTION II BOOKLET
• CHECKED THAT YOUR AP ID LABEL IS IN THE BOX ON THE FRONT COVER

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Notes on the AP Biology Practice Exam

Multiple-Choice Section
Course Framework Alignment and Rationales

Question 1
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.C: Explain biological concepts, EVO-1.E: Describe the Natural
processes, and/or models in importance of phenotypic Selection
applied contexts. variation in a population.
(A) Correct. The changes in the ocean water have put selective pressure on
the corals. Those with tolerance for warm water had an advantage.
(B) Incorrect. The founder effect refers to the loss of genetic variation seen
when a population is descended from only a few individuals. There is
nothing to suggest the corals’ adaptation is an example of the founder
effect.
(C) Incorrect. Genetic drift results in changes due to chance events. The
adaptation of the coral is in response to selective pressure, not chance.
(D) Incorrect. There is nothing to indicate that populations of this species
have diverged and formed their own species.

Question 2
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.B: Support a claim with SYI-1.C: Explain how a Structure and
evidence from biological change in the subunits Function of
principles, concepts, processes, of a polymer may lead Biological
and/or data. to changes in structure Macromolecules
or function of the
macromolecule.
(A) Incorrect. While covalent bonds form between adjacent nucleotides in
the sequence, only hydrogen bonds form between base pairs.
(B) Correct. Three hydrogen bonds form between guanine and cytosine,
while only two hydrogen bonds form between adenine and thymine.
(C) Incorrect. All nucleotide pairs consist of one single-ring nitrogenous
base and one double-ring nitrogenous base.
(D) Incorrect. While guanine-cytosine pairs do consist of one purine and
one pyrimidine, this is true for all base pairs and does not explain the
higher denaturing temperature.

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Question 3
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.B: Support a claim with IST-1.P: Explain the use Biotechnology
evidence from biological of genetic engineering
principles, concepts, processes, techniques in analyzing or
and/or data. manipulating DNA.
(A) Incorrect. The same bacteria grew successfully in the absence of
the antibiotic (plate 1), indicating that the antibiotic and not the
transformation procedure killed the bacteria.
(B) Incorrect. There was no selective pressure (antibiotic) applied to these
plates to determine the effectiveness of the transformation.
(C) Incorrect. There was no selective pressure (antibiotic) applied to plate 2
to determine whether any of the bacteria were successfully transformed.
(D) Correct. Plate 4 contains kanamycin, which will kill any bacteria that do
not contain the kanamycin resistance gene. The bacteria that grew are
expected to contain the gene.

Question 4
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.A: Describe biological concepts IST-1.J: Explain Non-Mendelian
and/or processes. deviations from Genetics
Mendel's model of
the inheritance of
traits.
(A) Correct. Chloroplasts are transmitted in the ovule, not the pollen.
Therefore chloroplast-determined traits would be 100% inherited from
plant Q.
(B) Incorrect. Chloroplasts are transmitted in the ovule, not the pollen.
Therefore chloroplast-determined traits would be 100% inherited from
plant Q.
(C) Incorrect. Chloroplasts are transmitted in the ovule, not the pollen.
Therefore chloroplast-determined traits would be 100% inherited from
plant Q.
(D) Incorrect. Chloroplasts are transmitted in the ovule, not the pollen.
Therefore chloroplast-determined traits would be 100% inherited from
plant Q.

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Question 5
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.C: Explain biological concepts, ENE-1.A: Describe Elements of Life
processes, and/or models in the composition of
applied contexts. macromolecules required
by living organisms.
(A) Incorrect. Algal populations grow in the presence of nitrogen and
phosphorus; they do not release nitrogen and phosphorus.
(B) Incorrect. Algal population growth is not driven by competition with
bacteria.
(C) Incorrect. Oxidative phosphorylation is not stimulated by nitrogen or
phosphorus.
(D) Correct. Algae use nitrogen and phosphorus in the synthesis of
macromolecules, so the addition of these nutrients increases the growth
of the algae.

Question 6
Skill Learning Objective Topic
3.C: Identify experimental ENE-1.A: Describe Elements of Life
procedures that are aligned to the the composition of
question, including- macromolecules required
a. Identifying dependent and by living organisms.
independent variables.
b. Identifying appropriate
controls. c. Justifying appropriate
controls.
(A) Correct. The concentration of chlorophyll a is dependent on the
concentrations of nitrogen and phosphorus.
(B) Incorrect. These are independent variables in the experiment.
(C) Incorrect. The slope of the trend line is a visual and mathematical
descriptor of the data.
(D) Incorrect. The variance is a statistical descriptor of the collected data.

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Question 7
Skill Learning Objective Topic
4.B: Describe data from a table or ENE-1.A: Describe Elements of
graph, including- a. Identifying the composition of Life
specific data points. b. Describing macromolecules required
trends and/or patterns in the by living organisms.
data. c. Describing relationships
between variables.
(A) Incorrect. The data do not suggest that the concentration of chlorophyll
a increases as the concentration of nitrogen decreases.
(B) Correct. The data indicate that as the amount of nitrogen increases, the
amount of chlorophyll in the water sample increases.
(C) Incorrect. The data do not indicate that there was a steady increase in
nitrogen throughout the year.
(D) Incorrect. The data indicate that there is a relationship between the
concentrations of chlorophyll a and nitrogen.

Question 8
Skill Learning Objective Topic
3.E: Propose a new/next SYI-3.F: Describe the Biodiversity
investigation based on- a. An relationship between
evaluation of the evidence from ecosystem diversity and its
an experiment. b. An evaluation resilience to changes in the
of the design/methods. environment.
(A) Incorrect. Examining the contents of the digestive tracts of aquatic
invertebrates would indicate whether they ate algae but not whether
they were being negatively affected by algae.
(B) Incorrect. This would provide information on the effect of invertebrates
on the growth of algae, not the effect of algae on invertebrates.
(C) Correct. If the number of aquatic invertebrates decreases as chlorophyll
a increases, it suggests the increased concentration of algae has a
negative effect on the invertebrates.
(D) Incorrect. Concentrations of nitrogen and phosphorus are not indicators
of how the algae population affects invertebrates.

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Question 9
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.C: Explain biological concepts, SYI-1.B: Describe Introduction
processes, and/or models in the properties of the to Biological
applied contexts. monomers and the type Macromolecules
of bonds that connect the
monomers in biological
macromolecules.
(A) Incorrect. Amylase breaks bonds in polymers (hydrolysis) and water
molecules are not removed to break bonds. Glycogen synthase forms
bonds between monomers (dehydration synthesis) and water is not
added to form bonds.
(B) Correct. Amylase breaks bonds in polymers (hydrolysis) and glycogen
synthase forms bonds between monomers (dehydration synthesis).
Water is added to break bonds and removed to form them.
(C) Incorrect. Amylase converts polymers into monomers which involves
breaking covalent bonds, not forming them. Glycogen synthase converts
monomers into polymers which would require forming covalent bonds,
not breaking them.
(D) Incorrect. Amylase converts polymers into monomers which involves
breaking covalent bonds, not forming them. Glycogen synthase converts
monomers into polymers which would require forming covalent bonds,
not breaking them.

