BPSC AE 2012

Bihar Public Service Commission Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical) Exam, 2012 ....120-153
• General Hindi (Paper-I) Solved Paper (Exam Date : 1 Dec., 2012)........................................................... 120
• General English (Paper-II) Solved Paper (Exam Date : 1 Dec., 2012) ...................................................... 127
• General Studies (Paper-III) Solved Paper (Exam Date : 2 Dec., 2012) ..................................................... 136
• General Engineering Science (Paper-IV) Solved Paper (Exam Date : 3 Dec., 2012) ............................... 148

BPSC AE 2006
Bihar Public Service Commission Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical) Exam, 2006 ....154-187
• General Hindi (Paper-I) Solved Paper......................................................................................................... 154
• General English (Paper-II) Solved Paper .................................................................................................... 161
• General Studies (Paper-III) Solved Paper ................................................................................................... 170
• General Engineering Science (Paper-IV) Solved Paper ............................................................................. 182

BPSC AE 2001
Bihar Public Service Commission Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical) Exam, 2001 ....188-222
• General Hindi (Paper-I) Solved Paper......................................................................................................... 188
• General English (Paper-II) Solved Paper .................................................................................................... 196
• General Studies (Paper-III) Solved Paper ................................................................................................... 205
• General Engineering Science (Paper-IV) Solved Paper ............................................................................. 215

BPSC AE 1995
Bihar Public Service Commission Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical) Exam, 1995 ....223-244
• General Hindi (Paper-I) Solved Paper......................................................................................................... 223
• General English (Paper-II) Solved Paper .................................................................................................... 227
• General Studies (Paper-III) Solved Paper ................................................................................................... 232
• General Engineering Science (Paper-IV) Solved Paper ............................................................................. 238

JPSC

JPSC AE 2019
Jharkhand Public Service Commission Combined Assistant Engineer (Pre) Exam, 2019 .................245-255
General Studies (Paper-I) Solved Paper (Exam Date : 19 Jan., 2020)

JPSC AE 2013
Jharkhand Public Service Commission Combined Assistant Engineer Exam, 2013 ...........................256-288
• General Hindi (Paper-I) Solved Paper......................................................................................................... 256
• General English (Paper-II) Solved Paper .................................................................................................... 263
• General Studies (Paper-III) Solved Paper ................................................................................................... 272
• General Engineering (Paper-IV) Solved Paper ........................................................................................... 281
JPSC AE 2021
Jharkhand Public Service Commission Combined Asst. Engineer Examination
Advt. No. 08-2018 OR 08-2019 Paper- I GENERAL ABILITY TEST
(Exam Date : 09 April, 2021) ................................................................................................................... 289-296
Jharkhand Public Service Commission Combined Asst. Engineer Examination
(Regular) Mains Exam, Advt. 05/2019 Paper- I GENERAL ABILITY TEST
(Exam Date : 22 October, 2021) .............................................................................................................. 297-304
3
 BPSC AE Exam Pattern and Syllabus
BPSC AE Exam Pattern 2023 • Static GK
The candidates were required to attempt a total of 6 • Awards & Honours
papers in the written test for the bygone exam cycle. It is • Currencies & Capitals
expected that the 2023 cycle of the aforementioned exam • Geography
will undertake a similar exam pattern. Each paper will be
similar in terms of duration and marks. The duration will General English
be 1 hour and the total marks will be 100. All the papers The general English section will consist of objective type
will be objective. The candidates would be required to questions from the following topics. If the candidates
score combined marks of 40% in the case of general have a good habit of reading, then they can ace most of
category candidates and 32% for SC/ST candidates. these topics with ease.
examination pattern for the BPSC AE written test will be • Error Detection
as follows. • Direct and Indirect Speech
Papers Marks Duration • Active and Passive Voice
General English 100 1 Hour • Jumbled Sentence
General Hindi 100 1 Hour • Sentence Rearrangement
General Studies 100 1 Hour • Reading Comprehension
General Engineering 100 1 Hour • Fill in the Blanks
Science • Cloze Test
Concerned/Optional Paper I 100 1 Hour • Sentence Improvement
Concerned/Optional Paper I 100 1 Hour • One Word Substitution
The Bihar Public Service Commission has yet to release General Hindi
an official recruitment notification for the post of The general Hindi section will be simple and will judge
Assistant Engineer for the 2023 cycle. It is expected that the basics of the Hindi language. Candidates must be
three types of posts will be available in this recruitment aware of the day to day use of the language too.
according to the stream of graduation i.e. Civil, • Reading Comprehension
Mechanical, and Electrical. In order to commence the • Fill in the Blanks
preparation for the BPSC AE examination, the first thing
the aspirants must do is to have a look at the BPSC AE • Hindi Grammar
Syllabus and Exam Pattern 2023. General Engineering Science
• It is expected that the selection for this stage will • Engineering Mechanics - General
consist of one single examination. The exam will Equilibrium-Equation Experiments, Motion-
consist of 6 papers out of which 4 will be Equation Functions, Power, Energy.
compulsory and common for all and the rest of the • Survey and Measurement - Distance and Area
two papers will be as per the concerned stream of Measurement, Direction Measurement and
graduation. Angular Measurement of Slope, Levitation and
• The first two papers are expected to be qualifying in Height, General Survey Equipment, Electrical
nature. Workshop Measurements like Ammeter, Volt
The written examination for the previous cycle consisted Meter, Chargemeter, Insulation Tester, Energy
of 6 papers. The compulsory papers were General Meter and their working principle, Mechanical
Studies, General English, General Hindi, and General Workshop Measuring instruments, linear and
Engineering. These four papers were common for all the angular measurements, straight, plane and
aspirants. The fifth and sixth paper focused on the roundness measurements.
fundamental subjects of the concerned stream. The • Structure of solids - Generalized pressure and
questions from these papers revolved around the core its relation, making laws, transformation of
subjects. All the papers were objective in nature. pressure, pressure energy, analysis of beams,
General Studies columns and shafts, unbalanced orientations at
In order to successfully clear the General Studies paper, the center, principles of decay.
the aspirants must study the following topics and • Engineering materials and their manufacture
subjects. Besides that, the candidates must read - Bricks lime, Cement, Shrapnel, Dalwa iron
newspapers in order to develop awareness regarding and steel, Non-ferrous metals Timber paints and
more such topics. miscellaneous engineering materials, Testing of
• Polity engineering materials, Considerations for
• Economy construction of brick floors and walls.
• Physics • Transport Phenomenon - Linear and Regular
Conduction of Transport, Boundary Level
• Chemistry Continuous Equations, Warnowati's Principle,
• Botany Energy Equations, Steam of Transport
• Zoology Conduction, Dimensional Analysis and
• Current Affairs Gadling, One Dimensional Study, Natural
4
 Movement of Heat through Single and BPSC AE Syllabus for Civil Engineering
Multilayered Materials including Walls and Exam Paper 6
Cylinders and induced convective heat transfer,
concept of thermal boundary level, Accutten- • Hydrology and Water Resources- General
Boltmann's theory of radiation, Kirchhoff's law, run-off estimation, use of hydrogram, empirical
concept of black and gray matter. formula, potential hydrological analysis,
management of surface water and groundwater,
• Energy conversion process of thermodynamics, principles of irrigation engineering, water
first and second impulses and reactions of requirement for crops- General .
thermodynamics, water turbine-belton peel and Description of irrigation works, flooding,
centrifugal pump. damage and control, behavior of river drainage,
• Elementary Engineering - Electric Circuits, surface and underground drainage, channel
design, general principles of hydropower
Circuit Laws and Principles of Superposition
engineering.
Meaning of Sound Series and Parallel
• Water system flow description- the principle
Connections, Resistance and Capacitance, of energy and momentum homogeneous,
Junction Transistor, Junction Diode, Equivalent sequential traversal changed flow, components
Circuit, Common Emitter Electric Circuit, of river flow, sediment transport.
Magnetic Effect of Electric Current, • Design of Fluid Structure :- Design of
Transformer, Circuit Elements In the form of Exterior, Weir, Barrage, Canal and Canal
Transformer, Transfer of electromagnetic Structure and Pulse, Cross Drainage Works,
energy, Function of DC Motor and Generator, Cross Regulator, Head Regulator, Head
Regulator and Canal Drain, Design of Turk and
Function of AC Motor and Generator. Hydroelectric Power Equipment.
• Environmental Engineering Water pollution • Transportation Engineering - Geometrical
and purification, sewage treatment, air pollution design of highways, components of traffic
and its control, ecological balance. engineering, high side materials, maintenance of
BPSC AE 2023 Civil Syllabus high roads.
• Components of bridge engineering- IRC
BPSC AE Syllabus for Civil Engineering classification, weights and its behavior in
Exam Paper 5 overhead structure design.
Structural Analysis Structural Analysis • Public health engineering
• Structure :- Determination and stability, • Water supply- population forecast, types of
pipes used for water supply, construction of
internal and external forces, special positional tube well and dug well, design of slow sand
reinforcement and inelastic beam structure, filter and rapid gravity filter, design of
frames and arches, structure theory, method of underground and upper tank, details of water
reinforcement and flexibility, matrix method, supply dam construction.
determination of elastic stability of pillars and • Drainage and Sanitation - Surface drainage
analysis of impact lines for non-conforming storms, Drainage and sewage - Design of
structures and Robust analysis of dam and silt. double-cleaning filters Design of septic tank,
Design of Imhoff tank, details of health
• Structural Design (a) RCC beams, sills, pillars, plants.
shear and diagonal tension, Concrete BPSC AE 2023 Mechanical Syllabus
techniques: Climbing and marginal load design,
Study of vertical and seismic forces in building
BPSC AE Syllabus for Mechanical
structure design. (b) Steel structure tension,
Engineering Exam Paper 5
compression and flexural components, roof • Thermodynamics - laws, properties of ideal
gases and vapors, power cycle, gas power cycle.
scissor plate girder, bracket connection. (c) Pre- Gas turbine cycle, fuel and combustion.
reinforced concrete structure and its essentials • Internal combustion engines CI and SI -
• Soil Mechanics and Foundations Engine detection, fuel injection and
Engineering, Earthquake force and its carburetion, performance and testing, turbo jet
determination Formation and classification of and turbo-prop engines, rocket engines,
rocks, Nature and texture of soil, Properties and preliminary studies of nuclear power plants and
nominal fuels.
behavior, Generation and compaction,
• Steam Boiler - Engine Nozzle and Steam
Compaction, Shear force, Stability of slopes,
Turbine, Modern Boiler, Types of Steam
Soil stress, Carrying capacity, Coating, Earth Turbine, - Efficiency and Control of Steam
pressure, Retention, shallow and deep Flow by Nozzle, Speed of Impulse and Reaction
foundations including diaar seat piles, tafoot Turbine etc.
and well foundations, machine foundations, • Compressor Gas, Dynamics and Gas Turbines,
diffusion of soils. Reciprocating, Centripetal and Axial Drift
5
 • Heat Transfer, Refrigeration and Air BPSC AE 2023 Electrical Syllabus
Conditioning, Conduction, Convection and
Radiation Heat Regulators, Types of Combined BPSC AE Syllabus for Electrical
Heat Transfer on Total Heat Transfer Engineering Exam Paper-5
Coefficient, Refrigeration and Hand Pump • Electrical circuits- network theory, network
Aubeliz, Refrigeration Methods, Study of response, impulse and geometric input in ramp
Coefficient of Performance on Psychrometric stopping, frequency effect field analysis, bipart
and Psychrometric Charts, Cobport India network components of network connection,
Cooling and Dehumidification method | single graph.
• Properties and classification of liquids Fluid • E.M. Theory Electromagnetic Theory - Study
statics Physics and principles and uses of pure of static electricity and magnetostatics by
motion, air pressure steam and buoyancy, ideal Gewer method, Study of field in di-electric
fluid flow, level and buoyant flow boundary
level theory, flow over a submerged object, conductors and magnetic-materials, Time
flow through pipe and open channel, variable field, Maxwell's equation, Conductor
dimensional structure and analogy techniques. and propagation of plane wave in di-electric
• Classification of abaxial specific velocities and medium, Properties of Transmission Nine
general fluid mechanics, energy-spaced • Matter Science (Electric Matter Materials) -
relationships, pumps and impulses and Band Theory, Static and Alternating Fields of
feedback, performance of water turbines, and Dielectrics Conductivity of piezot electric
hydroelectric power transmission. metals, Magnetic properties of superconducting
BPSC AE Syllabus for Mechanical materials, Para and peri-magnetism, Conduction
Engineering Exam Paper 6 in semiconductors, Hall effect.
• Principles of Mechanics - Velocity and • Principles of Electrical Measurement -
Acceleration (1). (2) Mechanical deceleration of Dredge Measurement of Circuit Parameters,
a moving object, - Inertia force in the machine Measuring Instruments, BIBA and CBO Motor
Camp gear and gear link, flywheel and governor Chromat Analysis, Transducers and
touching and balance of reciprocating bodies, Measurement of Non-Electrical Objects,
free and propulsive friction of the systems, Numerical Measurement, Telemetering, Data
critical speed and rotation of the soft. Recording and Display
• Machine Design - Joints Threaded fastener and • Components of estimation - digital method
Power Screw-keys, Cotter, Grumman-Chalet algorithms, flow weighting, storage, type
Barley, Transmission System, Belt and Chain statement-systematic union, mathematical
Drives Wire Ropes, Soft Gear-Widing and expressions, logical expressions, allocation
Rolling Wrinkles. statements, program structure, scientific and
• Material strength - Relationship between two- engineering applications.
dimensional stress and strain, Peacock's circle,
elasticity constant. Bending torque, shear force BPSC AE Syllabus for Electrical
and deflection, joint bending, direct and Engineering Exam Paper-6
torsional stress, pressure analysis of thick- • Power Tools and Methods - Electromechanics,
walled cylinders and spheres, springs and Theory of Transformation of Electro-
columns, principles of decay. mechanical Energy, Analysis of DC
• Engineering Materials - Alloys and Alloy Synchromes and Preram Machines, Flux power
Materials, Heat Variation, Composition, meters, Machines in Control Systems,
Properties and Uses, Elements and Other Transformers Magnetic Circuits and Drimes
Engineering Materials. Selection of Motors for Power Systems
• Production Engineering- Metal Machining, Electricity Generation of Water and Nominal
Shearing Tools, Shearing Materials, Meter and Electricity Transmission koroma bundle driver,
Machinability Measurement of Cutting Process, electrical safety, economical operating load-
Process, Machining-Grinding, Drilling frequency control, stability analysis.
Production (Construction), Metal Fabrication, • Control method - Open-loop and closed-loop
Metal Casting and Joining, and their Special method, Feedback analysis Root level
Purpose Application and Numeric-Controlled technique, Stability, compensation and design
Machine Tools attached and attached technique, State variable approach.
• Industrial Engineering- Work Study and Work • Electronic and Communication Electronic-
Measurement, Wage Driven Production Method
Positive State Devices and Circuits Boolean
and Cost of Production, Principles of Plant,
Production Planning and Control, Materials, Algebra, Logic Circuits, combinatorial and
Use Operation Research, Linear Programming sequential numerical circuits, communication
Planning, Principle Value Engineering, signal analysis, signal transmission, modulation
Instrument Analysis, CPM R PERT. use of research, various types of communication
computers. systems Functions of communication systems.
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 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2022
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical)
General Hindi (Paper-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hrs Exam Date: 10 November, 2022

efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 1 mes 5 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele DeMegæ 7. MeerIeÇ ve° nesves Jeeuee
MeyoeW kesâ efueS (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) kesâ meeceves Deueie-Deueie (a) #eCeYebiegj (b) meÅeYebiegj
Meyo efoS ieS nQ~ FveceW mes Megæ Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW (c) ve°ØeeÙe (d) meÅeve°
efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘MeerIeÇ ve° nesves Jeeuee’ JeekeäÙeebMe
1. °JÙe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘#eCeYebiegj’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(a) °JÙe (b) Â<ešJÙe 8. efpemes ceehee ve pee mekesâ
(c) õ°JÙe (d) õ°JeÙe (a) DeheefjcesÙe (b) heefjcesÙenerve
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘õ°JÙe’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee Meyo (c) Deceehe (d) Deveceehe
nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpemes ceehee ve pee mekesâ’
2. DeepeerJeerkeâe JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘DeheefjcesÙe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele
(a) DeepeerefJekeâe (b) DeeefpeefJekeâe nw~
(c) DepeerefJekeâe (d) DepeerJeerkeâe 9. efpemes #ecee efkeâÙee pee mekesâ
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeepeerefJekeâe’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee (a) #ecÙe (b) #eceehee$e
Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ (c) #eceeØeeLeea (d) #eefcele
3. «eefnCeer Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpemes #ecee efkeâÙee pee mekesâ’
(a) «enCeer (b) ie=efnefCe JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘#ecÙe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(c) ie=efnCeer (d) ie=nCeer 10. efpemekeâer keâuhevee ve keâer pee mekesâ
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ie=efnCeer’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee Meyo (a) DeekeâuheveerÙe (b) DekeâuheveerÙe
nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ (c) keâeuheefvekeâ (d) keâuheveeleerle
4. DeefOekeâeefjkeâ Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpemekeâer keâuhevee ve keâer pee
(a) DeefOekeâejerkeâ (b) DeeefOekeâeefjkeâ mekesâ’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘DekeâuheveerÙe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe
(c) DeOeerkeâeefjkeâ (d) DeeefOekeâejerkeâ Demebiele nw~
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeeefOekeâeefjkeâ’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 11 mes 15 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele ØelÙeskeâ
Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ JeekeäÙe ceW Skeâ Meyo jsKeebefkeâle nw~ ØelÙeskeâ jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ
5. GppeJeue efueS (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) kesâ meeceves Skeâ-Skeâ Meyo efueKee
(a) Godpeue (b) Gppeue ieÙee nw~ FveceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes GheÙegòeâ
(c) GlpJeue (d) GppJeue efJekeâuhe Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘GppJeue’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee 11. metÙe& mes ner peerJeve nw~
Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ (a) cele&C[ (b) cee$e&C[
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 6 mes 10 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙe Ùee (c) ceele&C[ (d) ceejleC[
JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej Meyo efoS ieS nQ~ FveceW mes GheÙegòeâ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ ‘metÙe&’ keâe GheÙegòeâ DeLe& ‘ceele&C[’ nesiee~
6. efÚheeves ÙeesiÙe yeele 12. Gmekeâe newmeuee Deveghece nw~
(a) ieesheveerÙe (b) Yeso (a) Dee§eÙe&pevekeâ (b) mejenveerÙe
(c) ieghle (d) jnmÙe (c) Depeeryeesiejerye (d) DeodYegle
Ans. (a) : efoS ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efÚheeves ÙeesiÙe yeele’ JeekeäÙeebMe Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘ieesheveerÙe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ ‘Deveghece’ keâe GheÙegòeâ DeLe& ‘DeodYegle’ nesiee~
7
13. ‘‘heerÙet<e œeesle meer yene keâjes, peerJeve kesâ megboj meceleue Ans. (b) : ceneYeejle keâe Ùegæ Deªejn efoveeW lekeâ Ûeuee JeekeäÙe keâe
ceW’’ Megæ ™he nesiee- ‘ceneYeejle keâe Ùegæ Deªejn efove lekeâ Ûeuee’~
(a) Dece=le (b) peue Gmeves meceejesn cesW ye{] - ÛeÌ{ keâj Yeeie efueÙee~
(c) efJe<e (d) iejue 20.
(A) (B) (C)
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâesF& $egefš venerR ~
‘heerÙet<e’ keâe GheÙegòeâ DeLe& ‘Dece=le’ nesiee~ (D)
14. keâeveve nw lees heÙee&JejCe megjef#ele nw~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW keâesF& $egefš veneR nw~
(a) GÅeeve (b) nefjÙeeueer
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 21 mes 25 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele
(c) keâebme-Jeve (d) pebieue
DeJelejCe keâes OÙeevehetJe&keâ heefÌ{S Deewj hetÚs ieS ØeMveeW kesâ mener
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo efJekeâuhe Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
‘keâeveve’ keâe GheÙegòeâ DeLe& ‘pebieue’ nesiee~ mJeYeeJe mes Yeer Jen Deheefj«ener Lee~ efove Yej ceW Jen efpeleveer
15. keâvohe& kesâ yeeCe ves efMeJe keâes Yeer IeeÙeue keâj efoÙee~ ieesefueÙeeB Deewj ueóÒ peerlelee, mebOÙee keâes Jen Gve meyekeâes Úesšs
(a) Me$eg (b) keâeceosJe yeÛÛeeW ceW yeeBš oslee~ osves ceW Gmes ceevees Deevebo Deelee Lee, uesefkeâve
(c) efMekeâejer (d) Demegj Jen osves kesâ DeefYeceeve keâe Deevebo veneR Lee~ Jen Lee Yeej-cegefòeâ
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâe Deevebo~ veeRo Deewj Deenej hej Yeer Gmes DeefOekeâej Lee~ yeÛeheve
‘keâvohe&’ keâe GheÙegòeâ DeLe& ‘keâeceosJe’ nesiee~ mes ner Jen mJeuheenejer Lee~ yeÌ[s nesves hej keâLeeefMeuheer MejlÛebõ keâer
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 16 mes 20 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙeeW ‘yeÌ[er yent’ meyemes DeefOekeâ FmeerefueS lees hejsMeeve jnleer Leer~
keâes meeJeOeeveer mes heÌ{ves kesâ yeeo DeMegæ DebMe keâer henÛeeve keâjkesâ 21. GheÙeg&òeâ DeJelejCe ceW ‘Jen’ keâewve nw?
(A), (B), (C) ceW mes $egefš mes mebyebefOele De#ej keâes Gòej he$ekeâ ceW (a) Mejejleer yeeuekeâ (b) uesKekeâ mJeÙeb
efueefKeS~ Ùeefo keâesF& $egefš veneR nw, lees (D) kesâ ceeOÙece mes metefÛele (c) keâLeeefMeuheer MejledÛebõ (d) ‘yeÌ[er yent’ keâe heefle
keâerefpeS~ Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&òeâ DeJelejCe ceW ‘Jen’ keâLeeefMeuheer MejleÛevõ nw~
Jen keäÙee peeves efkeâ cewQ kewâmes peerefJele nt@B ~ 22. ‘Deheefj«ener’ mJeYeeJe keâe DeeMeÙe mhe° keâerefpeS~
16.
(A) (B) (C) (a) ÛeerpeW oeve keâjves keâe mJeYeeJe
keâesF& $egefš venerR ~ (b) ÛeerpeW mebefÛele ve keâjves keâe mJeYeeJe
(D) (c) oÙeeueg mJeYeeJe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘peerefJele ntB’ DeMegæ Meyo nw~ Fmekesâ (d) mebkeâesÛeer mJeYeeJe
mLeeve hej ‘peer jne ntB’ Meyo GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe Ans. (b) : ‘Deheefj«ener’ mJeYeeJe keâe DeeMeÙe nw -Ûeerpes mebefÛele ve keâjves
nesiee-Jen keäÙee peeves efkeâ ceQ kewâmes peer jne ntB~ keâe mJeYeeJe~
Gmekeâer Dekeäue Ûekeäkeâj Kee ieF& ~ keâesF& $egefš venerR ~ 23. GheÙeg&òeâ DeJelejCe kesâ veeÙekeâ keâe efkeâme hej DeefOekeâej nw?
17.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) Deheves ceOegj JÙeJenej hej (b) veeRo Deewj Deenej hej
*Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Ûekeäkeâj Kee’ DeMegæ Meyo nw~ (c) Kesueves keâer #ecelee hej (d) meeLeer yeeuekeâeW hej
Fmekesâ mLeeve hej ‘Ûekeâje’ Meyo GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ DeJelejCe kesâ veeÙekeâ keâe ‘veeRo Deewj Deenej hej’
nesiee- Gmekeâer Dekeäue Ûekeâje ieF&~ DeefOekeâej nw~
Fme heJe&leerÙe #es$e cesW meJe& mJe meodYeeJevee n~w 24. GheÙeg&òeâ DeJelejCe kesâ veeÙekeâ kesâ Deevebo keâe cetue YeeJe
18.
(A) (B) (C) keäÙee nw?
keâesF& $egefš venerR ~ (a) oeve (b) DeefYeceeve
(D) (c) mebÛeÙe (d) Yeesie
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘meJe&mJe’ DeMegæ Meyo nw~ Fmekesâ Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ DeJelejCe kesâ veeÙekeâ kesâ Deevebo keâe cetue YeeJe
mLeeve hej ‘meJe&$e’ Meyo GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee- ‘oeve’ nw~
Fme heJe&leerÙe #es$e ceW meJe&$e meÆeJevee nw~ 25. GheÙeg&òeâ DeJelejCe keâe GheÙegòeâ Meer<e&keâ nes mekeâlee nw
ceneYeejle keâe Ùegæ Deªejn efoveesW lekeâ Ûeuee~ (a) uesKekeâ keâe peerJeve (b) DeeJeeje cemeerne
19.
(A) (B) (C) (c) peerves keâer keâuee (d) yeÛÛeeW keâe ceveesefJe%eeve
keâesF& $egefš venerR ~ Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ DeJelejCe keâe GheÙegòeâ Meer<e&keâ ‘DeeJeeje cemeerne’
(D) nes mekeâlee nw~
8
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 26 mes 35 lekeâ) : ÙeneB ome JeekeäÙe efoS Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efove Yej ceQ keâece keâjlee jne’
ieS nQ~ ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe ceW Ûeej efJekeâuhe nQ~ FveceW mes pees Megæ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
JeekeäÙe nes, Gmekesâ efueS efveOee&efjle (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) ceW mes 32. ieg®Jeej kesâ efove nce Meece heeBÛe yepes efceueWies~
keâesF& Skeâ Gòej kesâ ™he ceW Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ (a) ieg®Jeej kesâ efove nce efceueWies~
26. cesjs keâes Skeâ otOe keâe iece& hÙeeuee ÛeeefnS~
(b) ieg®Jeej keâes nce heeBÛe yepes efceueWies~
(a) cegPes otOe keâe Skeâ iece& hÙeeuee ÛeeefnS~
(c) ieg®Jeej kesâ efove nce heeBÛe yepes efceueWies~
(b) cegPes iece& otOe keâe Skeâ hÙeeuee ÛeeefnS~
(d) ieg®Jeej keâes nce Meece heeBÛe yepes efceueWies~
(c) cesjs keâes iece& otOe keâe hÙeeuee ÛeeefnS~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ieg™Jeej keâes nce Meece heeBÛe
(d) cegPes Skeâ otOe keâe iece& hÙeeuee ÛeeefnS~
yepes efceueWies’ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
Ans. (b) : efoS ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘cegPes iece& otOe keâe Skeâ hÙeeuee
33. GvneWves keâne, ‘‘IeyejeDees veneR! MegYe keâeÙe& ceW Ùeoe-keâoe
ÛeeefnS’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nQ~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
mebkeâš Yeer Deeles nQ~’’
27. Meece {ues Jen Jeeheme ueewš DeeÙee~
(a) GvneWves keâne, ‘‘IeyejeDees veneR! MegYe keâeÙe& ceW efJeIve Yeer
(a) Meece {ueles ner Jen ueewš DeeÙee~
Deeles jnles nQ~’’
(b) Meece {ueles ner Jen Jeeheme ueewš DeeÙee~
(b) GvneWves keâne, ‘‘Ieyejevee keäÙee! MegYe-keâeÙe& ceW efJeIve Deevee
(c) Meece {ueves hej Jen Jeeheme ueewš DeeÙee~
mJeeYeeefJekeâ nw~’’
(d) Meece {ues Jen Jeeheme Dee ieÙee~
(c) GvneWves keâne, ‘‘IeyejeDees veneR! MegYe keâeÙe& ceW mebkeâš Yeer
Ans. (a) : efoS ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Meece {ueles ner Jen ueewš Deeles jnles nQ~’’
DeeÙee’- Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(d) GvneWves keâne, ‘‘IeyejeDees veneR! MegYe keâeÙe& ceW Ùeoe-keâoe
28. Iej hej meye kegâMeue-cebieue nQ~ efJeIve Yeer Deeles nQ~’’
(a) Iej ceW kegâMeue Deewj cebieue meye nw~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘GvneWves keâne, ‘‘IeyejeDeeW veneRb~
(b) Iej ceW meye kegâMeue-cebieue nw~ MegYe keâeÙe& ceW Ùeoe-keâoe efJeIve Yeer Deeles nQ’’ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~
(c) Iej hej kegâMeue Deewj cebieue nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(d) Iej hej meye kegâMeue-cebieue nw~
34. lesjs keâes Ùen oeefÙelJe meeQheles ngS cesjs keâes n<e& nes jne nw~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Iej ceW meye kegâMeue-cebieue nw’-
(a) legPekeâes Ùen oeefÙelJe meeQheles ngS cegPekeâes n<e& nes jne nw~
Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(b) legPes Ùen oeefÙelJe meeQheles ngS cegPes n<e& nes jne nw~
29. Gme meceejesn ceW heg®<e keâefJe Deewj m$eer uesefKekeâeSB Meeefceue
(c) lesjs keâes Ùen oeefÙelJe meeQheles ngS cegPes n<e& nes jne nw~
nQ~
(d) legPes Ùen oeefÙelJe meeQheles ngS cesjs keâes n<e& nes jne nw~
(a) Gme meceejesn ceW keâefJe Deewj m$eer uesefKekeâeSB Meeefceue nQ~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘legPes Ùen oeefÙelJe meeQheles ngS
(b) Gme meceejesn ceW m$eer Deewj heg®<e, keâefJe Deewj uesefKekeâeSB
Meeefceue nQ~ cegPes n<e& nes jne nw’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) Gme meceejesn ceW keâefJe Deewj uesefKekeâeSB Meeefceue nQ~ 35. Fve efoveeW cenBieeF& Yeejer cee$ee ceW yeÌ{ jner nw~
(d) Gme meceejesn ceW heg®<e keâefJe Deewj uesefKekeâeSB Meeefceue nQ~ (a) Fve efoveeW cenBieeF& yengle yeÌ{ ieF& nw~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Gme meceejesn ceW keâefJe Deewj (b) Fve efoveeW cenBieeF& yeÌ{ keâj Yeejer nes ieF& nw~
uesefKekeâeSb Meeefceue nw’ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ (c) Deye cenBieeF& Yeejer-Yejkeâce nes ieF& nw~
30. keäÙee Ùen mebYeJe nes mekeâlee nw? (d) Deye cenBieeF& Yeejer cee$ee ceW yeÌ{ jner nw~
(a) keäÙee Ùen mebYeeJÙe nw? Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Fve efoveeW cebnieeF& yengle yeÌ{
(b) keäÙee Fmes mebYeJe efkeâÙee pee mekeâlee nw? ieF& nw’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) keäÙee Ùen mebYeJe nw? efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 36 mes 40 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele lelmece
(d) keäÙee Ùen mebYeeJeveeMeerue nw? MeyoeW kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej efJekeâuhe (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) efoS
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘keäÙee Ùen mebYeJe nw’? Ùen Skeâ ieS nQ~ FveceW mes meJee&efOekeâ GheÙegòeâ efJekeâuhe Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ
Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
31. meejs efove Yej ceQ keâece keâjlee jne~ 36. DejCÙe
(a) efove Yej ceQ keâece keâjlee jne~ (a) pebieue (b) efvepe&ve
(b) cesje keâece meeje efove Ûeuelee jne~ (c) Deefj (d) megboj
(c) meeje efove Yej ceQ keâece keâjlee jne~ Ans. (a) : efoS ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘DejCÙe’ keâe
(d) hetje efove Yej keâece keâjlee jne ceQ~ GheÙegòeâ DeLe& ‘pebieue’ nesiee~ Mes<e meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
9
37. Yeeue 44. meeJeve njs ve YeeoeW metKes
(a) efÛeyegkeâ (b) Yeuee (a) jepejepÙe keâer mLeehevee nesvee
(c) cemlekeâ (d) «eerJee (b) meowJe Skeâ-meer efmLeefle ceW jnvee
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘Yeeue’ keâe GheÙegòeâ (c) heÙee&JejCe meblegueve heevee
DeLe& ‘cemlekeâ’ nesiee~ Mes<e meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (d) Je<ee& keâe Jejoeve efceuevee
38. Øemetve Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘meeJeve njs ve YeeoeW metKes’
(a) Jeerj (b) heg<he cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& nw- ‘meowJe Skeâ meer efmLeefle ceW jnvee’~
(c) ØemeVe (d) Øenmeve 45. efyeuueer kesâ YeeiÙe mes ÚeRkeâe štšvee
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘Øemetve’ keâe GheÙegòeâ (a) vegkeâmeeve nes peevee
DeLe& ‘heg<he’ nesiee~ Mes<e meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (b) DeÛeevekeâ keâeÙe&efmeefæ nes peevee
39. efkeâmeueÙe (c) DeeIeele hengBÛevee
(a) vejce (b) efÛekeâvee (d) DeÛeevekeâ cegmeeryele ceW heÌ[ peevee
(c) Debkegâj (d) keâeWheue Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efyeuueer kesâ YeeiÙe mes ÚeRkeâe
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘efkeâmeueÙe’ keâe štšvee’ cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& nw- ‘DeÛeevekeâ keâeÙe&efmeefæ nes peevee’~
GheÙegòeâ DeLe& ‘keâeWheue’ nesiee~ Mes<e meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 46 mes 50 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙeeW
40. yegYeg#ee ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) kesâ meeceves
(a) efYe#ee (b) eEnmee
Deueie‘-Deueie Meyo efueKes ngS nQ~ Fve MeyoeW ceW mes GheÙegòeâ
efJeueesce Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
(c) YetKe (d) YeerKe
46. ceewve keâe meewvoÙe& me=peveelcekeâ nw~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘yegYeg#ee’ keâe
(a) efceleYee<eer (b) yeÌ[yeesuee
GheÙegòeâ DeLe& ‘YetKe’ nesiee~ Mes<e meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(c) JeeÛeeue (d) cegKej
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 41 mes 45 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele cegneJejeW
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘ceewve’ keâe
kesâ efueS (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) kesâ meeceves DeLe& efoS ieS nQ~
GheÙegòeâ efJeueesce ‘cegKej’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
FveceW mes GheÙegòeâ DeLe& keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle
keâerefpeS~ 47. Jen meewcÙe mJeYeeJe keâer ÙegJeleer nw~

41. Dehevee-mee cegBn ueskeâj jn peevee (a) keâ"esj (b) og°

(c) megboj (d) Gæle
(a) DeefÉleerÙe nesvee (b) hejeefpele nesvee
(c) Dekesâues nes peevee (d) ueefppele nesvee Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘meewcÙe’ keâe
GheÙegòeâ efJeueesce ‘Gæle’ nesiee~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Dehevee mee cegBn ueskeâj jn
peevee’ cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& nw ‘ueefppele nesvee’~ 48. ØeueÙe mes petPeves kesâ efueS veesne ves veeJe yeveeF&~
(a) me=ef° (b) yeÇÿeeC[
42. Gušer iebiee yenevee
(c) yeeÌ{ (d) metKee
(a) hejbheje kesâ efJehejerle keâece keâjvee
(b) meeOeve-mebheVe nesvee Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘ØeueÙe’ keâe
(c) DeodYegle heje›eâceer nesvee
GheÙegòeâ efJeueesce ‘me=ef° nesiee~
(d) vesle=lJe keâjvee 49. mejme mebJeeo Fme veeškeâ keâer leekeâle nQ~
(a) keâ"esj (b) Meg<keâ
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Gušer iebiee yenevee’ cegneJejs keâe
mener DeLe& nw- ‘hejbheje kesâ efJehejerle keâece keâjvee’~ (c) jmeerues (d) jmenerve

43. ieÌ[s cegox GKeeÌ[vee Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘mejme’ keâe
(a) MceMeeve meeOevee keâjvee
GheÙegòeâ efJeueesce ‘Meg<keâ’ nesiee~
(b) Fefleneme keâe DevegmebOeeve keâjvee 50. meceef° eEÛeleve mes ner meceepe Øeieefle keâjlee nw~
(c) yengle hegjeveer yeeleW oesnjevee (a) JÙeefòeâ (b) efveke=âef°
(d) leb$e-ef›eâÙee keâjvee (c) meceYeeJe (d) JÙeef°
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ieÌ[s cegox GKeeÌ[vee’ cegneJejs keâe Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘meceef° keâe
mener DeLe& nw- ‘yengle hegjeveer yeeleW oesnjevee’~ GheÙegòeâ efJeueesce ‘JÙeef°’ nesiee~
10
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2022
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical)
General English (Paper-II)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hrs Exam Date: 10 November, 2022

PHRASES/IDIOMS Directions (Q. Nos. 6 to 10) : Below each of the

Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) : Below each of the following underlined definitions four possible
following underlined idioms or phrases for substitutes (words) are given. Choose the correct
possible substitutes (words or group of words) are word which may closely fit each definition.
given. Select the one which is most nearly the 6. Unanimity or general agreement
same to the given idiom/phrase. (a) Anonymous (b) Unanimous
1. By hook or by crook (c) Consensus (d) All of the above
(a) Using any method even a dishonest one Ans. (c) : Unanimity or general agreement means
(b) Using hook or a crook 'Consensus' or Harmony.
(c) Both (A) and (B) 7. to forgive or free from blame
(d) None of the above (a) Involve (b) Resolve
Ans. (a) : By hook or by crook means 'Using any (c) Absolve (d) None of the above
method even a dishonest one' or ' By whatever means Ans. (c) : To forgive or free from blame means
possible, fair or unfair.' 'Absolve' 'Acquit' 'Exonerate'.
2. Kith and Kin 8. Having to do with artistic beauty
(a) Mother's brothers and sisters (a) Pathetic (b) Antagonistic
(b) Husband and wife (c) Aesthetic (d) Dogmatic
(c) Maternal and paternal grand parents Ans. (c) : Having to do with artistic beauty means
(d) Friends and relatives 'Aesthetic'.
9. Brief and to the point
Ans. (d) : Kith and kin means 'Friends and relatives'.
(a) Pacify (b) Concise
3. Look up and down (c) Comprise (d) Pious
(a) To look as if to beat somebody
Ans. (b) : Brief and to the point means 'concise' or
(b) To look in a praising manner 'short', 'succinct'.
(c) To look in a careful or critical manner
10. One who believes that future events are already
(d) To look in a loving manner determined
Ans. (c) : Look up and down means 'To look in a (a) Fatalist b) Theologician
careful or critical manner' or " to search every where. (c) Philosopher (d) Theist
4. Be at your wits' end Ans. (a) : One who believes that future events are
(a) Be worried by a problem already determined mean 'Fatalist'.
(b) At the end of intelligence SPOTTING ERRORS
(c) To look in a careful or critical manner Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 20) : Read each of the
(d) Be aware of what is happening following sentences to find out whether there is an
Ans. (a) : Be at your wits' end means "Be worried by a error in any underlined part. No sentence has more
problem" or "Completely puzzeled and not knowing than one error. If You feel there is no error in a
what to do". sentence, write (D) to signify 'No error.
11. (a) Earth provide enough
5. To bring into force
(b) To satisfy every man's needs,
(a) Make somebody do something by force
(c) but not every man's greed
(b) To bring something forcefully (d) No error
(c) To cause a law, rule, etc., being used; to start
Ans. (a) : 'Earth' is a uncountable noun so, 'provide'
(d) To work together will be replace by 'Provides'.
Ans. (c) : To bring into force mean 'To cause a law, 12. (a) If I were you (b) I would
rule, etc, being used, to start. (c) not have do that (d) No error
11
Ans. (c) : 20. (a) As a citizen of India
(b) I cherishes both
(c) our democracy and secularism
(d) no error
Ans. (b) : 'Cherishes' will be replace by 'Cherish'
According to Rule → 'Have' will be removed from third because 'I' is a plural pronoun.
part. The correct sentence "As a citizen of India I cherish
The correct sentence → If I were you, I would not do both our democracy and secularism."
that. SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
13. (a) Remember that we should Directions (Q Nos. 21 to 30) : Below each of the
(b) be always content following sentences three possible substitutes are
(c) with what we has given for the underlined part. If one of them is
(d) No error better than the underlined part, indicate your
Ans. (c) : The correct sentence "Remember that we response on the Answer - Sheet against the
should be always content with what we should." corresponding letter (A), (B) or (C). If none of the
substitutes improves the sentence, indicate (D) as
14. (a) Suppose if you were left alone
your response on the Answer-Sheet.
(b) at home at midnight,
21. I have always be successful in all my
(c) would you really panic? examinations.
(d) No error (a) been successful (b) being success
Ans. (a) : 'Suppose If' does not use together. So 'If (c) been success (d) No improvement
removed from the sentence. Ans. (a) : Sub + helping verb (have) + verb III form +
The correct sentence "Suppose you were left alone at object, but 'be' is vI form so, vIII form of 'be' is 'been'
home at midnight, would you really panic?" will be used.
15. (a) The student who stood first 22. Maharshi kapil is one of holiest saints of India.
(b) have lost her father (a) is one of the holiest
(c) in an accident (b) has been one of holiest
(d) No error (c) was one of holiest
Ans. (b) : According to sentence, 'her' will be replace (d) No improvement
by 'his'.
Ans. (a) : one of + The + superlative degree.
16. (a) As a teacher The correct word 'one of the holiest' will be used.
(b) I was shocked
23. We should always stand with our friends in the
(c) by the student's remark. hour of need.
(d) No error (a) stand about our friends
Ans. (d) : There is an error in part (c) of the sentence. (b) stand near our friends
'at' will be used with shocked in place of 'by'. (c) stand by our friends
17. (a) As this is a serious matter (d) No improvement
(b) It must be considered Ans. (c) : The correct sentence "we should always
(c) From every point of view stand by our friends in the hour of need".
(d) No error 24. You have done a great mistake hasn't you?
Ans. (d) : The sentence is correct. Hence option (D) is (a) don't you? (b) haven't you?
correct option. (c) hadn't you? (d) No improvement
18. (a) Many patients have plastic valves Ans. (b) : The correct question tag is 'haven't you? ' will
(b) inserted in his heart be used', because noun is plural so, helping verb 'have'
(c) when their hearts function in a faulty manner is used, not 'has'.
(d) No error 25. My friend does not speak unless he feels the
Ans. (b) : 'Many Patients' are plural pronoun. So plural necessity.
possessive will be 'their' not 'his'. (a) when he feel (b) as he feel
The correct sentence "Many patients have plastic valves (c) so he feel (d) No improvement
inserted in their hearts when their hearts function in a Ans. (d) : The sentence is correct, so no Improvement.
faulty manner."
26. He said angrily : I will not do it. It is someone
19. (a) Thousands of candidates else job, not my job!
(b) Compete with each other (a) else's job, not my!
(c) for a single post (b) else job, not mine job!
(d) No error (c) else's job, not mine!
Ans. (d) : No error. (d) No improvement
12
Ans. (c) : The compound pronoun (possessive) is used, 33. MANIFEST
so correct answer is 'else's job, not mine!' (a) Declare (b) Visible
27. Don't you know that I has been waiting here (c) Forgive (d) none of the above
for you since 9 p.m.? Ans. (b) : The correct synonym of MANIFEST is
(a) have been waiting (b) is waiting "visible, obvious, dear, apparent.
(c) was waiting (d) No improvement Word Meaning
Ans. (a) : The correct sentence "Don't you know that I 1. MANIFEST To show something or to be shown
have been waiting here for you since 9 P.M? clearly
28. These students always try to be polite with 2. Forgive To stop being angry towards
others somebody for something that he has
(a) for others (b) to others done wrong.
(c) to other (d) No improvement
34. ROBUST
Ans. (b) : " with others" will be replace by "to others". (a) Vigorous (b) Strong
29. The youth of today spend more time in (c) Healthy (d) None of the above
watching films than to read books.
(a) at reading books (b) to reading books Ans. (a) : The synonym of ROBUST is " vigorous,
strong, Healthy'.
(c) in reading books (d) No improvement
Word Meaning
Ans. (c) : The correct sentence formation is-
Preposition + verb (Gerundial form). 1. Robust Strong & Healthy
"to read books" replace by "in reading books". 2. Vigorous Carried out forcefully &
30. Please let me know if you have any objection to energetically
the proposal. 35. SUBJUGATE
(a) about the proposal (b) for the proposal (a) Majestic (b) Enslave
(c) of the proposal (d) No improvement (c) Strict (d) Awesome
Ans. (d) : There is no error in the sentence. Preposition Ans. (b) : The synonyms of SUBJUGATE is "Enslave,
'to' is used after objection. subdue, humble.
VOCABULARY Word Meaning
Directions (Q. Nos. 31 to 35) : Below each of the 1. Subjugate To defeat somebody & make them
following words (in capital letters) four possible obey you.
substitutes are given. Choose the word which is 2. Majestic Impressive because of its size or beauty
nearest in meaning to the word given in capital
letters and indicate your response on the Answer- 3. Strict Not allowing people to break rules
Sheet. 4. Enslave Make (someone) a slave
31. APATHY Directions (Q. 36 to 40) : Below each of the
(a) To doubt (b) To pacify following words (in capital letters) four possible
(c) To appreciate (d) Lack of interest substitutes are given. Pick out the word that is
Ans. (d) : The correct synonym of the word APATHY most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given
is "Lack of Interest, Indifference, Insensitivity. in capital letters and indicate your response on the
S.no. Word Meaning Answer-Sheet.
1. Apathy Feeling of not being interested in 36. DISCRIMINATE
(a) Division (b) Differentiate
2. To pacify to make somebody who is angry
be calm or quiet (c) Equal (d) Separate
3. To To enjoy something or to Ans. (c) : Antonyms of DISCRIMINATE is "Equal,
appreciate understand value of something. similar".
Hence, option (d) correct. Word Meaning
32. INSOLENT 1. Discriminate To treat one person or group worse
than others
(a) Insulting (b) Arrogant
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above 2. Differentiate To see or show how things are
different.
Ans. (c) : The correct synonym of INSOLENT is
"Insulting, Arrogant, Impudent. 37. ILLICIT
Word Meaning (a) Unlawful (b) Legal
1. Insolent Showing a rude and lacking respect (c) Illegal (d) All of the above
2. Arrogant Thinking that you are better & more Ans. (b) : Antonym of ILLICIT is "Legal, legitimate,
important than other people. lawful, ethical.''

13
Word Meaning Ans. (c) : The correct word ' amongst' will be used
1. Illicit Not allowed by law or by the because here we talk about more than two friends.
rules of society 43. Do not hesitate to _______ if you do something
2. Unlawful Not allowed by law wrong.
3. Legal using or connected with law. (a) apologetic (b) apology
38. PRAGMATIC (c) apologizing (d) apologize
(a) Down to earth (b) Practical Ans. (d) : The correct word will be filled in sentence '
(c) Both (A) and (B) (d) None of the above apologize'.
Ans. (d) : Antonym of PRAGMATIC is " Impractical, 44. The thieves had _______ the house under the
Idealistic, Imaginative". guise of policemen.
Word Meaning (a) broke (b) broken into
1. Pragmatic Dealing with problems in a practical (c) broken open (d) None of the above
way
Ans. (b) : broken into means burgled, robbed ". Hence,
2. Down to earth Realistic & practical option (B) is correct.
39. REPROACH
45. As soon as my name was announced for the
(a) Disgrace (b) Scold first prize, there ______ a huge applause.
(c) Blame (d) None of the above (a) is been (b) is being
Ans. (d) : Antonym of REPROACH is "credit, honor, (c) was being (d) was
pride, glory".
Ans. (d) : The correct helping verb is 'was', according
Word Meaning
to sentence (noun).
1. Reproach To tell somebody that he has done
something wrong 46. The cart-puller ______ since the cart was
2. Disgrace state of not being respected by other overloaded.
people (a) will not moving (b) is not move
3. Scold To speak angrily to somebody because he (c) was not moving (d) could not move
has done something bad or wrong Ans. (d) : The correct word " could not move" will be
40. TRANSIENT used.
(a) Uncertain (b) Temporary 47. My father ______ to give me money to start a
(c) Permanent (d) Surpass new business.
Ans. (c) : Antonym of TRANSIENT is "permanent, (a) is not want (b) was not want
eternal, constant, enduring, perpetual". (c) does not want (d) has not want
Word Meaning Ans. (c) : The sentence sense is ' Present Indefinite
1. Transient Lasting or continuing for short period by Tense' so, option (c) is correct.
time 48. Unlike elders, children always _______ their
2. Surpass To do something better than somebody small fights.
else (a) making up (b) makes up
SELECTING WORDS (c) made up (d) make up
Directions (Q. Nos. 41 to 50) : Each of the Ans. (d) : The correct word 'make up', according to
following sentences is given with blank space to sentence's sense will be used.
be filled in with appropriate word (s). Four
49. Aristotle believed that imagination _______
alternatives are suggested for each sentence.
foundations of all knowledge.
Choose the correct alternative.
(a) is one of (b) is being one of the
41. Why should they not rebel _____ their
persecutors? (c) having been the (d) is one of the
(a) about (b) over Ans. (d) : The correct word "is one of the" will be used
(c) on (d) against in the blank space.
Ans. (d) : The correct word will be filled in sentence is 50. I ______ I will be able to answer these tough
'against'. questions as I am a student of biology.
42. Go and distribute those bananas ______ your (a) does not think (b) am not think
friends. (c) is not thinking (d) do not think
(a) about (b) amidst Ans. (d) : The correct word "do not think" will be filled
(c) amongst (d) with in the blank space sentence.

14
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2022
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical)
General Studies (Paper-III)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hrs Exam Date: 10 November, 2022

1. Which of the following refers to a small single- Ans.(c): Sri Lankan Prime Minister Mahinda Rajapaksa
site network? arrived in New Delhi on 7 February 2020 on a five day
(a) USB (b) LAN state visit to India. This was the first visit of PM
(c) DSL (d) RAM Rajapaksa abroad since he took over the post.

Ans.(b): ‘LAN’ which is local area network, is used to 5. In the 2019 Report of the Transparently
International, the least and the most corrupt
refer to a small single-site network. LAN is confined to
countries of the world are found to be:
small a building, room or group of buildings, however,
(a) New Zealand and Somalia
one LAN can be connected to other LAN’s over any
(b) New Zealand and Pakistan
distance via telephone lines and radio waves.
(c) Denmark and Bangladesh
2. LINUX operating system is superior because of its: (d) Denmark and Somalia
(a) Automation character Ans.(a): Denmark, Finland, New Zealand, Norway,
(b) Compact-code system Singapore and Sweden are perceived as the least corrupt
(c) Strong compilers nations in the world, ranking consistently high among
(d) Strong security kernel international financial transparency, while the most
Ans.(d): Linux is a free and open-source operating apparently corrupt are Somalia, Syria, South Sudan.
system that is widely used in computer systems, servers, 6. What was the name of the Chief Justice who dealt
and mobile devices to manage all the hardware with the case of impeachment against President
Trump of the USA?
resources on your desktop. Linux operating system is
(a) John Richard (b) John Roberts
superior because of its strong security Kernel.
(c) John Wilson (d) John Hilton
3. In Delhi election held on February 8, 2020,
Ans.(b): Chief justice John Roberts Jr. prepares to
AAP and BJP have won seats, respectively.
preside over the impeachment trial presides over the
(a) 63 and 7 (b) 67 and 3 first impeachment trial of Donal Trump, he issued
(c) 62 and 8 (d) 66 and 4 pointed remarks in his year-end report on the state of
Ans.(c): Legislative Assembly elections were held in the federal judiciary that seemed to be addressed, at
Delhi on 8 February 2020 to elect to 70 members of the least in part, to the president himself.
Delhi Legislative Assembly. The result announced on 7. Who was the Prime Minister of India, when USA
11 feb. President Jimmy Carter visited India?
(a) Manmohan Singh (b) Indira Gandhi
The Aaam Aadani Party (AAP) lead by Arvind
(c) Morarji Deasi (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Kejriwal won 62 seats to claim an absolute majority
Ans.(c): Jimmy Carter came to India in January 1978,
in the elections.
when the Janata Party’s Morarji Desai was the Prime
The Bhartiya Janta Party (BJP) has won only 8 seats.
Minister.
4. During the period 7-10 February, 2020, Prime During his three day visit, Carter addressed India’s
Minister of which country visited India? parliament and held several meetings with Indian
(a) Britain (b) Bangladesh politicians. He visited a village near New Delhi,
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Nepal bringing a television set as a gift.

15
 His visit was meant to break the ice between New Ans.(*): Safer Internet Day is celebrated every year on
Delhi and Washington, especially against the the second day of the second week of February. It is a
backdrop of the 1971 Bangladesh War of day dedicated to highlighting the importance of creating
Independence and India’s nuclear test of 1974. a safer and better internet and a more responsible
8. The total Indian steel production 109.3 million internet environment.
tons in 2018 has gone up in 2019 to a record of: It was celebrated on 11th February in 2020, 9th February
(a) 141.2 million tons (b) 111.2 million tons in 2021, 8th February in 2022 and 7th February in 2023
(c) 121.2 million tons (d) 131.2 million tons th
12. On 25 February, 2020, the minister Sushil
Ans.(b): India’s crude steel production in 2018 was at Modi submitted a budget of Bihar State which
109.3 million tonnes, an increase of 7.7% from 101.5 was in serial order of the list:
million tonnes in 2017. This moved by 111.2 million (a) 12
th
(b) 9
th

tonnes in 2019. th th
(c) 10 (d) 11
This information was given by Union Minister of
Steel Shri Dharmendra Pradhan. He told the Rajya Ans.(d): On February 25, 2020 the government of Bihar
Sabha in a written reply quoting data from the World led by CM Nitish Kumar presented Rs. 2,11,761 crore
Steel Association. state budget for 2020-21 with a special emphasis on
India’s crude steel production fell by 10.6% to 99.6 education, health and infrastructure.
million tonnes in 2020, according to the World Steel It was presented by the state’s finance minister and
Association. Deputy CM Sushil Kumar Modi, which was his 11th
9. The population density (per square kilometer) in Budget speech.
India has been registered in last report is about: 13. In ISRO project ‘Chandrayaan-3’, what is the
(a) 440 (b) 410 name of ‘half-humanoid’ robot for artificial
(c) 420 (d) 430 intelligence?
Ans.(d): The population density of India in 2022 was (a) Vyom-pitra
431.11 people per square kilometer, a 0.68% increase (b) Vyommitra
from 2021. (c) Vyom-chitra
The current population density of India in 2023 is 464 (d) Vyom-putra
people per square kilometer, a 0.81% increase from Ans.(b): Vyommitra was first unveiled on 22 January
2022. 2020 at the Human Spaceflight and Exploration
10. The number of awards received by the films, symposium in Bengaluru.
Gully Boy (Filmfare) and Parasite (Oscar) were It is a female looking space faring humanoid robot
respectively. being developed by ISRO to function on-board the
(a) 13 and 8 (b) 13 and 2 Gaganyaan, a crewed orbital spacecraft.
(c) 13 and 4 (d) 13 and 6 14. What is the serial number of GSAT-30 of ISRO
Ans.(c): Ranveer Singh starrer film, Gully boy won the in the list of communication satellites?
highest number of 13 awards at the 65th filmfare awards (a) 43
rd
(b) 40
th
held in Guwahati. This film was nominated for 19 st nd
(c) 41 (d) 42
awards. It also became the highest award winning film
nd
in the filmfare. Ans.(d): GSAT-30 is the 42 telecommunication
Parasite is the first non-English language film to win the satellite launched by ISRO to replace INSAT-4A. It
best picture award. It is the first Korean film that provides advanced telecommunication service to the
received a theatrical release in India. Parasite received entire Indian subcontinent.
five nominations and won four academy awards (Oscar) 15. According to climate monitoring agency
at the 2020 ceremony. ‘Copernicus Climate Change Service’, which year
11. Safer Internet Day is celebrated on: was the hottest year?
th th
(a) 11 February (b) 7 February (a) 2019 (b) 2016
th th
(c) 9 February (d) 10 February (c) 2017 (d) 2018

16
Ans.(b): The Copernicus Climate Change Service Ans.(d): A rainbow is a meteorological phenomenon
revealed that globally 2020 was tied with the previous that is caused by refraction, total internal reflection and
warmest year 2016, making it the sixth in a series of dispersion of light in water droplets resulting in a
exceptionally warm years starting in 2015 and 2011- spectrum of light appearing in the sky.
2020 the warmest decade recorded.
20. Technically the thickness of stable metal coating
The average temperature of the world in 2022 was
on another metal should be of the order of:
the highest out of any year dating back to 1900.
(a) Centimeter (b) Nanometer
16. What is the name of the Oscar Award winner
(c) Micrometer (d) Millimeter
short Indian film?
(a) India’s Daughter Ans.(b): The thickness of stable metal coating on
(b) Period-End of Sentence another metal should be of the order of nanometer.
(c) Piper 21. Most of the engineering tools and machines are
(d) Kamera made up of steel because of their:
Ans.(b): A film on menstruation, set in rural India, titled (a) More durability
“Period-End of sentence”, has won the Oscar in the (b) High elasticity
documentary short subject category at the 91th Academy (c) Heavy weight
Awards in 2019.
(d) Easy availability and cheapness
Award-winning filmmaker Rayka Zehtabchi has directed
Ans.(b): When an external force acts on a body, the
the short film, which has been produced by Indian
producer Guneet Monga’s Sikhya Entertainment. body tends to undergo some deformation. If the external
force is removed, and the body comes back to its
17. Which of the following waterfalls is not on the
original shape and size, the body is known as elastic
river Narmada?
body and this property is called elasticity, and this is the
(a) Bheraghat (b) Kapildhara
property needed for materials used in tools and
(c) Bhalkunda (d) Dugdhdhara
machine.
Ans.(c): Bhalkunda is on Bina river in Madhya Pradesh.
Kapildhara, Dugdhdhara, Bheraghat all are on river 22. Heat is conducted in solids by:
Narmada. (a) Electrons (b) Photons
18. Who is the author of Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi? (c) Phonons (d) Protons
(a) Shirajuddin Ali Yazdi Ans.(c): The propagation of heat by conduction inside a
(b) Shams-i Siraj Afif solid body takes place by transmission of the vibrations
(c) Ziauddin Barani of the atoms or molecules (phonons). A Phonon is a
(d) Khwaja Abdus Samad Isami quantum of atomic vibrations.
Ans.(c): The book ‘Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi’ was written 23. Technically metals get expansions due to heat in
by Zia-ud-Din Barani. dimensions because of the energies of:
The book covers the data from the reign of Ghiyas (a) Electrons (b) Photons
ud-din Balban to the first six years of the reign of
(c) Phonons (d) Heat
Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
Ans.(c): In case of metals, the supply of heat results in
Zia-ud-Din Barani was a Muslim political thinker
who lived during the reign of Muhammad Bin an increase in the kinetic energy of atoms (phonons),
Tughlaq and Firoz Shah Tughlaq. due to increase in kinetic energy of its atoms metal gets
expansion.
19. Rainbow is formed in the sky by the physical
phenomenon of 24. Detergents clean clothes in washing machine
(a) Total internal reflection-interference because water solution has:
(b) Reflection- dispersion (a) Low weight
(c) Reflection- dispersion- refraction (b) Low density
(d) Total internal reflection- dispersion- (c) Low temperature
refraction (d) Low surface tension
17
Ans.(d): Detergents help in reducing the surface area 29. In information technology (IT), most secret
and remove dirt effectively. The molecules of the messages are sent by:
detergent have the shape of a hairpin. One end of the (a) Phase-frequency modulation
molecule attaches to the water molecule and the other (b) Amplitude modulation
end is attracted to the dirt molecule. This reduces the (c) Frequency modulation
surface tension between water and the dirt molecule. (d) Phase modulation
Hence, Detergents clean clothes in washing machine Ans.(a): Phase modulation is a modulation in which the
because water solution has Low surface tension. phase of the carrier wave changes according to the
25. Trees pull water from deep ground according instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal
to the property of: keeping amplitude and frequency constant. Phase
(a) Photosynthesis (b) Wood nature modulation and frequency modulation are similar, but in
phase modulation frequency of carrier signal is not
(c) Mineral water (d) Capillary action
increased. Phase modulation used in mobile systems.
Ans.(d): Capillary action helps bring water up into the
The phase of the carrier wave is modified in order to
roots. With the help of adhesion and cohesion, water
send the data or information.
can work it’s way all the way upto the branches and
30. The moon sky is dark compared to blue sky of
leaves.
the earth because:
26. In the state of our tiredness we either sit down (a) Moon has less escape velocity
or sleep flat for the sake of the:
(b) Moon is smaller in size
(a) Body low temperature (c) Moon shines bright
(b) Body relaxation (d) Moon is the satellite of the earth
(c) Body center of gravity
Ans.(a): The moon is too small to have an atmosphere.
(d) Body low gravity potential smaller bodies have less mass. Less mass means less
Ans.(d): A person’s height from the ground is gravity. Less gravity means less speeds is required to
minimum when the person is sleeping or laying down in escape the gravity of the object (lower space velocity).
the ground. Hence the potential energy of a person is Only bodies with sufficient mass to have a high escape
minimum when the person is sleeping on the ground. velocity can capture and keep the fast moving gas
27. We have two eyes because of the perception of molecules which make up an atmosphere.
the objects in the dimension of: The moon sky is dark because of the lack of an
(a) Area (b) Length atmosphere, sunlight is not scattered. So whether it’s
day time or night time on the moon, the sky appears
(c) Height (d) Depth
black.
Ans.(d): We have two eyes because of the perception of
31. Black hole eats all stars because:
the objects in the dimension of depth. Two eye give us a
(a) It has large mass and large size
wider field of view i.e., approximately 200 degrees with
(b) It has small mass and small size
our two eyes. It helps us by reducing parallax error in
(c) It has large mass and small size
vision and increases our depth of perception i.e. the
ability of perceive the world in three dimension space. (d) It has small mass and large size
Ans.(c): Black holes are some of the strongest and most
28. Over the palms and fingers, we have line grooves
fascinating objects in space. They are extremely dense
for the:
(it means it has large mass and small size) with such
(a) Static friction (b) Palmistry
strong gravitational attraction that not even light as
(c) Future prediction (d) Gripping power escape their grasp. Black holes can also consume
Ans.(a): Static friction is a force that keeps an object at material torn from nearby stars. In fact, the most
rest. The friction experienced when individuals try to massive black holes enough for eating the whole
move a stationary object on a surface, without actually galaxy.
triggering any relative motion between the body and the Astronomers have found one of the biggest black holes
surface on which it is on. ever and say it eats a normal sized star every day.

18
32. Satellites are: CD3CDO → CD4 + CO
(a) Never geostationary objects but radical mechanism indicates that we should
(b) Free-falling objects under gravity obtain
(c) Man-made objects in the sky (a) CH3D2 (b) CH2D2
(d) Time and fuel-less objects
(c) CD2H2 (d) CH3D
Ans.(b): Satellites are always attracted by a
Ans.(d): CH 3 CHO 
→ CH 4 + CO
gravitational force and hence is a freely falling body. It
is moving with a constant speed. The gravitational force CD3 CDO 
→ CD 4 + CO
acts towards the center of the earth which provides the But in radical mechanism
necessary centripetal force to keep satellite in a circular
orbit.
33. Superfast computation is done through:
(a) Q-bits (b) Unitary bits
(c) Binary bits (d) Ternary bits
Ans.(a): A Q-bits is quantum bit. A quantum bit can
hold both 1 and 0 at the same time. It is called as
superposition state, a basic feature of quantum world- 36. Sucrose concentration C decreases with time
0
superposition. A bit can hold only either 0 or 1 at one and with rate constant k as:
time, Q-bit can hold 0 and 1 at the same time, so –kt
(a) C = C0e (b) C = – C0 kt
theoretically a single Q-bit can take part in millions of 2
(c) C = – C0 kt (d) C = C0 log kt
process at a single time.
Thus, making quantum super fast. Ans.(a):
34. In reasonable hydrogen-oxygen chain reaction:
H2 + O2 → HO2 + H
H2 + HO2 → OH + H2O
OH + H2 → H2O + H
The rate law for the inversion of sucrose is in the form
O2 + H → OH + O
d[Sucrose]
= K[sucrose]m [H 2 O]n [H+]P
H2 + O → OH + H dt
Which are chain branching propagators? d[Sucrose]
(a) OH, H, O (b) OH, O = K[sucrose]m
dt
(c) OH, H (d) O, H
dc
. = KCO
Ans.(a): H 2 + O 2 → HO 2 + H dt
. . c
dc
H 2 + H O 2 → H O+ H 2 O ∫ co = ∫ kdt
co
.
. .
H 2 + O H → H+ H 2 O ⇒ [ln(Co )]ccoo = kt
. . . ⇒ lnco − lnco = kt
H+ O 2  → H O+ O
. . . c
O+ H 2  → O H+ H ⇒ ln = −kt ⇒ c = co e − kt
co
. .
Propagators → O H, H,O 37. The equilibrium constant of dissociation reaction
of oxygen
35. When we heat the mixture of CH3CHO and
CD3CDO, we get: O2 2O
CH3CHO → CH4 + CO at temperature 1000K is obtained to be:

19
 –7 –37
(a) 5.2 × 10 (b) 1.4 × 10 e.g C 2 H 6 + H 2 
15440Cal
→ 2CH 4
–20 –10
(c) 3.3 × 10 (d) 2.5 × 10
Ans.(c): O 2 2O
The equilibrium constant of dissociation reaction of
oxygen O 2 2O is 3.3×10–20.

38. The given molecular orbital configuration of

diatomic molecule: 42. A chemical reaction is 20% complete in 15 min
2 2 2 4 at 40°C and in 3 min at 60°C, then how much
(2sσg) (2sσu) (2pσg) (2pπu)
stands for: activation energy is required?
(a) 18.4 kcal (b) 12.4 kcal
(a) OH (b) O2
(c) 14.4 kcal (d) 16.4 cal
(c) N2 (d) CO
Ans.(c): Molecular orbital configuration of diatomic Ans.(d): k1t1 = k2 t2, T1 = 20 + 273 = 293
molecule (N2) k115 = k2.3, T2 = 60 + 273 = 333
= σ1s 2 σ*1s 2 σ2s 2 σ* 2s 2 (π2Px ) 2 (π2PY ) 2 (σ2Pz ) 2 k2
=5
k1
= 14
Arhenious equation
39. Photolysis of acetone (CH 3 )2 CO + hc → C2 H 6 + CO
λ k  Ea  T2 − T1 
log10  2  =  
needs photon of wavelength (λ)
 k1  2.303R  T1 T2 
(a) 2200 Å (b) 3300 Å
Ea  20 
(c) 3130 Å (d) 2950 Å log10 5 =  
2.303.R  293 × 333 
Ans.(c): j
⇒ Eq = 16.4 kcal
40. In acid solution, the electrode reaction
Cu
++ –
+ e = Cu
+ 43. The conductivity of a saturated AgCl solution is
–6 –1 –1
has electrode standard potential higher in H2O at 20 °C by 1.26 × 10 ohm cm
(a) 0.612 V (b) 0.153 V than for the water used. Now the solubility of
(c) 0.306 V (d) 0.459 V AgCl in H2O is:
–6 –1
Ans.(b): Cu +2 + 2e − 
→ Cu, E o = 0.337V (a) 4.21 × 10 moles liter
–6 –1
(b) 13.6 × 10 moles liter
Cu +2 + e − 
→ Cu + , E o = 0.153V
–6 –1
(c) 9.14 × 10 moles liter
Net equation : Cu + + e − → Cu –6 –1
(d) 6.28 × 10 moles liter
41. Cracking reaction
∞ 2 –1
Ans.(c): ∧ (AgCl) = 62 + 76 = 138 Scm mol
C2H6 + H2 → 2CH4
c ∞
heats up at: ∧ = ∧ Solubility same
(a) 30213 cal k × 1000
Q ∧=
(b) 15540 cal S
(c) 41745 cal 1.26 × 10−6 × 1000
138 =
(d) 40110 cal S
Ans.(b): Cracking is a reaction in which saturated 1.26×10-6 ×103
hydrocarbon molecules are broken down into smaller, S= = 9.13 × 10−6 moles liter −1
138
more functional hydrogen carbon. Some of which are
unsaturated alkanes are the initial starting hydrocarbon. 44. Ctrl, Shift and Alt keys are:
Cracking items contains alkanes and alkenes part of a (a) Adjustments (b) Modifiers
separate group of homologous. (c) Functions (d) Alphanumeric

20
Ans.(b): Ctrl, Shift and Alt are called modifier keys. 48. Which software program is used to view Web
‘Ctrl’ stands for “control key”. It is originally used to pages?
send control characters to terminals. (a) Browser (b) Site
‘Alt’ stands for “alternate key”. It’s named so because (c) Host (d) Link
it enables alternate uses for other. Ans.(a): Alternatively referred to as a web browser or
‘Shift’ key allows you to type capital letters and the internet browser, a browser is a software program to
symbols at the top of the keys.
present and explore content on the World Wide Web.
45. A computer cannot ‘boot’ unless it has: These pieces of content, including pictures, videos,
(a) Assembler (b) Compiler and web pages, are connected using hypertext links
(c) Loader (d) Operating system and classified with URIs (Uniform Resource
Ans.(d): An operating system or OS is software installed Identifiers).
on a computer’s hard drive that enables the computer
The first named World Wide Web (later changed to
hardware to communicate and operate with the computer
Nexus), was invented by Tim Berners – Lee in 1990.
software.
Some of the famous internet browsers of the world are
When computers were first introduced, the user
interacted with them using a command-line – Google Chrome, Microsoft Edge, Microsoft Internet
interface, which required commands. Explorer, Mozilla, Fire Fox, Opera, Apple Safari,
Today, almost every computer is using a GUI Amazon silk.
(Graphical user interface) operating system that’s 49. USB is which type of storage device?
easy to use and operate. (a) Auxiliary (b) Tertiary
46. Junk e-mail is also known as: (c) Secondary (d) Primary
(a) Spool (b) Spam Ans.(c): USB Pendrive is a secondary type of storage
(c) Spoof (d) Sniffer script device.
Ans.(b): Spam is electronic junk mail or junk The full form of USB is Universal Serial Bus.
newsgroup postings.
USB is a plug and play interface that allows a
Some people define spam even more generally as computer to communicate with external and other
any unsolicited email.
devices.
The pure message looks for message characteristics
The first commercial release of the Universal Serial
that are common to spam message, including the
Bus (Version 1.0) was in January, 1996.
following-
(1) Key phrases such as ‘‘Special one time offer’’, USB are various types which include the standard
‘‘Call now’’, ‘‘Act now’’, ‘‘You have won’’, etc. USB, Mini USB, and Micro USB, have two or more
(2) Characteristics of the text such as ‘‘shouting text’’ variations of connectors.
(all capitals). 50. In MICR, C stands for:
(3) The email distribution agent was used to send the (a) Character (b) Code
message. (c) Colour (d) Computer
(4) Inconsistencies or errors in the header information.
Ans.(a): In MICR, C stands for character.
(5) From and to header fields being the same (often an
MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition) is a
indication of a fake from address).
technology used to varify the legitimacy or
47. Several computers linked to a server to share
originality of paper documents. Special ink, which
programs and storage space are called:
is sensitive to magnetic field is used in printing of
(a) Integrated (b) Network
certain characters on the original documents.
(c) Grouping (d) Library
MICR code is a character-recognition technology
Ans.(b): A network consist of two or more computers
that are linked in order to share resources, (such as used mainly by the banking industry to ease the
printers and CDs), exchange files, or allow electronic processing and clearance of cheques and other
communications. The computers on a network may be documents. The technology allows MICR readers to
linked through cables, telephone lines, radio waves, scam and read the information directly a data
satellites or infrared light beams. collection device.

21
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2022
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical)
General Engineering Science (Paper-IV)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hrs Exam Date: 11 November, 2022

1. Distortion energy theory as one of the theories (iii) Maximum principal strain theory (Venant’s
of failure was proposed by: theory)
(a) Guest and Tresca (iv) Maximum total strain energy theory (Haigh’s
(b) Haigh theory)- It states that the failure or yielding occurs
(c) Von Mises and Hencky at a point in a member when the strain energy per
(d) Rankine unit volume in bi-axial stress system reaches the
limiting strain energy per unit volume.
Ans.(c): Distortion energy theory : The maximum
2
distortion energy theory also known as the Vou Mises  σy 
[σ1 + σ 2 − µ (2σ1 × σ 2 )] = 
2 2

theory and Hencky theory. It was proposed by M.T.  Fos 
Huber in 1904 and further developed by R. Von Mises
where, σ1 and σ2 = maximum and minimum principal
(1913)
stress.
It is also called the maximum shear strain energy
theory. Distortion energy theory is the difference µ = possions ratio
between the total strain energy and strain energy (v) Distortion energy theory
due to uniform stress. This theory is applicable to 2. At a certain speed, revolving shafts tend to
ductile material. vibrate violently in transverse direction. This
In this theory failure by yielding occurs when at any speed is known as:
point in the body, the distortion energy per unit (a) Critical speed only
volume in a state of combined stress becomes equal (b) Whipping speed only
to that associated with yielding in a simple tension (c) Critical or whirling or whipping speed
test. (d) Whirling speed only
2
 σy  Ans.(c): When the system’s rotational speed corresponds
σ + σ − 2σ1 × σ 2 = 
2
1
2
2  with the natural frequency of lateral/transverse vibration,
 fos 
the shaft bows out with a considerable amplitude, this is
Some of the other common theories of failure–
called critical/whirling speed.
(i) Maximum principal stress theory (Rankin’s theory)
Critical speed or whirling or whipping speed is the
σy speed at which the shaft tends to vibrate violenty in
σ1 = ( for ductile materials)
Fos the transverse direction.
where, σ1 = maximum principal or normal stress 3. Three main chemical constituents of wood are:
σy = yield point stress (a) Cellulose 40%-50%, hemicellulose 20%-
FOS = factor of safety 35%, lignin (phenyl group) 15%-35%
(b) Cellulose 15%-35%, hemicellulose 50-60%,
σu
σ1 = (for brittle materials) lignin (phenyl group) 10-18%
Fos
(c) Cellulose 15%-35%, hemicellulose 40%-
where, σu = ultimate stress
50%, lignin (phenyl group) 20%-35%
(ii) Maximum shear stress theory: This theory of (d) Cellulose 20%-35%, hemicellulose 40%-
failure is given by C.A. Coulomb H. Tresca and 50%, lignin (phenyl group) 10%-15%
J.J. Guest.
Ans.(a): Wood is essentially composed of cellulose,
τy hemicelluloses, lignin and extractives. Cellulose
Maximum shear stress (τ max ) =
fos comprises about 40%-50% of wood, hemicellulose about
where, τy = shear stress at the yield point. 20%-35% in hard wood and lignin about 15% to 35%.

22
Cellulose: Cellulose is the structural component of the Ans.(b): Nodular cast iron is also called as spheriodal
primary cell wall of green plant. Cellulose is the graphite iron or ductile iron or high strength cast iron.
primary strengthening material in wood. Its chemical It is achieved by adding a small amount of
formula is C6H10O5. magnesium or cerium to the pure molten grey iron
Hemicellulose: Hemicellulose is a partly crystaline thas has been subjected to desulphurization.
polymer that also acts as a matire or binder. The presence of cerium and magnesium causes the
Lignin: It is also polymer. The lignin acts as a matrix or graphite to percipitate during solidification of
binder for the cellulose. molten alloy in the form of small spheroids.
Extractives: Extractives are the organic impurities that These spheriods result in less concentration effect as
are responsible for the wood’s colour, smell etc. compared to the flakes in the grey iron resulting in
4. The approximate composition of Portland cement high ductility, strength, toughness and stiffness of
is: material.
(a) Tricalcium silicate 30%, dicalcium silicate 45%, So we can say that Nodulor cast iron has graphites
tricalcium aluminate 8%, tetracalcium precipitated called spheroids.
aluminoferrite 10% and other bonding agents 7% 6. In steels, silicon as an alloying element:
(b) Tricalcium silicate 10%, dicalcium siliate 40%, (a) Improves fatigue strength, makes the steel more
tricalcium aluminate 35%, tetracalcium resistant to shock and corrosion, increases
aluminoferrite 5% and other bonding agents 10% tensile strength but has no effect on ductility.
(c) Tricalcium silicate 58%, dicalcium silicate 17%, (b) Makes the steel more resistant to corrosion,
tricalcium aluminate 8%, tetracalcium wear and abrasion.
aluminoferrite 10% and other bonding agents 7%
(c) Improves creep strength under dynamic
(d) Tricalcium silicate 45%, dicalcium silicate 30%, loading and at high-temperature conditions.
tricalcium aluminate 10%, tetracalcium
(d) Acts as deoxidising agent, improve the
aluminoferrite 8% and other bonding agents 7%
surface grain structure, increases toughness
Ans.(d): Portland cement gets its strength from and promotes magnetic properties.
chemical reactions between the cement and water. The
Ans.(d): An alloy is a metal made from combining
process is known as hydration.
several types of metals, along with some other elements.
Compound Formula Shorthand % by
An alloy can enhance the properties of metal, making it
form weight
stronger and more valuable.
1. Tricalcium Ca3SiO4 C 3S 45%
Silicon is very common alloy. Silicon is always
Silicate or Alite
combined with steel during manufacturing process.
2. Dicalcium Ca2SiO5 C 2S 30% It is used as a cleansing agent to deoxidize and
silicate or Belite
remove impurities from iron ore during smelting.
3. Tricalcium Ca3Al2O6 C 34 10%
Some other characteristics of Si alloying elements
Aluminate
are improves strength, elasticity and resistance and
4. Tetracalcium Ca4Al2Fe2O10 C4AF 8% promotes large grain size which cause increasing
Alumino-
magnetic permeability.
ferrite
7. Steels used for making tools that machine the
5. Sodium oxide Na2O&K2O N&K upto 2%
& potassium material with heavy cuts at high speed are:
oxide (a) Plain-carbon steel
6. Gypsum CaSO4.2H2O C5H2 5% (b) Low-carbon steel
(c) High-speed tool
5. Nodular cast iron:
(d) Medium-carbon steel
(a) Has graphites precipitated in the form of
flakes Ans.(c): High carbon steel (HCS) that contains over
(b) Has graphites precipitated in the form of 0.8% carbon but less than 2.11% carbon in its
rounded particles called spheroids composition. High carbon steel is just carbon steel
(c) is very brittle alloyed with additional material like tungsten, cobalt,
(d) Contains carbon exclusively in the form of chromium etc. These alloying elements give HSS its
cementite high temperature and abiasion resistance and durability.

23
 Cutting tools made of high speed steel are ideal for 10. Gantt chart:
continuous high speed cutting. HCS cuts both (a) Consists of two axes, on x-axis generally
ferrous and non-ferrous metal. activities and on y-axis facilities are represented.
As the carbon contact rises, the steel is harded and (b) is a very useful graphical tool and one of the
stronger but it less ductile. first scientific techniques for project planning
(i) Mild or low carbon steel has a carbon content and scheduling.
0.05 to 0.26%. (c) is related to operating characteristic curve to
understand how well a particular sampling
(ii) Medium carbon steel has a carbon content of
plan in effective.
0.29 to 0.54%.
(d) is unsuitable for any non-production activity,
(iii) High carbon steel (carbon content 0.55% to
where work is similar to a project involving
2.1%) many activities.
8. Delta metal is an alloy of: Ans.(b): Gantt chart : A Gantt chart is a time and
(a) Nickel, copper, iron and manganese activity bar chart that is used for planning and
(b) Copper, zinc, lead and iron controlling projects that have a distinct beginning or
(c) Tin, copper and antimony end.
(d) Copper and aluminium In a Gantt chart, each main activity that is involved
Ans.(b): Delta metal is an alloy of Copper (Cu), Zinc (Zn) in the completion of the overall project or program
is represented by a horizontal bar.
and iron. It generally used to make blades of the airplane.
Gantt chart invented by Henry Gantt, in 1910.
Delta metal (alloy) = Cu (55%) + Zn (41-43%) + Iron (1-
3%) 11. Crash cost in project management is associated
with:
9. The factor which converts a future requirement
(a) An activity when it is completed in the
of fund into equal payment of annuity is called:
possible time, which is lesser than the
(a) Capital recovery factor expected or normal time.
(b) Present value factor (b) Allocation of resources and inventory control
(c) Unicost present value factor (c) Complete revision of project schedule after
(d) Sinking fund factor completion without revised information.
Ans.(d): Sinking Fund Factor : The factor which (d) Queueing theory and simulation techniques.
converts a future requirement of fund into equal payment Ans.(a) Crash cost in project management is associated
of annuity is called sinking fund factor. A sinking fund is with an activity when it is completed in the possible
an account containing money set aside to pa off a dept or time, which is lesser than the expected or normal time.
bond. Project crashing is the technique shortens the
i duration of a project by reducing the time of one or
SFF = more task through increasing resources of finding
{(1 + i ) n − 1}
shortcuts by eliminating uncessary tasks.
Capital Recovery Factor: The capital recovery factor The main goal of a project crashing is to reduce the
is a ratio used to calculate the present value of an duration of activities while keeping costs to a
annuity. It helps to determine recovery of initial minimum.
investment. Some steps to crashing a project:
i (1 + i ) n (i) Determine the critical path
CRF =
(1 + i ) n − 1 (ii) Determine which tasks to leave out
Present Value Factor: It is used to derive the present (iii) Calculate the opportunity cost
value of a receipt of cash on a future date. The concept (iv) Identify crash limits
of the present value factor is based on the time value of (v) Select the low cost option
money. (vi) Set up budget
(vii) Obtain client approval.
1
P= 12. For an activity, the estimates for optimistic,
(1 + i )n
pessimistic and most likely times are 2, 12 and
Where, i = real discount rate, 5 days. The expected time and variance of this
n = number of years activity are:
24
 (a) 5.5 days and 3.2 respectively assuming beta- Numbering should be so assigned to the events that
distribution for time estimates. they reflect the logical sequence of events in the
(b) 6.7 days and 4.5 respectively assuming beta- network.
distribution for time estimates.
(c) 5 days and 3.5 respectively assuming beta-
distribution for time estimates.
(d) 6 days and 4 respectively assuming beta-
14. A tap discharges water of constant density
distribution for time estimates.
uniformly in a jet at a velocity of 2 m/s at the
Ans.(*): Given that, tap outlet. The jet flows down smoothly in a
Optimistic time (to) = 2 days vertical direction as compact smooth stream.
Pessimistic time (tp) = 12 days The velocity of the jet at 0.6 m below the tap
Most likely time (tm) = 5 days outlet considering acceleration due to gravity
2
as 10 m/s , is:
In PERT (Project evaluation and Review Technique)
(a) 4.5 m/s (b) 4 m/s
expected time of an activity is given by,
(c) 5.5 m/s (d) 5m/s
t o + 4t m + t p
Expected time = t e = Ans.(b): Given that,
6 V2 = 2m/sec.
Putting the value– height (h) = 0.6m
2 + (4×5) +12 P1 = 0 at the top of the fluid
te =
6 P2 = ρ.g.h
3 3
34 where, ρ = density of water = 10 kg/m
= = 5.6 days g = acceleration due to gravity = 10m/sec
2
6
h = height
2
 t p − to  P2 = 10 × 10 × 0.6
Variance, σ = 
2

 6  = 60 N
2
Let fluid is moving but its depth is constant so,
 12 − 2  according to the Bernoulli’s principle–
= 
 6  1 1
2
P1 + ρV12 = P2 + ρV22
5 2 2
=   = 2.8
3 1 1
P1 + × 10 × V12 = 60 + × 10 × 4
Note: Official answer is option (d). 2 2
5V12 = 80
13. Fulkerson rule:
(a) is applicable for the use of dummy nodes V12 = 16
only. V1 = 4m / sec.
(b) Provides the scheme for numbering the events
15. In Borda mouthpiece, the coefficient of
on a network. contraction is:
(c) Determines float, helps in relocationg resources. (a) 0.707 (b) 0.58
(d) is applicable for the use of dummy activities. (c) 0.5 (d) 0.60
Ans.(b): Fulkerson’s rule is used for numbering events Ans.(c): Mouthpiece: Mouthpiece is an extended form
involved in the project scheduling network. of orifice in which a tube or pipe is attached to the
Every activity in a network is given a name or orifice. A mouthpiece is used to measure discharge.
symbol.
The events are represented by a circle at the
beginning and at the end of an activity and are
assigned numbers.
Numbering of events helps in drawing the network Internal cylindrical mouthpiece is also known as
correctly. Borda mouthpiece.

25
Coefficient of discharge, Cd = Cc × Cv Thermal conductivity of silica = Ks = 1.7 W/m °C
where, Cc = coefficient of contraction. KM = 600/m °C
Value of Cc = 0.5 (for internal mouthpiece, running free Rthermal constant= 0.003 °C/W
condition)
Heat lost per unit area,
16. In case of incompressible flow, for flow around
immersed bodies: Q −KdT
= QK =1
(a) Froude number of the model and prototype A dx
should be equal −1(T2 − T1 )
(b) Weber number of the model and prototype =
Ls L
should be equal + R thermal constant + M
Ks KM
(c) Mach number of the model and prototype
should be equal − (102 − 780)
(d) Reynolds number of the model and prototype =
0.119 0.240
should be equal + 0.003 +
1.7 6
Ans.(d): Incompressible fluid : When compression
and expansion do not siginficantly affect the fluid 678
=
density, the fluid is called an imcompressible fluid. The 0.07 + 0.003 + 0.04
volume of an incompressible fluid does not change and
678
its density is treated as a constant. =
For incompressible flow: 0.113
(i) With no free surface: Model and prototype Q
Reynolds numbers are equal. = 6000 W / m 2
A
(ii) With a free surface: Model and prototype Reynolds
number, froude number and (if necessary) weber 18. In free convection, Nusselt number is the function
number and cavitation number are correspondingly of:
equal. (a) Prandtl number and Grashof numbers
17. A wall of a furance is made up of inside layer of (b) Stanton number and Prandtl number
silica brick 119 mm thick covered with a layer of
(c) Peclet number and Stanton number
magnestic brick 240 mm thick. The
temperatures at the inside surface of silica brick (d) Prandtl number and Reynolds number
wall and outside surface of magnesite brick wall Ans.(a): In free convection, Nusselt number is the
are 780 °C and 102 °C respectively. The contact function of Grashof number and Prandtl number.
thermal resistance between the two walls at the
Free convection, Nu = F (Gr, Pr)
interface is 0.003 °C/W per unit wall area.
Thermal conductivities of silica and magnesite Nusselt Number: It is the ratio of heat flow rate by
bricks are 1.7 W/m °C and 6 W/m °C. The rate convection process to the heat flow rate by the conduction
of heat loss per unit area of the wall is: process.
2 2
(a) 5600 W/m (b) 6000 W/m
2 2 Q convection
(c) 5200 W/m (d) 5300 W/m Nu =
Q conduction
Ans.(b): Given that,
T1 = 780 °C In forced convection, nusselt number is the function of
T2 = 102 °C Reyonlds number and Prandtl number
LS = 119 mm = 0.119 m Grashoff Number: It is the ratio of buoyancy to
LM = 240 mm = 0.240 m viscous force.
Prandtl number: It is the ratio of momentum to
thermal diffusitivites.
Reynolds number: It is the ratio of the inertia force to
viscous force.
Stanton number- It is a dimensionless number that
measures the ratio of heat transferred into a fluid to the
thermal capacity of fluid.
Peclet number- It is a dimensionless number used in
calculation involving connective heat transfer.

26
19. For an opaque body: ∆S 2
(a) Absorptivity = 1 =
M 2
(b) Reflectivity = 1 = 1kJ/kg.K
(c) Transmissivity + absorptivity = 1 ∆S
(d) Absorptivity + reflectivity = 1 If heat is doubled, so also doubled
m
Ans.(d): An opaque body does not allow any amount of  ∆S 
light to pass through it. For example bricks, stones, Heat   = 1kJ/kg.K
 m 1
wood etc.
For an opaque body, transmissivity is zero since no  ∆S 
  = 1kJ/kg.K
wavelength is transmitted through it and sum of  m 2
absorptivity and reflectivity is 1. 22. The efficiency of Rankine cycle is lower than
20. When a gas or vapour is allowed to escape that of corresponding Carnot cycle because:
through a minute aperture such as leakage of (a) The Carnot cycle has gas as working
steam through the safety valve of a pressure substance and Rankine cycle has steam as
cooker, the leakage process is called: working substance
(a) Adiabatic (b) Throttling (b) The Rankine cycle efficiency depends upon
(c) Isothermal (d) Constant pressure properties of working substance whereas
Ans.(b): When a gas or vapour is allowed to escape Carnot cycle efficiency is independent of the
through a minute aperature such as leakage of steam properties of working substance
through the safety valve of a pressure cooker, the leakage (c) The temperature range of Carnot cycle is
process or change of pressure is called throttling. greater than that for Rankine cycle
Throttling process is used to reduce or decrease the (d) The average temperature at which heat is
pressure of a fluid. In this process a liquid having supplied in Rankine cycle is less than that
high pressure is converted into low pressure fluid. corresponding to Carnot cycle

21. A system comprising of 2 kg of fluid undergoes a Ans.(d): Rankin Cycle : Rankine cycle is an ideal
reversible process at 500 K during which it cycle of heat engine which uses water and steam as a
working fluid to generate power with the help of a
receive 1 MJ of heat. The change in specific
steam turbine. These are four processes in the rankine
entropy of system for this case and for the other
cycle.
case where heat supply had been doubled for the
same initial and final states are: Process 1-2 iscentropic compression.
(a) 1 KJ/KgK and 1 kJ/kgK respectively Process 2-3 isobaric heat addition.
(b) 2 kJ/kgK and 1.5 kJ/kgK respectively Process 3-4 isentropic expansion
(c) 1 kJ/kgK and 2.5 kJ/kgK respectively Process 4-1 isobaric heat rejection.
(d) 1 kJ/kgK and 2 kJ/kgK respectively
δQ
Ans.(a): ∆S = ∫ +σ
T
In general, the tempature of the system may changes
during a process. If the process is reversible σ = 0 the
change in entropy is defined as–
∆Q Carnot cycle–
∆S = S2 − S1 =
T The carnot cycle consist of the following four processs:
Q 21
=
T
3
Given that Q21 = 1MJ = 10 kJ
T = 500k
103
S2 − S1 =
500 A reversible isothermal gas expansion
∆S = S1 − S1 = 2kJ/K A reversible adiabatic gas expansion.

27
 A reversible isothermal gas compression. From the formula, acceleration head is affected by
A reversible adiabatic gas compression. the length of pipe.
Rankine cycle has a lower efficiency compared to the A reciprocating pump is a device that converts
corresponding carnot cycle because average temperature mechanical energy into hydraulic energy by
at which heat is added in Rankine cycle (in constant sucking the liquid into a cylinder.
pressure) is less than that corresponding to Carnot cycle 25. Thevenin’s theorem:
(in constant temperature). (a) Fails to simplify a complicated series and
23. In Pelton turbine: parallel linear two-terminal network
(a) The pressure in the runner is constant at (b) States that a two-terminal electrical circuit
atmospheric level (linear) can be replaced by an equivalent
circuit consisting of a voltage source Vth in
(b) All buckets are engaged by the jet at a time
series with a resistor known as equilvalent
(c) The speed ratio for best efficiency is not fixed
resistance of entire network
(d) Potential energy available is partly converted
(c) Says to ignore internal resistance of voltage
to kinetic energy by the nozzle before the
sources
water enters the runner
(d) is applicable to both linear and non-linear
Ans.(a): Pelton turbine is a tangential flow impulse turbine electrical circuits
in which the pressure energy of water is converted into
Ans.(b): Thevenin’s theorem states that a two-terminal
kinetic energy to form high speed water jet and this jet electrical circuit (linear) can be replaced by an equivalent
strikes the wheel tangentially to make it rotate.
circuit consisting of a voltage source Vth in series with a
A pelton wheel or pelton turbine is an impulse type resistor known as equivalent resistance of entire network.
water turbine. Impulse turbines operate under
atmospheric conditions and thus, the pressure
remains constant throughout the action of water on
the runner.
So, in pelton turbine the pressure in the runner is
constant at atmospheric level.
Some common example of the impulse turbines are
pelton wheel, Banki turbine (cross flow turbine) and 26. Parallel electrical circuits:
Turgo impulse wheel etc. (a) Refer to a circuit in which current is same
24. In a single-acting reciprocating pump, the throughout the circuit
acceleration head: (b) Show only a single path for the current
(a) is maximum at the middle of suction stroke (c) Connect the components in such a way that if
(b) is a affected by length of pipe any fault happens in the circuit, the current
will not flow through the circuit
(c) is zero at the beginning of delivery stroke
(d) Refer to a circuit with more than one path
(d) Affects the work done during a cycle
through which current flows
Ans.(b): Single acting reciprocating pump – The pump
Ans.(d): Parallel ciruit : A circuit is said to be paralled
is called as a single acting reciprocating pump, if the
when the electric current has multiple paths to flow
fluid only comes into contact with one side of the
through. The components that are part of the parallel
piston.
circuits will have a constant voltage across all ends.
LVNC
Acceleration head =
gk
Where,
L = actual length of suction pipe
V = velocity of liquid in suction
N = rotation of crankshaft
C = a constant, depending on the type of pump.
K = a constant, which compensate for compressibility
of the liquid.

