Airframe Construction and Repair

MONTHLY(BOARD(
(
(
Name:_________________________________((((((((((((((((((((( ( (((((((((((((((((Score:_______(
( (
1. Which(of(these(materials(will(corrode(the(fastest?(
a. Copper( c. Zinc(
b. 2024(Aluminum(alloy( d. Chromium(
2. When(flaring(aluminum(tubing(for(use(with(AN(fittings,(the(flare(angle(must(be(
a. 37(degrees(( c. 47(degrees(
b. 45(degrees( d. 39(degrees(
3. Where(can(you(find(the(technical(descriptions(of(a(certificated(propeller?
a. Applicable(Airworthiness(Directives(
b. Propeller(Type(Certificate(Data(Sheets((
c. Aircraft(Specifications(
d. Supplemental(Type(Certificate(
4. What(may(be(used(to(remove(corrosion(from(highly(stressed(steel(surfaces?(
a. Steel(wire(brushes( c. FineTgrit(Aluminum(oxide(
b. HighTgrit(carbon(paper( d. Stiff,(nonmetallic(brush(
5. Corrosion(should(be(removed(from(magnesium(parts(with(a(
a. steel(wire(brushes( c. fineTgrit(Aluminum(oxide(
b. highTgrit(carbon(paper( d. stiff,(nonmetallic(brush(
6. The(ITbeam(wooden(spar(is(routed(to(
a. increase(strength( c. reduce(weight(
b. obtain(uniform(strength( d. have(a(finish(look(
7. A(faint(line(running(across(the(grain(of(a(wood(spar(generally(indicates(
a. compression(failure( c. decay(
b. shear(failure( d. bending(failure(
8. Oxygen(and(acetylene(cylinders(are(made(of((
a. seamless(aluminum( c. bronze(
b. steel( d. zinc(
9. Oxides(form(rapidly(when(alloys(or(metals(are(hot.(It(is(important(therefore,(when(welding(
aluminum(to(use(a/an(
a. solvent( c. flux(
b. filler( d. acid(
10. It(is(also(known(as(natural(aging.(
a. Solution(heat(treatment(
b. Precipitation(heat(treatment(
c. Quenching(
d. Tempering(
11. Also(known(as(artificial(aging.((
a. Solution(heat(treatment(
b. Precipitation(heat(treatment(
c. Quenching(
d. Tempering(
(
12. Property(of(material(that(will(withstand(tearing(or(shearing(and(may(be(stretched(otherwise(
deformed(without(breaking.(
a. Hardness( c. Resiliency(
b. Strength( d. Toughness(
13. Which(heatTtreating(process(of(metal(produces(a(hard,(wearTresistant(surface(over(a(strong,(tough(
core?(
a. Quenching( c. Annealing(
b. Case(hardening( d. Alodizing(
14. Which(tool(is(used(to(measure(the(clearance(between(surface(plate(and(a(relatively(narrow(surface(
being(checked(for(flatness?((
a. Depth(gauge(( c. Caliper(
b. Dial(indicator( d. Thickness(gauge(
15. A(wellTdesigned(rivet(joint(will(subject(the(rivet(to((
a. compressive(loads( c. shear(loads(
b. tensile(loads( d. twisting(loads((
16. What(is(the(minimum(spacing(for(a(single(row(of(aircraft(rivets?(
a. Three(times(the(length(of(the(rivet(shank(
b. Three(times(the(diameter(of(the(rivet(shank(
c. Twelve(times(the(diameter(of(the(rivet(shank(
d. One(and(one(half(times(the(diameter(of(the(rivet(shank(
17. Clad(aluminum(alloys(are(used(in(aircraft(because(they(
a. are(stronger(than(unclad(aluminum(alloys(
b. can(be(heat(treated(much(easier(than(the(other(forms(of(aluminum(
c. are(less(subject(to(corrosion(than(uncoated(aluminum(alloys(
d. are(endorsed(by(Boeing(and(Airbus(
18. Rivet(gauge,(or(transverse(pitch,(is(the(distance(between(the(
a. heads(of(rivets(in(the(same(row((((
b. centers(of(rivets(in(the(adjacent(row(
c. centers(of(rivets(in(same(rows(
d. adjacent(rivets(in(the(center(row(
19. The(purpose(of(wing(slats(is(to(
a. reduce(stalling(speed(
b. decrease(drag(
c. increase(speed(on(takeoff(
d. increase(stalling(speed(
20. Which(statement(is(true(regarding(a(cantilever(wing?(
a. It(has(nonadjustable(lift(struts(
b. It(requires(only(one(lift(strut(on(each(side(
c. External(bracing(is(needed(
d. No(external(bracing(is(needed(
21. Shallow(scratches(in(sheet(metal(may(be(repaired(by(
a. Buffing(
b. Burnishing(
c. Stop(drilling(
d. Welding(
22. The(dimensions(of(an(MS20(430(AD(4T8(rivet(are(
a. 1/8(inch(in(diameter(and(1/2(inch(long(
b. 1/8(inch(in(diameter(and(1/4(inch(long(
c. 4/16(inch(in(diameter(and(8/32(inch(long(
d. 1/8(inch(long(and(1/2(inch(in(diameter(
 23. The(number(2(indicates(the(primary(alloying(agent(of(2024TT36.(What(is(the(primary(
alloying(agent?(
a. Carbon( c. Copper(
b. Cobalt( d. Chromium(
24. An(MS20(455(AD(4T8(rivet(is(given.(What(does(MS20(mean?(
a. Metric(System(measurements(is(used(
b. Malleable(Steel(rivet(
c. Military(Science(
d. Military(Standard(
25. An(MS20(455(AD(4T8(rivet(is(given.(What(does(455(mean?(
a. Flat(head( c. Round(head(
b. Brazier( d. Countersunk(
26. An(MS20(455(AD(4T8(rivet(is(given.(What(does(rivet(code(AD(indicates?(
a. 2117( c. 5056(
b. 2024( d. 1725(
27. Joggles(in(removed(rivet(shanks(would(indicate(partial(
a. bearing(failure( c. shear(failure(
b. torsion(failure( d. twisting(failure(
28. Which(rivet(is(used(for(riveting(magnesium(alloy(structures?(
a. 5056(aluminum( c. Stainless(steel(
b. Monel( d. Mild(steel(
29. Which(rivet(is(used(for(riveting(nickel(steel(alloys?
a. 5056(aluminum( c. Stainless(steel(
b. Monel( d. Mild(steel(
30. When(taxiing((or(towing)(an(aircraft,(a(flashing(white(light(from(the(control(tower(means(
a. move(clear(of(the(runway/taxiway(immediately(
b. OK(to(proceed(but(use(extreme(caution(
c. wait(for(further(announcement(
d. return(to(starting(point(
31. When(approaching(the(front(of(an(idling(jet(engine,(the(hazard(area(extends(forward(of(the(engine(
approximately((
a. 25(feet( c. 75(feet(
b. 50(feet( d. 100(feet(
32. Which(of(the(following(is(the(most(satisfactory(extinguishing(agent(for(use(on(a(carburetor(or(intake(
fire?(
a. Dry(chemical( c. Carbon(dioxide(
b. A(fine,(water(mist( d. Pressurized(noble(gases(
33. When(approaching(the(rear(of(an(idling(turbojet(or(turbofan,(the(hazard(area(extends(aft(of(the(
engine(approximately((
a. 25(feet( c. 75(feet(
b. 50(feet( d. 100(feet(
34. Used(to(clean(acrylics(and(rubber.(
a. Linseed(oil( c. Aliphatic(naptha(
b. Boric(acid( d. Aromatic(naptha(
35. Which(of(the(following(would(best(protect(the(interior(surface(of(sealed(structural(steel(tubing(
against(corrosion?(
a. Linseed(oil( c. Aliphatic(naptha(
b. Boric(acid( d. Aromatic(naptha(
(
 36. NickelTcadmium(battery(cases(and(drain(surfaces(which(have(been(affected(by(electrolyte(should(be(
neutralized(with((
a. linseed(oil( c. aliphatic(naptha(
b. boric(acid( d. aromatic(naptha(
37. Coal(tar(derivative(that(is(toxic(and(is(not(suitable(for(wiping(down(a(surface(before(painting.(
a. Linseed(oil( c. Aliphatic(naptha(
b. Boric(acid( d. Aromatic(naptha(
38. Corrosion(caused(by(galvanic(action(is(the(result(of(
a. excessive(etching(
b. contact(between(two(dissimilar(metals(
c. two(highlyTloaded(surfaces(which(are(not(supposed(to(move(against(each(other(
d. an(attack(on(the(grain(boundaries(
39. A(nonTelectrolytic(chemical(treatment(for(aluminum(alloys(to(increase(corrosion(resistance(and(
paintTbonding(qualities(is(called(
a. anodizing( c. alodizing(
b. dichromating( d. tempering(
40. Normalizing(is(a(process(of(heat(treating(
a. aluminum(alloys(only(
b. iron(base(metal(only(
c. both(aluminum(alloys(and(ironTbase(metals.(
d. none(of(the(above(
41. If(the(empty(weight(CG(of(an(airplane(lies(within(the(empty(weight(CG(limits,(
a. it(is(necessary(to(calculate(CG(extremes.(
b. minimum(fuel(should(be(used(in(both(forward(and(rearward(CG(checks(
c. it(is(not(necessary(to(calculate(CG(extremes.(
d. It(is(not(vital(in(weight(and(balance(
42. The(useful(load(of(an(aircraft(is(the(
a. difference(between(the(maximum(gross(weight(and(empty(weight(
b. sum(of(the(empty(weight(and(the(maximum(gross(weight(
c. difference(between(the(net(weight(and(total(weight(
d. sum(of(maximum(gross(weight(and(empty(weight(
43. What(is(the(color(of(an(AN(steel(flaredTtube(fitting?(!(
a. Red( c. Blue(
b. Black( d. White(
44. Zero(fuel(weight(is(the(
a. basic(operating(weight(without(crew,(fuel,(and(cargo.(
b. dry(weight(plus(the(weight(of(full(crew,(passengers,(and(cargo.(
c. maximum(permissible(weight(of(a(loaded(aircraft((passengers,(crew,(and(cargo)(without(fuel(
and(other(fluids(
d. maximum(permissible(weight(of(a(loaded(aircraft((passengers,(crew,(and(cargo)(without(fuel((
45. What(should(be(clearly(indicated(on(the(aircraft(weighing(form?(
a. Minimum(allowable(gross(weight(
b. Weighing(points(
c. Weight(of(unusable(fuel(
d. Tare(weight((
46. The(reference(wood(used(for(aircraft(structures(because(of(its(uniformity,(strength,(and(excellent(
shockTresistance(qualities.(
a. Balsa(wood( c. Brown(mahogany(
b. Douglas(fir( d. Sitka(spruce(
(
 47. The(maximum(permissible(grain(deviation(is(
a. 1:20( c. 1:15(
b. 1:5( d. 1:7(
48. A(part(which(is(being(prepared(for(dye(penetrant(inspection(should(be(cleaned(with(
a. a(volatile(petroleumTbased(solvent(
b. a(penetrant(developer(
c. waterTbase(solvents(only(
d. vegetableTbase(solvents(only(
49. The(minimum(grain(count(for(softwoods(is((
a. sixteen(rings(per(inch(
b. six(rings(per(inch(
c. eight(rings(per(inch(
d. twelve(rings(per(inch(
50. An(aircraft(had(an(empty(weight(of(2,886(pounds(with(a(moment(of(101,673.78(before(several(
alterations(were(made.(The(alterations(included:(
T removing(two(passenger(seats((45(pound)(at(+69;(
T installing(a(cabinet((97(pounds)(at(+71;(
T installing(a(seat(and(safety(belt((30(pounds)(at(+71;(
T installing(radio(equipment((45(pounds)(at(+94(
The(alterations(caused(the(new(empty(weight(to(move(
a. 37.11(inches(aft(of(the(original(empty(weight(CG(
b. 5.58(inches(forward(of(the(original(empty(weigh(CG(
c. 5.58(inches(aft(of(the(original(empty(weigh(CG(
d. 1.88(inches(aft(of(the(original(empty(weight(CG(
(
(
(
 Aeronautical Engineering Review Course 2016
Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification-Mock Exam

DIRECTIONS: Choose the letter of your best answer.

1. Stability about the axis which runs parallel to the line of flight is referred to as
A. longitudinal stability B. lateral stability.
C. directional stability D. pitch stability

2. What type loads cause the most rivet failures?

A. Shear B. Bearing
C. Bending D. Head

3. With which system is differential control associated?

A. Trim B. Rudder
C. Elevator D. Aileron

4. Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because they

A. can be heat treated much easier than the other forms of aluminum.
B. are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminum alloys.
C. are stronger than unclad aluminum alloys.
D. are heat resistant

5. One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass structure that has been subjected to damage is to
A. strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure.
B. use dye-penetrant inspection procedures, exposing the entire damaged area to the penetrant solution.
C. use an eddy current probe on both sides of the damaged area.
D. perform tap testing

6. The angle of incidence of an airplane at rest

A. affects the dihedral of the wings in flight.
B. is the same as the angle between the relative wind and the chord of the wing.
C. does not change when in flight.
D. is set at maximum L/D

7. The primary alloying agent of 2024-T36 is indicated by the number

A. 2 B. 20 C. 24 D. 36

8. An aircraft that is required by Section 91.409, to have a 100-hour inspection may be flown beyond the inspection
requirement
A. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but a special flight permit is necessary.
B. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 10 flight hours without
special permit
C. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 15 flight hours.
D. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 10 flight hours.

9. What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet?
A. Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a shank size drill and remove the rivet with a punch.
B. Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and remove the rivet
with a punch.
C. Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a drill one size smaller than the rivet and remove the rivet with a
punch.
D. Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size larger than the rivet shank and remove the rivet
with a punch.

10. If a single-rotor helicopter is in forward horizontal flight, the angle of attack of the advancing blade is
A. more than the retreating blade.
B. equal to the retreating blade.
C. less than the retreating blade.
D. always greater than the retreating blade

11. What is the purpose of stringers?

A. To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses
B. To produce stress risers and support the fatigue metres
C. To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin
D. To support the primary control surfaces

AERO HORIZONS
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Pampanga, Philippines 2023 Owned and operated by:
Mobile: +(63) 915 8954064 ARNORIZ Professional Services Inc.
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 Aeronautical Engineering Review Course 2016
Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification-Mock Exam

12. The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing
A. The design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor
B. The design limit load plus the design ultimate load
C. Three times the safety factor
D. The design limit load times a 1.5 safety factor

13. The skin of a modern pressurized aircraft

A. Is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle
B. Houses the crew and the payload
C. Provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather
D. Is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural load

14. Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are:

A. A means of locating airframe structure and components
B. Passenger seat locations
C. Runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal
D. Compass alignment markings

15. Flight deck windows are constructed from

A. An amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals
B. Strengthened glass with shock absorbing vinyl interlayers and rubber pressure seals
C. Strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing and rubber pressure seals
D. Strengthened glass with rubber seals

16. A cantilever wing:

A. Is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires
B. Is supported at one end only with no external bracing
C. Has both an upper and lower airfoil section
D. Folds in the root section to ease storage in confined spaces

17. A torsion box:

A. Is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending, and twisting loads
B. Is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads
C. Is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls and landing gear
D. Is a structure designed to reduce weight

18. A lightening hole in a rib

A. Prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage
B. Provides a means of passing cable and controls through a pressure bulkhead
C. Collects and disposes of electrical charges
D. Lightens and stiffens the structure

19. Control surface flutter

A. Provides additional lift for takeoff and landing in the event of engine failure
B. Occurs at high angles of attack
C. Is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight envelope
D. Is a means of detecting the critical safe life of the wing

20. A damage tolerant structure

A. Has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area
B. Is light, non load bearing structure, damage to which will not adversely affect the aircraft
C. Is replaced when it reaches its predicted life
D. Need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance

21. It is the maximum stress expected in any structural member

A. Ultimate strength B. Limit Strength
C. Yield strength D. Flexure strength

22. It is the ability of metal to resist deformation

A. Ultimate strength B. Limit Strength
C. Yield strength D. Flexure strength

23. It represents the highest stress experienced within the material at its moment of rupture.
A. Ultimate strength B. Limit Strength
C. Yield strength D. Flexure strength

AERO HORIZONS
5/F Clark Center 07, Clark Center, Jose Abad Santos Avenue, Clark Freeport Zone,
Pampanga, Philippines 2023 Owned and operated by:
Mobile: +(63) 915 8954064 ARNORIZ Professional Services Inc.
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 Aeronautical Engineering Review Course 2016
Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification-Mock Exam

24. It is the maximum stress a material can sustain without rupture.

A. Ultimate strength B. Limit Strength
C. Yield strength D. Flexure strength

25. Capacity of a material to absorb energy in the elastic range

A. Resilience B. Modulus of Resilience
C. Toughness D. Modulus of Toughness

26. Ratio of maximum energy absorbed per unit volume

A. Resilience B. Modulus of Resilience
C. Toughness D. Modulus of Toughness

27. Energy absorption in the plastic range

A. Resilience B. Modulus of Resilience
C. Toughness D. Modulus of Toughness

28. Equal to the area under the entire stress-strain curve.

A. Resilience B. Modulus of Resilience
C. Toughness D. Modulus of Toughness

29. A material's ability to be bent, formed, or shaped without cracking or breaking

A. Malleability B. Ductility
C. Toughness D. Fusibility

30. The ability of metal to be drawn into wire stock, extrusions, or rods
A. Malleability B. Ductility
C. Toughness D. Fusibility

31. Toughness is a material's ability to resist tearing or breaking when it is bent or stretched.
A. Malleability B. Ductility
C. Toughness D. Fusibility

32. The ability of metal to be joined by heating and melting is defined as fusibility.
A. Malleability B. Ductility
C. Toughness D. Fusibility

33. Is a process wherein a piece of metal is worked at temperatures above its critical range.
A. Forging B. Rolling
C. Pressing D. Extrusion

34. Consists of forming hot metal ingots with rollers to form sheets, bars, and beams.
A. Forging B. Rolling
C. Pressing D. Extrusion

35. Is used to form large and heavy parts

A. Forging B. Rolling
C. Pressing D. Extrusion

36. Is the process of forcing metal through a die which imparts a required cross-section to the metal.
A. Forging B. Rolling
C. Pressing D. Extrusion

