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PTS 2025 CSAT Simulator Test 6 Solution Eng

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PTS 2025 CSAT Simulator Test 6 Solution Eng

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bachala suneendra

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |

Q.1)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement a is incorrect. Though the passage states “The government must notify rules under the new
Labour Codes at the earliest and eliminate avenues for rent-seeking”, the statement does not best reflect
the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage as it focuses only one aspect of
the problem.
Statement b is incorrect. The passage mentions “Regulatory overreach must also be tackled,
modernizing regulators to act as facilitators of growth and innovation instead of relying on outdated
control mechanisms.” However, the statement does not best reflect the most logical and rational
inference that can be made from the passage as it only talks about regulatory measures.
Statement c is incorrect. The passage mentions that India must focus on “attracting manufacturing and
investments”. However, the statement does not best reflect the most logical and rational inference that
can be made from the passage as it gives a more comprehensive view that includes ease of doing
business, reforms, labour codes, and regulatory modernization.
Statement d is correct. The statement best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be
made from the passage as it highlights the main argument of the passage most comprehensively. It is
mentioned in the passage as “India must renew its focus on improving ease of doing business to attract
manufacturing and investments. These measures will drive economic growth, job creation, and
innovation.”
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.2)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The passage states “Prayer and meditation as a part of Spiritual development
embody a dialogue between the soul and cosmos. Together, they form a union of expression and
receptivity, bridging the human spirit and the infinite consciousness, each enriching the other in their
sacred and profound interplay.” From here we can assume that the statement is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect. While the passage states that prayer and meditation bridge the human spirit
and the infinite consciousness, it is silent on the degree of each measure. Therefore, the assumption is
incorrect.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.3)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The passage states “The question is no longer if quantum computing will break
current encryption methods, it is a matter of when.” From here we can assume that the statement is
correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage states “Governments, industries, and researchers must work
together to transition to post-quantum cryptographic standards, integrate quantum-resistant solutions,
and develop robust security frameworks capable of withstanding the quantum threat.” Though post-

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[1]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
cryptographic standards would help to mitigate quantum threat, it would be wrong to assume that
these standards would guarantee absolute security.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.4)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Let the cost of microwave oven, fridge, and mixer be Rs. x, Rs. y, and Rs. z respectively.
Then, y + z = 0.75y + 1.25z
⟹ 0.25y = 0.25z
⟹ y = z … (i)
And (x + y) × 1.05 = 1.35x + 0.75y
⟹ 0.3x = 0.3y
⟹ x = y … (ii)
From (i) and (ii)
x=y=z
Now, Overall profit = 0.35x – 0.25y + 0.25z = 0.35x
Hence, overall profit percentage = 0.35x/(x + x + x) × 100 (From (i) and (ii))
= 11.67%.
Hence a
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.5)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The volume of C is given to be ‘v’ liters.
When C is filled with milk and then emptied into Jar B,
(New) volume of milk in Jar A = 6 – v liters.
Also, volume of (milk + water) in Jar B = 6 + v liters.
Jar B has water and milk in the ratio 6 : v.
Hence Proportional Milk in Jar B will be= v/(6+v)
and Proportional Water in Jar B will be= 6/(6+v)
Now, when v litres of mixture from Jar B is taken, it have

Hence, in the v liters of mixture in B which is transferred to A,

[6v/(6 + v)] is water and [v²/(6 + v)] is milk.
Hence, the ratio of milk to water in Jar A will be= [(6 – v) + {v²/(6 + v)}] / [6v/(6 + v)] = 3 : 1

[2]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |

=> v = 2 liters.
Hence c.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.6)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The days on which Suresh and Tarakesh work are tabulated below.

So, in the first 24 days, Suresh and Tarakesh both work on days 1, 2, 3, 9, 19, and 20, i.e., in the first 24 days
Suresh and Tarakesh would have worked together for 6 days.
In the first 336 days, Suresh and Tarakesh would have worked together for 84 days.
In the next 14 days, they would have worked together for 4 days.
Suresh would have worked for a total of 84 + 4 = 88 days along with Tarakesh.
Hence, Ramesh also worked for 88 days.
Hence c.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

[3]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Q.7)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Let A be the average weight of the original group.
When the heaviest student leaves the group, the average drops by 2 kg. So the weight of the heaviest
student must be A + 14.
When the lightest student leaves the group, the average increases by 2 kg. So the weight of the lightest
student must be A - 14.
Their average = A. So if both of them leave, the average of the remaining group should not change.
So 270 = A × 6 = A = 45.
Hence, the weight of the heaviest person is 45 + 14 = 59 kg.
Hence c.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.8)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Since the sum of the numbers is same on each of the cards, and 3 given numbers are even, sum of this
and the prime number on other side of card must be odd.
It must be noted that only 39 is odd and all other numbers mentioned on the cards are even.
And, all prime numbers except 2 is odd.
Also we know-
Odd+ even= Odd
And
Even +Odd = Odd
So, in order to ensure that the sum of numbers on both sides of each card is same.
Card A must have 39 and 2 (since 2 is the only even prime number) => Odd+ Even= Odd
Hence sum of numbers on Card A is 39+2= 41.
This means the sum of both the numbers on each card must be 41.
Therefore, B has 24 and 17; C has 34 and 7; D has 12 and 29.
From this, the second largest number is 34 and the second smallest number is 7. The required difference
is 34 - 7 = 27.
Hence a.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.9)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer
Given that
m and n are odd integers and o, p are even integers.
Let’s Analyse Statement 1- whether, (m - n) + (o x p) is odd
m - n: odd - odd = even
o x p: even x even = even
So, even + even = even

[4]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect
Let’s Analyse Statement 2 - (m - o) + n x p is even
m – o= odd - even = odd
n x p= odd x even = even
So, odd + even = odd
Statement 2 is incorrect
Let’s analyse Statement 3- (m + n)2 + (o + p) is odd
m + n: odd + odd = even
So (m + n)2: even2 = even
o + p: even + even = even
So total is: even + even = even
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence, all three statements 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.10)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer

In this 5 × 5 chessboard, 12 squares that do not have a common side can be selected by either selecting
black squares only or white squares only.
Ways to select 12 black squares = 13C12 = 13
Ways to select 12 white squares = 12C12 = 1
Total ways = 13 + 1 = 14
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.11)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement a is incorrect. Though the passage states “The development of agriculture, after green
revolution, has slowed down due to structural and technological stagnation”, the statement does not best
reflect the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage as it does not talk about
middle class in India.