Question 10
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.A: Describe biological ENE-2.B: Describe the Plasma
concepts and/or processes. Fluid Mosaic Model of cell Membranes
membranes.
(A) Correct. Cholesterol is a nonpolar steroid that can be found embedded
in the membrane between phospholipids.
(B) Incorrect. Cholesterol is nonpolar and would not likely be found in the
cytosol, which is aqueous.
(C) Incorrect. Chloroplasts are not found in animal cells. Additionally,
cholesterol is nonpolar and would not likely be found in the stroma of
the chloroplast, which is an aqueous environment.
(D) Incorrect. Cholesterol is nonpolar and would not likely be found
attached to free ribosomes located in the aqueous cytosol.

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Question 11
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.E: Predict the causes or effects IST-2.C: Explain how the Gene
of a change in, or disruption to, binding of transcription Expression
one or more components in a factors to promoter regions and Cell
biological system based on- affects gene expression and/ Specialization
a. Biological concepts or the phenotype of the
or processes. b. A visual organism.
representation of a biological
concept, process, or model.
c. Data.
(A) Incorrect. Any mutation that interferes with the binding of an enzyme
and its substrate is more likely to decrease enzyme activity than increase
it.
(B) Incorrect. If the transcription factors that activate lactase expression are
not produced, then the lactase enzyme will not be made. As a result, no
lactose digestion will occur.
(C) Correct. A mutation that results in an increase in transcription-factor
binding will result in a higher expression of the lactase gene.
(D) Incorrect. A mutation that creates a stop codon will likely result in the
formation of a truncated enzyme that will likely be dysfunctional.

Question 12
Skill Learning Objective Topic
2.A: Describe characteristics of IST-1.D: Describe the role Regulation of
a biological concept, process, or of checkpoints in regulating Cell Cycle
model represented visually. the cell cycle.
(A) Incorrect. As seen in Figure 1, the cyclin level is increasing (not
decreasing) in preparation for the next round of cell division (not
resting phase).
(B) Correct. The cyclin and the CDK must bind for the MPF to be active
and lead to the initiation of mitosis. The higher the concentration of
cyclin, the more likely this binding will occur.
(C) Incorrect. While DNA replication does occur during S phase, the cyclin
level is increasing. It is the CDK level that remains the same.
(D) Incorrect. According to the graph, cyclin levels are almost at their
highest at G2.

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Question 13
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.D: Explain the relationship SYI-3.D: Explain how the Variations in
between experimental results genetic diversity of a species Populations
and larger biological concepts, or population affects
processes, or theories. its ability to withstand
environmental pressures.
(A) Incorrect. Being triploid, the plant would need to acquire three recessive
alleles to have the recessive phenotype.
(B) Incorrect. There is nothing to suggest that being triploid increases a
plant’s susceptibility to disease.
(C) Correct. Species and populations with little genetic diversity, like
the asexually grown Cavendish hybrid, are at a greater risk when
environmental changes occur.
(D) Incorrect. Asexual reproduction does not increase the mutation rate
during replication.

Question 14
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.C: Explain biological concepts, IST-5.A: Explain how Responses to the
processes, and/or models in the behavioral responses Environment
applied contexts. of organisms affect their
overall fitness and may
contribute to the success of
the population.
(A) Correct. Protecting those that are genetically similar contributes to the
presence of many of the same genes in the next generation.
(B) Incorrect. The squirrel is actually calling attention to itself, resulting in
an increased chance that the predator will catch it.
(C) Incorrect. There is nothing to suggest that it is only squirrels with
recessive alleles serve this function.
(D) Incorrect. While it is true that these guards are more often females, there
is nothing to suggest that females that have reproduced are no longer
needed.

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Question 15
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.A: Describe biological IST-1.A: Describe the Nucleic Acids
concepts and/or processes. structural similarities and
differences between DNA
and RNA.
(A) Correct. RNA does not contain the nitrogenous base thymine.
(B) Incorrect. Regardless of the percentage of adenine, RNA does not
contain the nitrogenous base thymine.
(C) Incorrect. While this would be the percentage of thymine found in a
double-stranded DNA molecule containing 30% adenine, RNA does not
contain thymine.
(D) Incorrect. Regardless of the percentage of adenine, RNA does not
contain the nitrogenous base thymine.

Question 16
Skill Learning Objective Topic
4.B: Describe data from a table IST-3.F: Describe the Signal
or graph, including- different types of cellular Transduction
a. Identifying specific data responses elicited by
points. b. Describing trends a signal transduction
and/or patterns in the data. pathway.
c. Describing relationships
between variables.
(A) Incorrect. There is a decrease in the number of surviving melanoma
cells as the concentration of drug X increases.
(B) Correct. Fewer melanoma cells survive in the presence of 10μM drug X
or more than when the drug is not present.
(C) Incorrect. There is a decrease in the number of surviving melanoma
cells when the concentration of drug X is between 0 and 25μM .
(D) Incorrect. Drug X has a greater effect on melanoma line 2 than on
melanoma line 1.

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Question 17
Skill Learning Objective Topic
5.B: Use confidence intervals IST-1.E: Describe the Regulation of
and/or error bars (both effects of disruptions to Cell Cycle
determined using standard the cell cycle on the cell or
errors) to determine whether organism.
sample means are statistically
different.
(A) Incorrect. While this is true because the error bars overlap, comparison
of the two cell lines in the absence of the drug does not provide any
information about the effect of the drug on oxygen consumption.
(B) Incorrect. The error bars overlap indicating that this is not true.
Additionally, comparison of the two cell lines in the presence of the drug
does not provide any information about the effect of the drug on oxygen
consumption.
(C) Correct. To determine the effect of the drug on oxygen consumption,
the oxygen consumption of cells in the presence of the drug would be
compared to the oxygen consumption of cells from the same cell line in
the absence of the drug to see if the data are statistically different (error
bars do not overlap).
(D) Incorrect. While this is true (error bars do not overlap), a comparison
of oxygen consumption in one cell line in the presence of the drug and
another cell line in the absence of the drug does not provide information
about the effect of the drug on oxygen consumption.

Question 18
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.C: Explain biological concepts, ENE-1.K: Describe the Cellular
processes, and/or models in processes that allow Respiration
applied contexts. organisms to use energy
stored in biological
macromolecules.
(A) Incorrect. Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport
chain, not the donor.
(B) Incorrect. The mutation rate of the cell is independent of the rate of
oxygen consumption.
(C) Incorrect. Oxygen does not activate the apoptotic pathway.
(D) Correct. Melanoma cells require oxygen for normal metabolism, so
oxygen consumption is a good indicator of metabolism.