28
27. The RMS voltage of a sinusoidal waveform Human activities are changing earth’s natural
having peak voltage of 20 volts is: greenhouse effect. Burning of fossil fuels like coal
(a) 20 V (b) 15 V and oil puts more carbon dioxide into our
(c) 15.5 V (d) 14.14 V atmosphere.
Ans.(d): Given that– The CO2 released from the burning of fossil facts is
Vpeak = 20 volts accumulating as an insulating blanked around the
We know that, earth, trapping more of the sun’s heat in our
atmosphere.
1
VRMS = Vpeak . In descending order, the gases that contribute most
2 to the earth’s greenhouse effect are- water vapour
20 (H2O), CO2, N2O,CH4,O3.
=
2 30. There are pollutants which are formed during
= 14.14V combustion at high temperature. They pollute
28. In DC motor: air which when inhaled, turns into acid in lungs
(a) The classification is done according to the which eats away at the lungs spongy structure
connection of the field winding to the armature causing it to lose the capacity to absorb oxygen
(b) The resistance of armature is very high from the air as a result of which person suffers
(c) Back e.m.f. does not depend on the number of from shortness of breath. These pollutants
poles penetrate deep into the lungs. Such pollutants
(d) Back e.m.f. is inversely proportional to the are:
speed of rotor (a) Various oxides of nitrogen
Ans.(a): A DC motor is defined as a class of electrical (b) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
motors that convert (direct current) electrical energy (c) Methane and carbon dioxide
into mechanical energy. (d) Compounds containing sulphur
DC machines are classified based on the electrical Ans.(a): Nitrogen in combination with oxygen to form
connections of the armature winding and the field various oxides of nitrogen such as nitric oxide, nitrous
winding. Different types of machines or motors are oxide (N2O), dinitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) etc.
produced with different types of connection. There Dinitrogen and dioxygen combine during the
are three types of DC motors. They are- burning of fossil fuel at high temperature, released
(i) Permanent Magnet DC motors. from the automobile engines to form significant
(ii) Separetely Excited DC motors. amount of NO2 and NO.
(iii) Self excited DC motors- Shunt wound DC
N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 
→ 2NO (g) at1483K
motor, series wound DC motor, compound wound
DC motor. Oxides of nitrogen is a harmful lung irritant and can
Armature winding- Several coils are connected in cause repiratory diseases in children. The chemical
series to form armature winding in which voltage is can increase the chance of lung infection.
induced. Nitrogen dioxide is very harmful to the human
Field winding- It is a group of coils which body. Human lung function is damaged with even a
produces main field flux when current is passed through little exposure to nitrogen dioxide. If exposed to
the winding. nitrogen dioxide for a long time, the change of
29. One/Some of the products of combustion of fossil respirator infections increases as wll as the rise of
fuels, which act(s) like the glass in a greenhouse, permanent organic lesions in the lungs.
causing the earth’s atmosphere to warm up 31. Purification of flue gases from sulphur oxides
is/are: with a view to control atmospheric pollution, is
(a) NO2 (b) CO and NO achieved:
(c) CO2 (d) SO2 and H2O (a) By recirculating flue gases into furance
Ans.(c): The greenhouse effect is a process that occurs (b) By injecting water and steam into the combustion
when gases in earth’s atmosphere trap the sun’s heat. zone
This process makes earth much warmer than it would be (c) By providing two-stage combustion of fuel
without an atmosphere. (d) By using lime

29
Ans.(d): Flue gas desulphurisation - Desulphurisation is 34. In alternator:
the removal of sulphur dioxide from the flue gases. (a) Having three-phase circuit, the power in watt
SO2 is removed from flue gases by a various of  V 
methods-
is W =   I cosφ
 3
(i) Wet scrubbing using a slurry of alkaline
(b) The amount of heat produced is dependent on
sorbent, usually limestone or lime or
square of the current which in turn varies
seawater to scrub gases.
directly with the power factor
(ii) Spray-dry scrubbing using similar sorbent
(c) Of three-phase type, if windings are
slurries.
connected with star system, phase voltage
(iii) Dry sorbent injection system.
(iv) Wet sulfuric acid process recovering sulfur in V
is
the form of commercial quality sulfuric acid. 3
32. The dam’s lakes: (d) Generation of single-phase power involves
(a) Change markedly the local ecological less losses compared to three-phase power
conditions, vary the pressure applied to the land generation
and ground water level Where, V= line voltage
(b) Do not affect plant and animal life in the nearby I = current in ampere
region cosφ = power factor
(c) Submerge very little area
Ans.(c): Three phase wye (star) connection: The three
(d) Of hydroelectric plants are usually regarded single phase AC alternator winding are wired in parallel
as dirty and harmful
with the same reference lead of each winding connected
Ans.(a): The dam’s lakes change markedly the local to supply conductor L , L and L . The other ends or
1 2 3
ecological conditions, vary the pressure applied to the
leads of the three single-phase winding are connected
land and ground water level.
commonly to each other.
33. Wastewater can be made potable and usable by
employing:
(a) Filtration and sedimentation as chemical
methods for purification.
(b) Sedimentation as physical method and
oxidising agent like chlorine or ozone as
chemical method for purification
(c) Screening and skimming as biological
methods for purification
(d) Physical methods such as aerobic and anaerobic
process for purification
Ans.(b): Waste water can be made potable and usable
by employing sedimentation as physical method and A 3-phase AC line voltage in a star wiring
oxidising agent like chlorine or ozone as chemical configuration is 173% ( 3) greater than the single-
method for purification.
phase AC winding voltage.
Public water system often use a series of water
Formula:
treatment steps that include coagulation, flocculation,
sedimentation, filtration and disinfection. Vline = 3 × Vphase
Sedimentation: It use to seperate out solids from Vline
the water. During sedimentation, flocs settle to the or Vphase =
3
bottom of the water because they are heavier than
water. 35. Forces equal to P, 2P, 3P and 4P act along the
Disinfection: After the water has been filtered, and side AB, BC, CD and DA of a square ABCD. The
one or more chemical disinfectants (such as magnitude of resultant and the angle which the
chlorine, chloramine or chlorine dioxide) to kill any resultant makes with the horizontal are
remaining parasities, bacteria or viruses. respectively:
30
 3 3 F
(a) P and 60° (b) P and 60° 300 – T = 30 a.......(1) m=
2 4 a=g
(c) 2 3P and 30° (d) 2 2P and 45° For block 200 N is moving upward (from question)
balancing equation–
Ans.(d): Resultant (R) = P 2 + Q 2 + 2PQ cosθ
 200 
in x-axis– T1 − 200 =  a
 10 
P = P – 3P = – 2P
T – 200 = 20a .......(2)
y-axis–
Adding the equation (1) and (2)
Q = 2P – 4P
300 − T= 30a
= – 2P T − 200 = 20a

100 = 50a
2
a = 2 m/sec
Put the value of a in equation (1)
300 – T = 30 × 2
T = 240 N
So, tension in the rope on its side is 240 N.
Resultant (R) = (2P) 2 + (2P) 2 + 2PQ cos 90° rd
According to 3 motion equation–
= 4P 2 + 4P 2 v2 = u2 + 2as Q t = 0 its velocity u = 3 m/sec
25 = 9 + 2 × 2 × s t = t its velocity v = 5 m/sec
= 8P 2
4s = 16
Magnitude = 2 2 P
16
angle = 45° s= = 4m
4
36. Two blocks weighing 200 N and 300 N are hung 37. A balloon weighing W descends with an
to the ends of a rope passing over an ideal acceleration of a. When weight w is removed
pulley. The velocity of the system at time t = 0 from the balloon, the balloon has an upward
is 3 m/s and velocity of the system at time t
acceleration of a. In such a situation, the value
becomes 5 m/s. The block weighing 200N shows
of w should be:
an upward displacement of h. Acceleration due
2 2Wa Wa
to gravity is 10 m/s . According to work energy (a) (b)
3(a + g) 2(a − g)
method, the tensions in the rope on its sides and
the value of h are: aW 2aW
(c) (d)
(a) 280 N, 300 N and 2.5 m respectively 2 (a + g) a+g
(b) 240 N, 240 N and 4 m respectively Where g is acceleration due to gravity.
(c) 240 N, 250 N and 2 m respectively
Ans.(d): Initial weight be w and buoyancy force is B.
(d) 250 N, 230 N and 3 m respectively
Ans.(b): For ideal pulley, let tension
T2 = T1 = T

From the question,

Balloon descends with an acceleration of ‘a’ So ‘w’ is
Block 300 N is moving downward direction, balancing
act in downward direction.
force of block 300N is–
Then, balancing forces, F = ma
 300 
300 − T2 =   .a F = ma Mg − B = M.a .......(1)
 10 

31
when weight w is removed from the balloon has an −625
2a =
upward acceleration of a. 100
Equation will be– a = – 3.125 m/sec.
2

B − ( M − m ) g = ( M − m ) .a .........(2) st
Now 1 motion equation–
From equation (1) and (2) v = u + at
Adding– 0 = 25 + (– 3.125) × t
(Mg–B)+B–Mg+mg = Ma+Ma–ma 25
t=
mg = 2Ma–ma 3.125
m(g+a) = 2Ma = 8 sec.
m = 2Ma/g+a 39. Work done by a non-conservative force:
balloon weighing in w- (a) Acting on a particle would be zero, if the
2w.a moving particle comes back to its original
so, =
g+a starting position.
38. A motorist is travelling at a speed of 25 m/s. He (b) is always positive.
suddenly applies the brakes and comes to rest (c) Would be negative, will lead to loss in energy.
after skidding to a distance of 100m. Acceleration (d) is independent of the path followed by the
2
due to gravity is 10 ms . The time required for the particle it acts upon
car to stop and coefficient of friction of kinetic Ans.(c): A non conservation force is a force whose
type between the tyre and the road are: work done on a system is dependent on the path the
(a) 8 s, 0.3125 respectively objects with in system take.
(b) 6 s, 0.27 respectively If an object in the presence of non-conservative
(c) 9 s, 0.40 respectively force were to take a path that starts and end at the
(d) 5 s, 0.25 respectively same location, the work done will not be equal to
Ans.(a): Given that, zero.
velocity = 25 m/sec. Work done by non-conservation forces is always
1 negative because it always opposes, the motion. It
Initial kinetic energy of motorist = mv 2 means that it’s direction is always negative.
2
Example of these non-conservative forces include
1
= × m × (25) 2 friction and air resistance.
2
So work done by a non-conservative force would be
Applying the brakes, velocity is zero. So final kinetic
negative, will lead to loss in energy.
energy of motorist = 0
Energy lost to frictional force = µmgs 40. In the driving system of energy meter:
(a) There is a permanent magnet which is excited
where, µ = coefficient of friction
by the current flow through the coil
s = distance (skidding)
(b) The core of electromagnet is absent
= µ.mg. (100)
(c) The series electromagnet is absent
Now, applying work energy theorem,
(d) The coil of shunt electro-magnet is called
Final K.E – initial K.E = energy lost
pressure coil
1
0 − × m × 625 = −µmg (100) Ans.(d): The energy which is used for measuring the
2
energy utilises by the electric load is known as the
625
µ= energy meter.
2×9.8×100
The energy meter has four main parts. They are:
= 0.3185
(i) Driving system
rd
Now, 3 motion equation, (ii) Moving system
2 2
v = u + 2as (iii) Breaking system
0 = 625 + 2a (100) (iv) Registering system

32
 Driving system: The electromagnet is the main Ans.(c): Theodolite: A theodolite is a precision
compound of the driving system. It is the temporary instrument for measuring angles in the horizontal and
magnet which is excited by the current flow through vertical planes. Theodolite are used mainly for
their coil. The driving system has two surveying applications and have been adapted for
electromagnet. The upper one is called the shunt specialized purposes in field like metrology and rocket
electromagnet and the lower one is called series lanuch technology.
electromagnet. The coil of shunt electromagnet is 44. Dumpy level:
called pressure coil. (a) Has a firmly secured telescope which can
rotate only in horizontal plane
41. The braking system of an energy meter:
(b) Has a firmly secured telescope which can
(a) Makes use of permanent magnet for reducing
rotate only in vertical plane
rotation of aluminium disc
(c) Has no rotational arrangement
(b) Makes use of temporary magnet which is
(d) Cannot be used for checking points in the
adjustable
same horizontal plane
(c) Also records the number of rotations of
Ans.(a): Dumpy level: It has a firmly secured telescope
aluminium disc
which are rotate only in horizontal plane. Relative
(d) Makes use of temporary magnet for reducing elevation of different prints of a surveying land is
rotation of aluminium disc determined with dumpy level.
Ans.(a): Braking system: The permanent magnet is used English civil engineer William Gravatt is
for reducing the rotation of the aluminium disc. The considered as the inventor of the dumpy level. A
aluminium disc induces the eddy current because of their dumpy level is also called a builder’s level an
rotation. The eddy current cut the magnetic flux of the automatic level.
permanent magnet and hence produces the braking torque. The dumpy level is mainly used in surveying for the
The permanent magnet is adjustable due to which purposes to determine relative height and distance
the braking torque is also adjusted by shifting the among different locations of a surveying land.
magnet do the other radial position. 45. Ratchet is the part of:
(a) Sine bar (b) Dial bevel protractor
42. The instrument used to compute the area of
irregular region on a map or photograph is: (c) Clinometer (d) Micrometer
(a) Rotameter (b) Planimeter Ans.(d): Micrometer: A micrometer, sometimes known
as a micrometer screw gauge. A micrometer is used for
(c) Tachometer (d) Odometer
measuring extremely small dimensions. The main parts of
Ans.(b): Planimeter: A plainmeter is a table-top micrometer screw guage are: Frame, Anvil, Spindle,
instrument for measuring areas, usually the areas of Sleeve, Ratchet, Screw etc.
irregular regions on a map or photograph. Ratchet: A ratchet is a gadget with mechnical teeth
Rotameter: Rotameter is a reliable, simple and low on a wheel that moves in only one direction. The
cost flow measuring instrument. This instrument is used ratchet ensures uniform pressure between the
to measure the flow rate of a liquid or a gas. This meter measuring surface in micrometer.
includes a tapered tube through a moving internal float. Sine bar: The sine bar is an exact angle meausring
Tachometer: A tachometer is a device that is useful in instrument. It is used to measures angles very
measuring the operating speed of an engine at the accurately or to algin the workpiece at a given angle.
revolution of RPM. Clinometer: A clinometer or inclinometer is an
instrument for measuring angles of slope, elevation, or
Odometer: An instrument for measuring the distance.
depression of an object with respect to gravity.
43. Theodolite is:
46. Permanent magnet moving-coil ammeter:
(a) A precise optical instrument used for
(a) is used for the measurement of direct current
measuring the distance between two planets
(b) is used for the measurement of both alternating
(b) An electronic machine for measuring the and direct currents
surface roughness (c) Produces torque for the deflection of pointer
(c) A precise optical instrument for measuring 2
proportional to I , where I is the total current
the angle between designated visible points in flowing in circuit in ampere
the horizontal and vertical planes (d) is used for the measurement of alternating
(d) An inaccurate instrument used in surveying current
33
 Ans.(a): (Permanent Magnet Moving Coil (PMMC) – Ans.(c): A beam of uniform rectangular cross section is
The instrument which use the permanent magnet for under a transverse load. The stress along the neutral axis
creating the stationary magnetic field between which the of central cross-section is maximum shearing stress
coil moves is known as the permanent magnet moving only.
coil. 3 F
τmax = .
It operates on the principle that the torque is exerted 2 b.d
on the moving coil placed in the field of the where, F = load
permanent magnet. bd = area of cross-section
The PMMC instrument gives the accurate result for τmax = 1.5 τaverage
DC measurement. F
so, τaverage =
bd
47. In generalized three-dimensional state of stress,
the number of independent stress components is: 50. The crippling load for a direction-fixed strut is:
(a) 4 (a) Four times that of a strut with one end
direction-fixed and other end free for the
(b) 6
same length
(c) 8 (b) Directly proportional to the square of the
(d) 9 length of strut
Ans.(b): In generalized, three-dimensional state of stress, (c) Three times that of a strut with one end fixed
the number of independent stress components is 6. i.e. σx, and other pinned
(d) Four times that of a pin-ended strut for the
σy, σz, Txy, Txz and Tzy. same length
48. A cyclindrical specimen of length L and cross-
π 2 EI
sectional area A extends by δ under a gradually Ans.(d): Crippling load (PE ) = Le 2
applied tensile load P. The strain energy of the
where, Le = effective length
specimen is: E = modulus of elascity
1 I = moment of interia
(a)   Pδ
 
2 Support condition Effective length
1 P δ  Both end hinged/pinned Le = L
(b)  × 
2A L Both ends fixed L
Le =
(c) (stress on the cross-section) × (strain along 2
the axis) × (volume of specimen) One end fixed other end free Le = 2L
(d) Pδ One end fixed other end hinged L
Le =
Ans.(a): Strain energy is defined as the energy stored in 2
any material due to deformation. Both end fixed so Le = L/2
Formula– then,

P.δ π 2 EI
Strain energy (U) = PE = 2
2 L
 
where, P = load 2
δ = strain/elevation 4π 2 EI
= .......(1)
49. A beam of uniform rectangular cross-section is L2
under a transverse load. The stress along the Both ends hinged/pinned, so Le = L
neutral axis of central cross-section is: π2 EI
PE' = .......(2)
(a) Only bending stress L2
(b) Maximum bending stress and minimum From equation (1) and (2)
shearing stress PE = 4P'E
(c) Maximum shearing stress only So, the cripping load for a direction fixed strut is four
times that of a pin ended strut for the same length.
(d) Bending stress and shearing stress
34

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 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2022
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical)
General Hindi (Paper-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hrs Exam Date: 13 October, 2022

efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 1 mes 10 lekeâ) : ÙeneB ome JeekeäÙe efoS (c) ceQ Deehekeâer efpeccesoejer uetbieer~
ieS nQ~ ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe ceW Ûeej efJekeâuhe nQ~ FveceW mes pees Megæ (d) ceQ Deheveer efpeccesoejer jntBiee~
JeekeäÙe nes Gmekesâ efueS efveOee&efjle (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) ceW mes Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ceQ mJeÙeb efpeccesoejer efveYeeTBiee’
keâesF& Skeâ Gòej kesâ ™he ceW Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefvnle keâerefpeS~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
1. cewves keâF& hegmlekesâ heÌ{s nQ~ 7. hegefueme ves ceMentj Ûeesj keâes hekeâÌ[ ueer~
(a) ceQ keâF& hegmlekeWâ heÌ{er nQ~ (b) ceQves keâF& hegmlekeWâ heÌ{er nQ~ (a) hegefueme ves ceMentj Ûeesj hekeâÌ[ ueer~
(c) ceQves keâF& hegmlekeWâ heÌ{e nQ~ (d) ceQ keâF& hegmlekeWâ heÌ{s nQ~ (b) hegefueme megØeefmeæ Ûeesj keâes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ceQves keâF& hegmlekeWâ heÌ{er nQ’ Megæ (c) hegefueme ves kegâKÙeele Ûeesj keâes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~
JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (d) hegefueme ves ØeKÙeele Ûeesj hekeâÌ[ efueÙee
2. Deepekeâue osMe ceW iejerye ueesie keâce efceueles Les~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘hegefueme ves kegâKÙeele Ûeesj keâes
(a) Deepekeâue osMe ceW iejerye ueesie Lees[Ì e ner nw~ hekeâÌ[ efueÙee’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(b) Deepekeâue osMe ceW iejerye ueesie keâce efceueles Les~ 8. nceves yengle keâece keâje~
(c) Deepekeâue osMe ceW iejerye ueesie keâce efceueles nQ~ (a) nceves yengle keâece keâes efkeâÙee~
(d) Deepekeâue osMe ceW iejerye ueesie keâce nesles nQ~ (b) nceves yengle keâece efkeâÙee~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Deepekeâue osMe ceW iejerye ueesie (c) nceves Yeejer keâece efkeâÙes~
keâce efceueles nQ’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (d) nceves yengle keâece keâer~
3. ceQves ceeuee henveeÙee~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘nceves yengle keâece efkeâÙee’ Megæ
(a) cewves ceeuee henveeF& (b) cew ceeuee henveeF& JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) cewves ceeueeSB henveeÙes~ (d) ceQ ceeuee henveeÙes~ 9. ceesnve ves efyemlej hej mees ieÙee~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW mes ‘ceQves ceeuee henveeF&’ Megæ JeekeäÙe (a) ceesnve ves efyemlej hej uesše~
nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (b) ceesnve efveõece«e nw~
(c) ceesnve ves veeRo ceW Ûeue efoÙee~
4. jece oes «ebLe heÌ{er~
(d) ceesnve efyemlej hej mees ieÙee~
(a) jece ves oes «ebLe heÌ{s~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ceesnve efyemlej hej mees ieÙee’
(b) jece oes «ebLe heÌ{er
Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) jece ves oes «ebLe heÌ{er nw~
10. jece ieerle ieeÙee~
(d) jece mes oes «ebLe heÌ{er ieF&~
(a) jece ves ceer"er ieerle ieeÙeer~ (b) jece ves ieerle ieeÙee~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘jece ves oes «ebLe heÌ{s’ Megæ
(c) jece ieerle ieeÙee Lee~ (d) jece ceer"e ieeÙee~
JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘jece ves ieerle ieeÙee’ Megæ JeekeäÙe
5. cesjer efkeâmcele Kegue ieÙee~
nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(a) cesje efkeâmcele Kegue ieÙee~ (b) cesjer efkeâmcele Kegue ieÙeer~
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 11 mes 15 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele lelmece
(c) cesjer efkeâmcele Kegue ieÙee~ (d) cesjer efkeâmcele kegâue ieÙeer~
MeyoeW kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej efJekeâuhe (a), (b), (c) Deewj (d) efoS
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘cesjer efkeâmcele Kegue ieÙeer’ Megæ ieS nQ~ FveceW mes meJee&efOekeâ GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuhe Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ
JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
6. ceQ cesjer efpeccesoejer efveYeeTBieer~ 11. DejCÙe
(a) ceQ mJeÙeb efpeccesoejer efveYeeTBiee (a) GÅeeve (b) pebieue
(b) ceQ Kego efpeccesoejer jntBiee (c) hesÌ[eW mes Yeje ØeosMe (d) efMeKej
35
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘DejCÙe’ keâe 19. ieÌ[s cegox GKeeÌ[vee
GheÙe&gkeäle DeLe& ‘pebieue’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (a) yegje ueievee
12. celmÙe (b) Ieyeje peevee
(a) keâerÌ[e (b) meeBhe (c) Fvekeâej keâjvee
(c) ceÚueer (d) ceke&âš (d) yeerleer yeeleeW keâes Ùeeo keâjvee
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘celmÙe’ keâe Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ieÌ[s cegox GKeeÌ[vee’ cegneJejs keâe
GheÙe&gkeäle DeLe& ‘ceÚueer’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ mener DeLe& ‘yeerleer yeeleeW keâes Ùeeo keâjvee’ nw~
13. meccegKe 20. veekeâ jieÌ[vee
(a) meeceves (b) yeepet ceW (a) j#ee kesâ efueS efieÌ[efieÌ[evee (b) iegmmee keâjvee
(c) vepej ceW (d) meeLe ceW (c) MeefceËoe nesvee (d) ueefppele nesvee
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘meccegKe’ keâe Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘veekeâ jieÌ[vee’ cegneJejs keâe mener
GheÙe&gkeäle DeLe& ‘meeceves’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ DeLe& ‘j#ee kesâ efueS efieÌ[efieÌ[evee’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
14. cemlekeâ efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 21 mes 25 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙeeW
(a) efmej (b) YeeQns ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS (a), (b), (c) Deewj (d) kesâ meeceves
(c) ceo (d) ueueeš Deueie-Deueie Meyo efueKes ngS nQ~ Fve MeyoeW ceW mes GheÙegòeâ
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘cemlekeâ’ keâe
efJeueesce Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
GheÙe&gkeäle DeLe& ‘efmej’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ 21. Ùegæ ceW Ùeesæe keâer peerle nesleer nw~

15. MeesefCele (a) efJepeÙe (b) efJeÕepeerle

(c) efJekeâeme (d) nej
(a) veeÌ[er (b) ueeue
(c) heeflele (d) Ketve Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘peerle’ keâe
GheÙe&gkeäle efJeueesce ‘nej’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘MeesefCele’ keâe
GheÙe&gkeäle DeLe& ‘Ketve’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ 22. ceveg<Ùe keâe ùoÙe keâesceue nesvee ÛeeefnS~

efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 16 mes 20 lekeâ): efvecveefueefKele cegneJejeW (a) Goej (b) keâ"esj

kesâ efueS (a), (b), (c) Deewj (d) kesâ meeceves DeLe& efueKes ngS nQ~ (c) keâ®Cee mes Yeje (d) oÙeeMeerue
FveceW mes GheÙeg&òeâ DeLe& keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘keâesceue’ keâe
keâerefpeS~ GheÙe&gkeäle efJeueesce ‘keâ"esj’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
16. GBieueer hej veÛeevee 23. YeejleerÙe ueesie veweflekeâlee keâe meceLe&ve keâjles nQ~
(a) Deemeeve keâjvee (b) FÛÚevegmeej keâjJeevee (a) ØeeceeefCekeâlee (b) DeeoMe&
(c) yeouee uesvee (d) iegmmes ceW Deevee (c) menevegYetefle (d) Deveseflekeâlee
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘GBieueer hej veÛeevee’ cegneJejs keâe Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘veweflekeâlee’ keâe
mener DeLe& ‘FÛÚevegmeej keâjJeevee’ nw~ GheÙe&gkeäle efJeueesce ‘Deveweflekeâlee’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
17. DeeBKeW ueeue nesvee 24. osMe kesâ GlLeeve ceW meye Meeefceue nQ~
(a) jesvee (b) oÙee efoKeevee (a) efJekeâ<e&Ce (b) GVeÙeve
(c) heÚleevee (d) iegmmee keâjvee (c) efJekeâeme (d) heleve
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeeBKeW ueeue nesvee’ cegneJejs keâe Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘GlLeeve’ keâe
mener DeLe& ‘iegmmee keâjvee’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ GheÙe&gkeäle efJeueesce ‘heleve’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
18. peer Ûegjevee 25. hejeOeerve mehevesngB megKe veeneR~
(a) cesnvele mes yeÛevee (b) cesnvele keâjvee (a) DeOeerve (b) efvece«e
(c) Yeeievee (d) oesÌ[vee (c) mJeleb$e (d) hejleb$e
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘peer Ûegjevee’ cegneJejs keâe mener Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘hejeOeerve’ keâe
DeLe& ‘cesnvele mes yeÛevee’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ GheÙe&gkeäle efJeueesce ‘mJeleb$e’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
36
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 26 mes 30 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele DeMegæ 33. KeÛe& ve keâjves Jeeuee
MeyoeW kesâ efueS (a), (b), (c) Deewj (d) kesâ meeceves Deueie-Deueie (a) DeØeeceeefCekeâ (b) meb«eenkeâ
Meyo efoS ieS nQ~ FveceW mes Megæ Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW (c) kebâpetme (d) Kebpetme
efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘KeÛe& ve keâjves Jeeuee’ JeekeäÙe kesâ
26. efJeefMe‰ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘kebâpetme’ nesiee~
(a) efJeMes<e (b) efJeefMe° 34. pees jemlee efoKeelee nw
(c) efJeef<eMš (d) JeerefMe° (a) Gòespekeâ (b) Goejkeâ
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efJeefMe<š’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee (c) heLeieeceer (d) ceeie&oMe&keâ
Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘pees jemlee efoKeelee nw’ JeekeäÙe kesâ
27. meebØeoeÙekeâlee efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘ceeie&oMe&keâ’ nesiee~
(a) meebØeoeÙeerkeâlee (b) meebØeoeÙeerKelee 35. pees ve° ve neslee nes
(c) meebØeOeeefÙekeâlee (d) meecØeoeefÙekeâlee
(a) veÕej (b) DeuheeJeefOe
Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘meecØeoeefÙekeâlee’ Megæ Jele&veer (c) efJeveeMe (d) MeeÕele
Jeeuee Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘pees ve<š ve neslee nes’ JeekeäÙe kesâ
28. DeeleLeeÙeer efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘MeeMJele’ nesiee~
(a) DeeLeleeefÙe (b) DeeleeleeÙeer
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 36 mes 40 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele ØelÙeskeâ
(c) DeeleleeefÙe (d) DeeleleeÙeer
JeekeäÙe ceW Skeâ Meyo jsKeebefkeâle nw~ ØelÙeskeâ jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ
Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeeleleeÙeer’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee efueS (a), (b), (c), Deewj (d) kesâ meeceves Skeâ-Skeâ Meyo efueKee
Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ ieÙee nw~ FveceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes GheÙeg&òeâ
29. JÙeefKlehejkeâ efJekeâuhe Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
(a) JÙeefòeâhejkeâ (b) JÙeòeâerhejkeâ 36. heLÙe mes mJemLe nesves keâer mebYeeJevee yeveer jnleer nw~
(c) JÙeeKleerhekeâj (d) JewÙeòeâerhejkeâ (a) Deew<eOe (b) ce=°e$e
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘JÙeefkeälehejkeâ’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee (c) GefÛele Yeespeve (d) GheJeeme
Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
30. Debleje°^erÙelee ‘heLÙe’ keâe GheÙe&gkeäle DeLe& ‘GefÛele Yeespeve’ nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ
(a) Deblejeef°Ùelee (b) Debleje&°^erÙelee JeekeäÙe nesiee- GefÛele Yeespeve mes mJemLe nesves keâer mecYeeJevee yeveer jnleer
(c) DebLeje&°^erÙelee (d) Deblejje°erÙelee nw~
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Devleje&<š^erÙelee’ Megæ Jele&veer 37. jesieer keâe peerJeve og:Keo neslee nw~
Jeeuee Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (a) efve®òej (b) keâ°oeÙekeâ
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 31 mes 35 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙe (c) efveOe&ve (d) meceepecegKeer
Ùee JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej Meyo efoS ieS nQ~ FveceW mes Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
GheÙeg&òeâ Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ ‘og:Keo’ keâe GheÙe&gkeäle DeLe& ‘keâ<šoeÙekeâ’ nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ
31. pees OewÙe&Meeueer nw JeekeäÙe nesiee– jesieer keâe peerJeve keâ<šoeÙekeâ neslee nw~
(a) ØeÙelveMeerue (b) ØeeceeefCekeâ 38. DeveeLe kegâšer ceW meeslee nw~
(c) Oeerj (d) DeOeerj (a) veeefmlekeâ (b) [jheeskeâ
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘pees OewÙe&Meeueer nw’ JeekeäÙe kesâ (c) iejerye (d) [eketâ
efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘Oeerj’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
32. Deeoj osves ÙeesiÙe ‘DeveeLe’ keâe GheÙe&gkeäle DeLe& ‘iejerye’ nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe
(a) ieewjJeeefvJele (b) DeeojCeerÙe nesiee– iejerye kegâšer ceW meeslee nw~
(c) Øeefmeæ (d) DeeOejCeerÙee 39. efveOe&ve keâer Ghes#ee veneR keâjveer ÛeeefnS~
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Deeoj osves ÙeesiÙe’ JeekeäÙe kesâ (a) Oevenerve (b) ceeefuekeâ
efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘DeeojCeerÙe’ nesiee~ (c) keâceevesJeeuee (d) YetKee
37
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo mebmke=âefle Deewj meYÙelee keâer meceevelee Deewj Demeceevelee keâes Fme
‘efveOe&ve’ keâe GheÙe&gkeäle DeLe& ‘Oevenerve’ nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe Øekeâej mecePee pee mekeâlee nw efkeâ ceeveJeerÙe cesOee Deewj ØeeCeMeefòeâ
nesiee- Oevenerve keâer Ghes#ee veneR keâjveer ÛeeefnS~ keâe efJekeâeme oes ner mlejeW hej Ieefšle neslee nw~ 1. Yeeweflekeâ mlej hej
40. heejeJeej keâe heeveer vecekeâerve nw~ Deewj 2. ceeveefmekeâ mlej hej~ ceeveefmekeâ mlej hej ÙeneB DeefYeØeeÙe
(a) leeueeye (b) mejesJej ceve, yegefæ Deewj Deelcee-Fve leerveeW keâer meefcceefuele meòee mes nw~
(c) mecegboj (d) veoer meYÙelee ceveg<Ùe kesâ Yeeweflekeâ mlej keâe efJekeâeme nw lees mebmke=âefle
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ceveg<Ùe kesâ ceeveefmekeâ efJekeâeme keâe~ peneB Skeâ Deesj meYÙelee keâe
‘heejeJeej’ keâe GheÙe&gkeäle DeLe& ‘mecegboj’ nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe DeLe& ceveg<Ùe kesâ owefvekeâ peerJeve keâer DeeJeMÙekeâleeDeeW leLee megKe-
nesiee– mecegboj keâe heeveer vecekeâerve nw~ megefJeOee keâer Dele=hle ueeuemee keâer hetefle& kesâ efueS efveefce&le efJeješ leb$e
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 41 mes 45 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele (a), mebmLeeve mes nw lees otmejer Deesj meYÙelee keâe keâeÙe& nw Skeâ Ssmeer
(b), (c) Deewj (d) ceW mes Megæ JeekeäÙe henÛeevekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW meeceeefpekeâ JÙeJemLee keâes pevce osvee pees veerefleÙeeW Deewj efveÙeceeW hej
efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ DeeOeeefjle nes~ ØelÙeskeâ je°^ keâer efvepeer mebmke=âefle nesleer nw pees Gmekeâes
41. Skeâ met$e ceW efhejesÙes jKeleer nw-
(a) jece ves jesšer KeeÙee (b) jece ves jesšer KeeÙeer jerefle-efjJeepe, meeefnlÙe, efMe#ee, keâuee, jnve-menve, peerJeve-oMe&ve
(c) jece jesšer KeeÛeer~ (d) jece jesšer KeeÙes~ SJeb ceevÙeleeDeeW meYeer keâe meceenej mebmke=âefle kesâ Debleie&le nes peelee
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ‘jece ves jesšer KeeÙeer’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ mebmke=âefle ceeveJe kesâ peerJeve-Je=#e keâe megiebefOele heg<he nQ Gmekeâer
nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ megiebOe ceW je°^ keâer Deefmcelee Debleefve&efnle nesleer nw~
42. 46. GheÙeg&òeâ DeJelejCe keâe GheÙegòeâ Meer<e&keâ nw
(a) efiejves mes efYeKeejer keâe ØeeCe efvekeâue ieÙee~ (a) mebmke=âefle Deewj meYÙelee (b) mebmke=âefle Deewj meeefnlÙe
(b) efiejves mes efYeKeejer kesâ ØeeCe efvekeâue ieS~ (c) mebmke=âefle Deewj Deelcee (d) mebmke=âefle Deewj keâuee
(c) efiejves mes efYeKeejer keâer ØeeCe efvekeâue ieÙeer~ Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle DeJelejCe keâe GheÙe&gkeäle Meer<e&keâ nw– ‘mebmke=âefle
(d) efiejves mes efYeKeejer keâe ØeeCe GÌ[ ieÙee~ Deewj meYÙelee’~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ‘efiejves mes efYeKeejer kesâ ØeeCe 47. Deelcee efkeâme DeeOeej hej KeÌ[er nw?
efvekeâue ieS’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (a) ÛeejeW Deesj keâe JeeleeJejCe (b) Yeeweflekeâ megKe
43. (c) yee¢e peerJeve (d) Deebleefjkeâ DeeOeej
(a) jece keâer ieeÙe keâeuee nw~ (b) jece keâer ieeÙe keâeueer nw~ Ans. (d) : Deelcee Deebleefjkeâ DeeOeej hej KeÌ[er nw~
(c) jece kesâ ieeÙeW keâeueer nQ~ (d) jece kesâ ieeÙeW keâeues nQ~
48. meeceeefpekeâ efveÙece keâe DeeOeej nw
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ‘jece keâer ieeÙe keâeueer nw’ Megæ
(a) YeeJevee (b) yegefæ
JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
(c) ueeuemee (d) veerefle
44.
Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle DeJelejCe kesâ Devegmeej meeceeefpekeâ efveÙece keâe
(a) cesjs keâes yebyeF& peevee nw~ (b) cesjs keâes yebyeF& hengBÛevee nw~
DeeOeej ‘veerefle’ nw~
(c) cegPes yebyeF& peeveer nw~ (d) cegPes yebyeF& peevee nw~
49. keâuee keâe mebyebOe efkeâmemes nw?
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ‘cegPes yecyeF& peevee nw’ Megæ JeekeäÙe
nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (a) ueeuemee (b) keâ®Cee

45. (c) menevegYetefle (d) mebmke=âefle

(a) Deehekeâer oMe&ve keâjvee nw~ (b) Deehekeâe oMe&ve uesvee nw~ Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle DeJelejCe kesâ Devegmeej keâuee keâe mecyevOe
(c) Deehekesâ oMe&ve keâjves nQ~ (d) Deehekeâe oMe&ve keâjvee nw~ ‘mebmke=âefle’ mes nw~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ‘Deehekesâ oMe&ve keâjves nQ’ Megæ 50. YeejleerÙe mebmke=âefle keâe Skeâ ØecegKe DeeOeej nw
JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (a) efJeueeme (b) oMe&ve
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 46 mes 50 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele (c) heefjßece (d) Yeeweflekeâ megefJeOee
DeJelejCe keâes OÙeevehetJe&keâ heefÌ{S Deewj hetÚs ieS ØeMveeW kesâ mener Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle DeJelejCe kesâ Devegmeej– YeejleerÙe mebmke=âefle keâe
efJekeâuhe Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ Skeâ ØecegKe DeeOeej ‘oMe&ve’ nw~
38
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2022
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical)
General English (Paper-II)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hrs Exam Date: 13 October, 2022

Spotting Errors Ans.(b): In the place of "be following" the word

Directions (Q.Nos. 1 to 10): Read each of the following ‘follow’ will be used.
sentences to find out whether there is an error in any Subject + modal auxiliary verbs + VI + object + other
underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. word.
If you feel there is no error in a sentence, write (D) to Modal auxiliary verb →Will, shall, can, could, should,
signify ‘No error’. would, may, might, must, dare, need, used to, ought to.
Did she went to school today ? No error She threw her wedding ring
1. 7.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B)
Ans.(b): In option 'B' go will be used in place of ‘went’. to the river. No error
Did + sub + VI form + object + other word (C) (D)
Heis the man which I know Ans.(c): In the place of 'to the river' the word 'in the
2.
(A) (B) river' will be used because 'in' is used to indicate
you can trust No error location or position within or inside something.
(C) (D) One of my classmate has passed
8.
Ans.(b): In option 'B' use of ‘who I know' in place of (A) (B)
‘which I know’. the exam. No error
She requested me to pay for (C) (D)
3.
(A) (B) Ans.(a): In the place of 'one of my classmate', "one of
her expenses. No error my classmates" will be used.
(C) (D) Hemant is more taller
9.
(A) (B)
Ans.(d): In the given sentence there is no error.
He goes to the office than Hiten. No error
4. (C) (D)
(A) (B)
Ans.(b): The given sentence in comparative degree so in
yesterday. No error
the place of 'more taller', 'taller' will be used.
(C) (D)
The ministers were plotting
Ans.(a): In the place of 'He goes' ‘He went’ will be use 10.
(A) (B)
because the given sentence is in simple past tense.
against the king. No error
There was a disagreement between
5. (C) (D)
(A) (B)
Ans.(d): In the given sentence there is no error.
the two friends. No error
Sentence Improvement:
(C) (D)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 20): Below each of the
Ans.(d): In the given sentence there is no error. following sentences three possible substitutes are given
You must be following for the underlined part. If one of them is better than the
6. underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer-
(A) (B)
sheet against the corresponding letter (A), (B) or (C). If
traffic rules. No error none of the substitutes improves the sentence, indicate
(C) (D) (D) as your response on the Answer-sheet.

39
11. I have send the parcel to your address. Ans.(b): In the place of 'am sitting', 'was sitting' will be
(a) Have sent (b) Sending used because given sentence is in past continuous.
(c) Send (d) No improvement 19.
She is brightest student in the class.
Ans.(a): In the given sentence in the place of 'have send', (a) is the brightest (b) is bright
'have sent' will be used. have + V3 (c) is brighter than all (d) No improvement
12. I was here, since morning, waiting for you to Ans.(a): The given sentence is in superlative degree so in
show up. the place of 'is brightest', 'is the brightest' will be used.
(a) Have been here (b) Had been here 20. I have been here since four hours.
(c) Have had been here (d) No improvement (a) Until (b) For
Ans.(a): Given sentence is in present perfect continuous (c) About (d) No improvement
so in the place of 'was here', 'have been here' will be used. Ans.(b): The given sentence will be used 'for' in place
13. Friends should look on for each other. of 'since' because 'since' used for definite time while
(a) Look out (b) Look after 'for' used for indefinite time.
(c) Look it (d) No improvement Vocabulary:
Ans.(a): In the above sentence instead of 'look on,' 'look Directions (Q.Nos. 21 to 25): Below each of the following
out' will be used. words (in capital letters) four possible substitutes are
given. Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to
'look out' means to be careful or to pay attention to
the word given in capital letters and indicate your
something dangerous.
response on the Answer-sheet.
14. We will left by tomorrow morning. 21. FLAMBOYANT
(a) Leave (b) Leaving (a) Gaudy (b) Grotesque
(c) Had left (d) No improvement (c) Flammable (d) Flair
Ans.(a): In the given sentence in the place of 'left', 'leave' Ans.(a): The nearest meaning of flamboyant is Gaudy
will be used. personality and personality.
Subject+ will/shall +VIform + object + other words. Meaning of other words given are–
15. Will you kindly break the knot? Grotesque – Ugly
(a) Loose (b) Untie Flammable – Burnable
(c) Cut (d) No improvement
Flair – Talent
Ans.(b): In the place of 'break', 'Untie' will be used
22. LUCID
because the meaning of break is to separate while the
(a) Cryptic (b) Ludicrous
meaning of Untie is undo or unknot.
(c) Clear (d) Antic
16. If I knew earlier, I would have come sooner.
Ans.(c): The nearest meaning of Lucid is clear.
(a) I had known earlier
Meaning of other words given are–
(b) I was knowing
(c) I would have been knowing
Cryptic – Mysterious
(d) No improvement Ludicrous – Ridiculous
Ans.(a): In the above sentence in the place of 'I knew Antic – Singular, prodigious
earlier', 'I had known earlier' will be used because sentence 23.
ABATE
is talking about past tense. (a) Prolong (b) Aid
17. He could not look without his glasses. (c) Reduce (d) Enhance
(a) See (b) See through Ans.(c): The nearest meaning of Abate is reduce. Abate
(c) Look at (d) No improvement means to become less strong.
Ans.(a): In the place of look 'see' will be used because Meaning of other words given are–
in the sence of look or view the word,' see' is more Prolong – Lengthen
appropriate. Aid – Support, assistant
18. Yesterday morning, I am sitting in a coffee Enhance – Increase
shop, by this time of the day. 24. DEMURE
(a) Were sitting upon (b) Was sitting (a) Coy (b) Immodest
(c) Have been sitting (d) No improvement (c) Demonic (d) Demented
40
Ans.(a): The nearest meaning of 'Demure' is coy (used Riot – Situation in which group of
especially about a girl or young woman) other meaning people behave in a violent
of demure is shy & quite. Obsolete – Ancient
Meaning of other option- Tumid – Engorged
Immodest – Indecent 30. VACUITY
Demonic – Devilish (a) Void (b) Fullness
Demented – Crazy (c) Sanity (d) Vague
25. CURB Ans.(b): The meaning of 'vacuity' is lack of thought's
(a) Impel (b) Restrain and antonyms of vacuity is 'fullness'.
(c) Curdle (d) Foment Meaning of other options.
Ans.(b): The nearest meaning of 'curb' is 'restrain' Void – Empty
The meaning of other options- Sanity – Sensible
Impel – Rouse, foment, Incite Vague – Not clear
Curdle – Coagulate/Clot Selecting Words
Foment – Excite, rouse Directions (Q. Nos. 31 to 40): Each of the following
sentences is given with blank space to be filled in with
Directions (Q. Nos. 26 to 30): Below each of the
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested
following words (in capital letters) four possible
for each sentence. Choose the correct alternative.
substitutes are given. Pick out the word that is most
31. There is_____milk left in the jug
nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capital
(a) Some (b) Little
letters and indicate your response on the Answer-sheet.
(c) Much (d) None
26. TORRID
(a) Parched (b) Breezy Ans.(a): In the blank space of given sentence the word
'some' will be used because 'some' is used to express
(c) Vain (d) Calm
quantities.
Ans.(b): The meaning of 'Torrid' is very hot or dry and
32. _____many times a year in Frankfurt.
correct antonyms of torrid is 'Breezy' which means fresh
(a) It snows (b) It is snowing
air.
(c) It is snow (d) It had snowed
27. BENIGN
Ans.(a): 'It snows' will used in the blank space.
(a) Harmful (b) Harmless
(c) External (d) Bold 33. The fish here is_____ delicious.
(a) Completely (b) Really
Ans.(a): The meaning of 'Benign' is (used about people)
(c) Fully (d) Wholly
kind or gentle and opposite of it is 'Harmful'
Meaning of other options- Ans.(b): 'Really' will be used in the blank space because
according to meaning of sentence 'really' delicious is
Harmless – Safe
appropriate.
External – Outer
Bold – Dauntless, daring, valiant 34. _____was at the party last night.
(a) Anyone (b) Anybody
28. TREBLE
(c) Everybody (d) All
(a) High (b) Low
Ans.(c): 'Everybody' will be used in the given space
(c) Tense (d) Tremble
because for special group.
Ans.(b): The nearly opposite word of 'Treble' is low.
35. This issue is something we must talk_____in the
High – Tall, peak, pinnacle
class.
Tense – Rigid (a) On (b) About
Tremble – Shake, Quiver (c) In (d) Between
29. TUMULT Ans.(b): 'About' will be used in the given blank because
(a) Riot (b) Obsolete here with word talk 'about' preposition will be
(c) Peace (d) Tumid appropriate.
Ans.(c): The nearly meaning of 'Tumult' is loud, 36. My friend is named_____her grandmother.
confused noise, opposite meaning of 'Tumult' is 'peace' (a) Before (b) On
Meaning of other words- (c) After (d) With

41
 Ans.(c): In the given blank 'after' preposition will be Ans.(c): The proper meaning of the above idiom 'Beat
used. around the bush' is 'to indirectly talk about something
37. _____you finish in time, you will be in trouble. and not talk about it openly.'
(a) Unless (b) Otherwise 44. Red flag
(c) Until (d) Since (a) A warming sign that something is wrong
Ans.(a): 'Unless' will be used in the blank space of the (b) Call for war
above sentence. Unless means to choose one thing over (c) Call for peace
the other. The use of unless while doing one thing is (d) Jealously
completed by using it in some other work as well.
Ans.(a): The proper meaning of the above idiom 'Red
38. I saw Sarah just_____day. flag' is 'a warning sign that something is wrong (danger
(a) The other (b) Another flag).'
(c) The another (d) Other
45. Pass the buck
Ans.(a): In 'The other' will be used in the blank space of (a) Blame someone else (b) To pay money
the above sentence.
(c) To hold off money (d) Worthless act
Use of other- The other is definite, it refers to specific
people or things. Ans.(a): The proper meaning of the above idiom 'pass
the buck' is "blame someone else".
39. _____for your help, I would never have
managed this task. Directions (Q. Nos. 46 to 50) : Below each of the
(a) Not (b) But following underlined definitions four possible
(c) Unless (d) Otherwise substitutes (words) are given. Choose the correct
word which may closely fit each definition.
Ans.(b): 'But' will be used in the blank space of the
46. Relating to financial matters
given option because but is a coordinating conjunction
which allows such ideas to connect, which are contrast. (a) Fiscal (b) Facade
(c) Fidelity (d) Haven
40. He completely denied _____ it.
(a) Say (b) Having said Ans.(a): The proper meaning of the above underline
(c) Have said (d) Had said part financial 'Relating to financial matter' is 'fiscal'.
Ans.(b): 'Having said' will be used in the given option. 47. To set someone free from an obligation or the
consequences of guilt.
Phrases/Idioms
Directions (Q. Nos. 41 to 45): Below each of the (a) Abstain (b) Obstinate
following underlined idioms or phrases four possible (c) Absolve (d) Emancipate
substitutes (words or group of words) are given. Ans.(c): The proper meaning of above underline part
Select the one which is most nearly the same to the 'To set someone free from an obligation or the
given idiom/phrase. consequences of guilt', is "Absolve".
41. Arrow in the quiver 48. Free from fault or blame
(a) A personal gain (a) Truculent (b) Belligerent
(b) A resource for achieving a goal (c) Amateur (d) Impeccable
(c) Harm one’s own self
Ans.(d): The proper meaning the above underline part
(d) A failure
'free from fault or blame' is 'Impeccable'.
Ans.(b): In the given Idiom exact meaning of 'Arrow in
49. To utter abusive and slanderous statements
the quiver' is 'A resource for Achieving a goal'.
against someone
42. Cloud nine (a) Object (b) Vilify
(a) A state of extreme happiness
(c) Coalesce (d) Abject
(b) Unrealistic goals
(c) Fancy words Ans.(b): The proper meaning of the above underline
part 'To utter abusive and slanderous statements against
(d) Unpleasant situation
someone' is 'Vilify.'
Ans.(a): The proper meaning of the above idiom 'cloud
nine' is 'A state of extreme happiness.' 50. A person who has expert knowledge in a
subject
43. Beat around the bush
(a) Concoat (b) Concur
(a) To go hunting
(c) Coup (d) Cognoscente
(b) Gardening
(c) To indirectly talk about something and not Ans.(d): The proper meaning of above sentence 'A
talk about it openly person who has expert knowledge in a subject' is
(d) To blossom 'cognoscente'.

42
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2022
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical)
General Studies (Paper-III)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hrs Exam Date: 13 October, 2022

1. The least count of Vernier Caliper is Ans. (b) : Global warming occurs when carbon dioxide
(a) 0.01 cm (b) 0.01 mm (CO2) and other air pollutants collect in the atmosphere
(c) 0.1 cm (d) 0.001 cm and absorb sunlight and solar radiation that have
bounced off the Earth's surface.
Ans. (a) : A vernier caliper is defined as a measuring ● Global warming has resulted in the increase in sea
device that is used for measuring linear dimensions. It is levels.
also used for the measurement of diameters of round ● An increase in the sea levels is caused due to the
objects with the help of the measuring jaws. melting of ice caps and snow at the poles due to an
● The least count of vernier callipers is also known as increase in the temperature.
the vernier constant. It is defined as the difference 5. A thick glass plate behaves like a
between one main scale division and one vernier (a) convex mirror (b) concave mirror
scale division. It is mathematically given as (c) convex lens (d) plane mirror
VC = 1MSD − 1VSD Ans. (d) : A plane mirror is a mirror with a flat
reflective surface.
● The least count of vernier caliper is 0.01 cm. A plane mirror is made of a glass plate which is several
2. The unit of linear momentum is millimeters thick where one surface is polished to high
-2 2 -1 degree surface finish (front part) and back part surface
(a) kg m s (b) kg ms
-1 is silver polished with mercury.
(c) Ns (d) Ns Therefore a thick glass plate behaves like a plane
Ans. (d) : Linear momentum is the vector quantity and mirror.
defined as the product of the mass of an object, M and 6. ____ are used in radiotherapy.
its velocity V. (a) X-rays (b) γ-rays
p = mv (c) UV-rays (d) IR-rays
Ans. (b) : Gamma rays (γ-rays) are mostly used in the
P = mv = Kg-m/s = Kg-m/s.s. radiotherapy/radio-oncology to treat cancer. They can
= N.S = impulse = f.dt also be used to spot tumours. Gamma rays can kill
living cells and damage malignant tumor. The gamma
● The S.I. unit of linear momentum is kg.m/s. radiation intensity decreases exponentially with the
depth of penetration.
● Impulse is dimensionally equivalent to the
7. A fuse wire is made up of ______ alloy.
momentum, so the unit of linear momentum is also
(a) manganin and constantan
N.s.
(b) constantan and tungsten
3. Altimeter is an equipment used in an aircraft to (c) lead and tin
measure its (d) copper and aluminium
(a) pressure (b) velocity Ans. (c) : Due to their high resistance and low melting
(c) altitude (d) temperature point, tin and lead are combined to form the fuse wire.
Ans. (c) : An altimeter is a device that measures ● The composition 0
of the tin and lead alloy, which
altitude, the distance of a point above sea level melts at 183 C, is 62% tin and 38% lead.
● A fuse is a piece of wire of a material with a very
● Altimeters are important navigation instruments for
low melting point, that is, it melts and breaks as
aircraft and spacecraft pilots who monitor their soon as its temperature gets higher than its melting
height above Earth's surface. point. It is used in a circuit to avoid overloading or
● It measures the height of an aircraft above a fixed short circuiting.
level. Two types of altimeter are in common use in 8. In cold countries, water is used as heat
aircraft- Barometric and Radio Altimeter. reservoir for wine bottles because
4. The global warming has resulted in (a) specific heat capacity of water is same as that
(a) the increase in yield of crops of the wine
(b) specific heat capacity of water is very high
(b) the increase in sea level
(c) specific heat capacity of water is very low
(c) the decrease in sea level (d) specific heat capacity of water is less than the
(d) the decrease in human deaths wine
43
Ans. (b) : In cold countries, water is used as heat Ans. (d) : Dental amalgam is a mixture of metals,
reservoir for wine bottles because specific heat capacity consisting of liquid mercury and a powdered alloy
of water is very high. composed by silver, tin and copper.
● Water has a large amount of specific heat capacity ● Dental amalgam is a dental filling material used to
which makes it durable to a large range of fill cavities caused by tooth decay.
temperature because freezing point of juice and
● Approximately 50% of dental amalgam is elemental
wine is much lesser than that of water. Thus water
keeps them isolated. mercury by weight.
9. _____ radiations are used to control the 14. _______ hydrocarbon is a greenhouse gas.
thickness of papers, plastic and metal sheets (a) Acetylene (b) Ethylene
during production. (c) Methane (d) Ethane
(a) Beta (b) Gamma Ans. (c) : Methane (CH4) is a greenhouse gas and a
(c) Alpha (d) Infrared hydrocarbon. Heavy forms have the potential to
Ans. (a) : A radioactive source producing beta radiation contaminate soil and groundwater. Because methane,
is used to control the thickness in the manufacturing the most widely stated hydrocarbon in this context, is a
industry. more effective heat trapping greenhouse gas than CO2,
● Example– The thickness of aluminum foil is it contributes more to climate change when it leaks into
controlled by measuring the amount of beta the atmosphere unburned than the carbon dioxide (CO2)
radiation that passes through it. created by burning it. Greenhouse gases are gases that
● The detector is a Geiger counter and measures the cause global warming.
intensity of the beta radiations passing through the
15. Volume-temperature relationship is given by
material.
(a) Charles (b) Boyle
10. The quality of sound depends upon
(c) Dalton (d) Cavendish
(a) amplitude (b) frequency
(c) wavelength (d) waveform Ans. (a) : Charles law states that the volume of a given
amount of gas is directly proportional to its temperature
Ans. (d) : The waveform of sound waves produced by
instruments governs the quality or timber of a sound. on the Kelvin scale when the pressure is held constant.
Therefore waveform is an important characteristic of a Mathematically this can be written as–
sound. V ∝ T or V = Constant. T
● Sounds produced by two different sources of or V = K. T
loudness and pitch are distinguishable because of V1 V2
different waveforms produced by them. or =
11. Rice grows better in _____ soil. T1 T2
(a) neutral (b) acidic 16. On reaction with water, active metal produces
(c) alkaline (d) red (a) an acid (b) a base
Ans. (b) : Rice is a tropical plant that requires sufficient (c) oxygen (d) metal oxide
water to grow well.
Ans. (b) : An active metal on reacting with water
● Therefore, the soil used in growing rice should have
produces a base. The first group elements are the most
a good water holding capacity.
reactive metals. When they react with water, the plus
● Silt clay, silt clay loam and clay are some of the soil
charge on the metal is cancelled by the negative charge
textures that are best for rice farming.
of hydroxide ion. Hence, there is a formation of basic
● Rice grows better in acidic soil. The soil acidity is
measured on a scale of 1 to 14. oxide.
12. The only non-metal which forms positive ion is 17. If there was no carbon dioxide in the earth's
(a) hydrogen (b) helium atmosphere, the temperature of the earth
(c) argon (d) oxygen would be
(a) higher than the present
Ans. (a) : Metals are defined as the elements which
form positive ions by the loss of electrons. (b) lower than the present
Ex– Sodium, magnesium, aluminium etc. (c) the same
● Non-metal are the elements which form negative (d) dependent on the amount of oxygen present in
ions by the gain of electrons. the atmosphere
Ex– Chlorine, nitrogen, oxygen etc. But hydrogen is the Ans. (b) : Throughout geological time greenhouse gave
only non-metal which forms positive ions. notably methane and carbon dioxide are responsible for
13. Dental amalgam is a mixture of earths atmosphere.
(a) mercury and silver-lead alloy Carbon dioxide traps solar energy and elevates the
(b) mercury and silver-iron alloy surface temperature of the earth. If CO2 is absent in
(c) mercury and iron-tin alloy atmosphere there will be no trapping of solar energy
(d) mercury and silver-tin alloy and reduce or fall in temperature will occur.
44
18. The maximum prescribed concentration of ● Through cloud networking the data delivered faster.
copper in drinking water is ● Cloud networking is hence a more reliable as well
(a) 5 ppm (b) 4 ppm as a more secure source of data transfer without any
(c) 3 ppm (d) 2 ppm cost.
Ans. (c) : Copper is a metal that occurs naturally and is 23. _____ mode of transmission requires the
used to make many products, including parts for devices to be in a direct line of sight with each
plumbing systems. other.
● It can get into your drinking water as the water
(a) Bluetooth (b) Wi-Fi
passes through your household plumbing system.
Too much copper intake of copper can cause (c) Infrared (d) Hi-Fi
vomiting, diarrhea, stomach cramps, nausea, liver Ans. (c) : Infrared light are electromagnetic waves
damage and kidney disease. which are transverse in nature and travel indirect path
● Hence, maximum concentration of copper from source to the receiver. Electromagnetic
prescribed in drinking water is 3ppm. transmission includes the light envisions travelling in
19. When a neutral atom is converted into a cation, straight line therefore infrared rays have direct line of
its right with device source and receiver.
(a) atomic weight increases 24. _______ is aware of the addresses assigned to
(b) atomic weight decreases each of its ports and sends the incoming data it
(c) size increases receives only to the correct port.
(d) size decreases (a) Hub (b) Switch
Ans. (d) : Cation is defined as a positively charged (c) Repeater (d) Modem
which is formed when an element loses an electron.
Ans. (b) : A switch is aware of addresses associated
If the cation is formed then the size of the positively
charged atom (i.e. cation) decreases because the number with each of its ports and forwards each incoming data
of electrons initially presented in the neutral atom gets frame to the correct port.
decreased by one. ● Switches can base forwarding decisions on
20. Which of the following is diamagnetic? guidelines that are provided in the headers of
TCP/IP protocols.
(a) O +2 (b) O −2 2
● A switch, simplified, is a smarter version of a hub.
(c) O −2 (d) O 2 ● On a switch, as with a hub, each computer is
Ans. (b) : The electronic configuration of a molecule connected through a single line.
will contain no unpaired electron, called diamagnetic. ● However, the switch is smarter about where it sends
The molecular electronic configuration of O −2 2 is (σ1s)2 data that comes in through one of its ports.
(σ1s* )2 (σ 2s )2 (σ*2s )2 (σ2pZ ) 2 (π2px ) 2 (π2pY )2 (π*2PX )2 25. Reddit is a social networking site which is also
called a/an ______ app.
(π*2pX )2 (a) banking (b) education
Hence, O −2 2 is diamagnetic. (c) entertainment (d) news aggregator
21. Picasa is a free program from ______ that is Ans. (d) : Reddit is an American social news
used to organize, edit and share the digital aggregation, content rating and discussion website.
photographs online. ● Registered users (commonly referred to as
(a) Amazon (b) Flipkart “Redditors”) submit content to the site such as links,
(c) Microsoft (d) Google text posts, images and videos, which are then voted
Ans. (d) : Picasa is free online photo-sharing tool up or down by other members.
provided by Google. Once a user downloads Picasa, it ● Posts are organized by subject into user created
automatically locates photos on the user's PC and boards called "communities" or "subreddits".
moves them to Picasa. 26. File transfer protocol was originally designed
The program then allows users to edit photos, compile by
and organize albums and share online photos.
(a) William Playfair (b) Suril Shah
22. Resources are centralized amongst the various (c) Abhay Bhushan (d) Robert Elliot Kahn
branches of an organization in a _____ cloud.
(a) private (b) public Ans. (c) : The first specification for FTP was published
(c) hybrid (d) community as RFC 114 on April 16, 1971 and was written by
Abhay Bhushan, then a student at the Massachusetts
Ans. (a) : Resources are centralized amongst the
various branches of an organization in a private cloud. Institute of Technology. The original idea behind FTP
● In the field on computer studies, cloud networking was to enable the transfer of files over ARPANET, the
can be described as networking access which is precursor to the internet.
given third party provider who operated inter- ● The protocol allowed users to send or receive files
connected services. before computers had graphical interfaces.

45
27. ______ is a logical situation where either of the 31. The trident shaped symbol of Buddhism does
two actions is to be performed depending upon not represent
the specific condition. (a) Nirvana (b) Sangha
(a) If else (b) If (c) Buddha (d) Dhamma
(c) If else if (d) End if
Ans. (a) : The trident shaped symbol in Buddhism
Ans. (a) : The IF-ELSE statement is used to follow a trident is a reference to the triple gem; Buddha,
certain set of instructions based on the result of a
Dhamma, Sangha whereas Nirvana means blowing out"
decision.
or "quenching".
● Consider a situation in real life when you would
want to make a decision based on a condition. ● Nirvana is the earliest and most common term used
● Let's take a example that we face in everyday life. to describe the goal of the Buddhist path.
⇒ If it rains, you will use an umbrella, otherwise you 32. The largest epic of the world is the
will not. (a) Ramayana (b) Bible
In this statement, we unconsciously make a decision (c) Mahabharata (d) Quran
of using the umbrella based on the condition that it's Ans. (c) : Mahabharata is the biggest epic in the world.
raining. It is one the two major epics of ancient India, the other
● In any programming language, these decisions and being the Ramayana.
conditions need to be explicitly mentioned, which is
● The author of the Mahabharata is Veda Vyasa in
exactly why we need an IF-ELSE statement.
Sanskrit.
28. What does OOP mean?
● It narrates the struggle between two groups of
(a) Object-Oriented Procedure
cousins in the Kurushetra war and the fates of
(b) Object-Oriented Programming
Kaurava and the Pandava princess and their
(c) Object-Origin Program
successors.
(d) None of the above
33. Devanagari script does not have _____
Ans. (b) : Object oriented programming is a
programming paradigm based on the concept of language.
“objects”, which can contain data and code. The data is (a) Marathi (b) Prakrit
in the form of fields and the code is in the form of (c) Sanskrit (d) Tamil
procedures. Ans. (d) : Devanagri also called Nagari script used to
● It also includes ideas of inheritance of attributes and write the Sanskrit, Prakrit, Hindi, Marathi and Nepali
methods. languages, developed from the North Indian
● It is a technique based on a mathematical discipline, monumental script known as Gupta and ultimately from
called "abstract data types", for storing data with the the Brahmi alphabet, from which all modern Indian
procedures needed to process that data. writing system are derived.
29. Which type of chart is used for representing 34. Which of the following is Kharif crop?
huge amount of data?
(a) Wheat (b) Groundnut
(a) Bar (b) Scatter
(c) Area (d) Line (c) Mustard (d) Gram
Ans. (d) : A line chart reveals trends or change over Ans. (b) : Kharif crops, which are also known as
time. Line charts can be used to show relationships monsoon crops, are the crops which are grown during
within a continuous data set and can be applied to a the monsoon or rainy season (June to October). Kharif
wide variety of categories, including daily number of crops are rice, maize, millet, ragi, pulses, soyabean,
visitors to a site or variations in stock prices. groundnut.
30. _____ has the capability to prioritise the Rabi Crops- wheat, barley, oats, gram, mustard, linseed.
process, minimize the execution time and work 35. Which of the following is one of the two days
independently with no interded-pendencies. when sun rises exactly in the east?
(a) DOS (b) MTOS (a) 14th January (b) 21st June
(c) RTOS (d) MPOS (c) 23rd December (d) 21st March
Ans. (c) : Real-time operating systems (RTOS) are used
Ans. (d) : The whole Earth experiences equal days and
in environments where a large number of events, mostly
external to the computer system, must be accepted and equal nights over equinox. It occurs on 21st March and
processed in a short time or within certain deadlines. September 23rd.
● Such applications are industrial control, telephone ● At this position, direct rays of the sun fall on the
switching equipment, flight control and real-time equator.
simulations. ● At this position, neither of the poles is tilted towards
● With an RTOS, the processing time is measured in the sun i.e. shines vertically overhead at noon on the
tenths of seconds. Equator.
46
36. The Attorney-General of India is the legal 40. According to Locke, which one of the following
advisor to the is not a natural right?
(a) President of India (a) Liberty (b) Equality
(b) Prime Minister on Foreign Policies (c) Property (d) Life
(c) Government of India Ans. (b) : Locke wrote that all individuals are equal in
(d) Vice President of India the sense that they are born with certain "inalienable"
Ans. (c) : The Attorney General of India is the Indian natural rights. That is, rights that are God-given and can
government's chief legal advisor, and its chief advocate never be taken or even given away. Among these
in the courts. They are appointed by the President of fundamental natural rights, Locke said, are "life, liberty
India at the instance of the Union Cabinet under Article and property”.
76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the 41. Which Indian city has been included by
pleasure of the President. UNESCO in its coveted list of Creative Cities
Network?
37. The saffron colour in the Indian National Flag
signifies (a) Srinagar (b) Kangra
(a) unity (b) sacrifice (c) Leh (d) Puri
(c) service (d) integrity Ans. (a) : The UNESCO Creative Network is a
UNESCO project that began in 2004 with the goal of
Ans. (b) : The saffron colour of the Indian National promoting cooperation among cities that consider
Flag symbolizes courage and sacrifice. creativity a critical component of their urban
● The white middle band indicates peace and truth development.
with Dharma Chakra/Ashoka Chakra ● The 246 cities that now make up this network are
● The green band shows the fertility, growth and working toward a shared goal, putting creativity and
auspiciousness of the land. culture industries at the centre of their local
● The National Flag of India was adopted during the development strategies while also engaging actively
meeting of the Constituent Assembly held on 22 on a global scale.
July 1947. ● As of November 2019, there are five Indian cities in
● The ratio of the width of the flag to its length is 2 : UNESCO Creative Cities Network as follows–
3. ⇒ Jaipur – Crafts and Folk Arts (2015)
38. The emphasis of Indian federation is on ⇒ Varanasi – Creative city of Music (2015)
(a) strength of States ⇒ Chennai – Creative city of Music (2017)
(b) division of power ⇒ Mumbai – Film (2019)
(c) unity of nation ⇒ Hyderabad – Gastronomy (2019)
(d) compromise with nationalities ⇒ Srinagar – Crafts and Folk Art (2021)
Ans. (c) : The emphasis of Indian federation is on unity ● UNESCO-: United Nations Educational, Scientific
of nation. and Cultural Organization.
India is a federal system but with more tilt towards a ● UNESCO'S Headquarter - Pairs, France.
unitary system of government. Sometimes, it is called ● UNESCO'S Head- Audrey Azoulay.
quasi-federal system. Article 1 of the Indian 42. World's largest Khadi National Flag has been
Constitution states 'Bharat shall be a union of states. installed at
Government work at two levels – (i) centre, (ii) state. (a) Srinagar (b) Shimla
39. Which of the following is not a function of the (c) Leh (d) Jammu
Reserve Bank of India? Ans. (c) : The world's largest Khadi national flag was
(a) To catch the fake currency notes installed in Leh town on the occassion of Mahatma
(b) To maintain the value of rupee Gandhi's 152nd birth anniversary.
(c) to regulate the flow of credit ● The flag was inaugurated by Ladakh Lieutenant
(d) It has supervisory power over other banks Governor R.K. Mathur.
Ans. (a) : The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was ● Its has a length of 225 feet with a width of 150 feet
established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the and weighs 1000 kilogram, according to national
provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. broadcaster Doordarshan, which broadcasted the
● RBI controls the credit operations of banks through inauguration ceremony.
quantitative and qualitative tools, hold the cash 43. Swachh Bharat Mission Urban was launched in
reserves fall the scheduled banks, controls the the year
banking system through the system of licensing, (a) 2013 (b) 2015
inspection, and calling for information, acts as the (c) 2016 (d) 2014
lender of the last resort by providing rediscount Ans. (d) : Swachh Bharat mission (SBM), Swachh
facilities to scheduled banks, has sole right to issue Bharat Abhiyan, or clean India mission is a country-
banknotes of all denominations etc. wide campaign initiated by the government of India in
● To catch the fake currency notes is not a function of 2014 to eliminate open defecation and improve solid
the Reserve Bank of India. waste management. It is a restructured version of the
47
Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan launched in 2009 that failed to ● Engineer's Day 2022 is celebrated to honour and
achieve its intended targets. recognize the achievements of Visvesvaraya.
● Slogen = One step towards cleanliness. ● This day in India provides an opportunity to
● Key people = Parameswaran lyer. celebrate and thank who play a vital role in the
● Launched = Raj Ghat and 2 October 2014 country's overall development as the scientific
44. Which country will host 7th U-17 Women's achievements are a sign of a developed nation that is
FIFA World Cup in 2022? on a correct path.
(a) England (b) France 48. Which highway became the country's first EV-
(c) India (d) China friendly highway?
Ans. (c) : The seventh edition of the FIFA U-17 (a) Delhi-Jaipur (b) Delhi-Amritsar
women's world cup was initially scheduled for 2020 but (c) Delhi-Chandigarh (d) Delhi-Agra
was then postponed due to COVID-19.
Ans. (c) : The Delhi - Chandigarh highway has become
Three venues- the kalinga stadium in Bhubaneswar
(odisha). The Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru stadium in the first e-vehicle friendly highway in the country. It
margao (Goa) and Dy Patil stadium in Navi mumbai now has a network of solar based Electric Vehicle
(maharashtra) hosted the 32 football matches of the Charging Stations (SEVCs) set up by Bharat Heavy
FIFA U-17 women's world cup 2022. Electricals Limited (BHEL) under the FAME-1 scheme
The final was played in navi mumbai. of the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
45. Which bank has been declared as the overall ● The EV charging station at Karnal lake resort is
winner of the EASE 3.0 awards? located at the midpoint of the Delhi Chandigarh
(a) Punjab National Bank Highway.
(b) HDFC Bank ● It was inaugurated by the Union Minister of Heavy
(c) ICICI Bank Industries (MHI) Mahendra Nath Pandey on 19
(d) State Bank of India Aug. 2021.
Ans. (d) : Union Minister of Finance and Corporate 49. Which city has been declared as the first water
Affairs Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman has announced the plus city of the country?
EASE 3.0 Awards. (a) Chandigarh (b) Indore
● State Bank of India is the overall winner of the (c) Bhopal (d) Hyderabad
EASE reforms Index Award 2021 (EASE 3.0
Ans. (b) : Indore, the country's cleanest city, has now
Awards). Bank of Baroda is second and Union Bank
of India is third been declared as the first 'water plus' city of India under
the Swachh Survekshan 2021, said Shivraj Singh
● Public Sector Banks have reported a profit of Rs.
31,817 crore in FY21 as compared to a loss of Rs. Chouhan, C.M. of Madhya Pradesh.
26,016 crore in FY20. This is the first year when ● Swachh Survekshan is an annual survey of
PSBs have reported profit after five years of losses. cleanliness, hygiene and sanitation in cities and
46. Who became the first Indian to win a towns across India launched as part of the Swachh
Paralympic medal in archery? Bharat Mission.
(a) Harvinder Singh (b) Manish Narwal 50. ______ has become the first Indian State/City
(c) Manoj Sarkar (d) Nishad Kumar to become free from rabies.
Ans. (a) : Harvirder Singh on September 2021, notched (a) Chennai (b) Bhubaneshwar
up India's first ever archery medal in the Paralympics, (c) Meghalaya (d) Goa
holding his nerves to down Kim Min Su of Korea in a Ans. (d) : Goa has become the first rabies free state of
thrilling shoot-off for the men's individual re-curve India. According to C.M. Pramod Sawant, the state has
bronze in the ongoing games here.
not reported a single rabies case in the last three years.
● World No. 23, Singh was the first athlete from India It has achieved 5,40,593 vaccinations against rabies in
to win a gold medal at a major para competition in
the 2018 Asian Games. dogs.
● An economics scholar from the Punjabi University, ● This state has also educated nearly a lakh people
Patiala, Singh collected three shoot - off wins on the about dog bite prevention and has set-up 24 hours
day, started with his triumphs in the opening rounds. rabies surveillance which comprises an emergency
47. Engineer's Day on 15th September marks the hotline and rapid response team for dog bite
birthday of great engineer victims.
(a) E. Sreedharan (b) Satish Dhawan ● The task of controlling rabies was being carried out
(c) M. Visvesvaraya (d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam by the Mission Rabies Project which is a central
government grant.
Ans. (c) : Engineer's Day in India is observed on
September 15 to honour Sir M. Visvesvaraya. He is ● It was launched in September 2013 to vaccinate
known as the first Civil Engineer in India, a statesman 50,000 dogs.
and was also the 19th Diwan of Mysore. ● Rabies has estimated to kill 59,000 people annually.

48
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2022
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical)
General Engineering Science (Paper-IV)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hrs Exam Date: 14 October, 2022

1. Two unlike parallel forces are shown in the • The force of friction will be upwards at its upper end
following figure. and towards the wall at its lower end.
• As the ground is smooth i.e. no friction, so, µA = 0
and the wall is rough, so µB ≠ 0.
• So, when ladder moves horizontally, the upper end of
the ladder starts moving down and this motion of
ladder down will be opposed by a frictional force
The resultant R can be located by the relation acting in the upward direction (fB).
(a) d1 × d2 = F1 × F2 (b) F1 × d2 = F2 × d1
Where µ = coefficient of friction
(c) F1/d1 = F2/d2 (d) F1 × d1 = F2 × d2
3. A circular disc rotating with constant angular
Ans. (d) :
speed of 5 rad/s, moves along a straight line.
The mass and the radius of the disc are 10 kg
and 1.0 m respectively. The total kinetic energy
possessed by the disc will be
(a) 187.5 N-m (b) 125 N-m
(c) 62.5 N-m (d) 250 N-m
Ans. (a) : Given-
To find out the position of the resultant, take moment of Mass of circular disc (m) = 10 kg
the forces about the point 'P' and 'Q' taken on the Radius of circular disc (r) = 1 m
resultant 'R' Angular Speed of circular disc (ω) = 5 rad/s
According to the principle of Moments. Since, rotation of circular disc is due to linear velocity
⇒ F2 × d 2 = F1 × d1 as well as it angular velocity, so total kinetic energy
⇒ F2 d 2 − F1d1 = 0 will be the sum of its translational kinetic energy and
or F1d1 = F2 d 2 rotational kinetic energy.
1 1
• Resultant of two unlike parallel forces will act in the i.e. Kinetic energy of circular disc = mv 2 + Iω2
direction of greater of forces depends upon the 2 2
perpendicular distance simultaneously. where, V = linear velocity of Circular disc = ωr
2. On a ladder resting on a smooth ground and V = 5×1 = 5 m/s
leaning against rough vertical wall, the force of I = moment of Inertia
friction acts If moment of inertia for disc about axis of rotation
(a) upward at its upper end
mr 2
(b) toward the wall at the upper end I=
(c) toward the wall at lower end 2
(d) downward at its upper end So,
1 2 1 1  2
Ans. (a) : Upward at its upper end Kinetic energy = ×10×(5) + × × mr 2 ×(5)
2 2  2 
1
= 125 + ×10 ×12 × 25
4
= 125 + 62.5
= 187.5 Nm.
Hence, the total kinetic energy of the circular disc is
187.5 Nm.

49
4. If the tension in the cable supporting the lift Scraper:- They are used to move or remove dirt, gravel
moving upwards is twice the tension when the or other material from ground surface. They also
lift is moving downwards, the acceleration of perform tasks such as:-
the lift is equal to • Excavation
(a) g/2 (b) g/3
• Leveling
(c) g/4 (d) g/5
• Loading
Ans. (b) : g/3
• Dumping
Let acceleration of the lift while moving upward or
downward is 'a'. • Hauling
Case I: When lift is moving upward. Grader:- A grader is a construction machine with a
long blade used the create a flat surface. Mostly used in
road construction and maintenance of dirt and gravel
roads. In paved roads, they are used to prepare the base
course to create a wide flat surface for the asphalt
(roadbed) to be placed on.
Excavator:- Excavator are heavy equipment consisting
⇒ T1= ma + mg of a boom, arm, bucket and cab with tracks or wheels.
=m(a + g) These machines are used mainly for digging purposes as
Case II: When lift is moving downward. well as versions lifting and carrying tasks in various
applications.
• Therefore Bulldozer can be used for construction
work like to clear the site of work to make the land
level.
6. Size of a theodolite is specified by
(a) the length of telescope
⇒ T2 = mg – ma (b) the diameter of vertical circle
= m (g – a) (c) the diameter of lower plate
According to the question, (d) the diameter of upper plate
T1 = 2T2 Ans. (c) : Theodolite is basically a surveying
⇒ m(a + g) = 2m (g – a) instrument, used for measuring angles in the horizontal
⇒ a + g = 2g – 2a and vertical planes. They are adapted mainly for the
g = 3a purposes in fields like metrology and rocket launch
technology.
g
∴ a= • Thedolite consists of movable telescope mounted
3
within two perpendicular axis the horizontal or
(g ) trunnion axis, and the vertical axis. When the
So, the acceleration of the lift (a) = .
3 telescope is pointed at a target object, the angle of
5. Which of the following equipments can be used each of these axis can be measured with great
for construction work like to clear the site of precision.
work, to make the land level, etc.? • The size of a theodolite is defined by the diameter of
(a) Scraper (b) Grader the graduated circle of the lower plate. The common
(c) Excavator (d) Bulldozer size (used for the general survey) is 8-12 cm while
Ans. (d) : Bulldozer:- Bulldozer are essential pieces of 14-25 cm instrument is used for triangulation.
heavy equipment used in numerous industries and 7. Which of the following is not used in total
application including construction, mining, agriculture station equipment?
and landscaping.
(a) Battery (b) Serial cable
• Bulldozer are used for shallow digging, short range
(c) Memory card (d) Alidade
transportation of material, spreading soil dumped from
trucks, rough grading, removing trees, stumps and Ans. (d) : Total Station:- It is also known as electronic
boulders and cleaning and leveling around loading tachometer. It is an optical instrument used for
equipment. surveying and building construction.

50
• It is a combination of an electronic theodolite and for 10. The basic unit in angular measurement is
measuring horizontal and vertical angles. (a) degree (b) minute
• The combination makes of possible to determine the (c) second (d) right angle
coordinates of a reflector by aligning the instrument Ans. (d) : Right angle:- A right angle is formed when a
cross- hairs on the reflector. straight line is divided equally into two parts. Each of
• A microprocessor in the instrument takes care of the these equal part is called a right angle. A right angle is
recordings, readings and other computation. important in defining the various system of measuring
• Distance between any two points and elevation of angle. There are three system for measuring angles.
objects can be measured. (1) Sexagesimal system
• Alidade refer to the sighting mechanism of any (2) Centesimal system
instrument used for surveying or navigation. It is
(3) Circular system
used commonly deployed in detailed survey
especially plane table, mapping etc.
• Major components will be used in total station such as
keyboard, control panel, data collector, memory card,
Battery and serial cable etc.
8. Repeatability of the instrument with respect to
a given fixed input is
(a) accuracy (b) precision •There are two basic units by which angle are
(c) resolution (d) sensitivity measured, one is degree (º) and second is radians (π).
arc ℓ
Ans. (b) : Repeatability of the instrument with respect θ= =
to a given fixed input is called precision. Radius r
Precision:- The closeness of two or more Where 0º ∠θ ∠360º
measurements to each other is known as the precision of and π radian = 180º
a substance. We get same value each time while
180º 
measuring. 1 radian = 
 π 
Accuracy:- The closeness of the agreement between the
result of a measurement and a true value of the thing Minute:- It comes under sexagesimal system of
being measured. measurement.
Resolution:-Resolution is the ability of the 1 min = 1' = 60 " (seconds)
measurement system to detect of faithfully indicate and 1º = 60' (min)
small changes in the characteristics of the measurement
 1 0
result. 1'(min) =  
Sensitivity:-It is an absolute quantity. The smallest  60 
absolute amount of change that can be detected by Second:- It comes under sexagesimal system of
measurement. measurement.
So, we can say that 'repeatability' occurs in precision. 1º = 60'(min)
9. LVDT works on the principle of 1' = 60 " (second)
(a) variable resistance 11. Universal surface gauge is used
(b) variable mutual induction
(a) for flatness testing
(c) variable self-induction
(b) for layout work and inspection
(d) variable capacitance
(c) for measuring profile of complex surface
Ans. (b) : LVDT- It stands for linear variable
(d) for measuring surface roughness
differential transducer. It works on the principle of
variable inductance. It has three coils namely the Ans. (b) : Universal surface gauge- A surface gauge is
primary coil which is the center coil. The other two are a dimensionless measuring tool made of steel, generally
called the secondary coils so connected that their used to transfer measurements to a work piece by
outputs are equal in magnitude but opposite in phase. scribing or etching a line.
• LVDT is the most used inductive transducer for • It is a basic tool for machines, which is used for
converting translating linear motion into electrical accurately scribing lines, transferring measurements or
signal. probing surfaces inspection work.

51
• The Kemet flatness gauge is used to monitor a lapping Considering the rigidity of shaft, the maximum shear
plates flatness and to give an indication of the flatness stress induced in the solid shaft of diameter 'd', to
of the plate will produces on a given part size. twisting moment 'TS' is given by,
• Profilometer /surface profilometer:- A profilometer is τmax =
16TS
a compact device that can be used for the direct πd 3
measurement of surface texture. The profilometer is The maximum shear stress induced in the hollow shaft
capable of measuring roughness together with waviness of outer diameter 'do' and inner diameter 'di' to transmit
and any other surface flaws. the twisting moment T.
• Roughness meters- Surface roughness meters are 16T
τmax =
instruments that measure the smoothness (degree of
roughness) of the surface of a target. The main types of
( )
πd o 1− k 4
3

meters use either probes or lasers. where 'K' is the ratio of outer and inner diameter
12. Mohr's circle construction is valid for both d
K= i
stress as well as the area moment of inertia do
because So,
(a) both are tensors of first-order d 50 1
(b) both are tensors of second-order K= i = =
d 0 100 2
(c) both are axial vectors
The maximum shear stress induced in the shaft is the
(d) both occur under plane stress condition
same, so the ratio of a twisting moment of the hollow
Ans. (b) : Mohr's circle - It is a graphical and solid shaft.
representation of the transformation equations for plane
T 1 15
stress problems. It is useful in visualizing the = 1− K 4 = 1− = .
TS 16 16
relationships between normal and shear stress acting on
a stresses element at any desired orientation, which are Hence, the twisting moment 'T' transmitted by hollow
determined in the x–y planes, represented through x shaft must be reduced by 1 .
and y axis, 16
X axis → Normal stress 14. The stresses induced in a shaft due to bending
Y axis → Shear Stress and torsion load are 80 MPa and 30 MPa
• Mohr's circle represents the transformation of the respectively. The yield strength of the shaft
second order tensor. It can be applied to any symmetric material is 280 MPa. Using maximum shear
tensor matrix including the strain and moment of inertia stress theory, the factor of safety will be
tensor. (a) 2.54 (b) 3.4
• Stress at a point as well as area moment of inertia is (c) 5.6 (d) 2.8
second order tensor which can be represented by 3 × 3 Ans. (d) : Principal stress induced due to the given
matrix. loading condition.
13. A solid steel shaft of 100 mm diameter and 1.0 1 2 
σx, y = (σ x + σ y ) ± (σ x − σ y ) + 4τ2xy 
m long is subjected to a twisting moment T. 2  

This shaft is to be replaced by a hollow shaft
Where σx and σy are the normal stress and τxy is the
having outer and inner diameter as 100 mm
shear stress
and 50 mm respectively. If the maximum shear
Given that,
stress induced in both the shafts is same, the
Bending stress = 80 N/mm2
twisting moment T transmitted by hollow shaft
must be reduced by shear stress = 30 N/mm2
(a) T/4 (b) T/8 1 2
σ1, 2 = 80 ± 802 + 4.(30) 
(c) T/16 (d) T/12 2  
Ans. (c) : Given, 80 + 100
σ1 = = 90N / mm 2
Diameter of solid shaft, d = 100 mm 2
other diameter of hollow shaft, do = 100 mm 80 −100
σ2 = = −10N / mm 2
Inner diameter of hollow shaft, di = 50 mm 2

52
 σ1 − σ 2 90 − (−10) Lead glass (Flint glass):- Its man constituents are
τmax = = = 50N / mm 2 fusing of silica, potash and lead. Lead glass containing a
2 2
high proportion of lead oxide and having extraordinary
yield stress in shear = .5 × yield stress in tension
clarity and brilliance. It is mainly used in electric
= .5 × 280
glasses and lenses and in prisms.
= 140 N/mm2
17. Which one of the following timbers is used for
τallowable sports goods?
τmax =
F.O.S. (a) Mulberry (b) Mahogany
τallowable 140 (c) Sal (d) Deodar
⇒ F.O.S. = = = 2.8
F.O.S. 50 Ans. (a) : Mulberry
15. A column of length L has one end hinged and Mulberry- It is typically used for baskets and sports
other fixed. The cross-section of the column is a goods hockey sticks, tennis baskets and cricket bats.
circle of diameter D. The slenderness ratio of Mahogany- It is used for crafting chambers and
the column is furniture.
(a) 2 L/D (b) 2 2 L/D Sal- The resin of the Sal tree is used in the indigenous
(c) 2L/D (d) 4L/D system of medicine as an astringent and detergent and is
Ans. (a) : Given that, given in diarrhea and dysentery. It is also used as an
length of column = L ingredient of ointments for skin diseases and in the ear
troubles. It is also used in the foot care cream. The fruits
Diameter = D
of the Sal tree are used in the treatment of excessive
D
radius (r) = salivation, epilepsy and Chlorosis.
2
Deodar- It is in great demand as building material
from question, if one end hinged other end fixed then, because of its durability, rot resistant character and fine,
L close grain which is capable of taking a high polish. The
effective length (Le) =
2 inner wood is aromatic and used to make incense.
We know that, Because of its antifungal and insect repellent properties,
effective length rooms made of Deodar Cedar wood are used to store
Slenderness ratio = meat and food grams like oats and wheat in Shania,
least radius of gyration
Kullu and Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh.
Le
= 18. Ball bearings are generally made of
rmin (a) cast iron
1 (b) malleable cast iron
= 2 (c) carbon steel
D (d) carbon-chrome steel
2 Ans. (d) : Carbon-chrome steel- It is most common
L chrome steels contain from 0.5% to 2% chromium and
= 2
D 0.1 to 1.5% carbon.
16. The common household glass is • The chrome steel is used for balls, rollers and races
(a) soda-lime glass (b) borosilicate glass for bearings.
(c) high silica glass (d) lead glass • Extensively used for motor car crankshafts, axles and
Ans. (a) : Soda-lime is the most common household gears requiring great strength and hardness.
glass (90% of glass is made) and least expensive form Cast Iron- It is made by reducing iron ore in a blast
of glass. furnace. It is alloy of iron that contains 2 to 4% carbon,
Soda-lime glass (soda ash glass/window glass)-It is along with varying amounts of silicon and Mn and
main constituents are fusion of silica, lime, soda and traces of impurities such as sulfur and phosphorus.
Alumina. It is commonly used in doors windows. Because of its good tensile strength and ductility,
Borosilicate glass (Pyrex glass)- It is main constituents malleable cast iron is used for electrical fittings and
are fusion of silica, borax, lime and feldspar. It is equipment hand tools, pipe fittings, washers and
mainly used as a laboratory equipment. machine parts.

53
Malleable cast Iron – Malleable cast iron is a modified nA
Where, ρ =
form of white cast iron which is modified by heat N A VC
treatment. It can be widely used as
N : Number of atoms associated with each unit cell
• Pipe fittings
A : Atomic weight
• Rail road equipment
NA = Avogadro's number (6.023×1023 atoms/mol)
• Also as a industrial plasters etc. Copper has FCC unit cell, thus.
(c) Carbon steel- It is a type of steel having a high
n=4
amount of carbon and low amounts of other elements. It
VC = a3 Where VC volume of unit cell
contain up to 1% carbon.
In FCC
19. The alloy used for manufacture of food
processing machinery is a = 2 2r
(a) Inconel (b) Monel metal ∴ a = 2 2 ×1.28×10−10 m
(c) Duraluminium (d) Babbit metal 3
Ans. (*) : Stainless steel – It is the alloy of iron (Fe) (
VC = a3 = 2 2 ×1.28×10−10 ) = 4.74×10−29 m3
74%, chromium (Cr) 18% and nickel (Ni) 8%. It is used nA
in making equipment for food and dairy industry ⇒ ρ=
N A VC
because of its corrosion resistance nature, smooth
surface, ease to clean and its nature to prevent bacterial 4 × 63.5
=
contamination. 6.023 × 10 × 4.74 × 10−29 ×1000
23

Inconel – It is a class of nickel chrome based super

alloys characterized by high corrosion resistance, ρ = 8.9×103 kg / m3
oxidation resistance, strength at high temperature and
21. In works management, theory of transactional
creep resistance.
analysis (TA) is applied to determine the
• Inconel is much more expensive than stainless steel
(a) feasibility of project
alloys. At lower temperature, steels like stainless will
(b) cause of behaviour of personnel
have high strength than inconel. It is used for wire rope,
propeller blades etc. (c) time taken for each activity
Monel metal – It is composed of nickel (up to 67%) (d) best layout
and copper, with small amount of Fe, Mn, C and Si. Ans. (b) :
Monel alloys are resistant to corrosion by many agent, Transactional Analysis (TA) is a psychoanalytic theory
including rapidly flowing sea water. These alloys are and method of therapy wherein social interactions (or
used in aerospace and marine application. transactions) are analyzed to determine the ego state of
Duraluminium :- It is an alloy of Aluminium (90%). It the communicator (whether parent- like, childlike, or
is very strong and hard but it is light in weight. So, it is adult like) as a basis for understanding behavior.
used in aircraft fittings, wheels, plates, space booster
• It was developed by Dr. Eric Berne in the 1950s and
tankage, making wire, bar, rods for screw machines etc.
60s and explores how people communicate and interact
Babbit metal:- It is a tin and lead based alloy. Tin
with one another.
based Babbit metal contains Sn (Tin) = 88%, Sb=8%
Cu = 4%. It possesses excellent antifriction properties • In work management, theory of TA is applied to
and sufficient mechanical strength, so most commonly determine the cause of behaviour of personnel.
used in bearings for axles and crankshafts. 22. A PERT network has three activities on critical
Commission deleted this question. path with mean time 3, 8 and 6, and standard
20. Copper has FCC structure, its atomic radius is deviation 1, 2 and 3 respectively. The
o probability that the project will be completed
1.28 A and atomic mass is 63.5. The density of in 20 days is
copper will be
(a) 0.50 (b) 0.66
(a) 8.9 × 103 kg/mm3 (b) 8.9 × 103 kg/cm3
3 3 (c) 0.84 (d) 0.95
(c) 8.9 × 10 kg/m (d) 8.9 × 103 g/mm3
Ans. (c) : Given that,
Ans. (c) : Given,
Critical path mean time = 3, 8, 6
Atomic mass = 63.5g
r = 1.28Å =1.28×10–10m. Standard deviation = 1, 2, 3
Theoretical density of a crystal structure, No. of days (T) = 20

54
Mean standard deviation (σ) = σ12 + σ 2 2 + σ3 2 • Bernoulli's theorem is the principle of energy
conservation for ideal fluids in steady or streamline
= 12 + 22 + 32 flow and is the basis for many engineering applications.
• Bernoulli's equation is applicable to ideal fluids which
= 14
are incompressible, rotational and subject conservative
Estimated Completion time, forces.
Te = 3 + 8 + 6 = 17
25. The continuity equation
T − Te 20 −17 3 (a) requires that Newton's second law of motion
Probability (Z) = = =
σ 14 14 be satisfied at every point in fluid
So, Probability = 0.84 (b) relates the momentum per unit volume for
23. Depreciation of machines is categorized under two points on a streamline
the head (c) expresses the relation between energy and
work
(a) direct expenses
(d) relates mass rate of flow along a streamline
(b) indirect expenses
Ans. (d) : Continuity equation is an equation that
(c) administrative expenses
describes the transport of some quantities like fluid or
(d) indirect material costs
gas. According to Continuity equation,
Ans. (b) : Depreciation Cost- It is the amount of a A1 V1 = A 2 V2
fixed asset that has been charged to expense through a
where,
periodic depreciation charge. The amount of this
expense is theoretically intended to reflect to the date A1 = cross sectional area of region 1
consumption of the asset. V1 = flow velocity in region 1
Indirect Cost- It is the one that is not directly A2 = cross sectional area of region 2
associated with an activity or product. V2 = flow velocity in region 2
Apply the principle of mass conservation,
So, it is clear from above that depreciation of machines
is an Indirect Cost. Volume flow in over A1 = A1 V1 ∆t
Direct cost-It is the one that varies in concert with Volume flow out over A2 = A2 V2 ∆t
changes in a related activity or product. Q mass in over Al = ρ A1 V1 ∆t
• Administrative expenses are cost that relate to regular mass in over A2 = ρ A2 V2 ∆t
business operation. For eg. rent, equipments, Salaries, so, ρA1V1 = ρA 2 V2
benefits etc. So, it can be fixed or semi variable.
• Indirect material cost is an expense which is incurred
in a manufacturing business. It is considered as a cost
which is used in the production of goods which does not
directly form as a part of the final product. For e.g glue,
• The continuity equation in fluid dynamics describes
that in any steady-state process, the rate at which mass
tape, oil etc.
leaves the system is equal to the rate at which mass
24. Bernoulli's theorem is applicable for enters a system. It applies to all fluids, compressible and
(a) streamline flow incompressible flow, Newtonian and non-Newtonian
(b) turbulent flow fluids.
(c) normal flow 26. Head loss in turbulent flow in a pipe
(d) perfect incompressible fluid flowing in (a) varies directly as velocity
continuous streams (b) varies inversely as square of velocity
Ans. (d) : Bernoulli's theorem states that the total (c) depends upon orientation of pipe
mechanical energy of the flowing fluid, comprising the (d) varies inversely as velocity
energy associated with fluid pressure, the gravitational Ans. (*) : Turbulent flow is defined as the flow in
potential energy of elevation and the kinetic energy of which the fluid particles moves in a zigzag way or
fluid motion remains constant. irregular fluctuations or mixing. In turbulent flow the
speed of the fluid at a point is continuously undergoing
1
P + ρv 2 + ρgh = constant changes in both magnitude and direction.
2
55
 4fLV 2 29. According to the first law of thermodynamics
Head loss (h) = (a) mass and energy are mutually convertible
2dg
(b) Carnot engine is most efficient
Where,
(c) heat and work are mutually convertible
f = friction factor, L= Length of pipe, d = diameter of
(d) mass and light are mutually convertible
pipe, V = Velocity of fluid
Ans. (c) : Heat and work are mutually convertible.
h ∝ V2
The first law of thermodynamics states that for a cyclic
That is Head loss in turbulent flow in a pipe varies
process, the cyclic integral of heat is equal to the cyclic
directly as square of velocity.
integral of work. So, heat and work are mutually
Commission deleted this question.
convertible.
27. Heat transfer takes place as per
30. According to Clausius statement
(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(a) heat flows from hot substance to cold
(b) Second law of thermodynamics
substance
(c) Kirchhoff's law
(b) heat flows from very hot substance to cold
(d) Stefan's law substance
Ans. (b) : The second law of thermodynamics states (c) heat cannot flow from cold substance to hot
that the state of entropy of the entire universe, as an substance
isolated system will always increase over time. That (d) heat can flow from cold substance to hot
means heat transformation occurs spontaneously but the substance with the aid of external work
heat only flow from high to low temperatures.
Ans. (d) : According to Clausius statement, heat can
• Naturally, the flow of heat only transfers from the
never pass from a colder to a warmer body without
high temperature to the low temperature. Hence we can
some other change, connected therewith, occurring at
say the heat transfer takes place as per 2nd law of
the same time.
thermodynamics.
Hence, it can be done through the aid of external work.
• Zeroth law of thermodynamics states that if two So, option 'D' is the correct answer.
bodies are each in thermal equilibrium with some third
31. The air standard efficiency of an Otto - cycle
body, they are also in equilibrium with each other.
compared to diesel cycle for the given
• Stefan's law or Stefan –Boltzmann law states that the
compression ratio is
amount of total radiant heat emitted from a surface is
(a) same
proportional to the fourth power of its absolute
(b) less
temperature.
(c) more
E ∝ T4
(d) more or less depending on power rating
E = σT 4
Ans. (c) : The air standard efficiency of an Otto - cycle
Where, σ = Stefan-Boltzmann constant = 5.6703×10–8
compared to diesel cycle for the given compression
Watt/m2K4 ratio is more. Otto cycle is more efficient that diesel,
28. A gray body is one whose absorptivity cycle for a given compression ratio.
(a) varies with temperature • The area of pressure volume diagram of the Otto –
(b) varies with the wavelength of incident ray cycle is greater than the diesel cycle for a given
(c) does not vary with temperature and compression ratio. Which means Otto cycle give more
wavelength of the incident ray work output than diesel cycle for same compression.
(d) There is no such criterion • Due to this reason diesel engines increase their weight
Ans. (c) : A gray body is a body (object) that emits and reduce the efficiency.
radiation at each wavelength in a constant ratio less than Compression ratio
unity to that emitted by a black body at the same Volume before compression
temperatures. (r) =
Volume after compression
• A grey body is a physical body whose absorptivity of
a surface does not vary with variation in temperature V + Vc
= s
and wavelength of incident radiation. Vc

56
where Vc = clearance volume, Vs = volume of cylinder 34. A series combination of three capacitors having
capacitance values of 4 µF, 5 µF and 8 µF is
connected across a potential of 230 V. The
charge on each capacitor is
(a) 122 × 10-6C (b) 132 × 10-6C
-6
(c) 151 × 10 C (d) 161 × 10-6C
Ans. (*) :
32. Reaction turbines are used for 1 1 1 1 10 + 8 + 5 23
= + + = =
(a) low head Ceq 4 5 8 40 40
(b) high head 40
(c) high head and low discharge C eq = µF
23
(d) low head and high discharge We know that,
Ans. (d) : The turbine which develops torque by Q = CV
responding to the pressure of liquid or the mass or the In series capacitor circuit
gas is known as a reaction turbine. charge on each capacitor is
• The reaction turbine operation can be done by using same.
Newton's third motion law which states that actions and
So,
reactions are equivalent but reverse within the direction.
40
• Reaction turbines are generally used for sites with Q = Ceqv × V = × 230
lower, head and higher discharge. 23
• There are different types of reaction turbines such as = 400µC
Francis, Propeller, gravity and kinetic turbine. Commission deleted this question.
33. If H is manometric height in meters, Q the 35. The value of resistance between points A and B
discharge in m3/sec and η the overall efficiency is
of pump and ρ density of fluid, then power to
drive centrifugal pump is equal to
ρQH ρQHη
(a) (b)
75η 75
QHη QHη
(c) (d)
75 75η (a) 3R (b) R
Ans. (a) : Given that, (c) R/3 (d) R/9
H is manometric height (meters) Ans. (c) : R/3
Q is discharge (m3/sec)
η is overall efficiency of pump
ρ is density of fluid.
So,
Power output Connected in parallel
Overall efficiency of pump = 1 1 1 1 3
Power input = + + =
'
R eq R R R R
ρgQH
η=
P R
R ' eq =
If efficiency is in percentage than, 3
ρgQH
η% =
P
ρQH
= in kilowatt (kw)
η
from the given expression, option (a) represents same as
the power to drive centrifugal pump. R/3, R/3 and R/3 are connected in series. So,

57
R R R 3R (a) 10.5 ohm (b) 11.11 ohm
+ + = = R"equ (c) 12.16 ohm (d) 13.5 ohm
3 3 3 3
Ans. (c) : Given that,
R"equ = R
V = 300 V, I = 30 A, P = 1600 W

In point A and B R, R"equ and R are connected in

parallel. So,
1 1 1 1
= + +
R eq R R " R
Power dissipated in one coil = 1600W
1 1 1 V2
= + + So, P=
R R R R1
3 2
= V 2 (300) 300×300 900
R ⇒ R1= = = = ohm
P 1600 1600 16
So, Requ = R/3
The equivalent resistance of the parallel combination
36. The value of resistance of each element in a will be:
star network is R/3. Then the value of V 300
resistance of each element for its equivalent Req = = = 10Ω
I 30
delta network is Since R1 and R2 are connected in parallel.
(a) R (b) 3R R ×R 2
(c) R/6 (d) R/9 Req = 1
R1 + R 2
Ans. (a) : Given that,
 
Each resistance, (RA) = RB = RC = R/3  900  R 2
 16 
We know that, ⇒ 10 =
900
Star to delta conversion – + R2
16
(R × RC ) + (RA × R B ) + (RB × RC ) 900R 2
RAB = A ⇒ = 10
RC 900 + 16R 2
(R × RC ) + (RA × R B ) + (RB × RC ) ⇒ 740R2 = 9000
RAC = A
RB 900
R2 = =12.16Ω
(RA × RC ) + (RA × R B ) + (RB × RC ) 74
RBC = 38. If equalizer bar is not used in two parallel
RA
connected compound DC generators, then
Put the value of RA, RB and RC in RAB (a) one of the generators may run as a motor
( R / 3 × R / 3) + ( R / 3 × R / 3) + ( R / 3 × R / 3) (b) both the generators may stop
RAB = (c) one of the generators may stop
R /3
(d) both the generators may start hunting
3R 2
2 Ans. (a) :
3R 3
= 9 = ×
R 9 R
3
=R
37. Two coils are connected in parallel and a
voltage of 300 volts is applied on the terminal.
The total current taken is 30 ampere and the
power dissipated in one of the coils is 1600 W.
Determine the resistance of each coil and select
the appropriate option.
58
For stable parallel operation of compound generators Ans. (*) : Given that,
(over and level compound generator) equalizer bars are equivalent inductance of series connection (Leq) = 20H
used. It is connected to the armature ends of the series If connection is reversed then (Leq) = 6H,
coil of the generator. The equalizer bar is also a Let us consider L1 and L2 are two coils.
conductor which is not required in case of under According to combined inductance is given by,
compound generator.
Leq = L1 + L 2 ± 2M
If equalizer bar is not used in two parallel connected
compound DC generators then one of the generators for series aiding connection, Leq = L1+ L2 + 2M
may run a motor. 20 = L1+ L2 + 2M ... (i)
39. 1-phase transformers having 400 kVA each, for reversed connection,
when tested by the Sumpner's test (back-to- Leq = L1+ L2 – 2M
back test) gave the following results: 6 = L1+ L2 – 2M ....(ii)
W1 in the supply line 8 kW, W2 in the Adding eq(i) and equation (ii)
secondary series circuit, when full load current we get,
circulated through the secondary is 12 kW 26 = 2 ( L1 + L2)
Determine the efficiency of each transformer L1 + L2 = 13
and select the correct option. Put the value in equation (i)
(a) 94.8% (b) 97.56% 20 = 13 + 2M
(c) 98.56% (d) 96.7% M = 3.5
Ans. (b) :Given that, M = K L1L 2
Iron core losses of both the transformer at rated
Voltage (W1) = 8 kW 3.5 = 0.6 L1L 2
Copper losses of both the transformer at rated 3.5/0.6 = L1L 2
voltage (W2) = 12 kW
Sum of two coils (L1 and L2) is 13. But in given option,
Full load output = 400 kVA
sum of two coils (L1 and L2) will not be 13. So there is
In Sumpner’s test,
no correct option.
% efficiency each of transformer
Commission deleted this question.
Full load output
= ×100 42. A graph of a network has 8 nodes and 5
W W
Full load output + 1 + 2 independent loops. The number of branches of
2 2
the graph is
400
= × 100
 8   12 
400 +   +  
2  2 
= 97.56%
40. Find the value of R for the maximum power
transfer to the load.
(a) 11
(a) 5 (b) 6.5
(b) 12
(c) 7.7 (d) 8.1
(c) 13
Ans. (*) : Commission deleted this question.
(d) 14
41. Two coils are connected in series and their
Ans. (b) : Given that,
effective inductance is found to be 20 H. When
the connections of one coil are reversed, the Number of independent loop (L) = 5
effective inductance is 6H. If the coefficient of We know that,
coupling is 0.6, then the self-inductance of each For any circuit or network, L = B – N + L
coil and the mutual inductance will be Where B = number of branches
(a) M = 2.5 and L1 = 12, L2 = 3 So,
(b) M = 3.5 and L1 = 12, L2 = 3 5=B–8+1
(c) M = 3.5 and L1 = 13.09, L2 = 1.91 5=B–7
(d) M = 2.5 and L1 = 13.09, L2 = 1.91 B = 12
59
43. In the two-port network shown below, the h11 In series RLC circuit, maximum current flows when the
parameter (where h11 = V1/I1 when V2 = 0) in inductance and capacitance cancel out the effect of each
ohm is other and the circuit is completely resistive.
Voltage across the capacitor = I XC
where XC = capacitive reactance
So,
VC = I XC
250 = 0.5 XC
XC = 500 ohms
(a) 1 (b) 3 We know that,
(c) 0.5 (d) 2 1
XC =
V1 2πfC
Ans. (c) : Given that, h11 = when V2 = 0
I1 1
inductance (C) =
2πfX C
1
=
2 × π× 50 × 500
= 6.37µF
45. A 200V DC shunt motor develops a torque of
54 N-m at an armature current 10 A. The
torque produced when the armature current is
20 A, is
Apply nodal analysis at V0 , (a) 54 N-m (b) 81 N-m
V0 V0 (c) 108 N-m (d) 75 N-m
+ − I1 + 2I1 = 0 Ans. (c) : In dc shunt motor, flux is constant. So, torque
1Ω 1Ω
is proportional to armature current.
2V0 + I1 = 0
Now,
−I1
V0 = T ∝ Ia
2
Given that,
Apply KVL in input loop,
V = 200V
So,
Armature current ( Ia1 ) = 10A
− V1 + I1 + V0 = 0
Torque (T1) = 54 Nm
I
− V1 + I1 − 1 = 0
2
( Ia 2 ) = 20A
I1 We know that,
V1 = T1 ∝ ( Ia1 ) ....(i)
2
V1 1 T2 ∝ ( I a 2 ) ...(ii)
h11 = = = 0.5
I1 2 dividing equation (i) and (ii)
44. A series R-L-C circuit is connected across a 240 T1 Ia1
=
V, 50 Hz supply. When the voltage across T2 Ia 2
capacitor is 250 V, a maximum current of 0.5 A
54 10
flows in the circuit. Find the inductance. =
T2 20
(a) 6.37 µF (b) 2.25 µF
T2 = 108Nm
(c) 0.47 µF (d) 1.58 µF
46. A synchronous motor and an alternator are
Ans. (a) :Given that,
delivering about 5% of their rated power at
Voltage (VS) = 240 V, frequency (f) = 50Hz
unity power factor. If these machines are
Voltage across the capacitor (VC) = 250 V loaded to their rated capacity, then their
Current (I) = 0.5 A armature currents
60
 (a) decrease, motor operates at lagging power Ans. (a) : The major pollutants emitted from
factor and alternator at leading power factor automobiles/vehicles are carbon monoxide, nitrogen
(b) increase, motor operates at leading power oxides and hydrocarbons.
factor and alternator at lagging power factor
• Carbon monoxide, NO2 and hydrocarbons are released
(c) increase, both operates at lagging power
when fuel burn in internal combustion engine
factor
(vehicles).
(d) increase, motor operates at lagging power
factor and alternator at leading power factor • Some other pollutants emitted from automobiles are
particles, volatile organic, sulfur oxides etc.
Ans. (b) : figure
49. The common method adopted for disinfection
or drinking water, employed in home
application is by using filters and
(a) UV radiation
(b) chlorination
(c) ozonization
(d) chlorination and ozonization
Ans. (b) : Chemical disinfection is another common
method for making water safe to use.
Chlorination – It is common chemical disinfection
technique that involves adding a chlorine based product
A synchronous motor and an alternator are delivering such as sodium hypochlorite, calcium hypochlorite or
about 5% of their rated power at unity power factor. If household bleach to water to kill bacteria and viruses.
these machines are loaded to their rated capacity, then • Other chemical disinfectants such as iodine and
their armature currents increase, motor operates at
chlorine dioxide can also be effective for disinfecting
leading power factor and alternator at lagging power
water.
factor.
Ozonization – It is a chemical water treatment
47. Power is measured in a three phase load by
technique based on the infusion of ozone into water. It
two-wattmeter method. The reading of one-
is efficient for disinfection as well as for the
wattmeter is 5000 W and the other wattmeter
deflects in reverse direction. On interchanging degradation of organic and inorganic pollutants.
the potential terminals, the second wattmeter UV Water Purification- In this systems water is purity
reads 1000 W. The total power consumed by by using UV rays to kill microorganisms present in
the load is water.
(a) 5000 W (b) 4000 W • Therefore, chlorination and filters are most common
(c) 6000 W (d) 1000 W method adopted for disinfection of drinking water
Ans. (c) : Total power consumed by the load employed in home application.
= 5000W + 1000W 50. Taj Mahal is threatened by pollution from
= 6000W (a) chlorine
48. The main pollutants emitted from automobiles (b) sulphur dioxide
are
(c) nitrogen dioxide
(a) Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides and
(d) carbon monoxide
hydrocarbons.
Ans. (b) : Sulfur dioxide, hydrogen sulphide and
(b) Carbon dioxide, nitrogen oxides and
nitrogen oxides are three polluting gases that pose a
hydrocarbons.
threat to the Taj Mahal coming from the oil refinery
(c) Carbon monoxide, Sulphur dioxides and
hydrocarbons. near Mathura.
(d) Carbon monoxide Sulphur dioxides and • They would transform the white marble's calcium
nitrogen oxides. carbonate into calcium sulphate and calcium nitrate.