[5]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Statement b is incorrect. While the passage states “the rural middle classes harbour a deep-seated
antagonism and conflict with urban middle classes, entrepreneurs, and professional groups”, the
statement does not best reflect the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage
as it does not talk about the similarities between rural and urban middle class in India.
Statement c is correct. The statement best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be
made from the passage as it highlights both the similarities and conflicts between the rural and urban
middle class in India. It is mentioned in the passage as “The rural middle class in India shares an
ideological affinity with their urban counterparts.” “on another level, the rural middle classes harbour a
deep-seated antagonism and conflict with urban middle classes.” “Stagnation (in agriculture) has resulted
in downward mobility in social and economic status for the rural middle classes.”
Statement d is incorrect. The passage highlights that urban counterpart of rural middle class continued
to flourish due to absence of stagnation in the economy. However, the statement does not best reflect
the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage as it does not talk about the
rural middle class in India.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.12)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement a is incorrect. The passage states “the proliferation of public bike-sharing (PBS) systems in
Indian cities is hindered by various obstacles, including limited public acceptance, operational
inefficiencies, insufficient government funding, and other systemic issues”. However, the statement does
not best reflect the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage as it does not
provide a solution to it.
Statement b is incorrect. Though the passage states “Bike-sharing initiatives, originated in Europe and
achieved global recognition for their success in promoting sustainable mobility solutions, addressing
urban transport challenges”, the statement does not best reflect the most logical and rational inference
that can be made from the passage as it does not highlight how could these initiatives become successful.
Statement c is incorrect. While the passage states “These initiatives (bike-sharing initiatives) have found
their way into Indian urban centers under government-led efforts such as the 'Smart Cities Mission’”, the
statement does not best reflect the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage
as it does not highlight the challenges faced by these initiatives.
Statement d is correct. The statement best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be
made from the passage as it highlights how could bike-sharing initiatives become successful. It is
mentioned in the passage as “the proliferation of public bike-sharing (PBS) systems in Indian cities is
hindered by various obstacles”. It also states “improved infrastructure for cyclists, strong community
engagement campaigns, and dedicated funding allocations could address current challenges by
integrating bike-sharing into a broader urban transport framework.”
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.13)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

[6]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Statement 1 is incorrect. The passage mentions “The dependency theory argues that developing
countries remain trapped in exploitative relationships with advanced economies.” This relationship is
being modified in the context of critical minerals. Indonesia’s move to ban the export of raw nickel (one of
the critical minerals) is one of the foremost examples. The move is intended to transform Indonesia’s
status in the global supply chain by incentivizing investment in the country’s downstream nickel
industries such as refining and battery manufacturing.” However, the assumption is incorrect as it
generalises the Indonesian move for all countries.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Though the passage states “Despite being natural resource-rich, these
countries (developing countries) have been at a disadvantage”, it is silent on the comparative analysis
between the natural resource wealth in developed and developing nations.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.14)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
We know that the sum of the cubes of these digits is 684. Since 684 is less than 729 (the cube of 9), all
digits must be less than 9.
A bigger hint is that the difference between the largest and the smallest digit is 2. However, it is not
necessary that they are consecutive numbers because two of the digits could be identical. Therefore, we
need to consider both possibilities.
First, let’s consider three consecutive numbers: (5, 6, 7) and (6, 7, 8).
We find that (5, 6, 7) satisfies all the conditions, while (6, 7, 8) does not.
Next, we check if two digits could be identical. For example:
1. (5, 5, 7) does not satisfy the conditions.
2. (6, 6, 8) also does not satisfy any condition.
Thus, the three digits are 5, 6, and 7.
The required sum of all possible three-digit numbers formed by these digits is:
567 + 576 + 657 + 675 + 756 + 765 = 3996.
Hence d
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.15)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The logic followed here is:
In a row,
Third number = (First number)² - (Second number × 3)
● 1st row:
● Third number = (13)² - (5 × 3) = 169 - 15 = 154
● 2nd row:
● Third number = (16)² - (8 × 3) = 256 - 24 = 232
● 3rd row:
● Third number = (18)² - (10 × 3) = 324 - 30 = 294

[7]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Hence, the correct answer is 294.
Hence a.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.16)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
According to the given information:
The classes of Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology and Geology are held from Monday to Friday. On each
day, one subject’s class is held.
1. Botany is on Friday.
2. Zoology is held just after Chemistry. Two subjects’ classes are held between Chemistry and Geology.

Physics classes are held on Wednesday.

Hence a.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.17)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The logic followed here is:
1. A is second to the right of B, who faces Q.
2. There are as many girls between E and F as between A and B.
(It means B and E are sitting in the middle of the row because this condition only fulfills in that condition)
3. F is extreme left and faces O.

[8]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |

4. M is fourth left of O and R is third right of M.

5. N is third right of P, who faces A.
O R N Q M P (Facing South)
F _ E B _ A(Facing North)
(Here A faces P and A sits at the extreme end, so P also sits at the extreme end. So if M is fourth left of O,
then O will also sit at the extreme end of the row.)
Final sitting arrangement is this:
Position of C and D is not clear, so they can sit in either place.
O R N Q M P (Facing South)
F (D/C) E B (C/D) A (Facing North)
From the diagram, C/D face R.
Thus, the correct answer is "C/D".
Hence a.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.18)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Given → N L A _ X N _ B F _ N L _ F _ N L _ _ X
By checking options and substituting accordingly.
1) F L C E X A F → N L A F X - N L B F C - N L E F X - N L A F X ⇒ Sequence not followed.
2) F N X C X C F → N L A F X - N N B F X - N L C F X - N L C F X ⇒ Sequence not followed.
3) F L X N X D C → N L A F X - N L B F X - N L N F X - N L D C X ⇒ Sequence not followed.
4) F L X C X D F → N L A F X - N L B F X - N L C F X - N L D F X ⇒ Sequence followed.
Pattern followed here is NLAFX / NLBFX / NLCFX / NLDFX (Third Letter of the series increases +1
simultaneously)
Hence, the correct answer is "F L X C X D F".
Hence d.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.19)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Given: Five cars C1, C2, C3, C4, and C5.
1. C1 is faster than only one car. __ > __ > __ > C1 > __
2. C5 is faster than four cars, which means it's the fastest. C5 > __ > __ > C1 > __
3. C4 is faster than C1 but slower than C3 and C5. C5 > C3 > C4 > C1 > __
And, the remaining spot will be of C2. C5 > C3 > C4 > C1 > C2
So, "3" cars has less speed than the speed of C3.
Hence, "3" is the correct answer.
Hence c.
Subject:) CSAT