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Question 19
Skill Learning Objective Topic
2.B: Explain relationships IST-3.G: Explain how a Changes
between different characteristics change in the structure in Signal
of biological concepts or of any signaling molecule Transduction
processes represented visually- affects the activity of the Pathways
a. In theoretical contexts. b. In signaling pathway.
applied contexts.
(A) Incorrect. Drug X stimulates the activity of complex B, so the activation
of molecule A would not have an effect.
(B) Incorrect. Drug X stimulates the activity of complex B, so the inhibition
of molecule A would not have an effect.
(C) Correct. Drug X activates complex B, which inhibits molecule C
and thus cellular division. Reversing the effect of drug X requires the
inhibition of complex B.
(D) Incorrect. Inhibition of molecule C would mimic the effect of drug X.

Question 20
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.B: Explain biological concepts ENE-2.C: Explain how Membrane
and/or processes. the structure of biological Permeability
membranes influences
selective permeability.
(A) Incorrect. While the membrane does contain channel proteins, they are
specific to certain molecules and are unnecessary for the movement of
O2 and CO2.
(B) Correct. Small, nonpolar molecules can pass through the cell
membrane by simple diffusion because the membrane is composed of
phospholipids with nonpolar tails.
(C) Incorrect. Size alone does not determine whether a molecule can cross
the membrane. Additionally, ions will not diffuse across the membrane
because they are charged.
(D) Incorrect. ATP is hydrolyzed only during certain types of active
transport when molecules are moved against the concentration gradient.
O2 and CO2 do not require active transport because they move down the
concentration gradient.

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Question 21
Skill Learning Objective Topic
5.B: Use confidence intervals ENE-1.J: Explain how cells Photosynthesis
and/or error bars (both capture energy from light
determined using standard and transfer it to biological
errors) to determine whether molecules for storage and
sample means are statistically use.
different.
(A) Correct. The standard error bars do not overlap for the two types of
plants at 21% O2 in either soil type, indicating that there is a statistical
difference between the rates of CO2 fixation.
(B) Incorrect. At 1% O2 the standard error bars overlap for both types of
soil, indicating that there is not a statistical difference.
(C) Incorrect. While the error bars do not overlap for either soil type at
21% O2, there is an overlap for both soil types at 1% O2.
(D) Incorrect. While the error bars overlap for the wet soil at 1% O2, they
do not overlap for the wet soil at 21% O2, suggesting there is a statistical
difference.

Question 22
Skill Learning Objective Topic
3.A: Identify or pose a IST-1.D: Describe the Regulation of
testable question based on an role of checkpoints in Cell Cycle
observation, data, or a model. regulating the cell cycle.
(A) Correct. By fusing these cells, the researcher was able to determine
which phases had chemical messengers and how those messengers
could influence cells in other phases.
(B) Incorrect. The researchers did not focus on the number of chromosomes
in the cell. Additionally the number of chromosomes does affect a cell's
movement through the cell cycle.
(C) Incorrect. The researchers did not measure the amount of genetic
information in each cell in this experiment.
(D) Incorrect. While the G2 check point does prevent a cell with damaged
DNA from entering mitosis, it is not what is being tested in this
experiment.

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Question 23
Skill Learning Objective Topic
2.A: Describe characteristics of IST-1.O: Describe how the Translation
a biological concept, process, or phenotype of an organism
model represented visually. is determined by its
genotype.
(A) Incorrect. The mRNA is synthesized in a 5' to 3' direction in all cells.
(B) Incorrect. A single strand of DNA is used as a template for transcription
in all cells.
(C) Correct. In eukaryotes, RNA transcripts need to be modified before
they can be translated, but prokaryotes can translate the beginning of an
mRNA molecule while the end is still being transcribed.
(D) Incorrect. The enzyme RNA polymerase is used for transcription in all
cells.

Question 24
Skill Learning Objective Topic
5.C: Perform chi-square IST-1.J: Explain deviations Non-Mendelian
hypothesis testing. from Mendel's model of the Genetics
inheritance of traits.
(A) Incorrect. This represents the number of degrees of freedom for this
analysis.
(B) Incorrect. This represents the critical value for an analysis with only one
degree of freedom.
(C) Correct. This is the critical value for an analysis with three degrees of
freedom.
(D) Incorrect. This is the calculated chi-square value for the data given.

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Question 25
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.C: Explain biological concepts, EVO-1.G: Explain Artificial
processes, and/or models in the relationship Selection
applied contexts. between changes in
the environment and
evolutionary changes in
the population.
(A) Incorrect. Species that share a recent common ancestor typically have
many molecular similarities inherited from that ancestor. In this case, the
genetic makeup of the two species is different.
(B) Incorrect. The two species are located on separate continents, but in
sympatric speciation, the new and ancestral species occupy the same
location.
(C) Incorrect. This explanation suggests the similarities were already present
in the two species and does not explain how the similarities evolved.
(D) Correct. The lack of genetic similarity between the two species suggests
that the similarities arose independently in the two species and that the
similarities are the result of convergent evolution.

Question 26
Skill Learning Objective Topic
4.B: Describe data from a SYI-1.H: Explain how the Effect of
table or graph, including- density of a population Density of
a. Identifying specific data affects and is determined Populations
points. b. Describing trends by resource availability in
and/or patterns in the data. the environment.
c. Describing relationships
between variables.
(A) Incorrect. This is closer to what the population size was between 1980
and 1985.
(B) Incorrect. This was the population size in 1990.
(C) Correct. The data indicate that the population in 2000 was almost
175,000.
(D) Incorrect. The population doesn’t reach this size until almost 2010.

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Question 27
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.A: Make a scientific claim EVO-3.B: Describe the Phylogeny
types of evidence that
can be used to infer an
evolutionary relationship.
(A) Incorrect. The Asian elephant is more closely related to the mammoth
than it is to the African elephant.
(B) Incorrect. The mammoth diverged from its ancestor around 3 million
years ago, whereas the mastodon diverged from its ancestor over 5
million years ago.
(C) Incorrect. While both species existed until about 2 million years ago,
they diverged from their common ancestor over 5 million years ago.
(D) Correct. If the lineages of the African elephant and the mastodon are
traced back until they intersect, the species at the point of intersection is
the Palaeomastodon.

Question 28
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.C: Explain biological concepts, IST-1.O: Describe how the Translation
processes, and/or models in phenotype of an organism
applied contexts. is determined by its
genotype.
(A) Incorrect. It is the tRNA molecules that are responsible for transporting
the amino acids to the ribosomes for translation.
(B) Incorrect. rRNA molecules do not play a role in the formation of the
mRNA transcripts that are then translated.
(C) Correct. rRNA molecules, along with proteins, make up the structure of
the ribosome. Translation is initiated when the rRNA interacts with the
start codon in the mRNA.
(D) Incorrect. Modification of proteins happens after translation and does
not involve rRNA molecules.