37. Wrought alloy designation

A. S B. Without S C. O D. W

38. Cast alloy designation

A. S B. Without S C. O D. W

39. Annealed, soft state

A. S B. Without S C. O D. W

40. Intermediate heat treatment

A. S B. Without S C. O D. W

AERO HORIZONS
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Pampanga, Philippines 2023 Owned and operated by:
Mobile: +(63) 915 8954064 ARNORIZ Professional Services Inc.
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 Aeronautical Engineering Review Course 2016
Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification-Mock Exam

41. Combination of iron and carbon

A. Cementite B. Austenite
C. Martensite D. Eutectoid

42. steel heated above the critical range (solid solution of cementite in gamma iron)
A. Cementite B. Austenite
C. Martensite D. Eutectoid

43. Is the hardest structure obtained in steel.

A. Cementite B. Austenite
C. Martensite D. Eutectoid

44. Steels containing 0.85 % carbon. Greatest hardness from heat treatment is obtained in this composition.
A. Cementite B. Austenite
C. Martensite D. Eutectoid

45. Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of .032-inch aluminum?
A. MS20425D-4-3 B. MS20470AD-4-4
C. MS20455DD-5-3 D. MS20420AD-4-4

46. How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required to attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using a single row of rivets, minimum
edge distance, and 4D spacing?
A. 56 B. 54 C. 52 D. 58

47. Anything that needs periodic replacement

A. rotable B. repairable
C. expendable D. consumable

48. Any part that is usually repaired and then returned to service as repaired/overhauled or even “as new” condition.
A. rotable B. repairable
C. expendable D. consumable

49. Any component that is usually just thrown away at the end of its useable life, this is usually because it is not worth
repairing or cannot be repaired or overhauled due to its construction and intended use.
A. rotable B. repairable
C. expendable D. consumable

50. Any component that is rendered unsuitable for reuse when it’s installed and used.
A. rotable B. repairable
C. expendable D. consumable

51. With a hyd lock there is:

A. flow, but no jack movement
B. no flow but jack continues to move under gravitational effects
C. no flow, jack is stationary
D. constant flow

52. The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is:

A. to compensate for leaks and expansion
B. to allow a space into which a spare fluid may be stored
C. to indicate system contents
D. to maintain fluid between the jack and the accumulator

53. A relief valve

A. relieves below system pressure
B. maintains pressure to a priority circuit
C. relieves at its design pressure
D. prevents excessive pressure through excessive temperature

54. Pascal’s law states that

A. pressure is inversely proportional to load
B. liquid is compressible
C. oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators
D. applied force acts equally in all directions

AERO HORIZONS
5/F Clark Center 07, Clark Center, Jose Abad Santos Avenue, Clark Freeport Zone,
Pampanga, Philippines 2023 Owned and operated by:
Mobile: +(63) 915 8954064 ARNORIZ Professional Services Inc.
Tel: # +(63) 45 598 7520
E-mail: [email protected]; [email protected] Page 4 of 9
Website: www.aerohorizons.net
 Aeronautical Engineering Review Course 2016
Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification-Mock Exam

55. The purpose of an accumulator is to

A. relieve excess pressure
B. store fluid under pressure
C. store compressed gas for tyre inflation
D. remove air from the system

56. Oil is used in an oleo strut to:

A. support the weight of the aircraft
B. limit the speed of compression of the strut
C. lubricate the piston within the cylinder
D. limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut

57. Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground:

A. not possible because the system is not powerful enough
B. prevented by the ground/air logic system
C. always a danger when the ground lock has been removed
D. the responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft

58. The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is:

A. CO2 B. Dry powder C. Freon D. Water

59. Landing gear ground lock pins are:

A. fitted before flight to ensure landing gear locks are fully cocked
B. remover prior to flight and returned to stores
C. fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the down lock jack
D. removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the crew

60. A likely cause of wheel shimmy is:

A. aircraft is overweight
B. the tyre pressures are too high
C. the aircraft is incorrectly loaded
D. a torque link is worn or damaged

61. Which of the following may a certificated airframe and powerplant mechanic perform on aircraft and approve for return
to service?
1. a 100-hour inspection.
2. an annual inspection, under specified circumstances.
3. a progressive inspection, under specified circumstances.

A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 1, 2, 3 D. 1 only.

62. Which of the following describe the effects of annealing steel and aluminum alloys?
1. decrease in internal stress.
2. softening of the metal.
3. improved corrosion resistance.

A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1 only.

63. Which of the listed conditions is NOT one of the requirements for corrosion to occur?
A. The presence of an electrolyte.
B. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area.
C. The presence of a passive oxide film.
D. anode and cathode.

64. A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is

A. improper heat treatment.
B. dissimilar metal contact.
C. improper application of primer.
D. impurities.

65. Which of these materials is the most cathodic?

A. Zinc. B. 2024 aluminum alloy.
C. Stainless steel. D. 7075 aluminum alloy.

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 Aeronautical Engineering Review Course 2016
Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification-Mock Exam

66. Which will weigh the least?

A. 98 parts of dry air and 2 parts of water vapor.
B. 35 parts of dry air and 65 parts of water vapor.
C. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor.
D. 51 parts of dry air and 49 parts of water vapor.

67. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetization?
A. 45° B. Longitudinal.
C. Transverse D. 90°.

68. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle buildup forming

A. a fernlike pattern. B. a single line.
C. parallel lines. D. random lines.

69. Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects?
A. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form.
B. 6061-T9 stainless steel.
C. Clad aluminum alloy.
D. Cast aluminum alloy.

70. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolthead is
A. upward, or in a forward direction.
B. downward, or in a forward direction.
C. downward, or in a rearward direction.
D. upward, or in a rearward direction.

71. Which heat-treating process of metal produces a hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough core?
A. Case hardening. B. Annealing.
C. Tempering. D. Normalizing.

72. Who is responsible for upkeep of the required maintenance records for an aircraft?
A. The maintaining repair station or authorized inspector.
B. The maintaining certificated mechanic.
C. The aircraft owner.
D. The first officer.

73. The clearance between the piston rings and the ring lands is measured with a
A. micrometer caliper. B. thickness gauge.
C. depth gauge. D. vernier caliper.

74. Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane of rotation of a disk?
A. Dial indicator. B. Shaft gauge.
C. Protractor. D. Depth gauge.

75. Which is the ratio of the water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air
were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure?
A. Absolute humidity. B. Relative humidity.
C. Dewpoint D. Ambien humidity.

76. Which condition indicates a part has cooled too quickly after being welded?
A. Cracking adjacent to the weld.
B. Discoloration of the base metal.
C. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions.
D. Absence of dark spots.

77. The boiling point of a given liquid varies

A. directly with pressure.
B. inversely with pressure.
C. directly with volume.
D. inversely with volume.

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 Aeronautical Engineering Review Course 2016
Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification-Mock Exam

78. The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type of aluminum?
A. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper.
B. Aluminum alloy containing zinc.
C. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum.
D. 99.11 percent aluminum.

79. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of
corrosion residual product buildup is called
A. brinelling B. granulation
C. exfoliation D. strain hardening.

80. A nonelectrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint-bonding qualities
is called
A. anodizing B. alodizing
C. dichromating D. chrome-plating.

81. Which part(s) of a semi-monocoque fuselage prevent(s) tension and compression from bending the fuselage?
A. The fuselage covering.
B. Longerons and stringers.
C. Bulkheads and skin.
D. Stiffiners.

82. Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advanced composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the best for strength?
A. 40:60. B. 50:50. C. 60:40. D. 51:49.

83. When fabricating parts from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum sheet stock,
A. bends should be made with a small radius to develop maximum strength.
B. all bends must be 90° to the grain.
C. all scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must be held to a minimum.
D. follow manufacturer’s recommendations.

84. The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is
A. three times the thickness of the materials to be joined.
B. two times the rivet length.
C. three times the thickness of the thickest sheet.
D. three times the nominal thickness of the sheet.

85. Which statement is true regarding the inspection of a stressed skin metal wing assembly known to have been critically
loaded?
A. If rivets show no visible distortion, further investigation is unnecessary.
B. If bearing failure has occurred, the rivet shanks will be joggled.
C. If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in the same direction.
D. Burn marks on rivet heads.

86. Rivet pitch is the distance between the

A. centers of rivets in adjacent rows.
B. centers of adjacent rivets in the same row.
C. heads of rivets in the same row.
D. heads of rivets in adjacent rows.

87. Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy structures?

A. Mild steel. B. 5056 aluminum.
C. Monel D. Pure aluminum.

88. Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet metal, are normally
A. repairable, using approved methods.
B. repairable, except when subjected to compressive loads.
C. not repairable, but must be replaced when damaged or deteriorated.
D. condemned after its service life.

89. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern aircraft because this type of
construction
A. has a high strength to weight ratio.
B. may be repaired by gluing replacement skin to the inner core material with thermoplastic resin.
C. is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more corrosion resistant.
D. is fatigue resistant.
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 Aeronautical Engineering Review Course 2016
Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification-Mock Exam

90.The purpose of spring tabs or servo tabs is to

A. assist the pilot in moving the control surfaces.
B. contribute to the static balance of the control surface.
C. make in-flight trim adjustments possible.
D. increase flight control effectiveness.

91. What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment?
A. To accelerate age hardening.
B. To relieve internal stresses.
C. To retard age hardening.
D. Relieve internal stresses.

92. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct size?
A. Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction to remove from the hole.
B. Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction.
C. Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when starting the cut and reduce the pressure when finishing the cut.
D. Do not turn the reamer in the cutting direction.

93. An airplane that has a tendency to gradually increase a pitching moment that has been set into motion has
A. poor longitudinal stability.
B. good lateral stability.
C. poor lateral stability.
D. good longitudinal stability

94. The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are

A. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch long.
B. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch long.
C. 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long.
D. 4/8 inch in diameter and 8/16 inch long.

95. If an aircraft’s transparent plastic enclosures exhibit fine cracks which may extend in a network over or under the
surface or through the plastic, the plastic is said to be
A. hazing B. brinelling
C. crazing D. peening

96. An airplane which has good longitudinal stability should have a minimum tendency to
A. roll B. pitch C. yaw D. drag

97. If control cables are adjusted properly and the control surfaces tend to vibrate, the probable cause is
A. worn attachment fittings.
B. oil can effects on the control surfaces.
C. excessive cable tension.
D. incorrect mass balance.

98. The purpose of the vertical fin is to provide

A. directional stability.
B. longitudinal stability.
C. lateral stability.
D. drag reduction.

99. Cherrymax and Olympic-Lok rivets

A. utilize a rivet gun, special rivet set, and bucking bar for installation.
B. utilize a pulling tool for installation.
C. may be installed with ordinary hand tools.
D. are high strength rivets.

100. A DD rivet is heat treated before use to

A. harden and increase strength.
B. relieve internal stresses.
C. soften to facilitate riveting.
D. inhibit corrosion when installed.

******************************END*******************************

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 AIRCRAFT CONSTRUCTION, REPAIR AND MODIFICATION
Pre Board Examination

Name: ________________________ Score: ____________

1. Numbers allocated to certain components, e.g. frames and ribs, to indicate their
positions within the structure. The numbers may represent in inches the distance from a
datum point which could be the fuselage, nose or the wing root.
A. station numbers
B. frame numbers
C. line numbers

2. Laminated wood spars may be substituted for solid rectangular wood spars
A only in certain instances where the primary load is shared by one or more
other original structural member.
B only upon specific approval by the manufacturer or the FAA.
C if the same quality wood is used in both.

3. The dihedral angle of the wing may be measured by placing a straightedge and level
protractor on the
A datum line.
B front spar.
C wing tip.

4. A type of corrosion that attacks along the grain boundaries of the metal.
A fretting corrosion
B intergranular corrosion
C pitting corrosion

5. The acute angle formed by the chord line of a wing and relative wind is known as the
A angle of attack.
B angle of incidence.
C dihedral angle.

6. Fuselage construction that relies largely on the strength of the skin or covering is a
A. monocoque structure.
B. semi-monocoque structure.
C. truss type structure.

7. Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing?

A No external bracing is needed.
B It requires only one lift strut on each side.
C It has nonadjustable lift struts.

8. Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a semi-monocoque fuselage are called
A spars and ribs.
B longerons and stringers.
C spars and stringers.

9. In ATA numbering system, what is ATA chapter 53?

A stabilizers
B wings
C fuselage

10. Corrosion occurs between two dissimilar metals makes electrical contact with the presence
of an electrolyte
A fretting corrosion
B galvanic corrosion
C filiform corrosion

AIRCRAFT CONSTRUCTION, REPAIR AND MODIFICATION Page 1

11. What type of inspection can determine delamination damage of a composite structure.
A ultrasonic inspection
B eddy current inspection
C liquid penetrant inspection

12. What is the smallest size cable that may be used in aircraft primary control systems?
A 1/8 inch.
B 1/4 inch.
C 5/16inch.
13. The strength of a well designed and properly prepared wood splice joint is provided by the
A bearing surface of the wood fibers.
B glue.
C reinforcement plates.
14. Is made up of two or three pieces of thin wood glued together with the same direction.
A laminated wood
B plywood
C solid wood
15. Major alloying element of a 2024 aluminum alloys.
A. manganese
B. copper
C. silicon
16. Glue deterioration in wood aircraft structure is indicated
A when a joint has separated and the glue surface shows only the imprint of
the wood with no wood fibers clinging to the glue.
B by any joint separation.
C when a joint has separated and the glue surface shows pieces of wood
and/or wood fibers clinging to the glue.
17. Major alloying element of a 5056 aluminum alloys.
A. copper
B. magnesium
C. zinc
18. When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged honey-comb core, the plug should be cut
so that
A the grain is perpendicular to the skin.
B the grain is parallel to the skin.
C it is about 1/8-inch undersize to allow sufficient bonding material to be
applied.

19. When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tapping method, a dull thud may
indicate
A separation of the laminates.
B an area of too much matrix between fiber layers.
C less than full strength curing of the matrix.

20. The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a workable state is called the
A pot life.
B service life.
C shelf life.

21. A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar generally indicates
A compression failure.
B shear failure.
C decay.

22. Composite fabric material is considered to be the strongest in what direction?

A Fill
B Bias
C Warp

23. Which is the most effective inspection to determine cracks in steel?

A eddy current inspection
B tap-test inspection
C magnetic particle inspection

AIRCRAFT CONSTRUCTION, REPAIR AND MODIFICATION Page 2

24. The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must line up with the adjacent original is
the
A cell edge.
B cell side.
C ribbon direction.

25. A well designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to

A tensile load.
B compressive loads.
C shear loads.

26. What is the purpose of a gusset or gusset plate used in the construction and repair of
aircraft structures?
A To join and reinforce intersecting structural members.
B To provide access for inspection of structural attachments.
C To hold structural members in position temporarily until the permanent
attachment has been completed.

27. Aluminum Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated

A. by the manufacturer and requires heat treatment before being driven.
B. by the manufacturer and do not require heat treatment before being driven.
C. and should be placed in the elevated temperature before being driven.

28. A kind of fit, where, in this assembly there is no space between the parts. The shaft is
always larger than the part it fits into. This means that force is required to assemble the parts.
A Interference Fit
B Clearance Fit
C Transition Fit

29. The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is
A 1/3 times the thickness of the thickest sheet.
B three times the thickness of the thickest sheet.
C three times the thickness of the material.

30. In aircraft zoning system, what is the major zone for Left Wing?
A zone 200
B zone 700
C zone 500

31. What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets?

A Two times the diameter of the rivet head.
B 2.5 times the diameter of the rivet shank.
C Two times the diameter of the rivet shank.

32. What is the thickness of the cladding in an clad aluminum sheet?

A 3 or 5 % of the total material thickness on each side.
B 3 or 5 % of the base material thickness on each side.
C 3 or 5 % total in two sides of the total base material thickness

33. Which is correct regarding the use of a file?

A Apply pressure on the forward stroke only, except when filing very soft
metals such as lead or pure aluminum.
B Apply pressure on the forward and backward stroke.
C Apply pressure on the forward stroke and slide backward to the material’s
edge.

34. Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine support etc. which have been built up from
sheet metal, are normally
A accepted as is.
B non repairable.
C repairable, using approved methods.

AIRCRAFT CONSTRUCTION, REPAIR AND MODIFICATION Page 3

35. A factor which determines the minimum space between rivets is the
A edge distance.
B diameter of the rivets being used.
C pitch distance.

36. Rivet pitch is the distance between the

A centers of adjacent rivets in the same row.
B heads of rivets in the same row.
C center of rivets and the adjacent row.

37. What is indicated by a black "smoky" residue streaming back from some of the rivets on an
aircraft?
A Fretting corrosion is occurring between the rivets and the skin.
B Exfoliation corrosion is occurring inside the structure.
C The rivets were excessively work hardened during installation.

38. What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 aluminum alloy rivets after heat
treatment?
A To retard age hardening.
B To relieve internal stresses.
C To accelerate age hardening.

39. The length of flat A is

A. 3.875 inches.
B. 3.937 inches.
C. 3.750 inches.

40. (Refer to previous figure) The amount of

material required to make the 90 bend is
A 0.3717 inch.
B 0.3925 inch.
C 0.3436 inch.