[9]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.20)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Let x be the distance from Ramu's office to his farmhouse and s be his speed.
Then, according to the office clock, he comes back to the office in 1 hour 35 minutes. So his travelling
time = 1 hour 35 minutes - 20 minutes = 1 hour 15 minutes or 15/12 hours.
So,
x/s + (7x/4) / (2s) = 15/12
=> (8x + 7x) / 8s = 15/12
=> x/s = 2/3 or 40 minutes
According to the office clock, he will reach the farmhouse at 14:10 hours.
Hence, the farmhouse clock was 10 minutes fast.
Hence c.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.21)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement a is incorrect. While the passage states “they (migrant laborers) contribute significantly to the
economy”, the statement does not best reflect the most logical and rational inference that can be made
from the passage as it does not highlight the challenges faced by migrant laborers.
Statement b is incorrect. The passage highlights “(migrant laborers are) Attracted by the promise of
better employment opportunities in unorganised sectors like construction, domestic work,
manufacturing, and services”. However, the statement does not best reflect the most logical and rational
inference that can be made from the passage as it only highlights why migration happens.
Statement c is incorrect. The passage highlights “the absence of formal documentation” “often hinder
them from claiming their rights”. However, the statement does not best reflect the most logical and
rational inference that can be made from the passage as it does not highlight the role played by migrant
workers in the urban economy.
Statement d is correct. The statement best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be
made from the passage as it appropriately highlights both the role of migrant laborers and the challenges
faced by them in urban areas. It is mentioned in the passage as “Migrant labourers in metropolitan cities
form an indispensable part of the urban workforce.” “Yet, despite their vital role, they endure challenging
conditions” “grappling with substandard living conditions”.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.22)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement a is incorrect. While the passage states “Despite covering just 1% of the ocean floor, coral
reefs support an astonishing 25% of all marine life, earning them the title ‘rainforest of the sea.’”, the

[10]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
statement does not best reflect the crux of the passage as it focuses only on one aspect of corals i.e.
supporting biodiversity.
Statement b is correct. The statement best reflects the crux of the passage as it comprehensively
describes the role of coral reef systems. It is mentioned in the passage as “. Despite covering just 1% of
the ocean floor, coral reefs support an astonishing 25% of all marine life.” “Beyond their ecological value,
coral reefs are indispensable to coastal communities. They sustain livelihoods through fishing, tourism,
and education, while also serving as natural barriers that prevent erosion and protect coastlines.”
Statement c is incorrect. The passage states “serving as natural barriers that prevent erosion and protect
coastlines from hurricane damage”. However, the statement does not best reflect the crux of the passage
as it does not highlight the ecological role of corals.
Statement d is incorrect. Although the passage mentions “. These polyps live in a mutually beneficial
association with microscopic algae called zooxanthellae”, the statement does not best reflect the crux of
the passage as it does not highlight the importance of corals
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.23)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Though the passage highlights the benefits of incorporating SWMs as “The
Smart Waste Management System (SWM), powered by the Internet of Things (IoT), is transforming waste
processing by enhancing efficiency and promoting sustainability”, it is silent on its adoption at the
national level.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage states “This seamless integration (of IOT in waste management)
offers localities greener, cleaner, smarter, and more sustainable waste management solutions.” From here
we can assume that the assumption is correct.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.24)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
(x - 3)² = y + 9 … (i)
(y - 3)² = x + 9 … (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii),
x² + y² = 7(x + y) … (iii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i),
x² - 6x - y² + 6y = y – x
=> x² - y² = 5(x - y)
x + y = 5 … (iv) (Since x ≠ y)
From (iii) and (iv), x² + y² = 7 × 5 = 35.
Hence d.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

[11]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Q.25)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Let's analyze the pattern in the first pair: DLPT → ENSX
Compare corresponding letters:
D (4) → E (5) → +1
L (12) → N (14) → +2
P (16) → S (19) → +3
T (20) → X (24) → +4
So the pattern is: +1, +2, +3, +4
Now apply the same pattern to GNRT:
G (7) +1 → H (8)
N (14) +2 → P (15)
R (18) +3 → U (21)
T (20) +4 → X (24)
Therefore, GNRT → HPUX
Hence d
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.26)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
As per the information given in the question,

So, 20 – x + x + a = 65
⇒ a = 45
Similarly, c = 40.
Therefore, members who attend the gym at least once in three months = 70 + 45 + 40 = 155.
Hence, the number of members who did not attend the gym at all during these three months = 160 – 155 =
5.
Hence d.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

[12]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Q.27)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
864 = 25 × 33
Only way to write as:
n3 × m2 = (23 × 33) × 22 = (6)3 × 22
Checking for
(n² / m) + nm³ = 66
(36/2) + 6*8= 66
Hence n=6 and m=2 satisfies both conditions.
Hence, only one pair (n, m) exists.
Hence a
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.28)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The distance covered by Tanu in 2 hour 30 minutes = 7 + 7 + 7 × 1/2 = 17.5 km
Thus, the time taken by Sana to overtake Tanu = 17.5/(12 – 7) = 17.5/5 = 3.5 hours
Hence, Sana will overtake Tanu at 12 PM + 3 hours + 30 minutes = 3:30 PM.
Hence b.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.29)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
There are 10 ways to pick two children out of V, W, X, Y, and Z such that they get 2 chocolates each. We
need to distribute the remaining (10 – 2 – 2) = 6 chocolates among the remaining three children such that
none of them get exactly 2 chocolates.
The possible distributions are (6 + 0 + 0) (which can be done in 3 ways)
or (5 + 1 + 0) (which can be done in 6 ways)
or (4 + 1 + 1) (which can be done in 3 ways)
or (3 + 3 + 0) (which can be done in 3 ways).
Now number of ways to select two children out five who get exactly 2 chocolates is= C(5,2)= 10
Hence, the required answer is 10 × (3 + 6 + 3 + 3) = 150.
Hence c.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.30)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Boat V travels at a speed of 10 m/s downstream.

[13]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
By the time the two passengers on boat V decide to get off, their boat will have traveled for 20 minutes.
It covers 20 × 60 × 10 = 12000 m, while boat W travels for 15 minutes and covers a distance = 15 × 60 × 7 =
6300 m
So the raft is (12000 – 6300) = 5700 m ahead of boat W.
Boat W gains (7 – 2) = 5 m/s with respect to the raft.
Hence, it takes 5700/5 = 1140 seconds = 19 minutes for W to reach the raft.
Hence a.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.31)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Option (a): This is misleading. The passage draws a clear distinction between ambition (which may be
purposeful) and greed (which is excessive and self-destructive). Greed is consistently portrayed
negatively, including the fable, Stoic philosophy, and historical references. There’s no suggestion that
greed, even when moderated, is essential.
Hence, this option is incorrect.
Option (b): This is accurately aligned with the core message. The fable and the line “desire beyond
necessity was seen as a form of slavery” support this. The passage critiques uncontrolled pursuit (greed)
and its effects on individuals and systems — leading to imbalance and ruin.
Hence, this option is correct.
Option (c): This is a trap option. While greed is criticized, ambition is not equated with greed in the
passage. In fact, ambition is acknowledged as something that “can propel progress.” The two are clearly
distinguished in nature, not just in scale.
Hence, this option is incorrect.
Option (d): This statement is philosophically interesting, but not an inference from the passage. The
passage acknowledges that greed is “veiled in the language of aspiration,” but it still maintains a strong
moral and conceptual distinction between desire, ambition, and greed. It does not suggest the distinction
is impossible or meaningless.
Hence, this option is incorrect.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.32)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option (a):- This is factually incorrect according to the passage. The Constitution is not sufficient by itself
— it requires the active vigilance of citizens. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Option (b):- While the passage discusses vigilance, it does not promote inherent distrust but rather
responsible awareness. Hence, this option is misleading and incorrect.
Option (c):- This is correct. The passage emphasizes that civic responsibility — the willingness of people
to "guard their own freedom" — is essential for democracy to endure. Hence, this option is correct.
Option (d):- The passage critiques moral decay but does not blame Indian governance structures
specifically. It refers to general human tendencies across civilizations. Hence, this option is incorrect.

