40)" 2021
SET - 2

CLASS ASSIGNMENTS : 2021

 SET -2

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE  Edu pro : These questions are normally more

CLASS ASSIGNMENT 2 difficult than the average questions . Learning
objectives of these questions are sharpen the
skills learnt at previous level take every
Profit, Loss, Discount
questions as a new learning opportunity.
Significance:
Edu tip / approach to solve this assignment:
(optional)
 Profit, Loss and Discount are yet another
crucial topic of an Arithmetic section of
 Start with basic concepts, focused in
Quantitative Aptitude. You may also find the
class and note down all important concepts
application of this topic in certain Data
after understand all concepts then go move
Interpretation questions as well.
on edu good level then edu smart in the
assignment and then edu pro.
 Profit & Loss is essential for all entrance
exams as it determines the potential of any
 Convert fraction to percent and percent to
student to analyse the problems and know
fraction wherever necessary.
how to solve them at ease at the quickest of
the moment.
 Profit or loss percentage is expressed as a
fraction with CP at the denominator.
 Practical Illustration of any concept regarding
Profit & Loss is one of the blooming features
that only Edumentor armed you with.

What will we cover in This Assignment?

 COST PRICE (CP)
 SELLING PRICE (SP)
 PROFIT
 LOSS
 MARKED PRICE
 DISCOUNT

Structure of the assignment

 The questions in the assignment have been

categorized into three levels of difficulty:
Edu good
Edu smart
Edu pro

 Edu good : These are the basic types of

questions. Learning objectives of these
questions are to clear basic concepts and
understanding of topic.

 Edu smart : These are the types of questions,

which are more advance then previous level.
Learning objective of these questions are
apply concepts in less time with more
accuracy.
 SET -2

Level Edu Good series of 30%, 20% and 10% is.

(a) 50% (b) 49.6%
1. A man buys a cycle for Rs. 1400 and sells it at (c) 49.4% (d) 50.4%
a loss of 15%. What is the selling price of the
cycle? 10. A man purchased sugar worth Rs. 400. He
(a) Rs 1202 (b) Rs 1190 sold 3/4th at a loss of 10% and the remainder
(c) Rs 1160 (d)Rs 1000 at a gain of 10%. On the whole, he gets
(a) 5% loss (b) 5% gain
2. An item when sold for Rs. 1690 earned 30% (c) 5 1/19 % loss (d) 5 1/17 % gain
profit on the cost price. Then the cost price
is. Level Edu Pro
(a) Rs 507 (b) Rs 630
(c) Rs 1300 (d) Rs 130 11. A fruit vendor buys fruits from the fruit
market at wholesale prices and
3. A fan is listed at Rs. 150 and a discount of sells them at his shop at retail prices. He
20% are given. Then the selling price is. operates his shop 30 days a month, as a rule.
(a).Rs 180 (b)Rs 150 He buys in multiples of 100 fruits and sells
(c)Rs 120 (d)Rs 110 them in multiples of a dozen fruits. He
purchases mangoes for 425 per hundred and
4. If the S.P. of an article for is 4/3 times its C.P. sells at 65 per dozen, he buys apples at
The profit percent is 150 per hundred and sells at 30 per dozen, he
(a) 33 1/3% (b) 25 1/4 % buys watermelons (always of equal size) at
(c) 20 ½ % (d) 20 ¾ % 1800 per hundred and sells at 360 per dozen.
Which of the three fruits yields him the
5. By selling an article for Rs. 19.50, a dealer maximum percentage profit?
makes a profit of 30%. By how much should (a) Mangoes (b) Apples
he increase his S.P. so as to make a profit of (c) Watermelons (d) Both (b) and (c)
40%?
(a) Rs. 1.50 (b) Rs. 1.75 12. A shopkeeper gives a discount of 10% in
(c) Rs. 2 (d) Rs. 3 every 4 months at an article. If a man
purchases it for Rs. 25515 in the month of
6. The C.P. of 20 articles is the same as S.P. of December, then what was the initial price of
15 articles. The profit percent is…. that article in the month of January?
(a) 25% (b) 30% (a). Rs. 40000 (b). Rs. 36000
(c) 33 1/3 % (d) 50% (c). Rs. 35000 (d). Rs. 45000