61

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 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2022
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical)
General Hindi (Paper-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hrs Exam Date: 24 March, 2022

efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 1 mes 5 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele DeMegæ 7. efpemekeâes jeskeâvee Ùee efveJeejCe keâjvee keâef"ve nes
MeyoeW kesâ efueS (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) kesâ meeceeves Deueie- (a) ogje«en (b) ogefve&Jeej
Deueie Meyo efoS ieS nQ~ FveceW mes Megæ Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej (c) ogie&ce (d) ogue&Ye
he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘efpemekeâes jeskeâvee Ùee efveJeejCe keâjvee
1. ceveefmLeefle keâef"ve nes’ kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘ogefve&Jeej’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(a) ceveesefmLeefle (b) ceve: efmLeefle 8. pees leerveeW iegCeeW (melJe, jpe Deewj lece) mes hejs nes
(c) ceeveesefmLele (d) ceeveefmekeâefmLele (a) ef$eiegCeeleerle (b) ef$ekeâeue%e
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ceve: efmLeefle’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee (c) ef$ekeâeueoMeea (d) ef$eosJe
Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ Ans. (a) : pees leervees iegCeeW (melJe, jpe Deewj lece) mes hejs nes kesâ efueS
2. efjlet Skeâ Meyo ‘ef$eiegCeeleerle’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(a) $e+leg (b) ef$e+leg 9. otmejeW kesâ oes<eeW keâes {BtÌ{ves Jeeuee
(c) $e+let (d) jerleg (a) efÚõevJes<eCe (b) efÚõevJes<eer
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘$e+leg’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee Meyo (c) ÚBšveer (d) Ú©eJesMeer
nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ Ans. (b) : otmejeW kesâ oes<eeW keâes {BtÌ{ves Jeeuee kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo
3. De#eesefnCeer efÚõevJes<eer’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(a) De#eewefnCeer (b) Dee#eewnerCeer 10. pees yegefæ Éeje peevee pee mekesâ
(c) De#eewnerefCe (d) De#eewCeer (a) yegefæpeerJeer (b) yeesOeiecÙe
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘De#eewefnCeer’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee (c) yeewefækeâ (d) yegefæceeve
Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘pees yegefæ Éeje peevee pee mekesâ’ kesâ
4. DeesÅeesefiekeâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘yeesOeiecÙe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(a) DeewÅeesefiekeâ (b) DeewÅeesieerkeâ
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 11 mes 15 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele ØelÙeskeâ
JeekeäÙe ceW Skeâ Meyo jsKeebefkeâle nw~ ØelÙeskeâ jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ
(c) GÅeesefiekeâ (d) DeesÅeesefiekeâer
efueS (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) kesâ meeceves Skeâ-Skeâ Meyo efueKee
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeewÅeesefiekeâ’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee ieÙee nw~ FveceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo mes DeLe& keâer o=ef° mes GheÙegòeâ
Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ efJekeâuhe Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
5. DeceeJeMÙee 11. meerlee peer Yetefce leveÙee nQ~
(a) DeeceeJeme (b) DeceeJemÙee (a) yenve (b) yesšer
(c) DeceeJeMeÙee (d) DeceeJeMÙe (c) yeng (d) heÌ[esmeve
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeceeJemÙee’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ ‘leveÙee’ keâe GheÙeg&òeâ DeLe& ‘yesšer’ nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 6 mes 10 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙe Ùee meerlee peer Yetefce yesšer nQ~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej Meyo efoS ieS nQ~ FveceW mes GheÙegòeâ 12. hejceeLe& keâer FÛÚe DeÛÚer YeeJevee nw~
Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ (a) keâecevee (b) keâeefceveer
6. Deheves osMe kesâ meeLe efJeÕeemeIeele keâjves Jeeuee (c) keâeblee (d) jceCeer
(a) ogjefYemevOe (b) osMeõesner Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
(c) ogjeÛeejer (d) ogje«ener ‘FÛÚe’ keâe GheÙeg&òeâ DeLe& ‘keâecevee’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘Deheves osMe kesâ meeLe efJeÕeemeIeele 13. DeÛÚe efMe#ekeâ efJeÅeeLeea keâe peerJeve yeoue oslee nw~
keâjves Jeeuee’ kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘osMeõesner’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe (a) Ûeešgkeâej (b) DeeÛeeÙe&
Demebiele nw~ (c) yešgkeâ (d) %eeveJeeve
62
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 21 mes 25 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele DeJelejCe
‘efMe#ekeâ’ keâe GheÙeg&òeâ DeLe& ‘DeeÛeeÙe&’ nesiee~ keâes OÙeevehetJe&keâ heefÌ{S Deewj hetÚs ieS ØeMveeW kesâ mener efJekeâuhe
Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
14. Deóeefuekeâe mes kegâefšÙee Yeueer~
Meemeve keâer hengBÛe ØeJe=efòe Deewj efveJe=efòe keâer yeenjer JÙeJemLee lekeâ ner nesleer
(a) efvekesâleve (b) cenue
nw~ Gvekesâ cetue Ùee cece& lekeâ Gvekeâer ieefle veneR nesleer, Yeerlejer Ùee meÛÛeer
(c) heCe&kegâšer (d) Deeßece ØeJe=efòe-efveJe=efòe keâes peeieefjle jKeves Jeeueer Meefòeâ keâefJelee nw, pees Oece& #es$e
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ceW Meefòeâ-YeeJevee keâes peieeleer jnleer nw~ Yeefòeâ Oece& keâer jmeelcekeâ DevegYetefle
‘Deóeefuekeâe’ keâe GheÙeg&òeâ DeLe& ‘cenue’ nesiee~ nw~ Deheves cebieue Deewj ueeskeâ kesâ cebieue keâe mebiece Gmeer kesâ Yeerlej efoKeeF&
15. keâuheJe=#e keâeceveeDeeW keâes hetCe& keâjlee nw~ heÌ[lee nw~ Fme mebiece kesâ efueS Øeke=âefle kesâ #es$e kesâ yeerÛe ceveg<Ùe keâes Deheves
ùoÙe kesâ Øemeej keâe DeYÙeeme keâjvee ÛeeefnS~ efpeme Øekeâej %eeve vejmeòee
(a) hegC[jerkeâ (b) keâuheõgce
kesâ Øemeej kesâ efueS nw Gmeer Øekeâej ùoÙe Yeer~ jeieeeflcekeâe Je=efòe kesâ Øemeej
(c) veerjpe (d) DejefJevo kesâ efyevee efJeÕe kesâ meeLe peerJeve keâe Øeke=âle meecebpemÙe Ieefšle veneR nes
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo mekeâlee~ peye ceveg<Ùe kesâ megKe Deewj Deevebo keâe cesue Mes<e Øeke=âefle kesâ megKe-
‘keâuheJe=#e’ keâe GheÙeg&òeâ DeLe& ‘keâuheõgce’ nesiee~ meeQoÙe& kesâ meeLe nes peeÙesiee, peye Gmekeâer j#ee keâe YeeJe le=Ceieguce, Je=#e-
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 16 mes 20 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙeeW uelee, heMeg-he#eer, keâerš-helebie, meyekeâer j#ee kesâ YeeJe kesâ meeLe meceefvJele
keâes meeJeOeeveer mes heÌ{ves kesâ yeeo DeMegæ DebMe keâer henÛeeve nes peeSiee, leye Gmekesâ DeJeleej keâe GösMÙe hetCe& nes peeÙesiee Deewj Jen
peieled keâe meÛÛee ØeefleefveefOe nes peeSiee~
keâjkesâ (A), (B), (C) ceW mes $egefš mes mebyebefOele De#ej keâes
21. mJe Deewj ueeskeâ oesveeW kesâ cebieue keâe efceueve-efyevog efkeâmekesâ
Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efueefKeS~ Ùeefo keâesF& $egefš veneR nw, lees (D) Yeerlej nw?
kesâ ceeOÙece mes metefÛele keâerefpeS~ (a) Yeefòeâ (b) %eeve
16. ojDemeue ceW Jen yengle keâeFÙeeB nQ~ keâesF& $egefš veneR~ (c) Ùeesie (d) keâce&
(A) (B) (C) (D) Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej mJe Deewj ueeskeâ oesveeW kesâ
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘ojDemeue’ Meyo ceW $egefš nw~ Fmekesâ cebieue keâe efceueve-efyevog Yeefòeâ kesâ Yeerlej nw~
mLeeve hej ‘Demeue’ GheÙegòeâ Meyo nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee- 22. vejmeòee kesâ Øemeej kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ nw
‘Demeue ceW Jen yengle keâeFÙeeB nw’~ (a) %eeve-ùoÙe (b) %eeve
17. ceOÙekeâeueerve Ùegie ceW keâueeDeeW keâer yengle GVeefle ngF&~ keâesF& (c) ùoÙe (d) keâce&
(A) (B) (C) Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej vejmeòee kesâ Øemeej kesâ efueS
$egefš veneR~ %eeve Deewj ùoÙe oesveeW ner GheÙegòeâ nw~
(D) 23. peerJeve keâe meecebpemÙe efJeÕe kesâ meeLe mLeeefhele keâjves kesâ
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘ceOÙekeâeueerve’ kesâ mLeeve hej ceOÙekeâeue efueS DeeJeMÙekeâ nw
Meyo DeeSiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee- ‘ceOÙekeâeue Ùegie ceW (a) Øeke=âefle (b) %eeveeflcekeâe Je=efòe
keâueeDeeW keâer yengle GVeefle ngF&’~ (c) JewjeiÙe (d) jeieeeflcekeâe Je=efòe
18. Jen efvelÙe ieeves keâer keâmejle keâjlee nw~ keâesF& $egefš veneR~ Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&òeâ DeJelejCe kesâ Devegmeej jeieeeflcekeâe Je=efòe kesâ Øemeej
(A) (B) (C) (D) kesâ efyevee efJeÕe kesâ meeLe peerJeve keâer Øeke=âle meecebpemÙe Ieefšle veneR nes
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘ieeves keâer keâmejle’ kesâ mLeeve hej ieeves
mekeâlee~
keâe efjÙeepe/DeYÙeeme GheÙeg&òeâ Meyo nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe 24. meÛÛeer ØeJe=efòe-efveJe=efòe peeie=efle jKeves keâer Meefòeâ efkeâmeceW
nesiee- ‘Jen efvelÙe ieeves keâe DeYÙeeme/efjÙeepe keâjlee nw’~ nesleer nw?
(a) keâefJelee (b) efJe%eeve
19. efÛeefÌ[Ùee iee jner nw~ keâesF& $egefš veneR~
(c) oMe&ve (d) meceepeMeeŒe
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ DeJelejCe kesâ Devegmeej ‘meÛÛeer ØeJe=efòe-efveJe=efòe keâes
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘iee’ kesâ mLeeve hej ‘Ûenkeâ’ GheÙegòeâ
peeie=efle jKeves Jeeueer Meefòeâ keâefJelee nw pees Oece& #es$e ceW Meefòeâ-YeeJevee keâes
Meyo nesiee Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nw- ‘efÛeefÌ[Ùee Ûenkeâ jner nw’~ peieeleer jnleer nw~
20. yeeCe yeÌ[e GheÙeesieer MeŒe nw~ keâesF& $egefš veneR~ 25. ceveg<Ùe kesâ DeJeleej keâe GösMÙe keâye hetCe& keâne peeSiee?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) efmehe&â ceveg<Ùe meceepe kesâ meeLe meecebpemÙe mLeeefhele nesves mes
Ans. (c) : yeeCe yeÌ[e GheÙeesieer MeŒe nw- Fme JeekeäÙe ceW MeŒe kesâ (b) ceveg<Ùe meceepe keâe Mes<e Øeke=âefle kesâ meeLe meecebpemÙe mLeeefhele
mLeeve hej ‘DeŒe’ Meyo keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ nesves mes
DeŒe - HeWâkeâ keâj Ûeueeves Jeeues nefLeÙeej (c) heMeg-heef#eÙeeW kesâ meeLe meecebpemÙe mLeeefhele nesves mes
MeŒe- neLe mes ceejves Jeeues nefLeÙeej (d) Je=#e-uelee kesâ meeLe meecebpemÙe mLeeefhele nesves mes
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Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ DeJelejCe kesâ Devegmeej peye ceveg<Ùe kesâ megKe Deewj 31. ieerlee ves ieerle keâer oes-Ûeej ueefÌ[ÙeeB ieeÙeeR~
Deevebo keâe cesue Mes<e Øeke=âefle kesâ megKe-meeQoÙe& kesâ meeLe nes peeÙesiee~ leye (a) ieerlee ves ieerle keâer hebefòeâÙeeB kegâÚ ieeÙeeR~
ceveg<Ùe kesâ DeJeleej keâe GösMÙe hetCe& nes peeÙesiee~ (b) ieerlee ves ieerle keâer oes-Ûeej keâefÌ[ÙeeB ieeÙeeR~
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 26 mes 35 lekeâ): ÙeneB ome JeekeäÙe efoS (c) ieerle keâer oes-Ûeej hebefòeâÙeeB ieerlee ves ieeÙeeR~
ieS nQ~ ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe ceW Ûeej efJekeâuhe nQ~ FveceW mes pees Megæ (d) ieerlee ves ieeÙeeR ieerle keâer oes-Ûeej keâefÌ[ÙeeB~
JeekeäÙe nes Gmekesâ efueS efveOee&efjle (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) ceW mes
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ieerlee ves ieerle keâer oes-Ûeej
keâesF& Skeâ Gòej kesâ ™he ceW Gòej he$ekeâ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
26. Úe$eeW ves cegKÙe DeefleefLe keâes Skeâ hetâueeW keâer ceeuee henveeF&~
keâefÌ[ÙeeB ieeÙeeR’ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(a) Úe$eeW kesâ Éeje Skeâ hetâue keâer ceeuee DeefleefLe keâes henveeF&~ 32. Fme mecemÙee keâer Deew<eOe Gmekesâ heeme nw~
(b) hetâueeW keâer Skeâ ceeuee DeefleefLe keâes oer Úe$eeW ves~ (a) Fme mecemÙee keâe meceeOeeve Gmekesâ heeme nw~
(c) cegKÙe DeefleefLe keâes Úe$eeW ves hetâueeW keâer ceeuee Øeoeve keâer~ (b) Gmekesâ heeme nw Fme mecemÙee keâe Yeer meceeOeeve~
(d) Úe$eeW ves cegKÙe DeefleefLe keâes hetâueeW keâer Skeâ ceeuee henveeF&~ (c) meceeOeeve jKelee nw Jen Fme mecemÙee keâe~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Úe$eeW ves cegKÙe DeefleefLe keâes (d) meceeOeeve efÚhee nw Gmekesâ heeme Fme mecemÙee keâe~
HetâueeW keâer Skeâ ceeuee henveeF&’ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Fme mecemÙee keâe meceeOeeve
DeMegæ nw~ Gmekesâ heeme nw’ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
27. YeerÌ[ ceW Ûeej hešvee kesâ JÙeefòeâ Yeer Les~ 33. efnvoer keâer efMe#ee DeefveJeeÙe& keâj efoÙee~
(a) YeerÌ[ ceW hešvee kesâ Ûeej JÙeefòeâ Yeer Les~ (a) efnvoer keâer efMe#ee DeefveJeeÙe& keâj oer ieF&~
(b) Ûeej JÙeefòeâ Yeer Les YeerÌ[ ceW hešvee Jeeues~
(b) DeefveJeeÙe& keâj oer ieF& nw efMe#ee efnvoer keâer~
(c) hešvee Jeeues Ûeej JÙeefòeâÙeeW keâer yeÌ[er YeerÌ[ Leer~
(c) keâj oer ieF& efnvoer keâer efMe#ee DeefveJeeÙe&~
(d) hešvee Jeeues Ûeej JÙeefòeâÙeeW ves yeÌ[er Yeer[ Ì ueiee jKeer Leer~
(d) efMe#ee keâes DeefveJeeÙe& keâj efoÙee ieÙee efnvoer keâer~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘YeerÌ[ ceW hešvee kesâ Ûeej JÙeefòeâ
Yeer Les’ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efnvoer keâer efMe#ee DeefveJeeÙe& keâj
28. cesjs veÙes heles mes efÛeefªÙeeB Yespevee~
oer ieÙeer’ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(a) cesjs veÙes heles hej efÛeefªÙeeB Yespevee~ 34. Fme efJe<eÙe hej Skeâ Yeer DeÛÚs hegmlekeWâ veneR nQ~
(b) efÛeefªÙeeB cesjs veÙes heles keâes ner Yespevee~ (a) Fme efJe<eÙe hej Skeâ Yeer DeÛÚer hegmlekeâ veneR nw~
(c) cesjs veÙes-veÙes heles hej efÛeefªÙeeB Yespevee~ (b) keâesF& Yeer hegmlekeWâ DeÛÚer GheueyOe veneR nw Fme efJe<eÙe keâer~
(d) efÛeefªÙeeB Yespevee veÙes heles hej cesjs~ (c) DeÛÚer hegmlekeâ nw ner veneR Skeâ Yeer Fme efJe<eÙe hej~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘cesjs veÙes heles hej efÛeefªÙeeB (d) hegmlekeâ DeÛÚer nw ner veneR Skeâ Yeer Fme efJe<eÙe hej~
Yespevee’ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Fme efJe<eÙe hej Skeâ Yeer DeÛÚer
29. peerJeve Deewj meeefnlÙe keâe Ieesj mebyebOe nw~ hegmlekeâ veneR nw’ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(a) peerJeve Deewj meeefnlÙe keâe iepeye mebyebOe nw~ 35. JeneB Ievee DeBOesje efyeKeje Lee~
(b) peerJeve Deewj meeefnlÙe keâe Ieefve‰ mebyebOe nw~ (a) JeneB Ievee DeBOesje efyeKeje ngDee Lee~
(c) yeÌ[e ienje mebyebOe peerJeve Deewj meeefnlÙe keâe nw~
(b) JeneB Ievee DeBOesje ÚeÙee Lee~
(d) peerJeve Deewj meeefnlÙe keâe DeefveJeeÙe& mebyebOe nw~
(c) Ievee DeBOesje hemeje nw JeneB~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘peerJeve Deewj meeefnlÙe keâe Ieefve‰
(d) DeBOesje yeÌ[e IeveIeesj Lee JeneB~
mebyebOe nw’ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘JeneB Ievee DeBOesje ÚeÙee Lee’
30. efpemekeâer uee"er Gmekeâer YeQme Jeeueer keâefJelee ÛeefjleeLe& nesleer
nw~ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(a) efpemekeâer uee"er Gmekeâer YeQme Jeeueer keâLee ÛeefjleeLe& nesleer nw~ efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 36 mes 40 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele leÆJe
(b) efpemekeâer uee"er Gmekeâer YeQme Jeeueer keâneJele ÛeefjleeLe& nesleer MeyoeW kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej efJekeâuhe (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) efoS
nw~ ieS nQ~ FveceW mes meJee&efOekeâ GheÙegòeâ efJekeâuhe Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ
(c) efpemekeâer uee"er Gmekeâer YeQme Jeeueer Øeesefòeâ ÛeefjleeLe& nesleer nw~ ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
(d) efpemekeâer uee"er Gmekeâer YeQme Jeeueer Iešvee ÛeefjleeLe& nesleer 36. ÛeeBoveer
nw~ (a) jesMeveer (b) efkeâjCe
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpemekeâer uee"er Gmekeâer Yewme (c) Ûebefõkeâe (d) ÛeeBo
Jeeueer keâneJele ÛeefjleeLe& nesleer nw’ Ùen Skeâ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes leÆJe Meyo ‘ÛeeBoveer’ keâe
efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ GheÙegòeâ DeLe& ‘Ûebefõkeâe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
64
37. keâesÙeue Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘let [eue-[eue ceQ heele-heele’
(a) keâesefkeâuee (b) keâesFue cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& nw-meeceves Jeeues mes DeefOekeâ Ûelegj nesvee~
(c) keâewDee (d) heheerne 44. Skeâ leJes keâer jesšer keäÙee ceesšer keäÙee Úesšer
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes leÆJe Meyo ‘keâesÙeue’ keâe (a) Skeâ ner keâece nes, hej ØeYeeJeMeeueer nes
GheÙegòeâ DeLe& ‘keâesefkeâuee’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (b) hetjer lejn mes efkeâmeer kesâ Yeer he#e ceW veneR nesvee
38. Ûeyeevee (c) Úue-keâheš keâe JÙeJenej keâjvee
(a) Ûetmevee (b) ÛeJe&Ce (d) efkeâmeer Øekeâej keâe YesoYeeJe veneR
(c) ÛeKevee (d) ÛeesKee Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Skeâ leJes keâer jesšer keäÙee ceesšer
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes leÆJe Meyo ‘Ûeyeevee’ keâe keäÙee Úesšer’ cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& nw-efkeâmeer Øekeâej keâe YesoYeeJe veneR~
GheÙegòeâ DeLe& ‘ÛeJe&Ce’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ 45. leueJeej ceejs Skeâ yeej Snmeeve ceejs yeej-yeej
39. heäuebie (a) efkeâmeer keâe Ghekeâej peerJeve Yej Ùeeo Deelee nw~
(a) heeuekeâer (b) KeefšÙee (b) oesveeW efJejesOeer he#eeW mes mecheke&â jKeves keâer Ûeeueekeâer
(c) heÙeËkeâ (d) hebiele (c) efyevee yeele keâer ueÌ[eF&
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes leÆJe ‘heuebie’ keâe GheÙegòeâ DeLe& (d) DehejeOeer keâes oC[ efceuevee ner ÛeeefnS~
‘heÙeËkeâ’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘leueJeej ceejs Skeâ yeej Denmeeve
40. heesKej ceejs yeej-yeej’ cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& nw- efkeâmeer keâe Ghekeâej peerJeve Yej
(a) veoer (b) heg<keâj
Ùeeo Deelee nw~
(c) yeeJeÌ[er (d) Pejvee
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 46 mes 50 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙeeW ceW
jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) kesâ
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes leÆJe Meyo ‘heesKej’ keâe
meeceves Deueie-Deueie JeekeäÙe efueKes ngS nQ~ Fve MeyoeW ceW
GheÙegòeâ DeLe& ‘heg<keâj’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ mes GheÙegòeâ efJeueesce Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 41 mes 45 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele keâneJeleeW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
kesâ efueS (A), (B), (C) Deewj (D) kesâ meeceves DeLe& efueKes 46. DeefleJe=ef° mes heâmeue ve° nes ieF&~
ngS nQ~ FveceW mes GheÙegòeâ DeLe& keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej he$ekeâ ceW
(a) yengle keâce (b) DeveeJe=ef°
efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
(c) Deuhecee$ee ceW (d) Deuhe%e
41. Glej ieF& ueesF& lees keäÙee keâjsiee keâesF&
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘DeefleJe=ef°’ keâe
(a) efoKeeJee pÙeeoe JeemleefJekeâlee keâce
GheÙegòeâ efJeueesce Meyo ‘DeveeJe=ef°’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(b) ceeve-mecceeve Ûeues peeves kesâ yeeo efkeâmeer Yeer yeele keâe YeÙe
47. meeOekeâeW keâer Ûeslevee TOJe&ieeceer nesleer nw~
veneR jnlee
(a) DeMeòeâ (b) DeefJekeâefmele
(c) Dehevee oes<e otmejeW hej ceÌ{vee
(c) DeOeesieeceer (d) efvemlespe
(d) efkeâmeer mes keâesF& mebyebOe veneR jKevee
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘GOJe&ieeceer’ keâe
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Glej ieF& ueesF& lees keäÙee keâjsiee
GheÙegòeâ efJeueesce Meyo ‘DeOeesieeceer’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
keâesF&’ cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& nw-ceeve-mecceeve Ûeues peeves kesâ yeeo efkeâmeer
Yeer yeele keâe YeÙe veneR jnlee~ 48. efveef<›eâÙe ueesie Goemeerve jnles nQ~
42. efpeve Keespee efleve heeFÙeeB ienjs heeveer hew" (a) meMeòeâ (b) efveÙeefcele
(c) meef›eâÙe (d) lespemJeer
(a) keâefJe keâer keâuhevee keâe #es$e yengle efJemle=le neslee nw
(b) DeLekeâ ØeÙelve mes ner ceveg<Ùe keâes cevecepeea keâer Jemleg efceueleer Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘efveef<›eâÙe’ keâe
nw~ GheÙegòeâ efJeueesce Meyo ‘meef›eâÙe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(c) Deheveer ÙeesiÙelee mes DeefOekeâ keâece keâjvee 49. cetkeâ ØeeefCeÙeeW hej oÙee keâjes~
(d) yeueJeeve keâe ner meye kegâÚ neslee nw~ (a) ietBiee (b) ØeKej
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpeve Keespee efleve heeFÙeeB ienjs (c) cegKej (d) JeeÛeeue
heeveer hew"’ cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& nw-DeLekeâ ØeÙelve mes ner ceveg<Ùe keâes Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘cetkeâ’ keâe
cevecepeea keâer Jemleg efceueleer nw~ GheÙegòeâ efJeueesce ‘JeeÛeeue’ nw~
43. let [eue-[eue ceQ heele-heele 50. efveye&ue kesâ yeue jece peer nQ~
(a) oes kesâ yeerÛe ceW leermejs keâe oKeue (a) efveOe&ve (b) efvejeefßele
(b) Deuhe%eeveer yeKeeve pÙeeoe keâjlee nw (c) meyeue (d) efve<ØeeCe
(c) oesveeW keâe Skeâ-meceeve nesvee Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘efveye&ue’ keâe
(d) meeceves Jeeues mes DeefOekeâ Ûelegj nesvee GheÙegòeâ efJeueesce ‘meyeue’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
65
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2022
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical)
General English (Paper-II)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hrs Exam Date: 24 March, 2022

SPOTTING ERRORS Ans. (b) : There is an error in part (b) of the given
Direction: Q. No. 1 to 10: Read each of the following sentence. ''Look after'' will be used in place of ''look on''
sentences to find out whether there is an error in any because ''look after'' means "to take care of something
underlined part. No sentence has more than one or someone", be responsible for something which gives
error. If you feed there is no error in a sentence, write appropriate meaning of the given sentence.
(D) to signify ‘No error.’ ''Look on'' means "to watch something happening
1. I have seen a number of people to buy this without taking any action".
(A) (B) Correct sentence- The children were looked after by
product online. No error their grandmother after their parents died in an accident.
(C) (D) 5. The real life stories of these children are very
Ans. (c) : There is an error is part (c) of the given (A) (B)
sentence. ''Buying this product online'' will be used hard to believing. No error
instead of ''to buy this product online'' because the given
(C) (D)
sentence is in present perfect tense in which the action
is being completed in present. Ans. (c) : There is an error in part (c) of the given
Correct sentence- I have seen a number of people sentence. ''To believe'' will be used in place of ''to
buying this product online. believing''.
2. The school bell is ringing for the past ten Correct sentence- The real life stories of these children
are very hard to believe.
(A) (B)
minutes without stopping. No error 6. They did not given the child anything to eat.
(C) (D) (A) (B) (C)
Ans. (a) : There is an error in part (a) of the given No error
sentence. ''The school bell has been ringing'' will be (D)
used in place of “the school bell is ringing'' because the Ans. (b) : There is an error in part (b) of the given
given sentence is in present perfect continuous tense. sentence. ''Give the child'' will be used in place of
Correct sentence- The school bell has been ringing for ''Given the child'' because, the given sentence is in
the past ten minutes without stopping. simple past tense, after 'did' the verb remains in first
3. The students has to complete against a much form.
(A) (B) Correct sentence- They did not give the child anything
stronger team. No error to eat.
(C) (D) 7. I meets her standing near her house on the
Ans. (a) : There is an error in part (a) of the given road.
sentence. ''The students have'' will be used in place of (A) (B) (C)
''the students has'' because the students (subject) is in No error
plural form, so plural helping verb will be used. (D)
Correct sentence- The students have to complete Ans. (a) : There is an error in part (a) of the given
against a much stronger team. sentence. ''I meet her'' will be used in place of ''I meets
4. The children were looked on by their her''. In the given sentence 'I" is acting as the subject.
(A) (B) According to subject verb rule, singular verb is used
grandmother after their parents died in an with singular subject and plural verb is used with plural
(C) subject so ''meet'' will be used instead of ''meets''.
accident. No eror Correct sentence- I meet her standing near her house
(D) on the road.
66
8. Swarnima teach the children how to play tennis Ans. (c) : The most appropriate choice for the given
(A) (B) segment would be ''so much luggage'' because 'so much'
in the school playground everyday. No error is used for uncountable nouns while ''so many'' is used
(C) (D) for countable nouns. In the above sentence, ''luggages''
Ans. (a) : There is an error in part (a) of the given is an uncountable noun.
sentence. ''Teaches'' will be used in place of ''teach'' 14. I am too tired for work anymore now.
because subject (Swarnima) is in singular form so verb (a) too tired at work (b) too tired of work
will be in singular. (c) too tired to work (d) No improvement
Correct sentence- Swarnima teaches the children how Ans. (c) : The most appropriate choice for the given
to play tennis in the school playground everyday. segment would be ''too tired to work'' because 'to' is
9. I have done my best to convince her to appear used with verbs while 'for' is used with nouns.
(A) (B) 15. The committee will soon submits its report.
again for the UPSC examination. No error. (a) will soon submit its
(C) (D) (b) will soon submits its
Ans. (d) : There is no error in the given sentence. (c) will soon submit it
10. All parents feel very proud for their children’s (d) No improvement
(A) (B) Ans. (a) : The most appropriate choice for the given
achievements in any field. No error. underline segment would be ''will soon submit its''
(C) (D) because, the subject is ''the committee'' which is a
Ans. (b) : There is an error in part (b) of the given collective noun which means that consist of multiple
people, so it is a plural form. So verb do not add 's'.
sentence. ''Proud of''' will be used in place of ''Proud
for'' because 'of' preposition is used with ''proud''. Correct sentence- The committee will soon submit its
report.
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
16. This is the boy whom everyone appreciates.
Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 20) : Below each of the
following sentences three possible substitutes are (a) boy who (b) boy whose
given for the underlined part. If one of them is better (c) boy which (d) No improvement
than the underlined part, indicate your response on Ans. (d) : There is no improvement of the given
the Answer-Sheet against the corresponding letter underline segment. So, given sentence is correct.
(A), (B) or (C). If none of the substitutes improves the 17. She has bought a new car, haven’t she?
sentence, indicate (D) as your response on the (a) isn’t it? (b) hasn’t she?
Answer-Sheet. (c) wasn’t she? (d) No improvement
11. The stolen purse was returned to its owner.
Ans. (b) : In the given underline segment ''hasn't she''
(a) to his owner will be used in place of ''haven't she'' because the
(b) to her owner auxiliary verb ''has' already used in the main clause, so
(c) their owner the question tag will be used according to the main
(d) No improvement clause.
Ans. (d) : Given sentence is correct. So no Correct sentence- She has bought a new car, hasn't
improvement would be required. she?
12. I do not understand who is blame in this 18. I just hear some surprising news.
matter. (a) have just heard (b) am just hear
(a) have to blame (b) is to be blamed (c) am just hearing (d) No improvement
(c) has to blame (d) No improvement Ans. (a) : In the above sentence, auxiliary verb 'have' is
Ans. (b) : The most appropriate choice for the given to be used with past participle of the main verb to form
segment would be ''is to be blamed'' because given a present perfect form of the sentence. So, ''have just
sentence is passive voice. heard'' will be used in place of 'just hear''.
So, correct formation- subject + is + to + be + verbII Correct sentence- I have just heard some surprising
form + object. news.
13. Why are you carrying so many luggages? 19. I shall call and see you when I come to Delhi.
(a) too many luggages (b) so much luggages (a) will came (b) will have came
(c) so much luggage (d) No improvement (c) came (d) No improvement
67
 Ans. (d) : There is no improvement of the given Ans. (a) : From the given options, 'Adept' is the correct
underline segment. So, given sentence is correct. synonym of the word 'Proficient'. Both words mean able
20. I think I can does it by myself. to do a particular thing will; skilled.
(a) can doing (b) could done Meaning of other options-
(c) could have done (d) No improvement (i) 'Profess' means 'to declare or announce'.
Ans. (c) : In the given underline segment ''could have (ii) 'Propagate' means to spread, to grow.
done'' will be used in place of ''can does'' because the 25. NOTORIOUS
sentence is in past tense. (a) Notable (b) Noble
Correct sentence- I think I could have done it by (c) Nasty (d) Infamous
myself.
Ans. (d) : From the given options, ''Infamous'' is the
VOCABULARY correct synonym of the word 'Notorious'. Both words
Direction (Q. Nos. 21 to 25) : Below each of the having same meaning.
following words (in capital letters) four possible
Meaning of other options-
substitutes are given. Choose the word which is
(i) Notable means important and deserving attention.
nearest meaning to the word given in capital letters
and indicate your response on the Answer-Sheet. (ii) Noble means having or showing high moral
21. PATHETIC qualities or character.
(a) Pensive (b) Thoughtful Directions (Q. Nos. 26 to 30) : Below each of the
(c) Patient (d) Pitiful following words (in capital letters) four possible
Ans. (d) : From the given options, 'Pitiful' is the correct substitutes are given. Pick out the work that is most
synonym of the word 'Pathetic'. Both words having nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in
same meaning, “causing you to feel pity or sadness or capital letters and indicate your response in the
sympathy”. Answer-Sheet.
Meaning of other options- 26. GENUINE
(i) Pensive means to be thinking carefully of serious (a) Gentle (b) Generous
about something. (c) Guilty (d) Fake
(ii) Thoughtful means thinking deeply. Ans. (d) : The word 'Genuine' means real, true. So,
22. CORDIAL from the given options, its antonym is 'Fake'.
(a) Confuse (b) Conspicuous Words Antonym
(c) Concise (d) Friendly (i) Gentle Unkind, brutal
Ans. (d) : From the given options, 'Friendly' is the (ii) Generous (liberal) Selfish
correct synonym of the word 'Cordial'. 'Cordial' means (iii) Guilty Innocent
friendly and polite. 27. OPTIMISM
Meaning of other options.- (a) Maximum (b) Pessimism
(i) 'Conspicuous' means very noticeable or easy to see (c) Reputation (d) Opposition
(ii) 'Concise' means succinct, brief, pithy.
Ans. (b) : The word ''Optimism'' means the quality of
23. Aversion being full of hope and emphasizing. So, from the given
(a) Compassion options, its antonym is ''Pessimism'' which means not
(b) Dislike hopeful; a person who believes that the worst will
(c) Cooperation happen.
(d) Deceit Words Opposite/Antonym
Ans. (b) : From the given options, 'Dislike' is the (i) Maximum Minimum
correct synonym of the word 'Aversion'. 'Aversion' (ii) Reputation Shame/dishonor/disgrace
means 'strong feeling of not liking some body or
(iii) Opposition Supporter
something'.
Meaning of other options- 28. SUPERFICIAL
(i) Compassion means sympathy (a) Deep (b) Narrow
(ii) Deceit means dishonest behaviour. (c) Foolish (d) Wise
24. PROFICIENT Ans. (a) : The word ''Superficial'' means does not want
(a) Adept (b) Adopt to think seriously; only on the surface, not deep. So
(c) Profess (d) Propagate from the given options, its antonym is ''Deep''

68
 Words Opposite/Antonym Ans. (b) : The use of ''put up'' is appropriate to fill the
(i) Narrow Wide/broad blank space of the given sentence. The meaning of
(ii) Foolish Sensible phrasal verb ''put up'' is tolerate or endure something, to
(iii) Wise Stupid/silly/foolish accept.
29. BARREN 34. When my name was announced for the first
prize, I _________ believe it.
(a) Challenge (b) Blunt
(a) must not (b) may not
(c) Bright (d) Fertile
(c) could not (d) am not
Ans. (d) : The word ''Barren'' means not producing or
Ans. (c) : The used of ''could not'' is appropriate to fill
unable to produce plants. So, from the given options, its
the blank space of the given sentence. We use ''could
antonym is ''Fertile''. not'' for event that were not expected but happened.
Words Antonym
35. Please accept my congratulations _______ your
Challenge Accept success.
Blunt Sharp (a) about (b) in
Bright Dark (c) with (d) on
30. DWARF Ans. (d) : The use of ''on'' is appropriate to fill the blank
(a) Divide (b) Decay space of the given sentence. Because ''on'' preposition is
(c) Despair (d) Giant used with ''congratulation''.
Ans. (d) : The word ''Dwarf'' means to make something 36. Whatever you opinion, I cannot agree
seem very small in comparison. So, from the given ________ you.
options, its antonym is ''Giant'' which means an (a) of (b) to
extremely large. (c) with (d) about
Words Antonym Ans. (c) : The use of preposition ''with'' is to appropriate
Divide Marge/ unite/combine fill the blank space of the given sentence because ''with''
Decay Improvement/growth/build preposition is used with ''agree''.
Despair Hope/try 37. Both of us walked ________ the roadside.
SELECTING WORDS (a) into (b) with
Directions (Q Nos. 31 to 40) : Each of the following (c) by (d) of
sentences is given with blank space to be filled in with Ans. (c) : The use of ''by'' is appropriate to fill the blank
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested space of the given sentence.
for each sentence. Choose the correct alternative. 38. You should first go _______ the text carefully.
31. During the Corona Pandemic, we are all (a) after (b) beyond
anxious ________ our health. (c) forward (d) through
(a) at (b) about Ans. (d) : The use of ''through'' is appropriate to fill the
(c) on (d) into blank space of the given sentence. Meaning of phrasal
Ans. (b) : It is appropriate to use ''about'' in the blank verb ''go through'' is 'examine' or 'search for something
space of the above sentence. However, preposition 'to' is very carefully'.
used with ''anxious''. ''Anxious to'' means worried about 39. A good friend is one who stands by us through
someone or something here all people are being talked. _________ .
So, ''about'' would be the appropriate meaning. (a) thick and thin (b) rough
32. Why have you turned _________ my offer to (c) all our happiness (d) good time
help you? Ans. (a) : Phrasal verb ''thick and thin'' will be used in
(a) off (b) on the blank space of the above sentence.
(c) in (d) down "Through thick and thin" means 'every difficulty and
Ans. (d) : The use of ''down'' is appropriate to fill the obstacle'.
blank space of the given sentence. The meaning of 40. The ticket has been ________ by my friend.
phrasal verb ''turn down'' is "reject something offered or (a) buy (b) bought
proposed". (c) buying (d) bring
33. The population below the poverty line has to Ans. (b) : The use of 'bought' in the blank space of the
_________ with many hardships. above sentence would be appropriate. Because the
(a) put on (b) put up formation of sentence is has/have + been + verb III
(c) put into (d) put away form + by + objects.

69
PHRASES/IDIOMS (i) 'Animalism' means behavior that is characteristic of
Directions (Q. Nos. 41 to 45) : Below each of the animals, particularly in being physical and
following underlined idioms or phrases four possible instinctive.
substitutes (words or group of words) are given. (ii) 'Vandalism' means deliberate damage or destruction
Select the one which is most nearly the same to the to property.
given idiom/phrase. (iii) 'Hooliganism' means rowdy, violent or destructive
41. Look down upon behaviour.
(a) Look someone (b) Show sympathy 47. Something suspect
(c) Treat with contempt (d) Show frustration (a) Fishy (b) Spicy
Ans. (c) : Idiom ''Look down upon'' means "to think of (c) Saucy (d) All of the above
or treat as unimportant or not worthy of respect". So, Ans. (a) : ''Fishy'' means “seeming suspicious or
option (c) ''treat with contempt" expresses the dishonest”. So, option (a) is correct.
appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
48. Having a huge or significant impact
42. A queer fish (a) Momentous (b) Monotonous
(a) Strong person (b) Strange person (c) Memorable (d) Monstrous
(c) Foolish person (d) Prosperous person Ans. (a) : ‘Momentous’ means very important; having
Ans. (b) : Idiom ''A queer fish'' means a person whose great or lasting importance. So, it expresses the
behavior is strange or unusual. so, option (b) ''strange appropriate meaning of given underline words.
person'' expresses the appropriate meaning of the given Meaning of other options-
idiom. (i) Monotonous means boring.
43. By virtue of (ii) Monstrous means cruel, unfair or morally wrong.
(a) On account of (b) Good qualities 49. A short witty saying
(c) By force of (d) Honestly (a) Anagram (b) Epigram
Ans. (a) : Idiom ''By virtue of'' means "because or as a (c) Analogy (d) Epilogue
result of". So, option (c) ''on account of'' expresses the
Ans. (b) : A short witty saying is called 'epigram'.
appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
''Epigram'' means a short saying or phrase that expresses
44. Bring to book an idea in a clever way.
(a) Admit guilt (b) Make known Meaning of other options-
(c) Write in a book (d) Punish (i) 'Anagram' means a word or phrase made by using
Ans. (d) : Idiom ''Bring to book'' means "to punish the letters of another word or phrase in different
someone". So, option (d) ''punish'' expresses the order.
appropriate meaning of the given idiom. (ii) 'Analogy' means comparison showing that two
45. Pay through the nose things are similar.
(a) Pay very high price (iii) 'Epilogue' means a passage or speech which is
(b) Miserable condition added to the end of a book or play as a conclusion.
(c) Be cautious 50. Upholding equality of all people
(d) Be firm in one’s stand (a) Egalitarian
Ans. (a) : Idiom "Pay through the nose'' means "pay (b) Totalitarian
much more than a fair price". So, option (a) ''pay very (c) Octogenarian
high price'' expresses the appropriate meaning of the (d) Fraternity
given idiom. Ans. (a) : The appropriate meaning of these words or
Directions (Q. Nos. 46 to 50) : Below each of the phrase is ''egalitarian''. Egalitarian means a person who
following underlined definitions four possible believes in the equality of all people.
substitutes (words) are given. Choose the correct Meaning of other options-
word which may closely fit each definition. (i) 'Totalitarian' means being a political system in
46. Eating human flash which those in power have complete control and
(a) Cannibalism (b) Animalism lives of its citizens.
(c) Vandalism (d) Hooliganism (ii) 'Octogenarian' means a person who is between 80
Ans. (a) : ‘Cannibalism’ means "a person who eats the and 89 years old.
flash of other human beings". So, option (a) is correct. (iii) 'Fraternity' means a feeling of friendship and
Meaning of other options- support.

70
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2022
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical)
General Studies (Paper-III)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hrs Exam Date: 24 March, 2022

1. The highest earth-filled dam in India is: Ans.(d): NALSA (National Legal Services Authority)
(a) Ranjit Sagar (b) Bhakra along with other legal services institutions conducts Lok
(c) Tehri (d) Hirakund Adalat.
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above Lok Adalat is one of the laternative dispute redressal
mechanicsm. It is a forum where dispute/cases
Ans.(a): Ranjit Sagar Dam is India’s highest earth-cum-
pending in the court of low or at pre-litigation state
gravel shell dam. are settled/compromised amicably.
The Ranjit Sagar Dam, also known as the Thein Lok Adalat is ment for conciliated settlement of
Dam, is a part of a hydroelectric project constructed dispute outside the courts. It is also called people’s
by the Punjab Irrigation Department on the Ravi court. It provides fair and uncomplicated justice.
river on the border of Union Territory, Jammu and Lok Adalate designed to shorten the time taken for
Kashmir and state of Punjab. settling dispute.
It is located upstream of the Madhopur Barrage at 4. The person who established the British rule in
Madhopur. India is:
This dam was started in 2001. (a) Robert Clive (b) Duplex
2. The Supreme Commander of the military in (c) Mir Jafar (d) Hastings
India is: (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(a) The President Ans.(a): Robert Clive is regarded as the founder of
(b) The Prime Minister British rule in India.
(c) The Home Minister Robert Clive was the first British Governor of the
Bengal Presidency from 1757-60 and from 1765-67.
(d) The Defence Minister
Dual Administration was introduced in the year
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
1765 by Robert Clive.
Ans.(a): The President of India is the Supreme 5. The Article which deals with ‘Education for All’
Commander of the Indian Armed Forces under his is:
military powers. (a) Article 41 (b) Article 43
The president can declare war or conclude peace, on (c) Article 45 (d) Article 44
the advice of the Union Council of Ministers headed (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
by the Prime Minister. Ans.(c): Article 45 of the Indian constitution talks about
All important treaties and contracts are made in the the provision for free and compulsory education for
President’s name. children. It states that ‘‘The State shall endeavour to
The headquarters of the Indian Armed Forces is provide, within a period of ten years from the
located in New Delhi, India. commencement of this Constitution, for free and
3. Lok Adalat is: compulsory education for all children until they
complete the age of 14 years.’’
(a) A court to settle disputes through compromise
This is one of the Directive Principles of State
or settlements
Policy to promote social and economic equality in
(b) A court designed to shorten the time taken for the country.
settling disputes
6. Who is known as the Father of Economics?
(c) A court run by the people (a) Karl Marx (b) John Marshall
(d) All of the above (c) Malthus (d) Adam Smith
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
71
 th Select the correct answer using the codes
Ans.(d): Adam Smith was an 18 century Scottish
philosopher. He is considered the father of modern given below:
economics. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
He is the most famous for his 1776 book, ‘‘The (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
Wealth of Nations’’, highlights some of the most (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
prominent developments in classical economics. Ans.(a): Chemical changes occur when a substance
Smith is also known for creating the concept of combines with another to form a new substance, called
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and for his theory chemical synthesis or chemical decomposition into two or
of compensating wage differentials. more different substances. These processes are called
7. The basic features of Economics are: chemical reactions and in general, are not reversible except
(a) Production, labour and income by further chemical reactions. Example - cooking of food,
(b) Production, labour and consumption digestion of food, burning of any substance, rusting of iron.
(c) Production, distribution and income 11. A soap molecule has a:
(d) Production, distribution and consumption (a) Hydrophobic head and hydrophobic tail
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (b) Hydrobphobic head and hydrophilic acid
(c) Hydrophilic head hydrophilic tail
Ans.(d): Economics is the social science that studies the
production, distribution and consumption of goods and (d) Hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail
services. It is the basic features of economics. (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Economics focuses on the behaviour and interactions Ans.(d): A soap molecule is made up of two parts- a
of ecnomic agents and how economies work. long hydrocarbon part and a short ionic part containing
+
8. The nurturing field of social progress is: the COO-Na group. The long hydrocarbon chain is
(a) House (b) Family hydrophobic (water-repelling) and the ionic portion is
hydrophilic (water-attracting).
(c) Society (d) School
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
So, we can say that the soap molecule contains a
Ans.(d): The nurturing field of social progress is
hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail.
school.
Education is seen as the foundation of society which 12. Which one of the following is not a greenhouse
brings economic wealth, social prosperity and gas?
political stability. (a) Methane (b) Hydrogen
It is a major aspect of the development of any (c) Nitrous oxide (d) Ozone
modern society and the most significant indicator of (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
the overall development of any region. Ans.(b): A green house gas is any gas in the
9. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of: atmosphere that absorbs and emits energy within the
(a) Nuclear fission thermal infrared range. Green house gases are
(b) Nuclear fusion responsible for the greenhouse effect.
(c) Natural radioactivity The primary greenhouse gases include carbon
dioxide, methane, ozone and water vapours.
(d) Artificial radioactivity
While the secondary greenhouse gases are sulfur
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
dioxide as well as nitrogen oxides.
Ans.(b): Nuclear fusion and nuclear fission are different
Hence, hydrogen is not a greenhouse gas.
types of reactions that release energy.
13. Which among the following statements is/are
Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of
true?
uncontrollable nuclear fusion.
Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a
Nuclear fusion is the process where the nuclie of
long duration turns grey due to:
two light atoms combine to form a new nucleus.
1. The formation of silver by decomposition
10. Which of the following are chemical changes?
of silver chloride
1. Cooking of food
2. Sublimation of silver chloride
2. Digestion of food 3. Decomposition of chlorine gas from silver
3. Freezing of water chloride
4. Water is heated up 4. Oxidation of silver chloride
72
 Select the correct answer using the codes 16. Tomato is a natural source of which acid?
given below: (a) Acetic acid (b) Citric acid
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Tartaric acid (d) Oxalic acid
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4 (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Ans (d): Tomato is the most natural source of oxalic
Ans.(a): Silver halides especially silver chloride
acid.
undergo decomposition in presence of sunlight to
produce silver metal and a halogen gas (chlorine gas). Oxalic acid is found in many green and leafy
vegetables, fruits, nuts, cocoa and seeds. It is an
2AgCl (Sunlight)  → 2Ag + Cl2
organic compound.
White colour of silver chloride changes to grey due to
formation of silver metal. In the natural form, it is attached to some minerals
and exists in the form of oxalate in plants.
14. What happens when a solution of an acid is
mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube? For acetic acid – natural source is vinegar.
1. Temperature of the solution decreases For citric acid – natural source is lemon.
2. Temperature of the solution increases For tartaric acid – grapes and bananas are very rich
3. Temperature of the solution remains the same sources.
4. Salt formation takes place 17. What is the pH range of our body?
Select the correct answer using the codes (a) 7.0 – 7.8 (b) 7.2 – 8.0
given below:
(c) 7.0 – 8.4 (d) 7.2 – 8.4
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(c) Only 2 (d) 2 and 4
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above Ans.(a): pH or potential of hydrogen is generally used
Ans.(d): When an acid reacts with a base, salt is formed to describe the acidity or basicity of an aqueous
along with water. This reaction is known as the solution.
Neutralization reaction. pH scale has values from 0 to 14 pH of 7 is called
Acid + Base  → Salt + Water neutral, less than 7 is called acidic and greater than
Neutralization reactions are highly exo-thermic in 7 is called basic.
nature. Thus, the temperature of the reaction Our body needs to maintain a healthy balance of
increases. acidity and alkalinity to work properly.
For example– Our body works within the pH range of 7.8.
When hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium Therefore, we can say that pH of our body is
hydroxide, sodium chloride is formed along with slightly alkaline.
water.
18. The easily noticed smell of the LPG gas is
HCl + NaOH  → NaCl + H2O
because of which among the following?
Hence, an acid-base reaction, a salt is formed and since
(a) Butane (b) Propane
this reaction is exothermic in nature so the temperature
will increases. (c) Methane (d) Ethanethiol
15. In terms of acidic strength, which one of the (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
following is in the correct increasing order? Ans.(d): The easily noticed smell of the LPG gas is
(a) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid ethanethiol.
(b) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid It is commonly known as ethyl mercaptan and
(c) Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid stench, is a clear liquid with a distinct odour.
(d) Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid Ethyl Mercaptan (C2H6S) is a colourless gas with a
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above pungent odor. It is used in LPG as an odorant to
Ans.(a): Hydrochloric acid is a mineral acid and ionises generate the telltale smell.
completely in water, and hence, it is a strong acid.
19. Which State Government has decided to start
Acetic acid is an organic acid and ionises partially
in water, hence, it is a weak acid. Water is usually world’s largest floating solar project by 2023?
neutral in nature. (a) Tamil Nadu (b) West Bengal
Thus the correct order of acidic strength is- (c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh
water < acetic acid < hydrochloric acid. (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
73
Ans.(d): A floating solar power plant is going to be 23. Which country’s President was the Chief guest
built in Madhya Pradesh’s Khandwa, said to be the at India’s Republic Day Parade on January 26,
world’s largest floating solar plant, it will generate 600 2021 after UK Prime Minister Boris Johnson
MW power of 2022-23. cancelled has visit to India due to Covid-19?
Floating Solar Project on Narmada river, which is to (a) Bolivia (b) Uruguay
be built on the backwaters of the Omkareshwar (c) Guyana (d) Suriname
Dam, will be one of only 10 floating solar plants in (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
the world.
Ans.(d): President of the Republic of Suriname,
CM Shivraj Singh chouhan has said that by 2027 Chandrikapersad “Chan” Santokhi, was the chief guest
“the renewable energy potential of Madhya Pradesh of India’s Republic Day parade on January 26 after
will be 20,000 MWs”. Britian Prime Minister Boris Johnson cancelled his visit
20. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) to India over new Coronavirus strain fears.
inaugurated India’s highest Meterological Centre
Santokhi had also attended and delivered a virtual
(MC) in:
keynote address at the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas
(a) Ladakh (b) Arunachal Pradesh
convention, organised by the Ministry of External
(c) Sikkim (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Affairs.
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Ans.(a): The India Meteorological Department (IMD) 24. India’s first Air Taxi Service has been launched
has set up India’s highest (located at 3500 metres above in:
sea level) Meterological Centre (MC) at Leh. (a) Mumbai (b) Manali
After Itanagar in Aranachal Pradesh, the Leh centre (c) Chandigarh (d) Lucknow
is the second MC located in the Himalayas. (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Dr. Harsh Vardhan, Minister of Earth and Sciences, Ans.(c): India’s first Air Taxi Service has been
inaugurated India’s highest Meterological Centre in launched in Chandigarh. It is the very first time when a
Leh. small aircraft is used as an air taxi in the country.
Note: According to options, Ladakh is correct option. The air taxi services started on 14 January, 2021.
21. Which one of the first country to approve The first air taxi service was launched by Haryana
Covid-19 vaccine of Oxford-AstraZeneca? Chief Minister Manohar Lal Khattar in Chandigarh
(a) USA (b) England Airport under the UDAN scheme of the Central
(c) Japan (d) India Government.
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
25. Which one country becomes the first country to
Ans.(b): The UK (England) on December, 30 became the
receive the India Covid-19 vaccine?
first country in the world to approve a coronavirus vaccine
(a) Maldives (b) Bhutan
developed by Oxford University and AstraZeneca.
(c) Nepal (d) Sri Lanka
AstraZeneca’s COVID-19 vaccine has been approved
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
for emergency supply in the United Kingdom.
This is significant for India, as the Pune based Ans.(a): The Maldives becomes the first country to receive
Serum Institute of India (SII) has tied up with the Indian COVID-19 vaccine.
AstraZeneca to deploy the vaccine in the country. The Indian ocean island country was received Oxford
22. India’s first National Sports University has AstraZeneca’s COVISHIELD vaccine produced by
been launched in: Serum Institute of India.
(a) Sikkim (b) Manipur The Maldives government has given all regulatory
(c) Kerala (d) Punjab approvals and permissions.
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above 26. Who became the first woman fighter pilot to
Ans.(b): The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister participate in the Republic Day fly-past?
Narendra Modi, has approved an ordinance to set up the (a) Bhawana Kanth
India’s first National Sports University in Imphal, (b) Shaliza Dhami
Manipur on March 16, 2018. (c) Avani Chaturvedi
It is the first central university in India, where (d) Mohan Singh Jitarwal
sports education is given attention. (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
74
Ans.(a): Bhawana Kanth is one of the first female • Water-1.333
fighter pilots of India. She was declared as the first • Kerosene-1.44
combat pilot along with two of her Cohort, Mohana • Flint glass-1.65
Singh and Avani Chaturvedi. The trio was inducted into • Diamond-2.42
the Indian Air Force fighter squadron in June, 2016. Hence, speed of light is minimum in Diamond.
27. How many rockets has been launched by SpaceX 30. When light travels from one medium to another
Agency on a single rocket? medium:
(a) 104 (b) 125 (a) Velocity, wavelength and frequency do not
(c) 136 (d) 143 change
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (b) Velocity, wavelength and frequency remain
same
Ans.(d): SpaceX created a new world record by
(c) Velocity, wavelength change and frequency
lanuchging 143 satellites on a single rocket, on 24
remains same
January, 2021.
(d) Velocity, frequency change and wavelength
SpaceX has beaten the Indian space agency ISRO’s remains same
record of deplyoing 104 satellites in a single lanuch (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
in February, 2017. Ans.(c): The phenomenon of bending of light when it
The launch vehicle for the SpaceX record breaking travels from one medium to another is known as the
flight was the Falcon 9 rocket. refraction of light.
28. IISc Bengaluru has signed a MoU with which When a ray of light suffers refraction, then its
organisation to develop biomass gasification velocity (v) and wavelength (λ) change but the
based hydrogen generation technology? frequency (f ) remains same.
(a) ONGC 31. Electromagnetic wave is:
(b) NTPC (a) Non-mechanical wave with medium dependent
(c) Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. (b) Non-mechanical wave with independent of
medium
(d) Gas Authority of India Ltd.
(c) Mechanical wave with medium dependent
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(d) Mechanical wave with indepedent of medium
Ans.(c): Indian Institute of Science is a public, deemed, (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
research university for higher education and research in
Ans.(b): Electromagnetic wave is a transverse wave
science, engineering, design and management. It is
defined as composed of oscillating electrical and
located in Bengaluru, Karnataka. magnetic fields perpendicular to each other.
IISc has entered into an MoU with R & D centre of It is a non-mechanical wave with independent of
Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. medium.
The partnership aims to develop biomass They travel from transmitter to receiver in three
gasification - based hydrogen generation technology different modes.
for producing fuel cell-grade hydrogen. 32. Optical fiber technology is based on:
The testing and development would take place in (a) Dispersion
IOCL’s R & D centre in Faridabad. (b) Inferference
29. Speed of light will be minimum in which of the (c) Refraction
following mediums? (d) Total internal reflection
(a) Water (b) Kerosene (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(c) Flint glass (d) Diamond Ans.(d): In an optiocal fiber, the information is passed
through light, which must not escape outside of it. This
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
phenomenon of confining the light inside the optical
Ans.(d): Speed of light is inversely proportional to fiber is termed total internal reflection.
refractive index. The ratio of the speed of light in a Optical fiber is the technology partnered with data
vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is called the transmission using light pulses travelling along with
refractive index of that medium. a long fiber which is usually made of plastic of
The refractive index of- glass.

75
33. Choose the correct option from the table: It comprises a network of balloons that would float
Music Noise above in the stratosphere higher than the airplanes
(A) Any unwanted Any sound that and the weather.
sound that does not pleases our ears is 36. The efficiency of a solar cell may be in the range:
please our ears is termed as noise (a) 2% to 5% (b) 10% to 15%
called music (c) 30% to 40% (d) 70% to 80%
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(B) It is produced by It is produced by
heavy-duty trucks, muscial instruments Ans.(b): Efficiency is the most commonly used parameter
railway engines’s such as sitar, guitar, to compare the performance of one solar cell to another.
horns, aircraft, car, violin, keyboard, It is defined as the ratio of energy output from the solar
faulty loudspeaker etc. cell to input energy from the sun.
etc. In addition to reflecting the performance of the solar
cell itself, the efficiency depends on the sprectrum and
(C) Music has Noise has irregular
intensity of the incident sunlight and the temperature
frequency and waveform,
of the solar cell.
wavelength that wavelength and low
The efficiency of a solar cell may be in the range 10%
are harmonious frequencies
to 15%.
(D) Music has a very Noise has also
37. Which of the following is a power absorbing
soothing effect soothing effect heat engine?
(E) None of the above/More than one of the above (a) Steam engine (b) Petrol
Ans.(c): Music: It is the art of arraning sound to create (c) Air compressor (d) Diesel engine
some combination of form, harmony, melody, rhythm (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
or otherwise expressive content. Ans.(c): An air compressor is a heat engine that absorbs
Noise: It is a unwanted sound considered upleasant, electricity.
loud or disruptive to hearing. From a physics Air compressors work by forcing atmospheric air
standpoint, there is no distinction between noise and under pressure to create potential energy that can be
desired sound, as both are vibrations through a medium, stored in a tank for later use.
such as air or water. The pressure builds up when the compressed air is
34. Cooking takes longest time: deliberately released, converting the potential
(a) In Shimla (b) At the sea level energy into usable kinetic energy.
(c) In Delhi (d) In Bengaluru 38. Fingerprints are observed by the use of:
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (a) Telescope
(b) Microscope
Ans.(a): At high altitudes, water boils at low
(c) Galilean telescope
temperature because atmospheric pressure decreases
(d) Concave lens
with increase in altitude. So, from the given options,
Shimla is at high altitude. Hence, cooking takes longest (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
time in Shimla. Ans.(b): A microscope is a laboratory instrument used
to examine objects that are to small to be seen by the
35. ‘Project Loon’ is associated with:
naked eye. Microscopic means being invisible to the
(a) Waste management techology
eye unless aided by a microscope.
(b) Wireless communication technology It is used to highly magnify patterns and design of
(c) Solar power technology fingerprints and is widely used for fingerprint
(d) Water conservation tracing.
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above Dactylography refers to the scientific study of
Ans.(b): Project Loan was developed with the aim of fingerprints as a method of identification.
providing economic internet access across the world via 39. Digital data refers to the information that is:
wireless communication technology. (a) Continuous (b) Discrete
It is a research and development project that is (c) Bits (d) Bytes
developed by Google. (e) None of the above/More than one of the above

76
Ans.(b): Digital data, in information theory and 43. Which of the following is/are not secondary
information systems, is information represented as a memory of computer?
string of discrete symbols, each of which can take on 1. Compact Disk (CD)
one of only a finite number of values from some 2. Cache Memory
alphabet, such as letters or digits. 3. Floppy Disk (FD)
An example is a text document, which consists of a 4. Hard Disk Drive (HDD)
string of alphanumeric characters. Select the correct answer using the codes
40. Transformer works with: given below:
(a) Alternating current (AC) (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2
(b) Direct current (DC) (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4
(c) Both AC and DC (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(d) Any signal Ans.(a): Secondary memory is a physical device for the
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above permanent storage of programs and data.
Ans.(a): A transformer is an electrical device that uses It consists of all permanent or persistent storage
electromagnetic induction to pass an Alterning Current devices, such as Read-Only Memory (ROM), flash
(AC) signal from one electric circuit to another, often drives, Hard Disk Drives (HDD), Compact Disk
changing or transforming the voltage and electric (CD), Floppy Disk (FD), magnetic tapes and other
current. types of internal/external storage media.
Transformers do not pass Direct Current (DC) and 44. Auxiliary memory or secondary memory includes
can be used to take the DC voltage out of a signal devices such as:
while keeping the part that changes (AC voltage). 1. Optical disks like DVD, CD and Blu-ray
41. Relevant waves in telecommunication are: disks
(a) X-rays (b) Microwaves 2. Magnetic disks like memory stick, floppy
(c) UV waves (d) All of the above disk and hard disk drive
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above 3. Solid state disks like thumb drive, pen and
Ans.(b): Microwaves are used for telecommunication. flash
It modulates the mechanical waves emitted by our vocal 4. Electric disks like memory stick, floppy
cords. Great Physicists such as Hertz, Tesla, Branly and disk and hard disk drive
Marconi understood that it was possible to use 5. Mechanical disks like DVD, CD and Blu-
electromagnetic waves to convey information through ray disks
air. Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
42. Which of the following are mobile operating
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
systems?
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 5
1. Android 2. iOS
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
3. Windows Phone OS 4. Symbian
Ans.(a): Auxiliary memory also called secondary
Select the correct answer using the codes storage, is the non-volatile memory lowest cost, highest
given below: capacity and slowest access storage in a computer
(a) All of the above (b) 1 and 2 system.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 It is where programs and data are kept for long-term
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above storage or when not in immediate use.
It does not lose stored data when the device is
Ans.(a): A mobile operating system is software that
powered off.
allows smartphones, tablets and other devices to run
It is not directly accessible by the CPU.
applications and programs.
Different types of mobile operating system: 45. What will happen when the memory chip is
volatile?
• Android
1. Explodes due to high temperatures
• Symbian 2. Used for data storage
• iOS 3. Loss of content due to loss of current
• Black Berry OS 4. Used to write and read data
• Windows Phone OS 5. Damaged due to loss of current
77
 Select the correct answer using the codes 48. Which software prevents the external access to
given below: a system?
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 1 (a) Firewall (b) Gateway
(c) 1 and 5 (d) 2 and 4 (c) Router (d) Virus checker
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Ans.(a): Volatile memory is a type of memory that Ans.(a): A firewall is a network security system that
maintains its data only while the device is powered. monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network
If the power is interrupted for any reason, the data is traffic based on predetermined security rules.
lost. Firewall provide protection against outside cyber
Volatile memory is used extensively in computers, attackers by shielding your computer or network
from malicious or unnecessary network traffic.
ranging from servers to laptops as well as in other
devices, such as printers, LCD displays, routers, cell It can also prevent malicious software from
accessing a computer or network via the internet.
phones, wearables and medical equipment.
49. Which of the following statements is not true
46. Which of the following places the common data
about democracy?
elements in order from smallest to largest?
(a) Democracy evolves through popular struggle.
1. Character, File, Record, Field, Database
(b) Democratic conflict is resolved through mass
2. Character, Record, Field, Database, File mobilisation.
3. Character, Field, Record, File, Database (c) Role of popular struggle comes to an end with
4. Bit, Byte, Character, File, Record, Field, the estabilshment of democracy.
Database (d) Public participation becomes effective with
Select the correct answer using the codes the help of organised politics.
given below: (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(a) 1 and 4 Ans.(c): In a democracy, a country’s people are
(b) Only 2 involved in choosing its leader or head.
(c) Only 4 Democracy evolves through popular struggle.
(d) Only 3 Democratic conflict is resolved through mass
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above mobilisation.
Ans.(d): Character, Field, Record, File and Database Public participation becomes effective with the help
are the common data elements in order from smallest to of organised politics.
largest. The people are involved in the process of forming a
A database is a collection of files, a file is made up government.
of records, a record is made up of fields, a field is They have the free will and right to vote for a party
made up of characters, a character is made up of to come into power.
bytes and a byte is made up of bits. The right to vote is not determined by wealth or
class or race.
47. Which of the following is designed to control
Hence, role of popular struggle comes to an end
the operations of a computer?
with the establishment of democracy, which is not
(a) User the correct option.
(b) Application software
50. Nepal witnessed an extra-ordinary popular
(c) System software movement in:
(d) Utility software (a) April, 1990 (b) February, 2005
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (c) April, 2006 (d) April, 2004
Ans.(c): Software is basically classified into two- (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
system software and application software. Ans.(c): Nepal witnessed an extra-ordinary popular
System software is designed to control the operations movement in April, 2006. The movement was aimed at
and extend the processing capability of a computer restoring democracy. Nepal was one of the ‘third wave’
system. countries that had won democracy in 1990.
It controls a computer’s internal functioning and The movement of April, 2006 was aimed at
peripherals such as monitors, printers and storage regaining popular control over the government from
device. the king.

78
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2022
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical)
General Engineering Science (Paper-IV)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hrs Exam Date: 25 March, 2022

1. The first law of the thermodynamics is law of: Ans.(a): (i) Otto cycle is the air-standard cycle for the
(a) Conservation of energy spark ignition internal combustion engines.
(b) Conservation of mass (ii) Otto cycle consist of 4 processes–
(c) Conservation of heat Process 1-2 : Reversible adiabatic compression of
(d) Conservation of work air
Ans.(a): (i) First law of thermodynamics is law of Process 2-3 : Heat addition at constant volume
conservation of energy. Process 3-4 : Reversible adiabatic expansion
(ii) First law of thermodynamics defines that internal Process 4-1 : Heat rejection at constant volume.
energy (E) is equal to the difference of the heat
transfer (Q) into a system and work (W) done by
the system.
Mathematically, E2 – E1 = Q – W.
(iii) It states that energy of the universe remains the
same. It may be exchanged between system &
surrounding, but it can’t be created or destroyed.
2. If radiant energy EB emitted by the black
surface strikes the non-black surface and if 4. How is the heat added in the Diesel cycle?
non-black surface has absorptivity α, then it (a) Reversibly at constant pressure
will absorb how much radiations? (b) Irreversibly at constant pressure
(a) α EB (b) 2α EB (c) Reversibly at constant volume
(c) 3α EB (d) 4α EB (d) Irreversibly at constant volume
Ans.(a): Given– Ans.(a): (i) Heat added in Diesel cycle in reversible
EB = Radiant energy = Emissive power of a black body manner at constant pressure.
α = Absorptivity
E = Total emissive power
E
Now, emissivity (ε) =
EB
Eη E Bη E Bη
According to Kirchoff’s law, = =
αη α Bη 1
{Q for black body, αBη= 1}
Eη
⇒ = αη
E Bη

⇒ E η = α η E Bη ⇒ E = αE B
(ii)
3. Otto cycle is the air-standard cycle of: Process are–
(a) Spark ignition (SI) engine 1-2: Reversible adiabatic compression
(b) Compression ignition (CI) engine 2-3: Reversible constant pressure heat addition
(c) Both SI and CI engines 3-4 : Reversible adiabatic expansion
(d) None of the above 4-1 : Reversible constant volume heat rejection

79
5. Which type of turbine is a Francis turbine? 9. In superposition theorem, when we consider
(a) Reaction turbine (b) Impulse turbine the effect of one current source, all the other
(c) Screw turbine (d) None of the above current sources are:
Ans.(a): (i) Francis Turbine is a type of reaction turbine (a) Shorted (b) Opened
(ii) Reaction Turbine: Type of turbine in which both (c) Removed (d) Undisturbed
kinetic energy as well as pressure energy of water is Ans.(b): (i) In superposition theorem, when we consider
used to rotate the turbine is called reaction turbine. the effect of one current source, all the other current
Example– Francis and Kaplan Turbine sources are opened.
(ii) It states that a circuit with multiple power source
6. Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from:
can be analyzed by evaluating only one power
(a) Rotor to fluid (b) Fluid to rotor
source at a time.
(c) Draft to rotor (d) Rotor to draft
(iii) It does not apply to non-linear circuits.
Ans.(a): (i) Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from (iv) It is not applicable for the calculation of power
rotor to fluid. across any resistance.
(ii) A centrifugal pump is a mechanical device
10. In inductive circuit, when inductance (L) or
designed to move a fluid by means of the transfer
inductive reactance (XL) increases, the circuit
of rotational energy from one or more driven current:
rotors, called impeller.
(a) Also increases (b) Decreases
(iii) Energy is important to the fluid by centrifugal
(c) Remains same (d) None of the above
action of moving blades from inner radius to the
Ans.(b): (i) In inductive circuit, when inductance (L) or
outer radius.
inductive reactance (XL) increases, the circuit current
7. Centrifugal pumps are used to transport: decrease.
(a) Pressure (b) Speed
V
(c) Power (d) Fluid (ii) Current (I) =
XL
Ans.(d): (i) Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluid
by conversion of rotational kinetic energy to Where, V = voltage XL = inductive reactance
hydrodynamic energy of fluid flow. 1
⇒ I∝
8. In centrifugal pump, the rotational kinetic X L

energy comes from: Hence the inductive reactance increase and the current
(a) Casing (b) Tank decrease.
(c) Engine motor (d) Draft tube 11. In pure inductive circuit, the power is:
Ans.(c): (i) In centrifugal pump, rotational kinetic (a) Infinite (b) Maximum
energy comes from engine motor. (c) Normal (d) Zero
(ii) The fluid enters the pump impeller along or near to Ans.(d): (i) In pure inductive circuit, power is zero.
the rotating axis and is accelerated by impeller, (ii) For purely inductive circuit
flowing radially outward into a casing, from where Power (P) = VI cos φ
it exist. Where, V = voltage
cos φ = power factor
I = current
Q For purely inductive circuit, current lags voltage by 90°.
Therefore, power factor cos (φ) = cos 90° = 0
Now, power (P) = VI cos φ = (VI) × 0 = 0

80
12. The relationship between impedance (Z) and (a) When an amount of Magnetic Flux linked to a
admittance (Y) is: circuit changes
(a) Z = 1/Y (b) Z = 1 + Y (b) Amplitude of induced emf is exactly
2 proportional to the rate of change of Magnetic
(c) Z = 1 – Y (d) Z = Y
Ans.(a): (i) Relationship between impedance (Z) and Flux.
admittance (Y) is 16. The armature of DC machine is made up of
1 laminated sheet to:
Z= (a) Reduce the hysteresis loss
Y
(b) Reduce the eddy-current loss
(ii) Admittance– Admittance is a measure of how
easily a circuit will allow current to flow. (c) Reduce the armature copper loss
SI unit is siemen. (d) Increase dissipation of heat from the armature
surface
13. The magnetic effect of current was discovered
by: Ans.(b): (i) The armature of DC machine is made up of
laminated sheets to reduce the eddy current loss.
(a) Maxwell (b) Fleming
(ii) Eddy current is a form of magnetic loss.
(c) Oersted (d) Faraday
(iii) Development of eddy current is influenced by
Ans.(c): (i) Magnetic effect of electric current was
resistance of material in which they flow. For any
discovered by Hans Christian Oersted in 1820. He
magnetic material, there is an inverse relationship
observed that flow of electric current through a
between material cross-sectional area and its
conductor produce magnetic field around it.
resistance. It means, reduction in area causes an
(ii) According to magnetic effect of current, a current increase in resistance, and in turn, decrease in eddy
carrying wire can cause a deflection in a magnetic current.
needle.
∴ To reduce the area thin laminated sheets are used.
14. The magnetic field lines:
17. The major photochemical smog is:
(a) Intersect at right angles to one another
(a) Hydrogen peroxide (b) Chlorofluorocarbon
(b) Intersect at an angle of 45° to each other
(c) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (d) All of the above
(c) Do not cross one another
Ans.(d): (i) Major photochemical somg is Hydrogen
(d) Cross at an angle of 60°
peroxide, Chlorofluorocarbon, Peroxyacetyl nitrate.
Ans.(c): (i) Magnetic field lines do not cross one (ii) Photochemical smog is a type of smog that is
another, because if magnetic field lines intersect each produced when UV light originating from the sun
other then at the intersection point there will be two interacts with oxides of nitrogen present in
direction of field at same point, which is not possible. atmosphere.
(iii) It mainly composed by nitrogen oxides, volatile
organic compound (primary pollutants),
18. How many different types of primary pollutants
together contribute to about 90 percent of the
global air pollution?
(ii) Magnetic field lines always make closed loops. (a) Three (b) Five
(iii) Magnetic field lines always emerge from North (c) Seven (d) None of the above
Pole and Terminate at South Pole. Ans.(b): (i) Total five primary pollutants that together
15. Alternative current generator is basically based contribute about 90% of global air pollution.
upon: (ii) Five Primary pollutants are–
(a) Ampere’s law (b) Lenz’s law 1. Carbon oxides
(c) Faraday’s law (d) Coulomb’s law 2. Nitrogen oxides
Ans.(c): (i) Alternative current generator is basically 3. Sulphur oxides
based upon Faraday’s law. 4. Volatile organic compound
(ii) Alternative current generator is a machine that 5. Suspended particular matter
converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. (iii) Primary pollutants are formed and emitted directly
(iii) Faraday’s law– from particular sources.

81
19. BOD stands for: (ii) A set of point forces is considered concurrent if all
(a) Biochemical Oxygen Demand the lines of action of those forces all come together
(b) British Oxygen Demand at a single point.
(c) British Oxygen Depletion 23. A body starts to slide over a horizontal surface
(d) Biological Oxygen Depletion with an initial velocity of 0.2 m/s. Due to
friction, its velocity decreases at the rate of 0.02
Ans.(a): (i) BOD stands for Biochemical Oxygen Demand.
m/s2. How much time will it take for the body
(ii) It is defined as the amount of oxygen required to stop?
aerobic biological organism bacterial to break (a) 10s (b) 15 s
down the organic material present in a certain (c) 1 s (d) 5 s
volume of a sample of water. Ans.(a): Given data
(iiii) Used in medicinal a pharmaceutical industry. Initial velocity (u) = 0.2 m/s
(iv) For clean water BOD < 5 ppm Acceleration = 0.02 m/s2
For highly polluted water, BOD ≥ 17 ppm. Now, Q The body finally stops, therefore, v = 0
20. The purest form of naturally occurring water From equation of motion, v = u + at
is: 0 = 0.2 + (– 0.02) × t
(a) Rain water (b) River water t = 10 sec.
(c) Pond water (d) Well water 24. Which of the following do not have identical
dimensions?
Ans.(a): (i) Purest form of naturally occurring water is rain (a) Momentum and impulse
water as it does not contain any dissolved impurities. (b) Torque and energy
(ii) The water is evaporated from the seas, oceans and (c) Kinetic energy and potential energy
river leaving behind all the impurities and form the (d) Moment of a force and angular momentum
cloud. Ans.(d): (i) Momentum = Mass × Velocity
21. In order to determine the effects of force, = [M] [LT ]
–1

acting on body, we must know: = [MLT ]

–1
(a) Magnitude of the force –2 –1
Impulse = Force × Time = [MLT ] [T] = [MLT ]
(b) Line of action of the force
(ii) Torque = moment of inertia × Angular acceleration
(c) Nature of the force, i.e. whether the force is 2 –2
= [ML ] [T ]
push or pull 2 –2
= [ML T ]
(d) All of the above 2 –1 2 2 –2
Energy = m.c = [M] [LT ] = [ML T ]
Ans.(d): In order to determine the effects of force, 2 –2
(iii) Kinetic energy = [ML T ]
acting on body we must know– 2 –2
Potential energy = [ML T ]
(i) Magnitude of force
(iv) Moment of a force = force × distance
(ii) Line of action of force –2
= [MLT ] [L]
(iii) Nature of force i.e. whether the force is push or 2 –2
pull. = [ML T ]
Angular momentum = Angular velocity × moment of inertia
22. Concurrent forces are those forces whose lines –1 2
= [T ] [ML ]
of action: 2 –1
(a) Lie on the same line = [ML T ]
(b) Meet at one point 25. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed
(c) Meet on the same plane as:
(d) None of the above (a) Resilience
Ans.(b): (i) Concurrent forces are those forces whose (b) Proof resilience
lines of action meet at one point. (c) Impact energy
(d) Modulus of resilience
Ans.(a) (i) Total strain energy stored in a body is termed as
resilience.
(ii) It is the ability of a material to absorb energy when
it is deformed elastically, and release that energy
upon unloading.
(iii) It is the area under the load-deflection curve within
the elastic limit.

82
26. Which of the following is not a surveying (ii) Megger is a portable instrument to measure the
equipment? insulation resistance of the electrical machinery or
(a) Theodolite (b) Pitot tube system.
(c) Level (d) Clinometer (iii) It works on principle of electromagnetic induction.
Ans.(b): (i) Pitot tube is not surveying equipment. (iv) It is also known as Megohmmeter.
(ii) Theodolite: For measuring horizontal and vertical 30. Which of the following is a proper sequence?
angles and taking staff reading. (a) Proportional limit, elastic limit, yielding,
Level: It is used for leveling. failure
Clinometer: Used for vertical angle measurement. (b) Elastic limit, proportional limit, yielding,
failure
27. The disc of domestic supply energy meter is
(c) Yielding, proportional limit, elastic limit,
made of which material?
failure
(a) Zinc (b) Copper
(d) None of the above
(c) Aluminium (d) Silver
Ans.(a): (i) Proportional limit–Point at which stress and
Ans.(c): (i) Disc of supply energy meter is made of
strain are directly proportional to one another.
Aluminium. (ii) Elastic limit–It is the greatest stress or force per
(ii) Energy meter is used for measuring the energy unit area that can occur within a solid material
utilises by the electric load. before permanent deformation.
(iii) It is used in domestic and industrial AC circuit for (iii) Yield Point–Point at which material starts to
measuring power consumption. deform plastically.
(iv) Energy meter has 4 main parts:–
(a) Driving system
(b) Moving system
(c) Braking system
(d) Registering system
28. Which of the following options is true for given
statements for flatness testing?
A → Proportional limit
Statement–1 :
B → Elastic limit
Straight edges can be used to check flatness.
31. In symmetrical beam sections, the maximum
Statement–2 :
shear stress is in the:
Single-ended straight edge can be used to
(a) Top extreme fiber
determine flatness of the surface.
(b) Centroid axis fiber
(a) True, True (b) False, False
(c) Bottom most fiber
(c) True, False (d) False, True (d) None of the above
Ans.(a): (i) Straight edges can be used to check flatness. Ans.(b): In symmetrical beam sections, the maximum
Single edged straight edge can be used to determine shear stress is in the centroid axis fiber.
flatness by applying it at different places in different
directions on the tested surface.
(ii) Straight edges types–
1. Tool maker straight edge
2. Wide edge straight edge
3. Angle straight edge
32. The maximum shear stress is equal to_____of
With these edges, straightness and flatness are checked
the Mohr’s circle.
by sight test.
(a) Radius (b) Diameter
29. The supply to the megger is given by: (c) Circumference (d) Area
(a) AC motor
Ans.(a): (i) Maximum shear stress is equal to radius of
(b) AC generator the Mohr’s circle.
(c) Permanent magnet DC motor
(d) DC generator (ii) Maximum shear stress, τmax
Ans.(c): (i) Supply to the megger is given by permanent σ − σ2
= 1 = Radius of Mohr’s circle
magnet DC motor. 2

83
 Where, le = effective length
k = radius of gyration
(iii) It is a geometrical property of a compression
member.
(iv) It also provides a measure of vulnerability to
failure of column by elastic buckling.
36. Lime has been conventionally classified into
how many types?
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 5 (d) 3
Ans.(d): (1) Lime has been conventionally classified
into 3 types–
33. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly
loaded, is________the stress induced when the 1. Fat lime
same load is applied gradually. 2. Hydraulic lime
(a) Equal to (b) One-half 3. Poor lime
(c) Twice (d) Four times (2) Fat lime–(i) It slacks rapidly and its volume is
Ans.(c): (i) The stress induced in a body when suddenly increased by 2 to 2.5 times of its original volume. So, it
loaded, is twice the stress induced when the same load is called as fat lime.
is applied gradually. (ii) It is used in white wash and plastering.
(ii) Maximum deformation induced in material when (3) Hydraulic lime
load is suddenly applied is 2 times the deformation • It is a general term for calcium oxide, that sets by
or deflection in material when load is gradually hydration.
applied. • Also known as water lime.
(iii) The strain energy stored in material when load is (4) Poor lime
suddenly applied is 1 times the strain energy stored
1. It is also called as impure or lean lime
in material when load is gradually applied.
2. It is less than 70% pure.
34. The effective length of a column of length L
3. It is normally used in brick work around foundation.
fixed against rotation and translation at one
end and free at the other end is: 37. Which of the following is the lightest among the
(a) 0.5L (b) 0.7L following?
(c) 1.414L (d) 2L (a) Magnesium (b) Aluminium
(c) Titanium (d) Copper
Ans.(d): Length of column = L
Now, Ans.(a): (i) Magnesium is lightest among aluminium,
titanium, copper and magnesium.
n 2 π 2 EI
Euler’s crippling load, P = (ii) Magnesium is extremely light and 33% lighter
L2e than Aluminium.
n = number of buckling inertia 3
(iii) Density of magnesium = 1740 kg/m .
Where Le = effective length (iv) It is abundantly available in earth’s crust and
For column, whose one end is free and one end is fixed; seawater.
effective length (Le) = 2L 38. Which of the following metals is highly prone
35. Slenderness ratio is the ratio of effective length to corrosion?
of column and: (a) Aluminimum (b) Copper
(a) Lateral dimension of a column (c) Iron (d) Zinc
(b) Least radius of gyration of a column Ans.(d): (i) Zinc is highly prone to corrosion among
(c) Maximum radius of gyration of a column aluminium, copper, iron and zinc and hence used as
(d) None of the above sacrificial anode or in galvanization.
Ans.(b): (i) Slenderness ratio is the ratio of effective (ii) Corrosion is the gradual deterioration of materials
length of column and least radius of gyration of volume. by chemical or electrochemical reaction with their
(ii) Mathematically environment.
le (iii) It is oxidation induced deterioration of both metals
Slenderness ratio (s) =
k and non-metals.

