Sure, Meet!

Here are 50 multiple choice questions (MCQs) for the CCNA 200-301
exam, with correct answers provided. These cover networking fundamentals, IP
addressing, switching, routing, security, automation, and more.

CCNA 200-301 MCQs with Answers

1. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for end-to-end communication?

A. Data Link
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Application
Answer: B

2. Which IP address class provides up to 254 host addresses per network?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: C

3. What is the default administrative distance of a static route?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 90
D. 120
Answer: B

4. Which command displays the routing table on a Cisco router?

A. show route
B. show routing
C. show ip route
D. show ip routing-table
Answer: C
5. What is the purpose of VLANs?

A. To physically separate networks

B. To logically separate broadcast domains
C. To allow only wireless communication
D. To prevent routing loops
Answer: B

6. What is the subnet mask for a /27 network?

A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
Answer: B

7. Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?

A. 2001:db8::1
B. 192.168.1.1
C. 10.0.0.1
D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: A

8. What protocol does a switch use to prevent broadcast storms?

A. RIP
B. STP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Answer: B

9. Which protocol is used to resolve IP to MAC addresses?

A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP
Answer: C
10. What is the maximum number of host IPs in a /24 subnet?

A. 254
B. 256
C. 255
D. 253
Answer: A

11. What is the purpose of NAT?

A. To assign IP addresses
B. To translate private IPs to public IPs
C. To route traffic
D. To encrypt traffic
Answer: B

12. Which device separates broadcast domains?

A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Access Point
Answer: C

13. What command is used to configure a hostname on a Cisco device?

A. set hostname
B. name
C. hostname
D. conf hostname
Answer: C

14. Which protocol does ping use?

A. TCP
B. UDP
C. ICMP
D. ARP
Answer: C

15. Which topology has a central device connecting all other devices?

A. Mesh
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Bus
Answer: C

16. What command shows current interface status?

A. show interface brief

B. show ip int brief
C. show status
D. show interface status
Answer: B

17. Which address type is used in Ethernet frames?

A. IP
B. MAC
C. IPv6
D. DNS
Answer: B

18. Which of the following is NOT a dynamic routing protocol?

A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. RIP
D. Static
Answer: D

19. What port does SSH use?

A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Answer: C

20. Which type of cable connects a PC to a switch?

A. Crossover
B. Straight-through
C. Rollover
D. Loopback
Answer: B

21. What is the purpose of DHCP?

A. Assign IP addresses dynamically

B. Resolve domain names
C. Translate IP to MAC
D. Encrypt data
Answer: A

22. What type of routing uses hop count as a metric?

A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. RIP
D. EIGRP
Answer: C

23. What does 802.1Q define?

A. Wireless standard
B. Trunking for VLANs
C. IP addressing
D. Routing protocol
Answer: B
24. What Cisco command saves the running config to startup?

A. write memory
B. copy run start
C. save config
D. store config
Answer: B

25. What is a private IP address?

A. 8.8.8.8
B. 192.168.1.1
C. 172.32.0.1
D. 11.0.0.1
Answer: B

26. What is the function of a default gateway?

A. Route internal packets

B. Resolve IPs to MAC
C. Send traffic to other networks
D. Encrypt traffic
Answer: C

27. What protocol is used to send emails?

A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. SMTP
D. SNMP
Answer: C

28. What is the function of DNS?

A. Assign IP addresses
B. Block unwanted content
C. Translate names to IPs
D. Encrypt traffic
Answer: C
29. What does the acronym CIDR stand for?

A. Central IP Distribution Routing

B. Classless Inter-Domain Routing
C. Class IP Distribution Rule
D. Central Internet Data Routing
Answer: B

30. Which command enters interface configuration mode?

A. interface gig0/1
B. config int
C. enter interface
D. select interface
Answer: A

31. What type of address is 169.254.1.1?

A. Public
B. Loopback
C. APIPA
D. Multicast
Answer: C

32. What is the binary equivalent of 192?

A. 11000000
B. 10101010
C. 11111111
D. 10000000
Answer: A

33. What is the function of a switch?

A. Forward packets based on IP

B. Connect different networks
C. Forward frames based on MAC
D. Translate IP addresses
Answer: C

34. What protocol is used for secure web traffic?

A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. SSH
D. HTTPS
Answer: D

35. Which of the following is a Layer 7 device?

A. Hub
B. Router
C. Firewall
D. Web proxy
Answer: D

36. Which one is NOT a valid subnet mask?

A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.255.256
D. 255.255.240.0
Answer: C

