CLASS XII- 2021-2022

LEGAL STUDIES (074)

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

TERM 1

Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 40

General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION A: Knowledge + Understanding

● This section contains 24 questions. A student has to attempt 20 questions out of 24
questions given.
● There is no negative marking.

S.NO. QUESTION MARKS

1 Which of the following provisions of the constitution was carved during its
formation, because India was transitioning from a feudal to democratic order:

a. Fundamental rights
b. Fundamental duties
c. Independence of judiciary
d. Federalism

2 Indian police have extensive powers for crime detection and investigation. But
such powers should not impinge upon the rights of accused. This right has been
guaranteed under:

a. Article 20(3)
b. Article 21
c. Article 22
d. Article 20(4)

3 Which of the following is not a part of Article 21?

a. Right to life
b. Right to food

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 c. Right to livelihood
d. Right to constitutional remedies

4 Transfer of property by exchange can happen only by way of:

a. Sale
b. Lease
c. Gift
d. Will

5 An offer lapses by _______________.

a. Discharge
b. Revocation
c. Performance
d. Breach

6 Under criminal law, drug trade would fall under which category of crime

a. Crime against person

b. Crime against property
c. White collar crime
d. Organised crime

7 Segregating the wrongdoer from the rest of the society by giving him
imprisonment serves which objective of criminal law?

a. Retribution
b. Incapacitation
c. Rehabilitation
d. Restoration

8 When certain terms or all terms of a contract are cancelled it is known as

a. Novation
b. Rescission
c. Waiver
d. Merger

9 In automobile insurance, all drivers are required to pay insurance premiums,

which are then used by insurance companies to compensate victims. In the
above case, which object or purpose of Tort law is being achieved?

a. Deterrence so that the victims can be compensated for a wrongful act

b. Fair and Just response to compensate the victims and to satisfy the ends

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 of justice
c. Loss-spreading to a wider community to compensate the victims
d. There is no object or purpose of tort law that is being achieved

10 Section 89 of Civil Procedure Code only deals with _________.

a. Mediation with arbitration

b. Pre-litigation mediation
c. Appellate mediation
d. Court referred mediation

11 An informal dispute resolution method where the two parties discuss the issues
before a neutral third party who will assist the parties to reach an agreement

a. Mediation
b. Arbitration
c. Conciliation
d. Judicial determination

12 The Arbitration and Conciliation laws in India have been largely influenced by
significant movements of judicial reforms and conflict management across the
world. The Indian Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is modelled on which
laws?

a. Universal Declaration of Human Rights

b. United Nations Commission on International Trade Law Model law on
International Commercial Arbitration
c. United Nations Commission on International Trade LawModel law on
Arbitration
d. Vienna Convention

13 Disputes in Lok Adalat are resolved by:

a. Mediation only
b. Negotiation only
c. Arbitral process
d. Mediation, negotiation or through arbitral process

14 Which one of the following provisions shows that Indian Constitution is Federal?

a. A Written and rigid Constitution

b. An Independent Judiciary
c. Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
d. Distribution of powers between centre and the States

15 Separation of powers cannot be strictly applied to ___________ form of

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 Government.

a. Parliamentary
b. Presidential
c. Monarchy
d. Democratic

16 Who among the following is the chairman of Lok Adalat?

a. Sitting/Retired Judge
b. Lawyer
c. Activist
d. Retired Judge only

17 The objective of awarding damages by the court is to put the injured party in the
same position as he would have been if the contract had not been breached.
This is known as

a. Doctrine of Restitution
b. Doctrine of Retribution
c. Doctrine of Election
d. Doctrine of Lis Pendens

18 The Constitution of India gives vast powers to the Court and ensures
independence of the judiciary. Which of the following statement is incorrect with
regard to independence of judiciary

a. The judges cannot be easily removed from their office except for proven
misbehaviour or incapacity
b. Judges derive their salaries from the consolidated fund of India
c. Judges are provided with security of tenure till they reach retirement age
d. The conduct of judges can be discussed in the parliament or state
legislature

19 Which form of arbitration has been defined specifically under section 2(1)(f) of
the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

a. Domestic Arbitration
b. Institutional Arbitration
c. International Commercial Arbitration
d. Foriegn Arbitration