84
39. Steel with______carbon is known as hypoeutectoid 43. A/An______is an oldest type of machine which
steel. removes earth.
(a) 0.8% (b) Below 0.8% (a) Escalator (b) Excavator
(c) Above 0.8% (d) None of the above (c) Elevator (d) Bulldozer
Ans.(b): (i) Steel with below 0.8% carbon is known as
Ans.(b): (i) Excavator is an oldest type of machine
Hypereutectoid steel. It is most ductile. which removes earth.
(ii) Steel with above 0.8% carbon is known as (ii) It is generally used for excavation work.
hypereutectoid steel. (iii) It is also used for Heavy lifting, digging of
(iii) In hypoeutectoid steel, the equilibrium microstructure
Trenches, holes, foundation etc.
at room temperature consist of ferrite and pearlite.
(iv) Escalator is a moving staircase which carries
This ferrite is known as proeutectoid ferrite. people b/w floor of a building or structure.
40. The particular task performance in CPM is (v) Elevator, also called lift that moves in a vertical
known as: shaft to carry passenger.
(a) Dummy (b) Event 44. While scheduling a project by CPM:
(c) Activity (d) Contract (a) A project is divided into various activities
Ans.(c): (i) The particular task perform is CPM is (b) Required time for each activity is established
known as activity. (c) A sequence of various activities is made
according to their importance
(d) All of the above
Ans.(d): While scheduling a project by CPM–
(ii) Activity is task that consumes both time and (i) Project is divided into various activities.
resources. (ii) Required time for each activity is established.
(iii) Dummy Activity is represented by dotted arrow (iii) A sequence of various activities is made according
and it does not consume time and resource. to their importance.
41. Which of the following is an important factor (iv) Scheduling can be done by PERT or CPM method.
that can affect the accuracy and efficiency of (v) PERT is a method used to examine the task in a
estimates? schedule and determine a critical path method
(a) Project size variation. It analyzes the time required to complete
(b) Planning process each task and its associated dependencies to
(c) Project complexity determine the minimum time to complete the project.
(d) Degree of structural uncertainty 45. The friction factor for laminar flow is given by:
Ans.(a): (i) Project size is the important factor that can (a) (Re/64) (b) (64/Re)
affect the accuracy and efficiency of estimates. (c) (Re/16) (d) (16/Re)
(ii) As project size increases, the inter dependence Ans.(b): (i) Friction factor for laminar flow is given by–
among various elements of software grows rapidly. 64
f=
42. The critical path: Re
(a) is a path that operates from the starting node Where, f = friction factor
to the end node Re = Reynolds number
(b) is a mixture of all paths (ii) In fluid dynamics, Darcy friction factor formulae
(c) is the longest path are equations that allows the calculation of Darcy
(d) is the shortest path friction factor, a dimensionless quantity used in
Ans.(c): Critical path is the longest path of scheduled calculating friction losses in pipe flow as well as
activity that must be met to execute a project. open-channel flow.
(ii) It indicates the minimum time necessary to 46. The flow of fluid will be laminar when:
complete the project as it’s the only path that run (a) Reynold’s number is less than 2000
continuously from start to end of project. (b) The density of the fluid is low
(iii) It can be determined from forward path method (c) Both (A) and (B)
only. (d) None of the above
85
 Ans.(a): (i) The flow of fluid will be laminar when Ans.(d): (i) Mohr circle is a circle which represents the
Reynold’s number is less than 2000. relation between normal stress and shear stress for a
(ii) For Turbulent flow, Re ≥ 4000 plane of a 2-dimensional stressed body.
(iii) If 2000 ≤ Re ≤ 4000 ⇒ Transitional flow (ii) It is 2-dimensional graphical representation.
(iv) Laminar flow is the flow in which fluid particles (iii) It is helpful in finding maximum and minimum
flow in organised manner. principle stresses, maximum shear stress etc.
(v) Reynold number (Re) (iv) It is used to determine stresses on an oblique
ρVD section of a body subjected to–
where, fluid density = • Direct tensile stress in one plane accompained
µ
by shear stress.
ρ = Density of Fluid
• Direct tensile stress in two mutually
D = Diameter of pipe
perpendicular directions.
µ = Dynamic viscosity of fluid
• Direct tensile stress in two mutually
V = Velocity of Fluid perpendicular directions accompanied by a
47. Which of the following sentences are true for simple shear stress.
Bernoulliֹ’s equation?
49. The emissive power of gray body is:
(1) Bernoulli’s principle is applicable to ideal
(a) Less than the emissive power of the
incompressible fluid
blackbody
(2) The gravity force and pressure forces are only
(b) Greater than the emissive power of the
considered in Bernoulli’s principle.
blackbody
(3) The flow of fluid is rotational for Bernoulli’s
(c) Equal to the emissive power of the blackbody
principle.
(d) Cannot say
(4) The heat transfer into or out of fluid should be
zero to apply Bernoulli’s principle. Ans.(a): (i) Emissive power is power of a body at a
(a) (1), (2) and (3) (b) (1), (3) and (4) given temperature emitted as radiant thermal energy
from a unit surface area of a hot body per unit time.
(c) (1), (2) and (4) (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(ii) It is total amount of thermal energy emitted per
Ans.(c): (1) Bernoulli’s equation is given as–
unit area per unit time.
1 2 (iii) Emissive power of any body is less than the
P + ρv + ρgh = constant
2 emissive power of a block body.
Where, P = pressure Therefore, emissive power of gray body is less
ρ = density than the emissive power of blackbody.
v = velocity (iv) Gray body is that body that emits radiation at each
h = elevation wavelength in constant ratio less than unity to that
g = gravitational acceleration emitted by black body at same temperature.
2. Bernoulli’s principle is applicable to ideal in 50. The absorptivity of blackbody equals to:
compressible fluid. (a) 2
3. Gravity and pressure force are only considered in (b) 1
Bernoulli’s principle. (c) 3
4. The heat transfer into or out of fluid should be zero (d) 4
to apply Bernoulli’s principle.
Ans.(b)
48. Mohr’s circle is used to determine the stresses (i) The Absorptivity of blackbody is equal to 1.
on an oblique section of a body subjected to:
(ii) Absorptivity is the property of body that determines
(a) Direct tensile stress in one plane accompanied
the fraction of incident radiation absorbed by the
by a shear stress
body.
(b) Direct tensile stress in two mutually
(iii) Blackbody–It is an ideal object that has perfect
perpendicular directions
absorption of all radiation that falls on it, regardless
(c) Direct tensile stress in two mutually of direction or wavelength.
perpendicular directions accompanied by a
smile shear stress (iv) The name ‘black body’ is given because it absorbs
(d) All of the above all colors of light.

86

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 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2017
Assistant Engineer (Preliminary)
GENERAL PAPER
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Exam Date : 16 Sep., 2018

1. Light-emitting diode is an example of Lateral stress– It is the stress produced in lateral

(a) photonic devices direction. Generally Lateral direction is defined in
(b) mechanical devices comparison to the applied load.
(c) optoelectronic devices Thermal stress– It is defined as any change in the
thermal relation between temperature regulator and its
(d) sensing devices
environment that it is not compensated by thermo-
Ans. (c) : Light-emitting diode (LED) is an regulatory effectors reactions.
optoelectronic device which generates light via
4. National Science Day is celebrated on
electroluminescence. It contains a p-n junction,
(a) 26th December
through which an electric current is sent. The current
(b) 26th January
generates electrons and holes, which release their
(c) 28th February
energy portions as photons when they recombine.
(d) 5th September
Example of optoelectronic device are :
Ans. (c) : National Science day is celebrated on Feb,
(i) Light emitting diode
28 every year to honour the discovery of 'Raman
(ii) Laser diode
effect'. Dr. C.V. Raman was the first among those
(iii) Super luminescent device Indian's who got first "Bharat Ratna Award".
2. The premature ignition of fuel is called 26 January 1950, we adopted our constitution fully in
(a) engine knock action that's why this day is observed every year as
(b) autoignition "Republic day of India"
(c) detonation 5th Sep., we observe "National teacher's day on birth
(d) All of the above date of" Dr. Sarvapalli Radha Krishnan, the first Vice-
President of India. 26 Dec. Jayanti of shaheed Uddham
Ans. (c) : Detonation is a rapid and violent singh, who killed General Dyre in London (1940)
combustion. Detonation involves a supersonic responsible for Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919.
exothermic front accelerating through a medium that
5. Which of the following is not a part of
eventually drives a shock front propagating directly in
venturimeter
front of it.
(a) Diverging part
Autoignition– It is defined as the self - ignition of the
(b) Converging part
vapors emitted by a liquid heated above its ignition
(c) Working fluid
temperatures and that when escaping into the
(d) Throat
atmosphere enter into their explosive range.
Engine knock– It is an internal-combustion engine, Ans. (c) : Venturimeter is a device that is used to
measure the rate of flow of fluid through a pipe.
sharp sounds caused premature combustion of part of
A working fluid is a gas or liquid that primarily
the compressed air fuel mixture in the cylinder.
transfers force, motion or mechanical energy.
3. Skin stress is also called as Diverging Part, Converging Part, Throat are part of
(a) shear stress (b) bending stress Venturimeter.
(c) lateral stress (d) temperature stress 6. What is the principle of the 'Johansson
Ans. (b) : Bending stress– It is a normal stress that is Mikrokator'
induced at a point in a body subjected to loads that (a) Button spinning on a loop of string
cause into bend. (b) Principle of interference
Shearing stress– It is defined a type of stress that acts (c) Optical magnification
coplanar with cross section of material. (d) Principle of transformer

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 7 YCT

 Ans. (a) : Johansson Mikrokator works on the simple 11. When air passes through silica gel
principle of button spinning on a loop of string. Since (a) it absorbs water vapour molecules
H. Abrahamson developed this Instrument, this simple (b) latent heat of condensation is released
basic principle was also known as the Abrahamson (c) DBT of air increases
movement. When there is a vertical movement other
upward or downwind ward in the plunger is (d) All of the above
transmitted through the elbow of the bell crank lever. Ans. (a) : The water in the air actually absorbs
7. At 00C, silicon behaves as a/an between the tiny passages as the air passes through
(a) conductor (b) insulator them. The water molecules became trapped so that air
(c) semiconductor (d) superconductor is dried out as it passes through the filter. This process
is reversible. It is the silica gel desiccant is heated to
Ans. (b) : A semi-conductor acts like an ideal insulator
at zero (00C) temperature that is at 273 Kelvin. It is 180 0f it will release the trapped water.
because the free electrons in the valence band of semi- 12. Which of the following screw threads is
conductors will not carry enough thermal energy to stronger than other threads?
overcome the forbidden energy gap at absolute zero. (a) Square threads
8. Temperature stress is a function of (b) Trapezoidal threads
(a) coefficient of linear expansion (c) Buttress threads
(b) change in temperature (d) V threads
(c) modulus of elasticity
Ans. (c) The buttress thread form is designed to handle
(d) All of the above
extreme high axial thrust in one direction. The thread
Ans. (d) : Thermal stress is mechanical stress created shares the low friction properties of a square thread
by any change in temperature of a material. These
format roughly twice the shear strength.
stresses can lead to fracturing or plastic deformation
depending on the other variables of heating, which 13. In Physics, the Nobel Prize, 2014 was awarded
includes material types and constraints. for the discovery of
9. Who has served as the 11th President of India? (a) gravitational waves
(a) Shri Pranab Mukherjee (b) blue light LED
(b) Shri K. R. Narayanan (c) neutrino oscillations
(c) Shri A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (d) MRI
(d) Smt. Pratibha Patil Ans. (b) : The Royal Swedish Academy of sciences
Ans. (c) : Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam knownas "missile announced that three Researchers will share this year's
man", was an Indian scientist and politician who Noble Prize in Physics for their Invention of blue light
played a leading role in the development of India's emitting diodes (LEDs). The prize committee
missiles and Nuclear weapons programme. He served emphasised that Isamu Akasaki, Hiroshi Amano and
India from 2002 to 2007 as President of India He was
shuji Nakamura at Santa Barbara launched a revolution
11th President of India.
in energy efficient lighting.
Pranab Mukharjee born in 1935 in west Bengal, served
in different Ministries and later on became 13th The researchers work has already made it into many
President of India from 2012 to 2017. He was Indian Common Electronic devices blue-LEDs can be found
National Congress leader. He was honoured Bharat in most touch screen devices. White LEDs usually use
Ratna in 2019. a blue LED to excite a phosphor to emit white light,
K.R. Narayan was a diplomat, academic and politician. and can be found in the camera flashes of most modern
He served India as the l0th President and 9th Vice smart phones.
President of India. 14. In India, 15th September is celebrated as
Pratibha Devi Singh Patil served as President of India
(a) Engineer's Day
from 2007 to 2012, she was the first woman President
of India. She was India's 12th President. (b) Scientist's Day
(c) Labour's Day
10. NASA was established in the year
(a) 19 (b) 1950 (d) Women's Day
(c) 1958 (d) 1985 Ans. (a) : Every year, the country celebrates 15th Sep.
Ans. (c) : National Aeronautics and Space as 'Engineers Day' to appreciate the contribution of M.
Administration is an American space agency as well Visveswarya, the Bharat Ratna Awardee. Visveswarya
as aeronautics and space research works for the born in Karnataka.
Civilian Space Programme, established in 1958 its 4th March world Engineers day is observed across
Headquarter is in Washington D.C. world.

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 8 YCT

 1th May is observed as International Labour day in Ans. (b) : Dr. Bhim Rao Ramji Ambedkar born on
several countries to commemorate the labour April 14 1891 in Madhya Pradesh's Mhow region. He
movement which brought (and bring) Various was not only, social reformer but above it fought
Reforms in labour laws and made various against atrocities against "Dalits" He is also known as
humanitarian change in labour working condition. "Father of Indian constitution" He became India's first
International women's day (march 8) is a global day law minister although he was not a congress man but
celebrating the social, Economic, cultural and political was in ministry of Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru. He got
achievements of women. education from London school of Economics and
15. Ministry of Science and Technology was political science he died on 6 December 1956.
formed in the year Maulana Abul Kalam Azad the first education
(a) 1950 (b) 1971 minister of India. Later it became MHRD in 1985.
(c) 1985 (d) 1992 Chandra Sekhar singh, India's first textile minister
Ans. (b) : The Ministry of Science and Technology from 30 March 1985 to 15 November 1985.
which formed in 1971 is an Indian government India's first foreign minister was Pt. Jawahar Lal
ministry charged with formulation and Administration Nehru.
of the rules and regulations and laws relating to
science and technology in India. Its head quarter is in 18. Graphene is a
New Delhi. (a) one-dimensional material
The Union Ministry of Human Resource development (b) two-dimensional material
has been officially renamed as the ministry of (c) three-dimensional material
education in 2020, dedicated for the development and (d) All of the above
form of education and shaping future through overall Ans. (b) : Graphene is the name for an atom thick
development of its young population. Formation of honey comb sheet of carbon atoms. It is building block
HRD ministry was in 1985.
for other Graphitic material. It is two dimensional
The Ministry of Home Affairs Discharges multifarious materials. Each atom in a graphene sheet is connected
responsibilities, the important among them being-
to its three neighbours by a bond and contributes one
internal security, border infiltration stoppage etc.
electron to a conduction band that extends over the
formed in 1947
whole sheet.
16. Who among the following scientists has made
his contribution in the establishment of ISRO? 19. Bihar Diwas (Bihar Day) is observed every
(a) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam year on
(b) C. V. Raman (a) 25th March (b) 22nd March
(c) Vikram Sarabhai (c) 1st April (d) 1st March
(d) Aryabhatta Ans. (b) : Bihar Diwas or Bihar day is observed on 22
Ans. (c) : Indian Space Research also known as ISRO March every year. It marks the formation of the state
Indian space research wing that was created in 1969, of Bihar when the state was carved out from the
is a national space agency of India its head quarter is in Bengal Presidency of the British in the year 1912.
Bengaluru. It is celebrated in other countries as well as by the
ISRO built India's first satellite Aryabhatta which was Bihari Diaspora. Bihar Diwas was started and
launched by the Soviet Union on 19 April 1975. it was celebrated on large scale by Bihar government in the
named after the mathematician Aryabhatta. tenure of Nitish Kumar 1 April- Odisha day 25 March-
SAARC establishment of secretariat on 1 March 1987
Vikram Ambalal Sarabhai born in 1919 in
in Kathmandu Nepal.
Ahmadabad was on Indian physicist and industrialist
who initiated space Research and helped develop 20. Sardar Sarovar Dam is located on
Nuclear power in India. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (a) Ganga river (b) Narmada river
known as "missile man of India" became 11th president (c) Sutlej river (d) Godavai river
from 2002 to 2007. Ans. (b) : Sardar Sarovar Dam (SSD) is build on the
Dr. C.V. Raman got noble prize because of its Indian Narmada River is located in the village of
"Raman effect" in Physics in 1930. kevadia in the state of Gujarat it is one of the largest
17. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was independent India's and most controversial inter state, multipurpose river
first valley infrastructure project in the country.
(a) Textile Minister Narmada River–The Narmada river also called the
(b) Law Minister reva and previously also known as Narbada it is also
(c) HRD Minister known as life line of MP, for its huge contribution to
(d) Foreign Minister the state of MP. .

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 9 YCT

 Ganga– is a transnational river, it is national river of 24. Rateau turbine belongs to the category of
India it is said to be cultural glory of India. In (a) pressure-compounded turbine
Bangladesh it is Known as "Padma". It originates (b) reaction turbine
from Gangotri glacier of Himalaya and merge into (c) velocity-compounded turbine
Bay of Bangal. Its total length is around 2500 km. It is
(d) radial flow turbine
considered pious in Hinduism.
Sutlej river– longest of the 5 tributaries of the Indus Ans. (a) Rateau Turbine pressure compounding
river that give the Punjab meaning "Five rivers" Curtis Turbine velocity compounding.
(heeBÛeveoer) its name. It originates from Mount Kailash in 25. Gradually varied flow is
Tibet. Godavari river, river of central and south eastern (a) steady uniform
India is sacred to Hindus. Its total length is about (b) non-steady non-uniform
1465km. It is second longest River after Ganga in
(c) non-steady uniform
India.
(d) steady non-uniform
21. The First Bharat Ratna Award was given in
the year Ans. (d) If the rate of varied of depth with respect to
(a) 1951 (b) 1952 distance is small and rapidly varied flows if the rate of
(c) 1953 (d) 1954 variation is large.
Ans. (d) : Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian honor 26. The temperature of normal human body is
given for the service towards advancement for Art, (a) 38.60C (b) 370C
0
Literature and Science for the recognition of public (c) 37.6 C (d) 380C
service of the highest order. It is not mandatory that Ans. (b) : Normal body temperature varies depending
Bharat Ratna would be awarded every year. The on many factors, including a person's age, sex and
provision for Bharat Ratna was introduced in 1954.
activity levels. The Normal body temperature for an
The first ever Indian received this award was the
adult is around 98.60F(370C) but every person body
famous scientist, C.V. Raman. The two Non-Indians
Khan Abdul Gaffar khan (1990) and (1990) Nelson temperature is slightly different and may consistently
Mandela also received this award. The first ever be little higher or lower. A Normal body temperature
sports player 'Sachin Tendulkar' received this award in for children aged 3-10 ranges from 95.9–99.50F when
2017 taken orally. Children lend to have similar body
temperatures to adults.
22. Raxaul Airport is located in the State of
(a) Goa (b) Maharashtra 27. Who was the founder of Aligarh Muslim
(c) Bihar (d) Uttarakhand University?
Ans. (c) : Raxaul Airport is located at west of the town (a) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
of Raxaul in Bihar state, India. The town is on the (b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
border with Nepal. It was established after China-India (c) Abul Kalam Azad
war in 1962. (d) Ram Mohan Roy
Important Notes:- Ans. (a) : Aligarh Muslim University is an Indian
Goa– Goa Dabolim Airport. leading university [central]
Maharastra– Chattrapati Shivaji Mahraj International It was established in 1875 as Anglo-oriental
Airport, Shirdi International Airport, Osmanabad Mohmadden collage by Sir Syed Ahmad khan for
Airport. encouraging Muslim youth to learn English language
Uttarakhand– Jolly Grant Airport (Dehradun and promote scientific fervor among them. He wanted
Airport), Pant Nagar Airport a blend of education (Oriental+ English). That same
23. Which of the following weldings is used for college in 1920 became Aligarh Muslim University Sir
welding vertical section in one pass? Syed Ahmad Khan, a Muslim educator, jurist and
(a) Electroslag welding author and founder of Anglo-Oriental Mohamaddan
(b) Atomic hydrogen welding Collage in 1875 in Aligarh.
(c) Laser-beam welding Abul Kalam Azad– original name Abdul Kalam
(d) Electrogas welding Ghulam Muhiyuddin, also called Maulana Abul Kalam
Ans. (a) Electro slag welding is a welding process, in Azad or Maulana Azad (born Nov.11 1888 Mecca
which the heat is generate by an electric current Saudi Arabia), Islamic theologian who was one of the
passing between the consumable electrode (filler leaders of the Indian independence movement.
metal) and the work piece through a molten slag Mohammad Ali Jinnah, founder of Pakistan state
covering the weld surface. "responsible for partition"

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 10 YCT

28. Mr. Jagadish Chandra Bose is a famous 31. An instrument, that is used for the detection of
scientist for the invention of earthquake, is
(a) Bose-Einstein statistics (a) barometer (b) lactometer
(b) crescograph (c) seismograph (d) holograph
(c) X-rays Ans. (c) : A seismograph or seismometer is an
(d) scattering of light instrument used to detect and record earthquakes.
Ans. (b) : Mr. Jagadish Chandra Bose was an Indian Generally it consists of a mass attached to fixed base.
physicst, botanist and a pioneer in radio-science. He Earthquake is any sudden shaking of the ground
conducted experiments to prove plants feel heat, cold, caused by the passage of seismic waves through
light, noise, happiness and pain. His instrument the Earth's rocks.
"crescograph" can measure plant growth. Note:-
X-rays are form of electromagnetic similar to visible Barometer- Measurement instrument of air pressure
light, however, X-rays have higher energy and can Lactometer-Instrument for measuring the density of
pass through most object, including the body. X-rays milk.
was discovered by German Scientist Rontgen Holograph- A manuscript or other document written
Radiation. completely by the hand a person above whose name it
When light passes from one medium to any other appears.
medium let' say Air, a glass of water then a part of the 32. The Head Office of the Central Pollution
light is absorbed by particles of the medium preceded Control Board (CPCB) is located in
by its subsequent Radiation in a particular direction. (a) Mumbai (b) Kolkata
(c) Patna (d) None of the above
29. Albert Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize
for Ans. (d) : Central Pollution Control Board which
(a) theory of relativity comes under ministry of environment, forest and
climate change. It serves a field formation and also
(b) quantum optics
provides technical services to the ministry of
(c) photoelectric effect environment and forests under the provisions of the
(d) Bose-Einstein theory environment (protection) Act, 1986.
Ans. (c) : Albert Einstein born March 14. 1879 in It coordinates the activities of the state pollution
Ulm, Germany was one of the most well known and control Boards by providing technical assistance and
influential physicist of the 20th century. On November guidance and also resolves disputes among them. It
9, 1922 he was named the winner of the 1921 Noble was formed in 1974 and head quarter is in New Delhi.
Prize in physics "for his services to theoretical Physics 33. RDX is a chemical compound. How is it used?
and especially for his disarray of the law of the photo (a) As a composition
electric effect". (b) As a reactor
30. Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is situated on (c) As an explosive
(a) Chambal river (d) As a nuclear weapon
(b) Yamuna river Ans. (c) : RDX abbreviation of research department
(c) Narmada river explosive or Royal demolition explosive discovered by
(d) Brahmaputra river Gorge Friedrich Henning of Germany and patented in
1898 but not used until world war II. It is relatively
Ans. (a) : The Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is a gravity safe and expensive to manufacture, RDX was
masonry Dam of 53.8 meters height built on the produced on a large scale in The United States by a
Chambal river at Rawatbhata in Rajasthan. It is part of secret process. The name RDX was coined by British.
Integrated scheme of a cascade development of the
The Germans Called it hexogen and the Italians called
river involving 4 projects starting with the Gandhi
it T4.
Sagar Dam in the upstream reach in MP.
The direct benefit from the Dam is hydropower 34. The planet Neptune was discovered by
generation of 172 MW and irrigation to Rajasthan. (a) Galle (b) Galileo
Madhya Pradesh especially. (c) Kepler (d) Newton
Yamuna river India's one of the primary river, flows Ans. (a) : Neptune is the only giant planet that is not
in Northern India. The river originates from Yamunotri visible without a telescope. Having a apparent
Glacier. Narmada river, important river of central magnitude of 7.8 it is approximately one fifth as bright
India. Brahmaputra river flows from India to as the faintest stars visible to the Unaided eye.
Bangladesh. In Bangladesh, it is also known as Galileo is credited as the first person to view the planet
"Jamuna river". with a telescope in 1609.

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 11 YCT

35. Resistance of which of the following is CERN- The European organisation for Nuclear
unaffected by temperature? Research. It is the world's largest Particle physics
(a) Manganin (b) Constantan laboratory.
(c) Nichrome (d) All of the above 39. Name an acid which is secreted in the stomach.
Ans. (d) : All of the above. (a) Sulphuric acid (b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Carbonic acid (d) Nitric acid
Nichrome is a Nickle-chromium alloy with Non-
Magnetic properties Ans. (b) : Hydrochloric acid is the main component of
gastric Juice and is secreted by the parietal cells of the
Manganin an alloy of copper, manganese and nickle
gastric mucosa in the fund us and corpus. In healthy
used chiefly in electrical devices. adults. Intro gastric PH ranges between 1.5 and 3.5.
Constantan is a copper nickle alloy used in electrical
40. The term 'CTBT' is related to
work for its high resistance.
(a) nuclear weapons
36. Which of the following is the first calculating (b) taxes
device? (c) space research
(a) Abacus (b) Calculator (d) railway goods
(c) Turing machine (d) Pascaline
Ans. (a) : The comprehensive Test Ban treaty
Ans. (a) : Abacus is simple tool or a hardware used for prohibits 'any nuclear weapon test explosion or any
performing rapid arithmetic calculation. Calculation other Nuclear explosion' Anywhere in the world. The
based on Abacus was invented at ancient times and treaty was opened for signature on 24 Sep 1996 and
still in use today. has been signed by 184 nations and ratified by 168.
The first solid state electronic calculator was created in The treaty cannot be entered into force until it is
the Early 1960. Pascaline also called 'Arithmetic ratified by 44 specific nations, eight of which have yet
machine' the first calculator or Adding machine to be to do so China, India, Pakistan, North Korea.
produced in any quantity and actually used. Israel, Iran and the US.
37. Name the polymer used in making bulletproof 41. India's first mobile court was inaugurated in
glass. (a) Maharashtra (b) Haryana
(a) Melamine (b) Bakelite (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
(c) Lexan (d) Vinyl rubber Ans. (b) : First ever mobile court was launched at
Ans. (c) : Lexan is the most popular polymer which is Punhana Haryana in India, an integrated system of
used for manufacturing different things due to its Judiciary we find, one Supreme court and 25 high
strong and Rigid Nature. They are hard and are court are currently functioning at higher level of
observably transparent. This is the reason why a Judiciary.
laminated Poly carbonate (Lexan) is used to make 42. In which year, railway finances were separated
bulletproof glass. from the general finances of the Central
Melamine is a nitrogen based compound used by Government?
many manufacturers to create a number of products (a) 1920 (b) 1972
especially plastic dishware. (c) 1923 (d) 1924
Bakelite is the commercial name for phenol Ans. (d) : Rail budget was separated from general
formaldehyde resin. It is usually brown/amber but can budget in 1924. The measure was taken on the
recommendations submitted by a panel led by British
be made in a variety of bright colors.
Economist William Acworth in 1920-21. In 2016
38. Where was the World Wide Web created and railway budget and general budget was merged.
in which year? 43. Logarithm tables were invented by
(a) CERN, 1989 (a) J. J. Thomson (b) John Napier
(b) Photonics 21, 1989 (c) Paul Ehrlich (d) A. G. Bell
(c) CLUSTER, 1995 Ans. (b) : In Mathematics the logarithm table is used
(d) Gikll, 1993 to find the value of the logarithmic function. The
Ans. (a) : World Wide Web, the leading information simplest way to find the value of the given logarithmic
retrieval service of the Internet (the world wide function is by using the log table
computer network). Tim burners Lee, a British Originator of logarithms is john Napier
Scientist, invented the www in 1989 while working at A.G.Bell- Graphophone, Telephone
CERN. Paul Ehrlich-Chemotherapy, Immunology.

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 12 YCT

44. What is India's per capita emission of 48. Rainbow Revolution is related to which sector
greenhouse gases (GHG)? of the economy?
(a) 0.8 tonne of CO2 (a) Small-scale industries
(b) 1.0 tonne of CO2 (b) Information technology services
(c) 1.2 tonne of CO2 (c) Overall development of agriculture sector
(d) 1.5 tonne of CO2 (d) Mining sector
Ans. (d) : Greenhouse gases:- any gas that has the Ans. (c) : Rainbow Revolution– is an integral
property of absorbing infrared radiation (net heat development programme of agriculture, horticulture,
Energy) emitted from earth's surface and radiating it forestry, sugarcane, fishery, poultry and animal
back to earth's surface thus contributing to the green husbandry, yellow revolution etc.
house effect. 49. Who among the following was the first
Carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour are the economist to hold the Office of Secretary,
most important green house gases. Department of Economic Affairs in the Union
Per capita emission of GHG. India is 1.5 tonne of CO2 Finance Ministry?
Paris agreement 2015 related to cut emission of green (a) Dr. I. G. Patel
house gas by double upto 2024 (b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
45. A new study provided the first evidence that (c) Rakesh Mohan
fatter people may be more affected by exposure (d) Dr. M. S. Ahluwalia
to Ans. (a) : I.G. Patel was an Indian Economist and a
(a) sunlight career civil servant who served as 14th governor of
(b) X-rays RBI. He was the first economist to hold the office of
(c) y-rays secretary, department of economic affairs in the union
(d) ozone finance ministry.
Ans. (b) : Obese people may be exposed to more Rakesh Mohan– Former Deputy governor of RBI.
radiation when they undergo a CT scans or X-rays Dr. M.S. Ahluwalia– Former deputy chairman of
compared with normal weight people, a new study former Planning Commission of India.
shows. Note– Now the work of planning commission has been
The study conducted by using computer models assigned by NITI Aayog (National Institution for
suggests that the organs of obese individuals receive Transforming India) since 1 January 2015.
up to 62% more radiation energy during a CT scan. 50. Who is the author of Soul and Structure of
46. Which of the following units is used for Governance in India?
measuring the speed of processor? (a) V. K. Duggal (b) Jairam Ramesh
(a) MPIS (b) MISP (c) Dr. I. G. Patel (d) Jagmohan
(c) MIPS (d) MSIP Ans. (d) : Jagmohan Malhotra, served as L. Governor
Ans. (c) : MIPS-million instruction per second is an of Delhi and Goa. wrote several books–
approximate measure of a computer's raw processing 1. Island of truth, 2. My frozen turbulence in
power. Kashmir 3. Soul and structure of governance in
MISP- Malware Information Sharing Platform India etc.
V.K. Duggal– Vinod Kumar Duggle was the home
47. Nerves from the eyes and ears are connected to
secretary from 2005 to 2007 in the government of
the
Manmohan singh.
(a) cerebrum
I.G.Patel– Former civil servant and 14th governor of
(b) cerebellum RBI.
(c) medulla oblongata Jairam Ramesh– Congress leader and former
(d) spinal cord agriculture minister in Manmohan Singh government.
Ans. (a) : Cerebrum- is the uppermost part of the 51. A Cantilever beam of rectangular cross-section
brain. It contains two hemisphere split by a central is subjected to a point load at its free end. If
fissure. It connects nerves from the eyes and ears. width and depth of the beam section are
Medulla Oblongata- simply medulla is a long stem doubled, then the deflection at free end of the
like structure which up the tower part of the brainstem. beam will be reduced to
Cerebellum-"Little brain" is a major structure of the (a) 6.25% (b) 15%
hind brain that is located near the brain stem. (c) 25.5% (d) 29%

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 13 YCT

 Ans. (a) M σ E
Ans. (b) : From Bending equation = =
I Y R

deflection MY
Bending stress σ =
WL3 I
∆= Where it is distance from neutral axis to where
3EI
bending stress to be found.
I = moment of Inertia
BD3 i.e σ × y
Rectangular section I =
12 Bending stress is symmetrical I section beams will be
WL 3
WL 3 maximum at the top & bottom of the beams section.
Case (i) ∆ = =
3EI BD3 54. A circular shaft is subjected to a twisting
3E ×
12 moment Mt and bending moment M. The ratio
Case (ii) B & D double of maximum stress developed due to bending
2B × ( 2D3 )
moment and that due to twisting moment is
I= equal to
12
2M 2M
(a) (b)
BD3 3M t Mt
I = 16
12 M M
(c) (d)
Beam will reduce x% Mt 2M t
WL3 WL3 Ans. (b) For circular shaft, bending stress due to
× x% =
3E × BD3 BD 3
bending moment (M)
3E × 16
12 32M
σb =
100 πd 3
x= = 6.25
16 M → Bending moment
σ=
52. The ratio of maximum shear stress to average Z → Section modulus
shear stress in a beam of rectangular cross- Shear stress due to Twisting moment(Mt)
section is
(a) 3.0 (b) 2.5 T 16T
τ= =
(c) 2.0 (d) 1.5 ZP πd 3
Ans. (d) 16M t
=
Beam maxm shear stress πd 3
ratio
avg. shear stress σb 32M 2M
= =
Rectangular 1.5 τ πd 3 Mt
Circular 4/3 = 1.34 16M t
Triangular 1.5 πd 3
53. In a symmetrical I-section beam, the bending 55. If a simply-supported beam of span L carries a
stress will be maximum at moment force at its mid-span, then the shear
(a) the neutral axis force diagram will be
(b) the top and bottom of the beam section (a) triangular
1 (b) rectangular
(c) tha depth from top and bottom of section
4 (c) parabolic
(d) the junction of flange and web (d) cubic parabolic

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 14 YCT

 Ans. (b) : Simply supported Beam span L moment at 59. A linear helical spring with spring constant K
mid-span. is cut into two equal halves. The spring
constants of the individual halves will be
(a) K / 2 (b) K / 2
(c) 2K (d) 2K
Ans. (d) Given,

SFD
Rectangular

We know that,
m+n
k1 = ×k
n
m+n
k2 = ×k (m = n)
m
k1 = k2 = 2k
56. According to maximum shear stress criterion,
60. In a body, loaded under plane stress
yielding in material occurs when
conditions, the number of independent stress
(a) maximum shear stress = 2 yield stress components in order to completely specify the
(b) maximum shear stress = 0.5 yield stress state of stress at a point is
(c) maximum shear stress = √2 yield stress (a) 1 (b) 3
2 (c) 4 (d) 6
(d) maximum shear stress = yield stress
3 Ans. (b) : Plane stress– There is no normal & shear
Ans. (b) : Maximum shear stress theory, yielding in stresses on the two planes perpendicular to the z-
material occurs when direction. This system is known as plane stress.
stresses, σz = 0, τxz = 0 & τyz = 0
1
maximum shear stress ( τ max ) ≤ × yield stress(σ y ) σx, σy & τxy may have non zero values so the no. of
2 independent stress is 3.
57. A frictionless pin joint transmits a 61. A shaft of 60 mm diameter is subjected to
(a) force which passes through the pin torsion has a shear strain of 0.0006. The rate of
(b) torque about the pin twist will be equal to
(c) moment about the pin (a) 0.00002 (b) 0.00025
(d) All of the above (c) 0.0036 (d) 0.00001
Ans. (a) : Pin joints transmit forces not the moment. A Ans. (a) : Given, d = 60mm, r = 30mm
frictionless pin joint transmits a force which posses Shear strain (γ) = 0.0006
through the pin. θ
Rate of twist =
58. A bar held between two rigid supports will be l
subjected to tensile stress if it is T Gθ τ
(a) heated Torsion equation = =
J l r
(b) cooled
Gθ τ
(c) heated or cooled =
(d) heated beyond the melting point l r
Ans. (b) : When both ends support will be rigid when shear stress ( τ )
G=
temperature ↑ then the material try to expand but due shear strain(γ )
to rigid support they will not expand. So material
θ τ shear strain(γ )
under compression. = =
If temperature decreases than the material will try to l Gr r
contract but due to rigid support not possible so it will θ 0.0006
= = 0.00002
be subjected to tensile stress. l 30

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 15 YCT

62. The equivalent spring constant for a bar of 65. A small plastic boat loaded with nuts and bolts
length L, cross-sectional area A and modulus of is floating in a bathtub. If the cargo is dumped
elasticity E is subjected to an axial force P is into water, allowing the boat to float empty, the
(a) AE / L water level in the tub will
(a) rise (b) fall
(b) L / AE
(c) remain same (d) None of the above
(c) PL / A
Ans. (b) : Given,
(d) P2L / 2AE
Ans. (a) :
Equivalent spring constant (K) = Spring stiffness
Force P
Spring stiffness = =
Unit deformation ∆
PL P AE
Deformation (∆) = ⇒ =
AE ∆ L
P P AE
Equivalent spring constant (K) = = =
∆ PL L Let, mass of boat = mboat, Mass of bolt = mbolt, weight
AE of fluid displaced = Wfd
63. The no-slip boundary condition applied in a According to given figure,
fluid In case (I)
(a) is a consequence of laminar behaviour of According to principle of floating,
fluid Wboat + Wbolt = FB = Wfd (in floating
(b) because the fluid is treated as continuous condition)
(c) because the fluid is incompressible mboat g + mbolt g = ρf g Vfd
(d) because the fluid is viscous m boat + m bolt
(mboat + mbolt) = ρf Vfd ⇒ Vfd =
Ans. (d) : When real fluid pass a solid. The velocity of ρf
the fluid on the surface of the object will be same as In case (II)
that of the surface. If the surface is at rest the fluid will Wboat = (FB)boat (in floating condition)
have zero velocity because of no slip condition at the mbolt g = ρf g(Vfd)bolt ⇒ mbolt = ρf (Vfd)bolt
boundary. Wbolt > (FB)boat
No slip boundary condition applied in a fluid because mbolt g > ρf g(Vfd)bolt
fluid is viscous. mbolt > ρf (Vfd)bolt
64. When a liquid rotates at constant angular (mboat + mbolt) > ρf (Vfd)bolt + ρf(Vfd)boat
velocity about a vertical axis as a rigid body, ρf Vfd > ρf[(Vfd)bolt + (Vfd)boat]
the pressure intensity Vfd > [(Vfd)bolt + (Vfd)boat]
(a) decreases as the square of radial distance So we can say if the cargo is dumped into water,
(b) increases linearly as radial distance allowing the boat to float empty then displaced volume
(c) varies inversely as the elevation along any of fluid in case (I) more than case (II) so the water
vertical line level in the bathtub will fall.
(d) varies as square of radial distance 66. Nusselt number is the ratio of
(a) temperature gradient of wall to that across the
Ans. (d) : Vertical surface cross-section of the surface
entire pipe
is the curve represented
(b) temperature difference to the temperature
r 2 ω2 gradient at the wall
Z=
2g (c) heat flux at the wall to that across the entire
This is equation of parabola so liquid surface is pipe
paraboloidal form. (d) None of the above
P = ρgz Ans. (c) : Nusselt No. is the ratio of heat flux at the
wall to that across the entire pipe.
P ω2 R 2 (or)
=Z=
ρg 2g It is the ratio of heat convected to the conducted.
P ∝ R 2 ω2 ; P = f(R, ω, ρ) Q hL
Nusselt no. = (Nu) = Conv. =
Pressure in tensing ∝ square of radial distance. Q Cond. k f

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 16 YCT

67. The momentum correction factor for laminar Ans. (a) : Effect of pressure gradient on boundary
flow through a circular pipe is dp
layer = pressure gradient
(a) 1.67 (b) 3.0 dx
(c) 0.85 (d) 1.33 dp
< 0 → flow not separate the entire boundary
Ans. (d) : momentum correction factor (β) dx
2
layer moves forward.
( momentum/sec.) act = 1  U 
( momentum / sec ) avg A ∫  U avg 
=   dA dp
> 0 → flow has separated the growth of
dx
for laminar flow → 1.33 boundary layer.
for turbulent flow → 1.2 70. Turbulent boundary layer thickness is
proportional to
Kinetic correction factor (α)
(a) 1 / x (b) x1/5
3
1  U  2/5
(c) x (d) x4/5
= ∫  dA
A  U avg  Ans. (d) : For turbulent boundary layer
δ 0.371
for laminar flow → 2 =
x ( R ex )1/ 5
for turbulent flow → 1.05
0.371× x 0.371× x
δ= 1/ 5
= 1/ 5
68. The velocity distribution for laminar flow  ρvx   ρv 
 µ  ×x
1/ 5
between two parallel plates  µ 
   
(a) is constant over the whole cross-section
0.371× x 4/5
(b) is zero at the boundary and increases linearly = 1/ 5
towards the centre line  ρv 
 
(c) varies linearly across the section with a  µ 
maximum at the centre line
δ ∝ x4/5
(d) varies parabolically across the section with a
maximum at the centre line 71. The value of fraction factor for smooth pipes
Ans. (d) : The velocity of flow b/w two parallel plates for Reynolds' number equal to 106 is
approximately
1  ∂P 
 −  ( By − y )
u= 2 (a) 0.0001 (b) 0.001
2µ  ∂x  (c) 0.01 (d) 0.1
B = distance b/w the plates Ans. (*) : Given, Re = 106
y = distance of point from one of the plate We know that,
µ = dynamic viscosity of flowing fluid Friction factor (f) =
64
∂P Re
− = pressure gradient along the flow.
∂x 64
∴ f= = 0.6037
→ From the expression that the velocity distribution 106
b/w two plates is parabolic with max value at the 16 16
Coefficient of friction = = = 0.1509
centre and minimum at boundary/plate surface. Re 106
69. The growth of boundary layer is supported 72. The time constant of an R-C circuit is one
when (p is the pressure and x is the distance second. Then in one second the capacitor is
from the leading edge) charged to
∂p (a) about 66%
(a) is positive (b) about 98%
∂x
∂p (c) 100%
(b) is zero (d) None of the above
∂x
∂p Ans. (a) : Given time constant τ = RC
(c) is negative
∂x Voltage across capacitor during charging can be given
(d) None of the above by– Vc (t) = V(1 – e–t/τ)

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 17 YCT

 Vc(t) = V(1 – e–t/RC) ∵ τ = RC = 1sec 76. In the Laplace transform
At t = 1 sec F(s) = (s+2) / s(2s + 1)
Vc = V(1 – e–1/1) the function f(t) as t → ∞ and t → 0
Vc = V(1 – e–1) respectively are
Vc = V(1 – 0.367) (a) 2, 0 (b) 0, 0.5
Vc = 0.6333 V (c) 2, 0.5 (d) 0.5, 2
0.633V Ans. (c) : Given function–
%Vc = × 100
V s+2
F(s) =
Vc = 63.33% s(2s + 1)
≅ 66% s+2 A B
= = +
73. A linear circuit must obey  1 s  1
2s  s +  s + 
(a) superposition theorem  2  2
(b) superposition theorem and Thevenin's By partial fraction–
theorem
s+2 2
(c) superposition, Thevenin's theorem and A= = =4
1 1
Norton's theorem s+
2 s =0 2
(d) superposition and Norton's theorem
1
Ans. (c) : A linear circuit must obey superposition − +2
s+2 2
theorem. Thevenin's theorem and Norton's theorem. B= = = −3
s s=− 1 1
Because these are applicable only for linear, bilateral 2 −
active circuit. 2
(s + 2) 4 3
74. In a parallel R-L-C circuit, the values of R, L F(s) = = −
and C are 40 ohms, 2 henries and 1/2 farad  1  2s  1
2s  s +  2 s + 
respectively. The quality factor Q of the circuit  2  2
will be 2 3
F(s) = −
(a) 1/20 (b) 20 s  1
(c) 40 (d) 80 2 s + 
 2
1 Taking inverse laplace transform–
Ans. (b) : Given, R = 40 Ω, L = 2H, C = F
2 2 3 
L−1F(s) = L−1  −
C s  1
Quality factor (Q) = R  2  s +  
L   2
1/ 2 3
= 40 f (t) = 2 − e− t / 2
2 2
1 At t → ∞
= 40 ×
2 3
f (∞) = 2 − e −∞
Q = 20 2
=2–0 {Q e–∞ = 0}
75. A negative resistance is an element
f(∞) = 2
(a) that can act only as a source of active power
At t → 0
(b) that can act as a source of both active as well
as reactive power 3
f(0) = 2 − e −0 / 2
(c) That can act only as a source of reactive 2
power 3
= 2 − ×1 {Q e–0 = 0}
(d) that will store energy 2
Ans. (c) : A negative resistance is an element that can = 2 – 1.5
act only a source of reactive power because positive f (0) = 0.5
resistance always consumed active power and
temperature coefficient of a mated is positive. A 77. Increasing the value of the coupling capacitor
negative resistance means it delivered the power to Cc in a common-emitter amplifier affects its
source. Therefore it act as reactive power source. (a) mid-band voltage gain
(b) fL (lower cut-off frequency)
BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 18 YCT
 (c) fH (higher cut-off frequency) (b) by applying voltage across the stator with the
(d) fL and fH both help of autotransformer
Ans. (b) : Increasing the value of the coupling (c) by changing the number of poles in the stator
capacitor Cc in a common-emitter affects its lower cut- winding
off frequency. Because, (d) None of the above
Ans. (d) : A single phase induction motor is not self
starting inherently due to pulsating torque. It is made
self starting by using an auxiliary winding. There are
different method to start the 1 – φ motor–
(1) Split phase method
(2) Capacitor start
(3) Permanent split capacitor
(4) Capacitor start capacitor run
78. The base width of a junction transistor is
82. Transformer core is made of lamination to
chosen by design to be small so that
reduce
(a) the electric field becomes large
(a) eddy-current loss only
(b) the concentration gradient of injected carriers
is small (b) hysteresis loss only
(c) the recombination of injected minority (c) both hysteresis and eddy-current loss
carriers is reduced (d) None of the above
(d) the majority carriers easily reach the collector Ans. (a) : Transformer core is made of lamination to
Ans. (d) : The base width of a junction transistor is reduce eddy-current loss. To reduce hysteresis loss we
chosen by design to be small so that the majority use silicon steel core.
carriers easily reach the collector. In a transistor 83. When a two-winding transformer is connected
emitter have highly doped and collector is doped less as an auto-transformer, its efficiency (full-load)
than emitter and base is lightly doped. (a) remains the same
+
79. To increase the switching speed of a p n diode (b) increases
(a) the n region width should be made larger (c) decreases
(b) the n region width should be made smaller (d) rises to 100%
(c) the p region's bulk resistance should be larger Ans. (b) : When a two-winding transformer is
(d) None of the above is true connected as an auto-transformer, its efficiency (full-
Ans. (b) : To increase the switching speed of a p n + load) increases. An auto transformer has higher
diode the n region width should be made smaller efficiency than two winding transformer. This is
because if region width made large the time constant is because of less ohmic loss and core loss due to
+
increases then switching speed of a p n diode decrease. reduction of transformer material.
80. Threshold voltage of a MOSFET can be 84. Which of the following motors runs at constant
reduced by speed at all loads?
(a) increasing the oxide thickness (a) Synchronous motor
(b) reducing the dielectric constant of oxide (b) Induction motor
(c) increasing the oxide thickness, and increasing (c) DC shunt motor
the oxide dielectric constant (d) DC series motor
(d) reducing the oxide thickness and increasing Ans. (a) : Synchronous motor always runs at
the oxide dielectric constant synchronous speed.
Ans. (d) : Threshold voltage of a MOSFET can be 120f
reduced by reducing the oxide thickness and increasing NS =
P
the oxide dielectric constant. Threshold voltage is the
Where,
voltage applied between gate and source of a MOSFET
that is needed to turn the device on for linear and Ns = Synchronous speed
saturation region of operation. f = frequency
81. A single-phase induction motor starts P = No. of Poles.
(a) due to the development of rotating field for 85. Four-point starter is used for
single-phase a.c. supply (a) synchronous motor
(b) induction motor of large capacity
BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 19 YCT
 (c) DC shunt motor with wide range of speed Q = C∆T = 1 × 300 = 300 Joule
(d) DC series motor with heavy load For finite body
Ans. (c) : Four-point starter is used for the armature of T 
a DC Shunt motor or compound wound DC motor ∆S = C ln  2 
 T1 
against the initially high starting current of the DC
∆S = 1×ln 
motor. 300 

 600 
86. The electromechanical energy conversion is
(∆S)body = ln   = –0.693 J/K
a/an 1
(a) irreversible process (b) reversible process 2
(c) isothermal process (d) None of the above For reservoir
Ans. (b) : The electromechanical energy conversion is Q 300
a reversible process. (∆S) Resb = = =1 J /K
T 300
87. The synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction (∆S) universe = ( ∆S )finitebody + ( ∆S )reservoir
motor having 12 poles and running on 50 Hz
supply is = 1– 0.693
(a) 1200 r.p.m. (b) 1000 r.p.m. = 0.3068 J/K
(c) 800 r.p.m. (d) 500 r.p.m. 90. A frictionless piston slowly compresses a gas in
Ans. (d) : Given, an adiabatic cylinder. The entropy change will
P = 12 poles be
f = 50 Hz (a) greater than zero
120f (b) less than zero
Ns = (c) equal to zero
P
120 × 50 (d) None of the above
Ns = = 500 r.p.m.
12 Ans. (c) When a frictionless piston slowly compressed
a gas in an adiabatic cylinder it approaches reversible
88. A liquid has surface tension σ. The minimum
adiabatic process which also known as isentropic
work required to divide a spherical drop of this
liquid of radius t into 8 equal-sized spherical process.
drops is So, for isentropic process
(a) πt2σ (b) 2πt2σ Change in Entropy (∆S) = 0
(c) 4πt2σ (d) 8πt2σ 91. A heat engine operates between 500 K and 300
Ans. (c) Given, K. The minimum heat absorption from the
source for every kilo joule of work is
4 3 4
πt = 8 × πr 3 (a) 1.5 kJ (b) 1.7 kJ
3 3
(c) 2.5 kJ (d) 3 kJ
t = 2r
Ans. (c) Given, T1 = 500 K, T2 = 300 K
Work done (W) For maximum efficiency of heat engine must be
surface tension (σ) =
Change in surface area (∆A) reversible so,
∆A = 8×4πr2 – 4πt2 For ηmax, Qs is minimum & Wnet is maximum
= 32πr2 – 4π×4×r2 We know that,
= 16πr2 = 4πt2 T
ηth = 1 − L
W TH
σ= ⇒ W = 4πt 2 σ
4πt 2 300
= 1− = 0.4
89. A metal block of heat capacity 1 J/K is cooled 500
from 600 K to 300 K by placing it in a large W
heat reservoir at 300 K. The entropy change of η = net = 0.4
Qs
the universe in this process is
(a) – 0.693 J/K (b) 1 J/K Wnet 1
( QS )min = = = 2.5 kJ
(c) –1.693 J/K (d) 0.307 J/K ( ηth ) 0.4
Ans. (d) Given, C = 1 J/k, T1 = 600 K, T2 = 300 K
92. A refrigerator maintains a temperature of 270
∆T = 600–300 = 300K K in a room at 300 K. If heat is removed from

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 20 YCT

 the interior at a rate of 900 J sec–1 and the (2) Boundary phenomenon
refrigerator operates at 50% of its maximum (3) Not a property
thermal efficiency, the power requirement is (4) Inexact differential
(a) 100 W (b) 150 W So heat and work transfer are path function.
(c) 200 W (d) 250 W 2

Ans. (*) Given, T2 = 270 K, T1 = 300 K

Note- ∫1
δQ = Q1− 2 = 1Q 2 ≠ Q 2 − Q1
2

(COP)R =
T2 T −T
& η= 1 2 ∫1
δW = W1−2 = 1W2 ≠ W2 − W1
T1 − T2 T1
95. Amorphous glass is expected to have zero value
T −T W of entropy at 0 K. The statement is
∴ 50% = 1 2 = net
T1 Q (a) true
(b) false
1
⇒ ηmax = (c) true if it is in the powder form
1 + (COP) R
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b) :
.
Nerst simon states that the entropy of a pure crystalline
substance is zero at absolute zero temperature (0 K).
So, for amorphous or non-crystalline substance it is
impossible to expected to have zero value of entropy at
If refrigerator operates on 50% of ηmax
0 K.
1 1
∴ = Amorphous glass is a solid in which there is no long-
2 1 + (COP)R range order of the positions of the atoms.
(COP)R = 1 All the bonds are not equally strong. These solids do
Desired effect (Q 2 ) not have a precise welding point.
=1 ex.– Rubbers, glass, plastic, cement & paraffin.
Work input (Win )
Win = Q2 = 900 J/sec = 900 kW
Win = 900 kW

93. Liquid water at 1 atmosphere and 00C freezes

to ice, transferring heat to the surroundings,
also at 00C. In this process.
(a) the entropy of the water decreases, but that of
the universe increases
(b) the entropy of water decreases, but that of the
universe remains constant
(c) the entropy of the water as well as that of the • at ok value of entropy not zero.
universe increase According to third law of thermodynamics–
(d) the entropy of the water increases, but that of It is impossible to achieve absolute 0 temperature in a
the universe decreases finite no. of process.
Ans. (b) : j 96. The efficiency of a reversible engine is
94. Q-W is a maximum and depends only on the
(a) path function temperature of the source and the sink. The
(b) state function statement is
(c) path as well as state function (a) correct
(b) wrong
(d) None of the above
(c) uncertain
(where q is specific heat transfer and w is specific
(d) correct if it is irreversible process
work done)
Ans. (a) : A reversible engine which has maximum
Ans. (a) : Heat (Q) and work (W) both are–
possible efficiency i.e. Carnot engine
(1) Path function
BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 21 YCT
 T1 − T2 Labour etc.
ηmax =
T1
Efficiency of reversible engine is only the function of
temperature.
∴ ηmax = f (T1 ,T2 )

97. Heat and work are examples of

(a) thermodynamic properties
(b) states of thermodynamic systems
(c) mode of energy transfer Direct cost of an activity decreases with increase in
(d) None of the above duration.
Ans. (c) : Heat and work are two different ways of 101. Mean, median and the mode for the set of
from transferring energy between the system and values – 10, 9, 8, 10, 12, 9, 9, 10, 11, 14 and 8
surrounding. are
Heat is the transfer of thermal energy. (a) 10, 8, 14 (b) 10, 9, 9
Work is the transfer of mechanical energy. (c) 9, 10, 8 (d) 11, 9, 8
98. For an ideal gas, compressibility factor should Ans. (*) :
be 102. In case of PERT, if most pessimistic, optimistic
(a) 0 (b) 1 and most likely time are 10, 2 and 8 days
(c) –1 (d) close to 10 respectively, then the expected duration and
Ans. (b) : Compressibility Factor (z)– This factor variance are
represents the deviation of real gases from the (a) 8 and 4/3 (b) 20/3 and 16/9
behaviour of ideal gas. (c) 7.33 and 16/9 (d) 7.67 and 20/3
Mathematically, Ans. (c) : We know, expected duration
PV t o + 4t m + t p
Z= te =
RT 6
1 < Z < 1} for real gases Given, Optimistic time (to) = 2
Z = 1} for ideal gases most likely time (tm) = 8
99. The method which follows deterministic pessimistic time (tp) = 10
approach is tp − to
(a) CPM Standard deviation (σ) =
6
(b) PERT t o + 4t m + t p 2 + 4 × 8 + 10 44
(c) both PERT and CPM te = = =
6 6 6
(d) None of the above
= 7.33
Ans. (a) : CPM (Critical Path Method) 2
 t p − t o   10 − 2 
2
(a) Activity oriented Variance (V) = σ = 
2
 = 
(b) Deterministic approach  6   6 
(c) Normal distribution approach 4 4
8 × 8 16
(d) Suited to repetitive type of work. = =
6× 6 9
100. Direct cost of an activity 3 3

(a) increases with increase in duration 103. In case of cash-flow monitoring, it is

(b) decreases with increase in duration recommended to draw
(c) remains same (a) histogram
(d) Nothing can be said (b) cumulative diagram
Ans. (b) : Direct cost– Direct cost of the project are (c) bar chart
those expenses which are directly chargeable and can (d) homograph
be identified by activities. Ans. (b) :
ex.– Cost of Material 104. The total cost of a building is ` 3,00,000. The
Machine depreciated cost of the building after 30 years,

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 22 YCT

 if the life span is 90 years and scrap value is (a) 35 kg/cm2 (b) 50 kg/cm2
2
` 30,000, will be (by declining balance method) (c) 15 kg/cm (d) 20 kg/cm2
(a) ` 2,10,000 (b) ` 1,39,504 Ans. (a)
(c) ` 1,75,254 (d) ` 2,50,000 Crushing Strength of Brick
Ans. (b) : Declining Balance Method / Constant
Brick class Crushing Strength
Percentage Method
M/D 1st class > 105 kg/cm2
S
Book value after m years = C   (S ≠ 0) 2nd class > 70 kg/cm2
C
3rd class > 50 kg/cm2
C = original cost
Common Building Bricks > 35 kg/cm2
S = scrap value
30 109. The proportion of cement mortar used for 1
 30, 000  90 and 2 storeyed structure is
Book value after 30 years = 3,00,000  
 3, 00, 000  (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3
= 3,00000 × (0.1)1/3 (c) 1 : 6 (d) 1 : 1 : 2
= 3,00,000 × 0.464 Ans. (*) :
= 139247 110. The ingredient which imparts hardness and
105. An owner has installed an air conditioner at colour to cement is
the cost of ` 18,000. If the life of the conditioner (a) alkali (b) alumina
is 18 years, the coefficient of sinking fund (rate (c) magnesia (d) sulphur
of interest is 5%) is
(a) 0.055 (b) 0.0355 Ans. (c)
(c) 640 (d) 1.20 Constituents of Portland Cement
Ans. (b) Function Composition
(%)
r
coefficient of sinking fund (SC) = Lime Controls strength and 60–65
(1 + r) n −1
soundness
r = rate of interest 25% Silica gives strength 17–25
n = 18 years
Alumina responsible for quick 3–8
0.05 setting
=
(1 + 0.05 )
18
−1 Iron Oxide gives colour and helps 0.5–6
0.05 0.05 in fusion of different
= = ingredients
(1.05 ) 2.40 − 1
18
−1
Magnesia imports colour and 0.5–4
0.05 hardness
= = 0.035%
1.40 111. The compressive strength of the brick should
106. The average life of Class I timber is not be less than
(a) 60 months (b) 90 months (a) 3.5 MPa (b) 5 MPa
(c) 120 months (d) 150 months (c) 15 MPa (d) 20 MPa
Ans. (*) Class I–Natural durable heart wood timber Ans. (a) : Minimum compressive strength of brick is
having average life of 120 months or over. 35 kg/cm2 or 3.5 N/mm2 or 3.5 MPa for superior brick
Class II–Natural durable heart wood timber having it is very from 70 kg/cm2 to 140 kg/cm2.
average life of 60 months or over but less than 120
months. 112. Which one of the following is responsible for
red colour of brick?
Class III–Timber having average life less than 60
months. (a) Iron oxide (b) Magnesia
(c) Silica (d) Alumina
107. A good stone should have water absorption less
than Ans. (a) : Iron oxide– (<7%) improves
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.6 impermeability and durability.
(c) 0.8 (d) 0.9 → Lower fusion point of the clays especially if
Ans. (*) present as ferrous oxide.
→ Gives strength and hardness
108. The minimum crushing strength of brick
should be → Provides red colour.

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 23 YCT

 Magnesia (<1%)→ imparts yellow tint to the bricks (a) Light in weight
and decreases shrinkage. (b) Better soundproofing qualities
Silica (50–60%)– prevent cracking and shrinking of (c) Poor fire resistance
raw bricks. (d) Better thermal insulation
– Imports durability and uniform shape to bricks. Ans. (c) : Ribbed or Hollow tiled floor advantages–
Alumina (20–30%)– absorbs water and imports (a) Light in weight
plasticity to the earth. (b) Better thermal insulation
113. Enamel paint is prepared by adding (c) Better sound proofing qualities
(a) white lead or zinc (d) Better fire resistance
(e) Electrical, plumbing and other service can be
(b) alumina and zinc
conveniently installed through it without
(c) magnesia and alumina
affecting its appearance.
(d) white lead and alumina
118. Plywood is identified by
Ans. (a) : Enamel paints– is a mixture of base &
(a) thickness (b) volume
varnish.
(c) area (d) weight
– prepared by adding white lead or zinc.
Ans. (a) : Plywood– plywood is made by gluing
Babe– White lead, Red lead, lithophone, Aluminium
together thin sheets of wood.
powder.
Plywood thickness is the key specification of a
– These are acid resistant and water proof. plywood.
– Not affected by alkalis and gases. The thickness of an individual sheet is 0.2 – 3.2mm.
– Mainly used for wood works.
119. It is required to produce a small-scale map of
114. Pigments are added to an area in a magnetic zone by directly plotting
(a) give colour to paint and checking the work in the field itself. Which
(b) reduce the cost of the paint one of the following surveys will be most
(c) hold the ingredients of the paint appropriate for this purpose?
(d) make the paint thinner (a) Chain (b) Theodolite
(c) Plane table (d) Compass
Ans. (a) : Pigments– Pigments are added to give
colour to paint. Ans. (c) : Plane table– Instrument for survey by
graphical method in which field observation and
– Hide the surface irregularities.
plotting done simultaneously.
115. The base material of distemper is In this topographic details are mapped in full view
(a) iron oxide (b) lithopone hence no change of missing any details.
(c) chalk (d) lime use where greater accuracy is not required.
Ans. (c) : Distempers– It is a mixture of white chalk for small-medium scale map
(Base) & water (solvent) This graphical method of producing topographical
Base – white chalk maps – cartographic surveying.
Solvent – water 120. The technique of plotting all the accessible
116. In industrial building, hard wearing surface stations with a single setup of plane table is
can be achieved by called
(a) terrazzo flooring (a) radiation (b) intersection
(b) granolithic flooring (c) resection (d) traversing
(c) mosaic flooring Ans. (a) : Radiation– In this method instrument is
setup at station and rays are drawn to various stations
(d) tiled flooring
which area be plotted.
Ans. (b) : Granolithic Flooring– A mixture of river Suited– When survey area is small and all stations
sand and cement laid on wet or dry concrete subfloor. are clearly visible & accessible from instrument
– Suitable for heavy duty industrial floors, domestic station.
entrances, verandah & church floors. Intersection (Graphical triangulation)– used to
Advantages– It is cheap to construct hard wearing. plot/locate inaccessible point.
117. Which one of the following is not true with Traversing– When narrow strip of terrain surveyed
respect to ribbed tiled floors? (survey of road, railways)

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 24 YCT

 Resection– In this method orientation is used when 0.7%. The rate of change of grade is 0.05 per
the plane tables occupies a position not yet plotted chain. The length of the vertical curve is
on drawing sheet. (a) 30 chains (b) 40 chains
121. A 30 m chain is found to be 0.1 m short (c) 50 chains (d) 60 chains
throughout the measurement. If the distance Ans. (a)
measured is recorded as 300 m, then the actual g1 = + 0.80%
distance will be
g2 = – 0.70%
(a) 300.1 m (b) 301.0 m
Change in gradient N = g1–g2
(c) 299 m (d) 310.0 m
= 0.80 – (–0.70)
Ans. (c) : True length of the chain L = 30m
= 1.50%
correct length of the chain L1 = 30–0.1 = 29.9m
Since the rate of change of grade is 0.05% per chain.
measured length of the survey line l1 = 300m
∴ The length of vertical curve
L'
True or actual length = Measured length × 1
L Ls = × 1.5 = 30 chain
0.05
10
29.9
= 300 × 125. An angle measuring instrument reading up to
30 one-sixth of a degree on the main scale is
= 299m equipped with a vernier having 19 main scale
122. Offsets are divisions divided into 20 parts. The correct
(a) lateral measurements made with respect to least count for the instrument is
main survey lines (a) 60 seconds (b) 30 seconds
(b) perpendicular erected from chain lines (c) 20 seconds (d) 10 seconds
(c) taken to avoid unnecessary walking between Ans. (b) : Least count of a scale is
stations
x−y
(d) measurements which are not made at right LC = MS
x
angles to the chain line
Ans. (b) : Offsets– Lateral measurement from chain given x = 20
line. y = 19
(may be perpendicular or oblique) MS = least value measured by main scale
123. If fore-bearing of a line is S49052'E, then the 1
MS = degree
back bearing will be 6
0 0
(a) S 49 52' E (b) S 52 49' E 20 − 19 1 1
LC = × = degree
(c) N 49008' E (d) N 49052' W 20 6 120
Ans. (d) : Fore & Back Bearing 10 = 60 min = 60 × 60 = 3600 sec.
Fore Bearing (FB) = magnetic bearing of follower 1
30

view Lc = × 360 0 sec

12 0
Back Bearing (BB) = magnetic bearing of leader view
In W.C.B. System (F.B–B.B = 1800) = 30 sec.
In Q.B System (F.B = NOE ⇒ B.B = SOW 126. For a simple circular curve, which one of the
i.e. N & S interchange following gives the correct relation between the
E & W interchange radius R and degree of curve D, for 20 m are
length?
(a) R = 5729.6/D (b) R = 1718.9/D
(c) R = 1145.9/D (d) R = 572.9/D
Ans. (c) : For 20m
1145.9 1146
R= ≈
D D
Given,
For 30m
F.B = S490 52 ' E
↓ ↓ interchange 1720
R=
B.B = N490 52 ' W D
124. In a parabolic vertical curve, the rising grade 127. The radius of curvature of an ideal transition
g1 = +0.8% and the falling gradient g2 = – curve should be
BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 25 YCT
 (a) inversely proportional to its length when the lighthouse whose height is 100m is
(b) directly proportional to its length visible just above the horizon from the ship?
(c) proportional to speed of vehicle (a) 30.68 km (b) 36.50 km
(d) proportional to super-elevation (c) 38.54 km (d) 40.54 km
Ans. (a) : Curve should be inversely proportional to its Ans. (c) : Distance of visible horizon
length.
d=3.85 h
πRθ
l= h = height of light
1800
Given,
l = length of curve h = 100m
R = radius of curve d = 3.85 100
1 = 3.85 × 10
= radius of curvature
R
= 38.54 km
1 πθ 1
= × 131. To find the RL of a roof slab of a building, staff
R 180 l
readings were taken from a particular setup of
1 the levelling instrument. The readings were
radius or curvature α
l 1.050 m with staff on the benchmark and 2.300
128. If the difference of height between two points is m with staff below the roof slab and held
1m and the slope distance between them is inverted. Taking the RL of the BM as
100m, then the accuracy of slope correction 135.150m, the RL of the roof slab will be
determination could be 1 in 100000 provided (a) 129.800 (b) 131.900
the heights are measured with an accuracy of (c) 134.400 (d) 138.500
(a) ± 0.1 cm (b) ± 0.5 cm Ans. (d)
(c) ± 1.0 cm (d) ± 5.0 cm R.L of roof slab = R.L of BM + staff reading
Ans. (a) : with staff om BM + (interveed
129. A and B are two traverse stations free from staff reading)
local attraction errors. If the true bearing of a
line AB is 890 and the magnetic declination at R.L of Bench mark (BM ) = 135.15m
point A is 10 west, then the magnetic bearing of Staff reading on B.M = 1.050m
line BA would be inverted staff reading = 2.300m
0 0
(a) 88 (b) 90 R.L of roof slab = 135.15+1.050+300
(c) 2680 (d) 2700 = 138.500m
Ans. (d) 132. For the scale of plotting 1 in 400, the
Magnetic Bearing permissible error in centring of plane table is
M.B = T.B + declination of AB about
(a) 0.5 m (b) 0.3 m
= 890 + 10
= 900 (c) 0.1 m (d) 0.01
MB of BA = 90 + 180 = 2700 Ans. (c) :
133. Ceylon Ghat Tracer is used to measure
(a) slope (b) reduced levels
(c) distances (d) depth of sea
Ans. (a)
measure by
slope – Ceylon Ghat-tracer
depth of sea – Fathometer
134. BOD test is standardized at
Declination = + (if west) (a) 10 0C and 10 days
= – (east)
(b) 20 0C and 5 days
130. Which one of the following gives the correct (c) 37 0C and 3 days
distance between the lighthouse and a ship, (d) 50 0C and 2 days
BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 26 YCT
 Ans. (b) : The BOD can be determined by directing a (b) high nitrate content in water
known volume of a sample of waste water with a (c) high chloride content in water
known volume of aerated pure water and then (d) high iron content in water
calculating the DO of this diluted sample. The diluted Ans. (b) : The presence of too much of nitrate in water
sample is then incubated for 5-days at 200C. may adversely affect the health of infants, causing a
Standard 5-day BOD at 200C disease technically called "Mathemog lobineming"
( BoD )5 = ( BOD )4 (1 − 10k D ×5
) commonly called Blue baby disease.
139. The major constituent which causes alkalinity
135. Absolutely soft waters are required for in water is
(a) drinking
(a) dissolved O2
(b) boilers
(b) dissolved NH3
(c) washing with synthetic detergent soap
(c) dissolved CO2
(d) prevention of corrosion in pipe
(d) All of the above
Ans. (b) : Soft waters are required for Boilers.
Ans. (b) : Alkalinity– Alkalinity is defined as quantity
A water softner will reduce the risk of hard scaling
of ions in water that will react to neutralize hydrogen
inside the Boiler, improve the flow of water, ensure
ions (H+). Alkalinity is a measure of the ability of
maximum levels of efficiency and help your Boiler
avoid failures or any kind of damage that could reduce water to neutralize acids.
its lifespan. Most of common constituents of alkalinity are
→ it is important to supply your boiler with soft water CO32 , HCO3− , OH − & dissolved NH3.
at all times to avoid damage and costly repairs. 140. Sedimentation process is based on which of the
136. Permanent hardness of water is because of following physical laws?
(a) CaHCO3 (b) NaHCO3 (a) Newton's third law
(c) MgHCO3 (d) CaSO4 (b) Conservation of mass
Ans. (d) : Permanent Hardness– sulphate, chlorides (c) Stokes' law
and nitrates of Ca and Mg cause permanent hardness. (d) Conservation of energys
It is also called non Carbonate Hardness.
Ans. (c) : Sedimentation is a natural process by which
CaSO4, MgSO4, Cacl2 etc.
solids with higher density than the fluid in which they
Temporary Hardness or Carbonate Hardness– the
are suspended, settle under the action of gravity.
presence of carbonate and carbonate of calcium &
efficiency of ideal sedimentation tank
magnesium.
Vs
137. Zeolite process is used η= × 100
Vo
(a) for disinfection of water
Vs – settling velocity of discrete particle can be
(b) for colour removal from water
calculated by using stoke's law.
(c) for water softening
(d) for turbidity removal ( γs − γ w ) d2
Vs =
Ans. (c) : Softening of water–The reduction or 18µ
removal of hardness from water. 141. Fine sand is used as media in case of
(a) Removal of Temporary Hardness– Sedimentation (a) slow sand filter
by forming insoluble precipitations.
(b) rapid sand filter
(i) Boiling
(c) pressure filter
(ii) Addition of lime
(d) All of the above
(b) Removal of Permanent Hardness–
Ans. (a) : Slow sand filter has less D10 value so it
(i) lime-soda process
require finer sand.
(ii) zeolite or base exchange
Fine sand will help in better cleaning of water.
(c) Zeolite process is remove of permanent hardness
for water softening. Effective size D10 for slow sand filter is 0.2–0.3mm.
138. Blue baby disease results with 142. Sullage is
(a) high fluoride content in water (a) waste water from baths

BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 27 YCT

 (b) drainage from road (b) ammonia
(c) industrial liquid waste (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) All of the above (d) None of the above
Ans. (a) : Sullage– Combination of kitchen & Ans. (a) : Sludge digestion involves the treatment of
washroom waste is known as sullage. it does not highly concentrated organic wastes in the absence of
contain human excreta it does not create bad smell as oxygen by anaerobic bacteria. The organic matter
organic master content is less or in negligible amount. present in the primary and secondary sludge is
143. The end product of decomposed organic matter biologically converted to stable and products like.
is Methane (H4) & CO2
(a) CO2 (b) H2S So,
(c) NO3 (d) NH3 Methane is the gas mainly evolves in a anaerobic
Ans. (a) : Organic matter can be decomposed by sludge digestion.
anaerobic decomposition. 148. Self-purification of water body is mainly due to
For anaerobic respiration NO3− ,Sa12 , CO 2− or fumarate (a) dissolved O2
can serve as terminal electron acceptors, depending on (b) dissolved NO3
the bacterium studied. The end result of the respiratory (c) Both (a) and (b)
process is the complete oxidation of the organic
(d) None of the above
substrate molecule and the end products formed are
primarily CO2&H2O. Ans. (a) : The self-purification process of water bodies
or processes involving biological, chemical and
144. Grit is
physical processes working simultaneously on
(a) inert matter of specific gravity > 2.65
biological pollutants oxidicing them and increasing the
(b) organic matter of specific gravity 1
amount of dissolved oxygen.
(c) organic and inert matter combined
149. When bleaching powder is added to water, its
(d) colloidal matter of heavy specific gravity
pH value
Ans. (a) : Grit is the process to remove sand, silt from
(a) increases
water.
(b) decreases
Grit is often found in the head works of waste water
(c) remains unaffected
treatment plants.
(d) depends on characteristics of water
In Grit inert matter of specific gravity > 2.65
Ans. (a) : Bleaching powder reacts with water to form
145. Activated sludge process is a biological process Calcium Hydroxide or Ca(OH)2 also called slaked lime
involving & Hypochlorous acid (Hull) slaked lime in basic
(a) aerobic + anaerobic bacteria nature (pH = 12.8) concentrated Bleaching powder has
(b) aerobic bacteria + protozoa + algae a pH of 13 which makes its highly alkaline.
(c) anaerobic bacteria + fungi 150. If the total hardness of water is greater than its
(d) facultative bacteria + algae alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will be equal
Ans. (b) : The activated sludge process is the to
biological process by which non-settleable substances (a) total alkalinity
occurring in dissolved and colloidal forms are (b) total hardness
converted into settleable sludge which is removed (c) total hardness – total alkalinity
from the liquid carrier. (d) non-carbonate hardness
146. Sludge digestion is Ans. (a) : Carbonate Hardness =
(a) disposal of sludge  total or alkalin 
min or less  
(b) dilution of sludge Hardness 
(c) stabilization of sludge
(d) removal of sludge from waste CH = minimum of {TH, alkalinity}
Ans. (c) : The sludge withdrawn from the given, TH > alkalinity
sedimentation basins contains lot of putrescible matter Carbonate Hardness = alkalining
and it is stabilized by decomposing the organic master Non Carbonate Hardness (NCH)
under controlled anaerobic conditions. The process of
stabilization is called the sludge digestion. NCH = TH-CH
147. Anaerobic sludge digestion mainly yields
(a) methane
BPSC AE (Pre), 16 Sep., 2018 28 YCT

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 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2017
Assistant Engineer (Preliminary)
GENERAL PAPER
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Exam Date : 15 Sep., 2018

1. The Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam There is no ecological harm during the process. We
Limited (BHAVINI) is in which State? can either speak of biodegradable solids (also called
(a) Gujarat compostable) or liquids that bio-degrade into water.
(b) Andhra Pradesh 4. 'SATYAM' programme of Government of
(c) Bihar India is related to
(d) Tamil Nadu (a) sports and culture
Ans. (d) : Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (b) yoga and meditation
(BHAVINI) is a government company under the (c) Gandhian principles
administrative control of the Department of Atomic (d) clean India campaign
Energy. BHAVINI is currently constructing a 500
MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Ans. (b) : The department of science and technology
Kalpakkam, 70 km away from Chennai (Tamilnadu) has initiated the science and technology of Yoga and
This company founded on 22nd Oct. 2003 in Chennai. Meditation (SATYAM) programme under SATYAM,
DST has invited proposals to study appropriate
2. The scientific objective of ASTROSAT mission
Intervention of Yoga and Meditation in fighting
is
Covid-19 and similar kind of viruses.
(a) to study the surface of the earth
Objective– DST is encouraging scientists, clinicians
(b) to study the moon
and experienced practioners of Yoga and Meditation
(c) to study the distant celestial sources
with a proven track record to submit concepts note on
(d) to study the mars the proposal covering.
Ans. (c) : Astrosat (Astronomy Satellite) is India's first (1) Aims and objectives of proposed work
dedicated astronomy mission a broad spectral bond
(2) Existing literature
Indian National Space observatory.
The objective of Astrosat mission is to design, (3) Methodology
develop, realize and launch a multi wave length (4) Expected outcome
astronomy satellite for studying. The cosmic sources (5) Budget requirement
simultaneously over a wide range of the Aim To provide assistance to society in today's
electromagnetic spectrum i.e. from optical, ultraviolet critical (Covid-19) condition.
to high energy x-rays. • This is need-based call covering 6 to 12 months.
The launching date of Astrosat is 28 Sep. 2015 and The project is for a maximum period of 3 years.
launched by India's Polar Satellite launch Vehicle
(PSLV) 5. What is the full form of 'CSIR'?
Astrosat will provide an opportunity for the Indian (a) Cognitive Science Initiative for Research
astronomers to carry out cutting-edge research in the (b) Community for Science and Industrial
frontier areas of x-ray and ultraviolet Astronomy and Research
allow them to address some of the outstanding (c) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
problems in modern astrophysics. (d) Center for Scientific and Industrial Research
3. Biodegradables are the substances Ans. (c) : 'CSIR' Council of Scientific and Industrial
(a) that are inert Research covers a wide spectrum from Radio to space,
(b) that persist in environment for a long time Physics, Oceanography, Chemicals, Drugs etc.
(c) that may harm the various members of the It was established by the Government of India in
ecosystem September 1942 as an autonomous body. CSIR is
(d) that are broken down by biological processes ranked at 84th among 4851 institutions worldwide
Ans. (d) : Biodegradables refer to the ability of things according to Scimago institutions ranking world report
to get disintegrated (Decomposed) by the Action of 2014. It holds the 17th rank in Asia and leads the
Micro-organisms such as bacteria or fungi biological country at the first position. Its president is Prime-
(with or without oxygen) while getting assimilated into Minister of India, it comes under Ministry of Science
the natural environment. and Technology.

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 29 YCT

6. Who is known as the 'Missile Woman of (d) to identify students with talent and aptitude
India'? for research and encourage them to take up
(a) Tessy Thomas research career in science and technology
(b) Padmasree Warrior Ans. (d) : Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana is an
(c) Ruchi Sanghvi on going National Programme of Fellowship in Basic
(d) Kalpana Chawla Sciences, initiated and funded by the department of
Ans. (a) : Tessy Thomas known as missile woman of Science and Technology under the Government of
India, Tessy Thomas is a scientist at the Defence India to attract exceptionally highly motivated students
Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). She for persuing basic science course and research carrier
served as the Project Director for Agni IV and V in science. The objective of the programme is to
missiles, making her the first woman to lead missile identify students with talent and aptitude for research,
teams in India. help them realize their academic potential, encourage
Mrs. Thomas expertise on the solid propellant systems them to take-up research careers in science and ensure
were critical in the development of re-entry system of the growth of the best scientific minds for research and
the missiles, which helped it withstand great velocities development in the country.
and temperature of 30000C on re-entering the 9. Chemotherapy is the treatment of diseases by
atmosphere. using
Kalpana Chawla– She was an American Astronaut, (a) X-rays
engineer and the first Women of India origin to go to
(b) infrareds
space. She was first flew on space shuttle Columbia in
(c) chemicals
1997.
Ruchi Sanghvi– Is an Indian Computer Engineer. First (d) radioactive elements
female Engineer hired by facebook. Ans. (c) : Chemotherapy is a drug treatment that uses
Padmashree warrior– Indian American business powerful chemicals to kill fast growing cells in your
woman and technology executive. body. Chemotherapy is most often used to treat cancer.
7. Which of the following is a 'surface-to-air Since cancer cells grow and multiply much more
missile? quickly than most cells in the body.
(a) Agni 10. Richter scale is a/an ........... scale to measure
(b) Prithvi earth tremors.
(c) Akash (a) exponential
(d) Astra (b) logarithmic
Ans. (c) : The Akash (sky) is a mid-range surface to (c) linear
Air (SAM) missile system built by India's state owned (d) geometric
Defence Research and Development Organisation. Ans. (b) : Richter scale is a goodway to talk about how
Akash is Nuclear capable can fly at a speed of upto strong an earthquake is. It also easy to compare two
Mach 3.5 (nearly 860 meter per second) at a maximum earthquakes using the Richter scale.
height of 18 km. Generally, earthquakes are estimated to be under 10 on
Agni– India's Intermediate range ballistic missile the the Richter scale.
Agni. It is two stage missile with the first stage using Comparing two earthquakes
solid fuel booster motor of SLV-3 satellite launch
I 
vehicle. M 2 – M1 = log  2  Intensity
Prithvi– It is road mobile, short range ballistic missile  I1 
(SRBM) powered by single-stage, two engines and ↓ ↓
liquid-fuel, development of Prithvi began in 1993. Magnitude
8. The objective of the national programme 'The The Richter scale is a base–10 logarithmic scale
Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY) meaning that each order of magnitude is 10 times more
is intensive than the last one.
(a) to identify students with talent and aptitude
for engineering studies 11. Human genome project endeavours to
(b) to identify young scientists for national level (a) decode DNA
awards (b) invent AIDS treatment
(c) to attract talent to the study of science at an (c) study of evolution of human
early age (d) study of fingerprints

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 30 YCT

 Ans. (a) : The Human genome project was one of the Meghnad N. Saha– Indian astrophysicist noted for his
great feats of exploration in history rather than an development In 1920 of the thermal ionization
outward exploration of the planet or the cosmos, the equation.
HGP was an inward voyage of discovery led by an 15. Which of the following is the world's fastest
international team of researchers looking to sequence supercomputer?
and map all of the genes– together known as the (a) Sunway Taihu Light
genome. (b) Titan
Beginning on October. 1, 1990 and completed in April (c) Summit
2003, the HGP gave us the ability, for the first time, to (d) Tianhe-2
read natures complete genetic blue print for building a Ans. (c) : Summit– It may be considered the world's
human being. 'Smartest Supercomputer 'for solving problems using
12. Cryogenic engine uses .......... as fuel. Artificial Intelligence including deep learning.
(a) gases in liquid form It belongs to USA
(b) uranium Titan or OLCF-3– A Supercomputer built by Cray at
(c) water in gaseous form Oak Ridge National Laboratory for use in a variety of
(d) oxygen or hydrogen in gaseous form science projects.
Ans. (a) : Cryogenic Rocket stage is more efficient Tianhe-2– A Supercomputer of China.
and provides more thrust for every kilogram of Sunway Taihulight– Is also a Chinese computer
propellant. It burns compared to solid and earth- (Supercomputer)
storable liquid propellant rocket stages. Specific 16. A central computer that holds collections of
impulse (a measure of the efficiency) achievable with data and programs for many PCs,
cryogenic propellants (liquid hydrogen or liquid workstations and other computer is a
oxygen) is much higher compared to earth storable (a) server
liquid and solid propellants giving it a substantial (b) microprocessor
payload advantage. (c) supercomputer
13. The instrument used to observe a distant object (d) cloud
is called Ans. (a) : A server is a computer or system that
(a) stethoscope provides resources, data, services or programmes to
(b) microscope other computers known as clients over a network.
(c) telescope Microprocessor– Is a controlling unit of a Micro-
(d) endoscope Computer, fabricated on a small chip capable of
performing ALU (Arithmetic Logical Unit)
Ans. (c) : Telescope– A device used to form
Cloud– The 'cloud' refers to servers that are accessed
magnified images of distant objects.
over the internet and the software and data bases.
Microscope– Used to form to see microscopic object
by using it. 17. 'Project Loon' sometimes in news is developed
Stethoscope– Using by doctors to listen sounds of an by
animal or human body. (a) Apple
Endoscope– Use to look deep into the body and used (b) ISRO
in procedures called an Endoscopy. (c) Microsoft
(d) Google
14. Engineer's Day in India is celebrated on the
birth anniversary of Ans. (d) : Loon formally known as Project loon 18 a
network of stratospheric balloons designed to bring
(a) Sir C. V. Raman
internet connectivity to rural and remote areas by
(b) Shri C. Kumar N. Patel Google's Alphabet Inc in 2005 by using high altitude
(c) Professor Meghnad Saha balloons 18 to 25 km away from earth surface to create
(d) Shri M. Visvesvaraya an aerial wireless network with upto 1 mbps speed.
Ans. (d) : Every year on September 15, India Apple– is an American Multinational Company CEO
celebrates Engineers day to appreciate the of Apple presently is Tim Cook.
contributions of M. Visvesvaraya. The Bharat Ratna 18. The Internet Intelligence Map is recently
awardee Visvesvaraya was born on September 15, launched by
1861 in a village of Karnataka. (a) Oracle
Dr. C. V. Raman– Famous Physicist and Noble Prize (b) Google
awardee in 1930 for his 'Raman effect theory' he got (c) Microsoft
Bharat Ratna in 1954. (d) Apple

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 31 YCT

 Ans. (a) : Distributed denial of service attacks, NITI AAYOG will work with ABB to prepare key
malware state imposed internet blackouts. It is hard to sectors of the economy, such as the power and water
keep abreast of every bad actors and natural disaster utilities sector, industries like food as well as the heavy
impacting the internet. But Oracle is making it a bit industries sector and transport (Rail and Metro) and
easier with the launch of Oracle cloud Infrastructure Infrastructure sectors for digitilization, the internet of
Internet Intelligence Map, a Real time graphical things and artificial intelligence.
representation of service interruptions and emerging 22. BGR-34 often seen in news is a/an
threats. (a) anti-diabetic ayurvedic drug
19. Which city tops in the 4G connectivity among (b) indigenously developed rice variety
20 of India's largest cities? (c) India's anti-tank missile
(a) Bengaluru (d) type of fertilizer
(b) Patna Ans. (a) : Ayurvedic and Diabetic drug BGR-34 is
(c) Kolkata scientifically tested and very effective in treating type-
(d) Lucknow 2 diabetes. The medicine has launched in the market
Ans. (b) : The Indian city Patna has emerged as the top after undergoing all required scientific tests.
city in terms of 4G availability as compared to rest of 23. The principle of dialysis is based on
the Indian cities while beating tech hubs like (a) gravity flow
Bengaluru, Hyderabad according to Open signals (b) centrifuge
report. Patna having 4G availability of 92.6% was (c) diffusion
followed by Kanpur, Allahabad, Kolkata, Bhopal and (d) Pascal's law
Lucknow (2018).
Ans. (c) : Dialysis works on the Principle of the
20. What is the name of the new malware which diffusion of solutes and ultra filtration of fluid across a
takes over electronic devices and make them semi-permeable membrane. Diffusion is a property of
"bots"? substances in water, tend to move from an area of high
(a) Saposhi concentration to an area of low concentration.
(b) Ransomware 24. 'El Nino' event is associated with
(c) Mirai (a) solar activity
(d) Trojan horse (b) computer technology
Ans. (a) : Saposhi– a new malware, Cyber Security (c) sports
Agencies have detected a new malware called Saposhi (d) weather
that can take over electronic devices and use them for
Ans. (d) : 'El Nino' and La Nina are complex weather
Distributed Denial of Service (DDOS) attacks. It is
patterns resulting from variations in ocean
capable of taking over electronic devices and turning
temperatures in the Equatorial Pacific.
them into BOFs (Device taken over by malware)
E1 Nino means "The little boy", or Christ child in
which can then be used by any purpose.
Spanish the term E1 Nino refers to a large scale ocean
Ransomware– Is malicious software that infects
atmosphere climate interaction linked to a periodic
computer
warming in sea surface temperatures across the central
Mirai– It is also a malware. It primarily targets online and east central equatorial pacific.
consumer devices such as IP camera and home routers.
25. The device in communication satellites which
Trojan Horse Virus– Is an any malware which
receives signals from an earth station and
misleads users of its true internet.
transmits them to different directions is
21. With which organization, NITI Aayog signed a (a) transducer
pact on latest technologies including robotics (b) transponder
and artificial intelligence?
(c) transistor
(a) NASA
(d) solar panel
(b) IRObot
Ans. (b) : A transistor is a type of semi conductor
(c) Google
device that can be used to both conduct and insulate
(d) ABB Group electric current or voltage.
Ans. (d) : The central governments top policy think A transistor basically acts as a switch and an amplifier.
tank, NITI AAYOG, has entered into agreement with In simple words we can say that a transistor is a
swiss engineering group ABB to collaborate over miniature device that is used to control or regulate the
artificial intelligence and Robotics in manufacturing. flow of electronic signals.

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 32 YCT

 Transistor developed in 1947 by 3 American Scientists Ans. (c) : Cloud seeding very commonly can be
John Bardeen, Walter Brattain and William Shockley. understood with Artificial raining. When the water
Transponder– A wireless communications, drops in a cloud are too small or these are not enough
monitoring or control device that picks up and ice crystals to create rainfall we can use artificial ways
automatically responds to an signal. to create ice which alter the microphysical process.
Communication Satellite– A communication satellite 29. Plants which grow in water of high salinity are
transponder is the series of interconnected units that called
form a communication channel between the receiving (a) xerophytes
and the transmitting antennas. It is mainly used in (b) mesophytes
satellite communication to transfer the received signal. (c) hygrophytes
26. Which country assisted India to establish (d) halophytes
Koodan-Kulam Nuclear Power Station in Ans. (d) : Halophytes are salt-resistant or salt tolerant
Tamil Nadu? plants and have remarkable ability to complete their
(a) Russia use cycle in Salinc Condition like – Salicornea
(b) France Europea, Sporobolus alterniforous etc.
(c) Germany Xerophytes– Growth in little liquid water.
(d) Canada Hygrophytes– So much moisture adopting plants.
Ans. (a) : The Koodan-Kulam Nuclear Power Plant is 30. Where does the Kuiper belt located in our solar
located in the Coastal Tamil Nadu. It is Civilian system?
Nuclear Power Plant built by India in a joint (a) Between Mars and Jupiter
collaboration with Russia. There is a total of 7 (b) Beyond Neptune
operating Nuclear Power Plants. In India and all of (c) Between Jupiter and Saturn
these facilities are a part of India's Critical Information (d) Between Uranus and Neptune
Infrastructure. Ans. (b) : The Kuiper belt (also known as Edgeworth–
Note– A cyber attack on it happened in 2019. Its Kuiper Belt) is a region of the solar system that exists
construction began in 2002. beyond the 8 major planets, extending from the orbit of
27. Which of the following national laboratories is Neptune (at 30AU) to approx 50 AU from the SUN
dealing with research and development work Astronomical unit– Distance between the Sun and the
on radiation technology? Earth. It is similar to the asteroid belt and that it
(a) PRL contains many small bodies, all remnants from the
(b) NCL solar's system formation.
(c) ISRO 31. With reference to an 'ultra thin artificial leaf,
(d) BARC which of the following statements is true?
Ans. (d) : The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre is (a) It is used to generate hydrogen fuel from
India's Premier Nuclear Research facility water
headquartered in Trombey, Mumbai (Maharastra). It is (b) It is used in generation of electricity
a multi-dispensary research centre with extensive (c) It is used to cure cancer
infrastructure for advanced research and development (d) It converts light energy into
covering the entire spectrum of Nuclear Science Ans. (a) : CSIR's artificial leaf creates fuel from
engineering and related areas. sunlight– The ultra thin wireless device mimics plant
Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha started the Nuclear leaves to produce energy using water and sunlight
Programme in India. scientists have developed an artificial leaf that absorbs
It deals with research work on Radiation Technology. sunlight to generate hydrogen fuel from water, an
PRL– Physical Research Laboratory founded in 1947 advance that may provide clean energy for powering
by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai. Eco-friendly cars in the future.
28. With reference to 'cloud seeding'. which 32. 'Sohum' is a/an
statement is true? (a) hearing screening device
(a) It is a process of enhancing agricultural yield (b) cobot
(b) It is a technique for carbon sequestration (c) robot
(c) It is a process of weather modification (d) anti-tank guided missile
(d) It is a process of storing large amount of Ans. (a) : Sohum is a hearing screening device for new
digital data borns in resource poor setting to prevent speech loss.

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 33 YCT

33. 'Sagar Vani' sometimes in news is a/an 38. 'Project Sunshine' aims to combat which of the
(a) integrated information dissemination system following?
(b) space program to study the ocean (a) Infant death
(c) floating dock established in Indian Ocean (b) TB
(d) program to extract oil from the ocean floor (c) Malaria
Ans. (a) : Sagar Vani and India quake are mobile apps (d) AIDS
which were released by the government of India for Ans. (a) : Project Sunshine is non-profit organization
dissemination of information regarding natural (began in 1953) that provides free educational,
disasters like Earthquakes Ministry of Science has recreational and social programmes to children facing
launched two apps– (i) India quake, (II) Sagar Vani. all medical requirements, infant death etc. all activities
Sagar Vani will help fishing community by providing are reserved to pediatric patients. Known just after
timely updates on weather conditions. 1956, secretly working since 1953.
34. Which of the following is not a language for 39. Ozone layer is located in
computer programming? (a) thermosphere
(a) BASIC (b) mesosphere
(b) COBOL (c) stratosphere
(c) WINDOWS (d) troposphere
(d) PASCAL Ans. (c) : Ozone layer also called ozonosphere region
Ans. (c) : Pascal is a unit of Internal Pressure. of the upper atmosphere between Roughly 15 to 35 km
COBOL – Computer Programming Language. (9 to 22 miles) above earth's surface, continuing
Microsoft – Operating System. relatively high concentrations of O3. It is found in
stratosphere. Troposphere, the very nearest sphere of
35. Which of the following are used in mobile our environment.
communication system?
(a) Microwaves 40. Which of the following processes is used to
(b) Sound waves treat contaminated media by altering
environmental conditions to simulate growth of
(c) Ultrasonic waves
microorganism?
(d) X-rays
(a) Bioaccumulation
Ans. (a) Microwaves are a type of electromagnetic (b) Bioaugmentation
radiation, as are radio waves, ultraviolet radiation, X-
(c) Biodegradation
rays and gamma rays which is used in mobile
(d) Bioremediation
communication system.
Ans. (d) : Bioremediation is a process mainly
36. Non-metal iodine is used microorganisms, plants or microbial or plant enzymes
(a) for purification of soil to detoxify contaminants in the soil and other
(b) for purification of water environments.
(c) for vulcanization of rubber Bioaccumulation– Gradual accumulation of
(d) to make antiseptic solution substances such as pesticides or other chemicals in an
Ans. (d) : Non-metal iodine is used in to make organisms.
antiseptic solution. 41. The IC-chip used in computers is made of
Iodine dissolves in some solvents such as carbon- (a) silicon
tetrachloride and it is only slightly soluble in water. (b) chromium
37. 'Project 75' sometimes in news is related to (c) silica
(a) Indian space program (d) iron oxide
(b) Indian Navy's submarine program Ans. (a) : Most IC's are made of silicon, which is
(c) anti-tank guided missile program abundant in ordinary beach sand. Pure crystline silicon
(d) program to control pollution in 75 cities of as with other semi-conducting materials has a very
India high resistance to electrical current at normal room
Ans. (b) : The 5th scorpene submarine of project 75 temperature.
named VAGIR has launched at Majhgaon (cePeieeBJe) 42. The headquarters of 'International Solar
dock shipbuilders limited in Mumbai. Alliance' is located in
Vagir, ex Russia named after the sand fish a deadly (a) Paris
deep sea- predator of the Indian Ocean was (b) Bonn
commissioned into Indian Navy on Dec 3, 1973 and (c) Haryana
was decommissioned on June 7, 2001. (d) Bihar
BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 34 YCT
 Ans. (c) : International Solar Alliance– The launch of Ans. (c) : Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) was
ISA was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi established in March 2002 as a statutory body of the
and former President of France Francois Hollande on Government of India under the Energy Conservation
30 Nov. 2015 at the 21st session of UNFCCC in Paris. Act 2001 comes under the Power Ministry (Ministry of
Currently 121 members, most of them being sunshine Power).
countries which lie either completely or partly between It is responsible for spearheading the improvement of
The Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. Its energy efficiency of the economy through various
Headquarter is in India (Haryana's Gurugram). regulatory and promotional instruments.
43. The World Congress on Information 47. India-based neutron observatory, was recently
Technology (WCIT) was recently held in India. in news, will be established in
It was organized by (a) Tamil Nadu
(a) NASSCOM (b) Andhra Pradesh
(b) CSIR (c) Bihar
(c) NIIT (d) Uttar Pradesh
(d) IIT Ans. (a) : India based neutron observatory to be
Ans. (a) : 22nd edition of world congress on established at Theni in Tamilnadu in 2015. It is a
Information Technology (WCIT) held in India from 19 particle Physics Research Project under construction to
to 21st Feb. 2018 in Hyderabad. primarily study atmospheric neutrinos in a 1200
Simultaneously 26th edition of NASSCOM India meters.
Leadership Forum (NILF), a platform which is a
48. Which among the following is not a part of
melting pot for ideas, innovation strategy, business.
Indian Antarctic Program?
NASSCOM– The National Association of Software
(a) Dakshin Gangotri
and Service Companies is a non-governmental trade
(b) Maitri
Association and Advocacy group.
(c) Bharati
44. Recently ISRO has entered into Technology
(d) Himsagar
Transfer Agreement with which of the
following companies? Ans. (d) : Maitri– India's Aerial research centre over
(a) NTPC Antartica in 1989.
(b) BHEL Bharti– 2012, Antartica mission of India.
(c) L & T Dakshin Gangotri– First scientific base station of
(d) ONGC India situated in Antaratica. So option (d) Himsagar is
not an Indian Research Station in Antartica.
Ans. (b) : ISRO has transferred its indigenous
technology to produce space grade Li-lon cells to 49. Which phenomenon of optics is used in optical
Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) in March fibre communication?
2018, BHEL signed the technology transfer agreement (a) Diffraction
with ISRO for acquiring the Li-lon cells production (b) Reflection
technology. (c) Total internal reflection
45. 'Science City' in India are developed by (d) Interference
(a) the Ministry of Science and Technology Ans. (c) : The optical fibre is a device which works on
(b) the Ministry of Commerce and Industry the principle of total internal reflection by which light
(c) the Ministry of Defence signals can be transmitted from one place to another
(d) the Ministry of Culture with a negligible loss of energy.
Ans. (d) : A Science city is an Urban development 50. 'Red Biotechnology' is related to
vision of a smart city that includes a powerful city (a) Maine engineering
forming Scientific-Industrial complex in an advanced (b) Agricultural science
fashion with a view to managing a city's assets and (c) DNA
human capital. The Ministry of Culture has approved (d) Oil and gas engineering
Rs. 66 crore for this purpose.
Ans. (c) : Red Biotechnology deals with
46. Bureau of Energy Efficiency is an agency of the biotechnological techniques such as Gene Theory
Government of India under (replacing a defective gene causing diseases by a
(a) the Ministry of Science and Technology healthy gene) stem cell research genetic engineering
(b) the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (changing the genetic makeup of genes to produce
(c) the Ministry of Power improved organisms) and the development of new
(d) the Ministry of Agriculture drugs.