41. The longitudinal members serves for stiffening the metal skin and prevent it from bulging or
buckling under severe stresses.
A. stringers
B. frames
C. gussets

42. It is defined as simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small
standard parts not involving complex assembly operations.
A. annual check/inspection
B. minor alteration
C. preventive maintenance

43. Changes to the empty weight or empty balance which result in an increase in the maximum
certificated weight or center-of-gravity limits of the aircraft.
A. airframe major alteration
B. airframe major modification
C. airframe major repair

44. Removal of accessories that are listed as required equipment on the aircraft or engine
specification.
A. powerplant major repair
B. powerplant major modification
C. powerplant major alteration

45. Relies upon a duplication of certain structural members to ensure that if one member
failed, the other would assume the load of the failed member.
A. fail safe
B. safe life
C. damage tolerance

AIRCRAFT CONSTRUCTION, REPAIR AND MODIFICATION Page 4

46. A fore and aft structural member of an aerofoil which has primary purpose of maintaining
the correct contour of the covering but is usually also a stressed bearing component of the
main structure.
A. spar
B. rib
C. stringers

47. The property of a material that enables it to resist penetration, wear, or cutting action or
permanent distortion.
A. malleability
B. hardness
C. strength

48. The property of a metal which allows little bending or deformation without shattering.
A. brittleness
B. ductility
C. malleability

49. The property which allows metal to be drawn, bent or twisted into various shapes without
breaking.
A. brittleness
B. ductility
C. malleability

50. The capability of an object or material to be stretched and to recover its size and shape
after its deformation.
A. plasticity
B. elasticity
c. malleability

AIRCRAFT CONSTRUCTION, REPAIR AND MODIFICATION Page 5

 FEATI University
Department of A eronautical Engineering and A ircraft Maintenance Technology
H elios St., Sta Cruz, Manila

2015 Aero Board Review Final Mock Exam (Aircraft Materials, Construction, Repair and Modification

Name:_________________________________________________________Date:_____________Score:_________

I. Multiple Choice (1 pt. each) Encircle the letter of the correct answer.
1. Flammable liquids are under what classification of fire?
a. Class A c. Class B
b. Class C d. Class D

2. A chemical oxygen generator normally contains?

a. a mixture of sodium chlorate and iron powder c. compressed liquid oxygen
b. gaseous oxygen d. mixture of oxygen and nitrogen

3. The standard minimum edge distance for countersunk rivets is?

a. 2 ½ D of the rivet head c. 2 D of the rivet head
b. 2 ½ D of the rivet shank d. 2 D of the rivet shank

4. ASTM stands for

a. American Standard for Testing Materials c. American Standard for Testing and Materials
b. American Society for Testing and Materials d. American Society for Testing Materials

5. The color of aluminum’s corrosion is?

a. red c. pink
b. white d. orange

6. What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine firewalls?

a. stainless steel c. Monel
b. Inconel d. Clad Aluminum

7. The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type of aluminum?

a. 99 percent aluminum c. 99 percent pure aluminum
b. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum d. Aluminum containing 11% impurity

8. In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates
a. minor alloying element c. the major alloying element
b. the percent of alloying metal d. it is obusely aluminum

9. It is an approved document created specifically to regulate the dispatch of an aircraft type with inoperative equipment.
a. MEL c. MMEL
b. CDL d. OM

10. It is a type certificate (TC) issued when an aircraft is modified from its original design.
a. TCDS c. STC
b. OM d. MEL

11. A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing "when reheated is described as a
a. thermosetting c. thermoplastic
b. thermoclastic d. thermostatic

12. Magnetic particle inspection is applicable to

a. all metals c. nonferrous metal
b. ferrous metals d. wood, composite & metals

13. A destructive testing equipment that measures resistance to penetration.

a. Brinell c. Rockwell
b. Vickers d. Barcoal

14. Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because they

a. are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminum alloys.
b. are much expensive
c. are generally thinner
d. have better conductive property

15. GMAW is also known as

a. TIG c. MIG
b. Resistance welding d. Spot Welding

Prepared by JGGD
16. The welding rod or the consumable electrode is normally coated because?
a. it is used to conduct electricity c. produce cleaner welds
b. it produces shielding gas d. produces the heat

17. Alodizing is the process by which

a. Alodine is used c. the part is submerged in an electro-chemical bath
b. the part is sprayed by chemicals d. an alclad for metal is added

18. What is the most suitable writing material for aircraft metal parts
a. chalk c. fiber tipped pen
b. scribed d. Pentel Pen

19. Welding over brazed or soldered joints is:

a. not permitted c. as long as same metal is used
b. permissible to mild steel d. permitted to a certain degree

20. Engine mount members should preferably be repaired by using a

a. larger diameter tube with fishmouth and no rosette welds
b. larger diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds
c. smaller diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds
d. smaller diameter tube with fishmouth and no rosette welds

21. SAE stands for?

a. Society of Aerospace Engineers c. Society of Automotive Engineers
b. Standard Aerospace Equipment d. Standard Aircraft Equipment

22. Which of the following is not considered ferrous alloy/metal?

a. Iron c. Steel
d. Stainless Steel d. 1100

23. What two types of indicating mediums are available for magnetic particle inspection?
a. Wet and dry process materials. c. High retentivity and low permeability material.
b. Iron and ferric oxides. d. magnetic fillings

24. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetization?
a. 45° c. Longitudinal
b. transverse d. none of the above

25. The most common deicing fluid used on aircraft propeller is?
a. water c. ethyl alcohol
b. isopropyl alcohol. d. liquid nitrogen

26. Which of the following is phosphate-ester based fluid.

a. MIL-H-83282 c. MIL-H-5606
b. Skydrol d. MIL-H-6083

27. Its primary purpose is to prevent flow to the other direction

a. pressure relief valve c. check valve
b. pressure pump d. selector valve

28. Aircraft Shock normally contains

a. pneumatic fluid c. hydraulic fluid
b. pressurized nitrogen d. Liquid nitrogen

29. Pop rivets are good example of?

a. Solid Shank rivet c. blind rivet
b. special rivets d. special fasteners

30. Honeycomb skin structure is commonly made of the following except?

a. Fiberglass c. Aramid
b. High Density Polyethylene (HDPE) d. Phenolic

31. In the stress strain diagram, the constant of proportionality E stands for?
a. Young’s Modulus c. Modulus of Rigidity
b. Hooke’s law d. Elasticity

32. Flexiglass a well known brand name is what type of plastic?

a. Acrylic c. Tetrafluoroethylene
b. Acetate d. Polypropylene

33. Jet A-1, Jet B are aircraft fuels that are primarily made of?
a. Kerosene c. Hydrocarbons
b. naphtha d. Aroma

34. Considered one of the major form of destructive testing that measures the tensile strength of the material.
a. Hardness Test c. Tensile Test
b. Fatigue test d. Bending Test

Prepared by JGGD
35. ATA 53 is?
a. Fuselage c. Doors
b. Nacelles/Pylons d. Windows

36. How are changes in direction of a control cable accomplished?

a. pulleys c, Gusset
b. fairleads d. Bell Cranks

37. Identify the cable that is used in primary control systems and in other places where operation over pulleys is frequent.
a. 7-6 c. 7-19
b. 1-19 D. none of the above

38. When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tap-ping method, a dull thud may indicate
a. separation of the laminates. c. an area of too much matrix between fiber layers
b. less than full strength curing of the matrix. d. Lower stress concentrations.

39. The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass used in aircraft structures is
a. S c. G
b. E d. F

40. The vast majority of aircraft control cables are terminated with swaged terminals that must be
a. corrosion treated to show compliance with the manufacturers requirements after the swaging operation
b. pull tested to show compliance with the manufactures requirements after the swaging operation.
c. checked with a go-no-go gauge before and after, to show compliance with the manufacturers requirements after the
swaging operation.
d. none of the above

41. Which statement best describes magnesium welding?

a. filler rod should be zinc
b. magnesium can be welded to other metals
c. it is impossible to weld magnesium because it is flammable
d. Filler rod should be the same composition as base metal.

42. Welding over brazed or soldered joints is

a. not permitted c. permissible for mild steel
b. permissible only for aluminium d. permissible to some ferrous metals

43. The shielding gases generally used in the Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding of aluminium consist of
a. a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide c. helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and argon.
b. nitrogen or hydrogen d. a mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen.

44. Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy structures?

a. 5056 aluminum c. Monel
b. Mild Steel d. Inconel

45. Which is an acceptable safety device for a castle nut when installed on secondary structures?
a. safety wire c. locknut
d. safety pin d. cotter pin

46. The process of combining two metals to produce the desired quality from each other.
a. metallurgy c. alloying
b. coldworking d. heat treatment

47. Under part 43 the FAA specifies that the transponder be checked every?
a. 12 months c. 24 months
d. 6 months d. 3 months

48. FAR is what part of CFR

a. 11 c. 23
b. 12 d. 14

49. Which of the following is not necessary to cause corrosion?.

a. electrolyte c. Anode
b. cathode d. liquid

50. The most common type of sandwich/core structure.

a. Honeycomb c. corrugated
b. foam d. PET

Prepared by JGGD
SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

DIRECTIONS: Choose the letter of your best answer.

1. Stability about the axis which runs parallel to the line of flight is referred to as

A. longitudinal stability B. lateral stability.

C. directional stability D. pitch stability

2. What type loads cause the most rivet failures?

A. Shear B. Bearing
C. Bending D. Head

3. With which system is differential control associated?

A. Trim B. Rudder
C. Elevator D. Aileron

4. Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because they

A. can be heat treated much easier than the other forms of aluminum.
B. are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminum alloys.
C. are stronger than unclad aluminum alloys.
D. are heat resistant

5. One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass structure that has been subjected to damage is
to
A. strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure.
B. use dye-penetrant inspection procedures, exposing the entire damaged area to the penetrant
solution.
C. use an eddy current probe on both sides of the damaged area.
D. perform tap testing

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

6. The angle of incidence of an airplane at rest

A. affects the dihedral of the wings in flight.
B. is the same as the angle between the relative wind and the chord of the wing.

C. does not change when in flight.

D. is set at maximum L/D

7. The primary alloying agent of 2024-T36 is indicated by the number

A. 2 B. 20 C. 24 D. 36

8. An aircraft that is required by Section 91.409, to have a 100-hour inspection may be flown
beyond the inspection requirement
A. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but a special flight
permit is necessary.
B. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 10
flight hours without special permit
C. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 15
flight hours.
D. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 10
flight hours.

9. What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet?
A. Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a shank size drill and remove the rivet
with a punch.
B. Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank
and remove the rivet with a punch.
C. Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a drill one size smaller than the rivet and
remove the rivet with a punch.
D. Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size larger than the rivet shank
and remove the rivet with a punch.

10. If a single-rotor helicopter is in forward horizontal flight, the angle of attack of the advancing
blade is
A. more than the retreating blade.
B. equal to the retreating blade.
C. less than the retreating blade.
D. always greater than the retreating blade

11. What is the purpose of stringers?

A. To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses
B. To produce stress risers and support the fatigue metres
C. To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin
D. To support the primary control surfaces
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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

12. The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing
A. The design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor
B. The design limit load plus the design ultimate load
C. Three times the safety factor
D. The design limit load times a 1.5 safety factor

13. The skin of a modern pressurized aircraft

A. Is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle
B. Houses the crew and the payload
C. Provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather
D. Is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural load

14. Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are:

A. A means of locating airframe structure and components
B. Passenger seat locations
C. Runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal
D. Compass alignment markings

15. Flight deck windows are constructed from

A. An amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals
B. Strengthened glass with shock absorbing vinyl interlayers and rubber pressure seals
C. Strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing and rubber pressure seals
D. Strengthened glass with rubber seals

16. A cantilever wing:

A. Is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires
B. Is supported at one end only with no external bracing
C. Has both an upper and lower airfoil section
D. Folds in the root section to ease storage in confined spaces

17. A torsion box:

A. Is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending, and twisting loads
B. Is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads
C. Is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls and landing gear
D. Is a structure designed to reduce weight

18. A lightening hole in a rib

A. Prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage
B. Provides a means of passing cable and controls through a pressure bulkhead
C. Collects and disposes of electrical charges
D. Lightens and stiffens the structure

19. Control surface flutter

A. Provides additional lift for takeoff and landing in the event of engine failure
B. Occurs at high angles of attack
C. Is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight envelope

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

D. Is a means of detecting the critical safe life of the wing

20. A damage tolerant structure

A. Has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area
B. Is light, non load bearing structure, damage to which will not adversely affect the aircraft
C. Is replaced when it reaches its predicted life
D. Need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance

21. It is the maximum stress expected in any structural member

A. Ultimate strength B. Limit Strength
C. Yield strength D. Flexure strength

22. It is the ability of metal to resist deformation

A. Ultimate strength B. Limit Strength
C. Yield strength D. Flexure strength

23. It represents the highest stress experienced within the material at its moment of rupture.
A. Ultimate strength B. Limit Strength
C. Yield strength D. Flexure strength

24. It is the maximum stress a material can sustain without rupture.

A. Ultimate strength B. Limit Strength
C. Yield strength D. Flexure strength

25. Capacity of a material to absorb energy in the elastic range

A. Resilience B. Modulus of Resilience
C. Toughness D. Modulus of Toughness

26. Ratio of maximum energy absorbed per unit volume

A. Resilience B. Modulus of Resilience
C. Toughness D. Modulus of Toughness

27. Energy absorption in the plastic range

A. Resilience B. Modulus of Resilience
C. Toughness D. Modulus of Toughness

28. Equal to the area under the entire stress-strain curve.

A. Resilience B. Modulus of Resilience

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

C. Toughness D. Modulus of Toughness

29. A material's ability to be bent, formed, or shaped without cracking or breaking

A. Malleability B. Ductility
C. Toughness D. Fusibility

30. The ability of metal to be drawn into wire stock, extrusions, or rods
A. Malleability B. Ductility
C. Toughness D. Fusibility

31. Toughness is a material's ability to resist tearing or breaking when it is bent or stretched.
A. Malleability B. Ductility
C. Toughness D. Fusibility

32. The ability of metal to be joined by heating and melting is defined as fusibility.
A. Malleability B. Ductility
C. Toughness D. Fusibility

33. Is a process wherein a piece of metal is worked at temperatures above its critical range.
A. Forging B. Rolling
C. Pressing D. Extrusion

34. Consists of forming hot metal ingots with rollers to form sheets, bars, and beams.
A. Forging B. Rolling
C. Pressing D. Extrusion

35. Is used to form large and heavy parts

A. Forging B. Rolling
C. Pressing D. Extrusion

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

36. Is the process of forcing metal through a die which imparts a required cross-section to the metal.
A. Forging B. Rolling
C. Pressing D. Extrusion

37. Wrought alloy designation

A. S B. Without S C. O D. W

38. Cast alloy designation

A. S B. Without S C. O D. W

39. Annealed, soft state

A. S B. Without S C. O D. W

40. Intermediate heat treatment

A. S B. Without S C. O D. W

41. Combination of iron and carbon

A. Cementite B. Austenite
C. Martensite D. Eutectoid

42. steel heated above the critical range (solid solution of cementite in gamma iron)
A. Cementite B. Austenite
C. Martensite D. Eutectoid

43. Is the hardest structure obtained in steel.

A. Cementite B. Austenite
C. Martensite D. Eutectoid

44. Steels containing 0.85 % carbon. Greatest hardness from heat treatment is obtained in this composition.

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

A. Cementite B. Austenite
C. Martensite D. Eutectoid

45. Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of .032-inch aluminum?
A. MS20425D-4-3 B. MS20470AD-4-4
C. MS20455DD-5-3 D. MS20420AD-4-4
46. How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required to attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using a single row of
rivets, minimum edge distance, and 4D spacing?
A. 56 B. 54 C. 52 D. 58

47. Anything that needs periodic replacement

A. rotable B. repairable
C. expendable D. consumable

48. Any part that is usually repaired and then returned to service as repaired/overhauled or even “as new”
condition.
A. rotable B. repairable
C. expendable D. consumable

49. Any component that is usually just thrown away at the end of its useable life, this is usually because it is
not worth repairing or cannot be repaired or overhauled due to its construction and intended use.
A. rotable B. repairable
C. expendable D. consumable

50. Any component that is rendered unsuitable for reuse when it’s installed and used.
A. rotable B. repairable
C. expendable D. consumable

51. With a hyd lock there is:

A. flow, but no jack movement
B. no flow but jack continues to move under gravitational effects

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

C. no flow, jack is stationary

D. constant flow

52. The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is:

A. to compensate for leaks and expansion
B. to allow a space into which a spare fluid may be stored
C. to indicate system contents
D. to maintain fluid between the jack and the accumulator

53. A relief valve

A. relieves below system pressure
B. maintains pressure to a priority circuit
C. relieves at its design pressure
D. prevents excessive pressure through excessive temperature

54. Pascal’s law states that

A. pressure is inversely proportional to load
B. liquid is compressible
C. oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators
D. applied force acts equally in all directions

55. The purpose of an accumulator is to

A. relieve excess pressure
B. store fluid under pressure
C. store compressed gas for tyre inflation
D. remove air from the system

56. Oil is used in an oleo strut to:

A. support the weight of the aircraft

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

B. limit the speed of compression of the strut

C. lubricate the piston within the cylinder
D. limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut

57. Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground:

A. not possible because the system is not powerful enough
B. prevented by the ground/air logic system
C. always a danger when the ground lock has been removed
D. the responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft

58. The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is:

A. CO2 B. Dry powder C. Freon D. Water

59. Landing gear ground lock pins are:

A. fitted before flight to ensure landing gear locks are fully cocked
B. remover prior to flight and returned to stores
C. fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the down lock jack
D. removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the crew

60. A likely cause of wheel shimmy is:

A. aircraft is overweight
B. the tyre pressures are too high
C. the aircraft is incorrectly loaded
D. a torque link is worn or damaged

61. Which of the following may a certificated airframe and powerplant mechanic perform on
aircraft and approve for return to service?
1. a 100-hour inspection.
2. an annual inspection, under specified circumstances.
3. a progressive inspection, under specified circumstances.

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 1, 2, 3 D. 1 only.

62. Which of the following describe the effects of annealing steel and aluminum alloys?
1. decrease in internal stress.
2. softening of the metal.
3. improved corrosion resistance.

A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1 only.

63. Which of the listed conditions is NOT one of the requirements for corrosion to occur?

A. The presence of an electrolyte.

B. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area.
C. The presence of a passive oxide film.
D. anode and cathode.

64. A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is

A. improper heat treatment.
B. dissimilar metal contact.
C. improper application of primer.
D. impurities.

65. Which of these materials is the most cathodic?

A. Zinc. B. 2024 aluminum alloy.
C. Stainless steel. D. 7075 aluminum alloy.

66. Which will weigh the least?

A. 98 parts of dry air and 2 parts of water vapor.
B. 35 parts of dry air and 65 parts of water vapor.
C. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor.
D. 51 parts of dry air and 49 parts of water vapor.

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

67. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or
longitudinal magnetization?
A. 45° B. Longitudinal.
C. Transverse D. 90°.

68. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle buildup forming

A. a fernlike pattern. B. a single line.
C. parallel lines. D. random lines.

69. Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects?
A. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form.
B. 6061-T9 stainless steel.
C. Clad aluminum alloy.
D. Cast aluminum alloy.

70. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolthead is
A. upward, or in a forward direction.
B. downward, or in a forward direction.
C. downward, or in a rearward direction.
D. upward, or in a rearward direction.

71. Which heat-treating process of metal produces a hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong,
tough core?
A. Case hardening. B. Annealing.
C. Tempering. D. Normalizing.

72. Who is responsible for upkeep of the required maintenance records for an aircraft?
A. The maintaining repair station or authorized inspector.
B. The maintaining certificated mechanic.
C. The aircraft owner.

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

D. The first officer.

73. The clearance between the piston rings and the ring lands is measured with a
A. micrometer caliper. B. thickness gauge.
C. depth gauge. D. vernier caliper.

74. Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane of rotation of a
disk?
A. Dial indicator. B. Shaft gauge.
C. Protractor. D. Depth gauge.

75. Which is the ratio of the water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that
would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure?
A. Absolute humidity. B. Relative humidity.
C. Dewpoint D. Ambien humidity.

76. Which condition indicates a part has cooled too quickly after being welded?
A. Cracking adjacent to the weld.
B. Discoloration of the base metal.
C. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions.
D. Absence of dark spots.

77. The boiling point of a given liquid varies

A. directly with pressure.
B. inversely with pressure.
C. directly with volume.
D. inversely with volume.

78. The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type of aluminum?
A. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper.
B. Aluminum alloy containing zinc.
C. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum.
D. 99.11 percent aluminum.

79. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries
caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product buildup is called
A. brinelling B. granulation
C. exfoliation D. strain hardening.

80. A nonelectrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum alloys to increase corrosion resistance and
paint-bonding qualities is called
A. anodizing B. alodizing
C. dichromating D. chrome-plating.

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

81. Which part(s) of a semi-monocoque fuselage prevent(s) tension and compression from
bending the fuselage?
A. The fuselage covering.
B. Longerons and stringers.
C. Bulkheads and skin.
D. Stiffiners.

82. Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advanced composite wet lay-ups is generally considered
the best for strength?
A. 40:60. B. 50:50. C. 60:40. D. 51:49.

83. When fabricating parts from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum sheet stock,
A. bends should be made with a small radius to develop maximum strength.
B. all bends must be 90° to the grain.
C. all scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must be held to a minimum.
D. follow manufacturer’s recommendations.

84. The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is
A. three times the thickness of the materials to be joined.
B. two times the rivet length.
C. three times the thickness of the thickest sheet.
D. three times the nominal thickness of the sheet.

85. Which statement is true regarding the inspection of a stressed skin metal wing assembly known
to have been critically loaded?
A. If rivets show no visible distortion, further investigation is unnecessary.
B. If bearing failure has occurred, the rivet shanks will be joggled.
C. If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in the
same direction.
D. Burn marks on rivet heads.

86. Rivet pitch is the distance between the

A. centers of rivets in adjacent rows.
B. centers of adjacent rivets in the same row.
C. heads of rivets in the same row.
D. heads of rivets in adjacent rows.

87. Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy structures?

A. Mild steel. B. 5056 aluminum.
C. Monel D. Pure aluminum.

88. Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine supports, etc., which have been built up from
sheet metal, are normally
A. repairable, using approved methods.
B. repairable, except when subjected to compressive loads.
C. not repairable, but must be replaced when damaged or deteriorated.

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

D. condemned after its service life.

89. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern aircraft because
this type of construction
A. has a high strength to weight ratio.
B. may be repaired by gluing replacement skin to the inner core material with thermoplastic resin.
C. is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more corrosion resistant.
D. is fatigue resistant.

90. The purpose of spring tabs or servo tabs is to

A. assist the pilot in moving the control surfaces.
B. contribute to the static balance of the control surface.
C. make in-flight trim adjustments possible.
D. increase flight control effectiveness.

91. What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment?
A. To accelerate age hardening.
B. To relieve internal stresses.
C. To retard age hardening.
D. Relieve internal stresses.

92. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct size?
A. Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction
to remove from the hole.
B. Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction.
C. Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when starting the cut and reduce the pressure when
finishing the cut.
D. Do not turn the reamer in the cutting direction.

93. An airplane that has a tendency to gradually increase a pitching moment that has been set into
motion has
A. poor longitudinal stability.
B. good lateral stability.
C. poor lateral stability.
D. good longitudinal stability

94. The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are

A. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch long.
B. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch long.
C. 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long.
D. 4/8 inch in diameter and 8/16 inch long.

95. If an aircraft’s transparent plastic enclosures exhibit fine cracks which may extend in a network
over or under the surface or through the plastic, the plastic is said to be
A. hazing B. brinelling
C. crazing D. peening

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

96. An airplane which has good longitudinal stability should have a minimum tendency to
A. roll B. pitch C. yaw D. drag

97. If control cables are adjusted properly and the control surfaces tend to vibrate, the probable
cause is
A. worn attachment fittings.
B. oil can effects on the control surfaces.
C. excessive cable tension.
D. incorrect mass balance.

98. The purpose of the vertical fin is to provide

A. directional stability.
B. longitudinal stability.
C. lateral stability.
D. drag reduction.

99. Cherrymax and Olympic-Lok rivets

A. utilize a rivet gun, special rivet set, and bucking bar for installation.
B. utilize a pulling tool for installation.
C. may be installed with ordinary hand tools.
D. are high strength rivets.

100. A DD rivet is heat treated before use to

A. harden and increase strength.
B. relieve internal stresses.
C. soften to facilitate riveting.
D. inhibit corrosion when installed.

******************************END*******************************

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SUBJECT: Airframe Construction, Repair, and Modification

Page 16 of 17
 MATS College of Technology
R. Castillo Street., Agdao, Davao City
Engineering Department
Aircraft Constructions, Repair and
Modification
Mock Board Exam
S.Y. 2014-2015
Name: Score:
Course & Year level: Date:

Test I. Multiple Choices: Write your answer on the space provided.

1. Which of the following describe the effects of annealing steel and aluminum alloys?

1. decrease in internal stress.

2. softening of the metal.
3. improved corrosion resistance.

a. 1,2.
b. 1, 3.
c. c. 2, 3
d. 1

2. Which heat-treating process of metal produces a hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough core?
a. Case hardening.
b. Annealing
c. Tempering
d. carbonizing

3. Which heat-treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is changed chemically
by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?
a. Tempering.
b. Normalizing.
c. Casehardening.
d. carbonizing

4. Laminated wood spars may be substituted for solid rectangular wood spars
a. only in certain instances where the primary load is shared by one or more other original
structural member.
b. Only upon specific approval by the manufacturer or the FAA.
c. If the same quality of wood is used in both.
d. If different quality of wood is used in both

5. The strength of a well designed and properly prepared wood splice joint is provided by the
a. Bearing surface of the wood fibers.
b. Glue.
c. Reinforcement plates.

Page 1 of 8
 d. Internal bearing of the wood

6. After repairing or recovering a rudder, the surface should be rebalanced

a. In its normal flight position.
b. To its spanwise axis.
c. To manufacturer's specifications.
d. In its perpendicular position

7. Placing a piece of cloth around a stainless steel control cable and running it back and forth over the
length of the cable is generally a satisfactory method of
a. Applying par-al-ketone.
b. Inspecting for wear or corrosion.
c. Inspecting for broken wires.
d. Inspecting for FOD

8. The cable operated control system of an all metal aircraft, not incorporating a temperature
compensating device, has been rigged to the correct tension in a heated hangar. If the aircraft is
operated in very cold weather, the cable tension will
a. Decrease when the aircraft structure and cables become cold.
b. Increase when the aircraft structure and cables become cold.
c. Be unaffected if stainless steel cable is installed.
d. increase when the aircraft structure and cables become hot.

9. Very often, repairs to a control surface require static rebalancing of the control surface. Generally, flight
control balance condition may be determined by
a. Suspending the control surface from its leading edge in the streamline position and checking
weight dis¬tribution.
b. The behavior of the trailing edge when the surface is suspended from its hinge points.
c. Checking for unequal distribution of weight throughout the control surface.
d. Checking for equal distribution of weight throughout the control surface.

10. Excessive wear on both of the sides of a control cable pul¬ley groove is evidence of
a. Excessive cable tension.
b. Pulley misalignment.
c. Cable misalignment.
d. Cable alignment

11. Differential control on an aileron system means that

a. One aileron on one wing travels further up than the aileron on the opposite wing to adjust for
wash in and wash out.
b. The up travel is more than the down travel.
c. The down travel is more than the up travel.
d. The down travel is equal to up travel

12. Why is it generally necessary to jack an aircraft indoors for weighing?

a. So that air currents do not destabilize the scales.
b. So weighing scales may be calibrated to 0 pounds.
Page 2 of 8
 c. So aircraft may be placed in a level position.
d. So that air current will destabilize the scales.

13. The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type of aluminum?
a. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper
b. Aluminum alloy containing zinc.
c. 99 percent commercially pure alloy.
d. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum.

14. In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates
a. The major alloying element.
b. The number of different major alloying elementsused in the metal.
c. The percent of alloying metal added.
d. The percent of dealloing metal added

15. In cases of elongated boltholes in a wood spar or cracks in the vicinity of boltholes,
a. It is permissible to ream the hole, plug with hard¬wood, and redrill.
b. a new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar replaced entirely.
c. the spar may be reinforced by using hardwood reinforcing plates.
d. the spar could not reinforced by using hardwood reinforcing plates.

16. A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar generally indicates
a. compression failure. .
b. shear failure.
c. decay
d. expansion failure

17. Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding?

a. To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal.
b. To increase the hardness of the weld.
c. To remove the surface scale formed after welding.
d. To remove the surface scale formed during welding.

18. Parts are rinsed thoroughly in hot water after they have been heat treated in a sodium and potassium
nitrate bath to
a. prevent corrosion.
b. prevent surface cracking.
c. retard discoloration.
d. Forced discoloration

19. When installing pneumatic surface-bonded type deicerboots,

a. apply a solution of glycerin and water between therubber and the wing skin.
b. apply a silastic compound in the boot and the wing skin.
c. remove all paint from the area to be covered by thedeicer boot.
d. apply a silastic compound between the boot and thewing skin.

20. Which of the following are found in a laminated integral electrically heated windshield system?
Page 3 of 8
 1. Autotransformer.
2. Heat control relay.
3. Heat control toggle switch.
4. 24V dc power supply.
5. Indicating light.

a. 2, 3, 4, 5.
b. 1, 2, 3, 5.
c. 1, 2, 4, 5.
d. 1, 3, 4, 5.

21. What is one check for proper operation of a pitot/static tube heater after replacement?
a. Ammeter reading.
b. Continuity check of system.
c. Voltmeter reading.
d. Ammeter

22.What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicerboot system?

a. Vacuum pump.
b. Shuttle valve.
c. Distributor valve.
d. Check valve

22. What is the source of pressure for inflating deicer boots on reciprocating engine aircraft?
a. Vane type pump.
b. Piston type pump.
c. Gear type pump.
d. Planet type

23. What may be used to clean deicer boots?

a. Unleaded gasoline or Jet A fuel.
b. Naphtha.
c. Soap and water.
d. Water only

24. Some aircraft are protected against airframe icing by heating the leading edges of the airfoils and intake
ducts. When is this type of anti ice system usually operated during flight?
a. Whenever icing conditions are first encountered orexpected to occur.
b. In symmetric cycles during icing conditions toremove ice as it accumulates.
c. Continuously while the aircraft is in flight.
d. Only on the ground

25. What method is usually employed to control the temperature of an anti icing system using surface
combustion heaters?
a. Thermostats in the cockpit.
b. Heater fuel shutoff valves.
Page 4 of 8
 c. Thermo cycling switches.
d. Thermostats in the cargo

26. Why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately inflated?

a. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes does not disturb airflow.
b. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps disturbance of the airflow to a minimum.
c. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes relieves the load on the air pump.
d. parallel inflation of deicer boot tubes relieves the load on the air pump.

27. What is used to slow the drying time of some finishes and to prevent blush?
a. Reducer.
b. Retarder.
c. Rejuvenator.
d. Blower

28. Which type of coating typically includes phosphoric acid as one of its components at the time of
application?
a. Wash primer.
b. Epoxy primer.
c. Zinc chromate primer.
d. primer

29. Which properly applied finish topcoat is the most durable and chemical resistant?
a. Synthetic enamel.
b. Polyurethane.
c. Acrylic lacquer.
d. enamel

30. Aluminum-pigment in dope is used primarily to

a. exclude sunlight from the fabric.
b. aid in sealing out moisture from the fabric.
c. provide a silver color.
d. Provide a gold color

31. A correct use for acetone is to

a. thin zinc chromate primer.
b. thin dope.
c. remove grease from fabric.
d. Remove fabric

32. Which of the following is a hazard associated with sanding on fabric covered surfaces during the finishing
process?
a. Overheating of the fabric/finish, especially with theuse of power tools.
b. Static electricity buildup.
c. Embedding of particles in the finish.
d. Dynamic electricity buildup

Page 5 of 8
33. What is likely to occur if unhydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to
40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?
a. A dull finish due to the topcoat "sinking in" toprimer that is still too soft.
b. Corrosion.
c. A glossy, blush-free finish.
d. A glossy, blush finish

34. Fungicidal dopes are used in aircraft finishing as the

a. final, full-bodied, brushed-on coat to reduce blushing.
b. first coat to prevent fabric rotting and are appliedthin enough to saturate the fabric.
c. first, full-bodied, brushed-on coat to prevent fungusdamage.
d. first coat to prevent fabric blushing and are appliedthin enough to saturate the fabric.

35. Before spraying any finishing materials on unpainted clean aluminum,

a. wipe the surface with avgas or kerosene.
b. avoid touching the surface with bare hands.
c. remove any conversion coating film.
d. Remove any coating film

36. What is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to
40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?
a. A glossy, blush-free finish.
b. A dull finish due to the topcoat "sinking in" to primerthat is still too soft.
c. Corrosion.
d. blushing

37. Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tighten¬ing aircraft nuts and bolts relate to
a. clean, dry threads.
b. clean, lightly oiled threads.
c. either dry or lightly oiled threads.
d. Dry threads

38. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft boltsshould be installed so that the bolthead is
a. upward, or in a forward direction.
b. downward, or in a forward direction.
c. downward, or in a rearward direction.
d. Downward, or sideward direction

39. The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is
a. three times the thickness of the thickest sheet.
b. two times the rivet length.
c. three times the thickness of the materials to be joined.
d. Two times the thickness of the materials to be joined.

40. The shop head of a rivet should be

a. one and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank.
b. one and one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet.
Page 6 of 8
 c. one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank.
d. One and a half the diameter of the rivet shank

41. One of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type fasteners over earlier generations is that
a. the squeezed on collar installation provides a moresecure, tighter fit.
b. they can be removed and reused again.
c. they can be installed with ordinary hand tools.
d. They can’t be installed with ordinary hand tools

42. Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a semi monocoque fuselage are called
a. spars and ribs.
b. longerons and stringers.
c. spars and stringers.
d. Ribs and longerons

43. Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing?

a. No external bracing is needed.
b. It requires only one lift strut on each side.
c. It has nonadjustable lift struts.
d. It has adjustables lift struts

44. Themonocoque fuselage relies largely on the strength of

a. bulkheads and longerons.
b. longerons and formers.
c. skin or covering.
d. Bulkheads and formers

45. Which part(s) of a semi monocoque fuselage prevent(s) tension and compression from bending the
fuselage?
a. Bulkheads and skin.
b. Longerons and stringers.
c. The fuselage covering
d. Bulkheads and fuselage

46. An airplane is controlled directionally about its vertical axis by the

a. ailerons.
b. elevator(s).
c. rudder.
d. elevon

47. The purpose of wing slats is to

a. reduce stalling speed.
b. decrease drag.
c. increase speed on takeoff.
d. Increase stalling speed

48. The angle of incidence of an airplane

Page 7 of 8
 a. does not change in flight.
b. affects the dihedral of the wings.
c. is that angle between the relative wind and the chord of the wing.
d. Does change in flight

49. Buffeting is the intermittent application of forces to a part of an airplane. It is caused by

a. incorrect rigging of flaps.
b. an unsteady flow from turbulence.
c. incorrect rigging of ailerons.
d. Correct rigging of ailerons

50. Why do tire and wheel manufacturers often recommend that the tires on split rim wheels be deflated
before removing the wheel from the axle?
a. To relieve the strain on the wheel retaining nut and axle threads.
b. As a safety precaution in case the bolts that hold the wheel halves together have been
damaged or weakened.
c. To remove the static load imposed upon the wheel bearings by the inflated tire.
d. To remove the dynamic load imposed upon the wheels by the inflated tire.

Page 8 of 8
 PATTS REVIEW CENTER
Lombos Ave., San Isidro, Parañaque City

PATTS REVIEW CENTER

Questionnaire for Aeronautical Engineers Licensure Mock Examination

SET A
Note: You will not be given any extra test questions to replace your soiled copies.
It is your concern to make our test questions clean and neat.

A/C Construction, Repair and Modification

Directions: In the Answer Sheet provided, shade the box of the letter that corresponds to your answers.
Pencil should be used in marking your answers. Careless marking of your answer sheet may lower
the scores you earn on this test.

You will have two (2) hours for this test. Work as rapidly and as accurately as you can. If you are
not sure of an answer, mark the choice which is your best guess. Only one answer should be
marked for each problem. Should a mistake be made, merely erase or cross out the wrong box and
mark the correct one.

1. Which statement is correct regarding an aircraft that is found to be unairworthy after an annual
inspection, due to an item requiring a major repair (assuming approved data is used to accomplish
the repair)?

A – An appropriately rated mechanic may accomplish the repair, and an IA may approve the
aircraft for return to service.
B – An appropriately rated mechanic or repair station may repair the defect and approve the
aircraft for return to service.
C – Only the person who performed the annual inspection may approve the aircraft for return to
service, after the major repair.
D – It’s all under the 14 CFR Part 43 jurisdiction.

2. An aircraft that is due an annual inspection may be flown

A – if a special permit has been issued for the aircraft.

B – for the purpose of performing maintenance.
C – for a period of time not to exceed 10 hours.
D – by the holder of an inspection authorization.

3. Why is it extremely important that no more than about ten seconds elapse between removal of an
alloy from the furnace and the quench?

