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Trial Ques Nac 2

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions related to nursing practices and patient care, covering various medical scenarios such as haematemesis, post-operative care, tracheostomy management, and complications of diseases. Each question presents a clinical situation requiring the nurse to select the most appropriate response based on nursing knowledge and best practices. The questions address a wide range of topics including patient assessment, treatment protocols, and the importance of patient education.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
95 views20 pages

Trial Ques Nac 2

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions related to nursing practices and patient care, covering various medical scenarios such as haematemesis, post-operative care, tracheostomy management, and complications of diseases. Each question presents a clinical situation requiring the nurse to select the most appropriate response based on nursing knowledge and best practices. The questions address a wide range of topics including patient assessment, treatment protocols, and the importance of patient education.

Uploaded by

zfdtzmqphx
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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TRIAL QUES 2 NAC

1. When a patient alerts a nurse that he is having haematemesis the nurse observes for

A. Coughing of blood

B. Flank blood in urine

C. Protein in urine

D. Vomiting blood

2. After cataract extraction the nurse should

A. Advise the patient to refrain from vigorous brushing of the teeth and hair

B. Encourage eye exercises to strengthen the ocular muscles

C. Instruct the patient to avoid driving for 2 weeks

D. Teach the patient coughing and deep breathing exercises

3.What would be your immediate intervention when a patient’s tracheostomy tube dislodges

A. Go and get a new tube

B. Inform the doctor to give you directions

C. Insert the tube and give oxygen

D. Reassure patient that this can occur

4. When assessing a patient suspected of raptured ectopic, which of these would you

monitor?
A. Abdominal distension

B. Haemoglobin and haematocrit

C. Pulse rate

D. Uterine clamping

5. A serious gastrointestinal disturbance that frequently occur to a severely burn patient

A. Haematemesis

B. Paralytic ileus

C. Peritonitis

D. Ulcerative colitis

6. The nurse is admitting a client with laryngeal cancer to the nursing unit. The nurse

assesses for which most common risk factor for this type of cancer?

A. alcohol

B. cigarette smoking

C. urban living

D. use of chewing tobacco

7. A nurse discovers a client lying on the floor. After ascertaining that the person is

unresponsive, the nurse should:

A. call for assistance

B. check the carotid pulse

C. establish an airway
D. obtain the blood pressure .

8. The most serious complication associated with chronic inflammatory of the bowel is

A. Bleeding

B. Obstruction

C. Paralytic ileus

D. Perforation

9. Which one of these would be appropriate for the treatment of necrotic wound?

A. Cleaning with antiseptic

B. Debridement

C. Serving of antibiotic medication

D. Skin grafting

10. The nurse would instruct the patient with varicose vein to

A. avoid standing for prolonged periods

B. avoid wearing tight girdle

C. cross legs at the knees while sitting

D. elevate foot of bed when sleeping at night

11. When a patient alerts a nurse that he is having haemoptysis the nurse observes for
A. Coughing of blood

B. Flank blood in urine

C. Protein in urine

D. Vomiting blood

12. Which of the following is NOT included in nursing assessment of a patient in

traction?