20 Which one of the following tribunals flourishing in the Vedic age specialised in
the disputes of family, community, tribes and castes?

a. Kula
b. Shreni

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 c. Puga
d. Panchayat

21 What is meant by Trespass to Chattel?

a. Damage to a person’s personal moveable property

b. Damage to a person’s personal immovable property
c. Transfer of moveable property to another person
d. Physically invading another person’s property

22 Which of the following is NOT true with respect to independence of the judiciary?

a. It strengthens the role of judiciary as a watchdog of democracy

b. It ensures fair trial
c. It protects fundamental rights
d. It maintains supremacy of executive

23 ‘The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 aims to combat acts of bribery and
corruption of public servants-a term that has been given a fairly wide
interpretation in the Act.’ As per the legislation, an enquiry of corruption can be
initiated against which of the following persons?

a. Against the ex-prime minister of India accused of corruption in matters

pertaining to international relations
b. Against the ex- prime minister of India accused of corruption in matters
relating to internal security.
c. Against any person who has been a member of either house of
parliament.
d. Against any member of Parliament against whom allegation of corruption
is raised for anything said or a vote given by him in the parliament

24 As per Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, immovable property

includes

a. Standing Timber
b. Grass
c. Land
d. Growing crops

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 SECTION B-Application and Other higher order thinking
(analysis/ synthesis/ evaluation)

● This section contains 24 questions. A student has to attempt 20 questions out of 24

questions given.
● Each question is worth 1 mark
● There is no negative marking.

S.NO. QUESTION MARKS

1 Mr. Satish Kumar was a Supreme Court judge. It was discovered that he was
embroiled in misappropriation of funds. An inquiry under the Judges Inquiry Act
was done by a committee of three members, of which

a. Two are judges -one from Supreme Court and one Chief Justice of High
Court
b. Three are judges- two judges from Supreme Court and one from High
Court
c. Two are judges- one Chief Justice of India and one Chief Justice of High
Court
d. Three are judges- one judge of Supreme Court and two judges from High
Court

2 The dispute regarding the sharing of water resources between the State of Tamil
Nadu and Kerala with respect to Mullaperiyar dam can be brought before the
Supreme Court under exercise of which jurisdiction?

a. Advisory jurisdiction
b. Original jurisdiction
c. Appellate jurisdiction
d. Judicial review

3 Rajesh served in the Indian army as a commando. He was asked to report

for an urgent mission. He failed to report. A disciplinary action was taken against
him. While pronouncing the punishment, the court martial must employ which of
the following principles?

a. Principle of proportionality
b. Principle of reasonableness
c. Principle of legitimate expectation
d. Principle of judicial review

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4 Monica wanted to gift her farmhouse in Chandigarh to her sister Somita. She
offered the gift to Somita, but before it could be accepted by her, unfortunately,
Somita passed away. Which of the following would be true with respect to the gift?

a. Gift is valid
b. Gift is void
c. Gift will pass on to the legal heirs of Somita
d. Gift is voidable at the option of Somita’s legal heirs

5 A property belonging to Rajeev is in litigation. Rajeev is expecting to get

judgement in his favour. Can he sell the property to Pankaj or any other person
before the judgement is given?

a. Yes, Rajeev is expecting a positive judgement

b. Yes, but only to Pankaj
c. No, Doctrine of lis pendens applies
d. The court will decide

6 Aman contracts to take in cargo for Bittu at a foreign port. The Government of
Aman’s country afterwards declares war against the country in which the port is
situated.

a. The contract cannot become void when war is declared

b. The contract becomes partly void when war is declared
c. The contract becomes void when war is declared
d. The contract is valid under all conditions

7 Bimal in a fit of anger killed his wife over a heated argument. In a state of
drunkenness, he confessed to the crime before his own brother who is also a
magistrate. The statement made by Bimal before his brother would be regarded
as:

a. Judicial Confession as it is made before the magistrate

b. Extra-judicial confession as it is made before his brother
c. The statement is not a confession as it is not made in a fit state of mind
d. The statement will be regarded as admission