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Question 29
Skill Learning Objective Topic
2.A: Describe characteristics of IST-1.J: Explain deviations Non-Mendelian
a biological concept, process, or from Mendel's model of the Genetics
model represented visually. inheritance of traits.
(A) Incorrect. The individual must have inherited at least one recessive allele
because the individual’s mother is unaffected.
(B) Incorrect. The individual must have inherited at least one dominant
allele because the individual is affected.
(C) Correct. The individual must have one copy of the dominant allele
because the individual is affected and one recessive allele because the
individual’s mother is unaffected.
(D) Incorrect. The individual must have at least one dominant allele to be
affected. Additionally, the individual should have two alleles for the
ALAS2 gene.

Question 30
Skill Learning Objective Topic
2.B: Explain relationships IST-1.J: Explain deviations Non-Mendelian
between different characteristics from Mendel's model of the Genetics
of biological concepts or inheritance of traits.
processes represented visually-
a. In theoretical contexts. b. In
applied contexts.
(A) Incorrect. It cannot be an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern
because there are unaffected offspring of two affected parents.
(B) Correct. There are unaffected offspring of two affected parents,
indicating both had a recessive allele to pass on to those offspring.
Additionally, affected males pass only to female offspring, whereas
affected females pass to either male or female offspring.
(C) Incorrect. It cannot be an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern because
there are unaffected offspring with two affected parents.
(D) Incorrect. It cannot be a mitochondrial inheritance pattern because
there are unaffected mothers with affected children.

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Question 31
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.A: Make a scientific claim IST-1.O: Describe how the Translation
phenotype of an organism
is determined by its
genotype.
(A) Incorrect. Disruption of a start codon will prevent any of the protein
from being produced.
(B) Correct. The introduction of a stop codon will result in the production
of a shortened protein.
(C) Incorrect. A mutation in the regulatory region will affect the amount of
protein produced, but not the length of an individual protein.
(D) Incorrect. Preventing the removal of introns will result in a protein that
is longer than normal.

Question 32
Skill Learning Objective Topic
3.E: Propose a new/next IST-1.P: Explain the use Biotechnology
investigation based on- a. An of genetic engineering
evaluation of the evidence from techniques in analyzing or
an experiment. b. An evaluation manipulating DNA.
of the design/methods.
(A) Incorrect. This experiment will not provide any confirmation about the
individual’s genotype.
(B) Incorrect. The growth rate of the cells will likely not be affected by the
presence of a mutant allele.
(C) Incorrect. Chromosomes carrying a mutant ALAS2 allele will appear
identical to those carrying a wild-type ALAS2 allele.
(D) Correct. Sequencing the individual’s DNA will allow a researcher to
confirm that the individual carries a mutant ALAS2 allele.

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Question 33
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.A: Describe biological concepts SYI-1.D: Describe the Cell Structure
and/or processes. structure and/or function - Subcellular
of subcellular components Components
and organelles.
(A) Incorrect. While eukaryotes have linear chromosomes, prokaryotic
chromosomes are circular.
(B) Correct. Although the ribosomes of eukaryotes and prokaryotes have
a slightly different structure, both contain ribosomes that perform the
same function, suggesting that the trait came from a common ancestor.
(C) Incorrect. Not all prokaryotes use organic molecules as an energy
source. Chemoautotrophs derive their energy from inorganic
compounds.
(D) Incorrect. While prokaryotes and eukaryotes both undergo some form
of cell division, mitosis is specifically the division of the nucleus, a
structure not found in prokaryotes.

Question 34
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.C: Explain biological concepts, SYI-3.F: Describe the Biodiversity
processes, and/or models in relationship between
applied contexts. ecosystem diversity and its
resilience to changes in the
environment.
(A) Correct. By decreasing the elk population to a size that is sustainable in
the ecosystem, the wolves increased the amount of resources available to
other species.
(B) Incorrect. While the presence of the wolves did result in a decrease in
the elk population, it resulted in an increase in biodiversity as a whole.
(C) Incorrect. Despite having a significant impact on an ecosystem, keystone
species still experience the effect of limiting factors on their population
growth.
(D) Incorrect. This is a characteristic of an invasive species rather than a
keystone species. The presence of the wolves had a positive impact on
many species.

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Question 35
Skill Learning Objective Topic
2.B: Explain relationships IST-3.E: Describe the role Signal
between different characteristics of the environment in Transduction
of biological concepts or eliciting a cellular response.
processes represented visually-
a. In theoretical contexts. b. In
applied contexts.
(A) Incorrect. Epinephrine activates alpha cells and inhibits beta cells.
(B) Incorrect. While epinephrine does activate alpha cells, this activation
would increase secretion of glucagon.
(C) Correct. Epinephrine activates alpha cells, thus activating glucagon
release, and inhibits beta cells, which inhibits insulin release.
(D) Incorrect. Epinephrine activates alpha cells and inhibits beta cells.

Question 36
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.C: Provide reasoning to justify EVO-1.E: Describe the Natural
a claim by connecting evidence importance of phenotypic Selection
to biological theories. variation in a population.
(A) Incorrect. Evolution is based on chance mutations. It is unlikely that this
specific mutation would occur simply because it would be beneficial.
(B) Correct. An already-existing variation that makes an insect resistant
would increase the insect’s fitness, resulting in an increase in the
frequency of resistance genes in future generations.
(C) Incorrect. It is unlikely that an insect would build up a tolerance to a
poisonous chemical when it is applied at concentrations strong enough
to kill them.
(D) Incorrect. While the chemical might induce mutations in the insect,
these mutations would have to be in the reproductive cells to be passed
on. Also, most mutations are detrimental or neutral and would be
unlikely to increase survival.

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Question 37
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.E: Predict the causes or effects ENE-1.K: Describe the Cellular
of a change in, or disruption to, processes that allow Respiration
one or more components in a organisms to use energy
biological system based on- stored in biological
a. Biological concepts macromolecules.
or processes. b. A visual
representation of a biological
concept, process, or model.
c. Data.
(A) Incorrect. If protons can diffuse across the membrane, a proton
gradient will not be established and ATP will not be produced.
(B) Incorrect. If protons could diffuse passively across the membrane, they
will move down the concentration gradient, which will not make the
gradient steeper.
(C) Correct. The protons pumped into the matrix because of electron
transport will diffuse back into the intermembrane space and will not be
available for oxidative phosphorylation. As a result, more energy will be
converted to heat and less will be available for ATP production.
(D) Incorrect. If protons can diffuse through the membrane, there will
be fewer protons to pass through ATP synthase and less ATP will be
produced.

Question 38
Skill Learning Objective Topic
5.C: Perform chi-square IST-1.I: Explain the Mendelian
hypothesis testing. inheritance of genes and Genetics
traits as described by
Mendel's laws.
(A) Incorrect. The calculated chi-square value is less than the critical value
for three degrees of freedom (four possible phenotype combinations
- 1), indicating the researchers will fail to reject the null hypothesis.
(B) Correct. The calculated chi-square value is less than the critical
value for three degrees of freedom (four possible phenotype
combinations - 1), indicating the researchers will fail to reject
the null hypothesis.
(C) Incorrect. The calculated chi-square value is less than the critical value
for three degrees of freedom (four possible phenotype combinations
- 1), indicating the researchers will fail to reject the null hypothesis.
(D) Incorrect. The calculated chi-square value is less than the critical value
for three degrees of freedom (four possible phenotype combinations
- 1), indicating the researchers will fail to reject the null hypothesis.