A. Circulation, sensation and motion of the extremities

B. His level of anxiety and apprehension

C. Lung and bowel sounds

D. Turning the patient frequently in bed

13. Which of the following conditions is NOT an indication for colostomy?

A. Acute abdomen

B. Cancer of the rectum

C. Diverticulosis

D. Ulcerative colitis

15. The definitive diagnosis of benign prostatic hypertrophy is arrived at by

A. Biopsy of prostatic tissue

B. Pap smear of prostatic fluid


C. Rectal examination

D. Serum phosphatase studies

16. The nurse should be careful when changing postoperative dressing not to

introduce microorganism into the wound. This is an example of

A. Concurrent asepsis

B. Medical asepsis

C. Surgical asepsis

D. Wound asepsis

17. The first aid treatment of an alkaline burn is to flush the part with water and then with

A. A dilute base

B. An antibiotic solution

C. A salt solution

D. A weak acid

18. A patient who has a history of prolong vomiting is likely to develop

A. Acidosis

B. Alkalosis

C. Hyperkalaemia

D. Hypocalcaemia

19. One major problem with patients with paraplegia is

A. Bladder control
B. Nutritional intake

C. Problems with communication

D. Use of aids of ambulation

20. A patient with spinal cord injury should be encouraged to drink fluids primarily to

prevent

A. Dehydration

B. Fluid and electrolytes imbalance

C. Skin breakdown

D. Urinary tract infection

21. The main complaint of a patient with cancer of the prostate gland would be

A. Dysuria

B. Oliguria

C. Retention of urine

D. Suppression of urine

22. The importance of good peri-operative management is to

A. correct anaemia before surgery

B. enhance general metabolism

C. prevent postoperative complications

D. prevents postoperative infections

23. Which of the following is NOT an indication for catheterization


A. acute suppression of urine

B. acute retention of urine

C. before pelvic operations

D. incontinence of urine

24. Which of the following is NOT a symptom?

A. Dizziness

B. Nausea

C. Pain

A. Vomiting

25. The most important goal for management of burns is

A. Established optimal fluid and electrolytes balance

B. Maintain normal blood pressure

C. Maintain optimal hygiene

D. Prevent formation of keloids

26. Pyogenic organism producing pus which is yellow and thick in consistency is

A. Streptococcus

B. Staphylococcus

C. Gonococcus

D. Pneumococcus
27. Which of the under listed may be manifestation of a duodenal ulcer?

A. Vomiting after meals

B. Haematemesis

C. Pain relieved by food ingestion

E. Pain half hour after meals

28 . The under mentioned are causes of obstructive jaundice EXCEPT

A. Stones in the common bile duct

B. Carcinoma of head of pancreas

C. Stones in the gall bladder

D. Carcinoma of the bile duct

30. Following radical mastectomy, oedema of the arm may occur as a result of

I. Recurrence of growth

II. Lymphatic obstruction

III. Obstruction of the axillary vein

IV. Non administration of diuretics

A. I and IV

B. II, III and IV

C. II and III

D. I, II and III
31. Following an amputation the nurse can help a patient prepare the residual limb for a

prosthesis by encouraging him to

A. Abduct the residue limb when ambulating

B. Change the residual limb off the bed frequently

C. Periodically press the end of the residual limb against a pillow

D. Sock the residual limb in warm water twice a day

32. For a patient with pulmonary oedema, the nurse must reduce cardiac overload by:

A. Elevating the legs when in bed.

B. Putting the patient in supine position

C. Serving a seasoned beef to him

D. Using bedside commode for stools

33. A client is experiencing respiratory distress but unchanged blood pressure. The

immediate nursing action is:

A. call the respiratory therapy department for an assistance

B. give all the prescribed medications


C. put the patient in high-Fowler’s position

D. suction of the patient vigorously

34. Which of the following occurs in cardiogenic shock?

A. flushed, dry skin with bounding pedal pulses

B. warm, moist skin with irregular pedal pulses

C. cool, dry skin with alternating weak and strong pedal pulses

D. cool, clammy skin with weak or thready pedal pulses

35. Vitamins are needed ………………. to sustain growth and health

A. annually in greater quantities

B. daily in smaller quantities

C. periodically in greater quantities

D. periodically in smaller quantities

36. Which of the following often causes haemorrhagic anaemia?

A. decreased absorption of nutrients in the gastro-interstinal tract

B. endocrine changes in the body

C. lack of micro-nutrients in the diet

D. physical injury to either external or internal structures with severe blood loss

37. Potassium excess can result in:

A. increased sweating

B. muscle cramps
C. sunken eyes

D. tongue fissure

38. The priority nursing diagnosis of the acute phase of myocardial infarction is:

A. alteration in comfort (pain)

B. anxiety

C. ineffective coping

D. impaired tissue integrity

39. The major function of sodium in the body is to:

A. promote wound healing

B. to form ATP

C. balance body fluid

D. process extracellular fluid

40. The Ghana Health Service (GHS) Patient’s Charter is meant to…..

A. Make health service client focused

B. Maintain a safe and hygienic environment

C. Protect the property of the health facility

D. Provide right to full and accurate information

41. A client with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while getting out of bed. The

nurse must first:

A. advise the client to continue to get out of bed

B. get an order for pain medication


C. report the complaint to the physician

D. stop the client and encourage him to lie down in bed

42. A client was brought to an emergency department with angina pectoris, the priority

of the nursing care is to:

A. assemble oxygen apparatus at the bedside

B. make ECG machine ready

C. put in place a bed table

D. put the client on a low bed

43. A client diagnosed of thrombophlebitis 24 hours ago suddenly complains of chest pain,

shortness of breath and visible anxiousness. The nurse must check the client for other signs

and symptoms of ……………..

A. myocardial infarction

B. pneumonia

C. pulmonary embolism

D. pulmonary oedema

44. The patient’s responsibilities include……..

A. Complying with prescribed treatment

B. Decline or consent to participate in research

C. Entitlement to personal safety and security

D. Provision of full and accurate information.

45. Cranial nerve I is also called ……………………..


A. Facial nerve

B. Oculomotor nerve

C. Olfactory nerve

46. A nurse is collecting data on a hepatitis patient, which of the following suggest a severe

damage to the liver?