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.33)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Option (a):- The passage criticizes reforms that fail to address deeper attitudes, so this is incorrect.
Option (b):- This is correct. The passage makes clear that social attitudes often undermine legal
guarantees — “not a lived reality.” Hence, this option is correct.
Option (c):- The passage does not make any deterministic claim about economic development leading to
equality. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Option (d):- The anecdote and the tone suggest that inherited obedience is a problem, not a necessity.
Hence, this option is incorrect.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.34)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
If engineers are denoted by E1, E2, E3, E4, E5, E6, E7, E8 and E9, then we have to make groups of 4 such
that no pair of groups has more than one engineer in common. The possible groups are as follows: (E1, E2,
E3, E4), (E1, E5, E6, E7), (E2, E5, E8, E9). There can be three such groups.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.35)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Sum of the numbers = 108.
Let Raman’s sum = 2k
Raju’s sum = k and R = remaining number
So, 3k + R = 108
R = 15 or 24 (Since 108 – R must be divisible by 3)
When R = 15, (2k = 62, k = 31)
→ only one combination (13, 24, 25) and (7, 8, 16).
This case is not valid as 16 is a multiple of 8.
When R = 24, (2k = 56, k = 28)
→ only one combination (15, 16, 25) and (7, 8, 13).
This case is valid.
Hence, remaining number is 24.
Hence d.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

[15]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Q.36)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Group 1: 23 kg
Group 2: 15 kg
So, Group 3: 7 kg, since the sum of nine of these weights is 45 kg.
7 kg has only one possibility (1, 2, 4).
23 kg and 15 kg are both odd. This is possible when one of them has 1 odd number and the other has all
the remaining three odd numbers.
So, the only possibility is (3, 5, 7) and (6, 8, 9).
Hence, Statements (i) & (ii) are true.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.37)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer
Combining Statement 1 and Statement 2
From Statement 1:
1. Floors of II to VI are all of different Colours
From Statement 2:
1. Floors of I and IV are of Red colour
2. So I and IV have same colour.
But here, We canbe sure that I and II , II and III, III and IV, IV and V and V and VI are not of same colours,
But we are not sure whether VI and VII are of Same Colour.
Hence, We cannot conclude that any two consecutive floors have different colours.
Similarly, Combining Statement 1 and Statement 3
We can be sure that II and III, III and IV, IV and V, V and VI and VI and VII are not of same colours, But we
are not sure whether I and II are of Same Colour.
When Combining Statement 2 and Statement 3
The first (I) and the fourth (IV) floors are painted in same colours.
The second (II) and the seventh (VII) floors are painted blue.
From here we can only be sure that I and IV and II and V are of the same colour , no other information
about indifferent colours of Any other floor is possible.
From Statement 1 + 2 + 3
The middle five floors are painted in different colours.
The first (I) and the fourth (IV) floors are painted in red colours.
The second (II) and the seventh (VII) floors are painted blue.
From here we can say that
We can be sure that Floors of I and II, II and III, III and IV, IV and V, V and VI and VI and VII are not of
same colours. Hence No two consecutive floor is of same colour.
Hence, Statement 3 along with statement 1 and 2 is sufficient
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

[16]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Q.38)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
In order to keep the average weight of the 30 children as high as possible, we need to keep the average
weight of the 15 children above 8 kg as low as possible. Since the weights of all children are in integral
kilograms, the least value that the 15 children above 8 kg can take is 9 kg.
So, the sum of the weights of 15 children = 15 × 9 = 135 kg
So the sum of the weights of the remaining 30 children = 8 × 45 – 135 = 225 kg
Hence, the average weight of the remaining 30 children is 225/30 = 7.5 kg.
Hence c.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.39)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The "number of proper subsets of Set A" refers to the total count of all subsets of Set A, excluding the set
A itself. In other words, it's the number of subsets that are strictly smaller than the original set.
Hence, the number of proper subsets of A is 2â - 1 whereas the number of proper subsets of B is 2^b – 1
It is given that, [(2â) - 1] + [(2^b) - 1] = 142
⇒ 2â + 2^b = 144
Let a < b ⇒ 2â (2^(b-a) + 1) = 144
Now, we need to express 144 as a product of two numbers, one of which is a power of 2 and the other is
one more than a power of 2.
As 144 = 2^4 (2^3 + 1), we can conclude a = 4 and b - a = 3
Therefore, a = 4 and b = 7
Thus, the value of a + b = 4 + 7 = 11.
Hence a
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.40)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Let, Speed of train X and Y are 5x and 6x respectively.
Length of tunnel = 135 + 151 = 286 m.
After 10 seconds; Total distance they cover just before meeting is the length of the tunnel = 286 meters
Distance covered = Relative Speed of both trains * Time Taken= 286m
hence,
Relative Speed = 286/10 = 28.6 m/s
Now,
5x + 6x = 28.6
⇒ x = 2.6
Therefore, Speed of train X = 13 m/s.
Distance covered by train X = 13 × 10 = 130 m.
Hence, length of train X leaves out = 135 - 130 = 5 m.

[17]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Hence d.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.41)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Statement 1: International aid is sometimes entangled with strategic and political interests.
This is clearly assumed. The author explicitly notes how aid often reflects “geopolitical calculus” and
becomes a “mechanism of influence.” The very foundation of the argument is built on critiquing the
strategic undercurrents of aid. So this is a valid assumption.
Statement 2: All forms of aid inherently perpetuate global inequalities.
This is the incorrect assumption. The author critiques many forms of aid but also carefully acknowledges
the existence of genuine transnational solidarity, particularly through civil society and grassroots efforts.
The use of “yet to reject all aid” signals the author’s position that not all aid perpetuates inequality. Thus,
this is not assumed and is even contradicted. It is the incorrect assumption.
Statement 3: The ethicality of aid depends on whether it empowers the recipient rather than imposes
upon them.
This is assumed. The final sentence emphasizes distinguishing between “aid that empowers” and “that
which infantilizes.” The author clearly centers ethical judgment on the nature and outcome of the aid—
not its presence or absence. Hence, this is a valid assumption.
Hence b.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.42)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Statement 1: Certainty may be detrimental to open-ended intellectual inquiry.
This is clearly assumed. The author claims that fetishizing certainty “stifles intellectual agility” and
criticizes the desire for finality in thought. Thus, the idea that certainty hampers inquiry is at the core of
the passage. So, this is a valid assumption.
Statement 2: People often treats provisional truths as absolute.
Also valid and assumed. The passage says “what we call truth is often contingent consensus,” implying
that people mistake evolving, conditional truths for absolutes. This supports the assumption directly.
Hence, it is not incorrect.
Statement 3: Knowledge becomes legitimate only when universally and permanently agreed upon.
This is not assumed and is actually contradicted. The author critiques the desire for “absolute knowledge”
and praises traditions that accept contingency and fallibility. The author sees legitimacy in adaptability,
not permanence. Hence, this is an incorrect assumption.
Hence d.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

