1.

What will be the signal received from the patient after a 90 degree radiofrequency (RF)
pulse?
a. Alpha pulse
b. Free induction
c. A gradient echo
d. Magnetic transferred

2. Determine the condition that shows a radiographic appearance of the gastrointestinal tract
as having numerous thicker folds of the stomach above the diaphragm.
a. Esophageal achalasia
b. Gastric ulcer
c. Hiatal hernia
d. Esophageal varices

3. Survey meters can be used to

a. measure radioactivity
b. locate source of radiation
c. measure absorbed dose
d. measure equivalent dose of radiation workers

4. Which fast pulse sequence is often used with three-dimensional imaging to generate
T1-weighted images?
a. Echo planar imaging
b. Echo time
c. Gradient echo
d. Spin echo

5. Choose what is referred to as a spinal fusion.

a. Osteoplasty
b. Myoplasty
c. Orthosis
d. Spondylosyndesis

6. Point out the reason why, in radiation therapy, multileaf collimators, are different from
custom-shaped blocks.
a. Multileaf collimators produce step-like field edges, leakage can occur between leaves, can
only be used with limited field sizes
b. Multileaf collimators are easy to set-up, produce sharper penumbra, can be used with any
field size
c. Multileaf collimators are easy to remove and replace between patients, produce sharper field
edges, can be used with any field size
7. Identify the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below
it.
a. Spondylitis.
b. Spondylolisthesis
c. Spondylosis
d. Spondylolysis.

8. Identify which is an example of a radiosensitizer.

a. Hydroxyurea
b. Cysteine
c. Cysteamine
d. Thymine

9. MOST magnetic resonance images are formed by

a. an equilibrium relaxation
b. a back projection reconstruction
c. a resonance induction
d. a 2-dimensional Fourier transformation

10. What component of the collimator in a computed tomography imager controls patient dose
profile?
a. Pre-detector
b. Post-patient
c. Post-detector
d. Pre-patient

11. Point out a condition that is manifested by painful urination.

a. Micturition
b. Exacerbation
c. Dysuria
d. Anuria

12. The ring-shaped part of a computed tomography scanner is the

a. aperture
b. transformer
c. gantry
d. Couch

13. Identify the type of fracture that usually affects the 2nd and 3rd cervical vertebrae resulting
from acute hyperextension of the head on the neck.
a. Boxer's
b. Hangman's
c. Jefferson
d. Monteggia
14. Which of the following is a type of RF sequence that uses a single RF pulse of less than 90
degrees allowing for shorter repetition time (TR) and more rapid imaging.
a. Partial saturation
b. Inversion recovery
c. Spin-echo.
d. . Gradient echo

15. Determine the half-life of cobalt-60 beam.

a. 74 days
b. 5.26 years
c. 1600 years
d. 30.3 years

16. The patient support couch in a computed tomography is made of which of this low Z
material?
a. Polymer
b. Fiber glass
c. Carbon fiber
d. Polyester

17. Which of the following conditions shows presence of large amounts of gas and fluid in the
small and large intestines as the main radiographic appearance?
a. Chrons disease
b. Adynamic ileus
c. Regional enteritis.
d. Dynamic

18. Point out the condition that would manifest aspiration pneumonia.
a. Rib fracture
b. Vomiting
c. Drug reaction
d. Invasion of microorganism

19. Prior to the administration of intravenous contrast, you should assess the patient for?
a. Joint pain
b. Allergy to shellfish
c. GI complications
d. Lung function

20. Choose the isotopes that are suitable for performing radionuclide therapy.
I. I-131
II. P-32
III.Sm-153
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II and III

21. To form an axial image, the gathered data in computed tomography assembled into a

a. raw data
b. ray sum
c. pixel
d. voxel
Correct answer: MATRIX

22. Non-shadowing, non mobile echogenic foci seen within the gallbladder are most likely to
be?

a. Calculi
b. polyp
c. Sludge balls
d. Biliary gravels

23. What measure the ability of an imaging system to reproduce very small high contrast
objects (1mm)?
a. Spatial pulse length
b. Lateral resolution
c. Spatial resolution
d. Axial resolution

24. Select the conditions in which the percentage depth dose is dependent on.
a. Distance, field size, cGy/MU
b. Source skin distance, distance, treatment time
c. Energy, tissue density, treatment time
d. Field size, distance, energy

25. Select the thyroid carcinoma that can be evaluated using In-111 pentetreotide (OctreoScan).
a. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
b. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
c. Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma
d. Follicular thyroid carcinoma

26. Point out what would likely result to the near field length if a transducer element diameter
is doubled.
a. Unaffected
b. Doubled
c. Tripled
d. Quadrupled