Level Edu Smart : 13. Genelia bought some stationery items at the
rate of 5 for Re. 1 and an equal number of
7. A reduction of 25% in the price of eggs will items at the rate of 4 for Re. 1. She mixed
enable one to buy 4 dozen more eggs for Rs. both the types of items and sold them at the
96. What is the price per dozen? rate of 9 for Rs. 2. In this transaction she
(a) Rs. 6 (b) Rs. 8 bore a loss of Rs. 3. Find the total number of
(c) Rs. 9 (d) None of these items purchased by her?
(a). 1100 (b). 1080
8. An article when sold at a gain of 5% yields Rs. (c). 1060 (d).1020
15 more than when sold at a loss of 5%.
What is the C.P.? 14. Marked price of three articles A, B and C are
(a) Rs. 64 (b) Rs. 80 Rs.2400, Rs.3000 and Rs.3600 respectively. A
(c) Rs. 150 (d) None of these is sold at a discount of 5%, B at a discount of
8% and C at a discount of 10%, yet the
9. A single discount equivalent to a discount shopkeeper got a overall profit of 20%. If cost
 SET -2

price of A is half of B and the cost price of B is (a). Rs. 180 (b).Rs. 156
half of C, find the cost price of C. (c).Rs. 64 (d).Rs. 28
(a). Rs. 3932.85
(b). Rs. 3942.85 21. In PVR has 300 seats. The price of each ticket,
(c).Rs. 3940.58 when the theatre is houseful, is Rs.60. For
(d).Rs. 3492.85 every Rs.1 increase in the price of the ticket,
the number of tickets sold goes down by 2.
15. A man purchased 150 chairs, each costing the What is the price of the ticket (in Rs.) for
same, but 40% of them are damaged which which the theatre owner would earn the
cannot be sold. He sold 50% of the remaining maximum possible revenue?
at 20% profit each and remaining at 5% loss (a). Rs. 90
each. If the total selling price of chairs is Rs. (b).Rs. 105
7740, then what was the total cost price of (c). Rs. 120
all chairs? (d). Rs. 150
(a). Rs. 13000
(b). Rs. 11000
(c).Rs. 12000
(d).Rs. 15000

Do it by yourself

16. A fruit seller purchases oranges at the rate of

3 for Rs. 5 and sells them at 2 for Rs. 4. His
profit is.
(a) 10% (b) 11%
(c) 20% (d) 25%

17. A sells a bicycle to B at a profit of 20% and B

sells it to C at a profit of 25%. If C pays Rs.
1500, what did A pay for it?
(a) Rs. 825 (b) Rs. 1000
(c) Rs.110 (d) Rs. 1125

18. A grain dealer cheats to the extent of 10%

while buying as well as selling, by using false
weights. His total gain% is.
(a) 10% (b) 20 %
(c) 22 2/9% (d) 21%

19. By using false weight a gain 5 5/19 % by

claiming to sell at cost price. What weight did
he actually use for a kg weight?
(a) 950 gm (b) 900 gm
(c) 940 gm (d) None of these

20. Rakesh bought a cycle for Rs. 800. and

marked it up by 50% and gave a discount of
10%. A customer came in to buy the cycle
and bargained with Rakesh for an additional
discount of 20% on the already discounted
price. What is the profit earned by Rakesh?
 SET -2

Brain Storming
 SET -2

objectives of these questions are sharpen the

LOGICAL REASONING skills learnt at previous level take every
CLASS ASSIGNMENT 2 questions as a new learning opportunity.

Edu tip / approach to solve this assignment:

Sequence and Series (optional)

Significance:  Start with basic concepts, focused in

class and note down all important concepts
 At least 3-4 questions in the logical reasoning after understand all concepts then go move
section of Entrance exams are reserved for on edu good level then edu smart in the
Sequence and Series questions. assignment and then edu pro.

 Sequence and series are among the most  The relation between AM, GM, and HM must
frequently occurring topics in Entrance exams. be at your fingertips.
 It tests the exam taker’s ability to discern
patterns and conduct quick calculations.  You must learn squares of numbers upto 40
 Sequence and series questions do not usually and cubes of numbers upto 20.
need a direct formula, and hence are used as
a test of quantitative aptitude.  In the wrong number series, the pattern of
 Infinite sequence and series questions also the series will always be wrong immediately
test the logic of the Students. before and after of the wrong number.

What will we cover in This Assignment? Some steps which may be helpful to solve
number series.
Number series
Alphabet series  Step 1: Check the difference
Alpha- numeric series
Continuous pattern series  Step 2: If step 1 does not work, then check the
All Previous year imp questions difference of difference. If it also does not
work, try to find is there any multiplication or
Structure of the assignment division relationship between numbers?
The questions in the assignment have been
categorized into three levels of difficulty:  Step 3: If a difference is sharply increasing or
Edu good decreasing, then you can guess that it may be
Edu smart due to multiplication or division pattern of
Edu pro series.