[18]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Q.43)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. The passage states that the original ethical intent of the Outer Space Treaty has
been eroded, as modern space activities often lack international coordination and are driven by
“competitive leverage.” This shows that collective stewardship is being replaced by profit and power
motives. The phrase “spirit of that accord seems to drift in the vacuum of expediency” metaphorically
supports this implication.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage explicitly draws a parallel between moral failings on Earth and
behavior in space: “our behavior in space reflects — and magnifies — our Earthbound moral fractures.” The
author suggests that inequality and exploitation in space are a continuation of terrestrial ethical
dilemmas, aligning with “ethical cosmopolitanism.”
Hence c.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.44)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Numbers that end in 1 = 4
Numbers that end in 2 = 5
Numbers that end in 3 = 1
Numbers that end in 4 = 2
Numbers that end in 5 = 4
Numbers that end in 6 = 1
Numbers that end in 7 = 0
Numbers that end in 8 = 1
Numbers that end in 9 = 0
Hence, total numbers are 18.
Hence c.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.45)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer
Also, 36 <(31+ 34+ x+ 39+44+46 )/6< 42
36 < (x+194 )/6 < 42
216 <(x+194 ) < 252
216-194 < x < 252-194
⇒ 22 < x< 58
For finding value of x
Let’s use the formula for average again:
Average=(194+x)/6
But, as given, x should be greater than the average,
So, x> (194 +x)/6

[19]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
6x> 194 + x
5x> 194
x> 194/5
x> 38.8
Since, x is an integer and greater than the average of the given integers, therefore, x shall be at least 39
and not less than that.
If we take x= 39
The average will be 38.33 (Not an Integer)
Next, we take
x= 40
we get the answer= 31 + 34 + 40 + 39 + 44+ 46= 234
Its average is 234/6= 39 (integer)
Hence Smallest value of possible here is 40.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.46)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer
5×1+3=8
8 × 3 – 5 = 19
19 × 5 + 7 = 102
102 × 7 – 9 = 705
705 × 9 + 11 = 6356
6356x11 – 13= 69903
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.47)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer
Symbolic definition
'P + Q' means 'P is mother of Q'
'P x Q' means 'P is sister of Q'
'P – Q' means 'P is father of Q'
'P ÷ Q' means 'P is brother of Q’
Expression- AxB–C÷D÷ExV+M
Let's look at only the portion that connects C to M, since we are finding C's relation to M:
Focus on: C ÷ D ÷ E x V + M
Start from the innermost/rightmost operations:
V+M
V is mother of M
ExV
E is sister of V
So E is maternal aunt of M (since V is M's mother)
D÷E

[20]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
D is brother of E
So D is maternal uncle of M (since E is M's maternal aunt)
C÷D
C is brother of D
Since D is maternal uncle, and C is D's brother
C is also a maternal uncle of M
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.48)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer
There are eight conditions in all.
i. Six shotput throwers P, Q, R, S, T and U appeared in several throws.
ii. Either R or U scores the highest.
iii. Whenever R scores the highest, then T scores the least.
iv. Whenever U scores the highest, Q scores the least.
v. In all the throws they got different points;
vi. S scores higher than P, but they are close competitors;
vii. P scores higher than Q;
viii. R scores higher than P
If U stands second, then by condition (ii), R will be first.
So, far,
R> U
Whenever R scores the highest, then T scores the least
R>U _, _, _, >T
S scores higher than P, but they are close competitors; P scores higher than Q
S>P and P>Q
So, S>P>Q
R scores higher than P
R>P, but here R is the highest,
So, it has become like-
R>U>S>P>Q>T
So, Rank of Q is Fourth
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.49)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer
There are eight conditions in all.
i. Six shotput throwers P, Q, R, S, T and U appeared in several throws.
ii. Either R or U scores the highest.
iii. Whenever R scores the highest, then T scores the least.
iv. Whenever U scores the highest, Q scores the least.
v. In all the throws they got different points;

[21]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
vi. S scores higher than P, but they are close competitors;
vii. P scores higher than Q;
viii. R scores higher than P
Either R or U scores the highest.
Whenever R scores the highest, then T scores the least.
But, here T is ranked third, so R did not get the first position
So, U>R>T
Hence, R gets more points than T.
S scores higher than P, but they are close competitors;
P scores higher than Q
S>P and P>Q
So, S>P>Q
R scores higher than P
So, the conditions result here like- U>R>T>S>P>Q
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.50)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer
Amit’s clock gains 20 minutes every 4 hours
.It was set correctly at 12:00 a.m. on Tuesday
We are to find the actual time when the clock shows 8:00 p.m. on Thursday
We, shall first Calculate the elapsed time on the clock
From 12:00 a.m. Tuesday to 8:00 p.m. Thursday:
Tuesday: 24 hours
Wednesday: 24 hours
Thursday: 20 hours (from 12:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.)
Total time passed according to the clock = 24 + 24 + 20 = 68 hours
Amit’s clock moves 20 minutes fast in every 4 hours, so it gains 20 minutes in every 4 hours.
Number of 4-hour intervals in 68 hours = 68/4 = 17
Total gain = 17 x 20 minutes = 340 minutes = 5 hours 40 minutes
Clock shows: 8:00 p.m. Thursday
It is ahead by 5 hours 40 minutes
The correct time is 2:20 p.m. on Thursday.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.51)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. The passage underscores the tension between "technological ascent" and "ethical
restraint" and highlights the 2018 gene-edited babies scandal as revealing the “porous boundary between
what is technically possible and what is ethically permissible.” This implies that science is advancing
faster than ethics can keep pace.