8 Ankit was accused in a case of theft and a criminal action was initiated against
him. While the trial was pending in the court, Ankit approached the prosecution
and tried to negotiate the matter. He agreed to plead guilty in return for a lesser
punishment. Choose the correct option with respect to the above arrangement:

a. Theft is a compoundable offence

b. Theft is a non compoundable offence

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 c. This is an example of plea bargaining
d. This is an example of summary trial

9 Sandeep and Sarika were involved in a business transaction where a dispute

arose and the same was referred to arbitration. The award given by the arbitrator
was in the form of a wager. Identify the ground on which the award can be set
aside:

a. Bias of arbitrator
b. Dispute outside the scope of arbitration agreement
c. Award violates public policy
d. Improper appointment of arbitrator

10 Match the following:

List I List II

A Motive 1 Necessary requirement to

establish criminal liability

B Attempt 2 Driving force behind

commission of an act

C Knowledge of the act to 3 The stage at which criminal

be unlawful liability arises since it has
gone beyond preparation

D Mens rea 4 Not necessary

a. A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1

b. A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
c. A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2
d. A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3

11 Assertion (A): A contract lawyer would look up the Contract Act to look for rules to
be applicable in a given fact situation. A tort lawyer would look for rules as
developed by courts in similar cases.

Reason (R): Torts are mostly a common law subject;

a. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true and R is false
d. A is false and R is true

12 Assertion(A): In an adversarial system, the parties in a legal proceeding develop

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 their own theory of the case and gather evidence to support their claims.

Reason(R): In an Adversarial system, cross-examination is an effective way to test

the credibility of the witnesses presented.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is correct but R is incorrect
d. A is incorrect but R is correct

13 Why do most accused persons not lead defence evidence in India?

a. Accused persons are mostly poor and do not have resources to hire a
good lawyer to defend them
b. In India, the prosecution has to prove the offence and the degree of proof
required is beyond reasonable doubt
c. The judge plays a proactive role and investigates the case so accused
persons are not required to lead evidence
d. Accused persons depend on legal aid so are unable to lead defence

14 Daffodil company takes Marigold company to court over its honey packaging
accusing it of imitation of Daffodil’s product. The packaging is protected under:

a. Patent
b. Copyright
c. Trademark
d. Design

15 Ravi agrees to give Rs. 5000/- to Sam if he wins the online ludo game with him.
Sam agrees to pay the same amount to Ravi if he wins the game.

a. This contract is invalid as it amounts to wagering

b. This contract is invalid as online ludo is banned
c. This contract is valid as it is a contingent contract
d. This contract is valid as there is reciprocal promise

16 Ajay was facing Chitra and Binny’s back was towards Chitra, who was aiming a
gun towards Binny. Ajay informed Binny of the same and even though Chitra did
not fire a shot, Binny sues Chitra for tort of assault. Choose the best option:

a. Chitra is not liable for assault as Binny had her back towards Chitra and
she could not perceive the threat
b. Chitra is not liable for assault as there was no imminent threat
c. Chitra is liable as through Ajay an imminent threat was created in the mind
of Binny
d. Chitra is liable for battery

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17 Assertion(A): The major advantage of an ombudsman is that he or she avoids the
conflicts of interest inherent in self-policing.

Reason(R): Duties of an ombudsman are to investigate complaints and attempt to

resolve them, usually through recommendations (binding or not) or mediation.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is correct but R is incorrect
d. A is incorrect but R is correct

18 The declining quality of judicial service and inability of judges to properly effectuate
the stipulated judicial workload has been attributed to

a. Relatively lower salary

b. Relatively early retirement age
c. Enhanced retirement age
d. Collegium model

19 Dinkar wants to be appointed as a District Judge in the state of Delhi. Under

Article 233, the governor decides on the appointment in consultation with the High
Court. The minimum qualification required is:

a. Eminent jurist
b. Member of judicial service of the state
c. Minimum 10 years experience at the bar
d. Minimum 5 years as Advocate of High Court