Edu good : These are the basic types of  Step 4: If there is more irregularity in
questions. Learning objectives of these difference, then it may be the combination of
questions are to clear basic concepts and above-discussed steps.
understanding of topic.
 Step 5: If none of the steps works, then try to
Edu smart : These are the types of questions, use the elimination method, which may help
which are more advance then previous level. you in eliminating 2 to 3 options
Learning objective of these questions are
apply concepts in less time with more
accuracy.
Edu pro : These questions are normally more
difficult than the average questions . Learning
 SET -2

Level Edu Good

8. 2, A, 9, B, 6, C, 13, D, ?
DIRECTIONS : What should come in place of (a) 9 (b) 10
question mark (?) in the following number (c) 12 (d) 19
series?
1. 26, 12, 10, 16, ? Level Edu Smart :
(a) 50 (b) 52
(c) 53 (d) 56 DIRECTIONS : What should come in place of
(e) 57 question mark (?) in the following number
series?
2. 82, 107, 207, 432, 832, ?
(a) 1550 (b) 1450 9. 6 42 164 450 1002?
(c) 1457 (d) 1542 (a). 1908 (b). 1928
(e) 1478 (c). 1946 (d). 1936
(e). None of these
3. 122, 213, 340, 509, 726, ?
(a) 942 (b) 997 10. 42 40 38 35 33 31 28 ? ?
(c) 919 (d) 950 (a). 25 22 (b). 26 23
(e) 922 (c). 26 24 (d). 25 23
(e).26 22
4. 25, 37.5, 56.25, ?, 12.5625
(a) 72.375 (b) 84.375 11. 6 10 14 18 22 26 30 ? ?
(c) 92.255 (d) 59.750 (a). 36 40 (b). 33 37
(e) 69.450 (c). 38 42 (d). 34 36
(e). 34 38
Directions : The following questions are
based on the five three letter words given 12. 8 12 9 13 10 14 11 ? ?
below. (a). 14 11 (b). 15 12
TUB HUB MUG PAR FOR (c). 8 15 (d). 15 19
5. If the positions of the first and second letters (e). 8 5
of all the words are interchanged, how many
words will form meaningful English words? 13. 36 31 29 24 22 17 15 ? ?
(a) None (b) Three (a). 13 11 (b). 10 5
(c) One (d) Two (c). 13 8 (d). 12 7
(e) More than three (e). 10 8

6. If all the letters in each of the words are Directions : Answer these questions referring
arranged alphabetically (within the word), to the letter sequence given below:
how many words will remain unchanged? QRDSTWCKGUVEJZHIXYANOFM
(a) Two PBL
(b) Three 14. If the letters of the above given series are
(c) One written in reverse order, which letter will be
(d) None the fourth to the left of eleventh letter from
(e) More than three the right end?
(a) O (b) U
DIRECTIONS : What should come in place of (c) V (d) N
question mark (?) in the following number (e) None of these
series?
7. W-144, ?, S-100, Q-81, O-64 15. What will come in place of question mark (?)
(a) U-121 (b) U-122 in the following series?
(c) V-122 (d) V-128 RSD WKC VJE ?
 SET -2