A – to prevent cracking
B – to maintain hardness
C – to prevent corrosion
D – to control the thermal expansion
4. 2024T4- what does T4 means?

A - Solution heat-treated and then stabilized to control its growth and distortion.
B - Solution heat-treated, artificially aged, and then strain-hardened.
C - Solution heat-treated, followed by natural aging at room temperature to a stable condition.
D - Solution heat-treated, followed by strain hardening.

5. Which alloys contain approximately 80 percent nickel & 14 percent chromium?

A – monel
B – inconel
C – stainless steel
D – beta alloys

6. SAE 3020, what is the degree of carbon content?

A – medium carbon content

B – low-crabon content
C – high carbon content
D – adequate carbon content

7. A process that is used to relieved stresses on ferrous metals.

A – carbonizing
B – alodining
C – metal priming
D – normalizing

8. What is the maximum grain deviation for the wood to used it on aircraft structures?

A – 1:13
B – 14:1
C – 1:15
D – 16:1

9. This refer to the type of reinforcing fiber that has a disadvantage of reacting with aluminum alloys,
that may cause galvanic corrosion.

A – kevlar
B – fiberglass
C – aramid
D – carbon/grahpite

10. A fiber orientation that runs parallel to the 00 direction.

A – bias
B – selvage edge
C – weft
D – fill
11. A type of composites that consist of two or more layers of different reinforcing material laminated
together.

A – sandwich construction
B – fiberglass
C – thixotropic agent
D – intraply hybrid composite

12. What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets?

A – two and twenty-fifth times the diameter of the rivet shank.

B – two and half times the diameter of the rivet shank.
C – two times the diameter of the rivet shank.
D – two times the diameter of the rivet head.

13. A type of rivets that were developed for used on streamline airfoils and permit a smooth flow over
an aircraft's wings or control surfaces.

A – brazier rivets
B – round rivets
C – universal rivets
D – countersunk rivets

14. A type of rivet that are being characterized by a raised dot.

A – 2017
B – 2024
C – 5056
D – 3003

15. A bolt with the code AN5-22 is typically how long?

A – 22/16 inch
B – 22/32 inch
C – 2 inches
D – 2 ¼ inches

16. What is the type of bolt being identified by a triangle on its head.

A – close tolearance bolt

B – fine threaded bolt
C – course threaded bolt
D – interference fit bolt

17. If a nut is being classify as a class 3 fit, what does it mean?

A – loose fit
B – medium fit
C – interference fit
D – close tolerance fit
18. Which publication manual indicates the maximum torque recommendations for bolts and nuts?

A – TCDS
B – Aircraft Maintenance Manual
C – Repair Manual
D – AC43.13-1B

19. If an aircraft is due for a 100-hour inspection but it is in a place where there are no facility for
them, how much time that the said aircraft is allowed to fly in order to ferry it to their respective
facility?

A - 15 hours
B – 20 hours
C – 10 hours
D – 25 hours

20. These are published to notify aircraft owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions and
to prescribe the conditions under which the product may continue to be operated.
A – TCDS (Type Certificate Data Sheet)
B – AMM (Aircraft Maintenance Manual)
C – SRM (Structural Repair Manual)
D – AD (Airworthiness Directives)

21. An NDT inspection that utilize the use of flourescent particle solution and inspect it under black
light.

A – dye penetrant inspection

B – magnaglo inspection
C – eddy current
D – radiographic inspection

22. This inspection is required when an aircraft is operated under 14 CFR part 91 and used for hire,
such as flight training.

A – 100-hour inspection
B – 50-hour inspection
C – annual inspection
D – routine inspection

23. AN426 DD 4-6, what is the length of the rivet?

A – 6/32 inch
B – ¾ inch
C – 3/16 inch
D – 3/8 inch

24. This rivet are also known as field rivets.

A – DD
B–B
C–A
D – AD
25. The diameter of a clevis bolt are normally given in what increments?

A - 1/32 increments
B – 1/16 increments
C – 1/8 increments
D – ¼ increments
 PATTS REVIEW CENTER
Lombos Ave., San Isidro, Parañaque City

PATTS REVIEW CENTER

Questionnaire for Aeronautical Engineers Licensure Mock Examination

SET B
Note: You will not be given any extra test questions to replace your soiled copies.
It is your concern to make our test questions clean and neat.

A/C Construction, Repair and Modification

Directions: In the Answer Sheet provided, shade the box of the letter that corresponds to your answers.
Pencil should be used in marking your answers. Careless marking of your answer sheet may lower
the scores you earn on this test.

You will have two (2) hours for this test. Work as rapidly and as accurately as you can. If you are
not sure of an answer, mark the choice which is your best guess. Only one answer should be
marked for each problem. Should a mistake be made, merely erase or cross out the wrong box and
mark the correct one.

1. A bolt with the code AN5-22 is typically how long?

A – 22/16 inch
B – 22/32 inch
C – 2 inches
D – 2 ¼ inches

2. A type of rivet that are being characterized by a raised dot.

A – 2017
B – 2024
C – 5056
D – 3003

3. A type of rivets that were developed for used on streamline airfoils and permit a smooth flow over
an aircraft's wings or control surfaces.

A – brazier rivets
B – round rivets
C – universal rivets
D – countersunk rivets

4. What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets?

A – two and twenty-fifth times the diameter of the rivet shank.

B – two and half times the diameter of the rivet shank.
 C – two times the diameter of the rivet shank.
D – two times the diameter of the rivet head.

5. A type of composites that consist of two or more layers of different reinforcing material laminated
together.

A – sandwich construction
B – fiberglass
C – thixotropic agent
D – intraply hybrid composite

6. The diameter of a clevis bolt are normally given in what increments?

A - 1/32 increments
B – 1/16 increments
C – 1/8 increments
D – ¼ increments

7. This rivet are also known as field rivets.

A – DD
B–B
C–A
D – AD

8. AN426 DD 4-6, what is the length of the rivet?

A – 6/32 inch
B – ¾ inch
C – 3/16 inch
D – 3/8 inch

9. This inspection is required when an aircraft is operated under 14 CFR part 91 and used for hire,
such as flight training.

A – 100-hour inspection
B – 50-hour inspection
C – annual inspection
D – routine inspection

10. An NDT inspection that utilize the use of flourescent particle solution and inspect it under black
light.

A – dye penetrant inspection

B – magnaglo inspection
C – eddy current
D – radiographic inspection

11. Which alloys contain approximately 80 percent nickel & 14 percent chromium?

A – monel
B – inconel
 C – stainless steel
D – beta alloys

12. 2024T4- what does T4 means?

A - Solution heat-treated and then stabilized to control its growth and distortion.
B - Solution heat-treated, artificially aged, and then strain-hardened.
C - Solution heat-treated, followed by natural aging at room temperature to a stable condition.
D - Solution heat-treated, followed by strain hardening.

13. Why is it extremely important that no more than about ten seconds elapse between removal of an
alloy from the furnace and the quench?

A – to prevent cracking
B – to maintain hardness
C – to prevent corrosion
D – to control the thermal expansion

14. An aircraft that is due an annual inspection may be flown

A – if a special permit has been issued for the aircraft.

B – for the purpose of performing maintenance.
C – for a period of time not to exceed 10 hours.
D – by the holder of an inspection authorization.

15. Which statement is correct regarding an aircraft that is found to be unairworthy after an annual
inspection, due to an item requiring a major repair (assuming approved data is used to accomplish
the repair)?

A – An appropriately rated mechanic may accomplish the repair, and an IA may approve the
aircraft for return to service.
B – An appropriately rated mechanic or repair station may repair the defect and approve the
aircraft for return to service.
C – Only the person who performed the annual inspection may approve the aircraft for return to
service, after the major repair.
D – It’s all under the 14 CFR Part 43 jurisdiction.

16. These are published to notify aircraft owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions and
to prescribe the conditions under which the product may continue to be operated.
A – TCDS (Type Certificate Data Sheet)
B – AMM (Aircraft Maintenance Manual)
C – SRM (Structural Repair Manual)
D – AD (Airworthiness Directives)

17. If an aircraft is due for a 100-hour inspection but it is in a place where there are no facility for
them, how much time that the said aircraft is allowed to fly in order to ferry it to their respective
facility?

A - 15 hours
B – 20 hours
C – 10 hours
 D – 25 hours

18. Which publication manual indicates the maximum torque recommendations for bolts and nuts?

A – TCDS
B – Aircraft Maintenance Manual
C – Repair Manual
D – AC43.13-1B

19. If a nut is being classify as a class 3 fit, what does it mean?

A – loose fit
B – medium fit
C – interference fit
D – close tolerance fit

20. What is the type of bolt being identified by a triangle on its head.

A – close tolearance bolt

B – fine threaded bolt
C – course threaded bolt
D – interference fit bolt

21. A fiber orientation that runs parallel to the 00 direction.

A – bias
B – selvage edge
C – weft
D – fill

22. This refer to the type of reinforcing fiber that has a disadvantage of reacting with aluminum alloys,
that may cause galvanic corrosion.

A – kevlar
B – fiberglass
C – aramid
D – carbon/grahpite

23. What is the maximum grain deviation for the wood to used it on aircraft structures?

A – 1:13
B – 14:1
C – 1:15
D – 16:1

24. A process that is used to relieved stresses on ferrous metals.

A – carbonizing
B – alodining
C – metal priming
D – normalizing
25. SAE 3020, what is the degree of carbon content?

A – medium carbon content

B – low-crabon content
C – high carbon content
D – adequate carbon content
 Philippine State College of Aeronautics
Piccio Garden, Villamor, Pasay City

MOCK EXAMINATION
AIRCRAFT CONSTRUCTION, REPAIR, AND MODIFICATION

1) Normalizing is a process of heat treating _____.

a. non-ferrous metals aside from aluminum
b. aluminum alloys only
c. ferrous metals only
d. both ferrous and non-ferrous metals

2) Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolt head are _____.
a. special bolts
b. magnetically inspected
c. standard steel bolts
d. clevis

3) A rivet designated as AN430DD4-5 has what type of head?

a. Brazier
b. Flat
c. Round
d. Universal

4) A bolt head having an ‘X’ inside a triangle is classified as a/an _____.

a. special bolt
b. NAS close tolerance bolt
c. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
d. reworked bolt

5) Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tightening aircraft nuts and bolts
relate to _____.
a. clean, dry threads.
b. clean, lightly-oiled threads
c. clean, oil-soaked threads
d. both dry and lightly oiled threads

6) Lines carrying oxygen and Freon are marked “_____.”

a. DRAIN
b. FLAM
c. PHDAN
d. VENT

7) When flaring aluminum tubing for use with AN fittings for aeronautical applications,
the flare angle should be _____.
a. 29°
b. 37°
c. 39°
d. 45°

8) The dimensions of an MS20430AD6-8 rivets are _____.

a. 3/8 inch in length and 1/4 inch in diameter
b. 3/16 inch in length and 1/2 inch in diameter
c. 3/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch in length
d. 3/16 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch in length

9) The main difference between Lockbolt tension and shear fasteners is in the _____.
a. number of locking collar grooves
b. method of installation
c. shape of the head
d. shape of the grip

10) When approaching the front of an idling turbojet engine, the hazard area extends
forward of the engine approximately _____.
a. 25 meters
b. 50 meters
c. 100 meters
d. 8 meters

11) A light aircraft is weighed in the flying position with the following weights
recorded: left wheel is 800 lbs, right wheel is 810 lbs, and nose wheel is 150 lbs.
The nosewheel is 12 inches behind the firewall (datum line). The distance between
the main wheels and the nose wheel is 68 inches. The CG of the aircraft is located
at _____.
a. 62.2 inches behind the nosewheel.
b. 74.2 inches behind the nosewheel.
 c. 5.8 inches behind the firewall.
d. 5.8 inches ahead of the firewall.

12) Which is not a deficiency of an overloaded airplane?

a. Excessive weight on the nosewheel
b. Reduced rate of climb, angle of climb, and maneuverability.
c. Higher landing, stalling, and cruising speeds.
d. Longer landing roll and take-off run.

13) Which rivet is used for riveting nickel-steel alloys?

a. 2017
b. 5056
c. 7050
d. Monel

14) A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair
technique. What NDT method is used to determine the reliability of the repair after
curing?
a. Eddy current
b. Magnetic particle
c. Metallic ring
d. Ultrasonic

15) What is the color of an AC fitting?

a. Black
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Yellow

16) Wheel chocks and jacks placed on the scales and ground locks left in place on
retractable landing gear are called _____.
a. penalty weight
b. supplementary weight
c. tare weight
d. weighing weight

17) This type of corrosion-resistant steel does not contain carbon and does not respond
to heat treatment.
a. Martensitic
b. Ferritic
c. Austenitic
d. Beta

18) Listed below are the possible sources for weight and balance data of a specific
aircraft. Which among the following does the aircraft manufacturer not supply?
a. Aircraft Weight and Balance Report
b. Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheets
c. Aircraft Operating Limitations
d. Aircraft Flight Manual

19) Which heat-treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is
changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?
a. Welding
b. Tempering
c. Normalizing
d. Case hardening

20) This property refers to the ability of a material to resist abrasion, penetration,
cutting action, or permanent distortion.
a. Hardness
b. Fusibility
c. Strength
d. Toughness

21) The replacement of a damaged vertical stabilizer with a new identical stabilizer
purchased from the aircraft manufacturer is considered a _____.
a. major alteration
b. minor alteration
c. major repair
d. minor repair

22) Improper rigging of the elevator trim tab system will affect the balance of the
airplane about its _____.
a. lateral axis
b. longitudinal axis
c. vertical axis
 d. horizontal axis

23) An aircraft had an empty weight of 2,886 lb with a moment of 101,673.78 in-lb before
several alterations were made. The alterations included: removing two passenger
seats (45 lb each) at +69”; installing a cabinet (97 lb) at +71”; installing a seat
and safety belt (30 lb) at +71”; installing radio equipment (45 lb) at +94.” The
alterations caused the new empty weight to move _____.
a. 36.6 inches aft of the original empty weight CG
b. 2.81 inches aft of the original empty weigh CG
c. 1.40 inches aft of the original empty weight CG
d. 1.88 inches aft of the original empty weight CG

24) The most important consideration when selecting welding rod is ______.
a. ambient conditions
b. amount of acetylene
c. flame temperature
d. material compatibility

25) What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets?

a. 1.5D
b. 2.0D
c. 3.0D
d. 4.0D

26) Oxygen and acetylene cylinders are made of _____.

a. aluminum
b. bronze
c. magnesium
d. steel

27) The universal propeller protractor can be used to measure _____.

a. amount of control surface travel
b. disk’s plane of rotation aligment
c. wing’s aspect ratio
d. propeller track

28) When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle of
_____.
a. 140º and turn at a low speed
b. 140º and turn at a high speed
c. 90º and turn at a low speed
d. 90º and turn at a high speed

29) A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damage less than _____.
a. 0.5 inches in radius
b. 1 inch in radius
c. 2 inches in radius
d. 4 inches in radius

30) Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be _____.

a. the sum of the thickness of the material which is fastened together and bolt’s
diameter
b. equal to thrice the thickness of the material to be fastened
c. one and one half times the thickness of the material to be fastened
d. equal to the length of the unthreaded portion of the bolt shank

31) This rivet is known as the “field rivet” because of its capability to be used as
received without further treatment.
a. 2017
b. 2117
c. 2024
d. 2124

32) A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted
together. All rivet holes are drilled for 0.125-inch rivets. The length of the
rivets to be used will be _____.
a. 0.15625 inches
b. 0.18750 inches
c. 0.31250 inches
d. 0.37500 inches

33) The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering and aluminum welding should be _____,
respectively.
a. neutral; carburizing
b. neutral; oxidizing
c. neutral; neutral
 d. oxidizing; oxidizing

34) Jet fuel number identifiers are _____.

a. performance number to designate the volatility of the fuel
b. performance numbers and are relative to the fuel’s anti-knock qualities
c. type numbers and are relative to the octane rating of the fuel
d. type numbers and are not relative to the fuel’s performance

35) The shop head of a rivet should be _____.

a. one and one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet
b. one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet
c. one and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank
d. one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank

36) Which resin to fiver (percent) ratio for advance composite wet lay-ups is generally
considered the best for strength?
a. 40:60
b. 60:40
c. 50:50
d. 70:30

37) Which of these non-destructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of
most metals, plastics, and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?
a. Eddy current inspection
b. Dye penetrant inspection
c. Magnetic particle inspection
d. Ultrasonic inspection

38) The length of a rivet to be used to join a sheet of 0.32 inch and 0.064-inch
aluminum alloy should be equal to _____.
a. three times the thickness of the thickest sheet
b. two times the rivet diameter plus 0.096 inch
c. one and one-half times the rivet diameter plus 0.096 inch
d. one and one-half times the rivet diameter plus 0.384 inch

39) Alclad is a metal consisting of _____.

a. aluminum alloy surface layers on a pure aluminum core
b. a homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy
c. pure aluminum surface layers and core
d. pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core

40) The maximum allowable rivet pitch is _____.

a. 2D
b. 3D
c. 4D
d. 12D

41) A thin, pointed tip on a soldering copper is undesirable because _____.

a. it cools slowly
b. it has a tendency to overheat and become brittle
c. it does not transfer heat into the metal being soldered
d. it transfers too much heat into the metal being soldered

42) The recommended weight (lb) of a bucking bar to be used for a 0.25-inch rivet is
_____.
a. 2-3
b. 3-4.5
c. 4-5
d. 5-6.5

43) What load causes most rivet failures?

a. Bearing
b. Bending
c. Compression
d. Shear

44) Alloy within the _____ utilize Manganese as the principal alloying agent; alloy
within the _____ utilize Magnesium as the principal alloying agent.
a. 3000 series; 5000 series
b. 3000 series; 4000 series
c. 5000 series; 3000 series
d. 5000 series; 4000 series

45) What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no hardening
or tempering treatment?
a. F
 b. H
c. O
d. W

46) The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptable. The stud
diameter is measured in _____.
a. tenths of an inch
b. sixteenths of an inch
c. hundredths of an inch
d. thousandths of an inch

47) Statement 1: The installation of permanent ballast results in an increase in the

aircraft empty weight and a decrease in the useful load. Statement 2: A permanent
ballast remains in the aircraft for a long period of time.
a. Both statements are correct.
b. Both statements are incorrect.
c. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect.
d. Statement 1 is incorrect; Statement 2 is correct.