37. What is the loopback IP address?

A. 255.255.255.0
B. 0.0.0.0
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 192.168.0.1
Answer: C

38. Which command shows directly connected networks?

A. show ip interface brief
B. show cdp neighbors
C. show version
D. show ip route
Answer: D

39. What does TTL in an IP packet stand for?

A. Time To Leave
B. Type Transfer Limit
C. Time To Live
D. Transmission Time Limit
Answer: C

40. What is port 443 used for?

A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. SMTP
Answer: C

41. Which of the following is a hybrid routing protocol?

A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
Answer: C

42. Which cable is used to connect two switches?

A. Rollover
B. Straight-through
C. Crossover
D. Console
Answer: C
43. What command is used to check connectivity?

A. connect
B. ping
C. trace
D. netstat
Answer: B

44. What is VTY used for?

A. Local console access

B. Web GUI access
C. Remote Telnet/SSH access
D. Powering devices
Answer: C

45. What command displays the MAC address table?

A. show arp
B. show mac
C. show mac-address-table
D. show ip arp
Answer: C

46. What is the first valid IP in a subnet?

A. Network address
B. First host
C. Last host
D. Broadcast address
Answer: B

47. What Cisco IOS mode is indicated by Switch(config)#?

A. User EXEC
B. Privileged EXEC
C. Global Configuration
D. Interface Configuration
Answer: C
48. What is the range of private IP addresses in Class B?

A. 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255
B. 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255
C. 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255
D. 224.0.0.0 - 239.255.255.255
Answer: B

49. What is the minimum number of bits borrowed to create subnets?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

50. What is the result of the command enable on a Cisco device?

A. Enters configuration mode

B. Enables all interfaces
C. Moves to privileged EXEC mode
D. Saves configuration
Answer: C

Absolutely, Meet! Here's a tricky set of 50 CCNA-level questions focused on Routing

& Switching, designed to test deeper understanding—ideal for mock tests or
advanced practice. Each question includes the correct answer ( ) with close
distractors to keep it challenging.

Tricky CCNA Routing & Switching MCQs (50 Questions with Answers)

1. Which statement about static routing is FALSE?

A. It uses less bandwidth than dynamic routing

B. It is more secure than dynamic routing
C. It automatically adapts to network changes
D. It is manually configured
Answer: C

2. What happens when two VLANs communicate without a Layer 3 device?

A. Communication is seamless
B. Only ARP works
C. Communication fails
D. VLANs merge
Answer: C

3. What does a switch do when it receives a frame for an unknown destination

MAC?

A. Drops it
B. Floods it out all ports except the one it came from
C. Sends it to the router
D. Sends an ARP request
Answer: B

4. You connect a PC to a switch but can’t ping the gateway. What's likely the issue?

A. Wrong DNS
B. Incorrect default gateway on the PC
C. MAC table is full
D. Router interface is down
Answer: B

5. Which of the following is a symptom of a switching loop?

A. High CPU on a router

B. Duplicate MAC addresses
C. Broadcast storm
D. Low latency
Answer: C

6. You see multiple MAC addresses on a single port. What does it indicate?
A. Normal
B. Possible hub connected
C. Spanning Tree failure
D. MAC flapping
Answer: B

7. What is the administrative distance of EIGRP internal routes?

A. 90
B. 110
C. 170
D. 120
Answer: A

8. Which is TRUE about dynamic routing?

A. It doesn’t scale well

B. It needs manual route configuration
C. It adapts automatically to network changes
D. It is less efficient than static routes
Answer: C

9. Which trunking protocol is Cisco proprietary?

A. 802.1Q
B. VTP
C. ISL
D. LACP
Answer: C

10. A router receives routes from OSPF and RIP for the same destination. Which will
it choose?

A. RIP, because it’s simpler

B. OSPF, due to lower AD
C. RIP, due to longer history
D. It will load-balance
Answer: B
11. Which command shows the root bridge of a VLAN?

A. show vlan
B. show spanning-tree vlan 1
C. show mac-address-table
D. show vlan brief
Answer: B

12. In RSTP, what is the port state for an alternate port?

A. Blocking
B. Listening
C. Discarding
D. Learning
Answer: C

13. How many broadcast domains are created by a 48-port switch with no VLANs?

A. 48
B. 1
C. 0
D. 24
Answer: B

14. Which routing protocol uses cost as a metric based on bandwidth?

A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Answer: C

15. In a switching table, if MAC address X appears on two different ports, what does
it imply?

A. Host has two NICs

B. There is a loop
C. Port security is disabled
D. Spanning tree is enabled
Answer: B

16. What feature prevents MAC flooding attacks on a switch?

A. DHCP Snooping
B. Port Security
C. STP
D. ARP Inspection
Answer: B

17. Which type of OSPF router connects multiple areas?

A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. DR
D. BDR
Answer: A

18. Which protocol elects a root bridge?

A. RIP
B. STP
C. OSPF
D. CDP
Answer: B

19. In STP, what role does the port on the root bridge always assume?

A. Designated
B. Blocking
C. Root
D. Forwarding
Answer: A

20. A router has routes to the same destination via OSPF and EIGRP. EIGRP has AD
of 170. Which is used?
A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. Both
D. None
Answer: A