(a) XYA (b) XAY (a) 3 (b) 45

(c) IYX (d) IXY (c) 15 (d) 6
(e) None of these (e) 156.5

16. Which of the following is sixth to the right of 24. 36, 20, 12, 8, 6, 5.5, 4.5
the thirteenth letter from the left end? (a). 5.5 (b). 6
(a) Y (b) A (c). 12 (d). 20
(c) N (d) O (d). 8
(e) None of these
Do it by yourself
Level Edu pro
DIRECTIONS : What should come in place of
17. 3 715 31 ? 127 question mark (?) in the following number
(a). 93 (b). 94 series?
(c). 63 (d). 53 25. 10, 50, 94, 142, 194, ?
(e). None of these (a) 250 (b) 270
(c) 260 (d) 240
18. 35 210 1050 4200 ? 25200 (e) 220
(a). 12600 (b). 12340
(c). 12580 (d). 12200 Directions : The following questions are
(e). None of these based on the five three letter words given
below.
Directions : Answer these questions referring TUB HUB MUG PAR FOR
to the letter sequence given below:
KGUVEJZHBLQRDSTWC 26. If the first letter of all the words is changed
19. How many letters are there between first to its next letter (succeeding) of the English
and last letter of the above series according alphabetical series, then how many words
to alphabetical order? will have more than one vowel? (Same or
(a) 8 (b) 7 different vowel)
(c) 9 (d) 6 (a) None (b) Three
(e) None of these (c) Two (d) More than three
(e) One
20. Which of the following is the fourth letter to
the left of the 13th letter from left end? DIRECTIONS : What should come in place of
(a) R (b) V question mark (?) in the following number
(c) L (d) H series?
(e) B 27. 7 4 5 9 ? 52.5
(a). 20 (b). 18
21. Look at this series: F2, __, D8, C16, B32, ... (c). 29.5 (d). 21
What number should fill the blank? (e). None of these
(a). A16 (b). G4
(c). E4 (d). E3 Directions : Answer these questions referring
to the letter sequence given below:
22. Look at this series: V, VIII, XI, XIV, __, XX, ... QRDSTWCKGUVEJZHIXYANOFM
What number should fill the blank? PBL
(a) IX (b) XXIII
(c) XV (d) XVII 28. Which one set of letters when sequentially
placed at the gaps in the given letter series
DIRECTIONS : Find the Wrong term in the shall complete it ?
given series: b _ac _ cc _ cb _ ab _ ac
23. 2, 3, 6, 15, 45, 156.5, 630 (a). cbaba (b).bbaac
 SET -2

(c). abbbc (d). aabba

29. 8 14 23 36.5 ? 87.125

(a). 54.75 (b). 49.75
(c). 87.75 (d). 56.75
(e). None of these

30. 1, 3, 9, 31, 128, 651, 3913

(a). 651 (b). 128
(c). 31 (d). 9
(e). 3
 SET -2

Brain Storming

Can you figure out a method to make all four lights on the machine below switch on at once?
This problem follows on from Charlie's Delightful Machine, where you are invited to find efficient
strategies for working out the rules controlling each light.
The rules for turning on the Level 1 lights are all given by linear sequences (like those found
in Shifting Times Tables).

What is special about a Level 1 rule where all the 'light on' numbers
 are odd?
 are even?
 are a mixture of odd and even?
 are all multiples of 3? Or 4? Or...
 have a last digit of 7?

Can you make two Level 1 lights light up together?

Once you have made two Level 1 lights light up together, can you find another number that will light
them both up? And another? And another?

Can you find any connections between the rules that light up each individual Level 1 light and the
rule that lights up the pair?
What about trying to light up three lights at once? Or all four?
Sometimes it's impossible to switch a pair of Level 1 lights on simultaneously.

How can you decide whether it is possible to switch a pair of lights on simultaneously?
Or a set of three lights?
Or all four?
 SET -2

VERBAL ABILITY
CLASS ASSIGNMENT 2  Figure out what parts of the sentence are
being compared.
Parallelism
 Decide whether they are parallel, i.e. arranged
in the same way.If they are not, make them
Significance:
parallel by making the grammatical
construction the same in each part.
 In the Grammar section of Entrance exams,
there are questions on the concept of
 The obvious way to become perfect in solving
Parallelism, which is the repetition of a
the questions is to follow the tricks and tips by
chosen grammatical form within a sentence.
our expert Faculty and practice as much as
you can.
 In a sentence, with phrases and clauses, the
tense remains the same throughout.
5 GOLDEN RULES to be mastered to solve
Parallelism error is not evident to a layman in
parallel sentences:
conversational English but that does not take
away from the fact that it is an incorrect
 When you connect two or more clauses or
sentence.
phrases with a conjunction (for, and, nor,
but,etc) use parallel structure.
 Errors pertaining to this topic are perhaps the
most common ones asked in the exam.
 When you connect two clauses or phrases
Sentence improvement questions also based
with a correlative conjunction (not only,but
on this.
also, either…or,neither…nor, if…then, etc.)
use parallel structure
 Along with the good weightage, the well laid
out rules that dictate Parallelism make it a
 Observe parallel structure of sentences while
scoring area for the student.
comparing elements.
 It is easy to learn & score in this topic with
 Observe parallel structure when elements are
accuracy.
in a list.
What will we cover in This Assignment?
 When you connect two clauses or phrases
with a word of comparison, such as ‘than’ or
 Faulty parallelism in parts of speech
‘as’, use parallel structure.
 Faulty parallelism in phrases and clauses
 How Verbal skills functions in different
contexts.
 Identify ways that are parallel and not
parallel.
 All previous year important questions.

Structure of the assignment

 The questions in the assignment have covered

all aspects of Parallelism as per latest exam
pattern. The questions in the assignment have
been arranged in categories.