[22]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Dolly anecdote is introduced to illustrate ambivalence, not uncritical
celebration. The passage notes that while some hailed it as a breakthrough, others warned of its dangers
using cautionary myths like Icarus. Hence, it was not consistently celebrated, and the statement
misrepresents the tone.
Statement 3 is correct. The author writes of the fear that editing genomes may be driven by
"instrumentalism" — a mechanistic mindset — and questions whether such interventions “uplift nature” or
merely refashion it “in our own image.” The ambivalence and concern about ethical mindset are clearly
indicated.
Hence b.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.52)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. The passage clearly suggests that "medical hesitation rooted in legal ambiguity
can itself become a form of violence," referencing Savita’s death. This supports the inference that such
ambiguity can lead to ethically condemnable outcomes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage states that many ancient societies used symbolic thresholds rather
than biological ones — it does not say this was universal. The phrase "moral consideration was not
uniformly tethered" suggests variation, not consensus. Hence, this is a misreading.
Statement 3 is correct. The author explicitly states that the abortion debate is “not merely a tug-of-war
between rights,” and is rooted in “civilizational anxieties… metaphysical and ethical tensions.” This
confirms the broader scope of the argument beyond mere legality.
Statement 4 is correct. The anecdote of Savita is used precisely to showcase the tragic consequences of
letting moral absolutism delay or deny urgent medical decisions. The phrase “medically necessary
abortion… legal ambiguity… death from sepsis” supports this view.
Hence c
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.53)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. The passage acknowledges that materialism is not to be entirely indicted, and can
enhance dignity “especially for those historically denied access to basic goods.” This supports the idea
that material acquisition may contribute to self-worth under certain circumstances.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage notes that “individuals curate not just lifestyles but self-worth
through possessions,” indicating that material goods play a significant role in shaping identity in the
modern age.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The passage contrasts Bhutan’s Gross National Happiness with the global
emphasis on GDP. The phrase “a radical deviation from the global norm” clearly shows that Bhutan’s
philosophy does not align with the dominant paradigm.
Statement 4 is correct. The author refers to materialism as displacing deeper values, noting that
fulfillment becomes a “simulacrum” and societies focused on “having” rather than “being” are prone to

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
“ethical apathy.” This implies that the real danger lies in what materialism replaces — meaningful
psychological or moral frameworks.
Hence c.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.54)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer
The above code is like, the alphabets at odd positions are allotted a number double of their position and
alphabets at odd position are numbered same as their position.

Letter Position in Alphabet Odd/Even Code

T 20 Even 20
R 18 Even 18
A 1 Odd 2
N 14 Even 14
Q 17 Odd 34
U 21 Odd 42
I 9 Odd 18
L 12 Even 12
I 9 Odd 18
T 20 Even 20

Y 25 50
odd

Now, add up all the codes:

20 + 18 + 2 + 14 + 34 + 42 + 18 + 12 + 18 + 20 + 50 = 248
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.55)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

[24]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |

[25]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Hence b.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.56)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
X's distance per day forms an arithmetic progression (AP):
First term (a1) = 20, Common difference (d1) = -1
Distance by A on Day 1= 20 km
On Day 2= 19 Km
Day 3 = 18 Km
and so on..
Y's distance per day forms another AP:
First term (a2) = 8, Common difference (d2) = +2
On day 1 B travels= 8 Km
On day 2 = 10 Km
On Day 3 = 12 Km
and so on..
Together, Both A and B have to travel 200Km
Computing the cumulative distance each day until their combined total ≥ 200 km.
On day 1= 20+8=28km
On day 2= 19+10=29 km
On day 3= 18+12= 30 Km
On day 4= 17+14= 31 Km
On day 5= 16+16=32 Km
On day 6= 15+18=33 Km
Total Sum of distance covered by both A and B in 6 days= 183 Km
Checking further
On day 7= 14+20=34 km
Total Sum of distance covered by both A and B in 7 days = 217 Km
Hence X and Y must have met on the 7th day.
Answer: (c) 7 days
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.57)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer

[26]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
1. x + y = 21 … (i)
2. x² + h² = 100 … (ii)
3. y² + h² = 289 … (iii)
From (ii) and (iii):
y² - x² = 189
=> (y + x)(y - x) = 189
Since x + y = 21 from (i), we get:
y - x = 9 … (iv)
From (i) and (iv):
y = 15 cm, x = 6 cm
Using (ii):
h = 8 cm
Hence, area of the larger triangle ADC = (1/2) × 8 × 15 = 60 sq. cm.
Hence c.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.58)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Let the initial number of tankers be x.
Then, each tanker would carry: 60,00,000 / x liters
When 4 more tankers were used,
Each tanker now carries: 60,00,000 / (x + 4)
Now,
[60,00,000 / x] - [60,00,000 / (x + 4)] = 50,000
Divide all terms by 1000 for simplification:
[6000 / x] - [6000 / (x + 4)] = 50
=> [(6000(x + 4) - 6000x) / (x(x + 4))] = 50
=> (6000x + 24000 - 6000x) / (x(x + 4)) = 50
=> 24000 / (x(x + 4)) = 50
=> x(x + 4) = 24000 / 50 = 480
=> x^2 + 4x - 480 = 0
Solving the quadratic:
x^2 + 4x - 480 = 0
=> x = [-4 ± √(16 + 1920)] / 2
=> x = [-4 ± √1936] / 2
=> x = [-4 ± 44] / 2
=> x = 20
The number of tankers initially planned to be used is 20.
Answer: (c) 20
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

[27]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Q.59)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Setup cost = Rs 1000
Running cost = Rs 120 per 100 students => Rs 120 * 9 = Rs 1080 for 900 students
Benches, boards, etc. = Rs 0.60 * 900 = Rs 540
Total expected cost = 1000 + 1080 + 540 = Rs 2620
Actual students = 784
Revenue from students = 784 * Rs 2.75 = Rs 2156
Profit needed = 10% of Rs 2620 = Rs 262
Total amount needed = Rs 2620 + Rs 262 = Rs 2882
Grant required = Rs 2882 - Rs 2156 = Rs 726
Answer: (d) Rs 726
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.60)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Given:
- Incomes of David : Michael : Adam = 4x : 5x : 6x
- Spending of David : Michael : Adam = 6y : 7y : 8y
- David saves one fourth of his income.
David's income = 4x
David's saving = (1/4) * 4x = x
So, David's expenditure = 4x - x = 3x
From expenditure ratio, David's expenditure = 6y
So, 3x = 6y => x = 2y
Now calculate the savings using x = 2y
David:
- Income = 4x = 8y
- Expenditure = 6y
- Saving = 8y - 6y = 2y
Michael:
- Income = 5x = 10y
- Expenditure = 7y
- Saving = 10y - 7y = 3y
Adam:
- Income = 6x = 12y
- Expenditure = 8y
- Saving = 12y - 8y = 4y
Final Ratio of Savings: David : Michael : Adam = 2y : 3y : 4y = 2 : 3 : 4
Answer: (a) 2 : 3 : 4
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