21. Which OSPF table stores neighbor information?

A. Routing table
B. LSDB
C. Neighbor table
D. Topology table
Answer: C

22. What is the purpose of a DR in OSPF?

A. To provide faster convergence

B. Reduce LSA flooding
C. Assign IPs to routers
D. Route traffic between areas
Answer: B

23. What does a router do when no route is found for a packet?

A. Drops it
B. Sends it to default route
C. Broadcasts it
D. Sends ICMP request
Answer: B

24. What layer does a router operate at?

A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Answer: C
25. What causes a switch to flood a frame?

A. Known destination MAC

B. Broadcast frame
C. Unknown destination MAC
D. Duplex mismatch
Answer: C

26. What happens if you configure two VLANs on the same switch port?

A. Port becomes a trunk

B. Error occurs
C. One VLAN is ignored
D. Both operate simultaneously
Answer: B

27. How many equal-cost paths does OSPF support by default?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 16
Answer: C

28. You see a port in err-disabled state. What could be a cause?

A. VLAN mismatch
B. Incorrect IP
C. Port security violation
D. STP loop
Answer: C

29. What must match for two OSPF routers to form adjacency?

A. IP addresses
B. Hostnames
C. Hello/dead timers, area ID, subnet
D. MTU only
Answer: C
30. What is the purpose of a routed port on a switch?

A. Trunking
B. VLAN hopping
C. L3 communication without VLAN
D. QoS tagging
Answer: C

31. Which protocol operates at Layer 2 and helps identify Cisco neighbors?

A. LLDP
B. CDP
C. STP
D. VTP
Answer: B

32. Which method of port security allows only the first MAC to be learned?

A. Static
B. Sticky
C. Dynamic
D. Restrict
Answer: B

33. What is the metric unit used by RIP?

A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Hop count
D. MTU
Answer: C

34. Which is NOT a type of OSPF LSA?

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 7
E. Type 9
Answer: E

35. Why would a switchport go into blocking state in STP?

A. No MAC address learned

B. Link is down
C. Prevent loop
D. Duplex mismatch
Answer: C

36. Which is a valid reason to use EtherChannel?

A. Spanning Tree bypass

B. Load balancing and redundancy
C. Routing table reduction
D. VLAN creation
Answer: B

37. What is the function of a loopback interface in routing?

A. Backup physical port

B. Test interface
C. Always up for router ID
D. Increase bandwidth
Answer: C

38. A VLAN has been created, but hosts can't communicate. Most likely reason?

A. Wrong IP address
B. Trunk not configured
C. Port speed mismatch
D. DNS misconfigured
Answer: B

39. What is the purpose of DUAL in EIGRP?

A. Path calculation
B. Loop prevention and backup routes
C. OSPF area comparison
D. Route redistribution
Answer: B

40. Which command shows EIGRP neighbors?

A. show ip eigrp neighbors

B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show route eigrp
D. show protocols
Answer: A

41. What does it mean if STP convergence is slow?

A. Switches are misconfigured

B. Using legacy STP
C. Using RSTP
D. Multiple root bridges
Answer: B

42. What is the purpose of the root bridge in STP?

A. Assign VLANs
B. Forward all traffic
C. Central point for loop-free path calculation
D. Backup switch
Answer: C

43. A switchport is in learning state. What does it do?

A. Forwards frames
B. Learns MACs but doesn’t forward
C. Blocks frames and MACs
D. Broadcasts only
Answer: B
44. Which protocol supports summarization only at ABRs?

A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Answer: C

45. What is a characteristic of PVST+?

A. One STP instance for all VLANs

B. Separate STP per VLAN
C. Works only on routers
D. Used for trunk negotiation
Answer: B

46. Which protocol prevents switching loops by placing ports into blocking state?

A. STP
B. CDP
C. VTP
D. LLDP
Answer: A

47. What is the default OSPF hello timer?

A. 10 seconds
B. 5 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Answer: A

48. What is the first step in STP election process?

A. Electing designated port

B. Electing root bridge
C. Blocking redundant links
D. Assigning MAC addresses
Answer: B
49. A switch shows “err-disabled” after a BPDU is received. What feature is active?

A. PortFast
B. BPDU Guard
C. Root Guard
D. Loop Guard
Answer: B

50. In EIGRP, what is the feasible distance?

A. Backup path metric

B. Best path metric to destination
C. Interface bandwidth
D. Total hops
Answer: B