48) Use of which of the following generally yields the highest degree of aircraft
leveling accuracy?
a. Electronic Load Cells
b. Plumb bob and Chalk Line
c. Protractor
d. Spirit Level

49) What is the location of the center of gravity in %MAC if the center of gravity is
295 inches from the datum, LEMAC is 270 inches from the datum, root chord is 65
inches, and tip chord is 30 inches?
a. %MAC is between 39 and 42
b. %MAC is between 42 and 45
c. %MAC is between 45 and 48
d. %MAC is between 48 and 51

50) Flexible lines must be installed with _____.

a. a slack of 5-8% of the length
b. a slack of 10-12% of the length
c. a slack of 5-8” of the length
d. a slack of 10-12” of the length
 MOCK EXAM

Name___________________________________ Rating:________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Main rotor blades that do not cone by the same amount during rotation are said to be out of 1)
A) collective pitch. B) track. C) balance.

2) In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a strem of inert gas is used to 2)

A) concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent its dissipation.
B) lower the temperature required to properly fuse the metal.
C) prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle.

3) Aclad is a metal consisting of 3)

A) a homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy.
B) pure aluminum surface layers on aluminum alloy core.
C) aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure aluminum core.

4) An airplane which has good longitudinal stability should have a minimum tendency to 4)
A) roll B) yaw C) pitch

5) Why is steel tempered after being hardened? 5)

A) To relieve its internal strresses and reduce its brittleness.
B) To increase its strength and decrease its intenal stresses.
C) To increase its hardness and ductility.

6) Which heat- treating process of metal produces a hard wear- resistant surface over a strong, tough core? 6)
A) Tempering B) Case hardening C) Annealing

7) Which staement is true regarding a cantilever wing? 7)

A) It requires only onelift strut on each side.
B) No external bracing is needed.
C) It has nonadjustable lift struts.

8) If too much acetylene is used in the welding of stainless steel, 8)

A) the metal will absorb carbon and lose its resistance to corrosion.
B) a porous weld will result.
C) oxide will be formed on the base metal close to the weld.

9) As an angle of attack of an airfoil increases, the center of pressure will 9)

A) remain stationary because both lift and drag components increase proportionally to increase angle of
attack.
B) move toward the leading edge
C) move toward the trailing edge.

10) The reheating of a heat trested metal, such as with a welding torch 10)
A) can significantly alter a metal's properties in reheated area.
B) has little or no effect on a metal's heat trested characteristics.
C) has a cumulative enhancement effect on the original heat treatment.

11) Normalizing is a process of heat treating 11)

A) iron- base metals only.
B) aluminum alloys only.
C) both aluminum alloys and iron- base metals.

12) What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine firewalls? 12)
A) Chrome- molybdenum alloy steel.
B) Stainless steel.
C) Titanium nickel alloy.

13) Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects? 13)
A) 6061- T9 stainless steel.
B) Clad aluminum alloy.
C) Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form.

1
14) The purpose of a joggle is to 14)
A) allow clearance for a sheet or an extrusion.
B) increase obstruction for a sheet or an extrusion.
C) decrease the weight of the part and still retain the necessary strength.

15) When installing transparent plastic enclosures which are retained by bolts extending through the plastic 15)
material and self - locking nuts, the nuts should be
A) tightened to a firm fit.
B) tightened to a firm fit, then back off one full turn.
C) tightened to a firm fit, plus one full turn.

16) Which is an acceptable safety device for a castle nut when installed on secondary structures? 16)
A) Cotter pin B) Lockwasher C) Star washer

17) The stregth classification of fabrics used in aircraft covering is based on 17)
A) bearing stregth. B) shear stregth. C) tensile stregth.

18) What aluminum alloy designations indicate tha the metal has received no hardening or tempering 18)
treatment?
A) 5052- H36. B) 6061- O. C) 3003- F.

19) Which heat- treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is changed chemically 19)
by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?
A) Normalizing B) Tempering C) Case hardening

20) A category of plastic material That is capable of softening or flowing " when reheated is described as a 20)
A) thermoset B) thermocure C) thermoplastic

21) The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the strength of 21)

A) skin and covering. B) longerons and formers C) bulkheads and longerons A
22) Rigging and alignment checks should not be undertaken in the open; however, if this cannot be avoided, the aircraft 22)
should be positioned

A) obliquely into the wind.

B) with the nose into the wind.
C) facing any direction since it makes no difference if the wind is steady (not gusting).

23) What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet? 23)

A) Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and
remove the rivet with a punch.
B) Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a shank size drill and remove the rivet with a punc
C) Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a drill one size smaller than the rivet and remove
the rivet with a punch.

24) Which of the following need not be considered when determining minimum rivet spacing? 24)
A) Rivet diameter
B) Type of materiel being riveted
C) Rivet length

25) The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of metal without critically weakening the part is called the 25)
A) bend allowance. B) maximum radius of bend. C) minimum radius of bend.

26) A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.040 - inch aluminum riveted together . all rivet 26)
holes are drilledfor 3/32- inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will be
A) 5/16 inch B) 1/8 inch C) 1/4 inch

27) How many fabric thickness will be found in a French fell seam? 27)
A) Four. B) Three. C) Five.

2
28) Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine supports, etc., which have been built up for sheet metal, are 28)
normally
A) not repairable, but must be replaced when damage or deteriorated.
B) repairable, except when subjected to compressive loads.
C) repairable, using approved methods

29) If a single rotor helicopter is in forward horizontal flight, the angle of attack of the advancing , blade is 29)
A) less than the retreating blade.
B) equal to the retreating blade.
C) more than the retreating blade.

30) What reference tool is used to determine how the fiber is to be oriented for a particular ply of fabric? 30)
A) Fill clock (or compass). B) Warp clock (or compass). C) Bias clock (or compass).

31) The part of the replacement honeycomb core that must line up with the adjacent original is the 31)
A) ribbon direction. B) cell side C) cell edge.

32) The strength of a weel designed and properly prepared wood splice joint is provided by the 32)
A) bearing surface of the wood fibers.
B) reinforcement plates.
C) glue.

33) Which of the following describe the effects of annealing steel and aluminum alloys? 33)

1. decrease in internal stress.

2. softening of the metal
3. improved corotion resistance.
A) 2 and 3 B) 1 and 3 C) 1 and 2

34) A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the working face has been 34)
A) fluxed. B) polished. C) tinned.

35) A decrease in pitch angle of the tail rotor blades on a helicopter 35)
A) causes the tail to pivot in the direction of torque rotation around the main rotor axis.
B) causes the tail to pivot in the opposite direction of torque rotation around the main rotor axis.
C) is required to counteract main rotor torque produce by takeoffRPM.

36) What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after it has been annealed? 36)
A) Slow cooling; low strength.
B) Slow cooling; increased resistance to wear.
C) Rapid cooling; high strength.

37) Which pf the following occurs when a mechanical force is repeatedly applied to most metals at room 37)
temperature, such as rolling, hammering, or bending?
1. The metals become artificially aged.
2. The metals become stress corrosion cracked.
3. The metals become cold worked, strain or worked hardened.
A) 1 and 3. B) 3. C) 2.

38) A well designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to 38) C
A) tension loads. B) compressive loads. C) shear loads.

39) Improper rigging of the elevator trim tab system will affect the balance of the airplane about its 39)
A) lateral axis. B) longitudinal axis. C) vertical axis.

40) Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite structures 40) C

A) may be constructed of any of the metals commonly used in aircraft fasteners.

B) must be constructed of high strength aluminum-lithium alloy.

C) must be constructed of material such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel.

3
41) In a hovering helicopter equipped with a tail rotor , directional control is maintained by 41)
A) varying the pitch of the tail rotor blades.
B) tilting the main rotor disk in the desired direction.
C) changing the tail rotor RPM.

42) What is the purpose of the free wheeling, unit in a helicopter drive system? 42)
A) It relieves bending, stress on the rotor blades during starting.
B) It releases the rotor brake for starting.
C) It disconnects the rotor whenever the engine stops or slows below the equivalent of the rotor RPM.

43) Longitudinul (fore and aft) structural members of a semi- monocoque fuselage are called 43)
A) spars and ribs. B) spars and stringers. C) longerons and stringers

44) Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advanced composite wet lay - ups is generally considered the best of 44)
strength?
A) 40:60 B) 50:50 C) 60:40

45) The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a cornice or box brake is measured and marked 45)
A) one- half radius from either bend tangent line.
B) one radius from either bend tangent line .
C) one radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the brake.

46) If the vertical finof a single engine, propeller driven airplane is rigged properly, it will generally be 46)
parallel to
A) the vertical axis but not the longitudinal axis.
B) the longitudinal axis but not the vertical axis.
C) both the longitudinal and vertical axes.

47) On a sheet metal fitting layout in a single bend, allow for streching by 47)
A) adding the setback to each leg.
B) subtracting the setback from both legs.
C) subtracting the setback from one leg.

48) Moisture, mildew, chemicals, and acids have no effect on 48)

A) dacron fabric. B) glass fabric. C) linen fabric.

49) Fabric rejuvenator 49)

A) penetrates the fabric and restores fungicidal resistance.
B) restores the condition of dope coatings.

C) restores fabric strength and tautness to at least theminimum acceptable level.

50) When patching a plywood skin, abrupt changes in cross sectional areas which will develop dangerous stress 50)
concentration should be avoided by using
A) doublers with any desired shaped patches.

B) circular or elliptical patches.

C) square patches.

4
Answer Key
Testname: AIRFRAME

1) B
2) C
3) B
4) C
5) A
6) B
7) B
8) A
9) B
10) A
11) A
12) B
13) B
14) A
15) B
16) A
17) C
18) C
19) C
20) C
21) A
22) B
23) A
24) C
25) C
26) C
27) A
28) C
29) A
30) B
31) A
32) C
33) C
34) C
35) A
36) A
37) A
38) C
39) A
40) C
41) A
42) C
43) C
44) C
45) C
46) A
47) B
48) B
49) B
50) B

5
 Philippine State College of Aeronautics
Piccio Garden, Villamor, Pasay City

MOCK EXAMINATION
AIRCRAFT CONSTRUCTION, REPAIR, AND MODIFICATION (15%)

1) Normalizing is a process of heat treating _____.

a. non-ferrous metals aside from aluminum
b. aluminum alloys only
c. ferrous metals only
d. both ferrous and non-ferrous metals

2) What does an ‘X’ on a cable indicates?

a. AC power
b. Auxiliary power
c. Control system
d. Close-tolerance structure

3) At what temperature should steel be tempered?

a. Above annealing temperature
b. At annealing temperature
c. Below annealing temperature
d. 1.5 times the annealing temperature

4) If a material is found to be in the tertiary phase of creep, it _____.

a. should be stop drilled and be condition-monitored
b. should undergo dye-penetrant inspection for evaluation
c. should be replaced immediately
d. is still safe to be used

5) Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tightening aircraft nuts and bolts
relate to _____.
a. clean, dry threads.
b. clean, lightly-oiled threads
c. clean, oil-soaked threads
d. both dry and lightly oiled threads

6) Why is Nickel Chromium used in many exhaust systems?

a. Lightweight and flexible
b. Corrosion-resistant and low heat conductivity
c. Corrosion-resistant and high heat conductivity
d. Corrosion-resistant and low expansion coefficient

7) How are pressure hoses categorized?

a. According to the outer diameter
b. According to the inner diameter
c. According to the max allowable load
d. According to the max applied pressure

8) The dimensions of an MS20430AD8-6 rivets are _____.

a. 3/8 inch in length and 1/4 inch in diameter
b. 1/2 inch in length and 3/16 inch in diameter
c. 1/4 inch in diameter and 3/8 inch in length
d. 3/16 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch in length

9) A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated

is described as a _____.
a. thermocure
b. thermoplastic
c. thermoset
d. thermoflow

10) The side clearances of piston rings are measure with a _____.
a. dial gauge
b. micrometer caliper gauge
c. protractor
d. thickness gauge

11) A light aircraft is weighed in the flying position with the following weights
recorded: left wheel is 800 lbs, right wheel is 810 lbs, and nose wheel is 150 lbs.
The nosewheel is 12 inches behind the firewall (datum line). The distance between
the main wheels and the nose wheel is 68 inches. The CG of the aircraft is located
at _____.
a. 62.2 inches behind the firewall.
b. 73.2 inches behind the firewall.
c. 75.2 inches behind the firewall.
 d. 5.8 inches ahead of the main wheels.

12) In what direction/s are composite fabric materials considered to be strongest?

a. All
b. Bias
c. Weft
d. Warp

13) Why is steel tempered after being hardened?

a. To increase its hardness and ductility.
b. To increase its strength and decrease its internal stresses.
c. To relieve its internal stresses and increase its brittleness.
d. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness.

14) What is the color code for fire-extinguisher lines?

a. Black
b. Brown
c. Red
d. Yellow

15) What is the color of an AN fitting?

a. Black
b. Brown
c. Red
d. Yellow

16) In Gas Tungsten Arc welding, a stream of inert gas is used to _____.
a. attract oxygen to the puddle of molten metal
b. concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent its dissipation
c. lower the temperature required to properly fuse the metal
d. prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle

17) A squib, as used in a fire-protection system, is a _____.

a. device for causing the fire-extinguishing agent to be released
b. probe used for installing frangible disks in extinguisher bottles
c. temperature-sensing device
d. wizard-born muggle

18) How should a welding torch flame be adjusted to weld stainless steel?
a. Slightly carburizing
b. Slightly oxidizing
c. Neutral
d. Welding stainless steel is not acceptable for aircrafts.

19) Which heat-treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is
changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?
a. Welding
b. Tempering
c. Normalizing
d. Case hardening

20) Impact resistance measures the material’s _____.

a. toughness
b. hardness
c. fusibility
d. ductility

21) The replacement of a damaged vertical stabilizer with a new identical stabilizer
purchased from the aircraft manufacturer is considered a _____.
a. major alteration
b. minor alteration
c. major repair
d. minor repair

22) What is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and
then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?
a. A glossy, blush-free finish
b. A dull finish due to the topcoat ‘sinking in’ to primer that is still too soft
c. Corrosion
d. Reflection of ultraviolet from the fabric

23) An aircraft had an empty weight of 2,886 lb with a moment of 101,673.78 in-lb before
several alterations were made. The alterations included: removing two passenger
seats (45 lb) at +69”; installing a cabinet (97 lb) at +71”; installing a seat and
safety belt (30 lb) at +71”; installing radio equipment (45 lb) at +94.” The
alterations caused the new empty weight to move _____.
 a. 36.6 inches aft of the original empty weight CG
b. 2.81 inches aft of the original empty weigh CG
c. 1.40 inches aft of the original empty weight CG
d. 1.88 inches aft of the original empty weight CG

24) The most important consideration when selecting welding rod is ______.
a. ambient conditions
b. amount of acetylene
c. flame temperature
d. material compatibility

25) What is the usual cause of runs and sags in aircraft finishes?
a. Low atmospheric humidity
b. Material is being applied too fast
c. Material is being applied too slow
d. Too much material applied in one coat

26) The strength classification of fabrics used in aircraft covering is based on _____.
a. bearing strength
b. compressive strength
c. shear strength
d. tensile strength

27) A female fastener with internal threads.

a. Bolt
b. Joggle
c. Nut
d. Washer

28) What kind of bolt has a head symbol of a single line?

a. Clevis
b. Corrosion-resistant
c. Low-strength material
d. Special

29) Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing?

a. It has non-adjustable lift struts.
b. It requires only one lift strut on each side.
c. External bracing is needed.
d. No external bracing is needed.

30) Bolt grip lengths should be _____.

a. the sum of the thickness of the material which is fastened together and bolt’s
diameter
b. equal to thrice the thickness of the material to be fastened
c. one and one half times the thickness of the material to be fastened
d. equal to the length of the unthreaded portion of the bolt shank

31) This rivet is known as an “icebox rivet” because it must be kept in cool places to
retard ageing.
a. 2017
b. 2024
c. 5056
d. 7050

32) An aircraft grade rivet with the code MS20430DD4-8 rivet is to be used in a military
aircraft. The rivet head is _____.
a. countersunk
b. flat
c. round
d. universal

33) When approaching the rear of an idling turbojet or turbofan, the hazard area extends
_____ aft of the engine.
a. 25 feet
b. 50 feet
c. 75 feet
d. 100 feet

34) Nickel-cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces that have been affected by
electrolyte should be neutralized with _____.
a. aliphatic naptha
b. aromatic naptha
c. boric acid
d. linseed oil
35) The shop head of a rivet should be _____.
a. one and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank
b. one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank
c. one and one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet
d. one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet

36) Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advance composite wet lay-ups is generally
considered the best for strength?
a. 40:60
b. 60:40
c. 50:50
d. 70:30

37) It is a non-electrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum alloys that increases its
corrosion resistance and paint-bonding qualities.
a. Alodizing
b. Anodizing
c. Dichromating
d. Galvanizing

38) The useful load of an aircraft is defined as the _____.

a. difference between the maximum gross weight and empty weight
b. sum of the maximum gross weight and empty weight
c. difference between the ramp weight and weight of fuel used for ground
maneuvers
d. difference between the maximum take-off weight and the weight of fuel used
airborne

39) The minimum grain count for softwoods is _____.

a. six rings per inch
b. eight rings per inch
c. twelve rings per inch
d. sixteen rings per inch

40) The smallest allowable edge distance is _____.

a. 2D
b. 3D
c. 4D
d. 12D

41) The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilizes a
ferromagnetic material that has _____.
a. high permeability and high retentivity
b. high permeability and low retentivity
c. low permeability and high retentivity
d. low permeability and low retentivity

42) Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a _____ for the threads.
a. free fit
b. interference fit
c. loose fit
d. medium fit

43) What load causes most rivet failures?

a. Bearing
b. Bending
c. Compression
d. Shear

44) Alloy within the _____ utilize Magnesium as the principal alloying agent; alloy
within the _____ utilize Manganese as the principal alloying agent.
a. 3000 series; 5000 series
b. 3000 series; 4000 series
c. 5000 series; 3000 series
d. 5000 series; 4000 series

45) A particular component is attached to the aircraft structure by the use of an

aircraft bolt and a castle tension nut combination. If the cotter pin hole does not
align with the recommended torque range, the acceptable practice is to _____.
a. tighten below the torque range
b. let it be because it is a normal practice
c. change the washers and try again
d. exceed the maximum recommended torque range by no more than 10%

46) Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk on the bolt head are _____.
a. close-tolerance bolts
 b. made of aluminum alloy
c. magnetically inspected
d. standard steel bolts

47) Statement 1: The installation of permanent ballast results in a decrease in the

aircraft empty weight and an increase in the useful load. Statement 2: A permanent
ballast remains in the aircraft for a long period of time.
a. Both statements are correct.
b. Both statements are incorrect.
c. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect.
d. Statement 1 is incorrect; Statement 2 is correct.