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 35 YCT

51. A type of bond in the brick masonry in which 55. Flying shores are used to strengthen
each course consists of alternate headers and (a) single wall
stretchers is (b) two adjacent walls
(a) English bond (c) tall walls
(b) Raking bond (d) Any of the above
(c) Dutch bond Ans. (b) :
(d) Flemish bond Flying or horizontal shores– two adjacent walls
Ans. (d) : Flemish Bond– Each course has alternate Raking or inclined shores– temporary lateral support
header and stretcher. Dead or Vertical shores– large opening are to be made
in existing wall.
56. When large openings are to be made in existing
wall, the type of temporary work used is
English Bond– Alternate courses of header & (a) raking shore
stretcher. (b) flying shore
(c) dead shore
(d) underpinning
Ans. (c) : Dead or vertical shores– vertical support is
provided to walls, roofs, floors. Used for large opening
Raking Bond– The bonding bricks are laid at any angle
are to be made in existing wall.
other than zero or 900. Generally provide in the
stretcher course of a wall having thickness equal to 57. Water requirement per day per bed in a
even no. of half brick. hospital is
Dutch Bond– Modified form of English Bond in this (a) 45 litres
bond, the corner of the wall are strengthened (b) 135 litres
arrangement of bricks is similar to English Bond. (c) 270 litres
52. Quoins in brick masonry are (d) 340 litres
(a) bricks cut a corners in a triangular fashion Ans. (d)
(b) half-brick with length same but width halved Water Demand
(c) squint junction of walls (a) Domestic water – 135 to 225 lpcd
(d) corner junction of walls demand
Ans. (d) : Quoins– The corner or external angle on the (b) School & Colleges – 45 to 135 lpcd
face side of a wall is known as quoin. Offices – 45 lpcd
The Quoins are generally at right angles but may be Restaurants – 70 lpcd
greater than a right angle. Hotels – 180 lpcd
53. If r is rise and g is going of stairs, the empirical Hospitals – when bed <100–340
formula used to fix rise and going is 2r + g and lpcd
it should be between – when bed > 100–450
(a) 500 mm – 600 mm lpcd
(b) 550 mm – 650 mm (c) Fire demand – 1 lpcd
(c) 600 mm – 650 mm
58. Which one of the following is not a type of trap
(d) 650 mm – 700 mm
used in plumbing?
Ans. (b) : Stairs empirical formula (a) p-type
2r + g = 600mm = 60cm (b) q-type
r+g = (40–45cm) (c) s-type
r×g = 400–450 cm (d) z-type
54. Maximum size of coarse aggregate used as base Ans. (d) :
coarse in ground floor is 59. The cement to dry sand proportion
(a) 12 mm recommended for plastering concrete surface is
(b) 20 mm (a) 1 : 3
(c) 40 mm (b) 1 : 6
(d) 50 mm (c) 1 : 8
Ans. (c) : (d) 1 : 10

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 36 YCT

 Ans. (a) 65. When fat lime is slaked, its volume
Nature of Type of Mortar Proportions (a) decreases to 50%
work (b) remains same
Plaster work Cement mortar 1:3 to 1:4 (c) increases by 2 to 2.5 times
Lime mortar 1:2 (d) increases by 4 times
RCC work Cement mortar 1:3 Ans. (c)
Partition wall Cement mortar 1:3 fat lime
→ Fat lime contains large amount of CaO (about 95%)
60. Gauged cement mortar consists of
(a) cement and sand → Slaked its volume increases by 2 to 2.5 times
(b) cement, surkhi and sand → If hardens very slowly and possesses a high degree
(c) cement, lime and sand of plasticity
(d) cement, cinder and sand Use– Plastering and white washing
Ans. (c) : Gauged cement mortar– Cement, lime & Fat lime will not set under water.
sand. 66. The process of adding water to quicklime in
61. Impact value of stone for road work specified is order to convert it into hydrated lime is known
(a) wearing coat 30% as
(b) bituminous macadam 35% (a) quenching
(c) water-bound macadam 40% (b) hydration
(d) All of the above (c) calcination
Ans. (d) (d) slaking
62. Which one of the following does not belong to Ans. (d) : Slaking– The process of adding water to
endogenous trees? quick lime in order to convert it into hydrated lime
(a) Teak CaO + H 2 O slaking
→ Ca(OH) 2 + Heat
(b) Coconut Quicklime water Hydyated lime
(c) Bamboo
(d) Cane 67. Rotary kiln used in manufacturing cement
rotates at a speed of
Ans. (a) : Endogenous tree– Grow by forming new
(a) 1 r.p.m. – 3 r.p.m.
fibres with in the lrunk intersperesed with the old
fibres (b) 10 r.p.m. – 12 r.p.m.
(c) 18 r.p.m. – 22 r.p.m.
→ Grow inwards, having fibrous mass
(d) more than 25 r.p.m.
ex– Bamboo, Cone, Palm, Coconut etc. Ans. (a) :
Exogenous tree– Grow in width by forming new layer
of wood under the park. Mostly used for engineering 68. Fineness modulus is
purpose. (a) the ratio of fine aggregates to coarse
aggregate
63. Alumina in brick earth gives the brick's
(b) the ratio of fine aggregates to total aggregate
(a) strength
(c) an index which gives the mean size of the
(b) colour
aggregates used in a mix
(c) plasticity
(d) None of the above
(d) resistance to shrinkage
Ans. (c) : Fineness modulus– It is an index number
Ans. (c)
which is roughly proportional to the average size of the
Brick
particles in the aggregate
Constituent – gives
Illumine – plasticity aggregate Fineness modulus(FM)
Silica – Shape Coarse agg. 6 to 8.5
Lime – Flux material fusion Fine agg. 2 to 3.5
Magnesia – Softening
Iron oxide – Colour formation Mixed agg. 4.7 to 7
64. Pallet board is used Coarse sand 2.9 to 3.2
(a) to make frog in the brick Mediums sand 2.6 to 2.9
(b) to mount the mould Fine sand 2.2 to 2.6
(c) for table moulding of brick
Harsh concrete mix  → Higher F.M
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d) : Uneconomical concrete mix  → lower F.M

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 37 YCT

69. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Ans. (a)
answer using the codes given below the Lists :
F
List-I List-II multiplying constant =
i
(Parts of (Character) additive constant = f + d
exogenous tree)
a. Cambium layer 1. Youngest 73. In a tacheometry, if intercept taken on a
vertically held staff is inclined at q to
b. Pith 2. Innermost part
horizontal, the horizontal distance is
c. Heart wood 3. Thin layer of fresh
(a) ks + c
sap
(b) kscosq + ccosq
d. Sapwood 4. Portion surrounding
(c) kscos2q + ccosq
pith
(d) kssin2q+csinq
Codes :
(a) a b c d Ans. (c) : Distance & elevation formula for inclined
1 2 3 4 sights
(b) a b c d (a) When staff is vertical vertical fleight
3 2 4 1 horizontal distance
(c) a b c d d = (KS cosθ+C) cosθ V = (KScosθ+C)
4 1 3 2
sinθ
(d) a b c d
1 3 2 4 = KScos2θ + Ccosθ = KScosθ.sinθ
Ans. (b) +Csinθ
70. By calcining and smelting iron ores, a crude (b) when staff is normal
and impure form of iron obtained is known as horizontal distance vertical height
(a) cast iron
when angle of elevation
(b) wrought iron
(c) steel D = (KS+C) cosθ + hsinθ V = (KS+C) sinθ
(d) pig iron when angle of depression
Ans. (d)
D = (KS+C) cosθ–hsinθ V=(KS+C) sinθ
71. The compressive strength of high duty bricks
should be more than 74. In external focussing telescope with an
(a) 40 N/mm 2 anallatic lens, for tacheometric survey, the
(b) 20 N/mm 2 additive constant is
(c) 5 N/mm 2 (a) zero
(d) 3.5 N/mm 2 (b) 0.1 m
Ans. (a) (c) 0.3 m
(d) 0.5 m
Type of Brick Compressive st.
(N/mm )2 Ans. (a) : Anallactic lens is provided in tacheometer
for such lens multiplying factor is 100 & additive
(a) Common building brick 3.5
constant is zero(0)
(b) Third class brick 5
75. In a sag curve, a minimum of stoppage distance
(c) 2nd class brick 7
is determined with assumptions of headlight
(d) 1st class brick 10.5 ............. and beam tilted at an upward angle of
(e) High duty brick 40 ............
72. If f is the focal length, i is the stadia hair (a) 1.0 m and 20
interval and d is the distance between the (b) 0.75 m and 20
optical centre of the object lens, the multiplying (c) 1.0 m and 10
constant is
(d) .75 m and 10
(a) f / i
(b) f + d Ans. (d) :
(c) (f . i) + d 76. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(d) f + id answer using the codes given below the Lists :

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 38 YCT

 List-I List-II Plate level test– axis of plate level must be
(Parts of (Fixed by) perpendicular to vertical axis.
benchmarks) Collimation in Azimuth test– make the line of sight
perpendicular to horizontal axis.
a. GTS 1. A survey team at
benchmark the end of day 79. A theodolite is considered to be in proper
work condition, if
b. Permanent 2. The Survey of (a) the axis of the plate is perpendicular to the
benchmark India vertical axis
(b) the trunnion axis is perpendicular to the
c. Arbitrary 3. State PWD
vertical axis
benchmark
(c) the axis of the altitude level is parallel to the
d. Temporary 4. A survey team in line of collimation
benchmark the beginning of a
(d) All of the above
project
Ans. (d)
Codes :
(a) a b c d 80. Pick up the correct feature of accidental error
3 2 4 1 in surveying.
(b) a b c d (a) Positive and negative errors will occur with
3 2 1 4 equal frequency
(c) a b c d (b) Small errors occur more frequently
2 3 1 4 (c) Large errors do not occur
(d) a b c d (d) All of the above
2 3 4 1 Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) : 81. The reading taken from an instrument station
77. If coordinates of stations a, b, c and d are (x1, on a bench-mark of 100.00 RL is 1.2 and the
y1), (x2, y2), (x3, y3) and (x4, y4) respectively, the reading taken on next station is 1.70. Then RL
area of abcd is of next station is
(a) α = 0.5 [ y1 (x4 – x2) (a) 98.8 m
+y2(x1 – x3) + y3 (x2 – x4) (b) 98.30 m
+ y4(x3 – x1)] (c) 99.50 m
(b) α = 0.5 [ y1 (x1 – x2) (d) 100.50 m
+y2(x1 – x3) + y3 (x3 – x4) Ans. (c) : B.S = 1.2
+ y4(x4 – x1)]
F.S = 1.70
(c) α = 0.5 [ y1 (x2 – x3)
R.C at Bench mark = 100
+y2(x3 – x4) + y3 (x4 – x1)
HI = R.L + B.S = 100+1.2 = 101.2
+ y4(x3 – x2)]
R.L. of nex station = H.I – F.J
(d) None of the above
= 101.2–1.7 = 99.50m
Ans. (a) :
82. An imaginay line joining the point of
78. Spire test is to check which of the following
intersection of the crosshairs of the diaphragm
permanent adjustments of theodolite?
and the optical centre of the object glass is
(a) Plate level axis is perpendicular to vertical
known as
axis
(a) axis of telescope
(b) Horizontal axis is perpendicular to vertical
axis (b) axis of level tube
(c) The line of sight coincides with the optical (c) line of collimation
axis of the telescope (d) horizontal axis
(d) The axis of altitude level is parallel to the line Ans. (c) : Line of Collimation– An imaginary line
of sight joining the point of intersection of the crosshairs of the
Ans. (b) diaphragm and the optical centre of the object.
Spire test– make horizontal axis perpendicular to Axis of telescope– It is the line joining the optical
vertical axis. centre of objective to the centre of eyepiece.

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 39 YCT

83. The minor instrument used not only to take 87. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
horizontal sights but also inclined sights are answer using the codes given below the Lists :
known as List-I List-II
(a) clinometer (Type of impurity) (Process used)
(b) sextant
a. Bulky floating and 1. Floatation tanks
(c) pantograph
suspended matter
(d) planimeter
b. Oil and grease 2. Racks and screens
Ans. (a) : Clinometer– measure angle slope,
elevation, depression w.r. to gravity direction. c. Suspended solids 3. Biological growth
Pantograph– enlarge/reduce already drawn plan. (slimes)
Sextant– 2 mirror-light successively reflect then angle d. Colloidal and 4. Chemical
b/w 1st & last ray dissolved organic flocculation
= 2 × angle b/w mirror matter
Planimeter– distance measuring instrument. Codes :
84. Which one is not the effect of the presence of (a) a b c d
iron oxide in water? 1 2 3 4
(a) Causes red colour (b) a b c d
(b) Increases corrosiveness 1 2 4 3
(c) Increases hardness (c) a b c d
(d) Causes toxic effect 2 3 1 4
(d) a b c d
Ans. (d)
2 1 4 3
85. Colour of water is expressed in number of a
Ans. (d)
(a) pO value
(b) silica scale 88. To serve as mains laid on bridges ideally suited
pipes ae
(c) platinum-cobalt scale
(a) cast iron pipes
(d) None of the above
(b) wrought iron pipes
Ans. (c)
(c) steel pipes
Colour test of water – Platinum cobalt scale
(d) cement concrete pipes
Turbidity test – Silica scale
Ans. (c) : Steel pipes– Steel pipes are provided for
Odour test – Osmoswpe
water mains passing through bridges. These pipes are
86. The maximum permissible total solid content mainly used for carrying raw water.
in water for domestic purposes should not Cast Iron Pipe– Also known as spun iron pipes used
exceed for distributary mains.
(a) 400 p.p.m. Wrought Iron Pipe– Used for water distribution
(b) 500 p.p.m. inside the buildings for service connection.
(c) 600 p.p.m. Cement Concrete Pipe– Used for distributary mains.
(d) 800 p.p.m. 89. Which one of the following is not a formula to
Ans. (b) find head loss due to friction in flow through
Permissible limit pipes?
(a) pH value – 6.5–8 (a) Darcy-Weisbach formula
(b) Total solids – 500 P.P.M (b) Hazen-Williams formula
(c) Chlorides – 250 P.P.M (c) Lea formula
(d) Hardness – 100 P.P.M (d) Manning's formula
(e) Copper – 3 P.P.M Ans. (c) : There are different formulas to find head
(f) Fluoride – 1.5 P.P.M loss due to friction in flow through pipes.
(g) Iron & manganese – 0.3 P.P.M Let, Head loss– hL
(h) Arsenic & lead – 0.05 P.P.M FLV 2
Darcy Weisbach Formula h L =
(i) Chlorine – 0.1–0.2 P.P.M 2gd

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 40 YCT

 Hazen Williams Formula Egg shaped/combined sewer system– In separate
10.7L systems, two sets of sewers are used to carry sanitary
h L = 1.852 4.87 Q1.852 sewage and storm/surface water separately. In the
CHW D
combined system a single sewer with large size is used
Manning's Formula to carry both sanitary sewage and surface water
10.3L(nq) 2 together.
hL =
D5.33 94. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine in water
90. Drain valves/scour valves in a water treatment
distribution system are provided at (a) is not dependent on pH value
(a) high-end points (b) is increased by increased pH value
(b) low-end points (c) remains constant at all pH value
(c) regular intervals in a pipeline (d) is reduced by increased pH value
(d) All of the above Ans. (d) : Disinfection– The process of killing
Ans. (b) : Drain valve/Scour valve– These valves are pathogenic bacteria from water and making it safe to
used to remove water from pipes during repairing of the public use.
distribution system. Provided at bottom most point of → most commonly use disinfectant for drinking water
drain valve. is chlorine.
91. The dose of copper sulphate in water treatment → direct chlorine kills bacteria when PHCS
varies from disinfection efficiency of chlorine in water
(a) 0.3 p.p.m. to 0.6 p.p.m. treatment is reduced by increased pH value.
(b) 1 p.p.m. to 1.5 p.p.m. 95. List-I contains some properties of
(c) 2 p.p.m. to 2.5 p.p.m. water/wastewater and List-II contains some
(d) 3 p.p.m. to 4 p.p.m. tests on water/wastewater. Match the property
Ans. (a) with corresponding test and select the correct
answer using the correct answer using the
92. A fluoride concentration of -------- in water is
codes given below the Lists :
beneficial for the prevention of dental caries in
children. List-I List-II
(a) 0.1 p.p.m. to 0.6 p.p.m. a. Suspended solids 1. BOD
(b) 0.7 p.p.m. to 1.2 p.p.m. concentration
(c) 1.4 p.p.m. to 2.0 p.p.m. b. Metabolism of 2. MPN
(d) 2.5 p.p.m. to 3.0 p.p.m. biodegradable
Ans. (b) organics
Fluoride content 1mg / L = 1ppm c. Bacterial 3. Jar test
concentration
(a) acceptable limit = 1mg/L
d. Coagulant dose 4. Turbidity
(b) cause for rejection = 1.5 mg/L
Note– upto 1 mg/L (1ppm) of fluoride is required for Codes :
the growth of permanent teeth and to prevent (a) a b c d
dental cavity. 2 1 4 3
Fluoride > (1.5–2mg/L) → mottling of teeth. (b) a b c d
Fluoride > 5 mg/L → Bone Fluorosis. 4 1 2 3
93. The most commonly used sewer under culvert (c) a b c d
is 2 4 1 3
(a) circular sewer (d) a b c d
(b) semi-elliptic sewer 4 2 1 3
(c) egg-shaped sewer Ans. (b)
(d) horseshoe-type sewer BOD – Metabolism of biodegradable organic
Ans. (a) : Most commonly used sewer under culvert is MPN – Bacterial concentration
circular sewer. Jar test – Coagulant dose
Circular sewer– Turbidity – Suspended solid concentration
Most commonly used 96. The potable water is prepared from turbid
it is preferred for all types of waste. surface water by adopting which of the
it is commonly laid under culvert. following treatment sequences?
BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 41 YCT
 (a) Turbid surface water, coagulation, Ans. (c) : BOD of water removal efficiency, during
flocculation, sedimentation, filtration, primary treatment is under normal condition during 5
disinfection, storage and supply day at 200C is generally taken as standard demand and
(b) Turbid surface water, disinfection, is about 68% of total demand BOD = 68% of ultimate
s
flocculation, sedimentation, filtration,
BOD.
coagulation, storage and supply 0
(c) Turbid surface water, filtration, BOD10 = 90% of ultimate BOD (at 20 C)
sedimentation, disinfection, flocculation, remaining removal efficiency = 100–68
coagulation, storage and supply = 32%
(d) Turbid surface water, sedimentation, 99. Bulking sludge refers to having
flocculation, coagulation, disinfection,
filtration, storage and supply (a) f / m < 0.3 / d
Ans. (d) : For Turbid surface water, sedimentation, (b) 0.3 / d < f / m < 0.6 / d
flocculation, coagulation, disinfection, filtration, (c) f / m = zero
storage and supply. (d) f / m > 0.6 / d
97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Ans. (a) : Bulking sludge– Describes a condition in
answer using the codes given below the Lists : which activated sludge has poor settling characteristics
List-I List-II and poor compatibility.
a. Thickening of 1. Decrease in volume Food to microorganism (f/m) ratio. For bulking sludge
sludge by chemical f
oxidation < 0.3 / d
m
b. Stabilization of 2. Separation of water
sludge by heat or 100. SO2 and CO adversely affect
chemical (a) oxygen carrying capacity of blood and
c. Conditioning of 3. Digestion of sludge functioning of lungs respectively
sludge (b) functioning of the respiratory system and
d. Reduction of sludge 4. Separation of water brain respectively
by floatation or (c) functioning of the respiratory system and
gravity oxygen carrying capacity of blood
Codes : respectively
(a) a b c d (d) functioning of air passages and chest
4 3 1 2 respectively
(b) a b c d Ans. (c) : SO2 affect respiratory system including
3 2 4 1 difficulty in breathing and increased symptoms of
(c) a b c d Asthma. CO affect oxygen carrying capacity of blood.
4 3 2 1
101. A projectile is fired with initial velocity u at an
(d) a b c d
2 1 3 4 angle 550 to horizontal. Then second projectile
was fired with the same velocity but at an angle
Ans. (c)
350 to horizontal. Then the ratio of horizontal
Separation of water – Conditioning of sludge projection of first one to second one is
Digestion of sludge – Stabilization of sludge by (a) more than 1
heat or chemical (b) equal to 1
treatment
(c) less than 1
Separation of water – Thickening of sludge by (d) May be anything depending upon the value of
chemical oxidation
u
Reduction of sludge – degreases in volume
by floatation or Ans. (b) Given, θ1 = 550, θ2 = 350, u = v2
gravity We know that–
98. The BOD, removal efficiency in percentage, u 2 sin 2θ
Horizontal range (R) =
during primary treatment, under normal g
conditions is about
Where, θ is angle of projection
(a) 65%
(b) 85% But according to question all parameter constant
(c) 30% except angle of projection (θ).
(d) zero ∴ R ∝ sin2θ

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 42 YCT

 R 1 sin 2θ1 sin(2 × 55) sin110 cos 20
= = = = =1
R 2 sin 2θ2 sin(2 × 35) sin 70 cos 20

R1
=1
R2

102. If a roller is to be pulled over a curb, the least

force q required is
(a) vertical
F2 sin θ
(b) horizontal tan α =
0 F1 + F2 cos θ
(c) 45 to the reaction
(d) 900 to the reaction 105. Free-body diagram means
Ans. (d) (a) the diagram drawn with free hand
(b) the diagram of a body with applied forces
103. The angles between the two forces to make
(c) the diagram of a body with applied forces,
their resultant a minimum and a maximum are
self-weight and reactions
respectively
(d) the diagram of a freely suspended body
(a) 1800 and 00
Ans. (c) : Free-body Diagram– The diagram of a body
(b) 900 and 00
with applied forces, self weight and reactions.
(c) 1800 and 900
(d) 00 and 1800
Ans. (a) We know,
Resultant of two force R = F12 + F22 + 2F1F2 cos θ
For θ = 0°; cos0° = 1
R = F12 + F22 + 2F1F2 cos 0 = F12 + F2 + 2F1F2

R = F1 + F2
106. 0.2 percent proof stress means
For θ = 180°; cos180° = –1
(a) stress corresponding in 0.2 percent strain
R = F12 + F22 + 2F1F2 cos180 = F12 + F22 − 2F1F2 (b) 0.2 percent of ultimate stress
R = F1 − F2 (c) stress at which if unloading is made, there
will be 0.2 percent permanent set
∴ R → Maximum at θ = 0° (d) None of the above
R → Minimum at θ = 180° Ans. (c) : Proof stress – stress required to cause a
104. Which one of the following is fundamental law permanent extension equal to defined % of gauge
of forces? length.
(a) Triangle law 0.2% proof stress – stress at which if unloading is
made, there will be 0.2 % permanent set.
(b) Polygonal law
(c) Parallelogram law 107. In case of steel, the strain at yield point is
(d) Lami's theorem (a) 0.0125%
(b) 0.125%
Ans. (c)
(c) 1.25%
Fundamental law of forces– Parallelogram law- This
(d) 12.50%
law states if two forces, acting simultaneously on a
Ans. (b) : The yield strain for mild steel is of the order
particle, be represented in magnitude and direction by
of 0.00125 or 0.125% depending on the steel used.
the two adjacent sides of a parallelogram; their
resultant may be represented in magnitude and 108. In case of brittle materials, the ratio of ultimate
direction by the diagonal of the parallelogram, which compressive stress to ultimate tensile stress is
passes through their point of intersection. (a) equal to 1
Parallelogram law of forces– acting at a point (b) more than 1
(c) less than 1
R = F12 + F22 + 2F1F2 cos θ (d) May be anything. No definite relation exists

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 43 YCT

 Ans. (b) : Brittle Materials (i.e. concrete) have higher 112. Maximum shear stress in a beam of circular
compressive strength values. section is ............ times the average stress
For Brittle Material (a) 1.25
ultimate compresive stress (b) 1.33
Ratio of is more than 1
ultimate tensile stress (c) 1.5
109. A bar of brass is enclosed in a steel tube and is (d) 1.67
rigidly fastened at both the ends. If the Ans. (b)
coefficient of thermal expansion of brass is Section Maxm shear stress (qmax)
more than that of steel, when temperature
(a) Rectangular section 3
rises, the nature of stresses developed are τmax = τavg
2
(a) tensile in steel tube and compressive in brass
bar (b) Circular section 4
τmax = τavg = 1.33 τavg
(b) compressive in steel tube and tensile in brass 3
bar (c) Triangular section 3
τmax = τavg
(c) tensile in both steel tube and brass bar 2
(d) compressive in both steel tube and brass bar 4
τNA = τavg.
Ans. (a) We know that, 3
Thermal stress (σth) = E ∝ ∆T I-section τmax =
According to the question αbrass > αsteel F B 2
So during the heating bar of brass expand more than (D − d 2 ) + d 2
81 t w
steel tube then the nature of stresses developed are
tensile in steel tube and compressive in brass bar. 113. A cantilever carries a uniformly distributed
load from fixed end to the mid-span in the first
110. The relationship among modulus of elasticity e,
case and a UDL of same intensity from mid-
bulk modulus k and Poisson's ratio m is
span to the free end in the second case. The
(a) E = 3K (1 + 2m)
ratio of maximum deflections in the two cases
(b) E = 3K (1–2m)
is
(c) E = 2 K (1+m)
1
(d) E = 2K (1–2m) (a)
3
Ans. (b) : Relationship B/W elastic constants
3
E=2G(1+µ) E – modulus of elasticity (b)
21
G – shear modulus 5
(c)
E = 3K (1–2µ) K – Bulk modulus 24
9KG 7
E= µ – Poisson's ratio (d)
3K + G 41
3K – 2G Ans. (d)
µ=
6K + 2G First case– A cantilever carries a uniformly distributed
111. A portion of beam between two sections is said load from fixed end to the mid-span.
to be in pure bending, when there is
(a) constant bending moment and constant shear
force
(b) constant bending moment and zero shear
force
(c) zero bending moment and constant shear
force
(d) zero bending moment and zero shear force
Ans. (b) : Pure Bending– B.M constant through out
the section & shear stress is zero.
In cantilever couple pure bending occur.

WL4 WL4 WL3 7WL4

Deflection (δ)= + θL = + ×L =
8EI 8EI 6I 24EI

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 44 YCT

 2nd case– A cantilever carries a uniformly distributed 115. In the analysis of thin cylinders, assumptions
load from mid-span to the free end. made are
(i) radial stress is neglected
(ii) the hoop and longitudinal stress distribution
across section is uniform
Which statement/statements is/are correct?
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) (i) is true and (ii) is false
(c) (i) is false and (ii) is true
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are false
Ans. (a) : Assumption of thin cylinders
(a) Radial stress is neglected
(b) The Hoop stress and longitudinal stress distribution
across section is uniform
(c) Area is calculated considering the pressure vessel
as thin.
116. In an electrical strain gauge, the quantity
PL3 L measured to determine strain is
Deflection = + θ×
3EI 2 (a) current
3
(b) voltage
WL × 
3L 

=  2  + PL π L (c) resistance
3EI 2EI 2 (d) None of the above
WL × 27 WL × 9 81WL
4 4 4
Ans. (c) : A strain gage is a simple device, comprising
= + =
24EI 16EI 48EI of a thin electric wire. A change in length of the gauge
7WL4 due to longitudinal strain creates a proportional change
st
deflection of I Case 24EI 7 WL4 × 2 in the electric resistance, and since a constant current is
Ratio = = =
deflection of 2nd Case 81WL4 81 WL4 maintained in the gauge, a proportional change in
48EI voltage.
7× 2 7 ∆R / R ∆R / R
= = G.F. = =
81 41 ∆l / l ε
114. Kern of rectangular columns is having ......... In an electrical strain gauge, the quantity measured to
shape. determine strain is resistance.
(a) rectangular 117. In the above case, the direction of maximum
(b) square principal plane is
(c) diamond 1 3
(a) at tan −1 to the x-direction
(d) triangular 2 4
Ans. (c) Kern is the core area of the section in which if 1 3
(b) at tan −1 to the y-direction
the load applied tension will not be induced in the 2 4
section. (c) at 300 to the x-direction
• Core or Kern for different section– (d) at 300 to the y-direction
Rectangular– Shape (Diamond or Rhombus) Ans. (*) : This question is deleted by BPSC.
118. A bar AC shown in the figure given below is
fixed at both ends and is subjected to a torque t
L
at B where AB = . Then torque at end A is
3

Hollow circular – Shape (circular)

Square section – Shape (Square)
Kern of I-section – Rhombus

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 45 YCT

 t 121. In case of turbulent flow, the loss of pressure
(a)
3 head is proportional vn where v is mean
t velocity and n is from
(b) (a) 1.0 to 1.5
2
2t (b) 1.75 to 2.0
(c)
3 (c) 2.25 to 2.5
(d) t (d) 2.75 to 3.0
Ans. (c) For both portion AB & BC of bar AC angle of Ans. (*) : There is loss of head due to friction instead
twist (θ) is same. of loss of pressure head.
In case of laminar flow– The loss of head ∝ V, where
V is the velocity of flow.
In case of turbulent flow– The loss of head ∝ V2
(approx).
θA = θA and T = TA + TC
∝ Vn (more exactly), where n varies from 1.75 to 2.0.
L 2L
T × T × Note- This question is deleted by BPSC.
θ = TL  , A 3 = B 3 ⇒ T = 2T
 GJ  G × J G×J A B
122. If the Froude number in open channel flow is
1 less than 1.0, the flow is known as
T = TA + TB = TA + TA
2 (a) subcritical
3 2 (b) critical
T = TA ⇒ TA = T (c) supercritical
2 3
119. A is shaft of diameter d and B is a shaft of (d) None of the above
diameter 2d. The ratio of polar modulus of Ans. (a) Froude Number–A dimensionless number
section B to section A is used in hydrodynamics to indicate how well a
(a) 2 (b) 6 particular model work in relation to a real system.
(c) 8 (d) 16  V  Area of channel A 
Ans. (c) Given, Diameter of shaft A(DA) = d  Fr =  y = = 
 gy   Top width T
Diameter of shaft B(DB) = 2d
We know that, Froude number (Fr) Flow
J πd 4 Fr < 1 – subcritical flow
Polar modulus (JP) = ; J= R = D/2 Fr = 1 – critical flow
R 32
πD / 32 πD
4 3 Fr > 1 – super critical/rapid flow
JP = = 123. The most efficient theoretical section to get
D/2 16
JP ∝ D 3 maximum discharge for a given cross-section is
Ratio of polar modulus of section B to section A (a) triangular
(J ) D3 d3 1 (b) rectangular
= P A = A3 = 3
= (c) trapezoidal
(J P ) B D B (2d) 8
(d) circular
(JP)B : (JP)A = 8:1
Ans. (d) : Maxm discharge through a circular section
120. In finding Reynolds number, the characteristic
length of circular pipe is taken as
(a) d
(b) 2d
(c) 5d
(d) 10d
Ans. (a) We know that,
ρvd
Reynold's number ( R e ) =
µ
µ – dynamic viscosity • For condition of maximum discharge,
d
ρ – density of fluid = 0.95 ⇒ [ d = 0.95D ]
V – velocity of fluid D
d – characteristic length of circular pipe [2θ = 308°]

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 46 YCT

 • For condition of maximum velocity, 126. The term z in total energy expression
d p v2
= 0.81 ⇒ [ d = 0.81D ] + +z
D ρg 2g
[2θ = 257°27'] is
1A 5/3 (a) potential energy
Q= 51 / 2
n P2 / 3 (b) pressure energy
(c) potential energy per unit weight
124. In Euler's equation
(d) None of the above
(a) no force is neglected
(b) only force of compressibility is neglected Ans. (c) According to Bernoulli's equation
(c) both force of compressibility and force of P v2
+ + Z = constant Joule / Newton
turbulence are neglected ρg 2g
(d) forces of compressibility, turbulence and P P
velocity are neglected = = pressure energy per unit wt. or pressure
w ρg
Ans. (d) : Euler's equation of motion head
dp
+ V.dV + g.dz = 0 v2
= kinetic energy per unit wt. or kinetic head
ρ 2g
(i) Euler's equation of motion is a statement of z = potential energy per unit wt. or potential head
conservation of momentum for the flow of an inviscid
fluid. 127. Bernoulli equation finds its application in
(ii) Euler's equation of motion for fluid flow refers to (a) Pitot tube
motion with acceleration in general. (b) venturi meter
(iii) Euler's equation of motion is not applicable for (c) orifice meter
viscous flow. (d) All of the above
(iv) Euler's equation of motion is a consequence of law Ans. (d) : Bernoulli's equation refers to conservation
of motion. of energy its application find in–
For Euler's equation (i) Venturi meter
Fnet = Fp + Fg (ii) Orifice meter
In Euler's equation of motion gravity force and (iii) Pitot tube
pressure force are considered only.
Note-This question is deleted by BPSC. 128. Critical path lies along the activities having
total float
125. In Navier-Stokes equation
(a) positive
(a) no force is neglected
(b) negative
(b) only force of compressibility is neglected
(c) zero
(c) both force of compressibility and force of
turbulence are neglected (d) same
(d) forces of compressibility, turbulence and Ans. (c) : For Critical path– All the four floats (total
velocity are neglected Float, free Float, Independent Heat & Interfering
Ans. (c) : We know, float) are generally zero. Because critical path passes
No. of forces acted on fluid element are– through those events where slack is zero.
(1) Gravity force (Fg) 129. Various activities of a project are shown on bar
(2) Pressure force (Fp) charts by
(3) Viscous force (Fv) (a) vertical lines
(4) Turbulent force (Ft) (b) horizontal lines
(5) Force due to compressibility (Fc) (c) dots
So in Navier-stokes equation (d) crosses
Fnet = Fp + Fv + Fg Ans. (b) : Various activities of a project are shown on
r
DV r r bar charts by horizontal lines.
ρ = −∆P + µ(∇ 2 V) + ρf b
Dt 130. Critical path network helps an engineer
In Navier-stokes equation only gravity force (Fg), (a) to concentrate his attention on critical
pressure force (Fp) and viscous force (Fv) are activities
considered. (b) to divert the resources from non-critical
Note-This question is deleted by BPSC. advanced activities to critical activities

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 47 YCT

 (c) to be cautious for avoiding any delay in the n=0→ Isobaric process (Const. Pressure)
critical activities to avoid delay of the whole
project (
n = 1.4 → Adiabatic process pv γ = c )
(d) All of the above 135. The behaviour of a perfect gas, undergoing any
Ans. (d) : Critical path network – to concentrate his change in the variables any change in the
attention on activities variables which control physical properties, is
→ to divert the resources from non-critical advanced governed by
activities to critical activities (a) Boyle's law
→ to be cautions for avoiding any delay in the critical (b) Charles' law
activities to avoid delay of the whole project. (c) Gay-Lussac law
131. If TL is the latest allowable event occurrence (d) All of the above
time, total activity slack(s) is equal to Ans. (c) : The behaviour of a perfect gas, undergoing
(a) LST-EST any change in the variables any change in the variables
(b) LFT-EFT which control physical properties, is governed by Gay-
(c) T1-EFT Lussac law.
(d) All of the above 136. Which of the following gases has the highest
Ans. (d) : Slack–It is difference b/w the latest calorific value?
allowable occurrence time (Tc) and earliest expected (a) Coal gas
occurrence time (TE) of the event. (b) Producer gas
Slack = TL–TE (c) Mond gas
(d) Blast furnace gas
132. For the supply of materials for concrete, form
work reinforcing and placing of concrete, Ans. (a) : Calorific value– The total amount of heat
removal of form work and curing of concrete, liberated when a unit mass of fuel is burnt completely.
the number of bar(s) required on bar chart is Coal gas > Producer gas > Mond gas > Blast furnace gas
(a) 1
137. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is given
(b) 2
by
(c) 3
Net work output
(d) 4 (a)
Work done by the turbine
Ans. (d) : j
Net work output
133. Carbonisation of coal consists of (b)
Heat supplied
(a) drying and crushing the coal to a fine powder
(b) moulding the finely ground coal under Actual temperature drop
(c)
pressure with or without a binding material Isentropic temperature drop
(c) heating the wood with a limited supply of air Isentropic increase in temperature
(d)
to temperature not less than 2800C Actual increase in temperature
(d) None of the above Ans. (a) Work Ratio (rw)–It is the net work in cycle
Ans. (d) : Carbonisation is the process of converting to positive work (turbine work) in a cycle.
coal into coke is called as carbonization of coal. When Wnet WT − Wc W
a coking coal is heated in the absence of air, the rw = = = 1− c
WT WT WT
porous, hard and strong residue left is called coke.
Carbonisation is the term used to denote the heating of rw = 1 − rbw
coal in the absence of air.
rbw → Backward work ratio
134. If the value of n = 0 in the equation pvn = c,
W
then the process is called rbw = c
(a) constant volume process W T

(b) adiabatic process 138. Which statement about a series R-C circuit is
(c) constant pressure process true?
(d) isothermal process (a) The capacitor's voltage drop is in phase with
Ans. (c) : Polytropic process eqn. pv n = c the resistor's voltage drop
(b) The current leads the source voltage
if n=1→ Isothermal process (Const. Temp.) (c) The current lags the source voltage
n=∞→ Isochoric process (Const. Volume) (d) The resistor voltage lags the current

BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 48 YCT

 Ans. (b) : R-C series circuit– Consider a circuit (a) 1.05 A
containing a resistor R and a capacitance in series as (b) 303 mA
shown in the figure given below. (c) 247 mA
(d) 107 mA
Ans. (c) : Given,
rt = 66 ohm which is total resistance of circuit.
xt = 47 ohm which is total reactance xc and xL.
Vs
I=
(rt ) + (x t ) 2
2

20
I=
let, V = supply voltage (66) + (47) 2
2

I = circuit current 20
VR = voltage drop I=
6565
across resistance (R)
I = 247 mA
Vc = Voltage drop
across capacitor (C) 142. Determine VTh when R1 is 180 Ω and XL is 90Ω
Since, I is common to both then it taken as reference as shown in the figure given below.
ur uuur uur
phasor and V = VR + VC
Thus about a series R-C circuit the current leads the
source
139. The simple rotating loop between pole faces
connected to a battery and resistor through a
switch. The specifications of this machine are
radius = 0.5m, length 1m, resistance = 0.3 ohm
and magnitude strength = 0.25 t is supplied
with 120V. Suddenly the switch is closed at t =
0, what is observed in the circuit?
(a) Current will flow but zero induced e.m.f. (a) 13.5∠63.40 V
(b) Current will not flow and zero induced e.m.f. (b) 13.5∠63.40 V
(c) Current will not flow but e.m.f. if induced (c) 12.2∠00 V
(d) Current will flow and e.m.f. will also be (d) 122∠00 V
induced Ans. (b) : Using voltage division rule,
Ans. (a) : Initially the induced emf in the armature is XL
Vth = × Vs
zero. But the current will flow as there is terminal R L + XL
source voltage.
90 j
140. What is the collector current for a CE = × 30
180 + 90 j
configuration with a beta of 100 and a base
j
current of 30µA? = × 30
(a) 30 µA 2+ j
(b) 3 µA 30 j(2 − j) 30 j(2 − j)
= =
(c) 3 µA (2 + j)(2 − j) 5
(d) 3 mA = 6j (2 – j)
Ans. (d) = 12j – 6j2
IC = βIB = 6 + 12j
IC = 100 × 30µA Vth = 13.41 ∠63.4°  13.5 ∠63.4°
IC = 100 × 30 × 10–6 A 143. When a silicon diode is forward biased, what is
IC = 3000 × 10–6 A Vbe for a CE configuration?
IC = 3mA (a) Voltage-divider bias
141. How much current will flow in a 100 Hz series (b) 0.4 V
R-L-C circuit if vs = 20V, rt = 66 ohms and xt = (c) 0.7 V
47 ohms? (d) Emitter voltage
BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 49 YCT
 Ans. (c) : When Diode P terminal connected to battery (a) V1 > e1
positive (+) terminal and diode N terminal is connected (b) V1 = e1
to negative (–) terminal in battery this connection is (c) V1 < e1
called forward bias in diode. (d) V1 = e1/2
Breakdown voltage in diode
Ans. (b)
Ge = 0.3V
• A transformer that does not have any losses like
Si = 0.7V
copper and core is known as an ideal transformer.
GaAs = 1.41V
For an ideal transformer–
144. The input resistance of the base of an emitter- Primary applied voltage = Primary induced emf.
follower is usually
(a) very low V1 = e1
(b) very high • The efficiency of ideal transformer is 100%.
(c) shorted to ground
148. What would happen if a power transformer
(d) open
designed for operation on 50 Hz (frequency)
Ans. (b) : The input resistance of the base of an were connected to a 500 Hz (frequency) source
emitter follower is usually very high. The emitter of the same voltage?
follower is a buffer stage with high input impedance,
(a) Current will be too much high
low output impedances and a gain of approximately
(b) Transformer may start to smoke and burn
unity.
(c) Eddy current and hysteresis loss will be
145. When the frequency of the voltage applied to a excessive
series R-C circuit is decreased, the impedance
(d) No effect
(a) increases
(b) decreases Ans. (c) : If a power transformer designed for
(c) remains the same operation on 50Hz (frequency) were connected to a
500 Hz (frequency) source of the same voltage, eddy
(d) doubles
current and hysteresis loss will be excessive.
Ans. (a) : In the series RC circuit, the total impedance
is the phasor sum of R and Xc 149. In an autotransformer, the primary and
2 2 2 secondary are ........... coupled.
Impedance magnitude : Z = R + X C
(a) only magnetically
2 2 1
Z =R + 2 2 (b) only electrically
ωC
(c) magnetically as well as electrically
1
Q Z2 = R 2 + 2 2 2 (d) None of the above
4π f C
Ans. (c) In an autotransformer the primary and
1
∴Z ∝ secondary winding are linked together both electrically
f
and magnetically.
Hence,
When the frequency of the voltage applied to a An autotransformer is an electrical transformer with
series R-C circuit is decreased, the impedance only one winding.
increases. 150. Impedance ratio of a transformer is equal to
146. In the complex plane, the number 4 + j3 is (a) square of turns ratio
located in the (b) turns ratio
(a) first quadrant (c) 1
(b) second quadrant (d) infinites
(c) third quadrant Ans. (a) : Impedance ratio of a transformer is equal to
(d) fourth quadrant square of turn ratio.
Ans. (a) In the complex plane, the number 4 + j3 is N2 Z2
located in the first quadrant, because both the real and =
N1 Z1
imaginary parts are positive.
2
147. If V1 is the primary applied voltage and e1 is Z2  N 2 
= 
the primary induced e.m.f., for an ideal Z1  N1 
transformer
BPSC AE (Pre), 15 Sep., 2018 50 YCT

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 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2017
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical) Mains
GENERAL HINDI (PAPER-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Exam Date : 5 August, 2019

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1. ÙeneB hej keâue Skeâ ueÌ[keâe Deewj ueÌ[keâer yew"er Leer~ (d) ceQ meeje keâece keâj uetBiee~
(a) ÙeneB hej keâue Skeâ ueÌ[keâer Deewj ueÌ[keâe yew"e Lee~ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ceQ Dehevee keâece keâj uetBiee’
(b) keâue ÙeneB hej ueÌ[keâe Deewj ueÌ[keâer yew"e Lee~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) ÙeneB hej keâue ueÌ[keâe-ueÌ[keâer yew"s Les~ 7. hegefueme ves efJeKÙeele [eketâ keâes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~
(d) ÙeneB hej keâue Skeâ ueÌ[keâe Deewj ueÌ[keâer yew"s Les~ (a) hegefueme ves ØeKÙeele [eketâ keâes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~
(b) hegefueme ves Øeefmeæ [eketâ keâes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ‘ÙeneB hej keâue ueÌ[keâe-ueÌ[keâer
(c) hegefueme ves ÛeefÛe&le [eketâ keâes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~
yew"s Les~’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
(d) hegefueme ves kegâKÙeele [eketâ keâes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~
2. yeÛÛee ueesie yengle Meesj keâj jne nw~ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘hegefueme ves kegâKÙeele [eketâ keâes
(a) yeÛÛee ueesie yengle Meesjiegue keâj jne nw~ hekeâÌ[ efueÙee’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(b) yeÛÛes Meesjiegue yengle keâj jne nw~
8. Deepe keâer leepeer KeyejW megveeDeeW~
(c) yeÛÛes yengle Meesj keâj jns nQ~
(a) Deepe keâe leepeer KeyejW megveeDees~
(d) ueesie yeÛÛeeW hej Meesj keâj jns nQ~ (b) Deepe keâer leepee Keyej megveeDees~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘yeÛÛes yengle Meesj keâj jns nQ’ (c) Deepe keâe leepee meceeÛeej megveeDees~
Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (d) Deepekeâue keâer leepeer KeyejW megveeDees~
3. yeefueoeefveÙeeW keâe osMe meoe DeeYeejer jnsiee~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Deepe keâer leepee Keyej
(a) yeefueoeveer osMe keâe meoe DeeYeejer jnsiee~ megveeDees’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(b) osMe yeefueoeefveÙeeW keâe meoe DeeYeejer jnsiee~ 9. cegPes Yeejer hÙeeme ueieer nw~
(c) osMe yeefueoeefveÙeeW keâes meoe DeeYeej jnsiee~ (a) cegPekeâes Yeejer hÙeeme ueieer nw~
(d) osMe keâe yeefueoeveer DeeYeej meoe jniesiee~ (b) cegPes keâeHeâer hÙeeme ueieer nw~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘osMe yeefueoeefveÙeeW keâe meoe (c) cegPes yengle hÙeeme ueieer nw~
DeeYeejer jnsiee’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (d) cegPes Ketye hÙeeme ueieer nw~
4. yen iegveiegves iece& heeveer mes mveeve keâjlee nw~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘cegPes yengle hÙeeme ueieer nw’
(a) Jen heeveer Gyeeuekeâj mveeve keâjlee nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
(b) Jen iegveiegves iece& heeveer mes veneÙee keâjlee nw~ 10. yeÛÛes keâes keâeškeâj mesye efKeueeDees~
(c) Jen iece& heeveer mes venelee nw~ (a) yeÛÛes keâes mesye efKeueeDees~
(b) mesye keâeškeâj yeÛÛes keâes efKeueeDees~
(d) Jen iegveiegves heeveer mes mveeve keâjlee nw~
(c) mesye efKeueekeâj yeÛÛes keâes ueeDees~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Jen iegveiegves heeveer mes mveeve
(d) efoÙee ieÙee mesye keâeškeâj efKeueeDees~
keâjlee nw’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw, Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ‘mesye keâeškeâj yeÛÛes keâes
5. DehejeOeer keâes ce=lÙegoC[ keâer mepee efceueveer ÛeeefnS~ efKeueeDees’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(a) DehejeOeer keâes ce=lÙegob[ efceueveer ÛeeefnS~ 11. Fme pebieue ceW Skeâ neLeer heieueeÙee nes ieÙee nw~
(b) DehejeOeer keâes ce=lÙegob[ mes mepee efceueer~ (a) Fme pebieue ceW Skeâ neLeer heeieue nes ieÙee nw~
(c) DehejeOeer keâes ce=lÙegob[ efceuevee ÛeeefnS~ (b) Skeâ pebieue ceW Fme neLeer heeieue nes ieÙee nw~
(d) DehejeOeer ves ce=lÙegob[ keâer mepee heeF&~ (c) Fme pebieue ceW Skeâ heeieue neLeer nes ieÙee nw~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ` DehejeOeer keâes ce=lÙegob[ efceuevee (d) Skeâ heeieue neLeer Fme pebieue ceW nes ieÙee nw~
ÛeeefnS’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ ce=lÙegoC[ ceW ‘mepee’ Meeefceue nw~ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ‘Fme pebieue ceW Skeâ neLeer heeieue
Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ nes ieÙee nw’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi August, 2019 51 YCT
12. legcnejs keâes iegueeye keâer HetâueeW keâer ceeuee ues Deevee~ 19. meeefJe$eer melÙeJeeve keâer m$eer Leer~
(a) legcnW iegueeye HetâueeW keâer ceeuee ues Deevee~ (a) meeefJe$eer melÙeJeeve keâer ceefnuee Leer~
(b) legce iegueeye kesâ HetâueeW keâer ceeuee ues Deevee~ (b) meeefJe$eer melÙeJeeve keâer jeveer Leer~
(c) legcnW iegueeye keâer Hetâue-ceeuee ues Deevee~ (c) meeefJe$eer melÙeJeeve keâer helveer Leer~
(d) legce HetâueeW keâer ceeuee uesles Deevee~ (d) melÙeJeeve meeefJe$eer keâer helveer Leer~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘legce iegueeye kesâ HetâueeW keâer Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘meeefJe$eer melÙeJeeve keâer helveer
ceeuee ues Deevee’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ Leer’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
13. pees keâe keâjes, Jener hetje pe¤j keâjes~ 20. Debefkeâle ves meesÙee~
(a) pees Yeer keâece keâjes, Jener hetje pe¤j keâjes~ (a) Debefkeâle mees ieÙee~ (b) Debefkeâle efveõecele nw~
(b) Jener keâece keâjes, pees hetje keâjes~ (c) Debefkeâle veeRo ceW ieÙee~ (d) Debefkeâle MeÙeve ceW ieÙee~
(c) pees keâece keâjes, Gmes hetje pe¤j keâjes~ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Debefkeâle mees ieÙee’ Megæ JeekeäÙe
(d) hetje keâjes Deewj keâece pe¤j keâjes~
nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘pees keâece keâjes, Gmes hetje
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 21 mes 30 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele lelmece MeyoeW
pe¤j keâjes~’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej efJekeâuhe (a), (b), (c) Deewj (d) efoS nQ~ FveceW mes
14. Meece keâes ceerjepeer Skeâ ieerle oWieer~
meJee&efOekeâ GheÙegkeäle efJekeâuhe Ûegvekeâj Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
(a) ceerjepeer Meece keâes Skeâ ieerle oWieer~ 21. efJeYeeJejer
(b) Skeâ Meece keâes ceerjepeer ieerle oWieer~
(a) ØekeâeMe (b) jele
(c) Meece kesâ Jekeäle ceerjepeer Skeâ ieerle oWieer~
(c) DeBOesje (d) efJeYeeme
(d) Meece keâes ceerjepeer Skeâ ieerle ieeSBieer~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘efJeYeeJejer’ keâe
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Meece keâes ceerjepeer Skeâ ieerle
GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘jele’ Ùee ‘leejeW Yejer jele’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
ieeSBieer’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
22. ceke&âš
15. cesjs heeme cee$e kesâJeue ome ®heÙes nQ~
(a) keâefhe (b) cejkeâle
(a) kesâJeue ome ®heÙes cee$e cesjs heeme nQ~
(c) ceneve (d) ceej keâeš
(b) cee$e ome ®heÙes kesâJeue cesjs heeme nQ~
(c) ome ®heÙes cee$e ner cesjs heeme nQ~ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘ceke&âš’ keâe
(d) cesjs heeme cee$e ome ®heÙes nQ~ GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘keâefhe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ‘cesjs heeme cee$e ome ®heÙes nQ’ 23. DeJeuebye
Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (a) DeefJeuebye (b) ogye&ue
16. ceQves yengle keâesefMeMe keâjer~ (c) meneje (d) Deyeuee
(a) ceQ yengle keâesefMeMe keâer~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘DeJeuebye’ keâe
(b) ceQves yengle keâesefMeMe efkeâÙee~ GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘meneje’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
(c) ceQves yengle keâesefMeMe keâer~ 24. heCe&kegâšer
(d) ceQves yeÌ[er keâesefMeMe keâjer~ (a) hebÛeJešer (b) ØemeVelee
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ceQves yengle keâesefMeMe keâer’ Megæ (c) heòee (d) heòeeW mes yeveer kegâšer
JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘heCe&kegâšer’ keâe
17. Deepekeâue Ssmes efJeÅeeLeea keâce ner efceueles Les~ GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘heòeeW mes yeveer kegâšer’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
(a) Deepekeâue Ssmes efJeÅeeLeea keâce efceueles nQ~ 25. heÙe&Jemeeve
(b) Deepekeâue Ssmes efJeÅeeLeea keâce ner efceueles nQ~ (a) heefjOeeve (b) meceehle
(c) Deepekeâue Ssmes efJeÅeeLeea keâce nesles nQ~ (c) heÙee&JejCe (d) ØemlegleerkeâjCe
(d) Deepekeâue keâce efJeÅeeLeea Ssmes efceueles Les~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘heÙe&Jemeeve’ keâe
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Deepekeâue Ssmes efJeÅeeLeea keâce GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘meceehle Ùee Deble’ neslee nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
ner efceueles nQ~’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ 26. ce=efòekeâe
18. kegâmebieefle mes yegjs-yegjs kegâefJeÛeej ceve ceW G"les nQ~ (a) ce=le (b) efceóer
(a) kegâmebieefle ceW yegjs-yegjs ceve ceW kegâefJeÛeej G"les nQ~ (c) celÙe& (d) jsle
(b) kegâmebieefle mes yegjs efJeÛeej ceve ceW G"les nQ~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘ce=efòekeâe’ keâe
(c) yegjs mes yegjs kegâefJeÛeej kegâmebieefle ceW ceve ceW Deeles nQ~ GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘efceóer’ neslee nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
(d) kegâmebieefle yegjs-yegjs efJeÛeej ceve ceW G"elee nw~ 27. keâheeš
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘megmebieefle mes yegjs efJeÛeej ceve ceW (a) keâheš (b) keâ<š
G"les nQ’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (c) keâheesue (d) efkeâJeeÌ[
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi August, 2019 52 YCT
 Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘keâheeš’ keâe 36. DeBiet"e efoKeevee
GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘efkeâJeeÌ[’ neslee nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ (a) meeHeâ cevee keâj osvee (b) yengle Lekeâ peevee
28. keâe<" (c) DeefOekeâ cenòJe osvee (d) yegje DeeÛejCe keâjvee
(a) keâe<" (b) keâe" Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeBiet"e efoKeevee’ cegneJejs keâe
(c) keâef"ve (d) keâòe&JÙe
mener DeLe& nw– meeHeâ cevee keâj osvee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
37. DeeBKeeW ceW Keškeâvee
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘keâe<"’ keâe
(a) OeesKee osvee (b) yegje ueievee
GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘keâe"’ Ùee uekeâÌ[er’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ (c) nesMe ceW Deevee (d) Fvkeâej keâjvee
29. Ke[die Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeeBKeeW ceW Keškeâvee’ cegneJejs
(a) KeÌ[s-KeÌ[s (b) ieºe keâe mener DeLe& nw– yegje ueievee Ùee ÛegYevee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
(c) leueJeej (d) lespe 38. keâuespee cegBn keâes Deevee
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘Ke[die’ keâe (a) ueueÛeevee (b) lewÙeej nesvee
GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘leueJeej’ neslee nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ (c) yengle Ieyeje peevee (d) keâesefMeMe keâjvee
30. kegbâpej Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘keâuespee cegBn keâes Deevee’ cegneJejs
(a) kegbâpe (b) kegbâpeer keâe mener DeLe& nw– yengle Ieyeje peevee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(c) megj (d) neLeer 39. F&MJej keâes hÙeeje nesvee
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes lelmece Meyo ‘kegbâpej’ keâe (a) cej peevee (b) Yeefkeäle-YeeJe jKevee
GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘neLeer’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ (c) yengle efØeÙe nesvee (d) hetje keâjvee
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 31 mes 40 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele cegneJejeW kesâ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘F&MJej keâes hÙeeje nesvee’
efueS (a), (b), (c) Deewj (d) kesâ meeceves DeLe& efoS ieS nQ~ FveceW mes cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& nw– cej peevee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
40. Úkeäkesâ ÚgÌ[evee
GheÙegkeäle DeLe& keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
(a) yegjer lejn njevee (b) hejsMeeve keâjvee
31. šeš Guešvee
(c) peueevee (d) ueefppele keâjvee
(a) yeeOee osvee (b) F&<Ùee& keâjvee
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Úkeäkesâ ÚgÌ[evee’ cegneJejs keâe
(c) Ûeeheuetmeer keâjvee (d) efoJeeuee efvekeâuevee
mener DeLe& nw– yegjer lejn njevee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘šeš Guešvee’ cegneJejs keâe
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 41 mes 50 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙeeW ceW
mener DeLe& nw– efoJeeuee efvekeâuevee~ cegneJeje Gve JeekeäÙe Ùee JeekeäÙeebMe jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS (a), (b), (c) Deewj (d) kesâ meeceves Deueie-
keâes keânles nQ, pees Deheves MeyoeW keâe meeceevÙe DeLe& ve Øekeâš keâj Deueie Meyo efueKes ngS nQ~ Fve MeyoeW ceW mes GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo keâes
efJeue#eCe DeLe& Øekeâš keâjles nQ~ Ûegvekeâj Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
32. yeóe ueievee 41. cegPes mJeosMe mes DelÙeefOekeâ Øesce nw~
(a) Yeeie peevee (b) keâuebkeâ ueievee (a) hejosMe (b) cegukeâ
(c) njevee (d) ueeYe (c) osMe (d) efJeosMe
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘yeóe ueieevee’ cegneJejs keâe Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘mJeosMe’ keâe
mener DeLe& nw– keâuebkeâ ueievee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo ‘hejosMe’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
33. leejs leesÌ[ ueevee 42. nceW Deheves DeeÛejCe ceW Goej nesvee ÛeeefnS~
(a) meeLe ÚesÌ[vee (b) Yeeie peevee (a) Gæej (b) Thej
(c) yeÌ[e keâece keâj [euevee (d) yejeyej keâer škeäkeâj osvee (c) Devegoej (d) DeewoeÙe&
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Goej’ keâe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘leejs leesÌ[ ueevee’ cegneJejs keâe
GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo ‘Devegoej’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘Thej’ keâe efJeueesce
mener DeLe& nw– yeÌ[e keâece keâj [euevee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
‘veerÛes’ leLee ‘DeewoeÙe&’ keâe ‘DeveewoeÙe&’ neslee nw~
34. cegªer iece& keâjvee
43. jcesMe keâe Devegpe megjsMe yengle hÙeeje nw~
(a) efjMJele osvee (b) ke=âle%e nesvee
(a) De«epe (b) menesoj
(c) njevee (d) keâuebkeâ ueievee (c) Devetyee (d) YeeF&
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘cegªer iece& keâjvee’ cegneJejs keâe Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Devegpe’ keâe
mener DeLe& nw– efjMJele osvee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo ‘De«epe’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘menesoj’ keâe ‘DevÙeesoj’
35. vecekeâ nueeue nesvee leLee ‘YeeF&’ keâe ‘yenve’ neslee nw~
(a) ke=âleIve nesvee (b) Yeeie peevee 44. YeejleerÙeeW keâes hejueeskeâ keâer efÛeblee nesleer nw~
(c) DevegYeJeer nesvee (d) ke=âle%e nesvee (a) ueeskeâ (b) Fnueeskeâ
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘vecekeâ nueeue nesvee’ cegneJejs (c) celÙe&ueeskeâ (d) heeleeue ueeskeâ
keâe mener DeLe& nw– Ghekeâej ceeveves Jeeuee Ùee ke=âle%e nesvee~ Mes<e Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘hejueeskeâ’ keâe
efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo ‘Fnueeskeâ’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi August, 2019 53 YCT
45. nceW DeheÙeMe mes meÛesle jnvee ÛeeefnS~ 53. yegæerceefle
(a) efveboe (b) ØeMebmee (a) yegefæceleer (b) yegefæceefle
(c) ÙeMe (d) keâerefle& (c) yegefOeceefle (d) yegæerceleer
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘DeheÙeMe’ keâe Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘yegefæceleer’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee
GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo ‘ÙeMe’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘efveboe’ keâe efJeueesce ‘mlegefle’ Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
Ùee ‘ØeMebmee’ leLee ‘keâerefle&’ keâe ‘Dehekeâerefle&’ neslee nw~ 54. meJe&veeefcekeâ
46. osMe keâe Glkeâ<e& nceeje ue#Ùe nw~ (a) meJe&veeceerkeâ (b) meJe&veeefcekeâ
(a) GvveÙeve (b) efJekeâeme (c) MeJe&veeefcekeâ (d) meeJe&veeefcekeâ
(c) efJekeâ<e&Ce (d) Dehekeâ<e& Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘meeJe&veeefcekeâ’ Megæ Jele&veer
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Glkeâ<e&’ keâe Jeeuee Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
efJeueesce Meyo ‘Dehekeâ<e&’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘GvveÙeve’ keâe ‘DeJeveÙeve’, ‘efJekeâeme’ 55. GueuebIeve
keâe ‘Üeme’ leLee ‘efJekeâ<e&Ce’ keâe ‘Deekeâ<e&Ce’ efJeueesce Meyo nw~ (a) GuebIeve (b) GuueIeve
47. jcesMe meÛÛeefj$e nw, FmeefueS ueesie Gmes hemebo keâjles nQ~ (c) GuuebIeve (d) GuueeIeve
(a) Ûeefj$eJeeve (b) F&ceeveoej Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘GuuebIeve’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee
(c) og§eefj$e (d) veerefleJeeve Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘meÛÛeefj$e’ keâe 56. Deble&Évo
GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo ‘ogMÛeefj$e’ nw, ‘Ûeefj$eJeeve’ keâe efJeueesce (a) DebleÉ&o (b) Deble&ÉvÉ
‘Ûeefj$enerve’, ‘F&ceeveoej’ keâe ‘yesF&ceeve’ leLee ‘veerefleJeeve’ keâe (c) DebleÉvÉ (d) DebleÉ&vÉ
‘DeveerefleJeeve’ neslee nw~ Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DebleÉ&vÉ’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee
48. megceveeW keâer megiebOe ceveceesnkeâ nw~ Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
(a) ogieËOe (b) megjefYe 57. efjheexleepe
(c) meewiebOe (d) cekeâjbo (a) efjheeslee&pe (b) efjheesleepe&
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘megiebOe’ keâe (c) efjhelee&pe (d) jerheeslee&pe
GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo ‘ogieËOe’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efjheeslee&pe’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee
49. Oeeje kesâ Devegketâue yenvee Deemeeve neslee nw~ Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
(a) Devegmeej (b) Devegieeceer 58. DeÉerefleÙe
(c) Øeefleketâue (d) DevegkeâjCe (a) DeefÉefleÙe (b) DeÉerleerÙe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Devegketâue’ keâe (c) DeefÉleerÙe (d) DeÉefleÙe
GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo ‘Øeefleketâue’ nw, peyeefkeâ Devegieeceer keâe efJeueesce Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeefÉleerÙe’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee
De«eieeceer neslee nw~ Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
50. efkeâmeer Yeer Jemleg keâe GefÛele cetuÙeeÙeve nesvee ÛeeefnS~ 59. yengef›eefn
(a) keâercele (b) DeJecetuÙeeÙeve (a) yentef›eefn (b) yengefyeÇefn
(c) cetuÙeebkeâve (d) hejer#eCe (c) yeng›eerefn (d) yeng›eerner
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘cetuÙeeÙeve’ keâe Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘yeng›eerefn’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee
GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo ‘DeJecetuÙeeÙeve’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 51 mes 60 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele DeMegæ 60. Yeesieesefuekeâ
MeyoeW kesâ efueS (a), (b), (c) Deewj (d) kesâ meeceves Deueie-Deueie Meyo efoS (a) Yeesieewefuekeâ (b) Yeewieesefuekeâ
ieS nQ~ FveceW mes Megæ Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ (c) Yeewieefuekeâ (d) Yeewieewefuekeâ
51. nslet-nslegceodYegle Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Yeewieesefuekeâ’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee
(a) nsleg-nslegceodYetle (b) nsleg-nslegYetle Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
(c) nslet-nsletceodYetle (d) nsleg-nslegceodYegle efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 61 mes 70 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙe Ùee
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘nsleg-nslegceodYetle’ Megæ Jele&veer JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej Meyo efoS ieS nQ~ FveceW mes GheÙegkeäle Meyo
Jeeuee Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej-hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
52. hegefuebie 61. hetpee keâjves kesâ ÙeesiÙe
(a) hegefuuebie (b) hegbefueie (a) hetpÙeveerÙe (b) hetpÙeJeeve
(c) hegefuueËie (d) hetefuue&ie (c) hetefpele (d) hetpeveerÙe
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘hegefuuebie’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘hetpee keâjves kesâ ÙeesiÙe’ JeekeäÙeebMe
Meyo nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘hetpeveerÙe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi August, 2019 54 YCT
62. efpemekeâe DeeÛejCe DeÛÚe nes efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 71 mes 80 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele ØelÙeskeâ
(a) DeeÛejCeJeeuee (b) JÙeeJeneefjkeâ JeekeäÙe ceW Skeâ Meyo jsKeebefkeâle nw~ ØelÙeskeâ jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS (a),
(c) keâoeÛeejer (d) meoeÛeejer (b), (c) Deewj (d) kesâ meeceves Skeâ-Skeâ Meyo efueKee ieÙee nw~ FveceW mes,
Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpemekeâe DeeÛejCe DeÛÚe nes’ jsKeebefkeâle Meyo mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes, GheÙegkeäle efJekeâuhe Ûegvekeâj Gòej-
JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘meoeÛeejer’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
nQ~ 71. jepee jececeesnve jeÙe ves Ùegie ØeJele&ve efkeâÙee nw~
63. efpemekeâe mebyebOe heefMÛece mes nes (a) efJekeâeme (b) heefjJele&ve
(a) heefMÛeceer (b) hejosMeer (c) DeejcYe (d) meceehle
(c) efJeosMeer (d) hee§eelÙe Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpemekeâe mecyevOe heefMÛece mes nes’ ‘ØeJele&ve’ keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘DeejcYe’ nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee–
JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘heeMÛeelÙe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ jepee jececeesnve jeÙe ves Ùegie DeejcYe efkeâÙee nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
64. efpeme hej efJeMJeeme ve efkeâÙee pee mekesâ 72. ‘‘MueLe keâjes Oeveg<e keâer [esjer~’’
(a) DeefJeMJemeveerÙe (b) DeefJeMJeemeer (a) {erueer (b) leveer
(c) efJeMJeemeIeeleer (d) efJeÕeemenblee (c) štš (d) MJesle
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpeme hej efJeMJeeme ve efkeâÙee Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
pee mekesâ’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘DeefJeMJemeveerÙe’ nesiee~ Mes<e ‘MueLe’ keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘{erueer’ nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe
efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ nesiee– ‘‘{erueer keâjes Oeveg<e keâer [esjer~’’ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
65. pees henues nes Ûegkeâe nes 73. veYe ceW meewoeefceveer [jeJeveer ueieleer nw~
(a) hetJe&Jeled (b) Deeieeceer (a) ve#e$e (b) Je»eheele
(c) henuee (d) YetlehetJe& (c) iepe&ve (d) efyepeueer
Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘pees henues nes Ûegkeâe nes’ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘YetlehetJe&’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ ‘meewoeefceveer’ keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘efyepeueer’ nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe
66. efpemeceW mebosn ve nes nesiee– veYe ceW efyepeueer [jeJeveer ueieleer nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
(a) Demebosn (b) efJemebosn 74. mHeâefškeâ efMeuee mes cetefle&ÙeeB yeveleer nQ~
(c) efvemmebosn (d) efvemebosn (a) megboj (b) Ûecekeâoej
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpemeceW mebosn ve nes’ JeekeäÙeebMe (c) cetuÙeJeeve (d) mhe<š
kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘efvemmebosn’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
67. pees Deheves Øeefle efkeâS ieS Ghekeâej keâes ceeves ‘mHeâefškeâ’ keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘Ûecekeâoej’ nw~ Meyo Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe
(a) ke=âle%e (b) ke=âleIve nesiee– Ûecekeâoej efMeuee mes cetefle&ÙeeB yeveleer nQ~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
(c) Deke=âle%e (d) Ghekeâejer 75. efvemmebie peerJeve og:Keo neslee nw~
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘pees Deheves Øeefle efkeâÙes ieÙes (a) Dekesâuee (b) meecetefnkeâ
Ghekeâej keâes ceeves’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘ke=âle%e’ nesiee~ Mes<e (c) efveOe&ve (d) efve®òej
efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
68. peeveves keâer FÛÚe jKeves Jeeuee ‘efvemmebie’ keâe GheÙeg&keäle DeLe& ‘Dekesâuee’ nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe
(a) efpe%eemee (b) efpeieer<ee nesiee– Dekesâuee peerJeve og:Keo neslee nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
(c) %eelee (d) efpe%eemeg 76. veeJe mes veoer heej efkeâÙee pee mekeâlee nw~
Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘peeveves keâer FÛÚe jKeves Jeeuee’ (a) lejefCe (b) lejCeer
JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘efpe%eemeg’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ (c) le®Ceer (d) leeefjCeer
69. pees ve<š nesves Jeeuee nes Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
(a) efJeve<š (b) veMJej ‘veeJe’ keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘lejCeer’ nw~ Fme Øekeâej GheÙegkeäle JeekeäÙe nesiee–
(c) ve<š (d) efJeveeMe lejCeer mes veoer heej efkeâÙee pee mekeâlee nw~ Mes<e JeekeäÙe Demebiele nQ~
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘pees ve<š nesves Jeeuee nes’ JeekeäÙeebMe 77. kegâheLÙe mes yeerceej nesves keâer mecYeeJevee yeveer jnleer nw~
kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘veMJej’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ (a) kegâheLe (b) keâheš
70. pees DeeBKeeW kesâ meeceves nes (c) keâjleye (d) DevegefÛele Yeespeve
(a) ØelÙe#e (b) hejes#e Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
(c) DeØelÙe#e (d) Dehejes#e ‘kegâheLÙe’ keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘DevegefÛele Yeespeve’ nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘pees DeeBKeeW kesâ meeceves nes’ JeekeäÙeebMe JeekeäÙe nesiee– DevegefÛele Yeespeve mes yeerceej nesves keâer mecYeeJevee yeveer
kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘ØelÙe#e’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ jnleer nw~ Mes<e JeekeäÙe Demebiele nQ~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi August, 2019 55 YCT
78. Debpeve keâ<š menves keâer Deeoer nw~ Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle DeJelejCe kesâ Devegmeej Ùegæ mes efJecegKe neskeâj
(a) DeYÙemle (b) FlÙeeefo nce %eeve Je efJe%eeve keâer meleled Øeieefle mes efJekeâefmele meceepe keâe efvecee&Ce
(c) Deeefo (d) yegjer Deeole keâj mekeâles nQ~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo 84. ceveg<Ùelee kesâ veece hej ØeeLe&vee keâer ieF& nw
‘Deeoer’ keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘DeYÙemle’ nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe (a) Ùegæ meceehle keâjves keâer
nesiee– Debpeve keâ<š menves keâer DeYÙemle nw~ Mes<e JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~ (b) ceeveJelee keâes ner Ùeeo jKeves keâer
79. ‘‘Dejeefle mewvÙe-efmevOeg ceW megJee[Jeeefive mes peuees~’’ (c) meceepe kesâ efvecee&Ce keâer
(a) mesvee (b) Me$eg (d) %eeve-efJe%eeve keâer Øeieefle keâer
(c) Ùegæ (d) mesveeOÙe#e Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle DeJelejCe kesâ Devegmeej ceveg<Ùelee kesâ veece hej
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo Ùen ØeeLe&vee keâer ieF& nw, efkeâ nce meye kegâÚ Yetuekeâj kesâJeue Deheveer
‘Dejeefle’ keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& ‘Me$eg’ nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– ceeveJelee keâes Ùeeo jKeW~ keäÙeeWefkeâ ceeveJelee mes ner nceejs ceneve YeefJe<Ùe
‘‘Me$eg mewvÙe-efmebOeg ceW megJee[Jeeefive mes peuees~’’ keâe jemlee Kegue peeÙesiee Deewj nce Øeieefle kesâ jemles hej Ûeue heÌ[sies~
80. DeJeueeskeâve keâe DeLe& nw 85. Ùegæ nesves keâe cegKÙe keâejCe nw
(a) nBmevee (b) jesvee (a) nce Ùegæ Ûeenles nQ
(c) hegueefkeâle nesvee (d) osKevee (b) Ùegæ Jeerjlee keâe efÛeÖ nw
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘DeJeueeskeâve’ keâe DeLe& nw– (c) Ùegæ mes YeefJe<Ùe efveefce&le neslee nw
osKevee~ Mes<e JeekeäÙe Demebiele nQ~ (d) nce Deheves PeieÌ[s meceehle keâjves ceW DemeceLe& nQ
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 81 mes 85 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele DeJelejCe Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle DeJelejCe kesâ Devegmeej Ùegæ nesves keâe cegKÙe
OÙeevehetJe&keâ heefÌ{S Deewj hetÚs ieS ØeMveeW kesâ mener efJekeâuhe Ûegvekeâj Gòej- keâejCe nce Deheves PeieÌ[s meceehle keâjves ceW DemeceLe& nw~ Ùeefo nce Ùegæ
hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS : mes efJecegKe nes peeles nQ lees Skeâ Ssmes meceepe keâe efvecee&Ce keâjves ceW
Deepe nceejs Jele&ceeve Ùegie keâer Ssmeer GuePeve Yejer, ogmmeeOÙe Deewj YeÙeevekeâ me#ece neWies, pees %eeve Je efJe%eeve mes meleled Øeieefle keâj jne nesiee~
mecemÙee GheefmLele nw, efpememes yeÛee veneR pee mekeâlee~ keäÙee nce meoe kesâ efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 86 mes 90 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele keâeJÙeebMe
efueS Ùegæ yebo keâjves keâer Iees<eCee keâj mekeâles nQ Ùee Fmekesâ efJehejerle nce OÙeevehetJe&keâ heefÌ{S Deewj hetÚs ieÙes ØeMveeW kesâ mener efJekeâuhe Ûegvekeâj Gòej-
ceveg<Ùe peeefle keâes mecetue ve° keâjvee Ûeenles nQ? Ùeefo nce meowJe kesâ efueS hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS :
Ùegæ mes efJecegKe nes peeles nQ, lees nce Skeâ Ssmes megKeer meceepe keâe efvecee&Ce efJeIveeW keâes ieues ueieeles nQ, keâeBšeW ceW jen yeveeles nQ~
keâj mekeâles nQ, efpemeceW %eeve Je efJe%eeve keâer meleled Øeieefle nes jner nw~ keäÙee nw keâewve efJeIve Ssmee peie ceW? efškeâ mekesâ Deeoceer kesâ ceie ceW?
Fme mJeieeaÙe Deevebo kesâ yeoues efJeveeMekeâ ce=lÙeg keâes nce FmeefueS Ûeenles Kece "eWkeâ "suelee nw peye vej, heJe&le kesâ peeles heeBJe GKeÌ[
nQ, keäÙeeWefkeâ nce Deheves PeieÌ[s meceehle veneR keâj mekeâles? nce ceveg<Ùe nesves ceeveJe peye peesj ueieelee nw, helLej heeveer yeve peelee nw~
kesâ veeles ceveg<Ùelee kesâ veece hej Ùen ØeeLe&vee keâjles nQ efkeâ Deehe meye kegâÚ iegCe yeÌ[s Skeâ-mes-Skeâ ØeKej, nQ efÚhes ceeveJeeW kesâ Yeerlej
Yetuekeâj kesâJeue Deheveer ceeveJelee keâes Ùeeo jKeW~ Ùeefo Deehe Ùen keâj ceWnoer ceW pewmes ueeueer nes, Jeefle&keâe yeerÛe GefpeÙeeueer nes
mekeâles nQ, lees efveMÛeÙe ner veS Je ceneve YeefJe<Ùe kesâ efueS jemlee Keguee nw yeòeer pees veneR peueelee nw, jesMeveer veneR Jen heelee nw~
efkeâvleg Ùeefo Deehekeâes Ùen cebpetj veneR nw, lees Deehekesâ meeceves ceeveJe-cee$e hesje peelee peye FÕeg ob[, Pejleer jme keâer Oeeje DeKeb[
keâer ce=lÙeg keâe mebkeâš GheefmLele nw~ ceWnoer peye menleer nw Øenej, yeveleer ueueveeDeeW keâe efmebieej
81. GheÙeg&keäle DeJelejCe keâe GheÙegòeâ Meer<e&keâ nw peye Hetâue efhejesS peeles nQ, nce Fvekeâes ieues ueieeles nQ~
(a) Ùegæ–Skeâ YeÙebkeâj mecemÙee (b) ceeveJelee keâer ØeeLe&vee 86. efJeheefòe Deeves hej [jves Jeeuee JÙeefkeäle neslee nw
(c) megKeer meceepe keâe efvecee&Ce (d) DeeDees Ùegæ keâjW (a) keâeÙej (b) Jeerj
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle DeJelejCe keâe GheÙegkeäle Meer<e&keâ nw– megKeer (c) efve[j (d) meenmeer
meceepe keâe efvecee&Ce~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle keâeJÙeebMe kesâ Devegmeej efJeheefòe Deeves hej [jves Jeeuee
82. Deepe nceejs mece#e YeÙeevekeâ mecemÙee nw JÙeefkeäle keâeÙej neslee nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ pees MetjJeerj nesles nQ Jes efkeâleveer Yeer yeÌ[er
(a) ceeveJe-peeefle kesâ veeMe keâer (b) efJeveeMekeâejer Ùegæ keâer mecemÙee keäÙeeW ve nes, GmeceW Yeer Deheves efueS jemlee yevee ner uesles nQ~
(c) Ùegæ mes efJecegKe nesves keâer (d) meceepe kesâ efvecee&Ce keâer 87. keâeJÙeebMe kesâ Devegmeej Jes JÙeefkeäle ner Jeerj keânueeles nQ, pees
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle DeJelejCe kesâ Devegmeej Deepe nceejs mece#e (a) meyekeâer meneÙelee keâes meoe lewÙeej jnles nQ
YeÙeevekeâ mecemÙee ceeveJe peeefle kesâ veeMe keâer nw~ Ùeefo nce meowJe kesâ (b) efJeheefòe keâe [škeâj cegkeâeyeuee keâjles nQ
efueS Ùegæ mes efJecegKe veneR nes peeles, lees ceeveJe peeefle keâe DeefmlelJe (c) efJeheefòe Deeves hej efJeÛeefuele veneR nesles Deewj OewÙe& veneR Keesles
Kelce nes peeÙesiee~ (d) Øeke=âefle keâe meecevee keâjves mes veneR Ûetkeâles
83. Ùegæ mes efyecegKe neskeâj nce efvecee&Ce keâj mekeâles nQ Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle keâeJÙeebMe kesâ Devegmeej Jes JÙeefkeäle ner Jeerj
(a) megKeer ceeveJe-meceepe keâe
keânueeles nQ, pees efJeheefòe Deeves hej efJeÛeefuele veneR nesles Deewj OewÙe& mes
(b) heefjJeej-pewmes meceepe keâe
Gmekeâe cegkeâeyeuee keâjles nQ~ peye nce efJeheefòeÙeeW keâe meecevee keâjWies leYeer
(c) %eeve-efJe%eeve mes efJekeâefmele meceepe keâe
Gmes nje heeÙeWies, keäÙeeWefkeâ efyeve Kego peues keâYeer Gpeeuee veneR efkeâÙee pee
(d) Yeso-YeeJe jefnle meceepe keâe
mekeâlee~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi August, 2019 56 YCT
88. ‘heJe&le kesâ peeles heeBJe GKeÌ[’ keâe DeeMeÙe nw keâ=heÙee Deheves meeLe Skeâ Lewuee ueeves keâer keâ=hee keâjsW~
(a) ceeveJe yengle leekeâleJej nw 94.
(a) (b) (c)
(b) ceeveJe heJe&leeW keâes leesÌ[-HeâesÌ[ oslee nw
(c) ceeveJe kesâ efueS kegâÚ Yeer DemecYeJe veneR nw
keâesF& $egefš venerR~
(d) ceeveJe kesâ efueS meye kegâÚ mecYeJe nw (d)
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle keâeJÙeebMe kesâ Devegmeej ‘heJe&le kesâ peeles heeBJe Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe keâe Megæ ¤he nesiee–Deheves meeLe Skeâ
GKeÌ[’ keâe DeeMeÙe nw efkeâ ceeveJe yengle leekeâleJej nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ Deiej Lewuee ueeves keâer ke=âhee keâjW~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Skeâ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘ke=âheÙee’ leLee
ceveg<Ùe kegâÚ keâjves keâer "eve ues Deewj Gmes hetje keâjves kesâ efueS peceerve ‘ke=âhee’ Meyo keâe ØeÙeesie Skeâ meeLe veneR efkeâÙee peelee nw~
Deemeceeve Skeâ keâj os lees Gmekeâe Gme keâeÙe& ceW meHeâue nesvee leÙe nw~ DeefMJeveer yeeyet Deheves meheefjJeej keâs meeLe heOeejsWies~
89. keâefJe ceWnoer keâer ueeueer Deewj Jeefle&keâe keâer GefpeÙeeueer kesâ 95.
(a) (b) (c)
Éeje mhe<š keâjvee Ûeenlee nw keâesF& $egefš venerR~
(a) ceeveJe ceW efÚhes oes<eeW keâes (b) ceeveJe ceW efÚhes iegCeeW keâes
(d)
(c) ceeveJe ceW efÚhes jnmÙe keâes (d) ceeveJe ceW efÚhes lespe keâes
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle keâeJÙeebMe kesâ Devegmeej keâefJe ceWnoer keâer ueeueer
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Deheves meheefjJeej kesâ meeLe’ DeMegæ
Deewj Jeefle&keâe keâer GefpeÙeeueer kesâ Éeje mhe<š keâjvee Ûeenlee nw efkeâ DebMe nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘meheefjJeej’ ceW meeLe nesvee Meeefceue nw~ Fme Øekeâej
ceeveJe ceW iegCe Skeâ mes yeÌ{keâj Skeâ nw uesefkeâve Jes ueesie Gve iegCeeW keâes Megæ JeekeäÙe nw– DeefMJeveer yeeyet meheefjJeej heOeejWies~
keâece ceW veneR uesles, pewmes ceWnoer mes ueeue jbie leYeer efvekeâuelee nw, peye Keóer oner Keevee mesnlecebo veneRr nw~
96.
Jen helLej hej jieÌ[e peelee nw Deewj Jeefle&keâe ceW Gpeeuee leYeer efvekeâuelee nw, (a) (b) (c)
peye Gmes peueeÙee peelee nw~ Gmeer Øekeâej ceeveJe ceW iegCe leYeer yeenj Deeles keâesF& $egefš venerR~
nQ, peye Gmes Øekeâš efkeâÙee peeÙes~ veneR lees Jes jnmÙe ner yeves jnles nQ~ (d)
90. ‘Hetâue’ Deewj ‘keâeBšs’ Øeleerkeâ nQ
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Keóer oner’ DeMegæ DebMe nw~ ÙeneB
(a) megKe Deewj ogKe kesâ (b) Me$eg Deewj efce$e kesâ
efuebie mecyevOeer DeMegefæ nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘oner’ hegefuebie Meyo nw~ Fme Øekeâej
(c) Oetle& Deewj meppeve kesâ (d) efJejesOeer Deewj meneÙekeâ kesâ
Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– Keóe oner Keevee mesnlecebo veneR nw~
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle keâeJÙeebMe kesâ Devegmeej ‘Hetâue’ Deewj ‘keâeBšs’
‘megKe’ Deewj ‘og:Ke’ kesâ Øeleerkeâ nQ~ cegPes ØesceÛebo keâer keâneefveÙeeB yengle hemebo nwQ~
97.
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 91 mes 100 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙeeW keâes (a) (b) (c)
meeJeOeeveer mes heÌ{ves kesâ yeeo DeMegæ DebMe keâer henÛeeve keâjkesâ (a), (b), keâesF& $egefš venerR~
(c) ceW mes $egefš mes mecyeefvOele De#ej keâes Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efueefKeS~ Ùeefo (d)
keâesF& $egefš veneR nw, lees (d) kesâ ceeOÙece mes metefÛele keâerefpeS~ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW keâesF& $egefš veneR nw~ Dele: Ùen JeekeäÙe
efJepeÙekeâgceej meb«eneueÙe DeJeMÙecesJe peeÙesWies~ ‘cegPes ØesceÛebo keâer keâneefveÙeeB yengle hemebo nQ~’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~
91.
(a) (b) (c) cewQves megyen MeJe šnueles osKee~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
98.
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ (a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘MeJe šnueles osKee’ DebMe ceW ›eâce
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘peeÙeWies’ DeMegæ Meyo nw~ Fmekesâ mecyevOeer DeMegefæ nw~ Fmekesâ mLeeve hej GheÙegkeäle Meyo ‘šnueles ngS
mLeeve hej ‘peeSbies’ Meyo GheÙegkeäle nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe MeJe osKee’ nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– ceQves megyen šnueles
nesiee– efJepeÙekegâceej meb«eneueÙe DeJeMÙecesJe peeSbies~ ngS MeJe osKee~
Deehe Dehevee keâece keâjes~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ cewQves keâeiepe hej nmlee#ej keâj efoÙee~
92. 99.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c)
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘keâjes’ Meyo ceW JeÛeve mecyevOeer keâesF& $egefš venerR~
DeMegefæ nw~ Fmekesâ mLeeve hej ‘keâjW’ Meyo GheÙegkeäle nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej (d)
Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– Deehe Dehevee keâece keâjW~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘nmlee#ej keâj efoÙee’ DebMe ceW JeÛeve
jbpeve ÙeLeeMeefòeâ keâs Devegmeej keâece keâjsiee~ mecyevOeer DeMegefæ nw~ keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘nmlee#ej’ meowJe yengJeÛeve ceW ØeÙeesie
93. efkeâÙee peelee nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– ceQves keâeiepe hej
(a) (b) (c)
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ nmlee#ej keâj efoS~
(d) ome Deeoceer keâs efueS Keevee nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
100.
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘ÙeLeeMeefkeäle kesâ Devegmeej’ Meyo ceW (a) (b) (c) (d)
meceeme mecyevOeer DeMegefæ nw~ Fmekesâ mLeeve hej ‘Meefkeäle kesâ Devegmeej’ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘ome Deeoceer’ DebMe ceW DeLe&
ØeÙegkeäle nesvee ÛeeefnS~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– jbpeve Meefkeäle kesâ mecyevOeer DeMegefæ nw~ Fmekesâ mLeeve hej ‘ome JÙeefkeäleÙeeW’ nesvee ÛeeefnS~
Devegmeej keâece keâjsiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– ome JÙeefkeäleÙeeW kesâ efueS Keevee nw~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi August, 2019 57 YCT
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2017
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical) Mains
GENERAL ENGLISH (PAPER-II)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Exam Date : 5 August, 2019

Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 20) : Read each of the Ans: (c) GheÙeg&òeâ Sentence ceW 'who is likes' kesâ mLeeve hej
following sentences to find out whether there is an error
'who like' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe keâe Subject 'I' nw
in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one
error. If you feel there is no error in a sentence, signify leLee Fmeer kesâ Devegmeej plural Verb (like) keâe ØeÙeesie Yeer Gmeer kesâ
a 'No error' response. Devegmeej nesiee~
The United States has withdrawn Correct Sentence–
1.
(a) (b) I am the sort of person, who like peace and quiet.
its ambassador. No error My friend wears shorts
(c) (d) 5.
(a) (b)
Ans: (d) No error.
even though in winter. No error
Note– kegâÚ Nouns efpevekesâ Deble ceW 's' ueiee ngDee neslee nw Jes (c) (d)
efoKeves ceW Plural ueieles nQ hejbleg JeemleefJekeâ ™he mes Gvekeâe ØeÙeesie
Singular ceW neslee nw~ Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW 'even though' kesâ mLeeve hej
kesâJeue 'even' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~
pewmes– United States, Arabian Nights, Billiards etc. Dele:
Correct Sentence–
Helping Verb 'Has' keâe ØeÙeesie ner GefÛele nesiee~
My friend wears shorts even in winter.
Driving along the road,
2. He is in a fix; he cannot either leave his job
(a) 6.
the church is appear (a) (b)
(b) nor do it well. No error
on our left. No error (c) (d)
(c) (d) Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW 'cannot either' kesâ mLeeve hej
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe YeeJeevegmeej Passive ceW nesiee Dele: 'is 'Neither' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Neither …… kesâ
appear' kesâ mLeeve hej 'is appeared' keâe ØeÙeesie ner GefÛele nesiee~ meeLe Nor keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
Passive Structure– Correct Sentence–
Sub + H.V. + V3 form + Other words He is in a fix, he neither leave his job, nor do it well.
Correct sentence– People with income less than two
Driving along the road, the church is appeared on our 7. (a)
left. lakh rupees per annum
Neither the teacher nor the pupils
3. should be exempted
(a) (b)
(b)
understand the problem. No error
to having to pay income tax. No error
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
Ans: (d) No error
Note– peye Neither ….. Nor mes pegÌ[er Skeâ Noun Singular Ans: (c) GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW Exempted kesâ yeeo Preposition
leLee Skeâ Plural nes lees Plural Noun keâes Verb kesâ vepeoerkeâ 'From' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Exempt from something – efkeâmeer
jKeles nQ leLee Gmeer kesâ Devegmeej Verb keâe ØeÙeesie keâjles nQ~ Ûeerpe mes Útš heevee~
I am the sort of person Correct Sentence–
4. People with income less than two lakh rupees per
(a) (b)
who is likes peace and quiet. No error annum should be exempted from having to pay
(c) (d) income tax.