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Question 39
Skill Learning Objective Topic
3.C: Identify experimental SYI-2.C: Explain Disruptions to
procedures that are aligned to how geological and Ecosystems
the question, including- meteorological activity
a. Identifying dependent and leads to changes in
independent variables. ecosystem structure and/or
b. Identifying appropriate dynamics.
controls. c. Justifying appropriate
controls.
(A) Correct. The researcher hypothesizes that an increase in water
temperature will affect the growth of the algae, making algae growth the
dependent variable.
(B) Incorrect. The temperature of the water would be the experimental/
independent variable.
(C) Incorrect. The chemical levels are a result of the algae growth. The
researcher is testing the effect of water temperature on algae growth.
(D) Incorrect. The researcher is studying a single species of algae.

Question 40
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.E: Predict the causes or effects IST-4.A: Explain how Mutations
of a change in, or disruption to, changes in genotype
one or more components in a may result in changes in
biological system based on- phenotype.
a. Biological concepts
or processes. b. A visual
representation of a biological
concept, process, or model.
c. Data.
(A) Incorrect. The inability to correct errors in replication will not, on its
own, increase the rate of cell division.
(B) Correct. DNA repair enzymes detect and correct errors that occur
during replication. If the cell cannot do so, mutations will be passed on
during future rounds of division.
(C) Incorrect. As long as the transcription start site is functional, RNA
polymerase is capable of transcribing DNA, even if it contains mutations.
(D) Incorrect. Not all mutations trigger apoptosis. Many mutations are
replicated in future rounds of cell division.

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Question 41
Skill Learning Objective Topic
2.A: Describe characteristics of ENE-1.H: Describe the Cellular Energy
a biological concept, process, or role of energy in living
model represented visually. organisms.
(A) Incorrect. The glucose transporter is a membrane protein that will be
unaffected by the presence of NaF.
(B) Incorrect. Pyruvate will not accumulate because there will be little
phosphoenolpyruvate if NaF is present.
(C) Incorrect. Phosphoenolpyruvate will not accumulate because NaF will
prevent it from being synthesized from 2-phosphoglycerate.
(D) Correct. 2-Phosphoglycerate will accumulate because it is the last
chemical in the pathway prior to the NaF inhibition.

Question 42
Skill Learning Objective Topic
2.A: Describe characteristics of ENE-1.L: Explain how Cellular
a biological concept, process, or cells obtain energy from Respiration
model represented visually. biological macromolecules
in order to power cellular
functions.
(A) Incorrect. During glycolysis 4 ATP are generated, but 2 are converted to
ADP in the process.
(B) Correct. During glycolysis 4 ATP are generated, but 2 are converted to
ADP in the process.
(C) Incorrect. During glycolysis 4 ATP are generated, but 2 are converted to
ADP in the process.
(D) Incorrect. During glycolysis 4 ATP are generated, but 2 are converted to
ADP in the process.

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Question 43
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.E: Predict the causes or effects ENE-1.G: Explain how the Environmental
of a change in, or disruption to, cellular environment affects Impacts on
one or more components in a enzyme activity. Enzyme
biological system based on- Function
a. Biological concepts
or processes. b. A visual
representation of a biological
concept, process, or model.
c. Data.
(A) Correct. A decrease in the pH could cause enzymes in the glycolysis
pathway to become denatured.
(B) Incorrect. An increased H+ concentration will not positively affect the
reaction rate.
(C) Incorrect. Protons cannot replace phosphorus atoms in ATP.
(D) Incorrect. A change in the water potential will most likely not have an
effect on the rate of reactions in glycolysis.

Question 44
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.C: Explain biological concepts, ENE-2.C: Explain how Membrane
processes, and/or models in the structure of biological Permeability
applied contexts. membranes influences
selective permeability.
(A) Incorrect. Nonpolar molecules can diffuse across the membrane by
simple diffusion.
(B) Incorrect. Glucose does not move from low concentration to high
concentration.
(C) Incorrect. Glucose molecules are not charged. Additionally, not all
charged molecules need to be actively transported.
(D) Correct. Glucose is a relatively large and polar molecule and requires a
transport protein to cross the membrane.

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Question 45
Skill Learning Objective Topic
2.C: Explain how biological ENE-1.K: Describe the Cellular
concepts or processes processes that allow Respiration
represented visually relate to organisms to use energy
larger biological principles, stored in biological
concepts, processes or theories. macromolecules.
(A) Incorrect. Lactic acid fermentation still requires glucose to be
metabolized via the glycolysis pathway.
(B) Correct. Noncarbohydrates can provide energy to a cell through other
metabolic pathways.
(C) Incorrect. Carbohydrates are used to provide energy for the synthesis of
enzymes.
(D) Incorrect. Carbohydrates can be stored within cells.

Question 46
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.E: Predict the causes or effects SYI-1.F: Describe the Cell Structure
of a change in, or disruption to, structural features of a and Function
one or more components in a cell that allow organisms
biological system based on- to capture, store, and use
a. Biological concepts energy.
or processes. b. A visual
representation of a biological
concept, process, or model.
c. Data.
(A) Incorrect. The removal of waste products from the cell would still
be able to occur through transport proteins located in the plasma
membrane of the cell.
(B) Correct. Many of the molecules needed to perform the light reactions
of photosynthesis are embedded in the membranes of the thylakoids.
(C) Incorrect. CO2 is transported into the chloroplast through simple
diffusion. Additionally, delivery to the chloroplast is unaffected, because
the outer membrane of the chloroplast remains intact.
(D) Incorrect. Movement of an organelle within a cell is not dependent on
the number of membranes the organelle has.

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Question 47
Skill Learning Objective Topic
5.A: Perform mathematical IST-1.I: Explain the Mendelian
calculations, including- inheritance of genes and Genetics
a. Mathematical equations in the traits as described by
curriculum. b. Means. c. Rates. Mendel's laws.
d. Ratios. e. Percentages.
(A) Correct. One out of four offspring are expected to be homozygous
recessive for each of the three genes. To determine the fraction expected
to be homozygous recessive for all three genes one would calculate:
1 1 1 1
× × =
4 4 4 64
(B) Incorrect. This would be the fraction of offspring expected to be
homozygous for two of the three genes and heterozygous for the third.

(1 1 1
× × =
4 4 2 32
1
)
(C) Incorrect. This would be the fraction of offspring expected to be
heterozygous for two of the three genes and homozygous for the third.