Edu tip / approach to solve this assignment:

(optional)
 SET -2

Coordinating Conjunctions 10. _______ had I put my umbrella away,

_______ it started raining.
1. Would you rather have cheese _____ (a) No sooner / than (b) If / then
bologna on your sandwich? (c) What with / and (d) Neither / nor
(a) For (b) Nor
11. This salad is _______ delicious _______
(c) Or (d) So
healthy.
(a) Whether / or (b) Both / and
2. His two favorite sports are football ______
(c) Scarcely / when (d) Rather / than
tennis.
(a) Or (b) And 12. I like __________ to sing opera,
(c) Nor (d) For _______________ to spend my spare time
practicing ballroom dances.
3. I wanted to go to the beach, _______ Mary (a) not only / but also (b) whether / or
refused. (c) neither / nor (d) not / but
(a) But (b) Or
(c) So (d) For Subordinating Conjunctions

4. I am allergic to cats, ______ I have three of 13. _________ the basement flooded, we spent
them. all day cleaning up.
(a) Or (b) For (a) After (b) Although
(c) Yet (d) So (c) Before (d) Even if

5. I am a vegetarian, _______ I don’t eat any 14. I don’t want to go to the movies
meat. _____________ I hate the smell of popcorn.
(a) So (b) Yet (a) Although (b) Because
(c) Nor (d) But (c) Whenever (d) So that

6. Thomas will be late to work, _____ he has a 15. I paid Larry, ___________ garden design
dental appointment. work is top-notch.
(a) but (b) or (a) Whenever (b) Whose
(c) for (d) nor (c) After (d) If

Correlative conjunction 16. ___________ spring arrives, we have to be

prepared for more snow.
7. She is neither polite _______ funny. (a) Because (b) Until
(a) Or (b) Nor (c) Although (d) Now that
(c) Not (d) Yet
17. _____________ the alarm goes off, I hit the
8. _______ that is the case, _______ I’m not snooze button.
surprised about what’s happening.
(a) As soon as (b) Because
(a) If / then (b) No sooner / than
(c) Before (d) Now that
(c) Scarcely / when (d) Whether / or
18. _______________ she tried really hard, she
9. Have you made a decision about _______ to
go to the movies _______ not? lost the race.
(a) If / then (b) Either / or (a) Although (b) Because
(c) Whether / or (d) What with / and (c) Since (d) as
 SET -2

19. ________________ my wife loves lilies, my DIRECTIONS Decide whether the sentence
sister prefers roses. has parallel structure or not.
(a) Because (b) Whereas 23. She decided to leave her job and travelling
(c) Rather than (d) before the world.
A. Parallel
Parallelism B. Not Parallel

Directions for questions : Identify the 24. He started the engine, released the hand
INCORRECT sentence or sentences. break, and checked the mirror.
20. A. I am very fond of my dog, my cat and my A. Parallel
canary. B. Not Parallel
B. I am very fond of my dog, cat and canary.
C. I am only fond of my dog but not of my cat 25. Some people think that being successful is
or my canary. the same thing as to have money.
D. I am only fond of my dog but not of my cat A. Parallel
nor my canary. B. Not Parallel
E. I am neither fond of my dog, nor of my cat
or canary. 26. Did you decide not to come because you are
(a) A and C (b) B and E
tired or are you feeling sick?
(c) C and D (d) A and B
(e) D and E A. Parallel
B. Not Parallel
21. A. Not only has the Director impressed the
workers, but has motivated them. 27. She was disappointed by not only his clothes
B. The Director has impressed the board with but also his mannerisms.
his inspiring speeches that have improved A. Parallel
employee morale. B. Not Parallel
C. If the Director has made a good impression
on the workers, then he has succeeded in 28. She wants neither the red one nor the yellow
motivating them as well. one.
D. The workers were motivated and the A. Parallel
Directors of the company were impressed B. Not Parallel
with their hard-work.
E. The board has been impressed by the 29. When I wake up I like either walking the dog
Director as he has singlehandedly motivated
or to go for a jog.
the workers.
A. Parallel
(a) A only (b) B and D
B. Not Parallel
(c) C only (d) D only
(e) None of these.
30. I would describe her as intelligent, caring,
22. A. You can play neither indoors nor outdoors. and thoughtful.
B. You can play either indoors or outdoors. A. Parallel
C. Being able to play outdoors is more B. Not Parallel
important than playing indoors.
D. To be able to play indoors is only a Do it by yourself
substitute for playing outdoors.
E. Playing indoors is vastly preferred to 31. Jennifer does not like to swim, ____ does
playing outdoors. she enjoy cycling.
(a) C only (b) D and E
(a) and (b) or
(c) A and B (d) E only
(c) but (d) nor
(e) None of these
 SET -2