27. Radioactive isotopes used in tandems and ovoids _____

a. Iridium 192
b. Cobalt 60
c. Strontium 90
d. Cesium 137

28. What is the half-life of cobalt-60 beam?

a. 30.3 years.
b. 1600 years
c. 5.26 years
d. 74 days

29. Determine the dose that is the result of electron incident beam as well as the backscattered
radiation (both electrons and photons) from the medium.
a. Percent
b. Electron
c. Depth
d. Surface

30. Identify the type of coil that is directly placed on the used in the imaging of superficial
structures.
a. Gradient
b. Magnetic
c. Saddle
d. Surface

31. Identify the principal reconstruction algorithm used in computed tomography scan.
a. 3D Fourier
b. 2D Fourier
c. Kernel
d. Filtered back projection

32. Which of the following radiographic positions will clearly demonstrate epiglottitis?
a. Neck lateral
b. Chest postero-anterior
c. neck postero-anterior
d. Chest antero-posterior

33. The main pathologic problem brought about by embolism is ______?

a. Edema
b. Infection
c. Inflammation
d. Obstruction

34. Different tissue attenuation values are averaged to produce one less accurate pixel reading.
The process is referred to as?
a. Multiplanar imaging
b. Beam hardening
c. Partial volume effect
d. Linear attenuation coefficient

35. Point out the purpose of computed tomography imaging system.

I. To detect and measure radiation transmitted through
II. To produce, shape, and filter the x-ray beam
III. To convert x-rays to digital data.

a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. I and III

36. Select the main potential for biological response from radiofrequency.
a. Induction of currents
b. Carcinogenesis
c. Polarization.
d. Tissue heating

37. Which organ irradiated will cause xerostomia(dry mouth) in radiation therapy?
a. . Floor of the tongue
b. Salivary glands
c. Throat
d. Upper chest

38. Identify the condition indicating inflammation of the small fluid-filled sacs that are located
around joints causing reduced friction.
a. Arthritis
b. Bursitis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Tendinitis

39. What are the advantages of neonatal cranial sonography versus computed tomography?
I. Can be done with a portable unit
II.No partial volume effect
III. No bone interference
a. I and III
b. I, II and III
c. I and II
d. II and III

40. What type of of therapy machine operates on the principle that an electron will accelerate
in a circular orbit in a changing magnetic field?
a. Linear accelerator
b. Cyclotron
c. Betatron
d. Magnetron

41. Which of the following radionuclide generator equilibrium relationship where the parent
t1/2 is a factor of 100-1000 times greater than the daughter t1/2?
a. Transient
b. Permanent
c. Secular
d. Eluate

42. Which of the following is also knows as “Seatbelt fracture”?

a. Hangman
b. Chance
c. Clay shoveler
d. Odontoid

43. Choose an example of a non malignant tumor.

a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Adenoma
c. Carcinoma
d. Sarcoma

44. Which gallbladder's segment is ultrasonographically observable at its neck closest to the
cystic duct?
a. Common bile duct
b. Hartmann's pouch
c. Sphincter of Oddi
d. Wursung duct

45. What is responsible for the increased detection of counts with positron emission
tomography (PET) compared to single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT).
a. Uniformity correction
b. Random coincidence
c. Electronic collimation
d. Absorptive collimation

46. Which of the following is an example of a radioprotector?

a. C. Methotrexate
b. B. Thiamine
c. A. Cysteamine
d. D. Halogenated pyrimidines

47. Which of the following collimators will magnify an image?

a. C. Converging
b. B. Diverging
c. D. High resolution
d. A. Flat field

48. Which of the following is the most effective means of measuring low levels of removable
radiation?
a. C. By performing wipe test
b. B. With a pocket dosimeter
c. A. By performing an area survey
d. D. With a TLD

49. Choose the BEST modality considered for staging the extent of tumor in the breast.
a. D. Magnetic resonance imaging
b. C. Radiography
c. B. Ultrasound
d. A. Computed tomography

50. Determine the thyroid carcinoma that can be effectively detected and staged through a
whole-body radiiodine scintigraphy.
a. A. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
b. D. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
c. B. Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma
d. C. Hurthle cell thyroid carcinoma

51. Point out the size of a pituitary tumor that can be considered as a macroadenoma.
a. D. More than 3 cm
b. C. Less than 1 cm
c. B. More than 1 cm
d. A. Size is not a consideration

52. Identify the type of detectors usually used as dose calibrators.

a. D. Ionization chambers
b. A. Sodium Iodide (NaI)
c. C. Geiger counters
d. B. Solid state

53. What is referred to as the time between the inverting 180 degree radio-frequency pulse and
the 90 degree excitation pulse?
a. A. Effective echo time
b. D. Free induction decay
c. C. Time to echo
d. B. Inversion time

54. Identify the factor that influences the character of a magnetic resonance imaging pixel.
a. D. Optical density
b. B. Proton density
c. A. Electron density
d. C. Slice thickness.