(1 1 1
× × =
2 2 4 16
1
)
(D) Incorrect. This would be the fraction of offspring expected to be
1 1 1 1
× × =
heterozygous for all three genes. 2 2 2 8
( )
Question 48
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.E: Predict the causes or effects SYI-2.A: Explain how Disruptions to
of a change in, or disruption to, invasive species affect Ecosystems
one or more components in a ecosystem dynamics.
biological system based on-
a. Biological concepts
or processes. b. A visual
representation of a biological
concept, process, or model.
c. Data.
(A) Correct. Guppies are strong and fertile. If they have ample resources
and few predators, their population could grow unchecked and create
problems for native species.
(B) Incorrect. There is nothing to suggest that there are any selective
pressures that will drive guppies to change to another food source.
(C) Incorrect. Although it is possible that the larvae could evolve a
mechanism to avoid predation from guppies, this adaptation is unlikely
to cause an ecological problem because guppies are not native to this
ecosystem.
(D) Incorrect. There are unlikely to be many natural predators of the guppies
because guppies are not native to the areas to which they are introduced.

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Question 49
Skill Learning Objective Topic
2.A: Describe characteristics of IST-1.D: Describe the role Regulation of
a biological concept, process, or of checkpoints in regulating Cell Cycle
model represented visually. the cell cycle.
(A) Incorrect. Forcing cells into the resting phase of the cell cycle would not
result in an increase in nondisjunction.
(B) Incorrect. This might lead to an increase in mutations but not an
immediate increase in nondisjunction.
(C) Correct. If the cells move into anaphase without the spindle fibers
properly attached to the chromosomes, the chances of nondisjunction
occurring will increase.
(D) Incorrect. Preventing the duplication of chromosomes will not result in
an increase in nondisjunction.

Question 50
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.C: Explain biological concepts, SYI-1.G: Describe factors Population
processes, and/or models in that influence growth Ecology
applied contexts. dynamics of populations.
(A) Incorrect. Populations can sustain themselves even when small.
(B) Incorrect. According to the data provided, the death rate is less than the
birth rate.
(C) Incorrect. It is entirely possible that the ecosystem can support only a
small population of this particular species. In this type of a population,
the growth rate during a single year does not provide evidence of a
sustained, positive growth rate representative of exponential growth.
(D) Correct. The birth rate exceeds the death rate. Therefore, the population
is expected to grow.

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Question 51
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.B: Explain biological concepts IST-2.B: Explain how the Regulation
and/or processes. location of regulatory of Gene
sequences relates to their Expression
function.
(A) Correct. High levels of protein product can result in a negative feedback
mechanism in which a repressor protein is activated, binds to the
regulatory sequence, and blocks transcription.
(B) Incorrect. Increasing the binding of RNA polymerase would result
in more product. High concentrations of product usually initiate a
mechanism to shut down production.
(C) Incorrect. High concentrations of product usually initiate a mechanism
to shut down expression of the product not increase it.
(D) Incorrect. The concentration of the product does not affect histone
modification. Additionally, prokaryotes do not have histones.

Question 52
Skill Learning Objective Topic
4.B: Describe data from a table or ENE-1.G: Explain how the Environmental
graph, including- a. Identifying cellular environment affects Impacts on
specific data points. b. Describing enzyme activity. Enzyme
trends and/or patterns in the Function
data. c. Describing relationships
between variables.
(A) Incorrect. The optimal pH for pepsin is around 2, which is acidic, not
basic.
(B) Incorrect. While the optimal pH for trypsin is basic, the stomach is
highly acidic, and it is unlikely that trypsin would function in an acidic
environment.
(C) Correct. The optimal pH for pepsin is around 2, and the pH of
the stomach is between 1.5 and 3.5, making the stomach an ideal
environment for pepsin.
(D) Incorrect. The optimal pH for trypsin is almost 9, which is basic, not
acidic.

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Question 53
Skill Learning Objective Topic
3.B: State the null and alternative EVO-1.H: Explain how Population
hypotheses or predict the results random occurrences affect Genetics
of an experiment. the genetic makeup of a
population.
(A) Correct. The null hypothesis is one that states that the variable tested
does not affect the variable measured. In this case the null hypothesis is
that growth on different nutrient sources does not affect mate selection.
(B) Incorrect. This is the alternate hypothesis that the experimenters were
testing.
(C) Incorrect. The researchers did not investigate the effect of the different
media on the viability of offspring.
(D) Incorrect. The researchers were studying the effect of different nutrient
sources, not confinement.

Question 54
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.C: Explain biological concepts, EVO-1.K: Describe the Hardy-
processes, and/or models in conditions under which Weinberg
applied contexts. allele and genotype Equilibrium
frequencies will change in
populations.
(A) Incorrect. A large population size is one of the conditions of Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium, because genetic drift is less likely to have a large
impact on large populations than on small populations.
(B) Correct. No migration is a condition of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,
so the fact that the flies were contained met this condition.
(C) Incorrect. The length of generations does not affect Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium. Additionally, a short generation time does not increase the
chances of mutations being passed to the next generation.
(D) Incorrect. An absence of selection is a condition of Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium, so if there were selective pressures exerted on the flies, this
condition would not have been met.

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Question 55
Skill Learning Objective Topic
6.A: Make a scientific claim EVO-3.F: Explain the Speciation
processes and mechanisms
that drive speciation.
(A) Incorrect. In sympatric speciation, a new species forms while occupying
the same habitat as the ancestral species. These populations of flies were
grown in separate chambers.
(B) Correct. Divergence might now occur because flies demonstrate
differential mate selection based on the food source on which they were
grown.
(C) Incorrect. In the experiment, it was observed that the flies do not mate,
which means there is a prezygotic barrier. Additionally, there are no data
to support that the offspring are less viable when mating does occur.
(D) Incorrect. Table 2 shows that there was no mating preference between
flies grown in separate chambers as long as they were grown on the
same growth medium.

Question 56
Skill Learning Objective Topic
5.A: Perform mathematical EVO-1.K: Describe Hardy-Weinberg
calculations, including- the conditions Equilibrium
a. Mathematical equations in the under which allele
curriculum. b. Means. c. Rates. and genotype
d. Ratios. e. Percentages. frequencies
will change in
populations.
(A) Incorrect. This is the frequency expected to be homozygous dominant,
p2, in the population.
(B) Incorrect. This is the frequency of the dominant allele, p, in the
population.

(C) Correct. The frequency expected to be heterozygous is 2pq, where

q = 0.64 ( calculation: ( 410 / 1000 ) )
and
p = 0.36 ( calculation: 1 − q ) .
(D) This is the frequency of the recessive allele, q, in the population.

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Question 57
Skill Learning Objective Topic
4.B: Describe data from a table or EVO-1.F: Explain how Artificial
graph, including- a. Identifying humans can affect diversity Selection
specific data points. b. Describing within a population.
trends and/or patterns in the
data. c. Describing relationships
between variables.
(A) Incorrect. There were only 8 instances of mating between these types of
flies.
(B) Correct. There were 22 instances of mating between these types of flies.
(C) Incorrect. While there were 20 instances of mating between these types
of flies, that number was not the highest.
(D) Incorrect. There were only 9 instances of mating between these types of
flies.