[28]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Q.61)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement a is incorrect. The passage states “Land reforms have consequently reshaped nearly every
country, influencing the distribution of resources”. However, the statement does not best reflect the
central idea of the passage as it does not highlight the inequalities that stem from unequal distribution of
land resources.
Statement b is incorrect. While the passage states “Growing populations and the increasing need for
food and resources have fuelled an ever-rising demand for land”, the statement does not best reflect the
central idea of the passage as it does not highlight its consequences.
Statement c is correct. The statement best reflects the central of the passage as it provides a solution
to address social inequalities that arose due to land reforms. It is mentioned in the passage as
“addressing challenges stemming from these changes (due to land reforms) will require a deep
understanding of their roots and the development of policies that transform land into a catalyst for
positive social progress.”
Statement d is incorrect. Although the passage states “Land reforms have consequently reshaped nearly
every country, influencing the” “dynamics of gender and social inequalities”. However, the statement does
not best reflect the central idea of the passage as it does not provide a solution to decrease these
inequalities.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.62)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The passage does not explicitly mention commercialization of space
operations. It focuses on the historic success of Skyroot Aerospace's launch and the opening of doors for
other private players. However, there is no clear link between this event and commercialization of space
operation. Hence assumption is too far fetched and vague.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage mentions that the success of Skyroot's mission is expected to open
doors for many others, which implies increased participation from other private companies. Hence this
assumption is correct.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.63)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The passage explains that weather derivatives offer payouts based on specific
weather conditions, while traditional insurance compensates for damages caused by adverse weather.
From here we cannot say that weather derivatives are necessarily more effective than traditional
insurance. Therefore, this assumption is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage clearly states that weather derivatives depend on reliable weather
data and a comprehensive understanding of financial markets for their utility to be effective. Hence this
assumption is correct.

[29]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.64)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer
Let the radius of the larger sphere be R and of the smaller sphere be r. Thus, r= R/20
Volume of larger sphere = 4/3 πR^3
Volume of smaller sphere = 4/3 π(R/20)^3
Volume of larger sphere lost due to melting = 25%
Volume of larger sphere left = 4/3 πR^3*75/100
Number of small spheres possible = Volume left/Volume of smaller spheres
= [4/3 πR^3*75/100] / [4/3 π(R/20)^3] = 6000
Surface area of the larger sphere =4πR^2
Surface area of the smaller sphere = 4π(R/20)^2
Surface area of all the smaller spheres = 6000*4π(R/20)^2
Therefore, ratio of the surface areas = [6000*4π(R/20)^2] / (4πR^2) = 15:1
Thus, number of litres required to paint all the smaller spheres = 15*24 = 360 litres
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.65)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer
One Head Coach can be selected from 3 eligible candidates in 3C1 ways
5 Assistant Coaches can be selected from 7 remaining candidates in 7C5 ways
Number of possible ways appointments can be made= 3C1 x 7C5 = 3x 21=63
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.66)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer
As each belt is cut into 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 pieces and each of the pieces will have an integral length.
Therefore, the length of the least possible length of each part must be integral multiple of 6, 7, 8, 9, and 10
(i.e. LCM of 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10)
LCM=23×32×5×7=8×9×5×7 = 2520
LCM = 2520
Therefore, the total length of the belt must be at least 6 × 2520 = 15120 m
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

[30]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Q.67)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer
Let
Apricots be denoted by a
Bananas be denoted by b
Carrots be denoted by c
As, we are given, the total cost of 8 apricots, 12 bananas and 4 carrots is equal to half the
total cost of 4 apricots, 12 bananas and 20 carrots, so,
(8a + 12b + 4c)x2= 4a + 12b + 20c
16 a + 24b + 8c= 4a + 8b + 20c
12a + 12b =12 c
So, a + b= c
Hence Total cost of one carrot = Total cost of one apricot + Total cost of one banana.
Hence Statement 2 is correct
Analysing the statements 1, we get
6a + 10b + 18c = 8a + 12b + 16c
Or 2a + 2b= 2c
Hence, it also equates to a + b= c.
Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.68)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer
We are given an expression:
E=a+b - c
Where:
a, b, c are distinct prime numbers, each less than 20
A prime number is a positive integer, greater than 1, whose only factors are 1 and itself.
Primes Numbers < 20: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19
If we take, a= 19, b= 7 and c= 2, we get
19 + 7 – 2= 24= Hence 4 is the unit digit, so Statement 1 is correct
If we take, a= 5, b= 13 and c= 2, we get
5 + 13 – 2= 16= Hence 6 is the unit digit, so Statement 2 is correct
If we take, a= 13, b= 7 and c= 2, we get
13+ 7 – 2= 18= Hence 8 is the unit digit, so Statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence, Only statement 1 and 2 is correct.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.69)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer
743 and 785, when divided by the same number, leave the same remainder 1

[31]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
We need to find how many such numbers can be used as divisors
Using the remainder property
If both numbers leave the same remainder 1, then: mathematically, we can express this as:
743 = a*d + 1
785 = b*d + 1
Where d is divisor, and a and b are some integers.
Subtracting these equations:
785 - 743= (b - a) x d
42 = (b- a) x d
This means that d must be a factor of 42.
The factors of 42 are: 1,2,3,6,7,14,21 and 42.
- If d = 1:
743/1 = 743 remainder 0
785/ 1 = 785 remainder 0
This doesn't work.
If d= 2, then
743/2 and 785/2 leaves a remainder 1
If d= 3, then
743/3= 247 + 2 as remainder
785/3= 261 + 2 as remainder
So, 3 doesn’t work
Similary, 6, 21 and 42 also don’t work, as they leave remainder of 5, 8 and 29
So, only 2, 7 and 14 work
Hence, Number of such divisors = 3
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.70)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer
On Day 1 (Ananya's birthday), Sunayna saves ₹1
Each following day, she saves ₹2 more than the previous day
Day 1: ₹1
Day 2: ₹3
Day 3: ₹5
Day 4: ₹7
This is an arithmetic progression (A.P.) with:
First term: a = 1
Common difference: d = 2
Considering that one month can have a maximum of 31 days
Since, the perfect square and perfect cube of numbers in the range of 1 to 31 are- 1, 64 and 729.
So, the cost of cycle must be Rs. 729
Using the formula for the A. P.-
S= n/2[2xa + (n-1)xd]
n=number of days.
Here, we have to find n
S= 729