20 Mr. Lal and his friend, Mr. Kumar entered into a partnership to carry on the
business of creating digital products like print-on-demand posters, greeting cards,
T-shirts etc. and online courses. After a year of launch of successful partnership
firm, creative differences and other issues arose between Mr. Lal and Mr. Kumar
that created a rift between them. To help resolve their dispute, Mr. Borwanker, the
Secretary of a Law firm, is facilitating Mr. Lal and Mr. Kumar to exchange ideas
and to give possible alternative solutions. Mr. Borwanker is resorting to which
dispute resolution method?

a. Arbitration
b. Negotiation
c. Mediation
d. Conciliation

21 Amy is a young lawyer representing her client in a criminal case. She is preparing
for examination-in-chief as the system requires strict interpretation of the law. The
case will be evaluated based on evidence presented before the judge. She is a
practicing lawyer in which country?

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 a. UK
b. Europe
c. Russia
d. Germany

22 Kishore was contacted by a customer representative of a digital wallet company,

MTM. The representative informed Kishore that his KYC is due and to complete
the KYC, Kishore is required to download an application and submit the form with
his card details. Kishore downloaded the application and submitted the form with
his card details. Immediately after submitting the form, Kishore’s card was charged
for Rs.5 lacs. Kishore immediately called the helpline number of MTM and
informed them about the charge on his card. However, MTM’s representative said
that he cannot help Kishore in this regard. What remedy does Kishore have?

a. File a criminal case against MTM

b. File a complaint with Ombudsman
c. File a complaint with Lokpal
d. There is no remedy

23 The Central government legislates on a matter listed under the State list given in
the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court determines
that such an action is incompatible with the constitution and is ______.

a. Valid
b. Invalid
c. Voidable
d. Justiciable

24 A person of 62 years has been appointed to fill a public office whereas the
retirement age is 60 years. Which immediate remedy is available before the High
Court?

a. Writ of quo-warranto
b. Writ of habeas Corpus
c. Writ of mandamus
d. Writ of prohibition

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 SECTION C - Case Based Questions

● This section contains 12 questions. A student has to attempt 10 questions out of 12

questions given.
● Each question is worth 1 mark
● There is no negative marking.

S.NO. QUESTION MARKS

1 In 1979, A Supreme Court bench headed by Justice P.N. Bhagwati declared

the right to free legal aid and expeditious trial for the prisoners, who were
stuck in a Bihar Jail, which ultimately led to their release. This became a
landmark case as it established the role of being an activist for the Supreme
Court, in the form of:

a. Appellate Jurisdiction
b. Advisory Jurisdiction
c. Public Interest Litigation
d. Original Jurisdiction

2
Mr. Akash stood as an independent candidate in the State Assembly
elections. On losing, he raised an objection to the counting of the votes and
thus an election dispute arose. He brought the dispute before a mediator, Mr.
Verma, but Mr. Verma expressed his incapacity to mediate the matter. For
the given situation, choose the correct statement.

a. Election disputes are expressly excluded from the scope of mediation

b. Mr. Verma should mediate the matter as it is the best suited
alternative dispute resolution mechanism
c. Mr. Verma should not mediate the matter as the outcome of
mediation is not binding
d. Mr. Verma should mediate the matter only when it is court referred

3 Mrs. Mala, an employee in the State Telecom Department, aggrieved by the

denial of promotion by the department, approached the State Administrative
Tribunal. The Tribunal ruled in favour of the department. Mrs. Mala wants to
appeal against the order of the Tribunal. Which forum can she approach to
resolve her dispute?

a. District Court
b. Division bench of the Supreme Court

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 c. Division bench of the High Court
d. Central Administrative Tribunal

4 Herbicure Limited, a paint manufacturing company advertised their soil proof

paint, Mericuren and claimed that the coating of this paint would prevent
termite attack for a minimum period of 2 years after applying the paint. The
company also claimed that it would give a reward of Rs. 10,000 to anyone
who purchased the paint and followed the instructions for the application of
the paint and still got a termite attack. The company deposited an amount of
Rs.10 lacs in State Bank of India towards the reward. Ms. Shruti, upon
seeing the advertisement, purchased the paint and applied it as per the
instructions. Within a year of applying the paint, she saw a termite attack on
her walls. What established the fact that the company had any real intention
to enter into a legal relationship with anyone who accepted the offer?