Question 58
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.C: Explain biological concepts, ENE-1.B: Explain the effect Cell Size
processes, and/or models in of surface area-to-volume
applied contexts. ratios on the exchange of
materials between cells
or organisms and the
environment.
(A) Incorrect. While the projections do add to the volume of the cell, the
surface area increases more dramatically. The metabolic needs would
likely not increase substantially.
(B) Correct. These projections add significantly more membrane than they
do cellular volume. That results in a greater surface area–to-volume ratio
and more efficient nutrient exchange.
(C) Incorrect. The speed at which an individual molecule can move is not
affected by the amount of membrane a cell has.
(D) Incorrect. The increased surface area will increase the number of
transport proteins that can fit in the membrane, not decrease it.

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Question 59
Skill Learning Objective Topic
2.B: Explain relationships ENE-1.K: Describe the Cellular
between different characteristics processes that allow Respiration
of biological concepts or organisms to use energy
processes represented visually- stored in biological
a. In theoretical contexts. b. In macromolecules.
applied contexts.
(A) Incorrect. Both NADH and FADH2 contribute two electrons to the
electron transport chain.
(B) Correct. The electrons from FADH2 are contributed to complex II
rather than complex I and therefore are transferred through fewer
complexes and have a lesser effect on the proton gradient than the
electrons from NADH do.
(C) Incorrect. FADH2 and NADH contribute the same number of protons to
the mitochondrial matrix.
(D) Incorrect. While protons in the matrix do combine with electrons and
O2 to make water, the protons are not specifically from FADH2.

Question 60
Skill Learning Objective Topic
1.B: Explain biological concepts IST-1.M: Describe the Replication
and/or processes. mechanisms by which
genetic information is
copied for transmission
between generations.
(A) Correct. Since DNA is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction, one strand of
DNA is synthesized discontinuously, forming fragments that are joined
by ligase.
(B) Incorrect. Hydrogen bonds form between complementary bases when
DNA polymerase places the correct nucleotide in the chain.
(C) Incorrect. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region during
transcription, not replication.
(D) Incorrect. Ligase is not involved in the completed DNA molecule
twisting into a double helix.

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Answer Key and Question Alignment to Course Framework

Multiple-Choice Answer Skill Learning Topic
Question Objective
1 A 1.C EVO-1.E Natural Selection
2 B 6.B SYI-1.C Structure and Function of Biological
Macromolecules
3 D 6.B IST-1.P Biotechnology
4 A 1.A IST-1.J Non-Mendelian Genetics
5 D 1.C ENE-1.A Elements of Life
6 A 3.C ENE-1.A Elements of Life
7 B 4.B ENE-1.A Elements of Life
8 C 3.E SYI-3.F Biodiversity
9 B 1.C SYI-1.B Introduction to Biological
Macromolecules
10 A 1.A ENE-2.B Plasma Membranes
11 C 6.E IST-2.C Gene Expression and Cell Specialization
12 B 2.A IST-1.D Regulation of Cell Cycle
13 C 6.D SYI-3.D Variations in Populations
14 A 1.C IST-5.A Responses to the Environment
15 A 1.A IST-1.A Nucleic Acids
16 B 4.B IST-3.F Signal Transduction
17 C 5.B IST-1.E Regulation of Cell Cycle
18 D 1.C ENE-1.K Cellular Respiration
19 C 2.B IST-3.G Changes in Signal Transduction
Pathways
20 B 1.B ENE-2.C Membrane Permeability
21 A 5.B ENE-1.J Photosynthesis
22 A 3.A IST-1.D Regulation of Cell Cycle
23 C 2.A IST-1.O Translation
24 C 5.C IST-1.J Non-Mendelian Genetics
25 D 1.C EVO-1.G Artificial Selection
26 C 4.B SYI-1.H Effect of Density of Populations
27 D 6.A EVO-3.B Phylogeny
28 C 1.C IST-1.O Translation
29 C 2.A IST-1.J Non-Mendelian Genetics
30 B 2.B IST-1.J Non-Mendelian Genetics

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Multiple-Choice Answer Skill Learning Topic

Question Objective
31 B 6.A IST-1.O Translation
32 D 3.E IST-1.P Biotechnology
33 B 1.A SYI-1.D Cell Structure - Subcellular Components
34 A 1.C SYI-3.F Biodiversity
35 C 2.B IST-3.E Signal Transduction
36 B 6.C EVO-1.E Natural Selection
37 C 6.E ENE-1.K Cellular Respiration
38 B 5.C IST-1.I Mendelian Genetics
39 A 3.C SYI-2.C Disruptions to Ecosystems
40 B 6.E IST-4.A Mutations
41 D 2.A ENE-1.H Cellular Energy
42 B 2.A ENE-1.L Cellular Respiration
43 A 6.E ENE-1.G Environmental Impacts on Enzyme
Function
44 D 1.C ENE-2.C Membrane Permeability
45 B 2.C ENE-1.K Cellular Respiration
46 B 6.E SYI-1.F Cell Structure and Function
47 A 5.A IST-1.I Mendelian Genetics
48 A 6.E SYI-2.A Disruptions to Ecosystems
49 C 2.A IST-1.D Regulation of Cell Cycle
50 D 1.C SYI-1.G Population Ecology
51 A 1.B IST-2.B Regulation of Gene Expression
52 C 4.B ENE-1.G Environmental Impacts on Enzyme
Function
53 A 3.B EVO-1.H Population Genetics
54 B 1.C EVO-1.K Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium
55 B 6.A EVO-3.F Speciation
56 C 5.A EVO-1.K Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium
57 B 4.B EVO-1.F Artificial Selection
58 B 1.C ENE-1.B Cell Size
59 B 2.B ENE-1.K Cellular Respiration
60 A 1.B IST-1.M Replication

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Free-Response Section
Scoring Guidelines

Question 1: Interpreting and Evaluating Experimental Results 9 points

Learning Objectives: ENE-1.A ENE-1.G ENE-1.L

(A) Describe how C. parvum obtains the glucose it needs for glycolysis after it has 1 point
infected another cell. 1.A

• C. parvum absorbs glucose from its environment, which, in this case, takes
glucose away from its host.

Explain the role of lactate dehydrogenase in enabling C. parvum to continue 1 point

producing ATP by glycolysis. 1.C

• Lactate dehydrogenase allows fermentation to convert NADH to NAD+, which

is needed for glycolysis to continue making ATP.