37. He suggested that we go for a meal then we

32. Jackson wanted to eat another piece of cake, should see a film.
____ he was on a diet. A. Parallel
(a) for (b) but B. Not Parallel
(c) yet (d) so
38. Spain is a place where you can eat cheap
33. The test was ____________ very short food and soak up the sun.
__________ quite easy. A. Parallel
(a) not / but (b) both / and B. Not Parallel
(c) whether / or (d) scarcely / when

34. ______________ Joe _______ his sisters

could understand what their parents were
saying when they spoke French.
(a) Whether / or
(b) No sooner / than
(c) Rather / than
(d) Neither / nor

35. ________________ sending everyone the

same email, John composed a separate email
for each of his friends.
(a) If only (b) Unless
(c) Rather than (d) because

Directions for questions : Identify the

INCORRECT sentence or sentences.
36. Caffeine in coffee has been attributed to
quicken the aging process and increasing the
risk of cancer.
B. He always is in a hurry and often forgets
his keys and wallet.
C. The power station provides electricity to
around one million people, and is situated on
the outskirts of the township.
D. The boy played with his blocks, his toy
cars and crayons.
E. The creek begins the drop by falling down
a 20 feet cascade, then impacts a large, egg-
shaped dome and spreads into a wide fan,
dropping 400 feet.
(a) A, C and D
(b) B, C and D
(c) A, B and D
(d) C only
(e) C, D and E

DIRECTIONS Decide whether the sentence

has parallel structure or not.
 SET -2

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE more you would learn.

CLASS ASSIGNMENT 2  Read the articles in the constitution
thoroughly. Try to memorize them regularly.
POLITY AND CONSTITUTION
 Learn everything with interest and focus on its
Significance: relevance in our life.

 The polity and constitution section in the

Entrance exams tests the general knowledge
and general awareness.

 It holds good weightage in general awareness

section. Around 2-3 questions are asked from
this section.

 Only subject where you don’t need to put up

formulas & tricks or learn vocabulary which
will take time, it is easy to learn & score in
polity with accuracy.

 Time saving , as it takes 2-3 seconds to answer

the polity question.

 Straight forward question based on facts &

concepts of polity.

What will we cover in This Assignment?

 Constituent Assembly
 Features of the Indian Constitution
 Important articles related with:
 Fundamental Rights & Fundamental Duties
 Union & State Executive
 Parliament & Indian Judiciary
 Constitutional & Non-Constitutional Bodies
 All previous year imp questions

Structure of the assignment:

 The questions in the assignment have covered
all aspects of polity and constitution as per
latest exam pattern. The questions in the
assignment have been covered all categories.
Start with the basic understanding of
constitution.

Edu tip / approach to solve this assignment:

(optional)

 Repeated reading and revision will be helpful

in this process. The more times you read the
 SET -2

Constituent Assembly been incorporated?

(a) Canada (b) Ireland
1. The Constituent Assembly of India was step (c) Germany (d) USA
up under the framework of?
(a) Cripps mission (1942) 7. The Objective Resolution was unanimously
(b) Cabinet mission (1946) adopted by the Constituent Assembly on
(c) Simon commission (1927) 22nd January 1947, had the following
(d) None of these. provisions as given below:
I. Adequate safeguards shall be provided for
2. The all important drafting committee had minorities, backward and tribal areas,
two distinguished jurist and lawyers along and depressed and other backward classes.
with the chairman Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. They II. All power and authority of the Sovereign
were? Independent India, its constituent parts and
(a) B.N Rau and Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer organs of government, are derived from the
(b) B.N Rau and S.N. Mukherjee people.
(c) Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer and K.M. Munshi Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) K.M. Munshi and S.N. Mukherjee correct?
(a) I only (b)II only
3. After the creation of Constituent Assembly of (c)Both I and II (d)Neither I nor II
Pakistan in 1947, the membership of
Constituent Assembly of India was reduced 8. The national Anthem was adopted by the
to 299 from 389 earlier. What was the total constituent Assembly on which of the
number of members from the provinces in following day?
the Constituent Assembly? (a) 24 January, 1947
(a) 229 (b) 70 (b) 22 July, 1947
(c) 292 (d) 93 (c) 29 August, 1947
(d) 26 November, 1949
4. The Constituent Assembly of India was
passed and adopted on which of the Features of the Indian Constitution
following days?
(a) 24 January, 1950 9. In Indian Polity which of the following is
(b) 26 January, 1950 Supreme?
(c) 26 November, 1949 (a) The Supreme Court
(d) 29 August, 1947 (b) The Constitution
(c) The Parliament
5. The philosophy underlying the Indian (d) Religion
constitution was embodied quite early in the
Objective Resolution, which was moved in 10. Who called Indian Federalism as the Co-
the first session of the Constituent Assembly operative Federalism ?
(on 13 December 1946) by: (a) G. Austin
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (b) K.C. Wheare
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Sir Ivor Jennings
(c) Chakravarti Rajagopalachari (d) D.D. Bas
(d) Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
11. The constitution of India is
6. The framers of Indian Constitution (a) Rigid
accommodated some of the best possible (b) Flexible
and Time tested features of other countries (c) Very rigid
constitution like ‘Judicial Review ‘and (d) Partly rigid, partly flexible
Preamble’?
Name the country from which it has 12. There are provisons in the constitution to
 SET -2