BPSC AE Gen. English August, 2019 58 YCT

 I not only makes errors, Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (B) ceW needs kesâ mLeeve hej
8.
(a) (b) need keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe keâe Subject 'Students'
but also do not admit them. No error plural nw Dele: Verb Yeer Plural nesieer~
(c) (d) Correct Sentence–
All the students need to bring their grammar book
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe keâe Sub. 'I' plural nw Dele: Verb keâe tomorrow.
ØeÙeesie Yeer 'I' kesâ Devegmeej Plural ner nesiee~ Dele: makes kesâ mLeeve We shot at the enemy plane
hej 'make' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ 13.
(a) (b)
Correct Sentence– but missed the mark. No error
I not only make errors, but also do not admit them. (c) (d)
The officer lives at a large bungalow Ans: (d) No error.
9.
(a) (b) Note- Shoot (shot) → at → something/somebody.
at the end of the street. No error Can you stey with us
14.
(c) (d) (a) (b)
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW ‘jnves kesâ efueÙes’ Preposition to a few more days. No error
'in' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Dele: 'at' keâer peien 'in' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ (c) (d)
Correct Sentence– Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ Part (C) ceW 'to' kesâ mLeeve hej
The officer lives in a large bungalow at the end of the 'for' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ for (efueÙes) JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS
street. GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
On a foreign tour, players have to Correct Sentence–
10. Can you stay with us for a few more days?
(a) (b)
adapt with the changed climatic conditions. I has not visited my school
15.
(a) (b)
(c)
since I completed my schooling. No error
No error
(c) (d)
(d)
Ans: (a) GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe keâe Subject 'I' plural nw Dele: Gmeer kesâ
Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ Part (C) ceW adapt kesâ yeeo
Devegmeej Plural Verb 'Have' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
Reflexive Pronoun 'Themselves' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
Present Perfect Tense Structure–
Note– Adapt, Absent, Avail etc, Fve Words kesâ yeeo Sub. + Has/Have + V3 Form + Other words
meeceevÙele: Reflexive pronoun keâe use keâjvee DeeJeMÙekeâ neslee Correct Sentence–
nw~ Ùeefo Gvekesâ yeeo keâesF& object ve DeeÙee nes~ I have not visited my school since I completed my
Correct Sentence– On a foreign tour, players have to schooling.
adapt themselves with the changed climatic Anand, India's chess wizard,
16.
conditions. (a) (b)
I met with the real estate agent thinks extremely fastly. No error
11. (c) (d)
(a) (b)
which you recommended. No error Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW 'fastly' kesâ mLeeve hej 'fast' keâe ØeÙeesie
(c) (d) GefÛele nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ fast, Adjective leLee Adverb oesvees ™he ceW
ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ Part (C) ceW which keâer peien
Correct Sentence–
'whom' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ which keâe ØeÙeesie 'Non Anand, India's chess wizard, thinks extremely fast
living thing' kesâ efueÙes keâjles nQ leLee whom (efkeâmekeâe) keâe ØeÙeesie We have rare seen
Objective Case ceW keâjles nQ~ 17.
(a) (b)
Correct Sentence– such a good performance before. No error
I met with the real estate agent whom you (c) (d)
recommended.
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ Part (B) ceW 'Rare' kesâ mLeeve
All the students needs to bring
12. hej Rarely keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ Rarely – MeeÙeo ner
(a) (b)
keâYeer/cegefMkeâue mes~
their grammar book tomorrow. No error Correct Sentence–
(c) (d) We have rarely seen such a good performance before.
BPSC AE Gen. English August, 2019 59 YCT
 When my friends arrive I was Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW frowned kesâ mLeeve hej Serious
18.
(a) (b) angry or worried expression was shown keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
making tea. No error 23. We went by train and come back by airplane.
(c) (d) (a) coming back (b) had coming back
(c) came back (d) No improvement
Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ Sentence YeeJeevegmeej Past tense ceW nw Dele:
Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence YeeJeevegmeej Past tense ceW nw Dele:
Part (A) ceW Arrive kesâ mLeeve hej Arrived keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
Correct Sentence– Come back kesâ mLeeve hej Fmekeâe Past form, Came back keâe
When my friends arrived, I was making tea. ØeÙeesie nesiee~
When I said "the Mahatma", I am Correct Sentence–
19. We went by train and came back by airplane.
(a) (b)
24. Though I have written her a letter, I am not
refer to Gandhi. No error expect a reply back in writing.
(c) (d) (a) have not expect (b) have no expecting
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Sentence YeeJeevegmeej Past ceW nw Dele: Part (c) am not expecting (d) No improvement
(B) ceW 'am' kesâ mLeeve hej 'was' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW am not expect kesâ mLeeve hej
Correct Sentence– am not expecting keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~
When I said, 'the Mahatma', I was refer to Gandhi. Correct Sentence–
They may have Though, I have written her a letter, I am not expecting
20. a reply back in writing.
(a) (b)
25. I want to write a novel in the next one year.
be prepared for war. No error
(a) must write (b) to have write
(c) (d) (c) to have been written (d) No improvement
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW 'may' kesâ mLeeve hej 'might' keâe Ans: (d) No improvement.
ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Sentence YeeJeevegmeej Past tense ceW Note– Infinitive 'to' kesâ meeLe verbI keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
nw~ 26. I need a hammer to fix a nail. Do you have
Correct Sentence– some?
They might have be prepared for war. (a) more than some (b) many more
Sentence Improvement (c) any (d) No improvement
Directions (Q. Nos. 21 to 40) : Below each of the Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence keâe Second Part Interrogative
following sentences three possible substitutes are given nw Dele: Some kesâ mLeeve hej Any keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
for the underlined part. If one of them is better than the Correct Sentence–
underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer- I need a hammer to fix a nail. Do you have any?
Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If 27. We love to buying old furniture.
none of the substitutes improves the sentence, indicate (a) to be buying (b) to bought
(d) as your response on the Answer-Sheet. (c) to buy (d) No improvement
21. My actual involvement with the project itself Ans: (c) GheÙeg&òeâ Sentence ceW to buying kesâ mLeeve hej to
was negligible really.
buy keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Infinitive 'to' kesâ meeLe Verb keâer
(a) a lot of involvement
(b) real / true involvement Ist form keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
(c) too little involvement Correct Sentence–
(d) No improvement We love to buy old furniture.
Ans: (b) GheÙeg&òeâ Sentence ceW 'actual involvement' kesâ 28. You always know what I am thinking.
(a) had knew (b) knowing
mLeeve hej YeeJeevegmeej Real/true involvement keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ (c) had been know (d) No improvement
Correct Sentence–
Ans: (d) No improvement.
My Real/true involvement with the project itself was
negligible really. 29. The railway station is just round the corner.
22. She frowned at the suggestion and went (a) in the corner
(b) is far off the corner
rather pale.
(c) is just nearby
(a) serious, angry or worried expression was
(d) No improvement
shown
(b) approved and accepted Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW round the corner kesâ mLeeve
(c) very happy and joyous feeling was shown hej is just nearby keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~
(d) No improvement The railway station is just nearby.
BPSC AE Gen. English August, 2019 60 YCT
30. Obviously, I am need a lot of training to start 36. Very few people want to help others these
the new job. days, don't they?
(a) am going to need (a) doesn't they
(b) am have to need (b) will not they
(c) am will have to need (c) should not they
(d) No improvement (d) No improvement
Ans: (a) GheÙeg&òeâ Sentence ceW am need kesâ mLeeve hej am Ans: (d) No improvement.
going to need keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ 37. At this time of crisis why do you fight to each
Correct Sentence– other?
Obviously, I am going to need a lot of training to start (a) are fighting to (b) have fight to
the new job. (c) fight with (d) No improvement
31. Which of these two photos do you think is the Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW YeeJeevegmeej ‘Skeâ otmejs mes ueÌ[ves’
best? kesâ Sense ceW fight with keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
(a) a best (b) an best Correct Sentence–
(c) the bestest (d) No improvement At this time of crisis why do you fight with each
Ans: (d) No improvement. other.
32. She could not went to the aquarium to see the 38. The manager says the candidates to stand in a
aquatic animals. queue.
(a) could not going (b) could go (a) asked the candidates
(c) could not go (d) No improvement (b) saying to the candidates
Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW tense kesâ efveÙeceevegmeej could (c) tell the candidates
not went kesâ mLeeve hej could not go keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ (d) No improvement
keäÙeeWefkeâ modal verb kesâ yeeo verbI keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW 'says the candidate' kesâ mLeeve
Correct Sentence– hej YeeJeevegmeej 'asked the candidates' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~
She could not go to the aquarium to see the aquatic Correct Sentence–
animals. The manager asked the candidates to stand in a queue.
33. Nandita went to the basin for washing her 39. "Well done for playing so well", the coach
hands. said to his players.
(a) to wash (b) to be washing (a) The coach said you are well done to his
(c) should be washing (d) No improvement
players.
Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW for washing kesâ mLeeve hej 'to (b) The coach says to his players that well done.
wash' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ (c) The coach complimented the players on
Correct Sentence– playing well.
Nandita went to the basin to wash her hands. (d) No improvement
34. When I went to the party last night, I not Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence keâes efJekeâuhe (c) 'The coach
recognize my uncle. complimented the players on playing well' mes
(a) no recognizing
Substitute keâjvee GefÛele nesiee~
(b) could not at all recognize
(c) was not recogniing Correct Sentence–
(d) No improvement The coach complimented the players on playing well.
Ans (b) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW not recognize kesâ mLeeve hej 40. Human beings either win or lose the race of
life.
could not at all recognize keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
(a) either wins or lose
Correct Sentence– (b) either win or loses
When I went to the party last night, I could not at all (c) either winning or losing
recognize my uncle.
(d) No improvement
35. I regret to speak to you so rudely at that
Ans: (d) No improvement.
moment.
(a) have to speak (b) having spoken Directions (Q. Nos. 41 to 50) : Below each of the
(c) to be spoken (d) No improvement following words (in capital letters) four possible
substitutes are given. Choose the word which is nearest
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW 'to speak' kesâ mLeeve hej
in meaning to the word given in capital letters and
having spoken' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ indicate your response on the Answer-Sheet.
Note– Having + Past Participle 41. ASPIRATION
Correct Sentence– (a) Bitterness (b) Hostility
I regret having spoken to you rudely at that moment. (c) Ambition (d) Harshness

BPSC AE Gen. English August, 2019 61 YCT

 Ans: (c) Aspiration – Deekeâeb#ee, Fmekeâe GheÙeg&òeâ Synonym Ans: (a) Mitigate– keâce keâjvee, Fmekeâe GefÛele Synonym
'Ambition' (ueeuemee) nesiee~ 'Make less intense/severe (Meeble keâjvee) nesiee~
DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&– DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYeVe DeLe& osles nQ~
Bitterness – keâÌ[Jeenš 48. PATHOS
Hostility – Me$eglee (a) Pity (b) Cruelty
(c) Comedy (d) Romance
Harshness – keâ"esjlee
42. PRIMAL
Ans: (a) Pathos – keâ®Cee, Fmekeâe GefÛele Synonym 'Pity'
(a) Primitive (b) Basic (oÙee) nesiee~
(c) Latest (d) Premature DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&–
Ans: (a) Primal – ceewefuekeâ, Fmekeâe GefÛele Synonym Cruelty– ›etâjlee
'Primitive' (ØeeLeefcekeâ) nesiee~ Comedy – mJeebie
DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&– Romance – Øesce ueeruee
Basic– cetueYetle 49. JUBILANT
(a) Rejoicing (b) Justice
Latest – veJeervelece
(c) Festival (d) Pain
Premature – DemeeceefÙekeâ
Ans: (a) Jubilant – Guueefmele, Fmekeâe GefÛele Synonym
43. SULLEN
'Rejoicing' (Deevebo) nesiee~
(a) Spoiled (b) Smelly
(c) Dull, gloomy (d) Pure, bright DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&–
Justice – vÙeeÙe
Ans: (c) Sullen– Goeme, Fmekeâe GefÛele Synonym
Festival – lÙeesnej
'Dull/gloomy (Goeme) nesiee~
Pain – ogKe
DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&–
50. COMPETENCE
Spoiled – efyeieÌ[e ngDee
(a) Helpfulness (b) Thoughtfulness
Smelly – ieboe (c) Contestant (d) Ability
Pure, bright – heefJe$e/GppeJeue Ans: (d) Competence – #ecelee, Fmekeâe GefÛele Synonym
44. WOO 'Ability' (meeceLÙe&) nesiee~
(a) Seek love of (b) Show wonder DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&–
(c) Express enmity (d) Feel disappointed
Thoughtfulness– efJeÛeejMeeruelee
Ans: (a) Woo – Øesce efoKeevee, keâe GefÛele Synonym 'Seek
Contestant – ØeefleÙeesieer
love of' nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYeVe DeLe& osles nQ~
Directions (Q. Nos. 51 to 60) : Below each of the
45. INTEGRITY following words (in capital letters) four possible
(a) Honesty (b) Cleverness substitutes are given. Pick out the word that is most
(c) Brilliance (d) Knowledge nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capital
Ans: (a) Integrity – melÙeefve‰e, Fmekeâe GefÛele Synonym letters and indicate your response on the Answer-Sheet.
'Honesty' (F&ceeveoejer) nesiee~ 51. NEGLIGIBLE
DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&– (a) Petty (b) Minor
(c) Trivial (d) Significant
Brilliance– ØeefleYee
Ans: (d) Negligible – veieCÙe/yengle keâce, Fmekeâe GefÛele
Cleverness – ÛelegjeF&
Antonym 'Significant' (cenlJehetCe&) nesiee~
Knowledge– %eeve
DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&–
46. INDUSTRIOUS
Petty – legÛÚ
(a) Industry (b) Skilful
(c) Tiring (d) Hardworking Minor – Deuhe
Ans: (d) Industrious– cesnveleer, Fmekeâe GefÛele Synonym Trivial – legÛÚ
'Hardworking' (heefjßeceer) nesiee~ 52. LUNACY
(a) Wisdom (b) Insanity
DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&– (c) Psychosis (d) Madness
Skilful– kegâMeue Ans: (a) Lunacy – heeieueheve, Fmekeâe GefÛele Opposite
Tiring – Lekeâeves Jeeuee 'Wisdom' (yegefæceòee) nesiee~
47. MITIGATE DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&–
(a) Make less intense/severe
Insanity – heeieueheve
(b) To have force/effect
(c) To use wrongly Psychosis – ceveesefJeke=âefle
(d) To judge wrongly Madness – heeieueheve
BPSC AE Gen. English August, 2019 62 YCT
53. ISOLATE Ans: (a) Upheaval – GLeue-hegLeue, Fmekeâe GefÛele Opposite
(a) Cut off (b) Seclude 'Tranquility' (Meebefle) nesiee~
(c) Disconnect (d) Community DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&–
Ans: (d) Isolate – Deueie keâjvee, Fmekeâe GefÛele Opposite Disorder – efJekeâej
'Community' (mecegoeÙe) nesiee~ Commotion – nuuee-ieguuee
DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&– Disturbance – DeMeeefvle
Seclude – Skeâeble ceW jnvee 59. PUNGENT
(a) Sharp (b) Strong
Cut off – keâš peevee (c) Bitter (d) Pleasant
54. GENEROUS Ans: (d) Pungent – keâšg, Fmekeâe GefÛele Opposite
(a) Charitable (b) Noble 'Pleasant' (ceOegj) nesiee~
(c) Abundant (d) Selfishness DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&–
Ans: (d) Generous – Goej, Fmekeâe GefÛele Opposite Sharp– lespe
'Selfishness' (mJeeLe&hejlee) nesiee~ Strong – cepeyetle
DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&– Bitter – keâÌ[Jee
Charitable – oeveMeerue 60. PHENOMENAL
(a) Exceptional (b) Remarkable
Noble – ßes‰
(c) Mediocre (d) Incredible
Abundant – ØeÛegj Ans: (c) Phenomenal – DeYetlehetJe&, Fmekeâe GefÛele Opposite
55. EXAGGERATE 'Mediocre' (meeOeejCe) nesiee~
(a) Enlarge (b) Limited DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&–
(c) Magnify (d) Overestimate Exceptional – DemeeOeejCe
Ans: (b) Exaggerate – DeefleMeÙeesefòeâ keâjvee, Fmekeâe GefÛele Remarkable – efJeue#eCe
Opposite 'Limited' (meerefcele) nesiee~ Incredible – Dee§eÙe&pevekeâ
DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&– SELECTING WORDS
Directions (Q. Nos. 61 to 80) : Each of the following
Enlarge – efJemleej
sentences is given with blank space(s) to be filled in
Magnify – yeÌ{evee with appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are
Overestimate – DelÙeefOekeâ suggested for each sentence. Choose the correct
alternative.
56. SOBER
61. In education, girl children drop out earlier
(a) Clearheaded (b) Moderate --------- boys.
(c) Disturbed (d) Rational (a) below (b) after
Ans: (c) Sober – iebYeerj, Fmekeâe GefÛele Opposite (c) than (d) to
'Disturbed' (JÙeekegâue) nesiee~ Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ ØeMve kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW than keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele
DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&– nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Comparative degree ceW leguevee oMee&ves kesâ efueS
than keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
Clearheaded – mecePeoej
Correct Sentence–
Moderate – GoejJeeoer In education, girl children drop out earlier than boys.
Rational – leeefke&âkeâ 62. We found the lock ...........
57. TRAITOR (a) have broke (b) have broken
(a) Loyal (b) Betrayal (c) broken (d) having broke
(c) Informer (d) Receiver Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW efJekeâuhe (c) Broken
Ans: (a) Traitor – osMeõesner, Fmekeâe GefÛele Opposite (štše ngDee) keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~
Correct Sentence–
'Loyal' (efve‰eJeeve) nesiee~ We found the lock broken.
DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&– 63. Before you ........., ......... me the whole story of
Betrayal – efJeÕeemeIeele your life.
(a) had left, told (b) have leave, told
Informer – cegKeefyej (c) leave, tell (d) are leave, tell
Receiver – heeves Jeeuee Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW YeeJeevegmeej ØeLece efjòeâ mLeeve ceW
58. UPHEAVAL leave leLee efÉleerÙe efjòeâ mLeeve ceW tell keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
(a) Tranquility (b) Disorder Correct Sentence–
(c) Commotion (d) Disturbance Before you leave, tell me the whole story of your life.

BPSC AE Gen. English August, 2019 63 YCT

64. The academic year is .......... July ......... April. Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW Not only ……. but also,
(a) of, to (b) on, to Structure keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Dele: efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'but also' keâe
(c) from, to (d) in, and
ØeÙeesie nesiee~
Ans: (c) GheÙeg&òeâ Sentence kesâ ØeLece efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'from' keâe Correct Sentence–
leLee efÉleerÙe efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'to' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Not only do I speak Telugu but also I can write
Correct Sentence– Telugu.
The academic year is from July to April. 71. Seeing is ---------- .
65. The children .......... playing ....... the tree. (a) to believing (b) having to believing
(a) is, on (b) are, under (c) believing (d) have to believe
(c) were, upon (d) is, under Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence 'Seeing is believing' Skeâ
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ ØeLece efjòeâ mLeeve ceW Plural Proverb nw efpemekeâe DeLe& neslee nw ‘neLe kebâieve keâes Deejmeer keäÙee’~
Helping Verb 'are' leLee efÉleerÙe efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'under' keâe Dele: efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'believing' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Correct Sentence–
The children are playing under the tree. Seeing is believing.
66. ......... books are useful to prepare .............. the 72. The second girl in -------- row to your left ------
entrance test? my sister.
(a) Which, for (b) Is, to (a) a, has (b) the, is
(c) Any, to (d) Whose, at (c) an, is being (d) any, are
Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ ØeLece efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'which' Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ ØeLece efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'the' leLee
leLee efÉleerÙe efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'for' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ efÉleerÙe efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'is' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
Correct Sentence– Correct Sentence–
Which books are useful to prepare for the entrance The second girl in the row to your left is my sister.
test? 73. When we ------- home, it was noon.
67. My daughter drinks ........... tea ........ coffee. (a) reaching (b) reached
The drinks only milk. (c) was reach (d) have reach
(a) either, or (b) not only, but also Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW Past tense kesâ YeeJeevegmeej
(c) both, and (d) neither, nor 'reached' keâe ØeÙeesie efjòeâ mLeeve ceW keâjvee GefÛele nesiee~
Ans: (d) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej efjòeâ mLeeve ceW Correct Sentence–
›eâceMe: Neither, Nor keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ When we reached home, it was noon.
Correct Sentence– 74. I have given my children everything they have
My daughter drinks neither tea nor coffee. She drinks asked -------- .
only milk. (a) for (b) from
(c) of (d) on
68. Who .......... the children out ............ a walk?
(a) have taking, at (b) is take, in Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'for' keâe ØeÙeesie
(c) has taken, for (d) can take, about GefÛele nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Ask for Skeâ Phrasal Verb nw efpemekeâe
Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ ØeLece efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'has ØeÙeesie ‘ceebieves’ kesâ Sense ceW neslee nw~
taken' leLee efÉleerÙe efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'for' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ Correct Sentence–
I have given my children everything they have asked
Correct Sentence–
for.
Who has taken the children out for a walk.
75. -------- is a good medicine; so, you must ------ .
69. She ......... cooking when the children returned
(a) Laugh, laugh
from school.
(b) laughter, laugh
(a) had finished (b) have finished
(c) Laughter, laughing
(c) is finish (d) was finishing
(d) laugh, laughter
Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ Sentence Past Perfect Tense ceW ØeÙegòeâ
Ans: (b) GheÙeg&òeâ Sentence ceW YeeJeevegmeej ØeLece efjòeâ mLeeve ceW
nesiee Dele: efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'had finished' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
'Laughter' leLee efÉleerÙe efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'Laugh' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele
Correct Sentence–
She had finished cooking when the children returned nesiee~
from school. Correct Sentence–
70. Not only do I speak Telugu ............ I can write Laughter is a good medicine, so you must laugh.
Telugu. 76. I usually .......... dinner ........... 9.00 p.m.
(a) but also (b) but (a) has, on (b) having, in
(c) and (d) also (c) had, in (d) have, at
BPSC AE Gen. English August, 2019 64 YCT
 Ans: (d) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ ØeLece efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'have' keâe Ans: (c) GheÙeg&òeâ Idiom 'The corridors of power' keâe GefÛele
ØeÙeesie leLee efÉleerÙe efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'at' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ DeLe& efJekeâuhe (c) Higher levels of government where
Note– efvecve Noun mes henues ‘uesves’ kesâ Sense ceW have keâe important decisions are made (meòee keâe ieefueÙeeje) nw~
ØeÙeesie neslee nw pewmes– Have a dinner, Have a lunch, Have a 82. Blend in
bath etc. (a) Similar to surroundings
77. They have been studying ------- 5 o'clock. (b) To bend
(a) from (b) at (c) To react
(c) since (d) to (d) To resist
Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'Since' keâe ØeÙeesie Ans: (a) GheÙeg&òeâ Idiom 'Blend in' keâe GefÛele DeLe& Similar to
GefÛele nesiee~ surroundings (Deemeheeme keâe heefjJesMe) nesiee~
Note– Present Perfect Continuous Tense ceW Point of 83. Tough nut to crack
(a) Cracking nuts
time kesâ efueÙes 'Since' leLee Period of time kesâ efueÙes 'For' keâe (b) Difficult problem to deal with
ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ (c) Hit hard with your neck
Correct Sentence– (d) Calculate; find answer
They have been studying since 5 o'clock. Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Idiom 'Tough nut to crack' keâe GefÛele DeLe&
78. We -------- you that presently we are not in a 'Difficult problem to deal with' (GuePevekeâejer mecemÙee) nesiee~
position to hire you.
84. A middle course
(a) regret to inform
(a) An acceptable solution avoiding extremes
(b) regret to give
(b) Divide into equal parts
(c) regret to announce
(c) Not far, not close
(d) regret to add (d) Between beginning and end
Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW YeeJeevegmeej efJekeâuhe Ans: (a) GheÙeg&òeâ Idiom 'A middle course' keâe GefÛele DeLe&
(a) 'regret to inform' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ efJekeâuhe (a) An acceptable solution avoiding extremes
Correct Sentence– We regret to inform you that
nesiee~
presently we are not in a position to hire you.
85. Take somebody for a ride
79. This is to --------- the receipt of your demand
(a) Ride in a vehicle
draft in our favour for rupees ten thousand.
(b) Ride on an animal
(a) notice (b) agenda
(c) Cheating and tricking
(c) acknowledge (d) claim (d) Arguing and debating
Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW YeeJeevegmeej Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Idiom 'Take somebody for a ride' keâe
'acknowledge' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ GefÛele DeLe& efJekeâuhe (c) Cheating and tricking (efkeâmeer keâes
Correct Sentence– OeesKee osvee) nesiee~
This is to acknowledge the receipt of your demand
draft in our favour for rupees ten thousand. 86. Blessing in disguise
(a) Seems a problem, but has good results in the
80. We write this to -------- the help and support
end
we received from you during the workshop. (b) Prayer said in silence
(a) claim (b) appreciate (c) Sense of peace and calm
(c) regret (d) say sorry (d) Enjoyable secretly
Ans: (b) GheÙeg&òeâ Sentence kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW ‘ØeMebmee keâjves’ kesâ Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ Idiom 'Blessing in disguise'' keâe GefÛele
Sense ceW 'appreciate' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ DeLe& efJekeâuhe (a) Seems a problem, but has good results
Correct Sentence– in the end (ogKe kesâ Yes<e ceW megKe) nesiee~
We write this to appreciate the help and support we
received from you during the workshop. 87. Leaps and bounds
(a) In some amounts
Directions (Q. Nos. 81 to 90) : Below each of the
(b) In large amounts
following underlined idioms or phrases four possible (c) In any amount
substitutes (words or group of words) are given. Select (d) In very little amount
the one which is most nearly the same to the given
idiom or phrase. Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Idiom 'Leaps and bounds' keâe GefÛele DeLe&
81. The corridors of power efJekeâuhe (b) In large amounts (yengle lespeer mes) nesiee~
(a) Paths leading to power 88. Through somebody's good offices
(b) Leaders in power (a) Going to somebody's office
(c) Higher levels of government where (b) So many good offices
important decisions are made (c) With someone's help
(d) Government buildings (d) Using somebody's office for good
BPSC AE Gen. English August, 2019 65 YCT
 Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Idiom 'Through somebody's good (c) Cosmography
offices' keâe GefÛele DeLe& efJekeâuhe (c) With someone's help (d) Biography
(efkeâmeer keâer meneÙelee mes) nesiee~ Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Group of words 'Art of writing
89. Knife through butter elegantly/beautifully (megvoj efueKeeJeš) kesâ efueÙes GefÛele One
(a) Be unfriendly to people word 'Calligraphy' (meguesKe) nesiee~
(b) Blaming one person for the wrongs done by 95. Related to welfare of women
all together (a) Modernism (b) Activism
(c) Easily, without any difficulty (c) Feminism (d) Chauvinism
(d) Feel unhappy more and more Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Group of words 'Related to welfare of
Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Idiom 'Knife through butter' keâe GefÛele women' kesâ efueÙes GefÛele One word substitution 'Feminism'
DeLe& efJekeâuhe (c) Easily, without any difficulty (efyevee efkeâmeer (veejerJeeo) nesiee~
mecemÙee/keâef"veeF& kesâ) nesiee~ 96. Murder of a whole race/group
90. Bring into force (a) Patricide (b) Genocide
(a) To start being used (c) Homicide (d) Suicide
(b) To work together Ans: (b) GheÙeg&òeâ Group of words 'Murder of a whole
(c) To organize race/group' (mebhetCe& peeefle keâer nlÙee) kesâ efueÙes GefÛele One word
(d) To force something
substitution 'Genocide' (peve mebnej) nesiee~
Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ Idiom 'Bring into force' keâe GefÛele DeLe&
97. System of government by king and queen
efJekeâuhe (a) To start being used (Deceue ceW ueevee) nesiee~ (a) Oligarchy
Directions (Q. Nos. 91 to 100) : Below each of the (b) Anarchy
following underlined definitions four possible (c) Patriarchy
substitutes (words) are given. Choose the correct word (d) Monarchy
which may closely fit each definition.
Ans: (d) Ghejesòeâ Group of words 'System of
91. Concerned with children and their diseases
(a) Psychiatry government by king and queen' kesâ efueÙes GefÛele One word
(b) Cardiology substitution 'Monarchy' (jepelev$e) nesiee~
(c) Paediatrics 98. A tendency to favour one's relatives
(d) Ophthalmology (a) Relativism
Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ One word substitution 'Concerned with (b) Positivism
children and their diseases' (yeÛÛeeW leLee Gvemes mebyebefOele jesieeW) (c) Nepotism
(d) Voyeurism
kesâ efueS GefÛele One word 'Paediatrics' (yeeue efÛeefkeâlmee) nesiee~
Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ Group of words 'A tendency to favour
92. An agreement between two parties
(a) Pact (b) Compact one's relatives' (mJepeve he#eheele) kesâ efueÙes GefÛele One word
(c) Memorandum (d) Review substitution 'Nepotism' (YeeF&-YeleerpeeJeeo) nesiee~
Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ Group of words 'An agreement 99. A person who does not believe that God exists
between two parties' (oes mecetneW kesâ yeerÛe mecePeewlee) kesâ efueÙes (a) Theist (b) Atheist
(c) Nihilist (d) Symbolist
GefÛele One word 'Pact' (mebefOe/mecePeewlee) nesiee~
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Group of words 'A person who does
93. An animal story with a moral
(a) Exemplum (b) Fable not believe that God exists' kesâ efueÙes GefÛele One word
(c) Epic (d) Tragedy substitution 'Atheist' (veeefmlekeâ) nesiee~
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Group of words 'An animal story with 100. A person with strange and peculiar habits :
a moral' kesâ efueÙes GefÛele One word substitution 'Fable' (a) Truant (b) Eccentric
(c) Sadist (d) Incorrigible
(keâefuhele keâneveer) nesiee~
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ Group of words 'A person with strange
94. Art of writing elegantly/beautifully
(a) Autobiography and peculiar habits' (efJeefÛe$e DeeoleeW Jeeuee) kesâ efueÙes GefÛele
(b) Calligraphy One word substitutions 'Eccentric' (mevekeâer) nesiee~

BPSC AE Gen. English August, 2019 66 YCT

 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2017
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical) Mains
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER-III)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Exam Date : 6 August, 2019

1. The number of digits on a standard debit card Memory card– A memory card is electronic data
issued in India is storage device used for storing digital information
(a) 8 (b) 12 using flash memory. They are commonly used in
(c) 16 (d) 20 portable electronic devices such as digital cameras,
Ans. (c) : On the front face of debit card a 16 digits mobile phones, computer tablets, PDAS, portable
code is written. First 6 digit are bank identification media players, video game consoles and digital pianos.
number and the rest 10 digit are Unique Account Batteries– A battery is a device consisting of a one or
Number of the card holder. more electrochemical cells with external connections
2. The object common to the flags of Bangladesh for powering electrical devices such as flashlights,
mobile phones and electric cars.
and Japan is
(a) spear (b) shield Bond paper– Bond paper is a high quality writing
(c) gun (d) disc paper similar to bank paper but having a weight greater
than 50 g/m2. The name comes from its having
Ans. (d) : The sun (disc) is a common theme for
National Flags of Japan and Bangladesh and many originally been made for documents such as
others use the sun (disc) for different reasons. government bond.
3. The first yacht to circumnavigate from India is 6. Cricket tournament involving Bangladesh,
India and Sri Lanka that marked Sri Lanka's
(a) Tarangini (b) Trishna
70th year of Independence is
(c) Sagar (d) Samudra
(a) Basil D'Oliveira Trophy
Ans. (b) : The first of the yachts journeys after it was
(b) M. J. Gopalan Trophy
acquired was its journey from gosport to Mumbai,
(c) Nidahas Trophy
India. Subsequently, the yacht embarked on its most
(d) Frank Worrell Trophy
notable voyage the circumnavigation of the globe from
1985 to 1987. It was the first achievement of an Indian Ans. (c) : The 2018 Nidahas Trophy was a cricket
crew the name was Trishna. tournament that was held in Sri Lanka in March 2018.
4. With which country India held 2+2 dialogue in It was a tri nations series between Bangladesh, India
September 2018? and Sri Lanka.
(a) Japan (b) Russia 7. Who among the following is known as
(c) China (d) France Mountain Man for carving a 110m long road
Ans. (*) : Minister of External Affairs and Defense through the Gehlour Hill in Bihar?
Minister will host the US Secretary of State Michael R. (a) Birsa Munda (b) Dashrath Manjhi
Pompeo and US secretary of defence james mattis in (c) Jalandhar Nayak (d) Baba Bajrang Das
New Delhi on 06 September 2018 for the inaugural Ans. (b) : Dashrath Manjhi– Dashrath Manjhi also
2+2 dialogue. known as mountain man was a labourer in Gehlaur
Note– Foreign and defence ministerial level '2+2' talks village near Gaya in Bihar India his spouse name was
between India and Japan held on 30 Nov. 2019 in New Falguni Devi.
Delhi. Birsa Munda– Birsa Munda was an Indian Tribal
5. Which object of everyday use has types AA, Freedom fighter religious leader and folk hero who
AAA, C and D? belonged to the Munda tribe.
(a) SIM cards (b) Memory cards Jalandhar Nayak– A man in Orissa constructed 8 km
(c) Batteries (d) Bond paper stretch of road with just a pick axe and crow bar.
Ans. (c) : SIM means subscriber identity module and 8. Which of the following viruses takes its name
its a small plastic card that slots into your phone SIMs from a place in Malaysia?
are like computer chips which hold information and (a) Nipah (b) Ebola
allow you to connect with your network. (c) Influenza (d) HIV
BPSC AE (GS) August, 2019 67 YCT
 Ans. (a) : The Malaysian government has given the wrestlers and commonwealth games medalists as well
virus the name Nipah after the plant used in the she became the first Indian Woman Wrestler to win
construction of traditional malay dwellings gold in both Commonwealth and Asian games.
Ebola virus– Ebola is also called as Ebola Kavita Devi– Kavita Devi an Indian professional
hemorrhagic fever. A virus that causes severe bleeding wrestler currently signed to WWE under the ring name
& organ failure and can lead to death. Humans may Kavita Devi. Kavita Devi is the first female professional
spread the virus to other humans through contact with wrestler of Indian nationality to wrestle in WWE.
bodily fluids such as blood. 11. Indian Railways has been running daily special
Influenza– Influenza or flue is caused by a virus that trains in Mumbai since June 2018 to collect
leads to respiratory illness. It is highly contagious and (a) garbage (b) lunch boxes
spread easily through coughs and sneezes from an (c) milk (d) left over food
infected person. Ans. (a) : The Indian Railways has been running daily
HIV– HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus special train in Mumbai from June 2018 to collect
that attacks the body's immune system if HIV is not garbage from stations and along tracks of its suburban
treated on time. It can lead to AIDS (acquired networks. The daily special trains is part of Modi
immunodeficiency syndrome). Government's Swachh Bharat initiative. Indian
9. The name of the oldest person holding Railways has been running dail7 special trains to keep
Guinness World Record to be elected for the tracks and stations clean.
first time as PM of a Nation is 12. Which of the following festivals is always
(a) P. V. Narasimha Rao celebrated on Sunday?
(b) Chaudhary Charan Singh (a) Nowruz (b) Easter
(c) Morarji Desai (c) Hola Mohalla (d) Gudi Padwa
(d) H. D. Deve Gowda Ans. (b) : Easter– Easter is celebrated on the first
Ans. (*) : Mahathir Bin Mohammad is Malaysia Prime Sunday after the Paschal full moon, the full moon after
Minister also a record holder at the age of 92 year 141 the spring equinox. Once the date of the full moon is
days is now oldest Prime Minister having been born on set, its easy to determine the date of Easter Sunday and
20 December 1925. other Easter holidays.
Nowruz– Nowruz is consider the most important
Morarji Desai– He is the oldest person to hold the
national holiday in Iran. It marks the beginning of a
office of Prime Minister at the age of 81 year in the
new solar year and the arrival of spring. It is consider
history of Indian Politics. He was conferred with
Persian New Year.
India's highest civilian honour the Bharat Ratna. He is
Hola Mohalla– Hola Mohalla begins on the first day
also got the Award of Nishan-E-Pakistan.
of the month of Chaitra in the Nanakshahi calendar
P. V. Narasimha Rao– Pamulaparthi Venkata
and follows the Hindu festival of colour Holi.
Narasimha Rao was Indian lawyer and politician who
Gudi Padwa– Gudi Padwa is a spring time festival
served as the 9th Prime Minister of India from 1991 to that marks the traditional new year for Marathi and
1996. Konkani Hindus. It is celebrated in and near
H. D. Devegowda– Haradanahalli Devegowda gowda Maharastra and Goa on the first day of the Chaitra
deve gowda is an India. Politician and former Prime month to mark the beginning of the New Year
Minister of India from June 1996 to April 1997. according to the lunisolar Hindu Calendar.
10. The first woman wrestler to win gold medal for 13. Organization having won three times Nobel
India in Asian Games is Peace Prize is
(a) Sakshi Malik (b) Babita Kumari (a) UNHCR
(c) Vinesh Phogat (d) Kavita Devi (b) UN Peace Keeping Force
Ans. (c) : Sakshi Malik– Sakshi Malik is an Indian (c) Red Cross
free style wrestler. At the 2016 Summer Olympics she (d) Medicines Sans Frontiers
won the bronze medal in 58kg category becoming the Ans. (c) : Switzerland based International Committee
first Indian female wrestler to win a medal at the of the Red Cross (ICRC) is the only 3-time recipient of
Olympics. the Nobel Prize being conferred with peace prize in
Babita Kumari– Babita Kumari is an Indian female 1917, 1944 and 1963. Further the humanitarian
wrestler who won the gold medal in common wealth institution's co founder Henry Dunant won the first
games, 2014. She also won silver medals in 2018 ever Peace Prize in 1901.
common wealth games in 2010 and 2018 also a bronze UNHCR– The United Nations High Commissioner for
medal in world wrestling championships, 2012. refugees is a UN agency mandated to aid and help
Vinesh Phogat– She is an Indian wrestler who comes refugees forcibly displaced communities and stateless
from a successful family of wrestlers, with her cousins people and to assist in their rehabilitation, Voluntary
Geeta Phogat and Babita Kumari being international Repatriation, local integration to a third country.
BPSC AE (GS) August, 2019 68 YCT
 UN Peace Keeping Force– Peace keeping by the Jupiter– It is the fifth planet from the sun and the
United Nations is a role held by the department of largest in solar system Moons– Gonymede, callisto,
peace operations as a unique and dynamic instrument Amalthea, Himalia.
development by the organisation as a way to help Mars– It is also known as red planet.
countries torn by conflict to create conditions for long Moons– phobos & deimos.
lasting peace. Mercury– Mercury is the smallest and closest planet
Medicines Sans Frontiers– Medicines Sans Frontires of the sun in the solar system. It orbits around the sun
some times rendered in english as doctor without takes 87-97 earth days the shortest of all the planets in
border is an international humanitarian medical non the Solar system.
government organisation of french origin best known
17. Whose memorial is entitled The Man Whom
far its projects in conflict zones and in countries
affected by endemic conflicts. Bombed Karachi?
(a) Admiral S. M. Nanda
14. The city voted as cleanest city of India in 2017
(b) Field Marshal Manekshaw
and 2018 according to Swachh Sarvekshan– a
survey done under Swachh Bharat Mission is (c) Air Marshal P. C. Lal
(a) Bhopal (b) Chandigarh (d) Lt. Gen. Jagjit Singh Arora
(c) Visakhapatnam (d) Indore Ans. (a) : In the memorial Admiral S.M. Nanda
Ans. (d) : Swachh Sarvekshan 2017 was an extensive focuses on this significant event proving a detailed
sanitation survey across 500 cities in India. account of how the Indian Navy carried out the
Rank City State/Union territory operation. The man who bombed Karachi is the
1. Indore Madhya Pradesh inspiring story of how a childhood fascination for the
2. Bhopal Madhya Pradesh sea led an outstanding officer to rise to the pinnacle of
3. Visakhapatnam Andhra Pradesh India's Armed Forces.
4. Surat Gujarat Field Marshal Manekshaw– Field Marshal Sam
The Ministry of Urban Development Government of Hormusji frami Jamshedji Manekshaw widely known
India and the Central Pollution Control Board of India as Sam Manekshaw and Sam Bahadur was the Chief of
annually publish National city Ranking under the the Army staff of the Indian Army during the Indo
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan Scheme. The rating includes Pakistani war 1971. The first Indian Army Officer to
around 500 cities covering 72% of the Urban be promoted to the rank of field marshal.
Population in India.
Air Marshal P. C. Lal– Air Chief Marshal Pratap
15. The validity period of Aadhaar number in Chandra Lal DFC was the Chief of Air Staff of the
India is
Indian Airforce during the Indo-Pak war of 1971. He
(a) 10 years (b) 20 years
served in the IAF from 1939 until his retired in 1973.
(c) 50 years (d) lifetime
Lt. Gen. Jagjit Singh Arora– Lt. Gen. Jagjit Singh
Ans. (d) : Once Aadhar card is issued to you it is valid
Arora was an Indian Army General Officer who was
for the lifetime. However in case of minors the Aadhar
card to children who are below the age of five year is the general Officer Commanding in Chief of Eastern
blue in colour and is known as Baal Aadhar. command during the third war with Pakistan 1971.
Aadhar or Unique Identification Number (UID) is a 12 18. The part of Aloe vera plant used in cosmetics
digit number based on biometrics related information. and medicinal plants is
The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) (a) root (b) leaf
the issuer of Aadhar card and Aadhar number has (c) flower (d) stem
provided several tools on its portal-uidai.gov.in Ans. (b) : Aloevera a cactus like plant has been used
16. Sun rises in the West and sets in East on the for traditional medical purposes for thousands of years.
planet Aloe leaves can be separated into two basic products.
(a) Jupiter (b) Mars 1. The latex a bitter yellow liquid beneath the
(c) Venus (d) Mercury epidermis of the leaf and 2. The gel a colourless and
Ans. (c) : The sun rises in the West on Venus and tasteless substance in the inner part of the leaf.
Uranus and sets in the East this is because they have
19. The first modern Life Insurance Company
retrograde motion and rotate in the opposite direction
of the other planets. established in India by Europeans in the year
Hence on these two particular planet the sunrise and 1818 is
sunset exchanges directions. (a) General Insurance Company
The sun is fixed at its axis and the earth completes its (b) Hand in Hand Life Insurance Company
diurnal rotation in 24 hours which makes day and night (c) Oriental Life Insurance Company
possible. (d) Prudential Life Insurance Company

BPSC AE (GS) August, 2019 69 YCT

 Ans. (c) : In 1818 Oriental Life Insurance Company 23. Saliva converts
the first Life Insurance Company on the Indian soil (a) proteins into amino acids
started functioning in 1870. Bombay Mutual Life (b) glycogen into glucose
Assurance Society the first Indian Life Insurance (c) starch into maltose
Company started its business. (d) fats into vitamins
General Insurance Company– The entire general Ans. (c) : Saliva contains the enzyme amylase also
insurance business in India was nationalised by general called Ptyalin which is capable of breaking down
Insurance Business Act 1972. The Government of starch into simpler sugars such as maltose and dextrin
India through nationalization took over the shares of that can be further broken down in the small intestine.
55 Indian Insurance Companies and the undertaking of 24. Anemia is caused by deficiency of vitamins
52 insurers carrying on general insurance business. (a) A1 and B2 (b) A and D
Prudential Life Insurance Company– Prudential (c) B6 and B12 (d) E and K
may be appealing to customers who need high Ans. (c) : The name implies iron deficiency anemia is
coverage limits. Coverage offers are also highly due to insufficient iron without enough iron your body
customizable having this abundance of option can can't produce enough of a substance in red blood cells
either be beneficial depending on your needs. that enables them to carry oxygen. As a result iron
20. Focal theme of World Environment Day, 2018 deficiency anemia may leave you tired and short of
was breath.
(a) Connecting People to Nature 25. North-East India's first small bank 'North-East
(b) Beat Plastic Pollution Small Finance Bank' in June 2018 at Guwahati
(c) Go Wild for Life was launched by
(d) Think, Eat, Save (a) Mukesh Ambani
(b) N. R. Narayan Murthy
Ans. (b) : The theme for 2018 beating plastic (c) Ratan Tata
pollution. For every world environment day has a (d) Anand Mahindra
different global host country where the official
Ans. (c) : Tata Trusts Chairman Ratan Tata and
celebrations take place. Assam's Finance Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma
21. The pH value of fertile soil is usually around launched the first 28 branches of the North East Small
(a) 2–3 (b) 6–7 Finance Bank (NESFB) the Regions First Small Bank.
(c) 8–10 (d) 11–12 Mukesh Ambani – He is an Indian billionaire
Ans. (b) : Most of the soils have pH values between businessman and the Chairman and Managing Director
3.5 and 10. In higher rainfall areas the natural pH of and largest shareholders of Reliance Industries Ltd. It
soils typically ranges from 5 to 7 while in drier areas is India's most valuable company on market price.
the range is 6.5 to 9 soils can be classified according to N. R. Narayan Murthy – He is co-founder of Infosys
their pH value 6.5 to 7.5 neutral. and has been the Chairman Chief Executive Officer,
President and Chief manager of the Company before
22. Which of the following is used to denote heavy
retiring and taking the titles chairman emeritus.
rocks of lithosphere?
Anand Mahindra – He is the Chairman of Mahindra
(a) Substratum (b) SIAL
group a Mumbai based business conglomerate.
(c) SIMA (d) None of the above
26. The hill station known as Queen of Chota
Ans. (c) : Ocean lithosphere consists mainly of mafic Nagpur is
crust and ultramafic mantle and is denser than (a) Netarhat (b) Ranchi
continental lithosphere. Young oceanic lithosphere (c) Panchgani (d) Pachmarhi
founded at mid ocean ridges is no thicker than the crust
Ans. (a) : Netarhat is a hill station at latehar district in
but ocean lithosphere thickness as it ages and moves Indian state of Jharkhand. It is also referred to as the
away from the mid ocean ridge. The lithosphere is queen of Chotanagpur and is a hill station. Betla
solid part of the earth. It consists of three main layers National Park is also situated in the Latehar district.
crust mantle and core lithosphere is the rigid outermost
27. The code name of IAF Operation in Kargil in
shell of a terrestrial type planet or natural satellite that
1999 was
defined by its rigid mechanical properties. Its including (a) Meghdoot (b) Safed Sagar
upper mantle and earth crust. (c) Rainbow (d) Cactus
SIMA– SIMA is Antiquated blended term for the
Ans. (b) : Operation Safed Sagar was the code name
lower layer of earth's crust. This layer is made of rocks assigned to the Indian Airforce's operations during
rich in magnesium silicate mineral. Kargil conflict of 1999. It began on 26 May 1999 and
SIAL– Which is the name for the upper layer of earth concluded on 11 July 1999 after all military objectives
crust. It composed of silicon and Aluminium. were achieved.
BPSC AE (GS) August, 2019 70 YCT
 Operation Meghdoot– The code name for the Indian Ans. (c) : In a bid to make India fitter Union Minister
Armed forces operation to seize control of the Siachen Rajya Vardhan Singh Rathore started a fitness
glacier in Kashmir participating the siachen conflict. challenge hum fit to h India fit.
Executed in the morning of 13 April 1984. This
32. Which of the following numbers is normally
military operation in the highest battle field in the
required to verify a transaction during
world was the first offensive of its kind.
Operation Cactus– This operation started on the night payment using Debit Card?
of 3 Nov. 1988 hour after the request for intervention. (a) PAN (b) PNR
28. Which prominent Indian businessman did (c) CVV (d) Aadhaar
Mahatma Gandhi all affectionately as his Fifth Ans. (c) : CVV stands for card verification value. This
Son? number is vital for completing online transactions and
(a) G. D. Birla (b) Jamnalal Bajaj should never be shared with anyone. CVV number is
(c) J. N. Tata (d) L. Kirloskar generated by debit card issuers based on the following
Ans. (b) : Jamnalal Bajaj was born on 4 Nov. 1889 in details debit card number.
Sikar. He was an Indian industrialist. he founded the PAN– Permanent Account Number is card containing
Bajaj group of companies in the 1920 and the group unique ten digit alpha numeric combination issue by
now has 24 companies including six that are listed on the Income Tax Department of India.
the business. He was also a close and beloved associate
of Mahatma Gandhi who is known to have often 33. In 2018, which India born scientist won the
declared that Jamnalal was his fifth son. He died 11 Fields Medal also known as Nobel Prize for
Feb. 1942 at Wardha. mathematics?
29. Within which of the following mediums the (a) Manjul Bhargava
speed of sound is fastest? (b) Akshay Venkatesh
(a) Vacuum (b) Air (c) Vashishtha Narayan Singh
(c) Water (d) Steel (d) S. S. Abhyankar
Ans. (d) : The speed of the sound depends on the Ans. (b) : Akshay Venkatesh a renowned Indian
medium in which it is travelled. Sound travels fastest Australian Mathematician is one of the four winner of
through solid slower through liquids and slowest mathematics prestigious fields medal known as the
through gases. Here steel is solid water is liquid and air Nobel Prize for math.
is gas. Hence sound travels fastest through steel.
34. In what fields only one personality won two
30. The only financial institution to be awarded
individual Nobel Prize without sharing with
Nobel Peace Prize is
(a) IMF (b) World Bank any one else?
(c) WTO (d) Grameen Bank (a) Chemistry, Peace (b) Chemistry, Physics
Ans. (d) : Nobel peace prize 2006 Muhammad Yunus (c) Chemistry, Chemistry (d) Literature, Peace
and Grameen Bank for their efforts to create economic Ans. (a) : LINUS Pauling the only person twice
and social development from belows. decorated with a Nobel Prize not shared with anyone
IMF–International Monetary Fund promotes else. The first awarded the 1954 Nobel Prize in
international financial stability and monetary chemistry recognized his research into the nature of
operation. CEO of IMF is Kristalina Georgieva. chemical bonding and eight year later his militant
Pakistan has taken highest loan from IMF. IMF was pacifism during the cold war focused primarily on
established in 27 Dec. 1945 Bretton Woods New combating nuclear weapons earned him the Nobel
Hampshire, United States (Headquarters in
Peace Prize (1962)
Washington D.C.)
World Bank – It is established July 1944 Bretton 35. In which of the events at Common Wealth
Woods New Hampshire United States. Headquarters is Games, 2018 two Indians competed in the
Washington D.C. finals for gold medal?
WTO – World Trade Organization is an (a) Men's Singles Badminton
intergovernmental organization that is concerned with (b) Women's Singles Table Tennis
regulation of international trade between nations. (c) Men's Singles Table Tennis
Formation 1 Jan. 1995 Head Quarters Geneva (d) Women's Singles Badminton
Switzerland. CEO of W.T.O is Roberto Azevedo.
Ans. (d) : The Indian mixed team badminton claimed
31. The personality initiating the # Hum Fit Toh gold for the first time in the games history. In the 10
India Fit fitness challenge is
metres men's air pistol event India Jitu Rai won gold.
(a) PM Modi
(b) Gen. V. K. Singh This is his second common wealth gold. In the
(c) Rajya Vardhan Rathore women's table tennis event the Indian team won its
(d) K. Rijju first ever commonwealth gold medal.

BPSC AE (GS) August, 2019 71 YCT

36. The disease completely irradiated from the Ans. (d) : Hamid Ansari born 1 April 1937 is an
world by vaccination according to WHO is Indian Politician and retired Indian Foreign Service
(a) measles (b) polio Officer who served as 12th vice President of India
(c) mumps (d) smallpox from 2007 to 2017.
Ans. (d) : The last recorded case of small pox occurred President– Pratibha Patil, Pranab Mukherjee, Ram
in 1977 in Somalia. The disease was officially declared Nath Kovind.
eradicated by the world health organisation in 1980 42. The State where BJP formed the Government
from the invention of vaccine against small pox by for the first time is
Edward Jenner in 1796 it took almost two centuries to (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Sikkim
eradicate the disease. (c) Tripura (d) Assam
37. The personality conferred with 2017 Dada Ans. (d) : Sarbananda Sonowal was sworn in as the
Saheb Phalke Award is first BJP Chief Minister of State. Jagdish Mukhi is the
(a) Shashi Kapoor (b) Om Puri Governor of Assam the capital of Assam is Dispur.
(c) Vinod Khanna (d) Lekh Tandon 43. The unit used to describe weight of diamond is
Ans. (c) : Dada Saheb Phalke award is India's highest (a) tola (b) carat
award in cinema. It is presented annually at the (c) maund (d) milligram
National Film Awards. Ceremony by the directorate of Ans. (b) : Carat is the unit of measurement for the
film festival an Organisation set up by the ministry of physical weight of diamonds. One carat equals 0.200
information and Broadcasting. 1
grams or gram and is sub divided into 100 points
65th Dada Saheb Phalke Award awarded to Vinod 5
Khanna. for comparison in units more familiar in the United
38. Which of the following creatures is State's one carat equals 0.007 ounce. 1 carat diamond
is approximately 6.5 mm diameter. This is the size of a
scientifically not classified as fish?
round diamond cut to ideal proportions.
(a) Rohu (b) Katla
Mound– A varying unit of weight in some Asian
(c) Hilsa (d) Jhinga
countries especially an Indian unit of weight
Ans. (d) : Jhinga is the Indian name given to prawns. equivalent to about 37 kg.
Prawns are an aquatic creature which is small tiny and 44. The birthplace of the 10th Sikh Guru–Guru
has an exo-skeleton. Govind Singh is
39. Which of the following is the name of real (a) Nalanda (b) Vaishali
chemical element in periodic table? (c) Gaya (d) Patna
(a) Africium (b) Asium Ans. (d) : Takht Sri Patna Sahib is the worlds most
(c) Australium (d) Europium important Sikh religious spot it is the birthplace of the
Ans. (d) : Europium is a chemical element with the 10th Guru of Sikhs Sri Guru Gobind Singh. It is
symbol EU and atomic number 63. It is stored under located in Harmandir Gali in Patna.
an inert fluid to protect it from atmospheric oxygen or Nalanda– Nalanda district is one of the thirty eight
moisture. districts of the State of Bihar in India. Bihar Sharif is
40. Which of the following States has shortest the administrative headquarter of this district. It is
famous for ancient Nalanda Mahavihara a UNESCO
coastline?
world heritage site.
(a) Goa (b) Maharastra
Vaishali– It is a great buddhist pilgrimage site and
(c) Odisha (d) West Bengal
also the birth place of lord Mahavira.
Ans. (a) : Goa is the smallest Indian State with a
45. In 2018, ICC U19 World Cup Finals India
coastline of 160 km long. defeated for the record fourth time
Maharastra State has 720 km long coastline. (a) England (b) New Zealand
Gujarat has the longest coastline in India which lies in (c) Australia (d) South Africa
the Kathiawar region of the state and is 1600 km. long. Ans. (c) : Australia and India played in the finals at
Total 9 coastal States in India– Gujarat, Maharastra, mount Maunganiu on Feb 3, 2018. It was the 12th
Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, edition of under-19 World Cup. India defeated
Odisha, West Bengal and two union territories Daman Australia by 8 wickets.
& Diu and Puducherry. India's Captain – Prithvi Shaw
41. The only Vice President of India to have Captain Australia – Jason Sangha.
worked under three different Presidents is 46. The manufacturer of Rafael fighter jets is
(a) S. Radhakrishnan (b) B. S. Shekhawat (a) Lockheed Martin (b) Leonardo
(c) B. D. Jatti (d) Hamid Ansari (c) Dassault Aviation (d) Raytheon Aircraft
BPSC AE (GS) August, 2019 72 YCT
 Ans. (c) : Looking to increase its investment in India Ans. (a) : Sonal Man Singh born 30 April 1944 is an
French defence giant dassault aviation is Indian Classical Dancer and Guru Bharatanatyam and
manufacturing Rafael fighter Jet in the country and Odissi dancing style. She has been nominated by
will make a fresh pitch for it to the Narendra Modi President of India to became a member of Parliament
government. Rajya Sabha.
India had signed an agreement with France for the Yamini Krishnamurthy– Yamini Krishnamurthy is
procurement of 36 Rafael Jets at a cost of Rs. 59000 an Indian dancer of Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi
crore. style of dancing born on Dec. 1940. She got Sangeet
47. The term used for human trafficking in Hindi Natak Academy award for dance. Padma Vibhushan.
media is M. Sarabhai– Mrinalini Sarashai was an Indian
(a) Patangbaazi (b) Kabutarbaazi classical dancer choreographer and instructor. She is
(c) Chaalbaazi (d) Mukkebaai related to Bharatnatyam & Kathakali.
Ans. (b) : Human trafficking in India although Illegal Shovana Narayan– is a famous and recognized Indian
under Indian Law remains a significant problem. Kathak dancer. She was born in West Bengal. She get
People are frequently illegally trafficked through India Padma Shri Award also.
for the purpose of commercial sexual exploitation and 51. The name of the electric car company named
forced/bonded labour. after inventor and scientist is
48. The largest dwarf planet in our solar system is (a) Fiat (b) Toyata
(a) Eris (b) Haumea (c) Tesla (d) Chevrolet
(c) Pluto (d) Ceres Ans. (c) : Tesla motors, one of the biggest in the
Ans. (a) : Eris is one of the largest known dwarf planet Automobile Industry is an American electric Car
in our solar system. It's about the same size as Pluto manufacturer. The company was founded by Martin
but is three times farther from the sun. Eris first Eberhard and Marc Tarpenning in 2003 (Disputed)
Appeared to be larger than Pluto. This triggered a Tesla is accelerating the word's transition to
debate in the scientific community that led to the sustainable energy with electric cars, solar and
international Astronomical Union's decision 2006 to integrated renewable energy solutions for homes and
clarify the definition of a planet. Pluto Eris and other business founder.
similar object are how classified as dwarf Planets. Eris 52. Among the following the musical instrument
was discovered on Oct. 2003 by M.E. brown, C.A. with six strings is
Trujillo and D. Rabinowitz at the Palomar observatory. (a) guitar (b) harmonium
(c) harmonica (d) santoor
49. The name of the business group cofounded by
Chinese businessman Jack Ma is Ans. (a) : The guitar is a musical instrument of the
(a) Flipkart (b) Amazon Chardophone family. The standard guitar has six
(c) Walmart (d) Alibaba strings. It is one of the primary instruments in jazz,
rock and pop music.
Ans. (d) : A former english teacher Jack Ma co-
founded Alibaba group one of the world's largest e- 53. The clouds which develop 'anvil' are
commerce businesses. (a) stratus (b) cumulonimbus
Flipkart– Flipkart is an E-commerce company (c) cirrocumulus (d) nimbostratus
headquartered in Bangalore Karnataka India and Ans. (b) : Cumulonimbus known as the king of clouds,
registered in Singapore. CEO of flipkart Kalyan it exist through the entire height of the troposphere,
Krishnamurthy. Parent organisation walmart. usually characterised by their icy, anvil-shaped top.
Amazon– Amazon is an American multinational 54. The tenure of non-permanent members of the
technology company based in Washington which Security Council of the UN is
focuses on E-commerce, Cloud computing, digital (a) 3 years (b) 2 years
streaming and artificial intelligence. CEO of Amazon (c) 4 years (d) 5 years
is Jeff Bezos. Ans. (b) : On every five year 10 non permanent
Walmart– American multinational retail corporation members are elected for a tenure of two years. The
that operates a chain of hyper markets. The company U.N. Security Council is one of the six principal
was founded by Sam Walton in 1962. organs of the United Nations.
CEO of Wal-Mart Doug Mc millon. 55. The first female judge of the Supreme Court of
50. The name of the renowned classical dancer India is
who became MP in July 2018 is (a) Anna Chandy (b) Indu Malhotra
(a) Sonal Man Singh (c) M. Fatima Devi (d) Indira Mukherjee
(b) Yamini Krishna Murthy Ans. (*) : Justice Fatima Bibi was the first woman
(c) M. Sarabhai Supreme Court Judge and she was appointed in 1989,
(d) Shovana Narayan 40 years after the establishment of Supreme Court.
BPSC AE (GS) August, 2019 73 YCT
56. The height of the Statue of Unity is people. Article 74 of the Indian constitution talks
(a) 46 m (b) 182 m about of having council of ministers. The cabinet's role
(c) 93 m (d) 67 m is to advise the President on any subject. The head of
Ans. (b) : The Statue of Unity is a testimonial to the the state holds a ceremonial position and is the
life of Sardar Patel, a role model of Unity and nominal executive.
statesmanship. The Statue of Unity is the world's In India the head of government is the Prime Minister
tallest statue, with the height of 182 metres (597 feets) who is the real executive.
which is almost the double hight of the statue of Executive is a part of legislature.
Liberty, USA. 62. Among the following, which country does not
57. The Space Probe sent by NASA to Jupiter is represent Commonwealth Nation?
(a) Dawn (b) Opportunity (a) Pakistan (b) Nepal
(c) Curiosity (d) Juno (c) Uganda (d) Seychelles
Ans. (d) : Juno is a NASA space probe orbiting the Ans. (b) : Commonwealth of Nation formerly (1931-
planet. Juno entered a polar orbit of Jupiter on 5th July 49) British Commonwealth of Nations a free
2016, to begin a scientific investigation of the planet. Association of Sovereign States comprising the United
After completing its mission, Juno will be intentionally Kingdom and number of its former dependencies who
deorbited into Jupiter's atmosphere. have chosen to maintain ties of friendship and practical
58. The tax imposed on a commodity according to co-operation and who acknowledge the British
Monarch as symbolic head of their Association. In
its value is called
1965 the commonwealth secretariat was established in
(a) advance tax (b) revenue tax
London to organize and co-ordinate common wealth
(c) ad valorem tax (d) goods tax
activities. Nepal is not part of commonwealth group of
Ans. (c) : Ad valorem tax, any tax that imposed on the Nations.
basis of the monetary value of the taxed item. Literally
63. Essential attribute of the State among the
the term means "according to value." The tax base was
following is
defined in terms of physical units such as gallons,
(a) democracy (b) socialism
pounds or any individual items.
(c) nationalism (d) sovereignty
59. The number of judges in the International Ans. (d) : The state has four essential attributes viz.
Court of Justice is Population, territory, government and sovereignty.
(a) 9 (b) 15 Population and territory constitute the physical basis of
(c) 12 (d) 7 the state while government and sovereignty constitute
Ans. (b) : The International Court of Justice is its legal basis or political basis.
composed of 15 Judges elected to nine-years terms of 64. Blood platelets help in
office by the United Nations General Assembly and (a) manufacture of RBC
the Security Council. (b) clotting of blood
60. The forest known for large scale lumbering is (c) manufacture of WBC
called (d) manufacture of monocytes
(a) equatorial forest (b) mixed forest Ans. (b) : Platelets are tiny blood cells that help your
(c) coniferous forest (d) monsoon forest body form clots to stop bleeding. If one of your blood
Ans. (c) : Lumbering is the process of cutting and vessels gets damaged it send out signals to the
processing trees to generate limber and pulp to platelets. The platelets then rush to the site of damage
replenish the world's market for furniture, paper and and form a plug to fix the damage.
other products. The procedure of lumbering range from 65. Which among the following Life Insurance
large-scale marketable timber plantations to Policies is not in benefit of children?
individuals harvesting fuel wood. Coniferous forest is (a) Jewan Suraksha (b) Jewan Kishore
best suited for this process. (c) Jewan Sukanya (d) Jewan Chhaya
61. Which of the following is an essential feature of Ans. (a) : Jeevan Suraksha-This is a traditional
Parliamentary Government? policy which promises guaranteed benefits on death or
(a) Separation of power maturity. Term of the policy (2 year to 35 year)
(b) Proportional representation Jeevan Kishore Scheme– Jeevan Kishore is an
(c) Rule of law endowment assurance plan that can be purchased by
(d) Cabinet responsibility of legislature either the parent or grand parent for a child.
Ans. (d) : The Constitution of India provides for a Jevan Chhaya Scheme– This is the perfect policy for
parliament consisting of an elected president and the someone planning for children higher education or
two houses the house of the people (Lok Sabha) and marriage.
the council of states (Rajya Sabha). The council of Jewan Sukanya Scheme– This scheme only for girl
ministers is collective responsible to the house of child.

BPSC AE (GS) August, 2019 74 YCT

66. 104 satellites were deployed in Sun- 71. J. K. Rowling is the author of the book
synchronous orbit by ISRO using the vehicle (a) The Affluent Society
(a) PSLV-D3 (b) PSLV-C37 (b) The Philosopher's Stone
(c) PSLV-C43 (d) PSLV-C35 (c) Authorised Biography
Ans. (b) : PSLV-C37 was the 39th mission of the (d) A Suitable Boy
Indian Polar Satellite launch vehicle (PSLV) Ans. (b) : Author J.K. Rowling has written not one but
programme and its 16th mission in the XL four new books about the wizarding world. These
configuration. PSLV-C-37 successfully carried and books won't be stories of harry and his adventures but
deployed a record 104 satellites in sun synchronous they will be a factual series about the subjects he and
orbits. his friend studied at Hogwart Harry Potter. A journey
XL configuration– Upgraded version of PSLV. through potions and Herbology.
67. The operating speed of Bullet Train approved 1.The Ickbog
for India's first high speed rail corridor is 2.Fantastic Beasts and where to find them
(a) 310 km/hr (b) 330 km/hr 3.Harry Potter and the Philospher's stone
(c) 320 km/hr (d) 350 km/hr 4.The casual vacancy
Ans. (c) : The system will be designed to operate train 72. At present world's largest single location solar
at a maximum speed of 350 kmph (220 mph) while the park is
operational speed would be 320 kmph (200 mph). (a) Tengger Desert Solar Park
Operator– National high speed Rail Corporation Ltd. (b) Bhadla Solar Park
68. Abundant and unlimited energy on Sun is due (c) Kamuthi Solar Park
to (d) Noor Complex Solar Park
(a) fission of nuclei (b) fission of protons Ans. (d) : Noor complex Solar Power Plant Morocco.
(c) collision of atoms (d) fusion of nulei Noor complex is the world's largest concentrated solar
Ans. (d) : Solar energy is any type of energy generated power plant located in the Sahara desert. The project
by the sun. Solar energy is created by nuclear fusion has a 580 Mega watt capacity and is expected to
that takes place in the sun. fusion occurs when protons provide electricity for over 1 million people once
of hydrogen atoms violently collide in the sun's core completed by 2020.
and fuse to create a helium atom. This process known Tengger Desert Solar Park– This park located in
as proton-proton chain reaction which emits an China. Capacity of the power plant is 1547 M.Watt.
enormous amount of energy. The Temperature for Kamuthi Solar Park– This park located in Tamil
these star is around 4 million degree on the Kelvin Nadu India capacity of the power plant 648 MW.
scale. Bhadla Solar Park– This plant located in Rajsthan
69. The biggest flower in the world is 2245 MW capacity.
(a) Sunflower (b) Corpse flower Note-World's largest renewable energy park opened in
(c) Palm of Christ (d) Rafflesia arnoldii Rann of Kutch near Indo-Pak border(Gujarat) in 2021.
Ans. (d) : The flower with the worlds largest bloom is 73. The largest joint in human body is
the Refflesia Arnoldii. This rare flower is founded in (a) elbow (b) hip
the rainforests of Indonesia. It can grow upto 3 feet (c) knee (d) shoulder
across and weight upto 15 pounds. It also founded in
Ans. (c) : The largest joint in the body the knee moves
South East Asia Rafflesia are most common to Borneo
like a hinge allowing you to sit , walk and jump. The
and Sumatra. It is a parasitic plant.
knee consists of three bones femur the upper leg bone
70. Escape velocity of satellite from earth is
or thighbone.
(a) 11.4 km/sec (b) 12.4 km/hr
Hip– The part of the side of your body above your legs
(c) 11.2 km/hr (d) 12.2 km/hr
and below your waist.
Ans. (c) : Escape velocity is the minimum speed
74. In which sport do players try to hit the ball to
needed for a free non propelled object to escape from
make it touch the surface of rival team's court
the gravitational influence of a massive body that is to
to earn a point?
eventually reach an infinite distance from it. Escape
(a) Baseball (b) Volleyball
velocity rises with the body's mass and falls with the
escaping object's distance from its centre. The escape (c) Basketball (d) Polo
velocity thus depends on how far the object has Ans. (b) : Volleyball game play by two teams usually
already travelled and its calculation at a given distance of six player on each side in which the player use their
takes into account the fact that without new acceleration it hands to bat a ball back and fourth over a high not
will glow down as it travel due to the massive body's trying to make the ball touch the court within the
gravity but it will never quite slow to a stop. opponent's playing area before it can be returned.

BPSC AE (GS) August, 2019 75 YCT

75. Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Assam and West 81. Which is the oldest language of India?
Bengal share their boundary with the country (a) Tamil (b) Sanskrit
(a) Bangladesh (b) Nepal (c) Telugu (d) Malayalam
(c) Bhutan (d) Myanmar Ans. (b) : Sanskrit the ancient language of India which
Ans. (c) : Bhutan officially known as the kingdom of can be traced back to 2000 BC in its earliest written
Bhutan is a land locked country. Prime Minister of Bhutan form. While today only a very small group of people
is Lotay Tshering currency of Bhutan is Ngultrum. still speak the language. It has had a large influence on
King of Bhutan is Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuk.
several western language as part of the common Indo-
76. Smell of hydrogen sulphide is usually European language root.
compared with
Tamil Language– The Tamil language is recognized
(a) bitter almond (b) rotten eggs
as the oldest language in the world and it is the oldest
(c) rose (d) coffee
language of the Dravidian family.
Ans. (b) : Hydrogen sulphide (H2S) is a colourless gas
with a characteristic odour of rotten egges which being Telugu– Telugu is a Dravidian language spoken by
denser than air .Chlorine bleach can effectively remove Telugu people predominantly living in the Indian
medium to high levels of hydrogen sulphide. The States of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
chlorine in the bleach chemically react with hydrogen Malayalam– Malayalam is a Dravidian language
sulphide eliminating the rotten egg odour. spoken in the Indian state of Kerala and the Union
77. Which among the following creatures has territories of Lakshadweep and Puducherry by the
tongue fixed in front and free at the back? Malayali people.
(a) Monkey (b) Rabbit 82. Decimalization system in India was introduced
(c) Cat (d) Frog in the year
Ans. (d) : Frog's tongues are attached to the front of (a) 1956 (b) 1957
their mouths rather than at the back like human's. (c) 1955 (d) 1947
When a frog catches an insects it throws its sticky Ans. (b) : 1 April 1957 India changed from the rupee
tongue out of it's mouth and wraps it around it's prey. anna-pie system to decimal currency on 1 April 1957.
Frog is a creatures of Amphibian class.
Decimal fractions were first developed and used by the
78. Which among the following is not an air Chinese in the end of 4th century BCE and then spread
pollutant normally?
to the middle east and from there to Europe.
(a) CO (b) CO2
(c) SO2 (d) Hydroarbon 83. The first director of Human Space Flight
Ans. (a) : Carbon Monoxide (CO) – A colourless, Centre set up by ISRO is
odourless, tasteless & toxic air pollutant. It is produced (a) Unni Krishnan Nair (b) K. Sivan
in the incomplete combustion of carbon-containing (c) Tapan Mishra (d) M. Annaduraj
fuels, such as gasoline oil, coal & wood. Ans. (a) : Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Note– The Commission has deleted this question. named Unni Krishnan Nair who led its advanced space
79. Mostly antibiotics are obtained from transportation programme at the Vikram Sarabhai
(a) bacteria (b) viruses Space Centre as the man to steer it as also the director
(c) angiosperms (d) fungi of the new centre.
Ans. (a) : Antibiotics are compounds which might be HSFC will take support of the existing ISRO centres to
produced through an organism and inhibit the increase implement the first development flight of Gaganyaan
of any other organism. They are generally obtained under human space flight programme. Dr. S. Unni
from microorganism like bacteria. They are used to Krishnan Nair is the founder director of HSFC and
combat bacterial infection however they are net Shri R. Hutton is the Project Director of Gaganyaan
beneficial in viral infection. project.
80. A computer can only execute instructions that
84. The present chief of National Disaster
are in
Response Force is
(a) assembly language (b) BASIC language
(c) machine language (d) job control program (a) M. N. Kapoor (b) R. K. Pachnanda
(c) R. K. Kini (d) Sanjay Kumar
Ans. (c) : Computer can only execute programs in
machine level language. In this language each Ans. (*) : The Head of the National disaster response
instruction is represented in binary form. A program is force. Shri S. N. Pradhan (since 2019 to till date).
converted into machine level instruction by the NDRF comes under ministry of home affairs.
compiler interpreter or an assembler for making it Sri Sanjay Kumar IPS was Chief of NDRF from
suitable to understand by the C.P.U. 2017 to 2018.

BPSC AE (GS) August, 2019 76 YCT

 Despite multidimensional challenges the brave hearts World Water Day– World Water Day held on 22
of NDRF always led from the front displayed high March every year since 1993, celebrates water and
level of dedication and commitment towards our motto raises awareness.
(Deeheoe mesJee meowJe) which implies sustained disaster 89. Plants attached to stones and rocks are known
response service under all circumstances. as
Note– S.N. Prasad, I.P.S. is the present chief of (a) lithophytes (b) halophytes
National Disaster Response Force. (c) aerophytes (d) psammophytes
85. 2010 BRICS Summit was held in Ans. (a) : Lithophytes are plants that grow in or on
(a) China (b) India rocks. These plants that grow on rocks are also known
(c) Russia (d) Brazil as epipetric or epilithic plant.
Ans. (d) : The 2010 BRICS Summit took place in Halophyte is a salt tolerant plants that grow in soil or
Brazil on April 2010. BRICS is for acronym of five waters of high salinity coming into contact with water
large economies– Brazil, Russia, India, China and through its root or by salt spray such as in saline semi
South Africa. Since 2009, BRICS nations meet deserts mangrove swamps marshes and sloughs and
annually. (Founded in 2006). seashores.
Aerophytes– a plant growing entirely in the air and
86. The 1954 Bharat Ratna Award was given to
receiving its nourishment from it.
(a) Sir C. V. Raman (b) Bhagwan Das
Psammophyte– a plant that thrives in shifting sands
(c) M. Visvesvarya (d) G. V. Pant
primarily in desert. Psammophyte are marked by a
Ans. (a) : The first recipients of the Bharat Ratna were
number of adaptations that enable them to exist on
the last Governor General of the Dominion of India C.
wind blown sands.
Rajgopala Chari the second President and the first Vice
President of India. Sarvepalli Radha Krishnan and 90. Black Holes are celestial bodies which have
Nobel Prize laureate physicist C. V. Raman who was strong
(a) electrical force (b) magnetic force
honoured in 1954.
(c) gravitational force (d) cosmic force
In year 2019 Bharat Ratna has given to Pranab
Mukharjee. Ans. (c) : A black hole is a region in space where the
pulling force of gravity is so strong that light is not
87. In India, the first monorail system came into
able to escape. The strong gravity occurs because
existence at
matter has been pressed into a tiny space. This
(a) Kolkata (b) New Delhi
compression can take place at the end of a star's life.
(c) Mumbai (d) Chennai
Some black hole is the result of dying stars.
Ans. (c) : The Chembur-Wadala-Jacob circle monorail
network has begun operation in Mumbai. Stretched 91. Mark Twain wrote about which of the
over 19.54 km this network will be India's first following cites 'older than history, older than
monorail system. The third longest monorail network tradition, older even than legend and looks
in the world aspires to change the commuting twice old as all of them put together'?
(a) Delhi (b) Dhaka
experience of Mumbai.
(c) Prayagraj (d) Varanasi
88. 31st May is observed as
Ans. (d) : Varanasi has been a centre of learning and
(a) World No Tobacco Day
civilisation for over 2000 years, and claims to be one
(b) World Environment Day
of the oldest living cities in the world. Mark twain
(c) World Population Day
wrote that Benares is older than history older than
(d) World Water Day
tradition older even that legend and looks twice as old
Ans. (a) : World Health Organisation (WHO)
as all of them put together.
celebrates World no Tobacco Day every year on 31st
May. The day is being celebrated to draw global 92. VVPAT machines are used by the Election
attention to the Tobacco epidemic including the Commission of India to
(a) declare winners
preventable death and disease.
(b) provide feedback to voters
World Environment Day– World Environment Day
(c) count votes
is celebrated on 5th June every year and is the United
(d) verify voters
Nations principal vehicle for encouraging awareness
and action for the protection of the environment. Ans. (d) : The commission used VVPAT with EVMs
World Population Day– World Population Day is an first time in bye election from 51 – NOKSEN (ST)
annual event observed on 11 July every year which Assembly constituency of Nagaland. Voter Verifiable
seeks to raise awareness of global population issues. Paper Audit Trail is an independent system attached
The event was established by the governing council of with the electronic voting machines that allows the
the United Nations development programme in 1989. voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended.

BPSC AE (GS) August, 2019 77 YCT

93. The first stock ticker in 1867 was invented by Nina Simone was an American singer, song writer
(a) Edward Calahan (b) Thomas Edison musician arranger and civil rights activist.
(c) David Gestetner (d) Robert Barclay Slystone is an American musician song writer and
Ans. (a) : The first stock price ticker system using a reward producer who is most famous for his role as
telegraphic printer was invented by Edward A. frontman for sly and the family stone playing a critical
Calahan in 1863 he unveiled his device in Newyork role in development of soul, funk, rock.
city on November 1867. 97. Maintenance of soil fertility without addition of
Thomas Edison was an American inventor. He nutrients is due to
developed many devices in fields such as electric (a) crop residue
power generation and mass communication sound (b) activity of microorganism
recording and motion pictures. (c) flood
David Gestetner was the inventor of gestetner stencil (d) favorable temperature
duplicator the first piece of office equipment that Ans. (b) : Soil fertility is the ability of a soil to sustain
allowed production of numerous copy of documents agriculture plant growth. It is maintained without
quickly. addition of nutrition due to microbial activity.
Robert Barclay was a Scottish quaker. Microbes increases the amount of nutrients in soil
94. Imaginary lines connecting places of equal available for plants. Maintaining soil fertility naturally
rainfall are called using microbes can reduce the need for synthetic
(a) isobars (b) isotherms fertilizers and pesticides.
(c) isohalines (d) isohyet 98. The full form of ACB in computers is
Ans. (d) : An Isohyet or isohyetal line is a line joining (a) Application Control Block
points of equal rainfall on a map in a given period. A (b) Automatic Control Base
map with isohyets is called an isohyetal map. (c) Auxiliary Central Base
Isobars – A line drawn on a weather map connecting (d) Access Control Block
points of equal pressure is call as isobar. Ans. (a) : Application Control Block – It is security
Isotherms a line on a weather map that joins places practice that blocks or restricts unauthorised
that have the same temperature at a particular time. applications.
Isohalines are lines that join points of equal salinity in 99. The study of microscopic structures of organs
an aquatic system. Isohaline position refers to the and tissues is known as
distance of a near bottom isohaline from the mouth of (a) pathology
a coastal water way. (b) histology
95. The highest number of satellites launched in a (c) immunology
single mission in one go from a single rocket by (d) endocrinology
ISRO is Ans. (b) : Pathology is the study of the causes and
(a) 101 (b) 104 effects of diseases or injury. The word pathology also
(c) 83 (d) 37 refers to the study of disease in general incorporating a
Ans. (b) : Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) wide range of biology research fields and medical
scripted history by successfully launching a record 104 practices.
satellite including India's earth observation satellite on Immunology–Immunology is the study of the immune
a single rocket from the space port in Sriharikota. system and is a very important branch of the medical
This is the highest number of satellite ever launched in and biological sciences. The immune system protects
a single mission in the world till 2020. us from infection through various lines of defence.
Note– SPACE X has broken ISRO's record of 104 Endocrinology is the study of the endocrine system in
satellite in one single go by 143 satellite on 26th the human body. This is a system of glands which
January 2021. secrete hormones.
96. The recipient of Grammy Award 2013 was 100. Vinod Dham, an Indian American Engineer is
(a) Nina Simone (b) Slystone known as the father of the technology product
(c) Ravi Shankar (d) A. R. Rahman (a) Bluetooth
Ans. (c) : Ravi Shankar beats with Anoushka Shankar (b) iPod
daughters. (c) Pentium Chip
Ravi Shankar has won five Grammy Awards including (d) 4K TV
life time achievement award. Ans. (c) : He is known as father of the Pentium chip
A. R. Rahman has won two Grammy Awards for for his contribution to the development of Intel's
Slumdog Millionaire. Pentium Microprocessor.

BPSC AE (GS) August, 2019 78 YCT

 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2017
Assistant Engineer (Civil/Mechanical) Mains
GENERAL ENGINEERING SCIENCE (PAPER-IV)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 1 Hour ] [ Exam Date : 7 August, 2019

1. A transformer is used In 0.02 second, number of pulses to be rectified = 1

(a) to transform electrical to mechanical energy 1
So, in 1 sec, number of pulses to be rectified =
(b) to obtain suitable DC voltage 0.02
(c) to transform AC into DC = 50
(d) to obtain suitable AC voltage
4. Cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights
Ans. (d) : A transformer is used to obtain suitable AC because
voltage. Transformer is a static device which transform (a) cloud absorbs heat during day and radiates in
electricity from one circuit to another with change in
night
AC voltage to get suitable voltage at output.
(b) cloud reflects back radiations to earth
2. For amplification for a triode valve, signal to
(c) atmospheric temperature increases in pressure
be amplified is connected between
of clouds
(a) cathode and grid
(b) plate and grid (d) cloud absorbs cold and radiates heat
(c) cathode and plate Ans. (b) : Cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear
(d) a large negative potential cloudless nights, because clouds reflect back the heat
Ans. (a) : For amplification by triode valve, the signal given off by earth.
to do amplified is connected between cathode and grid. 5. Sea breeze is caused by
The amplification is based on small change in grid (a) conduction of heat
voltage that cause large change in grid current. This (b) radiation of heat
voltage signal is amplified and superimposed to grid. (c) convection of heat
3. A junction diode is used as a half-wave (d) both conduction and convection of heat
rectifier. Input signal is of frequency 50 Hz.
The number of pulses rectified per second is Ans. (c) : The Sea-Breeze is a circulation that develops
due to differential heating of air over land and Sea. As
(a) 25/2
the sun heats the boundary layer over land, the
(b) 25
resulting pressure gradient causes the movement of
(c) 50
low-level air from the sea to land (Sea-Breeze) with a
(d) 50 × 2
return flow aloft (return current). Sea-Breeze is a
Ans. (c) regular phenomenon throughout the year and it is
caused by convection of heat.
6. Streamline flow is more likely for liquids with
(a) high density
(b) high viscosity
(c) low viscosity
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b) : We know for streamline flow, Reynold's
Number should be low and Reynold's Number for a
fluid is given by
ρVD
Re =
µ
From output wave form– If we consider low density and high viscosity then
1pulse is rectified in T sec. Reynold's number should be low
T → Time period of input signal  ρ↓
  Re↓ =
 1  µ↑
 T = = 0.02 sec.  Therefore liquid is in streamline flow.
f

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) August, 2019 79 YCT

7. Bernoulli’s theorem concludes that ∆T
(a) velocity is less where pressure is more and Q=
R eq
vice versa
L
(b) fluid is viscous and compressible R=
(c) fluid is rotational KA
(d) viscosity of liquid is independent of pressure L
R1 =
Ans. (a) : Bernoulli's Theorem–"It states that in a K1A
steady, ideal flow of an incompressible fluid, the total L
R2 =
energy at any point of the fluid is constant". k 2A
P V2 Req = R1 + R2
+ + Z = Constant
ρg 2g L L
= +
If Z = Constant k1A k 2 A
P V2 L 1 1 
Then ↑+ ↓= Constant 2L
=  + 
ρg 2g k eq A A  k1 k 2 
Assumptions are :
2 1 1
(1) Ideal fluid, (2) Steady, (3) Incompressible, (4) Non ∴ = +
viscous, (5) irrotational, (6) continuous flow k eq k1 k 2
8. Orifice means 10. When the temperature difference between
(a) a small hole through which fluid comes out body and surrounding is large, which law will
(b) a big hole through which fluid comes out be applicable?
(c) disorderly flow of fluid (a) Newton’s law of cooling
(d) pressure due to column of liquid (b) Reynold’s law
(c) Stefan’s law for cooling
Ans. (a) : An orifice is an opening having a closed
(d) None of the above
perimeter, made in the walls or the bottom of a tank or
a vessel containing fluid, through which the fluid may Ans. (c) : When the temperature difference between
be discharged. body and surrounding is large, then the heat transfer by
radiation occurs which governed by Stefan’s law of
The orifices may be classified on the basis of their
radiation for cooling.
size, shape, shape of the upstream edges and the
discharge conditions. According to the size, the Q ' = σ A (T14 − T24 )
orifices may be classified as small and large orifices. σ → Stefan's Boltzman const.
According to the shape, the orifices may be classified 11. A voltmeter has
as circular, rectangular, square and triangular. (a) small resistance and large current-carrying
Orifice meter Cd = 0.65 to 0.70 capacity
Venturimeter Cd = 0.97 to 0.99 (b) large resistance and small current-carrying
Both are used to measure flow of fluid. capacity
9. When two metal rods of same length and same (c) small resistance and small current-carrying
cross-section of conductivity k1 and k2 are capacity
connected in series, the effective conductivity is (d) small resistance and small current-carrying
k + k2 capacity
(a) k = 1 (b) k = k1 + k2 Ans. (b) : A voltmeter has large resistance and small
2
current carrying capacity. A voltmeter is always
1 1 1 2 1 1
(c) = + (d) = + connected in parallel to circuit to measure its voltage.
k k1 k 2 k k1 k 2 It consist of large internal resistance with series to
dT (T − T ) galvanometer which causes small current flowing
Ans. (d) : We know, Q = −KA = KA 1 2 through it.
dx 2

k eq A(T1 − T2 )
Q=
L

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) August, 2019 80 YCT

12. If the speed of a generator is doubled, then Ans. (d) : Planimeter used to determine the area of an
induced e.m.f. will arbitrary two dimensional shape.
(a) become half 16. The function of sand in concrete is
(b) become double (a) to reduce shrinkage
(c) become four times (b) to in-promote cement hydration
(d) remain unchanged (c) to prevent efflorescence
Ans. (b) : Induced emf in a DC generator (d) none of the above
PNφZ
E= Ans. (a) : Sand is used to provide bulk, strength,
60A reduce the shrinkage and other properties to concrete.
E∝N
17. Advantage of cast iron over mild steel is
N1 = N and N2 = 2N
(a) it has higher ductility
Then
(b) it has relatively low melting point
E1 N1 E N 1 (c) it has higher tensile strength
= ⇒ 1 = =
E2 N2 E 2 2N 2 (d) it is more malleable
E2 = 2E1 Ans. (b) : The cast Iron has better compressive
Hence if speed is double in generator, then induced strength than mild steel. And it has relatively low
emf will become double. melting point.
13. Angle of elevation of a tree can be measured by 18. Pelton wheel extracts energy from
(a) dumpy level (a) dead weight of water
(b) prismatic compass (b) axial and radial flow of water
(c) theodolite (c) diesel generator
(d) plane table survey (d) impulse of moving water
Ans. (c) : The theodolite is the most intricate and Ans. (d) : Pelton Wheel is an impulse type water
accurate instrument used for measuring horizontal and turbine, which extracts energy from the impulse of
vertical angles. moving water.
Plane Table Surveying–The method of surveying in
19. Chemicals used to protect timber from fungi
which the field work and plotting are done
and insects are called
simultaneously, is could plane tabling.
(a) timber preservatives
14. In plane survey, width of a river can be (b) timber seasoning
measured with
(c) knots
(a) total station
(d) none of the above
(b) dumpy level
Ans. (a) : Chemicals used to protect from fungi and
(c) theodolite
insects are called timber preservatives.
(d) clinometer
Seasoning of timber is the process of reducing the
Ans. (c) : In plane survey, width of a river can be moisture content of timber.
measured with theodolite.
Knot–This defect is caused by the roots of small
Dumpy Level–Dumpy level is most suitable when branches of the frequency which as embedded in the
many readings are to be taken from a single setting of stem with formation of circular rings at right angles to
instrument. those of the stem. The knot may be live knot or dead
Total Station–Total station is an advanced theodolite knot.
which has electronic theodolite. By this instrument
distance, angle in horizontal and vertical axis and 20. Compressive strength of 2nd class brick is
2
elevation can be measured. (a) 105 kg/cm
Clinometer–Clinometer is an instrument for (b) 70 kg/cm2
measuring angles slope (or tilt), elevation or (c) 35 kg/cm2
depression of an object with respect to gravity. (d) 125 kg/cm2
Theodolite–Theodolite is the most accurate instrument Ans. (b) :
used for measuring horizontal and vertical angles. Types of bricks Compressive
15. Area of a map can be measured by strength (kg/cm2)
(a) total station (1) Common building brick 35
(b) plane table survey (2) Third class bricks 35
(c) chain survey (3) Second class bricks 70
(d) planimeter (4) First class bricks 105
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) August, 2019 81 YCT
21. The function of thinner in paint is Ans. (c) : Given, tx = 10 sec., ty = 10 sec.
(a) it provides desired consistency 1
(b) it provides adhesion and integrity We know that, s = ut + at 2
2
(c) it provides colors
u = 0, tx = 10
(d) it makes the surface tough after drying
1
Ans. (a) : The thinner or solvent (Turpentive oil, sx = a × (10) 2 .....(1) x = 50a
naptha petroleum spirit etc) is added to the point to 2
modify the consistency of the point, to make its 1
sy = a × (20)2 y = 150a = 3 × 50a
application easy and smooth. 2
22. Which of the following is not responsible for y = 3x
water pollution?
(a) Turbidity 27. The angles between two forces to make their
(b) Temperature resultant a minimum and a maximum
(c) Sodium respectively are
(d) Chlorine (a) 0° and 90°
Ans. (d) : Chlorine is not responsible for water (b) 180° and 90°
pollution. (c) 90° and 180°
23. Ultimate strain of mild steel rods is (d) 180° and 0°
(a) less than TMT rods r r
Ans. (d) : Suppose two force P and Q
(b) more than TMT rods
We know that,
(c) equal to that of TMT rods
(d) none of the above Then R = P 2 + Q 2 + 2PQ cos θ
Ans. (b) : For maximum resultant– cosθ = 1, θ = 0°
24. Critical path is in CPM R = P+Q
(a) cannot be compressed further
(b) is the shortest path For minimum resultant– cosθ = –1, θ = 180°
(c) is the longest path R = P−Q
(d) none of the above
Ans. (c) : Critical Path–The path in the network 28. Two springs have their force constants k1 and
which take the maximum of time is called critical path k2 (k1 > k2). When both the springs are
and the activities on critical path are called critical stretched by the same amount of length, the
activities. work done in these springs will be
The time taken along the critical path gives the (a) equal
expected project completion time. (b) greater for k1
CPM are activity oriented which takes the longest path (c) greater for k2
including critical activities having total float zero. (d) none of the above
25. In PERT, if the length of two paths are equal, Ans. (b) : Suppose stretched in both spring ∆x
then critical path is decided on the basis of
F1 = k1∆x
(a) standard deviation
(b) early start time calculation F2 = k2∆x
(c) early finish time calculation k ∆x 2
W1 = F1 × ∆x = 1
(d) total float 2
Ans. (a) : If the length of two path are equal then k ∆x 2
critical path is decided on basis of varience. W2 = F2 × ∆x = 2
2
Varience is related to standard deviation W ∝ k
Varience = (standard deviation)2
If k1 > k2 then W1 > W2
26. A particle starts moving from rest under a
constant acceleration. It travels a distance x in 29. An engine develops 10 kW of power. How
first 10 seconds and a distance y in next 10 much time will it take to lift a mass of 200 kg to
seconds. Then a height of 40 m? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) y = x (a) 4 seconds
(b) y = 2x (b) 5 seconds
(c) y = 3x (c) 8 seconds
(d) y = 4x (d) 10 seconds
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) August, 2019 82 YCT
 Ans. (c) : Given, P = 10 kW, g = 10 m/s2 Energy per unit volume in a stretched wire
m = 200 kg, h = 40 m 1 P ∆ 1
=  × ×  = × σ×∈
We know that, 2 A L 2
Work W 1
Power (P) = = = × Stress × Strain
Time T 2
mgh
W = mgh ⇒ P =
T
200 × 10 × 40
10 × 103 =
T
200 × 10 × 40
T=
10 × 103
T = 8 sec
30. The potential energy of a simple pendulum is 33. A simply supported beam and a cantilever
maximum when it is have equal lengths. Both are subjected to same
(a) at the turning points of oscillation uniformly distributed load. Maximum bending
(b) at the equilibrium stress in cantilever is (given EI are same)
(c) in between above two cases (a) equal to that in simply supported
(d) it has always a fixed value (b) more than simply supported
(c) less than simply supported
Ans. (a) : At the heighest turning point of oscillations,
the kinetic energy of the pendulum become zero but as (d) cannot be compared
mechanical energy of the pendulum is constant (that is Ans. (b) : Given,
due to the conservative nature of gravitation force) the (i) Length (l) is same for both beam
potential energy become maximum. (ii) Both subjected to same UDL
31. Which of the following is not a unit of Young’s (iii) EI is same for both beam
modulus? We know,
(a) N/m2 For simply supported beam when subjected to UDL
wl 2 Wl
(b) Megapascal ( M max )1 = = (Q W = wl)
(c) Dyne/cm2 8 8
(d) N/m For cantilever beam when subjected to UDL
Ans. (d) : Stress (σ)= Young's modulus (E) × Strain (Mmax)2 = Wl = wl2
(∈) ( M max )2 > ( M max )1
Stress N  F N  Maximum bending moment in simply supported beam
E= = Q Stress = = 2 
Srain m 2  A m  is less than that of cantiliver beam so bending stress in
cantilever will be more.
1Megapascal = 1× 106 N / m 2
34. Which section will be subjected to
1 dyne/cm2 = 0.1 N/m2 unsymmetrical bending?
Only (d) option is incorrect. (a) Channel section
32. Energy per unit volume in a stretched wire is (b) H-section
(a) 1/2 load × strain (c) Circular section
(b) load × strain (d) Square section
(c) stress × strain Ans. (a) :
(d) 1/2 stress × strain 35.
A cantilever is loaded with a concentrated load
Ans. (d) : Work done on wire stored in material in theP at the free end. The shear force at the centre
form of the energy. of the beam will be
1 (a) P
Work done = Stored energy = P × ∆ (b) P/2
2
(c) zero
 1 P×∆  1 P ∆
Stored energy (E) =  × × V =  × × × V (d) none of the above
2 V  2 A L
Ans. (a) :
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) August, 2019 83 YCT
 39. Portland Pozzolana cement when compared to
ordinary Portland cement will give after 28
days
(a) more compressive strength
(b) less compressive strength
(c) equal compressive strength
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b) : Portland Pozzolana cements develops its
strength at slower rate and hence its compressive
dM strength in easly days is less. It will give less
For given condition =0
dx compressive strength compared to ordinary portland
So, shear stress distribution same for all over beam and cement after 28 days.
shear. 40. For adiabatic change in gas
36. In case of column, critical or Euler’s buckling (a) TVγ–1 = constant
load at which buckled mode is possible is (b) TVγ–2 = constant
(a) maximum force (c) TVγ+1 = constant
(b) least force (d) TV–1 = constant
(c) average force
Ans. (a) : For adiabatic process change in gas
(d) shear force
properties
π2 EI γ−1
γ−1
Ans. (b) : Euler's critical load (Pcr )= T  P  γ T2  v1 
l eq 2
=  2
; = 
In case of column, critical or Euler’s buckling load at T1  P1  T1  v 2 
which buckled mode is possible is least force. 41. Air in a cylinder is suddenly compressed by a
piston which is then maintained at the same
position. With the passage of time
(a) pressure increases
(b) pressure decreases
(c) pressure remains the same
(d) pressure may increase or decrease
Ans. (b) :
42. A Carnot engine operates between 127°C and
27°C. If the engine receives 60 cal heat from
the source per cycle, quantity of heat rejected
per cycle is
37. The phenomenon of decreased resistance of a
(a) 25 cal
material to repeated stresses is called
(b) 45 cal
(a) toughness
(b) stress concentration (c) 50 cal
(c) fatigue (d) 55 cal
(d) endurance limit Ans. (b) : Given, T1 = 127°C = 400 K
Ans. (c) : Toughness : it is the property of material T2 = 27°C = 300 K
which enables it to absorb energy without fracture. Q1 = 60 cal
Endurance Limit : it is the stress level below which
even large number of stress cycle can not produce
fatigue failure.
38. Universal testing machine is used to determine
(a) compressive strength
(b) tensile strength
(c) shear strength For carnot engine,
(d) both tension and compression
T
Ans. (d) : A universal Testing Machine (UTM), also Q2 = 2 Q1
T1
known as a 'universal testing materials testing machine
or materials test frame, is used to test the tensile 300
= × 600cal
strength and compressive strength of materials. 400
= 45 cal

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) August, 2019 84 YCT

 43. An inventor claims to have made an engine 47. At condition of resonance of an AC circuit
which consumes 1 gm fuel per second of containing a resistance, inductor and a
calorific value 2 kcal/gm and delivers 10 kW of capacitor
power. Mark the correct statement. (a) total reactance of circuit is zero
(a) This is possible. (b) inductive reactance is zero
(b) Possibility of invention is determined by (c) capacitative reactance is zero
design of engine. (d) none of the above
(c) Possibility of invention is determined by
Ans. (a) : At resonance condition the impedance is
nature of fuel
become pure resistive and its value is equal to
(d) This is impossible.
resistance value. The imaginary (reactance) part is
Ans. (d) : Given, Calorific value (Cf) = 2 kcal/gm become zero i.e. total reactance of the circuit is zero.
Consumption rate (m) & = 1gm / s
48. In a series combination of R, L, C to an AC
Work done (W) = 10 kW source at resonance, if R = 20 ohm, then
Heat input (Q) = mc & f = 1 × 2 = 2 kcal/sec = 8.36 impedance Z of the combination is
kJ/sec (a) 20 ohm
= 8.36 kW (b) zero
For any type of engine it is impossible to give more (c) 10 ohm
output than input i.e. Q < W. (d) 400 ohm
44. A magnet is brought near to a coil in a closed Ans. (a) : At series resonance in R-L-C circuit
circuit. Magnitude of induced e.m.f. in coil will XL = XC ---------- (1)
depend on and impedance Z = R + j XL – jXC
(a) number of turns in the coil Z = R + jXL – jXC (from eqn. ------ (1)
(b) speed of the magnet
Z=R
(c) field of the magnet
⇒ Z = R = 20Ω
(d) all of the above
49. In a series L-C-R circuit, voltage across each
Ans. (d) : Qin = Calorific value × mg
resistance, inductance and capacitance is 10
= 2 kcal/gm × 1gm/sec
volt. If resistance in the circuit is short-
= 2 × 4.184 = 8.368 kW circuited, current in the circuit will be
Pout = V0 this is not possible. (a) zero
45. The inductive reactance of an inductor in an (b) infinite
AC circuit depends on (c) 10 amp
(a) peak value of AC (b) frequency of AC (d) 5 amp
(c) RMS value of AC (d) None of the above
Ans. (b) : Voltage across resistance = 10V
Ans. (b) : Inductive reactance for AC circuit = XL
V 10
XL = ωL = 2πfL current (I) = R =
R R
f → frequency L → self inductance
if resistance is short circuited
Hence inductive reactance of an inductor in AC
R=0
depends on frequency of AC.
10
46. In an AC circuit having pure resistance then I = =∞
0
(a) current lags the voltage
Hence current in the circuit is infinite.
(b) current leads the voltage
(c) current and voltage are in phase 50. For long distance transmission of electrical
(d) none of the above energy
(a) only DC is used
Ans. (c) : For pure resistive circuit in AC a current and
voltage are in same phase. (b) both AC and DC are used
(c) only AC is used
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a) : Alternating current (AC) is cheaper to
generate but has fewer energy losses than DC (direct
current), for transmitting long distance. For very long
distance transmission (>1000 km) of electrical energy
DC (direct current) can often be better so only DC is
used.