55. Which of the following determines the number of Hounsfield units represented as shades of
gray on an image?
a. D. Widowing
b. B. Window width
c. A. Window level
d. C. Window center

56. Point out the type of stroke that does NOT belong to the group.
a. D. Embolic
b. B. Thrombotic
c. C. Hemorrhagic
d. A. Ischemic

57. Which organ should the sonographer scan if uterine malformations are seen?
a. C. Gallbladder
b. B. Liver
c. A. Kidneys
d. D. Spleen

58. The profile of the ultrasound beam is primarily controlled by the

a. D. crystal component
b. A. type of transducer
c. B. diameter of piezo electric crystals
d. C. piezo electric crystal shape

59. Cardiac toxicity form breast irradiation ____

a. A. Is sometimes a serious problem
b. B. Is never heard of
c. D. Will never occur because the heart is outside the field
d. C. Will occur following 1000 cGy

60. Which of the following nuclear medicine stress studies is affected by caffeine consumption?
a. Adenosine pharmacological
b. Persantine pharmacological
c. Treadmill exercise
d. Dobutamine pharmacological

61. The gyromagnetic ratio of phosphorus-31 is ______MHz/T?

a. 42.6
b. 17.2
c. 11.3
d. 40.1

62. Which of the following refers to a treatment-planning computerized tomography scan?

a. Patient is never given contrast
b. Patient must be in treatment position on a flat surface
c. Position must always be with arms above the head
d. Patient must be supine on flat surface

63. Which condition is caused by inhalation of irritating dusts which leads to chronic
inflammation and pulmonary fibrosis?
a. Asbestosis
b. Anthracosis
c. Silicosis
d. Pneumoconiosis

64. Determine which of the following statements refers to isocenter.

a. D. Point around which the source of beam rotates
b. C. Imaginary point in the beam where dose is normalized
c. A. Unnecessary on the skin surface
d. B. Point on the central axis where maximum dose occurs

65. Which type of fracture can occur from falling on an outstretched hand involving the distal
portion of the radius?
a. B. Colles
b. D. Pott's
c. C. Pathologic
d. A. Stress

66. Which of the following is a description of a well-defined structure with increased

echogenecity?
a. B. Liver cyst
b. C. Solid tumor
c. D. Abscess
d. A. Multiple cysts

67. Determine what is referred to as the medicine liver scanning. colloid shift' in a nuclear
a. Tc-99m sulfur colloid changing to albumin colloid
b. Increased uptake of colloid in spleen and bone marrow relative to liver
c. Small colloid particles clumped together to form large particles and localizes in lungs
d. Redistribution of colloid within the liver over time

68. Presence of a filling defect within the pulmonary artery or as cutoff indicating complete
obstruction of a pulmonary vessel manifestation of
a. C. pulmonary embolism.
b. A. asbestosis
c. B. emphysema
d. D. bronchiectasis

69. Identify the system that is PRIMARILY used for single and double plane implants in
brachytherapy.
a. D. Quimby
b. A. Patterson-Parker
c. B. Manchester
d. C. Paris

70. Horseshoe kidneys may be confused sonographically with which of the following entities?
a. B. Hypernophroma
b. D. Cancer of the head of pancreas
c. A. Lymphadenopathy
d. C. Tumor growth

71. Clay-shoveler's fracture involved which area of the spine?

a. C. Cervical only
b. B. Lumbar only.
c. D. Lower thoracic and upper, lumbar
d. A. Lower cervical and upper thoracic

72. Bowel intussuseption is displayed as _______?

a. Spalding sign
b. Robert's sign
c. Horseshoe sign
d. Trident sign

73. In which of the following will the connection between esophagus and tracheobronchial tree
can be radiographically demonstrated?
a. C. In an atresia
b. B. In a fistula
c. A. In a tumor
d. D. In an abscess

74. Select the conditions/organs for scintigraphy that will use Tc99m labeled RBC's.
I. Hemangioma
II. Meckel's diverticulum
III. Gastrointestinal

a. C. I and II
b. D. I, II and III
c. B. I and III
d. A. II and III

75. The most sensitive and specific noninvasive method of diagnosing mitral stenosis is
_______?
a. B.Echocardiography
b. C. Cardiac arteriography
c. D. Computed tomography
d. A. Ultrasonography

76. Which term is defined as the interruption of blood flow to vital organs or lack of the ability
of body tissues to use oxygen and nutrients needed?
a. B. Sepsis
b. A. Necrosis
c. D. Shock
d. C. Ischemia

77. Which of the following would most likely cause acoustic enhancement?
a. B. Calcified mass
b. D. Fluid-filled mass
c. C. Gallstone
d. A. Solid mass