[32]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
729= n/2[2x1 + (n-1)x2]
729= n/2[2 + 2n -2]
729= n2
n= 27
So, on 27th day, she was given cycle by her mother.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.71)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct.The passage states: "Without active citizen participation and investment in local
solutions, large-scale reforms may remain ineffective despite policy intent." This clearly implies that
policy initiatives alone (like Swachh Bharat or EPR frameworks)—which are mostly top-down and
centralised—are not enough. The need for local and decentralised approaches is emphasized.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage clearly states “Meaningful progress depends on decentralised waste
management systems and behavioural shifts at the community level.” and “Without active citizen
participation and investment in local solutions, large-scale reforms may remain ineffective despite policy
intent.” From here we can assume statement 2 is correct.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.72)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement a is incorrect. The passage explicitly criticizes the idea that governance/institutional flaws
are the root cause. The author argues that legal reforms treat symptoms, not causes. Hence this is an
incorrect inference.
Statement b is correct. The passage mentions - Until integrity is valued not just in principle but in
practice, corruption will persist not as an exception, but as a reflection of what society tolerates—or even
expects. Hence this statement best captures the core philosophical claim that corruption stems from
moral resignation and social acceptance.
Statement c is incorrect. The passage never mentions civic engagement or disengagement as the key
factor. It's an external idea, not rooted in the passage. Hence this is outside the scope of the passage.
Statement d is incorrect. The passage mentions “Enduring change requires a cultural shift in how
individuals relate to power, responsibility, and fairness.” It advocates for ethical, and societal reform—not
spiritual intervention. Also, usage of absolute language (“only be addressed”) that the author never uses or
implies, makes it incorrect.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.73)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

[33]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Statement a is incorrect. This directly contradicts the passage, which argues that profit-at-all-cost
cultures can lead to mental health issues and long-term inefficiency. The phrase “bound to succeed” is
overly stated making this statement incorrect inference.
Statement b is correct. The passage mentions “A culture that rewards long hours, constant availability,
and uncritical obedience may boost short-term productivity, but it erodes creativity, trust, and mental
health”. Also it mentions “Ironically, the obsession with efficiency can lead to inefficiency, as disengaged
workers rarely produce meaningful or sustainable results.” Hence this statement best reflects the most
logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage.
Statement c is incorrect. The passage argues that a healthier, more empathetic culture is possible. It
doesn’t suggest that dissatisfaction is unavoidable, but rather a result of poor choices made by leadership.
Hence this statement is incorrect inference.
Statement d is incorrect. The author critiques imbalanced performance metrics, not the concept of
measurement itself. Nowhere does the passage advocate abandoning performance evaluation entirely.
Hence this statement is incorrect in itself.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

Q.74)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer
Let's say the original number of carpenter is m.
We can express the relationship between carpenter, days, and work as:
(Number of carpenter) x (Number of days) = (Amount of work)
For the original scenario:
m x 8d = Amount of work
For the new scenario, let n be the new number of carpenters:
n x 6d = Amount of work
Since the amount of work is the same in both cases:
m x 8d =n x 6d
We can express n in terms of m:
n = (mx8d) /6d=(4/3)m
The increase in the number of men is:
n -m=(4/3)m-m=(1/3)m
To express this as a percentage:
((1/3)m/m)×100=(1/3)×100=33.33%
Therefore, the number of men should be increased by 33.33%.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.75)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Let the present age of Sumanta and Tamal be 6x and 2y respectively.
Now, y - x = 6x - 2y
⇒ 3y = 7x ⇒ y = (7/3)x
It is given that y - x = 8

[34]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
So, (7/3)x - x = 8 ⇒ (4/3)x = 8 ⇒ x = 6
Therefore, 6x = 36 and 2y = 2 × (7/3 × 6) = 28
Hence, the sum of their present ages is 64 years.
Hence d.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.76)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer
Let the two-digit number be: 10x + y
where:
x = tens digit
y = units digit
and x, y € {1, 2, ... , 9} (since it's a two-digit number)
Interchanging digits gives:
10y + x
We are told the difference between the original number and the reversed number is 27, so:
[(10x+y) -(10y+x)] = 27
Simplify the expression:
We get,
9x- 9y= 27
x-y= 3
Hence, statement 2 is correct, as their difference is fixed.
Now, let analyse, statement 1:
Possibilities for x-y =3:
x=4,y=1= 10x + y = 41
x=5,y=2= 10x + y =52
x=6,y=3= 10x + y =63
x =7,y=4 = 10x + y =74
x=8,y=5= 10x + y = 85
x=9, y=6 = 10x + y= 96
So, there is no unique 2 digit number in this case. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.77)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer
CP of P= Rs 250, CP of Q=Rs 400
MP of P= 130% of 250 = Rs 325
MP of Q = 140% of 400 =Rs 560
From Statement I:
SP of Q= 2 times CP of P= 2 * 250= Rs 500
This is insufficient to answer the question alone.
From Statement II:

[35]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Discount given on item P is Rs 50 more than discount on item Q
This also is insufficient to answer the question alone.
Combining information from both Statement I and II:
Discount on item Q= 560 - 500= Rs 60
Discount on Item P= 60 + 50= Rs 110
SP of P= 325-110= Rs 215
SP of Q= Rs 500 (from statement 1)
Total CP= 250 + 400 = Rs 650
Total SP= 215 + 500 = Rs 715
Profit= 715-650= Rs 65
Profit %= (65/650) * 100 =10%
Hence , The Question can be answered by using both Statements together, but cannot be
answered using either Statement alone.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.78)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement I: Smallest value of prime number n for which n+4 is also a prime number is when n=3 , Next
prime number is 7. Also n+8 is 11, which is also a prime number.
Statement II: the smallest prime number, which has a difference of 6 with the very next prime number ,
which in turn has a difference of 6 with its next prime number is 11, next prime number is 17 and next to
that is 23.
Note that both the statements are yielding two different values of n, and the Question is asking a Unique
Value of n.
Also, by using both statements together also, we cannot get a unique value of n.
Hence the Question cannot be answered even by using both statements together.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.79)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Statement I: x is a multiple of 14.Let x =14k.
Also, x+y=z,
But this alone cannot answer the question.
Statement II: LCM of two prime numbers is given by their product. Therefore LCM(y, z)=yz=527.
The two coprime factors of 527 are 17 and 31. Therefore z=31 and y=17.
But this alone cannot answer the question.
Now, Considering both statements together
It is also know that x + y = z.
x=z - y
x=31-17=14
x=14 which is certainly a multiple of 14 as per Statement I. Hence both Statement I and II are required to
find the value of x.

[36]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.80)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
From the statement I:
Let the number the girls be a , then the number of boys = 120% of a = 6a/5
From the question : 6a/5-a= a/5=5
a=25
No of boys= 30
We don’t have any data regarding money, therefore it is not possible to determine the answer by this
statement
From statement II:
Let the total money spent by all the girls= Rs b
Then , the total money spent by all the boys = Rs b + 400
From here, the question cannot be answered.
Now, From I and II
We could not conclude the value of b therefore , without knowing the value of b, we could not move
ahead to answer the question.
Hence the Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

[37]

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PTS 2025 CSAT Simulator Test 6 Solution Eng

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PTS 2025 CSAT Simulator Test 6 Solution Eng

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 - Solutions |

Hence, in the v liters of mixture in B which is transferred to A,

Physics classes are held on Wednesday.

4. M is fourth left of O and R is third right of M.

Letter Position in Alphabet Odd/Even Code

Now, add up all the codes:

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