Total for part (A) 2 points

(B) Identify the independent variable used in the experiment 1 point

3.C
• The concentration of the chemical
Identify the difference between the control cells and the experimental cells 1 point
used in the experiment. 3.C

• The control cells were the same type of cells, infected with the parasite, but
not treated with any chemicals, as were the experimental cells.
Justify the researchers using a different range of concentrations for FX11 than 1 point
was used for gossypol. 3.C

• FX11 had minimal impact on the growth of C. parvum until it reached

a concentration of greater than 30μM, which was the maximum
concentration of gossypol that was tested.
Total for part (B) 3 points

(C) Based on the data in Figure 1, identify the concentration of gossypol that 1 point
reduced C. parvum growth to 50% of that in control cells. 4.B

• 15μM
Total for part (C) 1 point

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(D) Researchers discovered a strain of C. parvum that expresses a functional 1 point

variation of the lactate dehydrogenase gene. A DNA sequence comparison 3.B

showed that the variant differs from the normal sequence in the region that
codes for the enzyme’s allosteric site. Predict the effect of FX11 treatment on
C. parvum cells that express this variant of lactase dehydrogenase.
• FX11 will have little to no effect.
Provide reasoning to support your prediction. 1 point
• The allosteric site is the region of the enzyme where a non-competitive 6.C

inhibitor like FX11 would bind. It is likely that changing the sequence of this
region would decrease inhibitor binding.

Explain how gossypol and FX11 might be used as drugs to treat C. parvum 1 point
infections in humans without negatively affecting human cells. 6.D

• The drugs will prevent C. parvum from generating the ATP it needs to
survive by inhibiting a key enzyme in fermentation. Since human cells have
mitochondria and do not rely on fermentation to produce ATP, they are not
likely to be harmed.
Total for part (D) 3 points
Total for question 1 9 points

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Question 2: Interpreting
and Evaluating Experimental Results with Graphing 9 points

Learning Objectives: IST-1.C IST-1.O IST-2.E

(A) Describe the situations in which a normal human cell would enter the cell cycle 1 point
and undergo mitotic cell division. 1.A

• Cells divide by mitosis when the organism is growing or repairing tissues.

Explain how spindle fibers help ensure the products of mitosis are two identical 1 point
cells with a full set of chromosomes. 1.C

• Spindle fibers attach to the center of each duplicated chromosome and assist
in pulling one chromatid to each pole of the cell so that, when the cell divides,
each daughter cell contains a copy of each chromosome.
Total for part (A) 2 points

(B) Using the template in the space provided for your response, construct an 3 points
4.A
appropriately labeled graph that represents the data shown in Table 1.
One point for each of the following:
• Correct axes and labeling
• Correctly plotted points and scaling
• Correctly plotted error bars
Based on the data, determine the concentration(s) of paclitaxel that is (are) 1 point
most effective in causing tripolar cell division. 5.B

• A concentration of 6-8 nM

Total for part (B) 4 points

(C) Based on the data, identify the lowest level of paclitaxel that will allow for at 1 point
least 50% of the cells to be tripolar. 4.B

• 4 nM

From the start codon through the stop codon, the length of the fully processed 1 point
AURKA mRNA is 1,212 nucleotides. Calculate the number of amino acids in the 5.A

polypeptide chain coded for by the mRNA.

• 1,212 nucleotides minus 3 nucleotides (for the stop codon) equals 1,209.
1,209 divided by 3 nucleotides per amino acid equals 403 amino acids.
Total for part (C) 2 points

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(D) Predict the effect of a mutation that prevents the expression of AURKA on a 1 point
normal (noncancerous) cell. 6.E

• The cell will be unable to undergo mitosis.

Total for part (D) 1 point

Total for question 2 9 points

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Question 3: Scientific Investigation 4 points

Learning Objectives: EVO-1.E EVO-1.D

(A) Describe the way the scientists will determine the evolutionary fitness of the 1 point
mice in the experiment. 1.A

• By determining whether the mice survive to successfully reproduce.

(B) Identify the independent variable in the scientists’ experiment. 1 point

3.C
• The color of the ground in each of the enclosures

(C) State the null hypothesis of this experiment. 1 point

3.B
• The color of the enclosure ground will not affect the frequency of light and
dark mice in the population.

(D) The scientists claim that the changes in the frequency of fur color were the result 1 point
of natural selection. Justify the researchers’ claim. 6.C

• Mice with a fur color that helped them blend into the environment were able
to avoid predation and reproduce, increasing the frequency of their genes in
the population.
Total for question 3 4 points

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Question 4: Conceptual Analysis 4 points

Learning Objectives: ENE-4.B ENE-4.C

(A) Describe the relationship between a parasite and its host. 1 point
1.A
• The parasite will benefit while the host will be harmed.

(B) Explain how producing the enzymes that digest α-pinene is beneficial to the 1 point
1.C
bacterial species living within the nematodes.
• By producing the enzymes that digest α-pinene, the bacteria increase the
survival rate of the nematodes. This ensures that the nematodes continue
provide a protected habitat and resources for the bacteria.

(C) Predict the effect of the antibiotic treatments on the mortality rate of the 1 point
nematodes when exposed to α-pinene. 6.E

• The mortality rate of the nematodes will increase after the nematodes are
treated with antibiotics.

(D) Provide reasoning to justify your prediction in part (c). 1 point

6.C
• Antibiotics will reduce the bacterial population thereby preventing the
degradation of α-pinene. As a result, there will be more α-pinene to negatively
affect the nematodes and more nematodes will die.
Total for question 4 4 points

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Question 5: Analyze Model

or Visual Representation of a Biological Concept or Process 4 points
Learning Objectives: SYI-1.F SYI-1.D

(A) Describe the major process that takes place in this eukaryotic organelle. 1 point
1.A
• Light provides the energy to fix carbon into organic molecules

(B) Explain the function of the structure labeled with an X in Figure 1. 1 point
2.B
• Specific metabolic functions are more efficiently carried out because the
outer membrane enables the compartmentalization of chemical reactions.

(C) On the template in the space provided for your response, represent the location 1 point
where carbon fixation takes place by writing “CF” and the location of the 2.D

electron transport proteins by writing “ETP.”

• “CF” must be marked in the stroma and “ETP” must be marked on a thylakoid
membrane.

(D) Explain how the shape and stacking of the thylakoids contributes to the rate of 1 point
carbon fixation by the chloroplast. 2.C

• The thin and stacked nature of the thylakoids increases the surface area of the
thylakoid membrane, allowing for a greater number of chlorophyll molecules
and electron transport proteins.
Total for question 5 4 points

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Question 6: Analyze Data 4 points

Learning Objectives: IST-1.J

(A) Identify the genotypes of the male and female flies used in cross 2. 1 point
4.B
• X rX r and XRY

(B) Identify the cross in which the female parent was most likely heterozygous. 1 point
4.B
• Cross 3

(C) The researchers hypothesize that crossing any unaffected female and an affected 1 point
male will result in a 0% chance of producing an affected male offspring. Evaluate 5.D

the validity of the hypothesis.

• This hypothesis is not supported. If the unaffected mother is heterozygous, she
can pass on the recessive allele and the male offspring will be affected.

(D) Explain how the results exclude the possibility that the trait is encoded by a 1 point
mitochondrial gene. 6.D

• Traits encoded by mitochondrial genes are inherited from the female parent
only, resulting in offspring that all have the same genotype as their mother.
Total for question 6 4 points

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