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) August, 2019 85 YCT

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 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2017
Assistant Engineer (Civil) Mains
GENERAL HINDI (PAPER-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Exam Date : 27 March 2019

efveoxMe : (ØeMve mebKÙee 1 mes 20 lekeâ) : ÙeneB yeerme JeekeäÙe efoS heg®<eesW ves efm$eÙeesW keâes OÙeeve mes osKeeRr~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
ieS nQ~ Ùes leerve Deueie-Deueie YeeieeW ceW efJeYeeefpele nQ~ FvnW 6.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
meeJeOeeveer kesâ meeLe heÌ{ves kesâ yeeo DeMegæ DebMe keâer henÛeeve
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘OÙeeve mes osKeer’ DebMe ceW ef›eâÙee
keâjkesâ (a), (b), (c) ceW mes $egefš mes mecyeefvOele De#ej keâes Gòej
hegefmlekeâe ceW efueefKeS~ Ùeefo keâesF& $egefš veneR nw lees (d) kesâ ceeOÙece mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nQ~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-heg™<eeW ves efm$eÙeeW keâes
mes metefÛele keâerefpeS~ OÙeeve mes osKee~
cegPemes Ùen keâece mecYeJe venerR nes mekeâlee~ yeeIe Deewj yekeâjer Skeâ Ieeš heeveer heelreer nw~
1. 7.
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)

keâesF& $egefš venerR~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~

(d) (d)
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘mecYeJe veneR nes mekeâlee’ DebMe ceW $egefš Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘heeveer heerleer nw’ DebMe ceW eEueie mebyebOeer
nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘mecYeJe’ keâe DeLe& nw ‘nes mekeâlee’~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe DeMegefæ nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– yeeIe Deewj yekeâjer Skeâ Ieeš
nesiee-cegPemes Ùen keâece mecYeJe veneR~ heeveer heerles nQ~
legcneje Ùen keânvee cesjs efueS yeÌ[er yeele nesiee~r cewQ Deheveer yeele keâe mhe<šekreâjCe keâjves keâs efueS
2. 8.
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b)
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ lewÙeej ntB~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
(d) (c) (d)
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘yeÌ[er yeele nesieer’ DebMe ceW ef›eâÙee Ans. (b) : efoÙes
ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘mhe°erkeâjCe keâjves kesâ efueS’ DebMe ceW
mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW ‘keânvee’ keâlee& nQ~ Dele: ef›eâÙee mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nQ~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-ceQ Deheveer yeele
‘keânvee’ kesâ Devegmeej ef›eâÙee nesieer~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-legcnejekesâ mhe°erkeâjCe kesâ efueS lewÙeej ntB~
Ùen keânvee cesjs efueS yeÌ[er yeele nesiee~
cewQ Deehekeâe oMe&ve keâjves DeeÙee ntB~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
Gmeves KeÌ[er yeesueer cesW ‘efveJesefolee’ Mee<re&keâ 9.
3. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b)
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘ceQ Deehekeâe oMe&ve’ DebMe ceW JeÛeve
keâefJelee efueKeer Lee~r keâesF& $egefš venerR~ mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nQ~ efnvoer ceW oMe&ve, ØeeCe, ueesie, YeeiÙe, DeeBMet ncesMee
(c) (d) yengJeÛeve ceW ØeÙeesie nesles nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-ceQ Deehekesâ
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW keâesF& $egefš veneR nw~ Dele: ‘Gmeves KeÌ[er oMe&ve keâjves DeeÙee ntB~
yeesueer ceW ‘efveJesefolee’ Meer<e&keâ keâefJelee efueKeer Leer’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nQ~
Fme yeele keâs keânves cesW efkeâmeer keâes mebkeâesÛe ve nesiee~
efMe#ekeâ ves Úe$eesW keâes ØeMve efkeâÙee~ 10.
4. (a) (b) (c)
(a) (b) (c)
keâesF& $egefš venerR~
keâesF& $egefš venerR~
(d)
(d)
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘Fme yeele kesâ keânves ceW’ DebMe ceW ‘kesâ’
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘Úe$eeW keâes’ DebMe ceW $egefš nw~ Fmekesâ
keâe ØeÙeesie JÙeLe& nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-Ùen yeele keânves ceW
mLeeve hej ‘Úe$eeW mes’ nesvee ÛeeefnS~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-
efMe#ekeâ ves Úe$eeW mes ØeMve efkeâÙee~ efkeâmeer keâes mebkeâesÛe ve nesiee~
Deehekeâe he$e meOevÙeJeeo efceuee~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ LeesÌ[er osj yeeo Jes Jeeheme ueewš DeeS~
11.
5. (a) (b) (c)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW DeLe& mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw~ Fme Øekeâej keâesF& $egefš venerR~
Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-Deehekeâe he$e efceuee~ OevÙeJeeo~ (d)

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi March, 2019 86 YCT

Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘Jeeheme ueewš DeeÙes’ DebMe ceW DeLe& Gmekeâs ÛeeÛee keâs ueÌ[keâer ngF& nw~
mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘Jeeheme’ ceW ner ueewšvee Meeefceue nQ~ Fme 19. (a) (b) (c)
Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-LeesÌ[er osj yeeo Jes Jeeheme DeeÙes~
keâesF& $egefš venerR~
Ùener venerR, yeefukeâ Jes JeneB mes Ûeues Yeer DeeS~ (d)
12.
(a) (b) (c)
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW keâesF& $egefš veneR nw~ Fme Øekeâej Ùen
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~
(d)
nce lees DeJeMÙe ner peeSBies~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘JeneB mes Ûeues Yeer DeeS’ DebMe ceW 20. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Jele&veer mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-Ùener veneR,
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘DeJeMÙe ner’ DebMe ceW $egefš nw,
yeefukeâ Jes JeneB mes Ûeues Yeer DeeÙes~
veesš– DeeÙeesie ves Fme ØeMve keâe Gòej efJekeâuhe (b) keâes ceevee nw~ keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘DeJeMÙe’ Deewj ‘ner’ keâe ØeÙeesie Skeâ meeLe veneR neslee nw~ Fme
Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-nce lees DeJeMÙe peeSBies~
mketâue keâs Deveskeâ oeleeSB nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
13. efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 21 mes 40 lekeâ) : Fme KeC[ ceW yeerme JeekeäÙe
(a) (b) (c) (d)
efoS ieS nQ~ ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe ceW leerve efJekeâuhe nQ~ FveceW mes pees Megæ
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘oeleeSB nw’ DebMe ceW JeÛeve mebyebOeer JeekeäÙe nes Gmekesâ efueS efveOee&efjle (a), (b), (c) ceW mes keâesF& Skeâ Gòej kesâ
DeMegefæ nQ~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-mketâue kesâ Deveskeâ oelee nQ~ ¤he ceW efueefKeS~
ßeerkeâ=<Ce keâs DeveskeâesW veece nwQ~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ 21. Skeâ-Skeâ keâjkesâ meYeer cej ieS~
14.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) meYeer Skeâ-Skeâ keâjkesâ cej ieS~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘DeveskeâeW’ DebMe ceW JeÛeve mebyebOeer (b) Skeâ-Skeâ keâj keâj meYeer cej ieS~
DeMegefæ nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-ßeerke=â<Ce kesâ Deveskeâ veece nQ~ (c) Skeâ-Skeâ keâj meYeer cej ieS~
Deehe he$e efueKe oes~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘Skeâ-Skeâ keâjkesâ meYeer cej ieS’ ceW ‘keâj’
15. kesâ yeeo ‘kesâ’ keâe ØeÙeesie DevegefÛele nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘efueKe oes’ DebMe ceW $egefš nw~ Fme
Skeâ-Skeâ keâj meYeer cej ieS~
Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-Deehe he$e efueKes~ 22. ns YeieJeeve, cesjer j#ee keâerefpeS~
(a) ns YeieJeeve! cesjer j#ee keâerefpeS~
meeefnlÙe Deewj peeJreve keâe Ieesj
16. (b) YeieJeeve! cesjer j#ee keâerefpeS~
(a) (b)
(c) ns YeieJeeve cesjer j#ee keâerefpeS~
mecyevOe nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘ns YeieJeeve, cesjer j#ee keâerefpeS’ ceW
(c) (d) mecyeesOeve efÛeÖ keâe ØeÙeesie nesvee ÛeeefnS~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘Ieesj’ DebMe ceW $egefš nw~ Fmekesâ mLeeve ns YeieJeeve! cesjer j#ee keâerefpeS~
hej ‘DeefYevve’ nesvee ÛeeefnS~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-meeefnlÙe 23. iele Je<e& nceves ieCesMeeslmeJe ceveeÙee nw~
Deewj peerJeve keâe DeefYevve mebyebOe nw~ (a) iele Je<e& nce ieCesMeeslmeJe ceveeSbies~
cewQves Skeâ Je<e& lekeâ Gvekeâer Øelee#ree osKee~r (b) iele Je<e& nceves ieCesMeeslmeJe ceveeÙee Lee~
17.
(a) (b) (c) (c) ieCesMeeslmeJe nceves iele Je<e& yeveeÙee Lee~
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘iele Je<e& nceves ieCesMeeslmeJe ceveeÙee nw’
(d) ceW ‘iele Je<e&’ keâe ØeÙeesie Yetlekeâeue ceW neslee nw, Jele&ceeve keâeue ceW veneR~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘Gvekeâer Øeleer#ee osKeer’ DebMe ceW $egefš
Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-iele Je<e& nceves ieCesMeeslmeJe ceveeÙee Lee~
nQ, keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘Øeleer#ee’ keâer peeleer nw, osKeer veneR peeleer~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ 24. Ùen keâece Deehe hej efveYe&j keâjlee nw~
JeekeäÙe nesiee-cewveW Skeâ Je<e& lekeâ Gvekeâer Øeleer#ee keâer~ (a) Ùen keâece Deehe hej efveYe&j nw~
(b) Deehe hej Ùen keâece efveYe&j keâjlee nw~
Gmeves cegòeânmle mes Oeve uegšeÙee~
18. (c) Deehe hej Ùen keâece efveYe&j nw~
(a) (b) (c)
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘Ùen keâece Deehe hej efveYe&j keâjlee nw’ keâe
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-Ùen keâece Deehe hej efveYe&j nQ~
(d) 25. Jen efyeuekegâue Yeer yeele keâjvee veneR Ûeenleer Leer~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ ‘cegkeälenmle mes’ DebMe ceW keâejkeâ mebyebOeer (a) Jen efyeuekegâue yeele keâjvee veneR Ûeenleer Leer~
DeMegefæ nw~ ÙeneB ‘cegkeälenmle mes’ kesâ mLeeve hej kesâJeue ‘cegkeälenmle’ nesvee (b) Jen yeele keâjvee efyeuekegâue Yeer veneR Ûeenleer Leer~
ÛeeefnS~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-Gmeves cegkeälenmle Oeve uegšeÙee~ (c) yeele keâjvee Jen efyeuekegâue veneR Ûeenleer LeeR
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi March, 2019 87 YCT
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘Jen efyeuekegâue Yeer yeele keâjvee veneR Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘legcnejs mes Ùen helLej veneR G"eÙee
Ûeenleer Leer’ ceW ‘efyeuekegâue’ kesâ meeLe ‘Yeer’ keâe ØeÙeesie Demebiele nw~ Fme peeSiee’ ceW meJe&veece mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nQ~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-
Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-Jen efyeuekegâue yeele keâjvee veneR Ûeenleer Leer~ legcemes Ùen helLej veneR G"eÙee peeSiee~
26. nceejs DeOÙeehekeâ ØeMve hetÚles nQ~ 33. meeiej keâer Úeleer hej Gmekeâer efkeâjCeW veeÛe jner nQ~
(a) nceejs DeOÙeehekeâ ØeMve hetÚles nQ~ (a) meeiej keâer Úeleer ceW Gmekeâer efkeâjCeW veeÛe jner nQ~
(b) nceejs DeOÙeehekeâ ØeMve keâjles nQ~ (b) meeiej keâer Úeleer hej Gmekeâer uenjW veeÛe jner nQ~
(c) nceejs DeOÙeehekeâ ØeMve keâjles nw~ (c) meeiej keâer Úeleer ceW Gmekeâer uenjW veeÛe jner nQ~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘nceejs DeOÙeehekeâ ØeMve hetÚles nQ’ ceW Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘meeiej keâer Úeleer hej Gmekeâer efkeâjCeW veeÛe
‘ØeMve’ kesâ meeLe ‘keâjvee’ ef›eâÙee keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ jner nQ’ ceW ‘efkeâjCeW’ kesâ mLeeve hej ‘uenjW’ GheÙegkeäle Meyo nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej
JeekeäÙe nesiee-nceejs DeOÙeehekeâ ØeMve keâjles nQ~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-meeiej keâer Úeleer hej Gmekeâer uenjW veeÛe jneR nw~
27. keâF& jsueJes kesâ keâce&ÛeeefjÙeeW keâer efiejHeäleejer ngF&~
34. peye legce DeeDeesies, leye ceQ peeTBiee
(a) jsueJes kesâ keâF& keâce&ÛeeefjÙeeW keâer efiejHeäleejer ngF&~
(a) peye legce DeeDeesies, leye ceQ peeTBiee~
(b) jsueJes kesâ keâF& keâce&Ûeejer keâer efiejHeäleejer ngF&~
(b) peye Deehe DeeDeesies, leye ceQ peeTBiee~
(c) keâF& jsueJes kesâ keâce&Ûeejer keâer efiejHeäleejer ngF&
(c) legce peye DeeDeesies, lees ceQ peeTBiee~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘keâF& jsueJes kesâ keâce&ÛeeefjÙeeW keâer efiejHeäleejer
ngF&’ ceW ›eâce mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-jsueJes kesâ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘peye legce DeeDeesies, leye ceQ peeTBiee’ ceW
keâF& keâce&ÛeeefjÙeeW keâer efiejHeäleejer ngF&~ keâesF& $egefš veneR nw~ Dele: efJekeâuhe (a) mener nw~
28. heefle-helveer kesâ PeieÌ[s keâe nsleg keäÙee nw? 35. Úe$eeW ves kegâueeefOeheefle keâes DeefYevebove-he$e Øeoeve efkeâÙee~
(a) heefle-helveer kesâ PeieÌ[s keâe keâejCe keäÙee nw? (a) Úe$eeW ves kegâueeefOeheefle keâes DeefYevebove-he$e efoÙee~
(b) heefle-helveer ceW PeieÌ[s keâe keâejCe keäÙee nw? (b) Úe$eeW ves kegâueeefOeheefle keâes DeefYevebove-he$e Deefhe&le efkeâÙee~
(c) heefle-helveer kesâ PeieÌ[s kesâ keâejCe keäÙee nQ? (c) Úe$eeW ves kegâueeefOeheefle keâes DeefYevebove-he$e meghego& efkeâÙee~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘heefle-helveer kesâ PeieÌ[s keâe nsleg keäÙee nw?’ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘Úe$eeW ves kegâueeefOeheefle keâes DeefYevebove-he$e
ceW ‘nsleg’ keâe ØeÙeesie efJeefMe° DeLe& ceW neslee nw, leLee ‘keâejCe’ keâe ØeÙeesie Øeoeve efkeâÙee’ ceW ‘Øeoeve’ keâe ØeÙeesie yeÌ[eW keâer Deesj mes ÚesšeW leLee
meeceevÙe DeLe& ceW~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-heefle-helveer ceW PeieÌ[s ‘Dehe&Ce’ keâe ØeÙeesie ÚesšeW keâer Deesj mes yeÌ[eW keâes efkeâÙee peelee nw~ Fme
keâe keâejCe keäÙee nw?~ Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-Úe$eeW ves kegâueeefOeheefle keâes DeefYevebove-he$e
29. cesje veece ßeer Jeerjsvõ kegâceej peer nw~ Dee|hele efkeâÙee~
(a) cesje veece Jeerjsvõ kegâceej nw~ 36. ueÌ[keâe helebie ueskeâj Yeeielee ngDee Iej DeeÙee~
(b) cesje veece ßeer Jeerjsvõ kegâceej nw~ (a) ueÌ[keâe helebie ueskeâj oewÌ[lee ngDee Iej DeeÙee~
(c) cesje veece Jeerjsvõ kegâceej peer nw~ (b) helebie ueskeâj ueÌ[keâe Yeeielee ngDee Iej DeeÙee~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘cesje veece ßeer Jeerjsvõ kegâceej peer nw’ ceW ‘ßeer’ (c) oewÌ[lee ngDee ueÌ[keâe helebie ueskeâj Iej DeeÙee~
Deewj ‘peer’ keâe Deheves veece kesâ henues Deewj yeeo ceW ueieevee Denbkeâej keâe Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘ueÌ[keâe helebie ueskeâj Yeeielee ngDee Iej
metÛekeâ nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-cesje veece Jeerjsvõ kegâceej nw~ DeeÙee’ ceW ‘Yeeielee ngDee’ kesâ mLeeve hej ‘oewÌ[lee ngDee’ keâe ØeÙeesie
30. Ùen keâefJelee Deveskeâ YeeJeeW keâes Øekeâš keâjleer nw~ GheÙegkeäle nesiee~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-ueÌ[keâe helebie ueskeâj
(a) Ùen keâefJelee Deveskeâ YeeJeeW keâes Øekeâš keâjleer nQ~ oewÌ[lee ngDee Iej DeeÙee~
(b) Ùen keâefJelee Deveskeâ YeeJe keâes Øekeâš keâjleer nw~
37. JeneB yengle-mes heMeg Deewj he#eer GÌ[les Deewj Ûejles ngS
(c) Ùen keâefJelee Deveskeâ YeeJe Øekeâš keâjleer nw~
efoKeeF& efoS~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘Ùen keâefJelee Deveskeâ YeeJeeW keâes Øekeâš
(a) JeneB yengle-mes he#eer Deewj heMeg Ûejles Deewj GÌ[les ngS
keâjleer nw’ ceW ‘YeeJeeW’ kesâ meeLe ‘keâes’ keâe ØeÙeesie Demebiele nQ~ Fme Øekeâej
efoKeeF& efoS~
Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-Ùen keâefJelee Deveskeâ YeeJe Øekeâš keâjleer nw~
(b) JeneB yengle-mes heMeg Deewj he#eer GÌ[les Deewj Ûejles efoKeeF& efoS~
31. ke=âheÙee Deehe ner Ùen yeleeves keâe Deveg«en keâjW~
(c) JeneB yengle-mes heMeg Deewj he#eer Ûejles Deewj GÌ[les ngS
(a) ke=âheÙee Deehe Ùen yeleeves keâe Deveg«en keâjW~
efoKeeF& efoS~
(b) Deehe ke=âheÙee Ùen yeleeves keâe Deveg«en keâjW~
(c) ke=âheÙee Deehe ner Ùen yeleeSB~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘JeneB yengle mes heMeg Deewj he#eer GÌ[les Deewj
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘ke=âheÙee Deehe ner Ùen yeleeves keâe Deveg«en
Ûejles ngS efoKeeF& efoÙes’ ceW ef›eâÙeeSB ›eâce ™he ceW veneR DeeÙeer nQ~ Fme
keâjW’ ceW ‘Deveg«en’ keâe ØeÙeesie Demebiele nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-JeneB yengle mes heMeg Deewj he#eer Ûejles Deewj GÌ[les
nesiee-ke=âheÙee Deehe ner Ùen yeleeSB~ ngS efoKeeF& efoS~
32. legcnejs mes Ùen helLej veneR G"eÙee peeSiee~ 38. ÛeesjeW keâer ceb[ueer hekeâÌ[er ieF&~
(a) legcemes Ùen helLej veneR G"eÙee peeSiee~ (a) ÛeesjeW keâe efiejesn hekeâÌ[e ieÙee~
(b) legcemes Ùen helLej G"eÙee veneR peeSiee~ (b) ÛeesjeW keâe oue hekeâÌ[e ieÙee~
(c) Ùen helLej legcemes G"eÙee veneR peeSiee~ (c) ÛeesjeW keâe iegÛÚe hekeâÌ[e ieÙee~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi March, 2019 88 YCT
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘ÛeesjeW keâer ceb[ueer hekeâÌ[er ieF&’ ceW Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘Fbõ’ keâe DeLe& keâer Âef°
‘ceb[ueer’ keâe ØeÙeesie DeMegæ nQ~ Fmekesâ mLeeve hej ‘efiejesn’ nesvee mes meyemes DeefOekeâ efvekeâš Meyo ‘osJejepe’ nQ~
ÛeeefnS~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-ÛeesjeW keâe efiejesn hekeâÌ[e ieÙee~ 46. {eF& DeeKej Øesce kesâ heÌ{s mees heefC[le nesF&~
39. MeeÙeo Deepe Ùen keâece pe¤j nes mekeâlee nw~ (a) efJeÛe#eCe (b) efJeÉeve
(a) MeeÙeo Deepe Ùen keâece nes mekeâlee nw~ (c) keâesefJeo (d) megOeer
(b) MeeÙeo Deepe Ùen keâece pe¤j nesiee~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘heefC[le’ keâe DeLe& keâer
(c) Deepe MeeÙeo Ùen keâece pe¤j ner nes mekeâlee nw~ Âef° mes meyemes DeefOekeâ efvekeâš Meyo ‘keâesefJeo’ nw~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘MeeÙeo Deepe Ùen keâece pe™j nes mekeâlee 47. mecegõ jlveeW keâer Keeve nw~
nw’ ceW ‘MeeÙeo’ Deewj ‘pe™j’ keâe ØeÙeesie Skeâ meeLe veneR neslee~ Fme (a) meeiej (b) heejeJeej
Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-MeeÙeo Deepe Ùen keâece nes mekeâlee nw~ (c) DeCe&Je (d) peueefOe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘mecegõ’ keâe DeLe& keâer
40. Gme Jeve ceW Øeele:keâeue kesâ meceÙe megneJevee ÂMÙe neslee Lee~
Âef° mes meyemes DeefOekeâ efvekeâš Meyo ‘DeCe&Je’ nw~
(a) Øeele:keâeue kesâ meceÙe Gme Jeve ceW megneJevee ÂMÙe neslee Lee~
48. ‘‘keânle Oeletjs meeQ keâvekegâ, ienveeQ ieodÙeeQ ve peeF~’’
(b) Gme Jeve ceW Øeele:keâeue keâe ÂMÙe megneJevee neslee Lee~
(a) efnjCÙe (b) nsce
(c) Øeele:keâeue keâe ÂMÙe Gme Jeve ceW megneJevee neslee Lee~
(c) mJeCe& (d) neškeâ
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ‘Gme Jeve ceW Øeele: keâeue kesâ meceÙe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘keâvekeâ’ keâe DeLe& keâer
megneJevee ÂMÙe neslee Lee’ ceW Skeâ DeLe& metefÛele keâjves Jeeues oes MeyoeW Âef° mes meyemes DeefOekeâ efvekeâš Meyo ‘mJeCe&’ nw~
‘Øeele:keâeue’ Deewj ‘meceÙe’ keâe ØeÙeesie DevegefÛele nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ 49. yeerleer efJeYeeJejer peeie jer!
JeekeäÙe nesiee-Gme Jeve ceW Øeele:keâeue keâe ÂMÙe megneJevee neslee Lee~ (a) MeJe&jer (b) Ùeeefceveer
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 41 mes 50 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele ome JeekeäÙeeW (c) jwve (d) jeef$e
ceW mes ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe keâe Skeâ Meyo jsKeebefkeâle nw~ nj jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘efJeYeeJejer’ keâe DeLe& keâer
efueS (a), (b), (c) leLee (d) kesâ meeceves Skeâ-Skeâ Meyo efueKee ieÙee nw~ Âef° mes meyemes DeefOekeâ efvekeâš Meyo ‘jeef$e’ nQ~
FveceW mes, jsKeebefkeâle Meyo mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes pees Jewkeâefuhekeâ Meyo 50. ‘‘efHeâj Ieve ceW DeesPeue nes jeefMe’’
DeefOekeâ efvekeâš nw, Gmes efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ (a) Ûevõcee (b) megOeebMeg
41. ‘‘ßeer ieg® Ûejve mejespe jpe, efvepe ceve cegkegâj megOeej~’’ (c) megOeekeâj (d) jekesâMe
(a) heÅe (b) mejefmepe Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘jeefMe’ keâe DeLe& keâer
(c) hebkeâpe (d) DejefJevo Âef° mes meyemes DeefOekeâ efvekeâš Meyo ‘Ûevõcee’ nQ~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘mejespe’ keâe DeLe& keâer efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 51 mes 60 lekeâ) : veerÛes efueKes JeekeäÙe Ùee
Âef° mes meyemes DeefOekeâ efvekeâš Meyo ‘mejefmepe’ nQ efpemekeâe DeLe& JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej Meyo efoS ieS nQ~ FveceW mes Skeâ GheÙegòeâ
‘keâceue’ nw~ Meyo Ûegvekeâj Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefvnle keâerefpeS~
42. ‘oewuele heeÙe ve keâerefpeS, meheves ceW DeefYeceeve~’’ 51. Ûe›eâheeefCe
(a) efJeòe (b) efJeYetefle (a) Ûe›eâheeefCe (b) Ûe›eânmle
(c) Oeve (d) mecheoe (c) heeefCeÛe›eâ (d) nmleÛe›eâ
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘oewuele’ keâe DeLe& keâer Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes Meyo ‘Ûe›eâheeefCe’ keâe DeLe& nw-efpemekesâ neLe ceW
Âef° mes meyemes DeefOekeâ efvekeâš Meyo ‘Oeve’ nw~ Ûe›eâ nw, DeLee&led efJe<Ceg~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
52. efpemes F&MJej Ùee Jeso ceW efJeMJeeme veneR nw
43. ‘‘Ûee® Ûebõ keâer ÛebÛeue efkeâjCeW Kesue jner nQ peue-Leue
(a) DeOeeefce&keâ (b) efvejer#ej
ceW~’’ (c) DeefJeMJemeveerÙe (d) veeefmlekeâ
(a) ®efÛej (b) jcÙe
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpemes F&MJej Ùee Jeso ceW
(c) ueefuele (d) megboj efJeMJeeme veneR nw’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo nesiee-veeefmlekeâ~ Mes<e
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘Ûee®’ keâe DeLe& keâer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
Âef° mes meyemes DeefOekeâ efvekeâš Meyo ‘megvoj’ nQ~ 53. pees Deuhe (keâce) yeesueves Jeeuee nw
44. meejs MegYe keâeÙeeX ceW ieCesMe keâer hetpee keâer peeleer nw~ (a) Deuhe%e (b) DeuheYee<eer
(a) ceesokeâefØeÙe (b) ieCeheefle (c) efceleYee<eer (d) ceewveer
(c) Skeâovle (d) efJeveeÙekeâ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘pees Deuhe (keâce) yeesueves Jeeuee
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘ieCesMe’ keâe DeLe& keâer nw’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘DeuheYee<eer’ nQ~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe
Âef° mes meyemes DeefOekeâ efvekeâš Meyo ‘ieCeheefle’ nQ~ Demebiele nw~
45. Fbõ osJeeefOeosJe ceeves peeles nQ~ 54. efpemekesâ meceeve efÉleerÙe veneR nw
(a) ceOeJee (b) hegjboj (a) DeefÉleerÙe (b) Deveghece
(c) osJejepe (d) censvõ (c) DepeesÌ[ (d) yespeesÌ[
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi March, 2019 89 YCT
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpemekesâ meceeve efÉleerÙe veneR nw’ 63. Ûegefuue:
JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘DeefÉleerÙe’ nQ~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (a) DeBieer"er (b) Ûetune
55. efpemekesâ ùoÙe ceW cecelee veneR nw (c) Ûeewkeâe (d) Ûeewkeâer
(a) efveo&Ùe (b) ceceleenerve Ans. (b) : leodYeJe lelmece
(c) efvece&ce (d) ceceleejefnle Ûetune – Ûegefuue:
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpemekesâ ùoÙe ceW cecelee veneR nw’ Ûeewkeâer – Ûeleg<heeefokeâe
JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo nesiee– efvece&ce~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ DeBieer"er – Deefiveef‰keâe
56. pees kegâÚ veneR peevelee nw Ûeewkeâe – Ûeleg<keâ
(a) efJe%e (b) De%e 64. ke=âle:
(c) DeefYe%e (d) DeveeÌ[er (a) keâDees (b) efkeâÙee
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘pees kegâÚ veneR peevelee nw’ (c) keâeÙe& (d) keâece
JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘De%e’ nQ~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ Ans. (b) : leodYeJe lelmece
57. DevegefÛele yeele kesâ efueS Dee«en
efkeâÙee – ke=âle:
(a) efJe«en (b) n"e«en
keâepe – keâeÙe&
(c) ogje«en (d) Deveg«ebn
keâece – keâce&
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DevegefÛele yeele kesâ efueS Dee«en’
keâDees – ke=âle:
JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘ogje«en’ nQ~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
65. lJeefjle
58. pees efkeâS ieS GhekeâejeW keâes ceevelee nw
(a) MeerIeÇ (b) legjle
(a) ke=âle%e (b) ke=âleIve
(c) peuoer (d) lespe
(c) Ghekeâejer (d) hejeshekeâejer
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘pees efkeâÙes ieÙes GhekeâejeW keâes Ans. (b) : leodYeJe lelmece
ceevelee nw’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘ke=âle%e’ nQ~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe legjle – lJeefjle
Demebiele nw~ eflevekeâe – le=Ce
59. heLe keâe ØeoMe&ve keâjves Jeeuee leerlej – efleefòeefj
(a) heLe-ØeoMe&vekeâlee& (b) ceeie&oMe&keâ leerve – $eerefCe
(c) heLe-oMe&keâ (d) heLe-ØeoMe&keâ 66. Jelme
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘heLe keâe ØeoMe&ve keâjves Jeeuee’ (a) yesše (b) mebleeve
JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘heLe-ØeoMe&keâ’ nQ~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (c) yeeuekeâ (d) yeÛÛee
60. efpemekeâe efveJeejCe veneR efkeâÙee pee mekesâ Ans. (d) : leodYeJe lelmece
(a) ogefve&JeeÙe& (b) DeefveJeeefjle yeÛÛee – Jelme
(c) DeefveJeeÙe& (d) DeefveJeejCeerÙe yesše – heg$e
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpemekeâe efveJeejCe veneR efkeâÙee yekeâje – Jeke&âj
pee mekesâ’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘DeefveJeeÙe&’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe yetšer – Je=efòekeâ
Demebiele nw~ 67. Deefive
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 61 mes 70 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele lelmece (a) jesMeveer (b) ØekeâeMe
MeyoeW kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej Jewkeâefuhekeâ leodYeJe Meyo efoS ieS nQ~ (c) Deeie (d) Deefiie
(a), (b), (c), (d) ceW mes GheÙegkeäle Meyo keâes efÛeefvnle keâerefpeS~
Ans. (c) : leodYeJe lelmece
61. Meueekeâe
(a) leerueer (b) meueeF& Deeie – Deefive
(c) leerj (d) yeeCe Deefiie – Deefive
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes lelmece Meyo ‘Meueekeâe’ keâe leodYeJe ™he DeeBmet – Deßeg
‘meueeF&’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ DeeBKe – Deef#e
62. JeÛeve 68. #eerj
(a) yeesue (b) yeele (a) Keerj (b) veerj
(c) yewve (d) keâLeve (c) otOe (d) oner
Ans. (c) : leodYeJe lelmece Ans. (a) : leodYeJe lelmece
yewve – JeÛeve Keerj – #eerj
yeele – Jeelee& otOe – ogiOe
yetBo – efyevog oner – oefOe
yeòeer – Jee|lekeâe oF& – osJe
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi March, 2019 90 YCT
69. efleòeâ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘FËo keâe ÛeeBo nesvee’ cegneJejs keâe
(a) leer#Ce (b) leerKee GheÙegkeäle DeLe& nw-yengle efoveeW hej oerKevee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(c) leerlee (d) Ûejheje 76. Ketve-hemeervee Skeâ keâjvee
Ans. (c) : leodYeJe lelmece (a) efnbmee keâjvee (b) jòeâ yenevee
leerlee – eflekeäle (c) Ketve Deewj hemeervee yenevee (d) keâef"ve heefjßece keâjvee
leerKee – leer#Ce Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Ketve hemeervee Skeâ keâjvee’
Ûejheje – eflekeäle cegneJejs keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& nw-keâef"ve heefjßece keâjvee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe
leeByee – leeceü Demebiele nw~
70. ceÙee 77. oes otkeâ yeele keânvee
(a) ceFb (b) ceW (a) Iegcee-efHeâjekeâj keânvee (b) mhe<š keân osvee
(c) ceF& (d) ceQ (c) mhe<š ve keânvee (d) [bkesâ keâer Ûeesš hej keânvee
Ans. (d) : leodYeJe lelmece Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘oes štkeâ yeele keânvee’ cegneJejs
ceQ – ceÙee keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& nw-mhe° keân osvee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
ceFb – ceÙee 78. uekeâerj keâe Heâkeâerj nesvee
cekeäKeve – ceü#eCe (a) hegjeveer ØeLee hej ner Ûeuevee (b) efhe<šhes<eCe keâjvee
cekeäKeer – ceef#ekeâe (c) DebOeevegkeâjCe keâjvee (d) efyevee meesÛes ceeve uesvee
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 71 mes 80 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele cegneJejeW kesâ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘uekeâerj keâe Heâkeâerj nesvee’
efueS (a), (b), (c), (d) De#ej kesâ meeceves DeLe& efueKes ngS nQ~ FveceW mes cegneJejs keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& nw-hegjeveer ØeLee hej ner Ûeuevee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe
GheÙegòeâ DeLe& keâes Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefvnle keâerefpeS~ Demebiele nw~
71. cegªer iejce keâjvee 79. DeeBKeeW ceW Oetue PeeWkeâvee
(a) Oeve osvee (b) ØeueesYeve osvee (a) Yeüce ceW [euevee (b) oiee keâjvee
(c) Ietme osvee (d) Deveweflekeâ keâece keâjvee (c) DebOee keâj osvee (d) OeesKee osvee
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘cegšd"er iejce keâjvee’ cegneJejs keâe Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeeBKeeW ceW Oetue PeeWkeâvee’ cegneJejs
GheÙegkeäle DeLe& nw– Ietme osvee~ Ssmee JeekeäÙeebMe, pees meeceevÙe DeLe& keâe keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& nw-OeesKee osvee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
yeesOe ve keâjekeâj efkeâmeer efJeue#eCe DeLe& keâer Øeleerle keâjeÙes, ‘cegneJeje’ 80. uesves kesâ osves heÌ[vee
keânueelee nw~ (a) ueeYe kesâ ueeueÛe ceW heÌ[vee
72. efmej hej Yetle meJeej nesvee (b) ueeYe kesâ yeoues neefve nesvee
(a) mebkeâuheyeæ nesvee (b) keâeÙe& ceW ueies jnvee (c) uesve-osve keâjvee
(c) ue#Ùe efmeæ keâjvee (d) Skeâ ner jš ueieevee (d) meesÛe-mecePekeâj keâece ve keâjvee
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efmej hej Yetle meJeej nesvee’ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘uesves kesâ osves heÌ[vee’ cegneJejs keâe
cegneJejs keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& nw- ‘Skeâ ner jš ueieevee’~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& nw-ueeYe kesâ yeoues neefve nesvee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
Demebiele nw~ efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 81 mes 90 lekeâ) : efvecve JeekeäÙeeW ceW jsKeebefkeâle
73. keâuespes hej meeBhe ueesšvee Meyo kesâ efueS (a), (b), (c), (d) De#ej kesâ meeceves Deueie-Deueie Meyo
(a) otmejs keâer yeÌ{leer ve osKe mekeâvee efueKes ngS nQ~ Fve MeyoeW ceW mes GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej
(b) [en keâjvee hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefvnle keâerefpeS~
(c) keâuespes ceW efJe<e-mebÛeej nesvee 81. yeejele ves Mekegâve osKekeâj ØemLeeve efkeâÙee~
(d) otmejs keâes ve men heevee (a) DeMekegâve (b) DeheMekegâve
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘keâuespes hej meeBhe ueesšvee’ (c) Demeiegve (d) DeMegYe
cegneJejs keâe Ghe›eâce DeLe& nw- [en keâjvee Ùee kegâÌ{vee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Mekegâve’ keâe GheÙegkeäle
Demebiele nw~ efJeueesce Meyo ‘DeheMekegâve’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘DeMegYe’ keâe efJeueesce ‘MegYe’ neslee nQ~
74. Dehevee-mee cegBn ueskeâj jn peevee 82. DeOece JÙeefkeäle DeefJeMJemeveerÙe neslee nw~
(a) cegBn Úesše nes peevee (b) Deheceeefvele nesvee (a) GÛÛe (b) yesnlejerve
(c) Meefce&voe nesvee (d) DeÛeefcYele nes peevee (c) Gòece (d) ßes<"
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Dehevee-mee cegBn ueskeâj jn Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘DeOece’ keâe GheÙegkeäle
peevee’ cegneJejs keâe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& nw-Mee|cevoe nesvee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe efJeueesce Meyo ‘Gòece’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘GÛÛe’ leLee ‘ßes‰’ keâe efJeueesce
Demebiele nw~ ‘efvecve’ neslee nw~
75. F&o keâe ÛeeBo nesvee 83. je<š^ kesâ GlLeeve ceW Úe$eieCe keâe Yeer Ùeesieoeve nw~
(a) F&o kesâ efove oerKevee (b) yengle efoveeW hej oerKevee (a) DeOe:heleve (b) DeJeveefle
(c) keâYeer-keâYeer oerKevee (d) keâYeer ve oerKevee (c) DeOeesieefle (d) heleve
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi March, 2019 91 YCT
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘GlLeeve’ keâe GheÙegkeäle 92. ieesOegueer
efJeueesce Meyo ‘heleve’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘DeJeveefle’ keâe ‘Gvveefle’ leLee (a) ieewOetefue (b) ieesOetefue
‘DeOeesieefle’ keâe ‘TOJe&ieefle’ neslee nw~ (c) ieesOetueer (d) ieewOegefue
84. DeveeJe=ef<š kesâ keâejCe HeâmeueW ve<š ngFË~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ieesOegueer’ Meyo keâe Megæ ™he
(a) DeefOekeâ Je=ef<š (b) DeefleMeÙe Je=ef<š ‘ieesOetefue’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) DeefleJe=ef<š (d) DeefleJe<e&Ce
93. Deefle<eÙeesòeâer
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘DeveeJe=ef°’ keâe
(a) DeeflemeÙeesefòeâ (b) Deleer<eÙeesefòeâ
GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo ‘DeefleJe=ef°’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘DeefleJe<e&Ce’ keâe efJeueesce
‘DeJeJe<e&Ce’ nw~ (c) DeefleMeÙeesefòeâ (d) DeleerMeÙeesefòeâ
85. otmejs kesâ Glkeâ<e& mes Øemevve nesvee ÛeeefnS~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Deefle<eÙeeskeäleer’ Meyo keâe Megæ
(a) Dehekeâ<e& (b) efJekeâ<e& ™he ‘DeefleMeÙeesefkeäle’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) meceglkeâ<e& (d) DeJeveefle 94. DeemeerJee&o
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Glkeâ<e&’ keâe GheÙegkeäle (a) DeeefMe&Jee&o (b) DeeMeeaJeeo
efJeueesce Meyo ‘Dehekeâ<e&’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘DeJeveefle’ keâe efJeueesce ‘Gvveefle’ nw~ (c) DeeMeerJee&o (d) DeeefmeJee&o
86. mebmke=âle keâe ØeeÛeerve meeefnlÙe DelÙeble mece=æ nw~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeemeerJee&o’ Meyo keâe Megæ ™he
(a) DeÅeleve (b) veJeerve ‘DeeMeerJee&o’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) DeJee&Ûeerve (d) DeeOegefvekeâ
95. ØeleerefveOeer
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘ØeeÛeerve’ keâe GheÙegkeäle
(a) ØeefleveerOeer (b) ØeleerveerOeer
efJeueesce Meyo ‘DeJee&Ûeerve’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘DeÅeleve’ keâe ‘hegjeleve’ leLee
(c) ØeleerefveefOe (d) ØeefleefveefOe
‘veJeerve’ Deewj ‘DeeOegefvekeâ’ keâe efJeueesce ‘ØeeÛeerve’ nw~
87. je<š^ kesâ efJeefMe<š JÙeefkeäleÙeeW keâe mecceeve nesvee ÛeeefnS~ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ØeleerefveefOe’ Meyo keâe Megæ ™he
(a) efJeMes<eleenerve (b) meeceevÙe ‘ØeefleefveefOe’ nQ~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) meeOeejCe (d) efJeMes<eleejefnle 96. Sefleneefmekeâ
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘efJeefMe°’ keâe GheÙegkeäle (a) Fefleneefmekeâ (b) Ssefleneefmekeâ
efJeueesce Meyo ‘meeceevÙe’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘meeOeejCe’ keâe efJeueesce ‘efJeefMe°’ neslee nw~ (c) Ssleernemeerkeâ (d) Seflenemeerkeâ
88. leeceefmekeâ Je=efòeÙeeB heehe keâer Deesj ues peeleer nQ~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Sefleneefmekeâ’ Meyo keâe Megæ
(a) meÛÛeiegCeÙegkeäle (b) leceesiegCenerve ™he ‘Ssefleneefmekeâ’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) Øeeke=âeflekeâ (d) meeeflJekeâ
97. GlejJeleea
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘leeceefmekeâ’ keâe
(a) GòejJeleea (b) GòejJeefle&
GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo ‘meeeflJekeâ’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘leceesiegCe’ keâe ‘meleesiegCe’
(c) TòejJeleea (d) FlejJeleea
leLee ‘Øeeke=âeflekeâ’ keâe ‘ke=âef$ece’ neslee nw~
89. hee"keâ meeLe&keâ jÛevee keâer Keespe keâjlee nw~ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘GlejJeleea’ Meyo keâe Megæ ™he
(a) cenòJenerve (b) efvejLe&keâ ‘GòejJeleea’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) DeLe&jefnle (d) DeLe&nerve 98. mevÙeemeer
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘meeLe&keâ’ keâe GheÙegkeäle (a) mebvÙeeefme (b) mevÙeeefme
efJeueesce Meyo ‘efvejLe&keâ’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (c) mebvÙeemeer (d) mebVeÙeemeer
90. meecepe ceW mee#ej JÙeefkeäle hetpeveerÙe nQ~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘mevÙeemeer’ Meyo keâe Megæ ™he
(a) DeheÌ{ (b) DeefMeef#ele ‘mebvÙeemeer’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) efvej#ej (d) DeveheÌ{
99. Ûeleg&Yetpe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘mee#ej’ keâe GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce
(a) ÛeletYet&pe (b) Ûeleg&Yegpe
Meyo ‘efvej#ej’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘DeefMeef#ele’ keâe efJeueesce ‘efMeef#ele’ neslee nw~
(c) ÛeletYet&pe (d) ÛelegYeg&pe
efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 91 mes 100 lekeâ) : DeMegæ MeyoeW kesâ efueS
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Ûeleg&Yetpe’ Meyo keâe Megæ ™he
(a), (b), (c), (d) De#ej kesâ meeceves Deueie-Deueie Meyo efoS ieS nQ~
FveceW mes Megæ Meyo keâes efÛeefvnle keâerefpeS~ ‘ÛelegYeg&pe’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
91. heejueesefkeâkeâ 100. efveefYe&keâ
(a) hejueewkeâerkeâ (b) heejueewefkeâkeâ (a) efveYeeakeâ (b) efve&Yeerkeâ
(c) hejueewefkeâkeâ (d) heejueewkeâerkeâ (c) veerYeeakeâ (d) veerefYe&keâ
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘heejueesefkeâkeâ’ Meyo keâe Megæ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efvee|Yekeâ’ Meyo keâe Megæ ™he
™he ‘heejueewefkeâkeâ’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ ‘efveYeeakeâ’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi March, 2019 92 YCT
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2017
Assistant Engineer (Civil) Mains
GENERAL ENGLISH (PAPER-II)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours Exam Date : 27 March, 2019

SPOTTING ERRORS Shayam leaves the office

5.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 20) : Read each of the (a) (b)
following sentences to find out whether there is an error quite early yesterday. No error
in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one (c) (d)
error. If you feel there is no error in a sentence, signify a
'No error' response. Ans. (a) : ef o Ùes ieÙes sentence ceW ‘leaves’ kesâ mLeeve hej ‘left’
I am quite sure for her dedication. No error keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeW efkeâ efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW
1. yesterday keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw~ Dele: Ùen sentence past ceW
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW for dkesâ mLeeve hej ‘of’ ØeÙeg òeâ nesiee~
preposition keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeW efkeâ efoÙes ieÙes She told to me to come at once. No error
6.
adjective sure kesâ yeeo ‘of ’ preposition keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee (a) (b) (c) (d)
nw~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW 'to' keâe ØeÙeesie veneR efkeâÙee peeÙesiee
Correct sentence– I am quite sure of her dedication. keäÙeeWefkeâ told kesâ yeeo Indirect speech ceW 'to' keâe ØeÙeesie veneR
2. Naveen has returned back to his home. neslee~
(a) (b) (c) Correct Sentence– She told me to come at once.
No error She chose to stay there for a while.
7.
(d) (a) (b) (c)
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle JeekeäÙe ceW returned back kesâ mLeeve hej No error
back keâe ØeÙeesie DeveeJeMÙekeâ nw keäÙeeW efkeâ returned = ueewše ngDee (d)
sentence ceW complete sense oslee nw Dele: back keâer pe™jle Ans. (d) : No error
veneR nw~ Did you called the teacher? No error
Hence: Correct sentence is-Naveen has returned to his 8. (a) (b) (c) (d)
home.
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW called kesâ mLeeve hej call keâe
He has already pays for to do this work.
3. ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ 'Did' Auxiliary verb kesâ yeeo past
(a) (b) (c) tense ceW verb (ef›eâÙee) keâs First form keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
No error
There was a huge rush of students
(d) 9.
(a) (b)
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW pays keâer peien paid keâe ØeÙeesie
at the book fare. No error
efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeW efkeâ efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW has keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee (c) (d)
ieÙee nw pees efkeâ present perfect tense nw FmeceW has/have kesâ
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW fare kesâ mLeeve hej fair keâe ØeÙeesie
meeLe V3 form use nesleer nw~
Correct Sentence– He has already paid for to do this nes iee keäÙeeWefkeâ fare means efkeâjeÙee neslee nw, pees efkeâ peneB GheÙegòeâ
work. veneR nw~ ÙeneB hej fair means cesuee keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
Shamita is quite capable to do this work. No sooner had she arrived that her friends
4. 10.
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b)
No error surprised her with a party. No error
(d) (c) (d)
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW 'to' kesâ mLeeve hej preposition Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW that kesâ mLeeve hej than keâe
'of' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee leLee 'do' kesâ mLeeve hej 'doing' keâe ØeÙeesie ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ No-sooner kesâ yeeo than conjunction keâe
nesiee~ ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
Note– Preposition kesâ yeeo Deeves Jeeueer verb ncesMee All of our products including the plates
11.
gerund/ing form ceW use nesleer nw~ (a) (b)
Correct Sentence– Shamita is quite capable of doing is microwave safe. No error
this work. (c) (d)
BPSC AE Gen. English March, 2019 93 YCT
 Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW safe keâer peien safely keâe 18. Raj was angry against his son. No error
ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ safe Skeâ adjective nw, ÙeneB hej (a) (b) (c) (d)
verb keâes modify keâjves kesâ efueS adverb keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW against kesâ mLeeve hej
peeÙesiee~ preposition with keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ angry with
She accepted the award for the behalf somebody keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
12.
(a) (b) Hence correct sentence is - Raj was angry with his son.
of her late father. No error I am against his son. No error
19.
(c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW for the behalf of kesâ mLeeve Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (c) ceW his kesâ mLeeve hej my
hej On the behalf of keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ I keâe Possessive adjective 'my' neslee
JeekeäÙe ceW Idiomatic MeyoeW keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw~ nw~ Correct sentence-
Correct Sentence–She accepted the award on the I am against my son.
behalf of her late father. He objects to be treated like this.
The cake would have looked more better 20.
13. (a) (b) (c)
(a) (b) No error
if it were red. No error (d)
(c) (d)
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW to be treated passive kesâ
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW option (b) ceW double structure keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw, pees efkeâ mener veneR nw~ Fmekesâ
comparative degree keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw, pees mLeeve hej Active structure keâe object to treat keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee
grammatically ieuele nw, Fmekesâ mLeeve hej kesâJeue better keâe peeÙesiee~
ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee~ Correct Sentence– He objects to treat like this.
Correct sentence: The cake would have looked better SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
if it were red. Directions (Q. Nos. 21 to 40) : Below each of the
One of my friend does her work. following sentences three possible substitutes are given
14.
(a) (b) (c) for the underlined part. If one of them is better than the
No error underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer-
(d) Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If
none of the substitutes improves the sentence, indicate
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW my friend kesâ place hej my (d) as your response on the Answer-Sheet.
friends keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ one of kesâ yeeo ncesMee subject 21. She is having a lot of coins in her purse.
plural leLee verb singular ceW ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ (a) had been having (b) has
Correct Sentence– One of my friends does her work. (c) have (d) No improvement
She was absorbed at her work. No error Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW (Is having) kesâ mLeeve hej has
15.
(a) (b) (c) (d) keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ ÙeneB hej DeefOekeâej efoKeeves kesâ efueS
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW absorbed at keâe ØeÙeesie ieuele (possession) have/has keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
nw keäÙeeWefkeâ absorbed kesâ yeeo GheÙegòeâ preposition 'in' keâe ØeÙeesie Correct Sentence– She has a lot of coins in her purse.
efkeâÙee peelee nw~ 22. I had enough of his arrogant behaviour.
Hence correct sentence is - She was absorbed in her (a) have enough (b) have been enough
work. (c) have had enough (d) No improvement
the guard for stealing. Ans. (c) : 'I had enough' keâer peien 'have had enough' keâe
Hemant accused
16.
(a) (b) (c) ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ sentence keâe structure present
tense ceW nw~
No error
Correct sentence will be I have had enough of his
(d)
arrogant behaviour.
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW for stealing kesâ mLeeve hej of 23. The train will leave by the time we reach the
stealing keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ verb accused kesâ yeeo station. Hurry up.
'of' preposition keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ (a) left (b) will have left
Correct Sentence– Hemant accused the guard of (c) will be leaving (d) No improvement
stealing. Ans. (b) : Option (b) ceW, will leave kesâ mLeeve hej will
I am accustomed to cold weather. have left keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ otmeje JeekeäÙe present
17.
(a) (b) (c) indefinite ceW ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw, lees henuee Jeeuee JeekeäÙe tense
No error kesâ efveÙece kesâ Devegmeej future perfect ceW keâjWies~
(d) Hence correct sentence will be:- The train will have
left by the time we reach the station. Hurry up.
Ans. (d) : No error
BPSC AE Gen. English March, 2019 94 YCT
24. My mother is worried about my brother's (a) is planning (b) had planned
grades and also I. (c) planned (d) No improvement
(a) I am also (b) also me Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW was planning kesâ mLeeve hej
(c) so am I (d) No improvement had planned (past perfect tense) keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee
Ans. (c) : 'and also I' kesâ mLeeve hej 'so am I' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ØeLece sentence past indefinite
keäÙeeWefkeâ ÙeneB hej Reason keâe expression show keâjves kesâ efueS tense keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw FmeefueS otmejs Jeeues JeekeäÙe keâe
so am I keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee~ ØeÙeesie past perfect tense ceW nesiee~
Correct Sentence– My mother is worried about my 31. The audience was carried by the emotional
brother's grade so am I. speech.
25. I am exhausted as I am working since morning. (a) got carried away (b) was carried off
(a) was working (b) have been working (c) was carried towards (d) No improvement
(c) had been worked (d) No improvement Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW was carried kesâ mLeeve hej got
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW time keâes show efkeâÙee ieÙee nw carried away keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes
FmeefueS time keâes show keâjves kesâ efueS present continuous t sentence keâe structure passive voice ceW nw, pees efkeâ ÙeneB
tense keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ GheÙegòeâ veneR nw ÙeneB hej active voice structure keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee
Hence correct sentence will be:-I am exhausted as I leLee ÙeneB hej causative verb got carried away (peeot [euelee)
have been working since morning. keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
26. He did not know the lyrics to the song, I did not Hence correct sentence will be:- The audience got
neither. carried away by the emotional speech.
(a) neither did I (b) either did I
32. Didn't Aarav come to school yet?
(c) neither had I (d) No improvement (a) Hadn't (b) Hasn't
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW I did not neither kesâ mLeeve hej (c) Isn't (d) No improvement
neither did I keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Neither keâe ØeÙeesie Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW didn't kesâ mLeeve hej hasn't keâe
efkeâÙes peeves hej Inversion keâe rule follow neslee nw~ ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW 'yet' keâe
Hence correct sentence will be:-He did not know the ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw, peye efkeâmeer sentence ceW yet keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee
lyrics to the song, Neither did I. peelee nw lees nce present perfect tense keâe ØeÙeesie keâjles nw~
27. He told me that he had been waiting from four Hence correct sentence will be:-Hasn't Aarav come to
hours. school yet?
(a) for four hours (b) about four hours 33. A report has already been sent to the
(c) until four hours (d) No improvement organization.
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW from four hours kesâ mLeeve (a) having already being (b) have already been
hej for four hours keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes (c) has already being (d) No improvement
sentence ceW period of time (Deefveef§ele) meceÙe keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee Ans. (d) : No improvement.
ieÙee nw FmeefueS from keâer peien for keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee, 34. At what time are we going to leave for school?
Deefveef§ele meceÙe kesâ efueS for keâe ØeÙeesie leLee efveef§ele meceÙe kesâ efueS (a) going to leave now (b) going to have left
(c) going to be leaving (d) No improvement
since keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
Ans. (d) : No improvement.
Correct Sentence– He told me that he had been
waiting for four hours. 35. Sheela has been playing for two hours when
her parents came home.
28. The greater the demand, higher the price. (a) had been playing (b) was playing
(a) highest (b) the high (c) has played (d) No improvement
(c) the higher (d) No improvement
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW has been playing keâe ØeÙeesie
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW sentence keâes balance keâjves
ieuele nw keäÙeeWefkeâ otmeje Jeeuee JeekeäÙe past indefinite tense ceW
kesâ efueS higher keâer peien The higher keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw FmeefueS henues Jeeues JeekeäÙe ceW past perfect
keäÙeeWefkeâ ØeLece sentence keâe structure comparative degree ceW continuous tense (had been playing) keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee
nw, lees otmeje structure Yeer same structure nesiee~ peeÙesiee~
Hence correct sentence will be:- The greater the Correct Sentence– Sheela had been playing for two
demand the higher the price. hours when her parents came home.
29. Eating fruits is benevolent to health. 36. We took out our hats when we entered the
(a) beneficial (b) bounteous warm room.
(c) beneficent (d) No improvement (a) took off (b) took away
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW benevolent kesâ mLeeve hej (c) put out (d) No improvement
beneficial keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ benevolent means Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW took out kesâ mLeeve hej took
YeueeF& keâjves Jeeuee leLee beneficial means HeâeÙeoscebo neslee nw~ off keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ take out means- ues peevee,
efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW GheÙegòeâ Meyo beneficial nesiee~ efvekeâeuevee leLee take off means- Gleejvee neslee nw~ ÙeneB hej hats
30. He persuaded me to accompany him on a trip Gleejves kesâ efueS take off keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~
he was planning a month ago. Hence correct sentence will be:-We took off our hats
when we entered the warm room.
BPSC AE Gen. English March, 2019 95 YCT
37. Let us go to the mail today, shall we? Reverse - efheÚuee Yeeie, heerÚs keâe Yeeie, hejepeÙe, efJehejerle
(a) don't we (b) do we Recall - Ùeeo keâjvee, Jeeheme yegueevee
(c) do they (d) No improvement
Remind - mcejCe keâjevee
Ans. (d) : No improvement.
44. FORSAKE
38. It took me a while to understand what was (a) Alarm (b) Abandon
matter. (c) Forgive (d) Forage
(a) what is matter
(b) what has been matter Ans. (b) : For sake - lÙeeie osvee, keâe nearest meaning
(c) what the matter was Abandon nesiee efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
(d) No improvement Alarm - Kelejs keâer metÛevee, ÛesleeJeveer
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW what was matter keâe ØeÙeesie Forgive - #ecee keâjvee Ùee ceeHeâ keâjvee
grammatically mener veneR nw keäÙeeWefkeâ sentence kesâ Devle ceWs full Forage - Yeespeve kesâ efueS Ietcevee, Ûeeje
stop (.) keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw~ Fmekeâer peien 'what the 45. INCESSANT
matter was' keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee~ (a) Interesting (b) Continuous
39. Sheela is as tall as Reema. (c) Increasing (d) Calm
(a) as tall as much (b) as taller as Ans. (b) : Incessant - efvejblej, efÛejmLeeÙeer, meveeleve keâe meyemes
(c) same tall (d) No improvement vepeoerkeâ meaning continuous nesiee efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâe
Ans. (d) : No improvement. DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
40. Ranjan must has spilled the milk. Interesting - ®efÛekeâj, ceesn uesves Jeeuee, efoueÛemhe
(a) have spilled (b) had spilled Increasing - pÙeeoe nesvee, efJemleej
(c) have been spilled (d) No improvement
Calm - Meebefle
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW has spilled keâe ØeÙeesie ieuele nw
46. DEXTEROUS
Fmekesâ mLeeve hej have spilled keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ (a) Skilled (b) Hardworking
must kesâ yeeo has keâe ØeÙeesie veneR efkeâÙee peelee yeequkeâ Fmekesâ mLeeve (c) Difficult (d) Patient
hej have keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ Ans. (a) : Dexterous efvehegCe, o#e Fmekeâe meyemes nearest
Hence correct sentence will be:-Ranjan must have meaning skilled nesiee~ efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâer meaning
spilled the milk.
VOCABULARY
Fme Øekeâej nw–
Directions (Q. Nos. 41 to 50) : Below each of the Hardworking - heefjßeceer, cesnveleer
following words (in capital letters) four possible Patient - jesieer, peKceer Deeoceer
substitutes are given. Choose the word which is nearest Difficult - keâef"veeF&, hejsMeeveer
in meaning to the word given in capital letters and 47. BENIGN
indicate your response on the Answer-Sheet. (a) Harmful (b) Harmless
41. AMBIT (c) Benumb (d) Brief
(a) Aura (b) Range
(c) Ambience (d) Lunette Ans. (b) : Benign - meewcÙe, DeÛÚe keâe meyemes vepeoerkeâer Meyo
harmless nesiee DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
Ans. (b) : Ambit keâer meaning oeÙeje nesiee, Fmekeâe nearest
Benumb - uekeâJee ceejvee
meaning range nesiee efoÙes DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
Aura - JeeleeJejCe harmful - neefvekeâejkeâ
Ambience - ceenewue brief - mebef#ehle
Lunette - heeieue ceveg<Ùe 48. FELICITY
(a) Fidelity (b) Faith
42. PENURIOUS (c) Joy (d) Trust
(a) Lethal (b) Poor
(c) Peevish (d) Prosaic Ans. (c) : Felicity - hejce megKe, KegMeer keâer nearest meaning
Ans. (b) : Penurious means iejerye neslee nw, efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW joy nesieer, DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
ceW meyemes nearest Meyo poor nesiee leLee DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâe DeLe& Faith - efJeÕeeme
Fme Øekeâej nw– Trust - efJeÕeeme, DeemLee
Lethal - Ieelekeâ, peeveuesJee Fidelity - efve‰e
Peevish - efÛeÌ[efÛeÌ[e, PeieÌ[euet 49. CONCUR
(a) Consider (b) Agree
Prosaic - ieÅeelcekeâ, ieÅeJele
(c) conceal (d) Disagree
43. REVERE
Ans. (b) : Concur - mencele nesvee keâe vepeoerkeâer Meyo agree
(a) Respect (b) Reverse
(c) Recall (d) Remind nesiee, efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW DevÙe Meyo keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
Ans. (a) : Revere means - Deeoj keâjvee Fme Meyo keâe Consider - mecePevee, efJeÛeej keâjvee
nearest meaning - respect nesiee DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâe DeLe& Fme Conceal - efÚheevee, ieghle jKevee
Øekeâej nesiee– Disagree - Demencele nesvee

BPSC AE Gen. English March, 2019 96 YCT

50. QUANDARY 56. SEVER
(a) Quality (b) Dilemma (a) Resolve (b) Join
(c) Chaos (d) Quantity (c) Union (d) Part
Ans. (b) : Quandary - JÙeekegâuelee, Mebkeâe, nwjeveer keâe meyemes Ans. (b) : Sever (he=Lece keâjvee) keâe GefÛele efJeueesce Join
nearest word dilemma nesiee, DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâer meaning (peesÌ[vee) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nw–
Fme Øekeâej nw– Resolve - mebkeâuhe
Quality - iegCe, DeeÛejCe Union - efceueevee
Chaos - DeJÙeJemLee, GLeue-hegLeue 57. EXODUS
Quantity - cee$ee, mebÛeÙe, heefjceeCe (a) Outflow (b) Influx
Directions (Q. Nos. 51 to 60) : Below each of the (c) Infest (d) Outpour
following words (in capital letters) four possible Ans. (b) : Exodus (yeefn&ieceve) keâe GefÛele efJeueesce Influx
substitutes are given. Pick out the word that is most
nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capital
(DevleJee&n) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nw–
letters and indicate your response on the Answer-Sheet. Outflow - yenvee
51. INNATE Infest - De›eâceCe keâjvee
(a) Extra (b) Inborn 58. FUTILE
(c) External (d) Exarchate (a) Vain (b) Effective
Ans. (c) : Innate (Devlepee&le) keâe GefÛele opposite, External (c) Efficacy (d) Success
(yeenjer) nesiee~ Ans. (b) : Futile (efveLe&keâ/JÙeLe&) keâe GefÛele efJeueesce Effective
Inborn - pevcepeeefle (ØeYeeJeer) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nw–
52. DAUNT Vain - JÙeLe&
(a) Encourage (b) Dull Efficacy - ØeYeeJe
(c) Effulgent (d) Encompass
Success - meheâue
Ans. (a) : Daunt - [jevee/Oecekeâevee keâe GefÛele opposite
59. DAFT
Encourage (Øeeslmeeefnle keâjvee) nesiee~
(a) Sanity (b) Sane
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– (c) Silly (d) Stationary
Effulgent - oerefhleceeve Ans. (b) : Daft (ceboyegefæ) keâe GefÛele efJeueesce Sane (mecePeoej)
Encompass - Ûekeäkeâj ueieevee
nesiee~
Dull - veerjme
60. COMMENCE
53. OBSTINATE (a) Ensure (b) End
(a) Obsolete (b) Complicated (c) Envision (d) Endow
(c) Compact (d) Compliant
Ans. (b) : Commence (ØeejcYe) keâe GefÛele efJeueesce End
Ans. (d) : Obstinate (efpeöer/n"er) keâe GefÛele opposite-
Compliant (ve DeÌ[ves Jeeuee) nesiee~
(meceehle) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nw–
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– Ensure - megefveef§ele
Obsolete - DeØeÛeefuele Envision- keâuhevee keâjvee
compact- mecePeewlee, Endow - Øeoeve keâjvee~
complicated - peefšue Directions (Q. Nos. 61 to 80) : Each of the following
sentences is given with blank space to be filled in with
54. TERSE
(a) Verbose (b) Tense appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for
(c) Hearse (d) Verve each sentence. Choose the correct alternative.
61. The screenplay of the movie has been ---------
Ans. (a) : Terse (mebef#ehle) keâe GefÛele efJeueesce Verbose (Meyo
from a novel.
yengue) nesiee~ (a) adapted (b) adopted
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– (c) adepted (d) attained
Hearse - MeJeÙeeve Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW Keeueer mLeeve hej adapted
verve - peesMe/Glmeen (Devegketâue yeveevee) Meyo keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nw DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&
55. ABET Fme Øekeâej nw–
(a) Ferment (b) Hinder
Adopt - Deheveevee, hemebo keâjvee, ieeso uesvee
(c) Hindsight (d) Foment
Attain - Øeehle keâjvee, hengBÛevee
Ans. (b) : Abet (Gkeâmeevee) keâe GefÛele efJeueesce Hinder (yeeOee)
Adept - efvehegCe
nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nw–
Ferment - Gòespevee 62. The teacher did not approve --------------- the
assignment plan.
Foment - YeÌ[keâevee
(a) of (b) with
Hindsight - otjoMe& (c) about (d) above
BPSC AE Gen. English March, 2019 97 YCT
 Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence kesâ Keeueer mLeeve hej 'of' ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw, pees efkeâ past time keâes show keâjlee nw FmeefueS
preposition keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeesWefkeâ verb approve kesâ efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW past tense keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee~
yeeo 'of' preposition keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ Hence correct sentence will be:-We went to the circus
Hence correct sentence will be:- The teacher did not with our families last night.
approve of the assignment plan. 69. It is hard to come .............. terms with such a
63. After the fraud was discovered the manager loss.
(a) with (b) to
along with the clerks ................ arrested. (c) on (d) in
(a) were (b) was
(c) will be (d) would be Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW GheÙegòeâ preposition 'to' keâe
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW blank space kesâ mLeeve hej was keâe
ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee DevÙe preposition efoÙes ieÙes sentence kesâ
Devegmeej GheÙegòeâ veneR nw–
ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ peye Along with, together with, Hence correct sentence will be:-It is hard to come to
as well as mes keâesF& Meyo peesÌ[e peelee nw lees ØeLece Meyo kesâ Devegmeej terms with such a loss.
Auxiliary verb keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ 70. There is a cat --------------- the table.
Hence correct sentence will be:-After the fraud was (a) under (b) below
discovered the manager along with the clerks was (c) in (d) between
arrested. Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ sentence ceW 'under' preposition keâe
64. The workers have called ----------- the strike. ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ ÙeneB hej under (veerÛes) position keâer
(a) over (b) off yeele keâer ieÙeer nw~
(c) of (d) up Hence correct sentence will be–There is a cat under the
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW blank space kesâ mLeeve hej off keâe table.
ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ call off means yevo keâjvee neslee nw, 71. The train ----------- at the station at 10:00 a.m.
daily.
pees efkeâ ÙeneB hej GheÙegòeâ Meyo nw, DevÙe Meyo Fme Øekeâej nw– call (a) arrives (b) arrive
up means - mesvee ceW Yeleea nesves kesâ efueS DeeosMe keâjvee~ (c) will arrive (d) came
65. When will she hand ............... the keys to the Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW blank space kesâ mLeeve hej
apartment? arrives Meyo keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes sentence
(a) over (b) down ceW 'Daily' Meyo keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw, efpememes sentence ceW
(c) back (d) into simple present tense, singular number verb keâe ØeÙeesie
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ sentence ceW hand over keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ subject singular nw~
peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen Skeâ idiomatic use nw, 72. The student try-outs for the game will ...........
Hand over means - meeQhevee neslee nw~ next week.
Hence correct sentence will be-When will she hand (a) begin on (b) begin by
(c) begun by (d) begin at
over the keys to the apartment?
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW Keeueer mLeeve hej begin by keâe
66. I like tea better ................. coffee.
(a) then (b) than ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nw keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW future
(c) over (d) above indefinite keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw leLee sentence kesâ meaning
Ans. (b) : Blank space kesâ mLeeve hej than keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee (DeLe&) kesâ Devegmeej by preposition keâe ØeÙeesie suitable nesiee~
Hence correct sentence will be–The student try-outs
peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW comparative degree better for the game will begin by next week.
keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw leLee Comparative degree ceW leguevee kesâ 73. Only ............... students had turned up for the
efueS than keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ art show.
Hence correct sentence will be–I like tea better than (a) a few (b) few
coffee. (c) little (d) a little
67. She tossed the coin ............... the wishing well. Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ sentence ceW a few keâe ØeÙeesie Keeueer mLeeve
(a) in (b) into hej efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ A few means kegâÚ leLee few means
(c) over (d) from - ve kesâ yejeyej (kegâÚ) leLee The few means - pees kegâÚ Yeer DeLe&
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW 'into' preposition keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW suitable word 'a few' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ DevÙe preposition GheÙegòeâ veneR nw, tossed Correct Sentence- Only a few students had turned up
for the art show.
into keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ 74. The birds had ---------- away from the branch.
Correct sentence- She tossed the coin into the (a) flew (b) flown
wishing well. (c) fly (d) flight
68. We ---------- to the circus with our families last Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW blank space kesâ mLeeve hej
night. flown keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW
(a) went (b) are going present perfect tense keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw pees verb keâe III
(c) have gone (d) will be going form ueslee nw~
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW blank space kesâ mLeeve hej went Hence correct sentence will be:-The birds had flown
keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW last night keâe away from the branch.
BPSC AE Gen. English March, 2019 98 YCT
75. .............. best is yet to come. Ans. (a) : Spitting image means - (Øeefle cetefle&), An exact
(a) A (b) An copy, DevÙe efJekeâuhe GheÙegòeâ veneR nw~
(c) Some (d) The
82. Hit the hay
Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW blank space kesâ mLeeve hej 'The' (a) Feed the cattle (b) Go to sleep
keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW superlative (c) Burn the hay (d) Lose the sheep
degree keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw FmeefueS superlative degree Ans. (b) : Hit the hay means Go to sleep (mees peevee, veeRo
Meyo kesâ henues 'The' keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ ceW heÌ{vee) neslee nw leLee DevÙe efJekeâuhe Fme Øekeâej nw–Lose the
Hence correct sentence will be:-The best is yet to sheep–miss your chance or opportunity.
come. 83. Long in the tooth
76. I intend to work .............. late afternoon. (a) Old (b) Rotten
(a) till (b) since (c) Sweet (d) Wise
(c) for (d) about Ans. (a) : Long in the tooth means - old, to be old
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW blank space kesâ mLeeve hej till (ØeeÛeerve nesvee), efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme
preposition keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW Øekeâej nw–Rotten - meÌ[e ngDee
since, for, about keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ veneR nw, kesâJeue till keâe Sweet - ceer"e, Wise - yegefæceeve
ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ 84. To have an axe to grind
77. Neha was ............. too overdressed for a casual (a) A personal end to serve
party. (b) To have no result
(a) far (b) few (c) To work for both sides
(c) some (d) much (d) To have a lot of work to do
Ans. (a) : To have an axe to grind - A personal end to
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ sentence ceW adverb 'too', that it must
serve (mJeeLeea, Dehevee celeueye nesvee), DevÙe efJekeâuhe GheÙegòeâ veneR nw~
contain an adverb also. Far - used to indicate a greater
degree of something. 85. A black sheep
Hence correct sentence will be:-Neha was far too (a) An unlucky person
overdressed for a casual party. (b) Disreputable member of a group
(c) A lucky person
78. I know ............. certain that Neelam has failed (d) A person who is given no share
the test. Ans. (b) : A black sheep means - Disreputable
(a) with (b) for member of a group (kegâue keâuebkeâ), efoÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW DevÙe
(c) on (d) from
MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW 'for' preposition keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee
Unlucky person - DeMegYe JÙeefòeâ
peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ know for a fact (that) keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw Lucky person - YeeiÙeMeeueer JÙeefòeâ
Ùen Skeâ idiomatic ØeÙeesie nw~ 86. To smell a rat
Hence correct sentence will be:-I know for certain that (a) To foresee misfortune
Neelam has failed the test. (b) To suspect foul play
79. Conflicting opinions led to several fights ------ (c) To see signs of plague
the group of six tourists. (d) To be in a bad mood
(a) between (b) among Ans. (b) : To smell a rat kegâÚ ieuele nw- Ùes cenmetme keâjvee~
(c) over (d) for To smell a rat - to suspect foul play.
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW blank space keâer peien among efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe efJekeâuhe GheÙegòeâ veneR nw~
keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW several fights 87. At one's wit's end
leLee Six tourists keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw, oes mes DeefOekeâ kesâ efueS (a) Very clever (b) Very stupid
nce among leLee oes kesâ efueS between keâe ØeÙeeWie keâjles nw~ (c) Perplexed (d) Enlightened
80. We rowed the boat --------- the lake to reach the Ans. (c) : At one's wit's end - perplexed, confused,
other side. puzzled (Ûeef k eâle), ef o Ùes ieÙes ef JekeâuheeW ceW DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme
(a) across (b) between Øekeâej nw –
(c) among (d) over Enlighten - Ûecekeâvee, metefÛele keâjvee, mhe„ keâjvee
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW GheÙeg&òeâ preposition across keâe Very Stupid - yengle cetKe&
ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWsefkeâ row across the lake keâe ØeÙeesie Very clever - yengle Ûelegj
efkeâÙee peelee nw, sentence kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej, ÙeneB hej across 88. To talk through one's hat
keâe ner ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nw~ (a) To talk nonsense
(b) To talk indirectly
Directions (Q. Nos. 81 to 90) : Below each of the (c) To talk to a powerful person
following underlined idioms or phrases four possible (d) To keep quiet
substitutes (words or group of words) are given. Select Ans. (a) : To talk through one's hat - to talk non-sense
the one which is most nearly the same to the given idiom (efvejLe&keâ yeele keâjvee), efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&
or phrase. Fme Øekeâej nw–
81. Spitting image
(a) An exact copy (b) A lesser version To talk indirectly - DeØelÙe#e keâe Dehejes#e ™he mes yeele keâjvee
(c) Unclear image (d) Reflection To keep quiet - Ûeghe jnvee

BPSC AE Gen. English March, 2019 99 YCT

89. Eat humble pie 95. Come together to form a mass
(a) To admit that you were wrong (a) Capsize (b) Concoet
(b) Be disillusioned (c) Coalesce (d) Conur
(c) Be humble Ans. (c) : Come together to form a mass - Coalesce
(d) To deal with a humble person (Skeâ nesvee, Fkeâªe nesvee) neslee nw, efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe MeyoeW
Ans. (a) : Eat humble pie - To admit that you were keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
wrong (Meceeavoieer Pesuevee, to apologize) efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW
Capsize - Gueš peevee, veeJe keâe Guešvee
DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
Concoet - lewÙeej keâjvee, Ùeespevee yeveevee
Be disillusioned - efvejeMe keâjvee
Concur - mencele nesvee, menceefle osvee
Be humble - efJeveceü nesvee
96. Having an irritable disposition
90. Drive up the wall
(a) To annoy someone (b) To be a bad driver (a) Prudent (b) Peevish
(c) To be a good driver (d) To cause a quarrel (c) Pestering (d) Palpable
Ans. (a) : Drive up the wall - To annoy someone, to Ans. (b) : Having an irritable disposition - Peevish
(efÛeÌ[efÛeÌ[e, PeieÌ[euet, legvegkeâefcepeepe) neslee nw, efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW
irritate (Gkeâmeevee, Gòesefpele keâjvee, kegâÚ keâjvee) efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW
ceW DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw– DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
To cause a quarrel - PeieÌ[s keâe keâejCe nesvee Prudent - yegefæceeve, efJeJeskeâer
Pestering - meleevee, ceÛeuevee
Directions (Q. Nos. 91 to 100) : Below each of the
following underlined definitions four possible substitutes Palpable - ØelÙe#e, megmhe„
(words) are given. Choose the correct word which may 97. A place of safety or refuge
closely fit each definition. (a) Coup (b) Haven
91. A deceptive outward appearance (c) Heaven (d) Abeyance
(a) Impasse (b) Facade Ans. (b) : A place of safety or refuge - Haven (DeeßeÙe,
(c) Countenance (d) Gravitas
MejCe) neslee nw, efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme
Ans. (b) : A deceptive outward appearance - Facade
(cegKeewše) neslee nw, efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe efJekeâuhe keâer meaning Fme Øekeâej nw–
Øekeâej nw– Coup - DeeIeele, ceej
Impasse - keâef"ve eqmLeefle Heaven - mJeie&, hejueeskeâ
Countenance - neJe-YeeJe, meceLe&ve Abeyance - "njeJe, #eefCekeâ efJejece
Gravitas - iebYeerjlee, iebYeerj Ûeeue {eue 98. Rebuke severely
(a) Chastise (b) Chaste
92. Not known to most people
(a) Obsolete (b) Obscure (c) Chastity (d) Revere
(c) Obstinate (d) Obdurate Ans. (a) : Rebuke severely - Chastise (heer"vee, oC[ osvee)
Ans. (b) : Not known to most people - Obscure (Demhe„, neslee nw, efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
OegbOeuee, DeJÙeòeâ) neslee nw, efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe efJekeâuhe keâer meaning chaste - heefJe$e, efJeMegæ
Fme Øekeâej nw– chastity - heefJe$elee, mebÙece, meeoieer
Obsolete - DeØeÛeefuele, hegjevee revere - mecceeve keâjvee, Deeoj keâjvee
Obstinate - efpeöer, n"er 99. Public shame or disgrace
Obdurate - keâ"esj, efve…gj, Dešue (a) Panoply (b) Ignominy
93. Strongly infatuated to something (c) Desultory (d) Reparation
(a) Besotted (b) Virulent Ans. (b) : Public shame or disgrace - Ignominy (keâuebkeâ,
(c) Zealot (d) Perturbed Deheceeve) neslee nw, efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme
Ans. (a) : Strongly infatuated to something - Besotted Øekeâej nw–
(cetÌ{) neslee nw, efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Desultory - DeefveÙeefcele, Demebiele
Øekeâej nw– Penoply - "eš-yeeš, j#ee, OetceOeece
Virulent - G«e, õesner, [en-Yeje Reparation - cejccele, megOeej
Zealot - Meewkeâ mes Yeje Deeoceer, keâójhebLeer
100. Refusal to accept
Perturbed - GheõJe keâjvee (a) Repudiate (b) Abject
94. Very thin or weak (c) Adjunct (d) Recondite
(a) Emancipated (b) Emaciated Ans. (a) : Refusal to accept - Repudiate (veecebpetj keâjvee,
(c) Emanated (d) Amateur
Ans. (b) : Very thin or weak - Emaciated (#eerCe, ogye&ue) KeC[ve keâjvee, DemJeerkeâej keâjvee) neslee nw, efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW
neslee nw, efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw– DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
Emancipated - yebOevecegòeâ Abject - DeOece, Ie=efCele, YeÙeevekeâ
Emanated - GlheVe nesvee, Øekeâš ngDee Adjunct - peesÌ[, meneÙekeâ
Amateur - Meewkeâerve, efkeâmeer efJeÅee Ùee keâuee keâe Øesceer, DevegYeJenerve Recondite - keâef"ve, ietÌ{, iebYeerj

BPSC AE Gen. English March, 2019 100 YCT

 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2017
Assistant Engineer (Civil) Mains
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER-III)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Exam Date : 28 March, 2019

1. The first-ever Foreign Minister of North Korea 5. 14th United Nations Congress on Crime
who visited India during 2014-15 is Prevention and Criminal Justice will be held in
(a) Ri Su Yong (b) Roh Tae Woo 2020 in
(c) Kim Jong II (d) Kim II Sung (a) Seoul, South Korea (b) New York, USA
(c) London, UK (d) Kyoto, Japan
Ans. (a) : Ri Su-yong became the first North Korean
foreign minister to visit India in at least 25 years Ans. (d) : The 14th UN Congress on Crime Prevention
(although Kim Yong-il the North Korean vice foreign and Criminal Justice will be held from 7 to 12 March
minister visited India in 2007 and 2009). The last time a 2021 in Kyoto Japan. The UN general Assembly has
formally divided on these dates which had been
senior Indian official visited North Korea was over two
recommended by the commission on Crime prevention
decades ago when Shankar Dayal Sharma then the
and criminal Justice as the preparatory body of the
Indian vice president met Kim II-Sung.
Crime Congress.
In New Delhi Ri met with his counterpart Indian
external affairs minister Sushma Swaraj. According to 6. In banking, the full form of RTGS is
(a) Rapid Transfer Gross Scheme
reports the two leaders discussed North Korea's nuclear
(b) Rapid Transfer Gross Settlement
weapons programme and regional security issues
(c) Real Time Gross Settlement
including the stability of the Korea peninsula.
(d) Real Time Gross Scheme
2. The present chief coach of Indian cricket team is Ans. (c) : The RTGS stands for Real Time Gross
(a) Sunil Gavaskar (b) Ravi Shastri Settlement which can be defined as the continuous
(c) Gary Kirsten (d) Kapil Dev (real-time) settlement of funds individually on an order
Ans. (b) : India's men's cricket team governed by the by order basis (without netting) considering that the
board of control for cricket in India. funds settlement takes place in the books of the Reserve
Cricket was brought in India by the British in the early bank of India, the Payments are final and irrevocable.
1700s with first match played in 1721. 7. Swachh Bharat Mission was started on
In 1848 the Parsi community in Bombey formed the (a) 15th August, 2014 (b) 2nd October, 2014
'Oriental' cricket club the first club formed by Indians. (c) 27th June, 2015 (d) 2nd October, 2015
Ravi Shastri is the present chief coach of Indian cricket Ans. (b) : To accelerate the efforts to achieve Universal
team. sanitation coverage and to put the focus on sanitation
3. The first women IPS officer of India is the Prime Minister of India had launched the Swachh
(a) Isha Basant Joshi (b) Anna George Bharat Mission on 02 October 2014.
(c) Kiran Bedi (d) Merin Joseph 8. The supersonic jet planes fly in which of the
Ans. (c) : Kiran Bedi (Born I June 1949) was the first following layers of earth's atmosphere?
(a) Mesosphere (b) Troposphere
woman to join the Indian police service (IPS) starting
(c) Stratosphere (d) Thermosphere
her training on 16 July 1972. She was in service till
2007 and currently serving as the governor of Ans. (c) : The main reason of jet planes fly in the
Puducherry. stratosphere because this is where the least amount of
turbulence is found in addition because the stratosphere
4. The magnetic levitation train of which country
is very dry. There are fewer clouds in this layer making
set a world record of 603 km/hr? for a much smoother ride over all for supersonic jet.
(a) France (b) China
9. Consumption of water with high concentration
(c) Japan (d) Germany
of arsenic leads to
Ans. (c) : Maglev is a system of train transportation that (a) Minamata disease (b) Blue-Baby disease
uses two set of magnets. The highest recorded maglev (c) Itai-Itai disease (d) Black-Foot disease
speed is 603 km/h achieved in Japan by JR central's
Ans. (d) : The blackfoot diseases affects the periferal
superconducting maglev on 21 April 2015 28 km/h vascular system. It is endemic in nature. It is associated
faster than the conventional TGV wheel rail speed with the consumption of Inorganic arsenic from the
record. artesian well.
BPSC AE (GS) March, 2019 101 YCT
Minamata Disease– It is caused by heavily Ans. (c) : Naam foundation is a non governmental
contaminated water with the toxic chemical generated organisation started by Indian movie actors Nana
in chemical factories and then discharged into sea. Patekar and Makarand Anaspure. The foundation works
Itai-Itai Disease–It is caused by cadmium contamination. for betterment of farmers in the drought-prone areas of
Blue Baby Disease–It is caused by nitrate Marathwada and Vidarbha in the state of Maharashtra
contamination in ground water. India.
10. The first State implementing fully organic 15. The venue selected for Common-wealth Games
farming practices in India is to be held in the year 2022 is
(a) Sikkim (b) Uttarakhand (a) Birmingham (b) Gold Coast
(c) Punjab (d) Kerala (c) Incheon (d) Durban
Ans. (a) : In 2003 Sikkim stopped imports of chemical Ans. (a) : Louise martin president of the
fertilizers in the state and since then the cultivatable commonwealth Games fedration made the official
land there is practically organic and farmers of Sikkim announcement at a press conference at the Arena
are traditional users of organic manure. Sikkim is the Academy in Birmingham.
first organic state in the world. All of its farmland is The city of Durban, South Africa was initially selected
certified organic.
as the host for the 2022. But It was report in Feb 2017
11. The ozone depleting substance is however Durban may be unable to host the games due
(a) carbon dioxide to financial constraints.
(b) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
16. Which of the following is not in the list of
(c) hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
World Heritage Sites of UNESCO?
(d) ammonia
(a) Mughal Gardens in Kashmir
Ans. (b) : Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)–Ozone (b) Rani ki Vav in Gujarat
depleting substances is the chemicals that destroy the
(c) Nalanda in Bihar
earth's protective ozone layer they include.
(d) Jantar Mantar in Jaipur
(i) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFCs)
(ii) Halon (CBrF3) Ans. (a) : The Bagh was built by Mughal Emperor
(iii) Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) Jahangir for his wife Nur Jahan in 1619. The Bagh is
(iv) Methyl chloroform (CH3CCl3) considered the highest point of Mughal Horticulture.
(v) Methyl bromide (CH3Br) 17. The first airport powered by solar energy was
12. The element with highest electrical (a) Bangalore (b) Kochi
conductivity is (c) London (d) Frankfurt
(a) germanium (b) copper Ans. (b) : Cochin international became the world's first
(c) silver (d) gold solar powered airport in 2015 when it transformed a
Ans. (c) : Silver has the highest electrical conductivity patch of land previously reserved for cargo handling
of all metals. In fact silver defines conductivity-all other into a 12 megawatt solar plant. This new energy source
metals are compared against it. On a scale of 0 to 100 provides all the power the airport needs and even
silver rank 100 with copper at 97 and gold at 76. generates surplus for the state grid according to the
13. Which of the following research stations is not BBC.
located in Antarctica? 18. Okhla Bird Sanctuary is located in
(a) Himgiri (b) Himadri (a) Jaipur (b) Gurugram
(c) Bharti (d) Maitri (c) Bharatpur (d) Noida
Ans. (a) : In Antarctica scientific studies and Ans. (d) : Okhla bird sanctuary spread over 3.5 square
investigations are undertaken on the Continental part kilometres the sanctuary is located at Gautam Budh
and contiguous self ice area. Observations in the Ocean Nagar District of Uttar Pradesh. It was declared a
in austral summer months are made during the voyage protected area in 1990 under the wildlife protection act
to maitri and bharati on board the chartered vessel hired 1972.
for transport of material and personnel to these stations. 19. The element found on the surface of the moon
At Arctic meteorological biological glaciological and is
past climate studies are also undertaken in the vicinity (a) copper (b) gold
of the station Himadri local boats are hired for marine (c) platinum (d) titanium
research. Ans. (d) : Earth's moon has more metal than scientists
14. To donate money to the drought-affected imagined. NASA'S prolific Lunar Reconnaissance
farmers Naam Foundation was created by Orbiter (LRO) found rich evidence of iron and titanium
(a) Rajesh Khanna (b) Amitabh Bachchan oxides under the surface of the moon which may show a
(c) Nana Patekar (d) Dilip Kumar close connection with Earth's early history.
BPSC AE (GS) March, 2019 102 YCT
20. The Chief Election Commissioner of India is 26. 'Dadasaheb Phalke Award', the highest award
appointed by the in Indian cinema was awarded in 2017 to
(a) Parliament (a) Raj Kapoor (b) Vinod Khanna
(b) Prime Minister (c) Manoj Kumar (d) Shashi Kapoor
(c) President Ans. (b) : The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's
(d) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court highest award in cinema. Presented first in 1969 the
Ans. (c) : The President Appoints Chief Election award was introduced by the government of India to
Commissioner and Election Commissioners. They have commemorate Dadasaheb Phalke's contribution to
tenure of six years or up to the age of 65 years which Indian Cinema.
ever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive The first recipient of award was actress Devika Rani
salary and perks as available to judges of the supreme who was honoured at the 17th National film award. The
court of India. Recipient of 2017 Dadasaheb Phalke Award actor is
21. The 'Bibi Ka Maqbara', a tomb of Aurangzeb's vinod khanna.
wife is situated in 27. The biggest lake in India is
(a) Lucknow (b) New Delhi (a) Chilka lake (b) Dal lake
(c) Agra (d) Aurangabad (c) Lake Pichola (d) Kolleru lake
Ans. (d) : The ‘Bibi ka maqbara’ is a tomb located in Ans. (a) : (i) Chilka Lake–It is the largest coastal
Aurangabad Maharashtra India. It was built by Mughal lagoon in India and the second largest lagoon in the
emperor Aurangzeb's son Azam shah between 1668 and world.
1669 C.E in the memory of his wife it bears a striking Chilika lake is the largest wintering ground for
resemblance to the famous Taj Mahal. migratory birds on the Indian sub continent.
22. The devastating floods and landslides, which It is a brackish water coastal lake.
left 3 lakh pilgrims and tourists trapped in (ii) Dal Lake–It is a lake in Srinagar and is integral to
Uttrakhand was in tourism known as the jewel in the crown of Kashmir or
(a) May 2013 (b) June 2014 Srinagar's jewel. Asia's largest tulip garden is found on
(c) June 2015 (d) July 2015 the bank of Dal Lake.
Ans. (a) : In June 2013 a multiday cloudburst centered Mughal garden, Shalimar bagh and the Nishat bagh are
on the North Indian state of Uttarakhand caused located on the banks of dal lake.
devastating floods and landslides becoming the (iii) Kolleru Lake–The largest lake in India located
Country's worst natural disaster since the 2004 tsunami. between Krishna and Godawari delta it was declared a
23. 'Regatta' is associated with wetland of international importance in 2002 under
(a) Swimming (b) Table Tennis Ramsar convention.
(c) Rowing (d) Polo (iv) Vembanad Lake–Longest lake in India and the
largest lake in the state of Kerala.
Ans. (c) : A Regatta is a series of boat races. The term
The Nehru trophy boat race is conducted in a portion of
comes from the venetian language Regatta meaning the lake.
"contest" and typically describes racing events of rowed
28. On adding some detergent to water, the surface
or sailed water craft although some power boat race
tension
series are also called Regattas.
(a) decreases
24. Approximately how much of the earth surface (b) remains same
is covered by forests? (c) increases
(a) 10% (b) 20% (d) initially decreases then increases
(c) 30% (d) 40% Ans. (a) : When detergent is added to water, it decreases
Ans. (c) : The forest cover is about 30% of earth land the surface tention of the water. Compounds that lower
surface while a accounting for 50% of plant water's surface tension are called surfactants which work
productivity. As much as 45% of carbon stored on land by separating the water molecules from one another.
is tied up in forests. 29. The first country in which Buddhism was
25. The largest automobile manufacturing unit in propagated outside India is
the world is located in (a) Japan (b) China
(a) Detroit, USA (c) South Korea (d) Sri Lanka
(b) Ulsan, South Korea Ans. (d) : Various rulers from different dynasty gave
(c) Oguchi, Japan royal patronage to buddhism. Due to Royal Patronage
(d) San Autonio, Texas, USA and it's simplicity this religion became popular in
Ans. (a) : Detroit is home to ford, General Motors and different countries. King Ashoka and King Kanishka
chrysler or the big three, the most successful sent different missionaries to different countries like Sri
automobile manufacturers both in the US and around Lanka, Greece, Syria etc. Sri Lanka earlier known as
the world. Ceylon was the first country outside to India where
Ulsan (South Korea) has hyundai motor company. Buddhism was propagated and adopted.
BPSC AE (GS) March, 2019 103 YCT
30. The maximum length permitted for a cricket Ans. (d) : The international day of yoga has been
bat is celebrated annually on 21 June since 2015 following its
(a) 25 inches (b) 28 inches inception in the United Nations General Assembly in
(c) 32 inches (d) 35 inches 2014. The Indian prime minister Narendra Modi in his
Ans. (*) : Generally speaking the laws dictate that the UN address suggested the date of 21 June as it is the
length of a cricket bat may be more than 38 inches (96.5 longest day of the year in the northern hemisphere and
cm) and width no more than 4.25 inches (10.8 cm). shares a special significance in many parts of the world.
31. To deliver mails efficiently, the country is 37. Tehri Dam', a controversial dam was built over
divided in PIN Code zones. The number of PIN the river
Code zones is (a) Bhagirathi (b) Ganga
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) Godavari (d) Narmada
(c) 12 (d) 16
Ans. (a) : The Tehri dam is the tallest dam in India. It is
Ans. (b) : Postal Index Number (PIN) is a six digit code
a multi purpose rock and earth fill embankment dam on
used by Indian postal services. It was devised on 15
the Bhagirathi river at Tehri in Uttarakhand India. It is
August 1972. At present the country has 9 postal (PIN)
zones out of which 8 represent different geographical the primary dam of the THDC India Ltd. and the tehri
Area's the last one is reserved for providing the postal hydroelectric complex.
services to the armed forces. The first digit of the postal 38. 'Kaziranga' National Park, famous for
code represents one of the many geographical Areas. rhinoceros is in the State
The second digit represents the postal circles (states) or (a) Sikkim (b) Bihar
the sub areas. The third digit indicates the district and (c) Assam (d) Tamil Nadu
the last tree digits are the code for post offices. Ans. (c) : Kaziranga National park draws a large
32. The green flame produced in fire-works is due number of tourists from India and abroad due to its
to the presence of population of one horned rhinos. Kaziranga National
(a) chromium (b) barium park is situated in Golaghat and Nagaon areas of
(c) calcium (d) lithium Assam. It was acknowledged a UNESCO world
Ans. (b) : In a salt analysis barium (example barium heritage site in 1985. It was also tagged as a tiger
chloride) salt is grassy green coloured flame in flame reserve in 2006 for its large population of tigers.
test a small amount of salt is made into a paste with 39. The city known as 'Manchester of South India'
concentrated HCL in a watch glass and introduced into is
non luminous part of busses flame. So barium gives (a) Bangalore (b) Coimbatore
green colour flame. (c) Madurai (d) Thiruvananthapuram
33. The atomic power station built indigenously is Ans. (b) : Coimbatore is known as manchester of the
in South India or textile capital of South India. It is known
(a) Tarapur (b) Narora
as such because of the presence of more than 25000
(c) Kalpakkam (d) Rawatbhata
small medium large sale industries and textile mills.
Ans. (c) : Kalpakkam is the atomic power station
located in Tamil Nadu and was the first indigenously 40. The unit of sound is
built nuclear power station in india. (a) hertz (b) wave number
(c) decibel (d) cm–1
34. The State in India that produces saffron is
(a) Meghalaya (b) Himachal Pradesh Ans. (c) : We measure sound intensity (also referred to
(c) Assam (d) Jammu and Kashmir as sound power or sound pressure) in units called
decibels. Decibels (dB) are named in honor of
Ans. (d) : Saffron cultivation in India mainly done in
the state of Himanchal Pradesh and Jammu and Alexander Graham bell, the inventor of both the
Kashmir. Saffron plan needs extreme heat and dryness telephone and audiometer.
in summer and extreme cold during winter. 41. The minimum age required to become
35. The planet nearest to the earth is 'President' of India is
(a) Mercury (b) mars (a) 21 years (b) 25 years
(c) Venus (d) Jupiter (c) 35 years (d) 45 years
Ans. (c) : Earth is the third planet from the sun in our Ans. (c) : The minimum age required to become the
solar system. Venus is the planet that comes closest to President of India is 35 years. The president is elected
earth Venus is also known as ‘morning star’ or ‘evening by the members of an electoral college consisting of
star’. the elected members of both the houses of parliament
36. 'World Yoga Day' is celebrated on and the elected member of the legislative assemblies
(a) May 01 (b) June 01 of states and the union territories of Delhi and
(c) July 21 (d) June 21 Puducherry.
BPSC AE (GS) March, 2019 104 YCT
42. LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) is a mixture of Ans. (c) : The chemical which is used to make
(a) methane and propane toothpaste white is titanium dioxide. Titanium dioxide
(b) ethane and propane is the mineral which is occurring naturally mineral
(c) butane and propane which exists in crystalline form. The chemical
(d) propane and hexane properties of titanium dioxide make it a viable
Ans. (c) : Liquified petroleum gas (LPG) is a mixture of ingredient of toothpastes as a white agent.
light hydrocarbon compounds. It mainly consists of 48. The metal used in the making of microchips is
butane (C4H10) or propane (C3H8) or a mixture of both. (a) copper (b) iron
At room temperature both gases are colourless and (c) titanium (d) silicon
odourless. LPG used in household gas cylinders consist Ans. (d) : Silicon is the element used in making
of 70% butane and 30% propane. microchips. It is because of the requirement of
43. 'Anemometer' is an instrument used for computer chips of some insulator for it's complex and
measuring the detailed circuitry and silicon being the insulator when
(a) wind speed (b) light speed combined with oxygen (silicon oxide) serves the
(c) sound speed (d) temperature purpose.
Ans. (a) : An anemometer is an instrument that 49. The central metal atom in chlorophyll is
measures wind speed and wind pressure direction. (a) calcium (b) copper
Anemometers are important tools for meteorologists (c) iron (d) magnesium
who study weather patterns. They are also important to Ans. (d) : In chlorophyll the central ion is magnesium
the work of physicists who study the way air moves. It and the large organic molecule is a porphyrin. The
is also a common weather station instrument. porphyrin contains four nitrogen atoms that form bonds
44. The first railway university in India is to come to magnesium in a square planar arrangement.
up in 50. The present Chief Justice of the Supreme
(a) Gujarat (b) Bengal Court is
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Karnataka (a) H. J. Kania (b) Ranjan Gogoi
Ans. (a) : India's first railway university will come up (c) Dipak Mishra (d) N. V. Ramana
in Vadodara Gujarat. The National Rail and Ans. (b) : The present (In 2021) Chief Justice of India
Transportation Institute (NRTI), deemed university in is Justice Sharad Arvind bobde and is the 47th Chief
Vododara- had opened its doors to the first batch of 103 Justice of India since 26 January 1950 the year the
student from 20 states in two fully residential constitution came into effect and the supreme court
undergraduate courses. It is India’s first railway came into being.
university and only third such in the whole world after Justice SA bobde the senior most judge in the supreme
Russia and China. court after "CJI Ranjan Gogoi (In 2019) ".
45. The country which has agreed to export 51. The currency of South Korea is
(a) Won (b) Lira
petroleum and oil against payment in Rupee
(c) Yen (d) Renminbi
instead of Dollar is
(a) Iran (b) Iraq Ans. (a) : The South Korean 'WON' is the currency in
(c) Libiya (d) UAE circulation in South Korea since 1945, although it
would later be replaced temporarily by the Hwan. It is
Ans. (a) : Iran is the country which has agreed to export
divided into 100 dollars the amount of which there is no
petroleum and oil against payment in rupee instead of
currency. The won was first used as Korea’s currency
Dollar. India has made a deal with Iran to buy
between 1902 to 1910.
petroleum and oil by paying in rupees.
52. The 'Pakyong Airport' recently opened is in
46. The toxic element present in automobile (a) Sikkim (b) Assam
exhausts is (c) Meghalaya (d) West Bengal
(a) copper (b) iron
Ans. (a) : Pakyong Airport is a Greenfield airport near
(c) lead (d) tin
Gangtok, the capital of state of Sikkim. The airport is
Ans. (c) : Lead is the most immobile heavy metal strategically important and the Indian Airforce is also
pollutant because of its immobility, lead poisoning is building on the ability to land certain military aircraft
localised. Lead is a common pollutant exhaust from at the Pakyong Airport. It spread over 201 acres,
drycell or battery manufacturing plants and automobile airport is located at Pakyong town about 31 km south
exhausts. of Gangtok.
47. The chemical used for making tooth pastes 53. The 'Statue of Liberty' was gifted to the United
white is States of America by
(a) calcium carbonate (b) sodium carbonate (a) Australia (b) England
(c) titanium dioxide (d) zinc oxide (c) France (d) Japan
BPSC AE (GS) March, 2019 105 YCT
 Ans. (c) : The statue of liberty was given to the US by 58. The disease, which is not transmitted from one
as a symbol of two Countries friendship. Its height is person to another is
93 meter. It is situated in Newyork, it was erected by (a) cirrhosis (b) hepatitis B
Artist Fredric Auguste Bartholdi. It is made up of (c) syphilis (d) AIDS
copper and given to US in 1886, October 28. Ans. (a) : Cirrhosis is a complication of liver diseases
54. The atom bomb dropped on Hiroshima in the that Involves Loss of liver cells and irreversible
year 1945 is known as scarring of the liver.
(a) Baby Boy (b) Enola Gay Symptoms– Initially patients may experience Fatigue,
(c) Black Boy (d) Little Boy Weakness and Weight Loss. During later stages
parents may develop Jaundice (Yellowing of the skin)
Ans. (d) : On 6 Aug. 1945, at 8:15 the first bomb was
gastro intentional bleeding, abdominal Swelling and
dropped on the centre of Hiroshima 'Little boy' was a
confusion.
gun type Fission Bomb, using a conventional explosive Hepatitis B spread by sexual contact, it spreads by
charge to fire one subcritical mass of Uranium into blood products (unclean needles or unscreened blood).
another. AIDS– It is a viral disease caused by HIV virus, full
On 9 Aug. 1945, the another Bomb 'Fat Boy' dropped form of AIDS is Acquired Immuno Deficiency Disease
on Nagasaki just after that Japan surrendered and (syndrome).
Second World War came into end. Syphilis– A bacterial infection usually spread by
55. Who among the following was not awarded sexual contact that starts as a painless sore.
'Bharat Ratna'? 59. The Chief Minister of Rajasthan is
(a) Govind Ballabh Pant (a) Ashok Gehlot (b) Sachin Pilot
(b) M. Visvesvaraya (c) Kamal Nath (d) Bhupesh Baghel
(c) Rajendra Prasad Ans. (a) : Ashok Gehlot is a Congress Politician,
(d) Ch. Charan Singh currently heading the Government of Rajasthan.
Ans. (a) : Chaudhari Charan Singh very famous for the Kamalnath is former Chief Minister of Madhya
welfare of Farmers on his birthday Every year on 23 Pradesh, currently Shiv Raj Singh government is
Dec. celebrated as 'Farmers Day'. He was India's 5th working there.
Prime Minister from 28 July 1979 to 14 January 1980. Bhupesh Baghel is Chhattisgarh Chief Minister and
M. Visvesvaraya’s birthday 15 Sep every year Sachin Pilot former Congress Deputy Chief Minister
celebrated as "Engineers day". of Rajasthan.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad India's first President remained in 60. The city and country not matched among the
office till 1962. following is
56. The disease 'bronchitis' is associated with (a) Florence–Italy
(a) heart (b) lungs (b) Nice–France
(c) kidney (d) throat (c) Frankfurt–Australia
Ans. (b) : The condition that falls in between the (d) Istanbul–Turkey
Common Cold and Pneumonia is severity is called Ans. (c) : Frankfort city is in the Western Germany
Bronchitis. that lies along the main river about 19 miles upstream
How it spreads– (1) by airborne respiratory droplets from its confluence with the Rhine River.
(cough or sneezes), (2) by Saliva (Kissing or shared Istanbul– Largest city of Turkey historically known as
drinks), (3) By touching a contaminated surface. Byzantium and Constantinople.
Skin to skin contact. Nice– It is the 5th largest city in France and the capital
of Alper Maritimes with a population of around
It affects our lungs.
460000.
Lungs– The lungs are the centre of the breathing
Florence– The city located about 145 miles (230 km)
system.
northwest of Rome is surrounded by gently rolling
57. The best source of protein among the following hills that are covered with villas and farms, Vineyards
is and Orchards.
(a) rice (b) wheat 61. The hardest substance among the following is
(c) soybean (d) corn (a) graphite (b) diamond
Ans. (c) : Soybeans are high in protein and a decent (c) platinum (d) iron
source of both Carbohydrates and Fat (lipids). They Ans. (b) : A German Mineralogist, Fredrich Mohs
are rich source of various vitamins and beneficial invented a scale of Relative mineral hardness that has
compounds. become known as the Mohs Scale.
Protein– Proteins make up the building blocks of The 10 point scale of mineral hardness – One of the
organs, Muscles, Skin and hormones. Your body needs Mohs scale of Relative hardness, a diamond is rated as
protein to maintain your physique. 10. This means it is the hardest mineral known to man.
BPSC AE (GS) March, 2019 106 YCT
 Graphite– is a naturally occurring form of Crystalline Ans. (c) : Impairing Nutrient absorption by damaging
Carbon. It is native element mineral found in the cells lining the stomach and intestine, disabling
metamorphic and Igneous Rock. transport of some nutrient into the blood.
Platinum–It is dense, malleable, Ductile, highly Preventing those nutrients that are absorbed from
unreactive, Precious metal. being fully utilized by altering their transport storage
62. One barrel of oil is approximately equal to and excretion. Alcohol also interferes with the body's
(a) 100 litres (b) 159 litres micro biome.
(c) 225 litres (d) 310 litres First alcohol acts acutely, as a magnesium diuretic,
Ans. (b) : A Petroleum barrel is exactly 42 US gallons causing a prompt, vigorous increase in the urinary
everywhere in the world. International crude oil trade excretion of this metal along with that of certain other
carried out based on barrels, Prices are quoted in Electrolytes. Second, with chronic intake of alcohol
Barrels and those Barrels are precisely 42 US gallons. and development of alcoholism, the body stores of Mg
One barrel is exactly 158.987294928 Liters. become depleted.
OPEC– Organization of the Petroleum Exporting 67. The Minister of Human Resource Development
Countries, founded on 14 Sep. 1960. in India is
Place – Baghdad. (a) Rajnath Singh
Total members – 13 (b) Prakash Javadekar
Headquarter– Vienna. (c) Nitin Jairam
(d) Suresh Prabhu
63. Which of the following universities is Alma
mater of seven American Presidents? Ans. (b) : In the given option, option (b) Prakash
(a) Harvard (b) Michigan Javedkar is correct, now in 2021 the Education
(c) Oklahoma (d) Yale Minister is Ramesh Pokhariyal 'Nishank'.
The Ministry of Education formerly known as Human
Ans. (b) : In every way that counts university of Resource Ministry since 1985 renamed in 2020.
Michigan is absolutely one of the most Prestigious and P.V. Narsimha Rao became the first HRD Minister in
exciting campus in the Country. It is consistently rated Rajiv Gandhi government in 1985.
among the top 10 business, computer science and
68. Central Electrochemical Research Institute is
liberal arts of schools in the nation. It has also
situated in
produced 7 USA President. Yale University, a Private
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
University in USA since 1701. Harvard University is
(c) Punjab (d) Tamil Nadu
in USA established in 1636. University of Cambridge
is in England. Ans. (d) : CECRI was Established in 1953. It is in
Tamilnadu at Karikudi. It is one of the largest
64. An IP address is having Electrochemical Laboratories in the world carrying out
(a) 8 bits (b) 16 bits Research and Development work in the area of
(c) 24 bits (d) 32 bits Electrochemical science and technology. Three
Ans. (d) : To your computer an IP address is a 32-bit extension centres of CECRI are functioning at
number subdivided into 4 bytes. Understanding binary Chennai, Mandapam and Tutikorin.
also provides you with some of the rules pertaining to IPs. 69. Diesel locomotives are manufactured at
IP address– IP addresses are made up of binary values (a) New Delhi (b) Kapurthala
and drive the routing of all data over the Internet. IPv4 (c) Varanasi (d) Chennai
addresses are 32 bits long.
Ans. (c) : The Banaras Locomotive Works (BLW)
65. An action by using mouse in a computer can be formerly Diesel Locomotive Works (DLW) is in
opened by Varanasi. It is a Production Unit of Indian Railways.
(a) clicking right button It was built in 2003.
(b) clicking left button Power – Alco 25IC 16 – Cylinder 3300 HP.
(c) double clicking right button 70. 'Rohtang Pass', a high mountain pass is
(d) double clicking left button situated in
Ans. (d) : A computer mouse is an input device that is (a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Punjab
used with a computer. Moving a mouse along a flat (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Arunachal Pradesh
surface can move the cursor to different items on the Ans. (c) : Rohtang Pass is a high mountain pass
screen. Pressing the mouse buttons (called clicking) [Elevation 3980 meter] on the eastern Pirpanjal Range
……. Today many computers mice use wireless of the Himalayas around 51 km from Manali. It
technology and have no wire. It is invented by Douglas connects the Kullu valley with the Lahaul and Spiti
Engel bast. Valleys of Himachal Pradesh, India. The pass lies on
Any action by using mouse can be opened by double the watershed between the Chenab and Baes basins.
clicking left button. On the southern side of this pass the Baes River
66. Excessive alcohol consumption depletes cellular emerges from underground and flows southward and
(a) sodium (b) potassium on its northern side, the Chandra River, a source
(c) magnesium (d) iron stream of the River Chenab flows westward.