ensure the independence of 19. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) Parliament (a) Fundamental Duties are given in Part IV of
(b) Judiciary the Constitution
(c) Citizens (b) After the 42th constitutional amendment
(d) None of these Fundamental Duties have been added to the
Constitution of India.
13. The most essential feature of a federal (c) In 2002, after the 82nd Constitution
government is Amendment Act, another Fundamental Duty
(a) Division of a Power between the federal was added.
and state government (d) Public Representation Act, Built in1951.
(b) Supremacy of parliament
(c) Supremacy of Judiciary 20. With respect to the Fundamental Rights,
(d) Single Citizenship consider the following statements:
I.Right to Property was deleted from the list
14. How many Articles consists in the Indian of fundamental rights by the 44th
Constitution? Amendment Act, 1978.
(a) 448 Articles II. Right to Elementary Education is available
(b) 120 Articles to the citizens of India only.
(c) 280 Articles III. Article 19 protects the citizen’s right to
(d) 750 Articles move in and out of the country.
IV. Which of the given statements is not
15. Which one of the following is a basic feature correct?
of the Presidential Government ? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Rigid Constitution (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Single Executive (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Supremacy of the Legislature (d) All of the above
(d) Residual Powers of the States
21. Which of the following fundamental right
16. Who among the following gave the following does not fall under the category of ‘Right to
statement about the Indian Constitution ? Freedom’
'Indian constitution strikes a good balance (a) Freedom of Profession
between extreme rigidity and too much (b) Freedom to manage religious affairs
flexibility'. (c) Protection of life and personal liberty
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (d) Freedom Expression
(b) M.V. Pylee
(c) Alexanderowic 22. Which article of the Constitution of India
(d) K.C. Wheare deals with the ‘Right to Constitutional
Remedies’?
Fundamental Rights & Fundamental (a) Article 19
Duties (b) Article 14
(c) Article 21
17. The constitution of India, adopted (d) Article 32
Fundamental Duties from the constitution of
....... 23. The article of Indian Constitution related to
(a) America (b) Japan abolition of un touchability is
(c) Russia (d) Britain (a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
18. When Fundamental Duties were added in the (c) Article 17
Constitution of India? (d) Article 18
(a) 1976 (b) 1965
(c) 1970 (d) 1992 24. Which provision relating to the fundamental
 SET -2