48) In selecting a torch tip size to be used in welding, the size of the tip opening
determines _____.
a. material compatibility
b. temperature of the flame
c. melting point of the filler material
d. amount of heat applied to work

49) What is the location of the center of gravity in %MAC if the center of gravity is
295 inches from the datum, LEMAC is 270 inches from the datum, root chord is 70
inches, and tip chord is 35 inches?
a. %MAC is between 39 and 42
b. %MAC is between 42 and 45
c. %MAC is between 45 and 48
d. %MAC is between 48 and 51

50) One of the purposes of the ailerons is to provide stability about the _____.
a. directional stability
b. longitudinal stability
c. lateral stability
d. horizontal stability
 Aeronautical Engineering Mock Examination
Aircraft Construction, Repair and Modifications

In
 Aeronautical Engineering Mock Examination
Aircraft Construction, Repair and Modifications

1. Which of the following is generally used in the c) Low cost

construction of engine firewall? d) Simplicity
a) Aluminum alloy sheet 10. Magnetic particle inspection is somewhat
b) Stainless steel unreliable for distinguishing or detecting
c) Chrome-molybdenum a) Laps and fatigue cracks
d) Magnesium-titanium alloy steel b) Cold sheets
2. Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are: c) Hairline discontinuities
a) Used to locate parts, sections and d) Discontinuities which are below
views on large drawings surface
b) Used to indicate different sections of 11. Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily
the aircraft to detect:
c) Used to locate parts in the aircraft a) Distortion
d) Not used on working drawings. b) Irregular surfaces
3. The purpose of cross-hatching in a drawing is c) Porosity of ferromagnetic metals
to show: 12. What is the means by which FAA notifies
a) The thickness of the materials used aircraft owners and other intersected persons
b) Type of construction employed of unsafe conditions and prescribes the
c) Method of finishing conditions under which the product may
d) Cross-section of an object continue to be operated?
4. Schematic diagrams are used for a) Airworthiness Directives
a) Locating components b) Supplemental Type Certificate
b) Trouble-shooting c) Malfunction or Defect Reports
c) Identifying items in the aircraft d) Technical Standard Orders
d) Manufacturing aircraft parts 13. When should special inspection procedures be
5. A well designed rivet joint will subject the followed to determine if any damage to the
rivets to: aircraft structure has occurred?
a) Compressive loads a) Progressive Inspection
b) Shear loads b) 100-hour inspection
c) Tension loads c) Overweight landing
d) Bending loads d) Annual Inspection
6. The general rule for finding the proper rivet 14. Which of the ff. provides a place for indicating
diameter is: compliance with FAA airworthiness directives
a) 3 times the thinnest sheet or manufacturer’s service bulletins?
b) 3 times the diameter of the rivet shank a) Structural Repair Manual
c) 2 times the rivet length b) Aircraft Overhaul Manual
d) 3 times the thickness of the thickest c) Aircraft Maintenance Records
sheet d) Illustrated Parts Catalog
7. What is the minimum spacing for a single row 15. Alodizing is a chemical treatment for aluminum
of aircraft rivets? alloys to improve their paint-bonding qualities
a) 3 times the thinnest sheet and to:
b) 3 times the diameter of the rivet shank a) Decrease their corrosion resistance
c) 2 times the rivet length b) Make their surface slightly alkaline
d) 3 times the thickness of the thickest c) Relieve their surface stresses
sheet d) Increase their corrosion resistance
8. What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft 16. What is the best means of removing rust from
rivets? steel?
a) 2 times the thinnest sheet a) Mechanical
b) 2 times the diameter of the rivet shank b) Electrical
c) 2 times the rivet length c) Chemical
d) 3 times the thickness of the thickest d) Biochemical
sheet 17. Why is a plastic surface flushed with fresh
9. What is the principal advantage of the water before it is cleaned with soap and
radiographic inspection method of NDT? watering
a) Little or no disassembly of structure a) To prevent crazing
b) Minimum safety precautions b) To prevent scratching
 Aeronautical Engineering Mock Examination
Aircraft Construction, Repair and Modifications

c) To remove oil and grease 27. Alteration of any part of a control system of an
d) To prevent softening of the plastic aircraft will require approval by the
18. Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the a) Material Engr.
result of b) Aero Engr.
a) Excessive anodization c) Aviation Authority Concern
b) Contact between two unlike metals d) Manufacturer
c) The wrong quenching agent 28. In fabric repair, patches in any one section
d) Excessive etching should not be closer :
19. Alloy 2024 rivets should be driven within 10 a) 8”
minutes after they have been quenched, b) 6”
otherwise, before being used, they must be: c) 2”
a) Aged d) 1.5”
b) Normalized 29. The thread running in a straight line through
c) Reheat treated the length of the fabric is called:
d) Refrigerated a) Splay
20. What type of steel is best suited for case b) Selvage
hardening? c) Warp
a) Low-carbon, low alloy d) Fray
b) High carbon, high alloy 30. Screw fine threads series is intended for
c) Low-carbon, high alloy general use in:
21. Alclad is a metal consisting of? a) Casting
a) Aluminum alloy surface layers and a b) Plastic material
pure aluminum core c) Stainless steel
b) Pure aluminum surface layers on an d) Fastening
aluminum core 31. What is the purpose of a relief hole?
c) A homogeneous mixture of pure a) Check Expansion
aluminum and aluminum alloy b) Lighten Material
c) Relieve stress and prevent cracking
22. When flaring aluminum tubing for use with AN 32. In the wrought form commercially pure
coupling nuts and sleeves, the flare angle aluminum is known as
should be a) 1130
a) 30 degrees b) 3003
b) 37 degrees c) 2014
c) 7 degrees d) 1100
d) 45 degrees 33. Reducing flames is same as
23. When dealing with weight and balance of an a) Oxidizing flame
aircraft, the term maximum weight is b) Neutral flame
interpreted to mean the maximum c) Acetylene flame
a) Weight of the empty aircraft 34. When can an aircraft be operated within 100
b) Weight of the useful load hour inspection overdue
c) Authorized weight of the aircraft and a) If the aircraft is equipped with hour
its contents meter
24. Zero fuel weight is the…. b) When operated under progressive
25. Pin knot clusters are permitted in wood aircraft inspection
structured provided: c) If necessary to reach a place at which
a) Local irregularities do not exceed limits the inspection can be done
b) Produce small effect in grain directions 35. Noprene grommet is used as
c) They have no mineral streaks a) Cover
26. One of the best ways to assure that a properly b) Tubing protection
prepared batch of matrix resin has been c) Prevent oil leaks
achieved is d) Strengthens hole
a) Perform composition analysis 36. In Alclad, what is the thickness of coating on
b) Have mixed enough for test sample each side?
c) Immediate testing of resin in term of a) 5.5% of the thickness
its viscosity b) 7.5% of the thickness
 Aeronautical Engineering Mock Examination
Aircraft Construction, Repair and Modifications

c) 0.015 inch thick

d) Same as the core 46. Fabricated alloys are designated by;
37. Ice box rivets achieve its full strength after a) H
a) 1 day b) F
b) 3 days c) I
c) 1 hr. d) O
d) 3 hrs. 47. T5, temper designation refers to
38. Dihedral angle of the wing may be measured a) Artificially aged
by straightedge and level protractor on the b) Heat Treated
a) Datum line c) Annealed
b) Front spar 48. Stiffeners are necessary for “thin web beams”
c) Wing tip a) To prevent webs from bending
39. In ATA System, MLG Door belongs to b) To break up diagonal shear
a) ATA 32 c) Increase shear strength in the web
b) ATA 52 49. Which of the ff. is the identification numerals
c) ATA 53 designate Molybdenum
d) ATA 33 a) 1xxx
b) 2xxx
40. Property of metal which allows to be drawn, c) 4xxx
bent or twisted into various shapes without d) 3xxx
breaking 50. 1100 A rivets are marked as:
a) Brittleness a) Plain
b) Ductility b) Dimpled
c) Malleability c) Raised Dots
d) Elasticity
41. Major alloying element of 5056 aluminum alloy
a) Copper
b) Magnesium
c) Zinc
d) Titanium
42. What is smallest size cable that may be used in
aircraft primary control systems?
a) 1/8“
b) ¼”
c) 1/16”
d) 1/5”
43. Relies upon a duplication of certain structural
members to ensure that if one member failed,
the other would assume the load of the failed
member
a) Safe fail
b) Fail safe
c) Safe life
d) Life safe
44. Capability of an object or material to be
stretched and to recovers its size and shape
after its deformation
a) Plasticity
b) Elasticity
c) Toughness
45. Toughness is the property of metal which
allows it, w/o breaking to be
a) Twisted
b) Compressed
c) Deformed
 AIRFRAME CONSTRUCTION,REPAIR AND MODIFICATION (15%)
1. The primary reason for careful C. bronze
inspection and prompt repairing of D. inconel
minor surface defects such as
scratches, nicks, gouges, etc. on 9. It is a heavy hardwood with very
aluminum alloy propellers is to good shock resistant
prevent characteristics. It is recommended
for the face plies of plywood used
A. corrosion as reinforcement plates on wing
B. unbalanced aerodynamics spars and in the construction of
C. fatigue failure wooden propellers
D. beautiful appearance
A. sitka spruce
2. The ability of a metal to resist B. mahogany
deformation is called C. balsa wood
D. birch
A. yield strength
B. tensile strength 10. What does the letter B stands
C. resist strength for? AN 442 B 8- 12
D. shield strength
A. dimpled
3. A material's ability to be bent, B. raised cross
formed, or shaped without cracking C. raised dot
or breaking is called D. raised ring

A. elasticity 11. What kind of rivet head 442 is

B. flexibility
C. ductility A. flat head
D. malleability B. universal head
C. brazier head
4. These objects are formed by D. round head
physically working the metal into
shape 12. It is the strongest special
fasteners used in aircraft
A. cast objects construction
B. wrought objects
C. hard objects A. CHERRYBUCKS
D. real objects B. JO-BOLTS
C. HI-TIGUE
5. When an alloy is allowed to cool D. TAPER-LOK
at room temperature, it is referred
to as 13. Which of the following is an
advantage of composite material?
A. artificial aging i. high strength to weight ratio
B. natural aging ii. reducing wear
C. thermal aging iii. reducing of parts and fastener
D. naturalizing iv. corrosion resistance

A. i & iv
6. It is a process that softens a B. i,ii, & iv
metal and decreases internal stress C. i,iii, iv
D. all is an advantage.
A. quenching
B. naturalizing 14. It has high structural strength
C. annealing which retains to high temperature.
D. melting It is used in turbine engine and
for aircraft skin in areas where
7. In temper designation H3 is the temperature is high.

A. strain hardened and stabilized A. titanium

B. strain hardened and partially B. copper
annealed C. aluminum
C. annealed and recrystallized D. chromium
D. strain hardened and artificial
aged 15. These kind of steel are alloyed
with chromium only and therefore
8. It is a copper alloy containing are magnetic
of up to 25 percent tin
A. ferritic steel
A. monel B. austentic steel
B. brass C. chortentic steel
D. martensitic steel
 23. Which of the ff. provides a
16. Which of the following is the place for indicating compliance
correct order for rivet with FAA airworthiness directives
identification? or manufacturer’s service
bulletins?
A. material used-numbering system- A. Structural Repair Manual
style of rivet head-diameter-length B. Aircraft Overhaul Manual
B. style of rivet head-numbering C. Aircraft Maintenance Records
system-material used-diameter- D. Illustrated Parts Catalog
length
C. numbering system-style of rivet 24. The formula for bend allowance
head-material used-diameter-length is?
D. material used-style of rivet
head-numbering system-diameter- 4𝜋(𝑅+.5𝑇)
A.
length 2
2𝜋(𝑅+.5𝑇)
B.
4
17. The formula for finding the C.
4𝜋(𝑇+.5𝑅)
rivet length is? 2
2𝜋(𝑇+.5𝑅)
D.
4
A. L=1.5D + T
B. L=1.5T + D 25. A piece of sheet metal is
C. L=1.5D(T) bent to a certain radius. The
D. L=1.5T(D) curvature of the bend is
referred to as the
18. The rivet is backed up by a A. bend radius
metal bar that reciprocates in B. bend allowance
response to the beats of the rivet C. neutral line
gun. This metal bar is known as? D. set back

A. buckling bar 26. Longitudinal (fore and aft)

B. backing bar structural members of a semi
C. buking bar monocoque fuselage are called
D. bucking bar A. spars and ribs
B. longerons and stringers
19. Shallow scratches in sheet C. spars and stringers
metal may be repaired by D. ribs and stringers

A. buffing 27. Which part(s) of a semi

B. burnishing monocoque fuselage prevent(s)tension
C. stop drilling and compression from bending the
fuselage?
D. polishing
A. spars and ribs
20. When repairing a small hole on B. longerons and stringers
a metal stressed skin, the major C. spars and stringers
consideration in the design of the D. ribs and stingers
patch should be
28. The monocoque fuselage relies
A. that the bond between the patch
largely on the strength of
and the skin is sufficient to A. bulkheads and longerons
prevent dissimilar metal corrosion. B. longerons and formers
B. the shear strength of the C. skin or covering
riveted joint D. ribs and stringers
C. to use rivet spacing similar to
a seam in the skin 29. When inspecting a composite
panel using the ring test/tapping
D. none of the above method, a dull thud may indicate
21. A factor which determines the A. separation of the laminates
minimum space between rivets is the B. an area of too much matrix between fiber
layers
A. diameter of the rivets being C. less than full strength curing of the
used matrix
B. length of the rivets being used D. a moisture is forming inside the material
C. thickness of the material being
riveted 30. Which fiber to resin (percent)
D. type of rivet being used ratio for advanced composite wet
lay-ups is generally considered the
best for strength?
22. What is indicated by a black
"smoky" residue streaming back from A. 60:40
some of the rivets on an aircraft? B. 40:60
A. Galvanic corrosion between to C. 30:70
metals D. 70:30
B. Exfoliation corrosion is
occurring inside the structure 31. The length of time that a
C. The rivets were excessively work catalyzed resin will remain in a
hardened during installation workable state is called the
D. Fretting corrosion is occurring
between the rivets and the skin A. pot life
B. service life
C. shelf life
D. safe life B. Aliphatic naphtha
C. Aromatic naphtha
32. aramid fiber also known as ? D. Aplitic naphtha

A. carbon fiber 41. The strength classification of

B. glass fiber fabrics used in aircraft covering
C. asphalt fiber is based on
D. Kevlar A. bearing strength
B. tensile strength
C. shear strength
33. In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) D. piercing strength
welding, a stream of inert gas is
used to 42. A damaged area where the result
A. concentrate the heat of the arc is a cross-sectional change caused
and prevent its dissipation by a sharp object and gives a
B. prevent the formation of oxides continuous, sharp or smooth groove
in the puddle in the material
C. lower the temperature required
to properly fuse the metal
D. control the temperature of the A. Gouge
torch B. Abrasion
C. Nicks
34. The oxyacetylene flame for D. Holes
silver soldering should be
43. Broken edges without cracks,
A. carburizing but with portions of material
B. oxidizing removed. Negligible damage limits
C. neutral will vary with structure, material,
D. naturalizing and loading.
35. A welding torch backfire may be A. Gouge
caused by B. Abrasion
C. Nicks
A. using too much acetylene D. Holes
B. a loose tip
C. a tip temperature that is too
cool 44. A damaged area that is the
D. a tip temperature that is too result of scuffing, rubbing,
hot scraping, or other surface erosion.
This type of damage is usually
36. Which properly applied rough and has an irregular shape.
finish topcoat is the most
durable and chemical resistant?
A. Gouge
A. Synthetic enamel B. Abrasion
B. Polyurethane C. Nicks
C. Acrylic lacquer D. Holes
D. Aliphatic coating
45. Punctures, penetrations or
37. It is the only form of nonde-
cutouts that breach the complete
structive testing that can be used
thickness of the material and is
on plastics, ceramics, and most
fully surrounded by undamaged
metals
material.
A. thermography inspection
A. Gouge
B. eddy current inspection
B. Abrasion
C. x-ray inspection
C. Nicks
D. ultra sonic inspection
D. Holes
38. The most fundamental method of 46. Where would you find the
inspecting aircraft structures and recommended statement for
components is through recording the approval or
disapproval for return to
A. visual inspection service of an aircraft after a
B. magnetic particle inspection 100-hour or annual inspection?
A. 14 CFR Part 65
C. ultra sonic inspection B. 14CFR Part 43
D. dye penetrant inspection C. 14CFR Part91
D. 14CFR Part17
39. also known as dry corrosion
47. The types of fire
A. fretting extinguishing agents for
B. oxidation aircraft interior
C. crevice fires are.
D. filiform A. water,carbon dioxide, dry
chemical,and halogenated
40. is a hydrocarbon solvent that hydrocarbons
dissolves oil and grease but does B. water dry chemical, methyl
not harm rubber or acrylic bromide, and chlorobro-
momethane
components. C. water, carbon tetrachloride,
carbon dioxide, and dry
A. Amphipathic naphtha chemical
D. water, carbon tetrachloride,
carbon dioxide, and chlorobro-
momethane

48. Which of the following

precautions is most important dur-
ing refueling operations?
A. Fuel to be used must be
appropriately identified
B. All electrical switches must be
in OFF position
C. All outside electrical sources
must be disconnected from the
aircraft
D. All electrical switches must be
in OFF position

49. What type of steel is best

suited for case hardening?
A. Low-carbon, low alloy
B. High carbon, high alloy
C. Low-carbon, high alloy
D. High carbon, low alloy