78. Determine the gyromagnetic ratio of fluorine-19 in MHz/T.

a. A. 42.6
b. D. 26.2
c. C. 40.1
d. B. 34.3

79.Who invented the scintillation camera?

a. B. Perrier and Segre
b. D. Curie
c. A. Donner
d. C. Hal anger

80. Determine the modality of choice in the demonstration of intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile
ducts in jaundiced patients
a. C. Computed tomography
b. A. Nuclear medicine.
c. B. Digital radiography
d. D. Diagnostic sonography

81. The presence of fibropurulent fluid in the pleural space indicates which of the following
conditions?
a. D. Hemothorax
b. A. Pneumothorax
c. C. Hydrothorax
d. B. Empyema

82. Point out how image reconstruction time is defined.

a. From patient positioning to start of scanning
b. From start of scanning to end of scanning
c. From end of scanning to image appearance
d. From patient positioning to patient dismissal

83. Identify the component in a computed tomography that permits the gantry frame to rotate
continuously allowing helical scanning.
a. B. Slip ring
b. D. Klystron
c. A. Generator
d. C. Power generator

84. Identify the system that is PRIMARILY used for single and double plane implants in
brachytherapy.
a. B. Paris
b. C. Quimby
c. A. Manchester
d. D. Patterson-Parker

85. Which of the following are appropriate materials to be used as compensators?

I. Aluminum
II. Lucite tray
III.Wax

a. D. I and II
b. B. II and III
c. A. I,II,and III
d. C. I and III

86. In computed tomography, a decrease in motion artifacts is caused by

a. D. decrease in matrix
b. C. decrease in repetition time
c. A. increase in repetition time.
d. B. increase in matrix

87. Determine the periodic linearity check with respect to the dose calibrator quality control.
a. D. Quarterly
b. A. Daily
c. C. Annually
d. B. Weekly

88. Which of the following radiographic projections is employed if the patient is too ill to stand
in cases of pneumoperitoneum?
a. B. Left lateral decubitus, patient on right side
b. C. Right lateral decubitus, patient on left side
c. A. Right lateral decubitus, patient on right side
d. D. Left lateral decubitus, patient on left side

89. Which of the following refers to the relative comparison of x-ray attenuation of a voxel
tissue to an equal volume of water?
a. B. Linear attenuation coefficient
b. C. Transmission factor
c. D. Slice sensitivity profile:
d. A. Hounsfield unit

90. Which of the following reason why it is important to reproduce the patient’s position during
the actual radiation therapy procedure?
a. A. As it was during the simulation procedure
b. B. During the first treatment only
c. D. Perfectly straight even id patient was not when simulation procedure was done
d. C. Only on days when verification films are taken

91. Which radiation therapy unit operates at approximately 50 to 120 kVp?

a. C. Betatrons
b. B. Linear accelerator
c. A. Orthovolatage
d. D. Superficial

92. The role of sound attenuation in tissue is expressed in terms of _____?

a. D. Duty cycle
b. B. Huygen’s principle
c. C. Half value layer
d. A. Spatial peak

93. Select which is referred to in a reduction of available space in the spinal column causing
compression the neural elements.
a. C. Bulging disk
b. A. Spondylosis
c. B. Spinal stenosis
d. D. Spondylolisthesis

94. Point out the least obstacle to the transmission of ultrasound.

a. A. Blood
b. B. Muscle
c. D. Fat
d. C. Bone

95. Determine the coincidence resulting from two photons detected at the same time but
originate from two independent events in a positron emission tomography (PET).
a. C. Scatter
b. D. Random
c. A. Recoiled
d. B. Multiple

96. Ring artifacts are characteristics of which generation of computed tomography scanner?
a. B. Third
b. A. First
c. D. Second
d. C.Fourth

97. Which of the following is the proper sequence for producing a computed tomography
image?
a. D. Image postprocessing, data acquisition, image reconstruction
b. A.Data acquisition, image reconstruction, image postprocessing
c. C. Image reconstruction, data acquisition, image postprocessing
d. B.Data acquisition, image postprocessing, image reconstruction

98. Point out the mechanism of uptake of Tc-99m HMPAO (hexamethylpropylamineoxime).

a. D. Na-K pump
b. C. Reverse osmosis
c. B. Passive diffusion
d. A. Active transport
99. Which modality will BEST demonstrate rupture of the spleen as a result of blunt abdominal
trauma?
a. C. Magnetic resonance imaging
b. B. Ultrasound
c. A. Computed tomography
d. D. Radiography

100. What is the gold standard in evaluating and diagnosing renal abscess?
a. D. Radiography
b. B. Ultrasound
c. C. Magnetic resonance imaging
d. A. Computed tomography