rights is directly related to the exploitation of (a) 35 years of age

children? (b) He should be eligible to be elected as a
(a) Article 17 member of Rajya Sabha.
(b) Article 19 (c) Must be an Indian citizen
(c) Article 23 (d) Only a and c
(d) Article 24
30. Which of the following is not matched?
Union & State Executive (a) Article 54: Presidential election
(B) Article 55: manner of presidential election
25. In which of the following circumstances, the (c) Article 60: Procedure for impeachment of
prime minister of India cannot participate in the President
voting on a no-confidence motion against his (d) Article 123: Power of the President to
/ her government? promulgate ordinance
(a) He / She leads a coalition government
(b) He / she has minority in Rajya Sabha 31. Which article of Indian constitution
(c) He / she is a member of Rajya Sabha envisages that there shall be an Attorney
(d) He / she is forbidden by speaker of Lok General of India?
Sabha (a) Article 78 (b) Article 76
(c) Article 67 (d) Article 113
26. Which of the following is / are parts of Union
Executive? 32. Who is the chief executive head of the state?
I. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime (a) Chief minister
Minister (b) Governor
II. President of India (c) President
III. Central Secretariat (d) None of the above
IV. Vice President
Select the correct answer from the codes Parliament & Indian Judiciary
given below:
(a) Only 1 33. Which of the following statement is not true
(b) Only 1 & 2 about India's Supreme Court?
(c) Only 1, 2 & 3 (a) Article 124 to 147 and Part V of the Indian
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 Constitution informs about the composition
and powers of the Supreme Court?
27. Which of the following statements is (b) The Supreme Court was inaugurated on
incorrect? January 28, 1950
(a) Members of Lok Sabha are directly elected (c) At present, there are 35 judges in the
by the eligible voters Supreme Court
(b) Money Bills can only be introduced in Lok (d) Judges of Supreme Court are appointed by
Sabha the President of India
(c) The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio
Chairman of Rajya Sabha 34. Which qualification is wrong for being a
(d) President nominates four members of judge in the Supreme Court?
Anglo-Indian Community to Lok Sabha (a) It is compulsory to be a citizen of India.
(b) He should be a respected jurist in the eyes
28. Which Article of the Indian Constitution says of Parliament
that there shall be a President of India? (c) Must be a judge in the High Court for at
(a) 61 (b) 62 least 5 years
(c) 52 (d) 74 (d) He should be a lawyer in the High Court for
at least 10 years
29. What qualifications should be to become a
President? 35. The President can declare a judge an
 SET -2

executive chief justice of the Supreme Court 40. Consider the following table:
of India when. Commission Created
(a) The post of Chief Justice is vacant under
(b) Chief Justice is temporarily absent Article
(c) Chief Justice is unable to discharge his (A) Union Public (I) Article 340
obligations Service
(d) All of the above Commission
(B) Election (II) Article 315
36. What is the tenure of the elected members Commission
of Rajya Sabha? (C) Finance (III) Article 324
(a) 2 years (b) 4 Years Commission
(c) 6 Years (d) 8 Years (D) Commission for (IV) Article 280
Backward Classes
37. Which Article is related to the Money Bill and Select the correct code:
where it can be introduced? (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(a) Article 110, Rajya Sabha (b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(b) Article 110, Lok Sabha (c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(c) Article 121, Rajya Sabha (d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d) Article 121, Lok Sabha
Do it by yourself
Constitutional & Non-Constitutional
Bodies 41. The first meeting of the Constituent
Assembly had taken place on December 9,
38. Which among the following is the correct 1946 was presided by whom as its interim
statement in context with eligibility of president?
chairman of National Human Rights (a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Commission (NHRC)? (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(a) The Chairman of the NHRC must have (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
been a Judge of Supreme Court of India (d) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha
(b) The Chairman of the NHRC must have
been a Judge of a High Court of Indian state or 42. Who among the following headed the
Supreme Court of India Advisory Committee on undamental Rights,
(c) The Chairman of the NHRC must have Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas a
experience of 15 years of practice as a human committee under the Constituent Assembly?
rights lawyer in Supreme Court of India (a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) The Chairman of the NHRC must have (b).Vallabhbhai Patel
been a Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India (c).H C Mukherjee
(d). Maulana Azad
Consider the following statements:
43. The basic features of the Indian Constitution
39. 1. Originally the commission had only one which are not amendable under Article 368
election commissioner but was made a multi- are
member body through the 42nd amendment (a) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal
act. system and judicial review
2. The Chief Election Commissioner can be (b) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and
removed by the President of India. parliamentary system of government
Which of the given statement/s is/are (c) Judicial review and the federal system
correct? (d) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only system, judicial review and parliamentary
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 system of government
 SET -2

44. The cardinal features of political system in Indian constitution.

India are (a) 89th (b) 92nd
I. It is a democratic republic. (c) 90th (d) 95th
II. It has a parliamentary form of
government.
III. The supreme power vests in the people of
India.
IV. It provides for a unified authority. Select
the correct answer from the codes given
below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of these

45. Which of the following is a bulwark of

personal freedom?
(a) mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Certiorari

46. Which one of the following is the guardian of

Fundamental Right?
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) Political parties
(d) Judiciary

47. Which article of the Indian Constitution

provides for a Governor?
(a) Article 152
(b) Article 153
(c) Article 154
(d) Article 156

48. What can be the maximum number of

members in a legislative assembly of a state
in India?
(a) 400 (b) 500
(c) 450 (d) 550

49. Which Article in the Constitution on India

provides for the post of Comptroller and
Auditor General of India (CAG)?
(a) Article148 (b) Article343
(c) Article266 (d) Article 248

50. Under which constitutional amendment Bill,

four languages: Bodo, Dogri, Maithali,C and
Santhali are added in the 8th schedule of the