A. Dark stools, yellow sclera, and dark urine

B. Clay stools, yellow sclera, and blood tinged urine

C. Clay stools, pruritus and dark urine

D. Dark stools, pruritus, and amber urine

47. A nurse should include which of the following non-pharmacological treatment plan for a

client who has peptic ulcer:

A. Continue to eat the same diet as before diagnosis

B. Smoke only at bedtime

C. Learn to use stress reduction techniques

D. Take non- steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for pain relief.

48. Pernicious anaemia is associated with…………..

A. decreased absorption of vitamin b12

B. decreased consumption of iron

C. excessive consumption of iron

A. excessive loss of gastric juices


49. During sickle cell crisis, there is a severe pain in the:

A. Abdomen, breath and kidneys

B. Chest, abdomen and joints.

C. Ear, throat and legs

D. Fingers, tongue and abdomen

50. What is the initial action the nurse should take after realizing that the peripheral

intravenous site dressing is wet?

A. check that the tubing is securely attached

B. increase the intravenous flow rate to assess for further leaking

C. remove the plaster and discontinue the infusion

D. stop infusion immediately and notify the physician

51. A clinical syndrome characterized by choking and suffocating chest pain is described

as……………………..

A. Angina pectoris

B. Cardiac asthma

C. Myocardial infarction

D. Nocturnal dysponea

52. Mr. Amoo was admitted with pneumonia. He is febrile, diaphoretic, and had shortness

of breath. Which of the following is the most important goal for him?
A. Education on infection prevention

B. Maintenance of adequate oxygenation

C. Pain reduction

D. Prevention of fluid volume excess

53. Among male patients receiving antihypertensive drugs the commonest side effect the

nurse should discuss with the client and his wife is ……….

A. Dizziness

B. Impotence

C. Nausea and dizziness

D. Sudden fall in blood pressure

54. The action of aspirin is to ……………

A. Decrease heart rate with increase formation of thrombosis.

B. Decrease platelet aggregation

C. Dilate coronary and peripheral vessels

D. Resists the conduction of neurons activities

55. Status asthmatics is defined as a………………………..

A. chronic asthma that is often treated with drugs

B. period when the patient has regained health after an attack

C. severe asthma that has not responded to patient’s normal

D. slowly but progressive asthma that is relieved by repositioning of the patient


56. The inflammation of the mucosa lining the upper respiratory tract following respiratory

tract infection is called ……

A. Chronic bronchitis

B. Laryngitis

C. Lobar pneumonia

D. Sinusitis

57. The nursing care for a patient suffering from pneumonia does NOT include

A. control of pain to ensure comfort.

B. ensuring a high fluid intake of preferred drinks

C. isolating the bacteria that caused the infection

D. tepid sponging

58. The factors that may influence the development of tuberculosis include the following

EXCEPT………………………………..

A. immigrants with low natural resistance

B. people living alone on good diet

C. people who have immune suppression

D. vagrant alcoholics

59. The purpose of health education is to ……

A. create a rapport between the nurse and the patient.


B. facilitate a research to be conducted by nurses

C. meet the patient’s informational needs

D. reinforce the doctor’s instructions for the patient

60. Nephrotic syndrome represents a group of symptoms that occur with signs of

A. decreased body hormones

B. dehydration

C. heavy loss of protein

D. increased albumin in the blood

61. The primary action of the nurse in providing care for a patient diagnosed of severe heart

failure is to ……………………..

A. identify the cause and treat promptly with drugs.

B. prescribe anti-hypertensive drugs

C. restrict patient from performing an activity

D. talk to patient’s relative about the need to support patient to recover

62. The primary action of the nurse in attending to an unconscious patient suffering from

severe hypertension is to ……..

A. administer the prescribed drugs immediately

B. check the vital signs immediately

C. inform the physician immediately

D. inform the relatives of the policy of the hospital


63. In nursing management of a patient diagnosed of hypertension, the nurse’s priority is

to……….

A. identify the primary cause and treat

B. inform the patient that hypertension is curable

C. inform the patient that hypertension is incurable

D. restrict the patient from taking food constraining sodium

64. Which of the following is a right of the patient?

A. Complying with prescribed treatment

B. Maintenance of safe and hygienic environment

C. Provision of full and adequate medical history

D. Right of access to basic quality care

65. The success of pain management primarily depends on the ………

A. patient’s pain threshold

B. therapist and the patient

C. type of drugs to be used

D. type of pain and its location

66. A sudden and severe form of shock resulting from hypersensitive reaction is termed

………

A. anaphylactic

B. oliguric
C. psychological

D. pyelogenic

67. When a physician says “there is nothing else to be done” for a patient, the nurse should

know that ……..

A. “all drugs should be withdrawn from the patient”

B. “it is up to her to provide maximum comfort and care for the patient.

C. “it is up to her to tell the patient and family”

D. “there is no need to care for the patient”

68. The molecule involved in the transport of oxygen within the red cell and that gives

blood its characteristic red colour is called…….

A. fibrinogen

B. glucagon

C. haemoglobin

D. prothrombin

69. The commonest cause of diarrhoea in children is ………………..

A. bacterial

B. fungal

C. spirochaetal

D. viral
70. In duodenal ulcer, the pain may wake the patient up in the ………………

A. early morning

B. late in the afternoon

C. late in the night

D. middle of the night

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