a. The offer of a reward of Rs. 10,000

b. Putting up of the advertisement
c. Deposit of the Rs. 10 lacs in the bank
d. Instructions given in the advertisement

5 Article 368 of the Constitution confers power to the Parliament to amend the
Constitution. Article 13 (2) states that the state shall not make any law which
takes away the Fundamental Rights. To overcome this restriction, the
Parliament adopted the 24th amendment to the Constitution which altered
articles 13 and 368 in such a way that allowed itself with unlimited powers of
amendment, including the authority to amend fundamental rights.
Identify the case which restricted this power in 1973 by establishing the
doctrine of Basic structure

a. Maneka Gandhi V. Union of India

b. Three Judges cases
c. Keshavananda Bharati V. State of Kerala
d. Hussainara Khatoon V. State of Bihar

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Mr. Kapur runs a chemical fertiliser company. One day, he received a notice
revoking his license to run the fertiliser factory. He was aggrieved that he did
not get a chance to represent his case and the inspector who revoked the
license stated that an opportunity to represent his case could not be given as
it was a policy decision to shut down all the chemical fertiliser factories in
different phases. In light of the landmark case on ‘audi alteram partem’,
identify the principle established by the court.

a. Principle of equity
b. Principle of fairness
c. Principle of post decisional hearing
d. Principle of reasonableness

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7
Sequentially arrange the events in accordance with the Three Judges Case
in matters of appointment of judges:

1.Executive has primacy in appointment of judges

2.Chief Justice of India has primacy in matters of appointment of judges

3.Collegium system is an integrated participatory consultative process

4.14th Law Commission report

a. 1,2,3,4
b. 4,1,2,3
c. 1,3,2,4
d. 4,3,2,1

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Sheela bought a packet of potato chips from the brand Crispy. While eating
the chips, she noticed a dead cockroach in the packet. Consequently, she fell
sick and sued the company, Crispy, for compensation. Which of the following
elements needs to be established by Sheela to win the claim against the
company?

a. Duty of care
b. Non natural use of land
c. Inherently dangerous activity
d. Intention

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The concept that an enterprise must be absolutely liable to compensate for
the harm and it should be no answer that the enterprise had taken all
reasonable care and that harm occurred without any negligence on its part,
was developed in which of the following case?

a. M.C. Mehta V. Shri Ram Foods and Fertilizer Industries

b. Kartar Singh V. State of Punjab
c. Shanta Bai V State of Bombay
d. Hussainara Khatoon V Union of India

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Match the following

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 1 In Re Sreerangayee A Extra Judicial Confession
case

2 State of Maharashtra v. B Mens rea must be read

Mayor Hans George into a statutory penal
provision unless
expressly excluded

3 Kartar Singh v. State of C Both Mens Rea and

Punjab actus reus required for
affixing criminal liability

4 Sahoo v. State of U.P. D Mens rea can only be

excluded if the
implementation of the
statute would be
otherwise defeated.

Choose the correct options

a. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

b. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
c. 2-C, 3-D, 4-A, 1-B
d. 1-D, 3-C, 2-B, 4-A

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Naina was the owner of a theatre. She rented out the theatre to her friend
Gita who further sub let the same to Anika. While Anika was preparing to use
the theatre, Naina interfered in her possession and to settle the matter, Anika
paid Naina 50 lakh rupees. Can Anika recover this money?:

a. Anika can recover the money as Naina had no right to interfere in her
possession
b. Anika cannot recover the money because it was a valid settlement
between them
c. Anika can recover the money because she had invested in the theatre
d. Anika can recover the money because Gita is not her friend

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Sheena was a builder. She constructed a shopping complex at the behest of
the District Collector on Government land and gave shops on lease to earn

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revenue. Ajit took a shop on rent and promised to pay 5% commission above
the rent. However later on he refused to pay the commission. Sheena sued
Ajit for breach of contract. Choose the best option:

a. Ajit is liable to pay as it was a valid contract

b. Ajit is not liable to pay as consideration was missing in this particular
promise
c. Ajit is not liable to pay as this was not a valid offer
d. Ajit is liable to pay as Sheena is related to the District Collector

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