50. In ATA System, MLG Door belongs

to

A. ATA 32
B. ATA 52
C. ATA 53
D. ATA 33
 Airframe Construction and Repair (15%)
August 5, 2015

1. Which of the following is the drill one size smaller

most satisfactory extinguishing than the rivet and remove
agent for use in case of the rivet with a punch
carburetor or intake fire? d. Drill to the base of the
a. Dry chemical manufactured head with a
b. A fine, water mist drill one size bigger than
c. Carbon dioxide the rivet shank and remove
d. None. Carburetor/Intake the rivet with a punch
fire never happens.
7. When necessary, what type of
2. The manufactured head of a rivet cutting fluid is usually
should be acceptable for machining
a. one and one-half times the composite structures?
diameter of the rivet a. Water-based soluble oil
shank b. Water only
b. three times the thickness c. Vegetable-based oil
of the thickest sheet d. Skydrol
c. equal to the grip length
of the rivet 8. If a new safety belt is to be
d. one-half of the rivet installed in an aircraft, the
length belt must conform to the
strength requirements in what
3. How many MS20470-AD-4-6 rivets document?
will be required to attach a 10” a. TSO C22
x 5” plate, using a single row b. STC 1282
of rivets, maximum edge c. 14 CFR Part 43
distance, and 4D spacing? d. AC 43.13 1B
a. 56
b. 54 9. Why should a carburizing flame
c. 48 be avoided when welding steel?
d. 52 a. Poor penetration
b. A low strength weld will
4. The length of the rivet to be be formed
used to join a sheet of 0.032- c. It hardens the surface
inch and 0.064-inch aluminium d. Flux compatibility with
alloy should be equal to steel is corrosive
a. two times the rivet
diameter plus 0.064 inch 10. This is known as the ability
b. one and one-half times the of a material to resist
rivet diameter plus 0.096 abrasion, penetration,
inch indentation, or cutting action.
c. three times the rivet a. Hardness
diameter plus 0.096 inch b. Strength
d. 0.096 inches c. Toughness
d. Fusibility
5. Where would you find the
recommended statement for 11. This process involves adding
recording the approval and of carbon to the surface of
disapproval for return to iron-base alloys by heating the
service after a 100-hour or metal below its melting point in
annual inspection? contact with carbonaceous
a. 14 CFR Part 21 solids, liquids, or gas.
b. 14 CFR Part 91 a. Normalizing
c. 14 CFR Part 145 b. Tempering
d. 14 CFR Part 43 c. Hardening
d. Carburizing
6. What is generally the best
procedure to use when removing a 12. A limited type of corrosion
solid shank rivet? that develops when relative
a. Drill through the motion of small amplitude takes
manufactured head and place between close fitting
shank with a shank size components.
drill and remove the rivet a. Stress
with a punch b. Fatigue
b. Drill through the c. Fretting
manufactured head and d. General Etching
shank with a drill one
size smaller than the
rivet and remove the rivet
with a punch
c. Drill to the base of the
manufactured head with a
13. This hardness test is 22. Why is normalizing a part
conducted by pressing, under after welding considered a good
controlled pressure, a hardened practice?
steel ball, one centimetre in a. To remove the corrosion
diameter, into a flat surface of resistance of the weld
the test specimen. b. To increase the corrosion
a. Izod resistance of weld
b. Brinnell c. To relieve internal
c. Vickers stresses developed with
d. Rockwell the base metal
d. To increase the hardness
14. Stainless steel 18-8 is of the weld
material well-known for its
corrosion-resisting property. 23. The most important
What does 18-8 mean? consideration when selecting
a. 18% Steel 8% Chromium welding rod is
b. 18% Molybdenum 8% Chromium a. material compatibility
c. 18% Chromium 8% Nickel b. amount of acetylene
d. 18% Monel 8% Steel c. ambient conditions
d. size of tip opening
15. The tab that provides an
aerodynamic force that moves the 24. What defects will be detected
surface on which it is mounted. by magnetizing a part in a
a. Trim tab circular pattern?
b. Servo tab a. Defects perpendicular to
c. Balance tab the long axis of the part
d. Spring tab b. Defects perpendicular to
the concentric circles of
16. What would be the first magnetic force within the
number designation for Aluminum- part
Lithium alloys? c. Defects parallel to the
a. 1 concentric circles of
b. 4 magnetic force within the
c. 7 part
d. 8 d. Defects parallel to the
long axis of the part
17. A biplane having the top wing
ahead of the other wing is said 25. The usable life of the glue
to have a from the time it is mixed until
a. positive stagger the time it must be used.
b. negative stagger a. Shelf life
c. positive decalage b. Pot life
d. negative decalage c. Open assembly time
d. Closed assembly time
18. The purpose of washing-out a
wing of an aircraft is to 26. The rivet that can be used
a. increase lateral stability without further treatment is
b. decrease buffeting designates as
c. provide stall warning a. B
d. decrease or avoid foreign b. DD
object damages c. AD
d. F
19. On helicopters, what control
operates the tail rotor? 27. Under certain conditions,
a. Cyclic type A rivets are not used
b. Anti-torque pedals because of their low strength
c. Collective pitch characteristics. Which among the
d. Torque pedals rivets listed below is type A?
a. 7050
20. What type of joint is b. 1100
applicable for tubular c. 5056
construction and structural d. 4130
components?
a. Lap 28. Most rivets used in aircraft
b. Butt construction have dimples. What
c. Tee is this specified trivet?
d. Corner a. 2024
b. 2017
21. Liquid penetrant inspection c. 2117
methods may only be used on d. 5056
which of the following?
a. Ferrous metals 29. What are the necessary
b. Non-ferrous metals parameters for finding the bend
c. Non-porous plastics allowance using the empirical
d. All of the above formula?
 a. Radius and degree of bend, 36. The process of joining sheet
thickness of material metals by upsetting the end of a
b. Thickness of material and headed cylindrical fastener thru
radius of bend, and table hammering or squeezing.
of K-factor a. Riveting
c. Radius of bend and b. Forging
thickness of material c. Machining
d. Rivet diameter and length, d. Welding
material thickness
37. The process of joining metals
30. In this hardness test, a by application of a high-
small pyramidal diamond is temperature flame or electric
pressed into the metal. The arc in combination with a filler
hardness number is the ratio of rod which is usually of the same
the load to the surface area of composition as the base metal.
indentation. a. Forging
a. Shore Schleroscope b. Riveting
b. Brinnell c. Welding
c. Vickers d. Machining
d. Rockwell
38. The process which is general
31. A material that is also used conditioned to sheet metal stock
in aircraft construction and is and employs such standard
made by gluing a number of plies practice machines as drop
of this wood or veneer together hammers, hydraulic presses,
is called power brakes, and punch presses.
a. plying Chips are produced during this
b. lamination process.
c. wrought a. Forging
d. cast b. Chaffing
c. chipping
32. In performing weight and d. Cold working
balance check of an aircraft, an 39. The drilled head steel bolts
imaginary vertical plane from is used as a means for
which all horizontal a. decorative purposes
measurements are taken for b. lightening the bold
balance purposes with the c. installing a cotter pin
aircraft in level flight d. for safetying
attitude is known as
a. firewall 40. Standard aircraft bolts are
b. leading edge of wing marked for identification. The
c. spinner of the aircraft steel bolt is marked on the head
d. datum line with
a. a teat
33. Two types of gas welding in b. an asterisk
common use are the oxyacetylene c. a letter ‘S’
and _________. d. an embossed cross
a. Oxyxylenol
b. Oxyargonic 41. The weight of the structure,
c. Oxyhydrogen powerplant, furnishing, and
d. Oxycarburate other equipment that are
considered an integral part of
34. Give the four-digit SAE the aircraft is called
numbers for this commonly used a. gross weight
steel in aircraft construction: b. basic weight
Molybdenum Steel; 1& Chromium; c. empty weight
0.30% Carbon. d. operating weight
a. SAE 4130
b. SAE 6130 42. The thickness of the
c. SAE 8130 aluminium alloy sheets to
d. SAE 8310 fastened is called
a. the rivet protrusion from
35. The process which involves the underside of the sheet
all forms of cutting such as b. the rivet grip
shearing, sawing, routing, lathe c. the rivet length
and mill work, and such hand d. the rivet shank
operations as drilling, tapping
and reaming. 43. The thread running in
a. Riveting straight line through the length
b. Machining of the fabric is called
c. Welding a. selvage
d. Forging b. splay
c. fill
d. warp
44. A light aircraft is weighed
in the flying position with the 47. A special bolt in a landing
following weights recorded: left gear attachment requires a
wheel is 800 lbs, right wheel is torque value of 36.6 ft-lbs. how
810 lbs, and nose wheel is 150 many inch pounds are required
lbs. The tricycle wheel is 12 considering that the landing
inches behind the firewall which gear attachment should be able
is the datum line. The distance to hold the aircraft while on
between the main wheel and the ground at any circumstances.
nose wheel is 68 inches. The CG a. 400
of the aircraft is located at b. 450
a. 64.2 inches behind the c. 500
nose wheel d. 550
b. 73.2 inches from the
firewall 48. There are two types of glass
c. 75.2 inches from the fibers used in aircraft
firewall composite structures, E-glass
d. 5.8 inches ahead of the and S-glass. Where would you
main wheel normally find the S-glass.
a. Electrical insulation
45. An aircraft should be rigged b. Critical structural
to fly hands-off at applications
a. sea level c. Structures where strength
b. cruising speed is not needed
c. descent speed d. None of the above.
d. flap extended speed Question invalid. S-glass
is not one of the types of
46. If a streamline cover plate glass fibers.
is to be hand formed using a
form block, a piece of desad sot 49. What is the dimension of a
aluminium should be placed over flat when the material thickness
the hollow portion of the mold of 0.040 inches is uniform all
and securely fasted in place. throughout? The radius of bend
The bumping operation should be between is 0.30 inches. The bend
a. Distributed over the face makes a right angle.
of the aluminium at all a. 0.70 inches
times rather than being b. 0.07 inches
started at the edges or c. 0.86 cm
center d. 0.34 cm
b. Started by tapping the
aluminium lightly around 50. (Refer to the figure below)
the edges and gradually What is the dimension of F?
working down the center Setback at D= 0.090
c. Started by tapping the Setback at E= 0.072
aluminium in the center Bend allowance at D= 0.150
until it reaches the Bend allowance at E= 0.125
bottom of the mold and a. 5.936
then working out in all b. 4.834
directions c. 5.738
d. Started at edges then to d. 5.951
the center then to the
edges all the way

~ Fly high batch 2015!

Prepared by: JG
 AERO BOARD REFRESHER REVIEW CENTER 2014
Mock Exam Aircraft Materials and Processes
Instruction: Choose the best answer. Write the letter of the answer beside the number.
1. It is the maximum stress a material can sustain without rupture
(a) Yield Strength
(b) Tensile Strength
(c) Ultimate Strength
(d) Limit Strength
(e) Ultimate Stress
2. Which heat-treating process of metal produces a hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough core?
(a) Annealing
(b) Tempering
(c) Case Hardening
(d) Cold Working
(e) Alloying
3. Normalizing is a process of heat treating:
(a) aluminum alloys only.
(b) both aluminum alloys and iron-base metals
(c) both aluminum and aluminum alloys metals
(d) Iron based metals only
(e) Both metals and non-metals
4. It is the deterioration of the metal by chemical or electrochemical attack.
(a) Rotting
(b) Rusting
(c) Corrosion
(d) Carbonizing
(e) Electrolysis
5. What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no hardening or tempering treatment?
(a) 3003-T
(b) 3003-H36
(c) 3003-O
(d) 3003-F
(e) 3003-W
6. Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects?
(a) Clad aluminum alloy
(b) Stainless Steel
(c) 5052-T
(d) Monel
(e) Inconel
7. What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine firewalls?
(a) Clad aluminum alloy
(b) Stainless Steel
(c) 5052-T
(d) Monel
(e) Inconel
8. The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type of aluminum?
(a) 99 percent aluminum
(b) 99 percent pure aluminum
(c) 99 percent commercially pure aluminum
(d) Aluminum containing 11% impurity
(e) Aluminum with 11% Zinc
9. In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates
(a) The minor alloying element
(b) The semi-major alloying element
(c) The major alloying element
(d) The percent of alloying metal added
(e) It is obusely aluminum
10. Which is classified as a major repair?
(a) The cleaning of thw wind shield
(b) Refueling
(c) The splicing of skin sheets
(d) Installation of new engine mounts obtained from the aircraft manufacturer
(e) Any repair of damaged stressed metal skin
11. The replacement of a damaged vertical stabilizer with a new identical stabilizer purchased from the aircraft
manufacturer is considered a
(a) Minor repair
(b) minor alteration
(c) major repair
(d) major alteration
12. Where are technical descriptions of certificated propellers found?
(a) Obusely it is the applicable airworthiness directives.
(b) Aircraft specifications.
(c) Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheet.
(d) The user’s manual.
(e) I don’t know the answer.
13. The issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate is governed by
(a) 14 CFR Part 20
(b) 14 CFR Part 21
(c) 14 CFR Part 22.
(d) 14 CFR Part 23
(e) 14 CFR Part 24
14. Primary responsibility for compliance with Airworthiness Directives lies with the
(a) The pilot and first officer
(b) The aircraft mechanic
(c) The manufacturer of the aircraft
(d) The aircraft owner and operator
(e) The passenger of the aircraft
15. The main differences between grades 100 and 100LL fuel are
(a) Volatility and lead content.
(b) There is no difference.
(c) Volatility, lead content, and color.
(d) Lead content and color.
(e) Only the color.
16. Engine mount members should preferably be repaired by using a?
(a) Smaller diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds.
(b) Larger diameter tube with fishmouth and no rosette welds.
(c) Larger diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds.
(d) Both a and b are correct
(e) both a and c are correct
17. Why should a carburizing flame be avoided when welding steel?
(a) It will cause corrosion on the base metal.
(b) It hardens the surface.
(c) It can melt the whole assembly.
(d) It can explode anytime.
(e) It cannot join the metal properly due to its low heating.
18. Cylinders used to transport and store acetylene
(a) are green in color.
(b) are generally heavy.
(c) contains acetone.
(d) contains oxygen.
(e) contains carbon.
19. The most comnly used wood on aircraft
(a) Mahogany
(b) Narra
(c) Sitka Spruce
(d) Spruce Goose
(e) Bamboo
20. It is commnly found on the wing ribs, it reduces weight but increases the strength of the wing.
(a) Skin
(b) Spar
(c) Capstrip
(d) Lightening Hole
(e) I beam
21. Composite fabric material is considered to be the strongest in what direction?
(a) Weft
(b) Bias
(c) Fill
(d) Warp
(e) Fiber
22. A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing "when reheated is described as a
(a) thermostat
(b) thermoclastic
(c) thermostatic
(d) thermoplastic
(e) thermosetting
23. Pot life is?
(a) The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a solid state.
(b) The length of time that a resin will stick to the material.
(c) The length of time that both the resin and adhesive will be soft.
(d) The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a workable state.
(e) The length of time that a metal will remain in a workable state.
24. The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass used in aircraft structures is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) Z
(d) S
(e) C
25. The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is
(a) three times the thickness of the thinest sheet.
(b) two times the rivet length
(c) 2 ½ times the thickest sheet
(d) 3 times the thickness of the thickest sheet
(e) It depends on the kind of material to be joined
26. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud diameter is measured in
(a) 32nd of an inch
(b) 16th of an inch
(c) 8th of an inch
(d) 16th of a centimeter
(e) 12th of an inch
27. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals?
(a) 120
 (b) 90
(c) 118
(d) 110
(e) 75
28. What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets?
(a) 2 times the diameter of the rivet shank
(b) 2 ½ times the diameter of the rivet shank
(c) 3 times the diameter of the rivet shank
(d) there is no minimum distance required
(e) 1 ½ times the diameter of the rivet shank
29. Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because they
(a) are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminum alloys.
(b) are much expensive
(c) are generally thinner
(d) have better conductive property
(e) can be heat treated much easier than the other forms of aluminum.
30. The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum alloy rivets indicate the?
(a) The manufacturer
(b) the cost of the material
(c) specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets.
(d) the shank length and diameter
(e) the trearment it undergo
31. Which of the following need not be considered when determining minimum rivet spacing?
(a) Rivet Length
(b) type of material being riveted
(c) Rivet diameter
(d) both a and b
(e) both a and c but not b
32. What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 alu-minum alloy rivets after heat treatment?
(a) to accelerate the age hardening
(b) to retard age hardening
(c) to relieve internal stress
(d) to prevent corrosion
(e) to increase its strength
33. Under certain conditions, type A rivets are not used because of their
(a) they tend to corrode easily
(b) they have low stregth characteristics
(c) they are expensive
(d) they are hard to manufacture
(e) they are very britlle
34. The maximum time a 100-hour inspection may be extended is
(a) 5 hours
(b) 6 hours
(c) 7 hours
(d) 12 hours
(e) 10 hours
35. The semi-monocoque fuselage relies largely on the strength of
(a) skin and covering
(b) longerons and formers.
(c) longerons and stringers.
(d) formers
(e) bulkheads
36. Which is an acceptable safety device for a castle nut when installed on secondary structures?
(a) safety pin
(b) locker pin.
(c) safety wire.
(d) cotter pin
(e) cotter bolt
37. MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet which has
(a) an overall length of 5/8 inch.
(b) an overall length of 5/16 inch.
(c) an overall length of 5/32 inch.
(d) an overall length of 5/64 inch.
38. A DD rivet is heat treated before use to
(a) soften facilitate riveting.
(b) harden and increase strength.
(c) relieve internal stresses.
(d) to remove its brittleness.
(e) to prevent corrosion
39. The purpose of a joggle is to
(a) to decrease the weight of the part
(b) to decrease internal stress of metals.
(c) to allow sheet clearance or extrusion
(d) to soften the metal to be driven
(e) to prevent metals from buckling
40. The aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction are usually hardened by which method?
(a) Strain hardening
(b) Cold working
(c) Heat treament
(d) Natural aging
(e) Case hardening Prepared by Kid
 Answer Sheet Aircraft Materials

1. c
2. c
3. d
4. c
5. d
6. a
7. b
8. c
9. c
10. c
11. a
12. c
13. b
14. d
15. d
16. c
17. b
18. c
19. c
20. d
21. d
22. d
23. d
24. d
25. d
26. b
27. b
28. a
29. a
30. c
31. a
32. b
33. b
34. e
35. a
36. d
37. b
38. a
39. c
40. c