BPSC AE (GS) March, 2019 107 YCT

71. The 'McMohan Line' is a border line between It is used in concrete and cement products, road base
(a) China and India etc. It is toxic air pollutant. They can trigger heart
(b) Pakistan and India diseases, cancer, respiratory diseases and stroke.
(c) China and Afghanistan 75. The ratio between mile and kilometer is
(d) Pakistan and Iran
(a) 1:1.1 (b) 1:1.2
Ans. (a) : McMohan line is the effective boundary
(c) 1:1.4 (d) 1:1.6
between China and India and the line is named after
Sir Henry Mc Mohan, Foreign Secretary of the British Ans. (d) : The distance in km is equal to the distance
Run government of India and the Chief negotiator of in miles multiplied by 1.609344. Since one mile is
the convention of Shimla. The boundary extends for equal to 1.609344 km.
890 km covering parts from Bhutan in the west to 260 So ratio = 1 : 1.6
km east. Miles and km are both units used to measure distance
India – Pakistan – Red Cliffe Line. or length.
Pakistan – Iran – A International Border. Mile– One mile is also equal to 5280 feet or 1760
China – Afghanistan – Wakhjir Pass. yards.
72. To save electricity LEDs are preferred over Kilometer– One kilometer is equal to 1000 meters.
conventional bulbs. The full form of LED is
76. The blood pressure of a normal person should
(a) Light Energy Device
be
(b) Light Emitting Diode
(c) Light Emitting Device (a) 140/90 mm (b) 130/80 mm
(d) Light Energy Diode (c) 120/80 mm (d) 100/60 mm
Ans. (b) : Option (b) LED is known as "Light Ans. (c) : Blood Pressure–Blood pressure is the force
Emitting Diode". In devices, it is biggest invention so of your blood against the walls of your arteries. Each
far, which gives the highest energy and light. These time your heart beats, it pumps blood into the arteries.
energy devices are becoming very popular in different Your blood pressure is highest when your heart beats
areas, such as traffic signals, mining industries, pumping the blood. This is called systolic pressure
elevators etc. It does not have mercury like CFL bulbs, when your heart is at rest, between beats, your blood
but it contains other harmful components such as lead pressure falls. This is called diastolic pressure.
and nickel. Your blood pressure reading uses there two numbers
73. DNA fingerprinting is based on usually the systolic number comes before or above the
(a) DNA replication diastolic number. For example 120/80 means systolic
(b) DNA polymorphism of 120 and a diastolic of 80.
(c) DNA base seqence A normal person blood pressure is 120/80 mm.
(d) Hydrogen bonding
77. The deficiency of which vitamin causes night
Ans. (b) : Option (b) Polymorphism are the variation
blindness?
at genetic level which arise due to mutations,
depending on base composition length of segment and (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B1
number of Repetitive Units. The satellite DNA is (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin E
classified into many categories, such as microsatellites, Ans. (a) : Deficiency diseases are diseases that are
minisatellites etc. These sequences show high degree caused by the lack of certain essential nutrients,
of polymorphism and form the basis of DNA from especially vitamins and minerals, in one's diet over a
every tissue from an individual show the same degree prolonged period of time.
of polymorphism they become very useful Types of Vitamins Deficiency Diseases
identification tool in forensic application. Vitamin A (Retinol) Night Blindness
74. 'Fly-ash'. a well-known pollutant is produced B1 (Thiamine) Beri-Beri
by
B2 (Riboflavin) Retarded growth
(a) oil refinery
(b) fertilizer plant B12 (Cyno Cobalmin) Anemia
(c) cement plant C (Ascorbic Acid) Scurvy
(d) thermal power plant D (Calciferol) Rickets
Ans. (d) : Fly-ash–It is a byproduct from burning of K (Phylloquinone) Excessive bleeding
coal in electric power generating plants. It is called fly due to Injury
ash because it is transported from the combustion 78. The Silicon valley of India is a nick name of
chamber by exhaust gases. which city?
It is collected from the exhaust gases by electrostatic (a) Gurugram (b) Hyderabad
precipitators or bag filters. (c) Bengaluru (d) Pune

BPSC AE (GS) March, 2019 108 YCT

 Ans. (c) : As original 'Silicon Valley' is a hub for India has inked Rs. 59000 Crore deal in 2016 to
major IT companies in USA similarly Bangluru is also procure 36 Rafale Jets from French Aerospace major
home to headquarters of Infotech Companies i.e. Dassault Aviation.
Infosys, Wipro etc. Bangluru is the capital of 82. A substance absorbs moisture on exposure to
Karnataka. Karnataka is favourite destination of IT Job air. This property is called as
seekers. (a) desiccation (b) osmosis
Pune– Oxford of the East, Queen of the Deccan. (c) effloresence (d) deliquescence
Cultural and Historical capital of Maharashtra. Ans. (d) : Deliquescence – refers to the property of a
Hyderabad– City of Pearls. substance to absorb from the air to dissolve itself and
Gurugram– Millennium city of India. form a aqueous solution. Materials with this property
79. Out of the five rings symbol of Olympic games, are termed deliquescent.
which of the following colours is not present? Efflorescence– is a crystalline or powdery deposit of
(a) Pink (b) Yellow salts often visible on the surface of concrete, brick,
(c) Green (d) Blue stucco or natural stone surfaces.
Ans. (a) : Olympic games–Olympics games were Osmosis–is the transfer of solvent from a region of lower
started in 776 BC on Mount Olympic in the honour of concentration to a region of higher concentration.
Greek God 'Zeus'. 83. Which of the following countries is not a
The modern games were started in Athens, the capital member of SAARC countries?
of Greece on 6 April 1896, with great efforts made by (a) Nepal (b) Pakistan
French Nobleman Baron Pierre de Coubertin. (c) Iran (d) Sri Lanka
The Olympic flag is made up of white silk and Ans. (c) : South Asian Association for Regional
contains 5 interviewed signs as the Olympic Emblem. Cooperation (SAARC) was established with the
• International Olympic Committee – 23 June 1894. signing of the SAARC charter in Dhaka on 8 Dec.
1985. The idea of regional cooperation in South Asia
• The Olympic have been held every 4 years.
was first rayed in November 1980. After consultations,
Since 1900 edition, India has won 28 medals so for in
the foreign secretaries of the 7 founding countries –
Olympics. The rings are five interlocking rings
Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Pakistan, Nepal, Maldives
coloured Blue, Yellow, Black, Green and Red on the
and Srilanka met the first time in Colombo in April 1980.
whole field, initially symbol created in 1913 by
Afghanistan became the newest member of SAARC at
Coubertin. the 13th annual summit in 2005.
80. Which of the following countries will organize The headquarters and secretariat of SAARC are in
next Summer Olympic Games in the year Kathmandu, Nepal.
2020? 84. The maximum strength of members of the Lok
(a) USA (b) Japan Sabha is
(c) Germany (d) Canada (a) 512 (b) 530
Ans. (b) : Japan was about to host 2020 Summer (c) 542 (d) 552
Olympic Games in Tokyo but postponed due to Covid- Ans. (d) : The maximum strength of the house envisaged
19 situations and lockdowns. by the constitution is 552 which is made up by election up
However the Olympic games will keep the name to 530 members to represent the states, up to 20 members
Olympic and Paralympics Games Tokyo 2020. to represent the union territories and not more than 2
The organizers have postponed the event for the first members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be
time in its 124 year modern history since 1896 at nominated by Honorable President of India.
Athens. Article 81–talks about house of the people or
2016 – Rio-de-Generio (Brazil) lokshabha.
2012 – London (Britain) 85. Brass gets tarnished in air due to the presence
2008 – Beijing (China) of which of the following gases in air?
81. India is purchasing Refale Fighter Jet from (a) Nitrogen (b) Carbon dioxide
(a) Italy (b) France (c) Hydrogen sulphide (d) Carbon monoxide
(c) England (d) Russia Ans. (c) : Hydrogen Sulphide can corrode metals such
Ans. (b) : The Rafales are India's first major as Iron, Steel, Copper and Brass, tarnish silverware.
acquisition of fighter planes in 23 years after the Discolour Copper and Brass Utensils, Cause Yellow or
Sukhoi Jets were imported from Russia. black stains on fixtures, discolour beverages made with
Rafales introduced in 2001. The Rafale is a French water containing it, and alter the appearance and taste
twin-engine and multirole fighter aircraft designed and of cooked foods.
built by 'Dassault Aviation' being produced for both 86. The gases used in welding are
the French Airforce and for carrier based operations in (a) oxygen and acetylene
the French Navy. (b) oxygen and hydrogen

BPSC AE (GS) March, 2019 109 YCT

 (c) oxygen and nitrogen 90. 90% cases of 'goitre' are caused for the
(d) oxygen and methane deficiency of
Ans. (a) : Gases used in welding and cutting process (a) iodine
include- (b) vitamin A
(1) Shielding gases such as carbon-dioxide, organ, (c) vitamin C
helium etc. (d) protein
(2) Fuel gases such as Acetylene, propane, butane, etc. Ans. (a) : The most common cause of Goiters
(3) Oxygen used with fuel gases and also in small worldwide is a lack of iodine in the diet.
amounts in some shielding gas mixtures. Simple goiters develop when the thyroid gland does not
87. Nobel Peace Prize in 2018 was awarded to make enough hormones to meet the body's needs. The
(a) Malala Yousafzai Thyroid gland stries to make up for this storage by
(b) Denis Mukwege Mukengere and Nadia Murad growing larger.
(c) Juan M. Santos Vitamin A - Night blindness
(d) K. Satyarthi Vitamin C - Scurvy
Ans. (b) : The prestigious Noble Prize winners of year Protein - Kwashiorkar (A form of malnutrition).
2018 of peace given to Dr. Danis Mukwege (63), 91. The height of the 'Statue of Unity' is
Nadia Murad (25) to Jointly award 2018. They were (a) 38 meters
given Award for their efforts to end use of sexual (b) 93 meters
violence as a weapon of war and armed conflect. (c) 182 meters
'Dr. Mukwege', a conglose gyncological Surgeon and (d) 210 meters
'Nadia Murad' was one of the thousand Yazidi woman Ans. (c) : The statue of unity which is built in honour of
who were Abducted abused and raped by Islamic state Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel inaugurated by Prime Minister
and kept in capitivity. Narendra Modi at Kevadia in Narmada district of
Noble Prizes–The will of the swidish scientist Alfred Gujarat. The statue of unity is the tallest statue in the
Noble established in prizes in 1895. world. At 182 meters, it is 23 meters taller than China's
The Prize is not awarded posthumously. spring temple Buddha statue and almost double the
Kailash satyarthi – 2014 – Peace height of statue of liberty (93 meters). It was built in
Malala Yusufzai – 2014 – Peace three and half year and by more than 3000 workers
Juan M. Santos – 2016 – Noble peace prize including 300 engineers from L and T company.
World Food Programme 2020 –Noble Peace Prize 92. P. V. Sindhu, winner of BWF world tour finals
88. The Headquarter of WHO is located in 2018 is associated with
(a) Washington, USA (b) Tokyo, Japan (a) tennis (b) gymnastics
(c) Geneva, Switzerland (d) London, UK (c) weight lifting (d) badminton
Ans. (c) : The world Health organization is specialized Ans. (d) : P.V. Sindhu is an Indian Badminton player.
agency of the united nations that looks into matters of She became the first Indian to win badminton world
public health. Established in 7 April 1948 its championship (gold) by beating Nazomi Okuhara (of
headquarter is in Geneva (Switzerland) Japan) in Final.
Objective–The W.H.O's constitution states that its Sindhu has also won an olympic silver in 2016 Rio
objective is the attainment by all people of the highest Games, a silver at Gold Coast Commonwealth Games,
possible level of health. an Asian Games silver at Jakarta and BWF World Tour
In 2019-20, Novel corona virus was named "Covid-19" finals in 2018.
by W.H.O. several westerns countries especially 93. A vegetable which is also known as flower is
Donald trump, President of the USA criticized it for (a) pea (b) broccoli
not done enough to create awareness, not reigned on (c) celery (d) lettuce
China for spreading, leying etc. Ans. (b) : Broccoli is a kind of Mini Cabbage Grown
89. Sodium metal, being highly reactive is kept for its florests (Flower beed). Broccoli is an Edible
under green plant in the cabbage family whose large almost
(a) alcohol (b) kerosene flowering head is eaten as a vegetable.
(c) water (d) petrol The word broccoli means "The flowering crest of a
Ans. (b) : Sodium is highly reactive metal and reacts cabbage". The Broccoli can be boiled, baked or steamed
vigorously with the oxygen, carbon dioxide and and can also be eaten raw.
moisture present in the air such that it may even cause, a 94. The temperature at which Celsius and
fire to prevent this explosive reaction sodium is kept Fahrenheit temperatures show the same value
immersed in kerosene because sodium does not react is
with kerosene. (a) 00 (b) –250
0
(c) –37 (d) –400
BPSC AE (GS) March, 2019 110 YCT
Ans. (d) : The relation between celsius and fahrenheit Ans. (a) : The Employees' Provident Fund organisation
are directly proportional to each other. To be specific, it won the national award on e-governance 2015-16 for
implies that as the temperature, in the celsius scale launching the universal account number (UAN). The
increases, the temperature in the Fahrenheit scale also Union Ministry of Personnel, Public grivances and
increases. persons will present the award in the 19th national
On the Fahrenheit scale– conference on e-governance, to be held in Nagpur on
32ºF = the freezing point of water 22th January 2016.
212ºF = the boiling point of water Employees provident fund - a scheme test helps people
On the Celsius save a sufficient corpus for retirement.
0º = freezing 98. The full form of UPS in computer is
100ºC = boiling
(a) Uniform Power Supply
1 degree Fahrenheit is equal to = –17.2ºC
(b) Uninterruptable power Supply
1 degree Celsius = 33.8ºF
(c) Uninterrupted Power Supply
Absolute zero in defined as = –459.67ºF
(d) Uninterrupted Power Source
95. 'Laughing gas' is chemically
Ans. (b) : An uninterruptable power supply also known
(a) carbon dioxide
as a battery backup (UPS), provides backup power
(b) nitrous oxide
when your regular power source fails or voltage drops
(c) nitric oxide
to an unacceptable level. A UPS allows for the safe
(d) sulphur dioxide
orderly shut down of a computer and connected
Ans. (b) : Nitrous oxide (N2O) more commonly equipment.
referred to as laughing gas, is a mild sedative agent that
safely and effectively manages pain and anxiety during 99. A hydrogen bomb creates devastating
dental treatment. explosion because of
Nitric oxide (NO) is a colourless gas this also present in (a) nuclear fission and nuclear fusion
our body does several works. (b) nuclear fission
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) an organic compound, a heavy, (c) the use of cryogenic hydrogen
colourless, poisonous gas. (d) the use of ultrapressed hydrogen
Carbon dioxide (CO2) harmful gas cause green house Ans. (a) : Generally explosive are based on fusion as
effect. well as fission. Fission helps as the primary ignition of
96. The correct statement(s) about Zika virus the explosive, however, hydrogen bombs are based on
epidemic is/are the principle known as thermonuclear reaction.
1. It was originated from forest of Brazil. Hydrogen Bomb's greater sophistication affords it vastly
2. Vaccination is the only method for protection. greater destructive power than first generation atomic
3. It is associated with neurological birth defects bombs, a more compact size, a lower mass or a
in children. combination of these benefits need uranium or platonium
4. It spreads from infected chicken. and hydrogen's isotopes to make hydrogen bomb.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 100. The Director of ISRO Satellite Centre,
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 4 Bengaluru appointed on April 01, 2015 is
Ans. (c) : Zika virus–A disease caused by Zika virus (a) U. Ramchandra Rao
that is speed through mosquito bites.
(b) P. S. Goel
It spread through animal or insect bites by having
(c) M. Y. S. Prasad
unprotected vaginal, anal or oral sex.
(d) Mayilsamy Annadurai
In most cases there are no symptoms. In a few cases
Zika can trigger paralysis. In pregnant women, it may Ans. (d) : 'Mylswamy' Annadurai by name 'Moon man'
cause subsequent birth defects. is an Indian aerospace Engineer who held a number of
Zika virus is mosquito flavoured that was first identified posts with the ISRO including the director of the 'UR
in Uganda in 1947. Rao' satellite center (formerly the ISRO satellite center).
97. Which of the following schemes won National U. Ramchandra Rao former Chairman of the Indian
Award on e-governance in 2015-16? Space Research Organization.
(a) Employees' Provident Fund Organization P.S. Goel –Former Secretary at the department of
(b) National Information Centre Ocean development, Ministry of Earth sciences.
(c) Aadhaar Scheme M.Y.S. Prasad –former director of Satish Dhavan
(d) Pahal Scheme for LPG subsidy transfer space center Sriharikota Range in Andhra Pradesh.
BPSC AE (GS) March, 2019 111 YCT
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2017
Assistant Engineer (Civil) Mains
GENERAL ENGINEERING SCIENCE (PAPER-IV)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 1 Hour ] [ Exam Date : 29 March, 2019

1. Coefficient of discharge is equal to Ans. (a) Given,

(a) Cc × Cv (b) Cc × Cr Dynamic viscosity (µ) = 0.011 poise
(c) Cv × Cr (d) Cc / Cr Specific gravity (SG) = 0.95
Ans. (a) : Hydraulic Coefficients ∴ ρf = 0.95 × 1000 = 950 kg/m3 = 0.95 gm/cm3
(a) Coefficient of Contraction (Cc) Dynamic viscosity(µ)
∴ Kinematic viscosity (v) =
area of Jet at vena contracta a Density(ρ)
Cc = = c
area of orfice a 0.011
= = 0.011578
(b) Coefficient of velocity (Cv) 0.95
actual velocity of Jet at venacontracta ≈ 0.116stokes
Cv =
Theoritical velocity
1stokes = 1cm 2 / sec
V V
= act = 4. Whenever a plate is held immersed at some
Vth 2gh
angle with the direction of flow of the liquid, it
(c) Coefficient of discharge (Cd) is subjected to some pressure. The component
actual discharge Q V ×a of this pressure, at right angles to the direction
Cd = = act = act
Theoritical discharge Q th Vth × a of flow of the liquid is known as
(d) Coefficient of Resistance (Cr) (a) lift
(b) drag
 1 
Cr =  − 1 (c) stagnation pressure
 (C ) 2
 (d) bulk modulus
 v 
Ans. (a) : When the plate is held at some angle, it is
2. The loss of head at entrance in a pipe is
subjected to some pressure. As this pressure is acting
(a) v2 / 2g (b) 0.5v2 / 2g
2 at right angle to the plate. So it will have two
(c) 0.375v /2g (d) 0.75v2/2g components–
Ans. (b) (a) In the direction of the flow of the liquid which is
Energy Head losses in pipes called drag.
(a) due to sudden expansion (v1–v2)2/2g (b) At right angle to the flow of liquid which is called
(b) due to sudden contraction lift.
0.5v 2
2g 5. The loss of head due to friction in a pipe of
uniform diameter in which a viscous flow is
(c) at the entrance to a pipe 0.5v2/2g
taking place is
(d) at the exit from a pipe v2/2g (a) 1 / RN
(e) in bends & various pipe kv 2 (b) 4 / RN
fittings 2g (c) 16 / RN
3. The kinematic viscosity of an oil (in stokes) (d) 64 / RN
whose specific gravity is 0.95 and viscosity Ans. (c) : Head loss due to friction
0.011 poise is 16
Coefficient of friction f ' = R N → Reynold's no.
(a) 0.0116 RN
(b) 0.116
16
(c) 0.0611 Friction factor F = 4f ' = 4 × = 64 / R N
RN
(d) 0.611
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) March, 2019 112 YCT
6. The processes occurring in open system which (b) Diesel cycle 1 – isobaric
permit the transfer of mass to and from the 1 – isochoric
system are known as 2 – isentropic
(a) flow processes
(c) Otto cycle 2 – isochoric
(b) non-flow processes
2 – isentropic
(c) adiabatic processes
(d) Rankine cycle 2 – isentropic
(d) None of the above
2 – reversible isobaric
Ans. (a) The processes occurring in open system
which permit the transfer of mass to and from the 10. Otto cycle is also known as
system are known as flow processes. (a) constant pressure cycle
(b) constant volume cycle
7. The gas constant (R) is equal to the ............. of
(c) constant temperature cycle
two specific heats.
(d) constant temperature cycle and pressure cycle
(a) sum (b) difference
(c) product (d) ratio Ans. (b) In Otto cycle heat addition and rejection
takes place at constant volume so it is a constant
Ans. (b) According to Mayer's formula,
volume cycle.
R = CP – CV
Cycle Constant
Where R = Gas Constant
Cp = specific heat at constant pressure (a) Rankine cycle Const. pressure
Cv = specific heat at constant volume (b) Carnot cycle Const. Temperature
R = 8.314 JK–1 mole–1 (c) Otto cycle Const. volume
8. The area under the temperature entropy curve (d) Diesel cycle Const. pressure &
(T-S curve) of any thermodynamic process Const. volume
represents
(a) heat absorbed
(b) Heat rejected
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c) The area under the temperature entropy curve
(T-S curve) of any thermodynamic process represents
heat absorbed or heat rejected.
1–2 Isentropic compression
2–3 Constant volume heat addition
3–4 Isentropic expansion
4–1 Constant volume heat rejection.
11. The efficiency of diesel cycle approaches to
Otto cycle efficiency when
(a) cutoff is increased
(b) cutoff is decreased
(c) cutoff is zero
9. Carnot cycle consists of (d) None of the above
(a) two constant volumes and two isentropic
Ans. (c) :
processes
(b) two isothermal and two isentropic processes Efficiency of diesel engine
1  rc – 1 
γ
(c) two constant pressures and two isentropic
η =1–  
processes r γ –1  k(rc − 1) 
(d) one constant volume, one constant pressure
and two isentropic processes where r = compression ratio
rc = cut-off ratio
Ans. (b)
cp
Cycle Process γ = ratio of specific heats =
(a) Carnot cycle 2 – isothermal cv
2 – isentropic when cutoff ratio (rc) → 0

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) March, 2019 113 YCT

 then (c) between any two open terminals
γ−1 (d) between same open terminals as for Eth
η = 1 –  
1
Ans. (d) : Thevenin resistance Rth is equivalent
r resistance seen by load terminal when–
Efficiency become equal to Otto cycle. • Load terminal gets open
12. The coefficient of coupling between two coils is • All voltage source replace with their internal
0.45. The first coil has an inductance of 75 mH resistance
and the second coil has an inductance of 105 • All current source open circuit
mH. What is the mutual inductance between 16. What happens to the MMF when the magnetic
the coils? flux decreases?
(a) 3.54 mH (b) 39.9 mH (a) Increases
(c) 7.88 mH (d) 189.3 mH (b) Decreases
Ans. (b) : Mutual Inductance (c) Remains constant
M = K L1 L 2 (d) Becomes zero
Ans. (b) : MMF → Magneto motive force
L1 = 75 mH
⇒ Ohm's law for the magnetic circuit's states that the
L2 = 105 mH
MMF is directly proportional to the magnetic flux.
K = 0.45
Q MMF = φs
M = 0.45 75 ×105
MMF ↓∝ φ ↓
∴ M = 39.93 mH
13. What would happen if a power transformer When φ decreases then MMF also decreases.
designed for operation on 50 Hz (frequency) 17. The compressive strength of a good Portland
were connected to a 5 Hz (frequency) source of cement and standard sand mortar after 3 days
the same voltage? of curing should not be less than
(a) No effect (a) 7 MN/m2 (b) 11.5 MN/m2
2
(b) Eddy current and hysteresis loss will be (c) 17.5 MN/m (d) 21 MN/m2
excessive Ans. (*)
(c) Transformer may start to smoke Compressive strength 11.5 N/mm2 → 3 days
(d) Current will be too much low 17.5 N/mm2 → 7 days
Ans. (c) : If the frequency is too low, primary will Tensile strength 2 N/mm2 → 3 days
have insufficient reactance and to much primary 2.5 N/mm2 → 7 days
current will flow, producing considerable copper loss 18. Eminently hydraulic lime is one in which the
(P = I2R). The transformer may start to smoke and percentage of silica, alumina and iron oxide is
burn with blast leading to dangerous fire. (a) 5% – 10% (b) 10% – 25%
14. In three-phase transformer, the load current is (c) 25% – 30% (d) 30% – 40%
139.1A, and secondary voltage is 415V. The Ans. (c)
rating of the transformer would be Classification of hydraulic lime → according to the
(a) 50 kVA (b) 57.72 kVA % of clay impurities
(c) 100 kVA (d) 173 kVA (a) Feebly hydraulic lime → 5–10% of clay impurities
Ans. (c) : Rating of three Phase Transformer (b) Moderately hydraulic lime → 10–20%
P= 3 V×I (c) Eminently hydraulic lime → 20–30%
Rating of a three phase transformer in kVA (d) Poor or lean lime → >30%

3 V × I 1.732 × 415 ×139.1 19. With increase in moisture content, bulking of

kVA = = = 99.98kVA sand
1000 1000
(a) increases
P ≈ 100kVA (b) decreases
15. Thevenin resistance RTh is found (c) first increases to a certain maximum value
(a) by removing voltage sources along with their and then decreases
internal resistances (d) first decreases to a certain minimum value
(b) by short ciruiting the given two terminals and then increases

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) March, 2019 114 YCT

 Ans. (c) : Bulking of sand– The increase in volume of x
If x times in Header Bond then times
sand due to the presence of moisture upto certain 2
extract is called bulking of sand. in stretcher Bond
22. The maximum total settlement for isolated
foundations on clayey soils should be limited to
(a) 25 mm (b) 40 mm
(c) 65 mm (d) 100 mm
Ans. (c)
Types of Foundation Total Settlement
(a) Isolated Foundation on clay 65 mm
(b) Isolated Foundation on sand 40 mm
(c) Raft Foundation on clay 65 – 100 mm
↑ in moisture context– Bulking of sand first↑ to a
(d) Raft Foundation on sand 40 – 65 mm
certain max value & then decrease.
23. 'Killed steels' are those steels
20. The vehicle used in bronze paints is usually
(a) which are destroyed by burning
(a) linseed oil
(b) which after their destruction are recycled to
(b) naphtha
produce fresh steel
(c) water
(c) which are deoxidized in the ladle with silicon
(d) nitrocellulose lacquer
and aluminium
Ans. (d) (d) which have poor properties due to improper
Type of Paint Application manufacturing
Enamel Paint – Wood works Ans. (c) : Killed Steels– Killed steel is steel that has
Aluminium Paint – Visible in darkness been completely deoxidized by the addition of an agent
Asbestos Paint – Damp proof before casting such that there is practically no
Bronze Paint – Radiators evolution of gas during solidification.
⇒ General vehicle used in Bronze paints is nitro- Reliability high degree of uniformity in composition
cellulose, lacque. and properties.
Pigments used are aluminum bronze or copper bronze. Suitable for application invading → Forging
Linseed oil → used as vehicle or carrier. → Heat treatment
Turbine oil, naptha → used as solvent or thinner → Piercing
Zinc lead, iron oxide → used as base 24. Eutectoid steel contains which of the following
Litharge, Cobalt & red lead → used as dries percentage of carbon?
21. The number of vertical joints in a stretcher (a) 0.02% (b) 0.3%
course is x times the number of joints in the (c) 0.63% (d) 0.8%
header course, where x is equal to Ans. (d)
1
(a) Carbon % Steel (0 to 1.7%)
2
0 to 0.83% C hypo eutectoid steel
(b) 1
(c) 2 0.83% C eutectoid steel
1 0.83 to 1.7% C hypereutectoid steel
(d)
4 > 1.8% C cast iron
Ans. (a) 25. The amount of water used for 1 kg of
Stretcher Bond → used only when wall thickned = distemper is
Half Brick (a) 0.2 liter (b) 0.4 liter
Header Bond → used only when wall thickened = (c) 0.6 liter (d) 0.8 liter
One Brick Ans. (c) : Distemper– mixture of white chalk (Base)
1 & water (solvent)
Stretcher Bond = × Header Bond
2 In 1 kg distemper = 0.6 litre of water.

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) March, 2019 115 YCT

26. What is used to make paints odourless to some (a) 0.68 m (b) 0.88 m
extent? (c) 1.36 m (d) 1.76 m
(a) Flat latex Ans. (c)
(b) Celluloid sheets Take = 1.62 m/sec
(c) Acrylic compound given B = 2D
(d) Plioway resins Q=A×V
Ans. (d) : These eliminate the odour present in alkyd, A=B.D
stain blocking primers. It also aims to reduce VOC A = 2D2
content (Volatile Organic Compound) which is So Q = A × V and Q = 1.5 m/sec
harmful.
1.5 = 2D2 × 1.62
Reductions of VOC in the paints are needed to be done
1.5
to make it odourless. D2 =
2 × 1.62
27. Which of the following units is not used to D = 0.68m
measure turbidity of water?
B = 2D = 2×0.68 = 1.36 m.
(a) NTU (b) ATU
Note- This question is deleted by BPSC.
(c) JTU (d) FTU
31. The dimension of a rectangular settling tank is–
Ans. (b) : Turbidity is usually measured in
length 24 m, width 6 m and depth 3 m. If 2-hour
nephelometric turbidity units (NTU) or Jackson
detention period for tank is recommended, the
Turbidity Units (JTU).
rate of flow of sewage per hour, is
NTU & FTU same in turbiding measured. NTU =
(a) 204 cu m (b) 208 cu m
1FTU
(c) 212 cu m (d) 216 cu m
28. A sewer pipe contains 1 mm sand particles of
Ans. (d) : Given,
specific gravity 2.65 and 5 mm organic
particles of specific gravity 1.2, the minimum l = 24m
velocity required for removing the sewerage, is B = 6m
(a) 0.30 m/s (b) 0.35 m/s D = 3m
(c) 0.40 m/s (d) 0.45 m/s td = 2 hour
Ans. (d)
size of inorganic particle × Sp. gravityorganic 24 × 6 × 3
velocity = = = 216m3 / hr
size of organic particle × Sp. gravityorganic 2
1× 2.65 32. A circular solid disc of uniform thickness 20
=
5 × 1.2 mm, radius 200 mm and mass 20 kg, is used as
= 0.441 m/sec. a flywheel. If it rotates at 600 r.p.m., the kinetic
energy of the flywheel, in joules is
29. If 2% solution of a sewage sample is incubated
for 5 days at 200C and depletion of oxygen was (a) 395 (b) 790
found to be 5 ppm, BOD of the sewage is (c) 1580 (d) 3160
(a) 200 ppm Ans. (b) : Given that
(b) 225 ppm m = 20 kg
(c) 250 ppm N = 600 r.p.m
(d) None of the above r = 200 mm = 0.2m
Ans. (c) t = 20mm
volume of diluted sample 2πN 2 × 3.14 × 600
dilution factor = ω= = = 62.83 rad/sec.
volume of undiluted sample 60 60
Moment of inertia for solid circular disc
BOD= ( oxygen )consumed × dilution factor
1
I = mr 2
100 2
= 5× = 250 ppm
20 × ( 0.2 )
2
2
= = 0.4kgm 2
30. The width of a rectangular sewer is twice its 2
depth while discharging 1.5 m/sce. The width Kinetic energy for fly wheel
of the sewer is
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) March, 2019 116 YCT
 1 2 1 1
K.E = Iω ∴I= m (2R)2– mR2
2 2 2
1 3
= × 0.4 × (62.83)2 I= mR 2
2 2
K.E = 790 Joules 1 2
(K.E) rotation = Iω
2
33. A steel wheel of 600 mm Dia on a horizontal 1 3
steel rail carries a load of 500 N. The coefficient = × mR 2 × ω2
2 2
of rolling resistance is 0.3. The force in Newton, 2
∴ v = rω 
× mR 2 × 
3 v 
necessary to roll the wheel along the rail is =   
(a) 0.5 (b) 5
4  2R   r = 2R 
(c) 1.5 (d) 150 3 v2
= m R2 ×
Ans. (a) 4 4 R2
µr 3
Frictional force Fr = W × (K.E)rotation = mv 2
R 16
load on wheel (W) = 500N 1
(K.E)Translation = mv 2
coefficient of rolling resistance (µr) = 0.3 2
(K.E)T = (K.E)R + (K.E)T
600
radius of wheel (R) = = 300mm 3 1
2 = mv 2 + mv 2
16 2
0.3
Fr = 500 × = 0.5
11 2
300 ( K.E )T = 16 mv
34. During inelastic collision of two particles,
which one of the following is conserved? 36. A circular object of radius r rolls without
(a) Total linear momentum only slipping on a horizontal level floor with the
(b) Total kinetic energy only point of contact between the object and the
(c) Both (a) and (b) floor is
(a) zero
(d) None of the above
(b) V in the direction of motion
Ans. (a) : According to law of conservation of (c) V opposite to the direction of motion
momentum, total linear momentum of the system is (d) V vertically upward from the floor
always conserved irrespective of elastic or inelastic
Ans. (a) : Velocity at point of contract
collision.
Vp = V– rω
⇒ Total kinetic energy of a system is conserved just
before and after the collision only in case of = rω – rω
perfectly elastic collision. Vp = 0
35. An annular disc has a mass m, inner radius R
and outer radius 2R. The disc rolls on a flat
surface without slipping. If the velocity of the
centre of mass is v, the kinetic energy of the
disc is
(a) 9/16mv2
(b) 11/16 mv2
(c) 13/16 mv2
(d) 15/16 mv2
Ans. (b)
37. If the Young's modulus and Poisson's ratio of
the container material are 100 GPa and 0.3,
respectively, the axial strain in the cylinder
wall at mid-depth is
(a) 2 × 10–5 (b) 6 × 10–5
(c) 7 × 10 –5
(d) 1.2 × 10–5
Ans. (a) :

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) March, 2019 117 YCT

38. Two bars of different materials and same size Modulus of Resilience– maximum energy that can be
are subjected to the same tensile force. If the absorbed per unit volume without creating a permanent
bars have unit elongation in the ratio of 2 : 5, distortion (within elastic line)
then the ratio of modulus of elasticity of the Proof resilience
two materials will be Modulus of Resilience =
volume of material
(a) 2 : 5 (b) 5 : 2 41. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of
(c) 4 : 3 (d) 4 : 4 length l and carrying a uniformly distributed
Ans. (b) : Give load of w per unit length is .............. at the fixed
∆1 2 elongation PL end.
= =
∆2 5 ( ∆ ) AE (a) wl/4
PL (b) wl/2
E1 = (1st material) (c) wl
A∆1
(d) wl2/2
PL
E2 = (2nd material) Ans. (d)
A∆ 2
Now, Type of loading on Maxm B.M
Cantilever
( PL ) 1
E1 A∆1 ∆ 1
= = 2 = = 2 = 5: 2
E 2  PL  ∆1 ( ∆1 / ∆ 2 ) 5
 A∆ 
 2 

39. The ratio of bulk modulus to Young's modulus

for a Poisson's ratio of 0.25 will be
1 2
(a) (b)
3 3
3
(c) 1 (d)
2
Ans. (b) : Given,
Poisson's ratio (µ) = 0.25
K Type of loading on simply supported beam
find =?
E

Relation b/w E & K E = 3K (1 – 2µ ) K → Bulk

modulus
K 1 1
= =
E 3 (1 – 2µ ) 3 (1 – 2 × 0.25)
1 1
= =
3 (1 – 0.5 ) 3 × 0.5 42. A line joining the apex of a triangle to some
fixed point on the opposite side is called a
2
= (a) check line
3
(b) tie line
40. The total strain energy stored in a body is (c) base line
termed as (d) None of the above
(a) resilience
Ans. (a)
(b) proof resilience
Check line– Line joining apex of triangle to opposite
(c) impact energy side line.
(d) modulus of resilience → used to check the accuracy of survey.
Ans. (a) Tie line – Joining Fixed stations on the main survey
Resilience– The strain energy stored in a body due to lines
external loading within the elastic limit. → mainly to locate the interior details
Proof Resilience– Maximum amount of strain energy Base line– The longest chain line used for making
stored in a material upto elastic limit. survey.

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) March, 2019 118 YCT

 43. The angle of intersection of the horizon glass Ans. (a) : Collimation method is the HI (height of
and index glass in an optical square is instrument method.)
(a) 30 0
Collimation method is used in → Profile levelling.
(b) 450 Rise & Fall method → Check levelling & differential
(c) 600 levelling.
0
(d) 75 47. A bar chart is drawn for
Ans. (b) : Optical square– most accurate to make (a) time versus activity
perpendicular offsets (b) activity versus resources
(c) resources versus progress
→ which works on the principle of reflection
(d) progress versus time
→ Angle b/w mirror surfaces = 450
Ans. (a) : Bar chart → activity vs time, resource reg.
or angle b/w horizontal
0
can be seen mile stone – higher authority can affect,
glass & index glass = 45 monitoring & control.
44. An imaginary line tangential to the Linked bar chart– activity linked with arrow & lines.
longitudinal curve of the level at the center of 48. CPM is
the tube is called (a) activity oriented (b) event oriented
(a) horizontal axis (c) time oriented (d) resource oriented
(b) vertical axis
Ans. (a) : CPM – critical path method.
(c) axis of the level tube (a) activity oriented
(d) line of collimation (b) deterministic approach
Ans. (c) : Horizontal axis→ It is the axis of rotation (c) only single time estimate for each activity
of the telescope in the vertical plane. (d) suited to repetitive type of work
Vertical axis→ It is the axis of rotation of the (e) normal distribution approach
telescope in the horizontal plane (f) cost main concern.
Axis of level tube or Babble line→ It is an imaginary 49. PERT requires
line tangential to the longitudinal curve of the level (a) single time estimate
tube at the centre of the tube.
(b) double time estimate
It is horizontal when the bubble is in the centre.
(c) triple time estimate
Line of collimation→ It is an imagining line passing (d) None of the above
through the intersection of the cross hairs at the
Ans. (c) : PERT – Programme evaluation review
diaphragm and the optical centre of the object glass &
technique.
its continuation.
(a) 3 time estimates (t0, tm, tp)
45. In order to measure a horizontal angle more (b) probabilistic approach
accurately than a Vernier, a method of (c) time main concern
(a) repetition is used (d) useful for new type of project
(b) reiteration is used
(e) each activity follow β-distribution
(c) deflection angles
(f) event oriented
(d) double observation is used
50. In CPM the cost slope is determined by
Ans. (a) : Repetition method→ this method is used for
Crash cost
very accurate work (a)
Normal cost
In this method, the same angle is added several times
Crash cost - Normal cost
mechanically and the correct value of the angle is (b)
Normal time - Crash time
obtained by dividing the accumulated reading by the
no. of repetitions. Normal cost
(c)
Crash cost
→ To measure horizontal angle by repetitions.
Normal time - Crash time
46. Collimation method is used in (d)
Crash cost - Normal cost
(a) profile levelling
Ans. (b)
(b) differential levelling
Crash cost − Normalcost
(c) check levelling Cost slope =
(d) Both (a) and (b) Normal time − Crash time

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.) March, 2019 119 YCT

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 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2012
Assistant Engineer (Civil) Mains
GENERAL HINDI (PAPER-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Exam Date : 1 Dec. 2012

efveoxMe (ØeMve mebKÙee 1 mes 20 lekeâ) : ÙeneB yeerme JeekeäÙe efoS Ans. (b) : JeekeäÙe kesâ efJekeâuhe b ceW Meyo mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw~
ieS nQ~ Ùes leerve Deueie-Deueie YeeieeW ceW efJeYeeefpele nQ~ FvnW efpemekeâe Megæ ™he– ‘YeejleerÙe yengle meYÙe nesles nQ~’
meeJeOeeveer kesâ meeLe heÌ{ves kesâ yeeo DeMegæ DebMe keâer henÛeeve cewQ Keeves keâs Thej heeveer venerR heerlee ntB~
keâjkesâ (a), (b), (c) ceW mes $egefš mes mecyeefvOele De#ej keâes Gòej 7. (a) (b) (c)
hegefmlekeâe ceW efueefKeS~ Ùeefo keâesF& $egefš veneR nw lees (d) kesâ ceeOÙece
keâesF& $egefš venerR~
mes metefÛele keâerefpeS~
(d)
meYeer Úe$eesW cesW ceesnve ßes<"lej nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW GefÛele Meyo ÛeÙeve mebyebOeer DeMegefæ
1.
(a) (b) (c) (d) nw~ efpemekeâe Megæ ™he– ‘ceQ Keeves kesâ Ghejevle heeveer veneR heerlee ntB~’
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW DeMegefæ c efJekeâuhe ceW nw~ efpemekeâe
cegPes efvejeuee keâer keâefJeleeSB hemevo nwQ~
Megæ ™he nw– ‘meYeer Úe$eeW ceW ceesnve ßes‰ nw~’ 8.
(a) (b) (c)
ØesceÛevo Øeefmeæ GhevÙeemekeâej nwQ~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
2.
(a) (b) (c)
(d)
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW keâesF& DeMegefæ veneR nw~ Dele: ‘cegPes
(d) efvejeuee keâer keâefJeleeSB hemevo nQ~’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW keâesF& DeMegefæ veneR nw~ Dele: cewQ efÛeefÌ[ÙeeIej DeJeMÙecesJe peeTBiee~
‘ØesceÛevo Øeefmeæ GhevÙeemekeâej nQ~’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ 9.
(a) (b) (c)
yeÛÛes keâes leepee ieeÙe keâe otOe efheueeDees~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
3.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW keâesF& DeMegefæ veneR nw~ Dele: ‘ceQ
(d) efÛeefÌ[ÙeeIej DeJeMÙecesJe peeTBiee~’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW DeMegefæ b efJekeâuhe ceW nw~ efpemekeâe yeeie cesW Deveskeâ megvoj Heâtue efKeues nwQ~
Megæ ™he nw– ‘yeÛÛes keâes ieeÙe keâe leepee otOe efheueeDees’~ 10.
(a) (b) (c)
osMe meoe JeejresW keâs efueS DeeYeejer jnsiee~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
4.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW keâesF& DeMegefæ veneR nw~ Dele: ‘yeeie
(d) ceW Deveskeâ megvoj Hetâue efKeues nQ~’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW DeMegefæ b efJekeâuhe ceW nw~ efpemekeâe nce Deheves Iej ieÙee Lee~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
Megæ ™he nw– ‘osMe meoe JeerjeW keâe DeeYeejer jnsiee~’ 11.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
jcesMe Úle cesW Kesue jne nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ Ans. (a) : JeekeäÙe kesâ efJekeâuhe a ceW meb%ee/heg®<e mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw~
5.
(a) (b) (c) (d) efpemekeâe Megæ ™he nw– ‘ceQ Deheves Iej ieÙee Lee~’
Ans. (b) : JeekeäÙe kesâ efJekeâuhe b ceW keâejkeâ mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw~ yeeie cesW DeveskeâesW Heâtue efKeues Les~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
12.
efpemekeâe Megæ ™he– ‘jcesMe Úle hej Kesue jne nw~’ nesiee~ (a) (b) (c) (d)
YeejleeÙre yengle meYeÙe nesles nwQ~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ Ans. (b) : JeekeäÙe kesâ KeC[ b ceW JeÛeve mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw~
6.
(a) (b) (c) (d) efpemekeâe Megæ ™he – ‘yeeie ceW Deveskeâ hetâue efKeues Les~’ nesiee~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2012 120 YCT
 Deehe Dehevee keâece keâjes~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ efveoxMe : (ØeMve mebKÙee 21 mes 40 lekeâ) : Fme KeC[ ceW yeerme
13. JeekeäÙe efoS ieS nQ~ ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe ceW leerve efJekeâuhe nQ~ FveceW mes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
pees Megæ JeekeäÙe nes Gmekesâ efueS efveOee&efjle (a), (b), (c) ceW mes
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ efJekeâuhe (a) ceW meJe&veece mecyevOeer
keâesF& Skeâ Gòej kesâ ¤he ceW efueefKeS~
DeMegefæ nw~ efpemekeâe Megæ ™he nw– ‘legce Dehevee keâece keâjes~
21. YeejleerÙe ne@keâer šerce efJepeÙeer neskesâ jepeOeeveer ceW DeeÙeer~
keâ=heÙee keâjkeâs ÙeneB mes Ûeues peeDees~ (a) YeejleerÙe ne@keâer šerce efJepeÙeer neskeâj jepeOeeveer DeeÙeer~
14.
(a) (b) (c) (b) YeejleerÙe ne@keâer šerce efJepeÙeer neskeâj jepeOeeveer ceW DeeÙeer~
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ (c) YeejleerÙe ne@keâer šerce efJepeÙeer neskesâ jepeOeeveer ceW heOeejer~
(d) Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe (b) ceW efveefnle
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW efJekeâuhe a ceW Deefleefjkeäle Meyo ÛeÙeve nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw– YeejleerÙe ne@keâer šerce efJepeÙeer neskeâj jepeOeeveer ceW
mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw~ efpemekeâe Megæ ™he- ‘ke=âheÙee ÙeneB mes Ûeues DeeÙeer~
peeDees~’ nesiee~ 22. cenelcee ieeBOeer keâe osMe meoe DeeYeejer jnsiee~
KejieesMe keâes keâeškeâj ieepej efKeueeDees (a) cenelcee ieeBOeer keâe DeeYeejer meoe osMe jnsiee~
15. (b) osMe meoe cenelcee ieeBOeer keâe DeeYeejer jnsiee~
(a) (b) (c)
(c) meoe osMe cenelcee ieeBOeer keâe DeeYeejer jnsiee~
keâesF& $egefš venerR~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe b ceW efveefnle nw~
(d)
Megæ JeekeäÙe nw– ‘osMe meoe cenelcee ieeBOeer keâe DeeYeejer jnsiee~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW MeyoeW kesâ ›eâce mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw~
23. nce Dehevee keâece keâj efueS nQ~
Megæ ™he- ‘KejieesMe keâes ieepej keâeškeâj efKeueeDees’~ nesiee~
(a) nceves Dehevee keâece keâj efueÙee nw~
cesjs keâes keâece venerR keâjvee nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ (b) nceves Dehevee keâece keâj efueS nQ~
16.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) nce Dehevee keâece keâj efueÙee nw~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW meb%ee mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw~ Megæ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe a ceW efveefnle nw~
JeekeäÙe- ‘cegPes keâece veneR keâjvee nw~’ nesiee~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw– ‘nceves Dehevee keâece keâj efueÙee nw~’
MeeÙeo Deepe keâece nes peeÙe~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ 24. ke=âheÙee keâjkesâ Deehe Keevee Kee ueerefpeS~
17.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) ke=âhee keâjkesâ Deehe Keevee Kee uees~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW keâesF& $egefš veneR nw~ Dele: ‘MeeÙeo (b) ke=âheÙee Deehe Keevee Kee uees~
Deepe keâece nes peeÙe~’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ (c) ke=âheÙee Deehe Keevee Kee ueerefpeS~
Ans. (c) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe c ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw–
legce keâece keâj ueerefpeS~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ ke=âheÙee Deehe Keevee Kee ueerefpeS~
18.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25. Deheve keâes Gmemes keäÙee uesvee-osvee nw~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW keâlee&/heg®<e mebyebOeer DeMegefæ nw~ (a) Deheve keâes Gmemes keäÙee uesvee nw~
efpemekeâe Megæ ™he- ‘Deehe keâece keâj ueerefpeS~’ nesiee~ (b) Deheve keâes keäÙee uesvee-osvee nw Gmemes~
cesje DeeMeearJeeo meowJe legcenejs meeLe nw~ (c) cegPekeâes Gmemes keäÙee uesvee-osvee nw~
19.
(a) (b) (c) Ans. (c) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe c ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw–
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ cegPekeâes Gmemes keäÙee uesvee-osvee nw~
(d) 26. ceQ Deepe Keevee veneR Keevee nw~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW efJekeâuhe a ceW Meyo mebyebOeer DeMegefæ (a) ceQ Deepe Keevee veneR Keevee Lee~
nw~ Megæ ™he- ‘cesje DeeMeerJee&o meowJe legcnejs meeLe nw~’ nesiee~ (b) cegPes Deepe Keevee veneR Keevee nw~
(c) ceQ Deepe Keevee Keevee nw~
keâef"ve heefjßece mes meHeâuelee DeJeMÙe efceueleer nw~
20. Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe b ceW nw~ Megæ
(a) (b) (c)
JeekeäÙe nw– cegPes Deepe Keevee veneR Keevee nw~
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ 27. Gmekeâe lees ØeeCe ner efvekeâue ieÙee~
(d)
(a) Gmekeâe ØeeCe efvekeâue ieÙee~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW efJekeâuhe d nesiee~ DeLee&led JeekeäÙe (b) ØeeCe efvekeâue ieÙee Gmekeâe~
Megæ nw~ (c) Gmekesâ lees ØeeCe ner efvekeâue ieS~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2012 121 YCT
 Ans. (c) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe c ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw– Ans. (c) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe c ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw–
Gmekesâ lees ØeeCe ner efvekeâue ieS~ iele jefJeJeej keâes Jen efMeceuee ieÙee Lee~
28. Deehekeâe keâece heÛeeme ®heÙee ceW nesiee~ 35. cegPekeâes legcnejs efueS Mece& Dee jner nw~
(a) Deehekesâ keâece heÛeeme ®heÙee ceW neWies~ (a) cegPekeâes legcnejs efueS Mece& Dee jne nw~
(b) Deehekeâe keâece heÛeeme ®hes ceW nesiee~ (b) cegPekeâes legce hej Mece& Dee jner nw~
(c) Deehekeâe keâece heÛeeme ®heÙes ceW nesiee~
(c) legce hej Mece& cegPekeâes Dee jner nw~
Ans. (c) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe c ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw–
Ans. (b) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe b ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw–
Deehekeâe keâece heÛeeme ®heÙes ceW nesiee~
cegPekeâes legce hej Mece& Dee jner nw~
29. legce Ûeesj pewmee yeeleeW keâjlee nQ~
36. meerlee jece keâer m$eer Leer~
(a) legce Ûeesj pewmee yeele keâjlee nw~
(a) meerlee jece keâer ceefnuee Leer~
(b) legce ÛeesjeW pewmee yeele keâjlee nw~
(c) legce Ûeesj pewmeer yeele keâjles nes~ (b) meerlee jece keâer jeveer Leer~

Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW efJekeâuhe c ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe (c) meerlee jece keâer helveer Leer~
nw– legce Ûeesj pewmeer yeele keâjles nes~ Ans. (c) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe c ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw–
30. Ùen efkeâmekeâe nmlee#ej nw? meerlee jece keâer helveer Leer~
(a) Ùen efkeâmekeâe nmlee#ej nw~ 37. ceQ legcnejs GppeJeue YeefJe<Ùe keâer keâecevee keâjlee ntB~
(b) Ùen efkeâmekesâ nmlee#ej nQ~ (a) ceQ legcnejs YeefJe<Ùe keâer GppeJeue keâecevee keâjlee ntB~
(c) Ùen efkeâmekesâ nmlee#ej nQ? (b) ceQ legcnejs GppJeue YeefJe<Ùe keâer keâecevee keâjlee ntB~
Ans. (c) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe c ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw– (c) ceQ legcnejs GppeJue YeefJe<Ùe keâer keâecevee keâjlee ntB~
Ùen efkeâmekesâ nmlee#ej nw? Ans. (b) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe (b) ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw–
veesš– DeeÙeesie Éeje Fme ØeMve keâes ef[ueerš keâj efoÙee ieÙee~ ceQ legcnejs GppJeue YeefJe<Ùe keâer keâecevee keâjlee ntB~
31. cesjs mes Ùen keâece veneR nesiee~
38. Me$eg cewoeve mes oewÌ[ ieÙee~
(a) cesjs mes veneR nesiee Ùen keâece~
(a) Me$eg cewoeve mes oewÌ[ KeÌ[e ngDee~
(b) Ùen keâece cesjs mes veneR nesiee~
(b) Me$eg cewoeve mes oewÌ[e~
(c) cegPemes Ùen keâece veneR nesiee~
(c) Me$eg cewoeve mes Yeeie KeÌ[e ngDee~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW efJekeâuhe c Megæ nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw–
cegPemes Ùen keâece veneR nesiee~ Ans. (c) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe c ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw–

32. iejce ieeÙe keâe Skeâ keâhe otOe ueeDees~

Me$eg cewoeve mes Yeeie KeÌ[e ngDee~
(a) Skeâ keâhe iejce ieeÙe keâe otOe ueeDees~ 39. pebieue ceW efJeKÙeele [eketâ jnles nQ~
(b) ieeÙe keâe Skeâ keâhe iejce otOe ueeDees~ (a) pebieue ceW efJeKÙeele [eketâ Ietceles jnles nQ~
(c) Skeâ keâhe iejce otOe ieeÙe keâe ueeDees~ (b) efJeKÙeele [eketâ pebieue ceW jnles nQ~
Ans. (b) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe b ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw– (c) pebieue ceW kegâKÙeele [eketâ jnles nQ~
ieeÙe keâe Skeâ keâhe iejce otOe ueeDees~ Ans. (c) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe c ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw–
33. meerlee ieerlee Deewj jeOee Úe$ee nQ~ pebieue ceW kegâKÙeele [eketâ jnles nQ~
(a) meerlee, ieerlee Deewj jeOee Úe$ee nQ~ 40. MeeÙeo Deepe Je<ee& DeJeMÙe nes mekeâleer nw~
(b) meerlee ieerlee Deewj jeOee Úe$eeSB nQ~ (a) MeeÙeo Deepe Je<ee& nes mekeâleer nw~
(c) meerlee-ieerlee Deewj jeOee Úe$ee nQ~
(b) MeeÙeo Deepe Je<ee& DeJeMÙe nesieer~
Ans. (b) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe b ceW efveefnle nw~ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw–
(c) Deepe MeeÙeo Je<ee& DeJeMÙe nes mekeâleer nw~
meerlee, ieerlee Deewj jeOee Úe$eeSB nQ~
Ans. (a) : Megæ JeekeäÙe efJekeâuhe a ceW efveefnle nw~ keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘MeeÙeo’
34. iele jefJeJeej keâes Jen efMeceuee peeSiee~
Deewj ‘DeJeMÙe’ keâe ØeÙeesie Skeâ meeLe veneR neslee~ Dele: Megæ JeekeäÙe
(a) iele jefJeJeej keâes Jen efMeceuee DeJeMÙe peeSiee~
nw– MeeÙeo Deepe Je<ee& nes mekeâleer nw~
(b) iele jefJeJeej keâes Jen efMeceuee pee jne nw~
veesš– DeeÙeesie Éeje Fme ØeMve keâes ef[ueerš keâj efoÙee ieÙee~
(c) iele jefJeJeej keâes Jen efMeceuee ieÙee Lee~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2012 122 YCT
efveoxMe : (ØeMve mebKÙee 41 mes 50 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele ome 47. efvejekeâej keâe DeLe& nw
JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe keâe Skeâ Meyo jsKeebefkeâle nw~ nj (a) Deekeâej (b) ¤heJeeve
jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS (a), (b), (c) leLee (d) kesâ meeceves Skeâ- (c) efpemekeâe Deekeâej ve nes (d) pees mecePe ceW ve DeeS
Skeâ Meyo efueKee ieÙee nw~ FveceW mes, jsKeebefkeâle Meyo mes DeLe& keâer Ans. (c) : ‘efvejekeâej’ Meyo keâe leelheÙe& nw– ‘efpemekeâe Deekeâej ve nes’
Âef<š mes, pees Jewkeâefuhekeâ Meyo DeefOekeâ efvekeâš nw Gmes efÛeefvnle
‘efvejekeâej’ kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nQ– Decetle&, ¤henerve, efveieg&Ce,
keâerefpeS~
Deekeâejnerve FlÙeeefo~
41. Jeve ceW Je=#eeW hej JÙeeue ueškesâ jnles nQ~
48. ‘‘cewÙee ceesefn oeT yengle efKepeeÙees~’’
(a) yevoj (b) efyeuueer
(a) iegmmee keâjvee (b) Kepeueevee
(c) mehe& (d) he#eer
(c) Keerpevee (d) efÛeÌ{evee
Ans. (c) : ‘JÙeeue’ Meyo, mehe& keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nw~ ‘JÙeeue’ kesâ
DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nQ– Mes<eveeie, Deefn, hevveie, Yegpebie, Gjie, Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘efKepeeÙees’ keâe DeLe& ‘efÛeÌ{evee’ nw
veeie, heâCeer FlÙeeefo~ ‘efÛeÌ{evee kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo– lebie keâjvee, hejsMeeve keâjvee,
42. keâerÛeÌ[ ceW efkeâleves ner keâceue efKeues nQ~
Deeefpepe Deevee, Ieyeje osvee FlÙeeefo~
(a) peueOej (b) Jeeefjo 49. ‘`Deefue, keâefue ner meeQ yeOÙees Deeiew keâewve nJeeue~’’
(c) veerjo (d) hebkeâpe (a) Yeücej (b) heefle
Ans. (d) : keâceue keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer hebkeâpe neslee nw~ keâceue– peuepe, (c) meKeer (d) jefmekeâ
hebkeâpe, he©e, veerjpe, mejespe, jepeerJe, DejefJevo, Meleoue, Decyegpe, Ans. (a) : ‘Deefue’ keâe DeLe& ‘Yeücej’ neslee nw~ Deefue– YeeQje,
veefueve, mejefmepe, hegC[jerkeâ~ ceOegkeâj, ßecej, Ye=bie, efceefuebo, ceOeghe, ceOegjepe, <eodheo~
43. nJevekegâC[ ceW Deefie> ØepJeefuele nes ieÙeer~ 50. Ùen ØeLee efÛejblevekeâeue mes Ûeueer Dee jner nw~
(a) ØekeâeMe (b) Deeie (a) hejcheje mes (b) meowJe mes
(c) jesMeveer (d) meefceOee (c) Jewefokeâ keâeue mes (d) Yetlekeâeue mes
Ans. (b) : Deefive keâer heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Deeie neslee nw~ Deefive- Deveue, Ans. (b) : ‘efÛejblevekeâeue’ keâe leelheÙe& nw– meowJe mes~ efÛejblevekeâeue
heeJekeâ, onve, pJeueve, Oetceükesâleg, ke=â<eeveg, ngleeMeve, JewMJeevej, kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nQ– meveeleve, meJe&oe, meoe, hegjeleve,
pJeeuee, Deeie~ ØeeÛeerve FlÙeeefo~
44. DeekeâeMe ceW ÛeeBo efKeuee nw~ efveoxMe : (ØeMve mebKÙee 51 mes 60 lekeâ) : veerÛes efueKes JeekeäÙe Ùee
(a) jpeveerÛej (b) jpeveer JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej Meyo efoS ieS nQ~ FveceW mes Skeâ
(c) MeefMe (d) ce=ieebMeg GheÙegkeäle Meyo Ûegvekeâj Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefvnle keâerefpeS~
Ans. (c) : ÛeeBo keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer MeefMe neslee nw~ ÛeeBo- ceÙebkeâ, 51. pees DeekeâeMe ceW Ietcelee nes
efJeOeg, megOeekeâj, keâueeefveefOe, efveefMeheefle, MeMeebkeâ, Ûevõcee, Ûevõ, (a) YetÛej (b) veYeÛej
MeefMe, efncekeâj, jekesâMe, jpeveerMe, efnceebMeg~
(c) ieghleÛej (d) peueÛej
45. ‘‘nw DeceeefveMee Gieuelee ieieve Ieve DebOekeâej~’’
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘pees DeekeâeMe ceW Ietcelee nes’ kesâ efueS
(a) Ievee (b) yeeoue
Skeâ Meyo ‘veYeÛej’ nesiee~
(c) keâ"esj (d) Iebše
52. pees mebefJeOeeve mes mecyeefvOele nes
Ans. (a) : efoÙee ieÙee DebMe metÙe&keâeble ef$ehee"er ‘efvejeuee’ keâer uecyeer
(a) meebefJeOeeefvekeâ (b) mebJewOeeefvekeâ
keâefJelee ‘jece keâer Meefkeäle hetpee’ mes GodOe=le nw efpemeceW keâefJe keânlee nw
(c) ØeeefJeefOekeâ (d) mebefJeOeeveer
efkeâ DeceeJemÙee keâer jele Leer DeekeâeMe ceW hetCe& DebOekeâej ÚeÙee ngDee Lee
jece meeiej leš hej yew"s nQ~ Gvekesâ heerÚs efJeMeeue meeiej efyevee jeskeâ- Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘pees mebefJeOeeve mes mebyebefOele nes’ kesâ
šeskeâ kesâ iepe&vee keâj jne nw~ Dele: jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Ieve’ keâe DeLe& efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘mebJewOeeefvekeâ’ nesiee~
nw– Ievee DeLeJee meIeve~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ 53. efpemeves Me$eg keâe oceve efkeâÙee nes
46. ‘‘jefnceve heeveer jeefKeS efyeve heeveer meye metve~’’ (a) Me$egoceve (b) Me$egveeMekeâ
(a) metvee (b) JÙeLe& (c) DepesÙe (d) efjhegoceve
(c) peue (d) meeLe&keâ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘efpemeves Me$eg keâe oceve efkeâÙee nes’ kesâ
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes oesns ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo `metve’ keâe DeLe& ‘JÙeLe&’ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘efjhegoceve’ nesiee~
nw, ‘JÙeLe&’ kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw– efHeâpetue, DekeâejLe, 54. pees hetpee keâjves ÙeesiÙe nw
DevegheÙeesieer, yeskeâej, yesceleueye, Heâeuelet, DeJeebefÚle, efve<ØeÙeespeve (a) hetpee ueeÙekeâ (b) hetpeves ueeÙekeâ
FlÙeeefo~ (c) hetpeveerÙe (d) ØeeLe&veerÙe

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2012 123 YCT

 Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘pees hetpee keâjves ÙeesiÙe nw’, kesâ efueS Ans. (a) : nmle Meyo keâe leodYeJe–neLe nw, peyeefkeâ ‘neLeer’ keâe
Skeâ Meyo ‘hetpeveerÙe’ nesiee~ lelmece ‘nmleer’ neslee nw~
55. pees otmejeW keâe Ghekeâej keâjlee nw 63. ceef#ekeâe
(a) keâuÙeeCekeâejer (b) Ghekeâejer (a) cekeäKeve (b) ceÛÚj
(c) hejeshekeâejer (d) hejkeâuÙeeCekeâejer (c) ceÚueer (d) cekeäKeer
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘ pees otmejeW keâes Ghekeâej keâjlee nw’ kesâ Ans. (d) : ceef#ekeâe keâe leodYeJe-cekeäKeer nw~
efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘hejeshekeâejer’ nesiee~ leodYeJe lelmece
56. efpemekeâer leguevee ve keâer pee mekesâ cekeäKeve – ceü#eCe
(a) legueveelcekeâ (b) legueveerÙe ceÛÚj – celmej
(c) Gheceeve (d) DelegueveerÙe ceÚueer – celmÙe
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘efpemekeâer leguevee ve keâer pee mekesâ’ kesâ 64. ëe=bieeue
efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘DelegueveerÙe’ nesiee~ (a) YesefÌ[Ùee (b) kegâòee
57. efpemekeâes meye peeveles neW (c) ieeroÌ[ (d) ßeeJekeâ
(a) meJe&%e (b) meJee&lce Ans. (c) : ëe=bieeue keâe leodYeJe-efmeÙeej neslee nw leLee ‘kegâllee’ keâe
(c) meJe&efJeefole (d) efJeefole lelmece kegâkeäkegâj Deewj ‘ßeeJekeâ’ keâe <eJekeâ nw~ ieeroÌ[, efmeÙeej keâe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘efpemekeâes meye peeveles neW’ kesâ efueS heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nw~ Dele: efJekeâuhe (c) mener nw~
Skeâ Meyo ‘meJe&efJeefole’ nesiee~ 65. ogiOe
58. efpemekeâe mecyevOe Fme ueeskeâ mes hejs nes (a) otOe (b) meHesâo
(a) meebmeeefjkeâ (b) Deueewefkeâkeâ (c) otefOeÙee (d) oner
(c) ueewefkeâkeâ (d) heejueewefkeâkeâ Ans. (a) : ogiOe keâe leodYeJe-otOe nw leLee ‘meHesâo’ keâe lelmece ‘MJesle’
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘efpemekeâe mebyebOe Fme ueeskeâ mes hejs neW’
Deewj oner keâe ‘oefOe’ neslee nw~
kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘heejueewefkeâkeâ’ nesiee~ 66. Deef#e
59. efJeÕeeme keâjves ÙeesiÙe (a) DeeBKe (b) De#e
(a) efJeÕeemeer (b) efJeÕemeveerÙe (c) ceÚueer (d) DeeBmet
(c) efJeÕeeme keâjvee (d) efJeÕeeme Ans. (a) : Deef#e keâe leodYeJe-DeeBKe nw leLee De#e keâe lelmece ‘DebMe’,
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘efJeMJeeme keâjves ÙeesiÙe’ kesâ efueS Skeâ
ceÚueer keâe celmÙe leLee DeeBmet keâe Deßeg neslee nw~
Meyo ‘efJeÕemeveerÙe’ nesiee~ 67. keâCe&

60. pees meeue ceW Skeâ yeej ØekeâeefMele neslee nw (a) kebâle (b) ßeJeCe
(c) keâeve (d) keâjCe
(a) Deæ&Jeeef<e&keâ (b) heeef#ekeâ
(c) meehleeefnkeâ (d) Jeeef<e&keâ Ans. (c) : keâCe& keâe leodYeJe- keâeve nw~

Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘pees meeue ceW Skeâ yeej ØekeâeefMele neslee 68. ëe=bKeuee
nw’ kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘Jeeef<e&keâ’ nesiee~ (a) kegbâ[er (b) Deie&uee
efveoxMe : (ØeMve mebKÙee 61 mes 70 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele lelmece (c) meebkeâue (d) Ûeškeâveer
MeyoeW kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej Jewkeâefuhekeâ leodYeJe Meyo efoS ieÙes nQ~ Ans. (c) : ëe=bKeuee keâe leodYeJe-meebkeâue nw~
(a), (b), (c), (d) ceW mes GheÙegòeâ Meyo keâes efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ 69. Øe#eeueve
61. Ûece& (a) Øes#ee (b) Oeesvee
(a) ÛeceÌ[e (b) Keeue (c) Øe#ee (d) meeHeâ keâjvee
(c) lJeÛee (d) Ûejce Ans. (b) : Øe#eeueve keâe leodYeJe-¤he – ‘Oeesvee’ nw~
Ans. (a) : Ûece& keâe leodYeJe–ÛeceÌ[e DeLeJee Ûeece neslee nw~ 70. keâe<"
62. nmle (a) uekeâÌ[er (b) keâe"
(a) neLe (b) nlLee (c) keâešvee (d) kegâ"ej
(c) neLeer (d) nmleer Ans. (b) : keâe‰ keâe leodYeJe-keâe" nw~

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2012 124 YCT

efveoxMe : (ØeMve mebKÙee 71 mes 80 lekeâ) : efvecveefueefKele cegneJejeW Ans. (d) : ‘heeBÛeeW GBieefueÙeeB Ieer ceW nesvee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘nj
kesâ efueS (a), (b), (c), (d) De#ej kesâ meeceves DeLe& efueKes ngS nQ~ lejHeâ mes ueeYe nesvee’ neslee nw~
FveceW mes GheÙegòeâ DeLe& keâes Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~ 78. heeveer heeveer nesvee
71. oesveeW neLeeW ceW ueñÒ nesvee (a) Yeerie peevee (b) ueefppele nesvee
(a) neLe ceW ueñÒ uesvee (c) yengle keâcepeesj nesvee (d) yengle kebâpetme nesvee
(b) Skeâ yeej ceW oes keâece keâjvee Ans. (b) : ‘heeveer heeveer nesvee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘ueefppele nesvee’
(c) oesveeW neLeeW mes ueeYe uesvee neslee nw~
(d) oesnje ueeYe nesvee 79. FËš mes FËš yepeevee
Ans. (d) : ‘oesveeW neLeeW ceW ueñÒ nesvee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘oesnje (a) meye kegâÚ ve<š keâj osvee (b) meejer uebkeâe {e osvee
ueeYe nesvee’ neslee nw~ (c) Iej keâe Yesoer uebkeâe {eS (d) yejeyej keâer škeäkeâj osvee
72. DebOes kesâ neLe yešsj ueievee Ans. (a) : ‘FËš mes FËš yepeevee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘meye kegâÚ ve°
(a) ueeYe nesvee keâj osvee’ Ùee ‘keâÌ[e cegkeâeyeuee keâjvee’ neslee nw~
(b) yešsj keâe peeue ceW HeBâmevee 80. kebâieeueer ceW Deeše ieeruee nesvee
(c) DebOes kesâ heeme yešsj keâe Deevee (a) iejerye nesvee (b) uegš peevee
(d) efyevee heefjßece kesâ DeÛÚer Jemleg neLe ueievee (c) kebâieeue nesvee (d) keâceer ceW Deewj keâceer nesvee
Ans. (d) : ‘DebOes kesâ neLe yešsj ueievee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘efyevee Ans. (d) : ‘kebâieeueer ceW Deeše ieeruee nesvee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘keâceer
heefjßece kesâ DeÛÚer Jemleg neLe ueievee’ nw~ ceW Deewj keâceer nesvee’ neslee nw~
73. Iej HetBâkeâ leceeMee osKevee efveoxMe : (ØeMve mebKÙee 81 mes 90 lekeâ) : efvecve JeekeäÙeeW ceW
(a) uegš peevee jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS (a), (b), (c), (d) De#ej kesâ meeceves
(b) vegkeâmeeve keâjvee Deueie-Deueie Meyo efueKes ngS nQ~ Fve MeyoeW ceW mes GheÙegòeâ
(c) Iej peuee osvee efJeueesce Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
(d) Pet"er Meeve kesâ efueS Iej uegševee 81. meeceeefpekeâ peerJeve ceW jepeveerefle keâe efJemleej GefÛele veneR~
Ans. (d) : ‘Iej HetBâkeâ leceeMee osKevee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘Pet"er Meeve (a) efJekeâeme (b) Deheej
kesâ efueS Iej uegševee’ nw~ (c) DeYeeJe (d) mebkeâesÛe
74. Debie Debie {eruee nesvee Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘efJemleej’ Meyo keâe efJeueesce ‘mebkeâesÛe’
(a) keâcepeesj nesvee (b) yengle Lekeâ peevee
nesiee~ DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ efJeueesce-efJekeâeme · efJeveeMe, Deheej · LeesÌ[e
SJeb DeYeeJe · ØeÛegjlee nw~
(c) Mejerj efMeefLeue nesvee (d) keâheÌ[e {eruee nesvee
82. jeOee keâes ieerlee mes Devegjeie nw~
Ans. (b) : ‘Debie Debie {eruee nesvee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘yengle Lekeâ
(a) jeie (b) efJejeie
peevee’ neslee nw~
(c) Øesce (d) ueieeJe
75. DeeÌ[s neLeeW uesvee
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘Devegjeie’ Meyo keâe efJeueesce ‘efJejeie’
(a) Kejer Keesšer megveevee (b) Guešs neLe mes uesvee
nesiee~ DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ efJeueesce- jeie · Dejeie, Øesce · Ie=Cee SJeb
(c) šsÌ{e neLe keâjvee (d) DeeÌ[s neLeeW mes meeceeve uesvee
ueieeJe · ogjeJe nw~
Ans. (a) : ‘DeeÌ[s neLeeW uesvee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘Kejer Keesšer
83. jeefieveer Deuhe%e nw~
megveevee’ nw~
(a) megefJe%e (b) De%eeveer
76. DeeBKe keâe leeje nesvee
(c) efJe%e (d) yeng%e
(a) DeeBKe ceW leeje nesvee (b) DeeBKe keâe hÙeeje nesvee
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘Deuhe%e’ Meyo keâe efJeueesce ‘yeng%e’
(c) yengle efØeÙe nesvee (d) DeeBKeeW ceW ner hÙeej nesvee nesiee~ DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ efJeueesce-megefJe%e · DeveefJe%e, De%eeveer · %eeveer
Ans. (c) : ‘DeeBKe keâe leeje nesvee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘yengle efØeÙe SJeb efJe%e · De%e nw~
nesvee’ neslee nw~ 84. veeefmlekeâ JÙeefkeäle kegâÚ veneR ceevelee~
77. heeBÛeeW GBieefueÙeeB Ieer ceW nesvee (a) Deveeefmlekeâ (b) DeemLeeJeeve
(a) DelÙeefOekeâ ueeYe nesvee (c) Deeefmlekeâ (d) ÛeejJeekeâ
(b) heeBÛeeW GBieefueÙeeB Ieer ceW [euevee Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘veeefmlekeâ’ Meyo keâe efJeueesce
(c) heeBÛeeW GBieefueÙeeW ceW Ieer [euevee ‘Deeefmlekeâ’ nesiee~ DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ efJeueesce- DeemLeeJeeve ·
(d) nj lejHeâ mes ueeYe nesvee DeveemLeeJeeve nw~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2012 125 YCT
85. Fnueeskeâ ceW meye kegâÚ "erkeâ nw~ efveoxMe : (ØeMve mebKÙee 91 mes 100 lekeâ) : DeMegæ MeyoeW kesâ
(a) Deueeskeâ (b) mJeie&ueeskeâ efueS (a), (b), (c), (d) De#ej kesâ meeceves Deueie-Deueie Meyo efoS
(c) hejueeskeâ (d) heeleeueueeskeâ ieS nQ~ FveceW mes Megæ Meyo keâes efÛeefÖle keâerefpeS~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW Fnueeskeâ’ Meyo keâe efJeueesce ‘hejueeskeâ’ 91. megYesÛÚe
nesiee~ DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ efJeueesce- mJeie&ueeskeâ · vejkeâueeskeâ, (a) megYesÛÛÚe (b) MegYesÛÚe
heeleeueueeskeâ · DeekeâeMeueeskeâ nw~ (c) MegYe SÛÚe (d) MegYeer#ee
86. ceesnve keâer yeeleW keâÌ[Jeer nesleer nQ~ Ans. (b) : megYesÛÚe keâe Megæ Meyo – MegYesÛÚe nw~
(a) leuKe (b) keâÌ[keâ 92. vewjveleÙe&
(c) mJeeefo<š (d) ceer"er (a) efvejvleÙe& (b) vewjvleÙe&
Ans. (d) : Meyo efJeueesce (c) efvejble&Ùe (d) efvejveleÙe&
keâÌ[Jeer – ceer"er Ans. (b) : vewjveleÙe& keâe Megæ Meyo – vewjvleÙe& nw~
mJeeefo° – mJeeonerve 93. le¤Jej
keâÌ[keâ – vejce (a) lejJej (b) le¤Jeej
87. Deepe keâe Keevee yesmJeeo nw~ (c) le®Jej (d) leJe&j
(a) mJeeo (b) mJeeefo° Ans. (c) : le™Jej keâe Megæ Meyo – le®Jej nw~
(c) yeemJeeo (d) yespeeve 94. yeeuceerkeâer
Ans. (b) : Meyo efJeueesce (a) yeeuceerefkeâ (b) Jeeueceerkeâer
yesmJeeo – mJeeefo<š (c) Jeeuceerefkeâ (d) Jeeefucekeâer
mJeeefo° – mJeeonerve Ans. (c) : yeeuceerkeâer keâe Megæ Meyo – Jeeuceerefkeâ nw~
yespeeve – peeve 95. GuebIeve
88. Gmeves peefšue ØeMve hetÚs~ (a) GuuebIeve (b) GueuebIeve
(a) keâef"ve (b) keâ"esj (c) GuueIeve (d) GuueeIeeve
(c) mejue (d) menpe Ans. (a) : GuebIeve keâe Megæ Meyo – GuuebIeve nw~
Ans. (c) : Meyo efJeueesce 96. ogjeJemLee
peefšue – mejue (a) otJe&mLee (b) ogjeJeemLee
keâef"ve – mejue (c) otjeJemLee (d) ogjJemLee
keâ"esj – keâesceue SJeb ce=ogue Ans. (d) : ogjeJemLee keâe Megæ Meyo – ogjJemLee nw~
menpe – Demenpe 97. ogmeeOÙe
89. nceejs ieg®peer hetpeveerÙe nQ~ (a) ogmmeeOÙe (b) ogmee&OÙe
(a) DeeojCeerÙe (b) efvevoveerÙe (c) ogjmeeOeÙe (d) otjmeeOÙe
(c) hetpÙeveerÙe (d) oC[veerÙe Ans. (a) : ogmeeOÙe keâe Megæ Meyo – ogmmeeOÙe nw~
Ans. (b) : Meyo efJeueesce 98. efme°eÛeej
hetpeveerÙe – efvevoveerÙe (a) efMe°Ûeej (b) efMe° DeÛeej
DeeojCeerÙe – DeveeojCeerÙe (c) efMe<šeÛeej (d) efMemšeÛeej
oC[veerÙe – DeoC[veerÙe Ans. (c) : efme°eÛeej keâe Megæ Meyo – efMe°eÛeej nw~
90. jcesMe ØeKej nw~ 99. ÉbvÉelcekeâ
(a) Ûeeueekeâ (b) cetKe& (a) ÉvÉelecekeâ (b) ÉÉeblcekeâ
(c) lespe (d) efJeÉeve (c) ÉbÉelcekeâ (d) odJevoÙeelcekeâ
Ans. (b) : Meyo efJeueesce Ans. (c) : ÉbvÉelcekeâ keâe Megæ Meyo – ÉbÉelcekeâ nw~
ØeKej – cetKe& 100. GòejeefOekeâejer
Ûeeueekeâ – yegæÒ (a) Gòej DeefOekeâejer (b) GlejeefOekeâejer
lespe – efvemlespe (c) GòejeefOekeâejer (d) GljeefOekeâejer
efJeÉeve – cetKe& Ans. (c) : GòejeefOekeâej keâe Megæ Meyo – GòejeefOekeâejer nw~

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2012 126 YCT

 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2012
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL ENGLISH (PAPER-II)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Exam Date : 1 Dec., 2012

Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 20 ) : Read each of the The thief was caught when entering
following sentences to find out whether there is an error 5. (a) (b)
in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one
the empty house No error
error. If you feel there is no error in a sentence, signify a .
(c) (d)
'No error' response.
Write down your answers Ans. (b) : Ghejeskeäle JeekeäÙe ceW efJekeâuhe (b) ceW $egefš nw Fme
1. sentence ceW when entering kesâ mLeeve hej while entering keâe
(a) (b)
in a separate sheet No error
ØeÙees ie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ while (kesâ oewjeve) keâe ØeÙeesie
. sentence kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej GheÙegkeäle nw~
(c) (d)
Correct Sentence–
Ans. (c) : Ghejeskeäle sentence kesâ option (c) ceW $egefš (error)
The thief was caught while entering the empty house.
nw~ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW in a separate sheet kesâ mLeeve hej on a recovered quite well
He has
separate sheet keâe ØeÙeesie keâjves hej JeekeäÙe Megæ nes peeÙesiee~ 6.
(a) (b)
Correct Sentence–
through his illness No error
Write down your answers on a separate sheet. .
(c) (d)
All envelopes are to be sealed properly
2. . Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW through his illness keâer
(a) (b) (c)
peien from his illness keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Verb,
No error
recover kesâ yeeo from preposition keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ Dele:
(d)
efJekeâuhe (c) ceW $egefš nw~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW no error nw~ Dele: efJekeâuhe
Correct Sentence–
(d) correct nw~ He has recovered quite well from his illness.
Despite of difficulties, Rehman pursued Here is the watch that you asked
3. 7. .
(a) (b) (a) (b) (c)
his goal dillegently No error No error
.
(c) (d) (d)
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW efJekeâuhe (a) ceW $egefš nw~ Fme Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle sentence ceW asked for keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee
sentence ceW Despite of difficulties kesâ mLeeve hej In spite peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen Skeâ idiomatic Verb nw~
of difficulties keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ In spite of Skeâ 'Ask for' means- (ceeBievee)
idiomatic nw peyeefkeâ Despite kesâ yeeo of keâe ØeÙeesie veneR efkeâÙee Correct Sentence–
Here is the watch that you asked for.
peelee nw~
Note:- In spite of / Despite (In spite of = despite) He died fighting in behalf
8.
Correct Sentence– (a) (b)
Inspite of difficulties, Rehman pursued his goal of his country No error
diligently. .
(c) (d)
Which of these chairs did you sit in ? Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW in behalf kesâ mLeeve hej on
4.
(a) (b) (c)
behalf keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ on behalf of Skeâ idiom
No error phrase nw~
(d)
⇒ ‘On behalf of ’ means:– keâer Deesj mes
Ans. (d) : Ghejeskeäle JeekeäÙe ceW keâesF& $egefš veneR (No-error) nw~ Correct Sentence–
ÙeneB hej efJekeâuhe (d) mener nw~ He died fighting on behalf of his country.

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2012 127 YCT

 You must fill out the form No error Ans. (d) : GheÙe&gkeäle sentence ceW keâesF& $egefš veneR nw efoÙee ieÙee
9. .
(a) (b) (c) (d) JeekeäÙe grammatical mener nw Dele: efJekeâuhe (d) mener nw~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW idiom phrase fill out keâe He accepted the compensation
ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ veneR nw keäÙeeWefkeâ sentence kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej ÙeneB 14.
(a) (b)
hej fill in keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegkeäle nssw~ to avoid litigation No error
⇒ ‘Fill in’ means:– to write all the necessary .
(c) (d)
information on an official document, formats.
Correct Sentence– Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW no error nw~ Ùen
You must fill in the form. grammatical mener nw~ Dele: efJekeâuhe (d) mener nw~
Through virtue of Rima acted accordingly to her
10. 15.
(a) (a) (b)
the power vested in the President, mother's instructions No error
.
(b) (c) (d)
she dissolved the Parliament Ans. (b) : GheÙe&gkeäle sentence ceW accordingly keâe ØeÙeesie veneR
.
(c) nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ accordingly Skeâ adverb nw Fmekesâ yeeo to keâe
No error ØeÙeesie veneR efkeâÙee peelee yeefukeâ Fmekesâ mLeeve hej according keâe
(d) ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Dele: efJekeâuhe (b) mener nw~
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle sentence ceW efJekeâuhe (a) ceW $egefš nw Correct Sentence–
Rima acted according to her mother's instructions.
Through virtue of keâer peien,By virtue of keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee
peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ By virtue of Skeâ idiomatic nw~ The king abdicated the throne for favour
16.
⇒ By virtue of means:–Because of, in view of I got (a) (b)
this house by virtue of my job. of his brother No error
.
Correct Sentence– (c) (d)
By virtue of the power vested in the President, she Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘for’ keâer peien Preposition ‘in’
dissolved the Parliament.
keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ verb ‘abdicated’ kesâ yeeo ‘in’
Hena realized her mistake preposition keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
11.
(a) (b) Correct sentence :- The king abdicated the throne in
on the course of time No error the favour of his brother.
.
(c) (d) There has been a big tree in our garden
17. .
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle JeekeäÙe ceW ‘on’ preposition kesâ mLeeve hej (a) (b) (c)
‘in’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ in course of time Skeâ No error
idiomatic use nw~ (d)
pewmes:– In course of time he saw his mistake. Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes Sentence kesâ part-(a) ceW error nw, Gòeâ
In the course of time means:- meceÙe yeerleves kesâ meeLe part ceW 'There has been' kesâ mLeeve hej 'There is' ØeÙegòeâ efkeâÙee
Correct Sentence– pee mekesâiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ 'There is' used to say that some thing
Hena realized her mistake in the course of time. exists or happens Mes<e efJekeâuhe GheÙegòeâ answer veneR nw~ Dele:
If in case of emergency Correct Sentence- will be as – 'There is a big tree in
12. our garden'
(a) (b)
ring our toll free number No error Will you come with us for the cinema
. 18. ?
(c) (d) (a) (b) (c)
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW If in case keâe ØeÙeesie veneR No error
efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘If’ Deewj in case oesveeW Deueie Meyo nw If (d)
keâe ØeÙeesie present tense conditional sentence ceW efkeâÙee peelee Ans. (c) : efJekeâuhe (c) ceW for the cinema kesâ mLeeve hej to the
nw pees ÙeneB hej GheÙegkeäle veneR nw ÙeneB hej ‘in case’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee cinema keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ come with us (some
peeÙesiee~ body) kesâ yeeo preposition to Deelee nw~
Correct Sentence–
Correct Sentence–
Will you come with us to the cinema?
In case of emergency ring our toll free number.
Because of her illness she could not With means of rope ladders,
13. 19.
(a) (b) (a) (b)
finish her homework No error they scaled the wall No error
. .
(c) (d) (c) (d)

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2012 128 YCT

 Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW efJekeâuhe (a) ceW ‘with means How many kesâ yeeo from keâe veneR, yeefukeâ Fmekesâ mLeeve hej of
of’ kesâ mLeeve hej ‘By means of’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
By means of Skeâ phrase nw~ 'By means of' is generally Correct sentence–
used when describing a tool or mechanism. How many of you are attending the function
Correct Sentence– tomorrow?
By means of rope ladders, they scaled the wall. 25. This book is very much excellent.
The speaker gave an overview of the subject (a) very excellent (b) much excellent
20. (c) excellent (d) No improvement
(a) (b)
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW ‘very much excellent’ kesâ
by way of introduction No error
. mLeeve hej ‘excellent’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ
(c) (d)
excellent mean:- Very good/of high quality Dele: very
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW keâesF& correction keâer DeeJeMÙekeâlee much keâe ØeÙeesie superfluous nw~
veneR nw, Ùen JeekeäÙe Megæ nw~ Correct sentence–
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT : This book is excellent.
Directions (Q. No. 21 – 40) : Below each of the 26. My grandfather sat by the fire and regaled us
following sentences three possible substitutes are given with stories.
for the underlined part. If one of them is better than the (a) and told us (b) when he told
underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer- (c) as he said (d) No improvement
Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If
none of the substitutes improves the sentence, indicate Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle JeekeäÙe ceW improvement keâer DeeJeMÙekeâlee
(d) as your response on the Answer-Sheet. veneR nw efoÙee ieÙee JeekeäÙe grammatically Megæ nw~
21. Come away from there just now! 27. The Emperor rules above a vast empire.
(a) at this moment (b) right now (a) over (b) on
(c) as of now (d) No improvement (c) over and above (d) No improvement
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle JeekeäÙe ceW YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej ‘just now’ kesâ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW ‘above’ kesâ mLeeve hej
mLeeve hej ‘right now’ keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegkeäle nw~ preposition ‘over’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Rule verb
⇒ 'Right now' means:- DeYeer, legjvle kesâ yeeo preposition over keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
Correct sentence– ⇒ 'Rule over' means:- be in power/government
Come away from there right now! Correct sentence–
22. From morning till night he worked and sang. The Emperor rules over a vast empire.
(a) At morning and night 28. The village church stands near a spread mango
(b) Morning through night tree.
(c) Since morning to night (a) nearby a spreading (b) near a spreading
(d) No improvement (c) near spreading (d) No improvement
Ans. (d) : No improvement Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle JeekeäÙe ceW ‘near a spread’ kesâ mLeeve hej ‘near
23. All the furnitures need to be shifted outside. a spreading’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW
(a) furniture needs to be spread Skeâ verb nw pees efkeâ GheÙegkeäle veneR nw spreading Skeâ
(b) furnitures have to be
(c) furniture needs be adjective nw leLee tree (noun) keâer efJeMes<elee yeleelee nw~
(d) No improvement Correct sentence–
Ans. (a) : ‘furnitures need to be’ kesâ mLeeve hej ‘furniture The village church stands near a spreading mango tree.
needs to be’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ `furniture' Skeâ 29. These are the good rules to live on.
(a) good rules to live by
uncountable noun nw efpemekeâe plural veneR yeveeÙee peelee nw~
(b) good rules to live upon
Noun, furniture keâe ØeÙeesie countable leLee uncountable (c) good rules whereby to live
noun oesveeW ceW ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw peye Fmekeâe use nce (d) No improvement
countable noun ceW keâjles nQ, lees various types of furnitures Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW ‘the good rules to live
or a collection of furnitures keâe ØeÙeesie keâjles nQ~ on’ kesâ place hej ‘good rules to live by’ dkeâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee
Correct sentence– peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ peye sentence kesâ Devle ceW live keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee
All the furniture needs to be shifted outside.
peelee nw Gmekesâ yeeo on keâe ØeÙeesie ve neskeâj by keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee
24. How many from you are attending the function
tomorrow?
peelee nw~
(a) What many from you Correct sentence–
(b) Who among you all These are the good rules to live by.
(c) How many of you 30. Mina had met Raman only a few days ago.
(d) No improvement (a) before (b) previously
Ans. (c) :GheÙeg&keäle sentence ceW ‘How many from you’ kesâ (c) earlier (d) No improvement
mLeeve hej ‘How many of you’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ
BPSC AE Gen. English, 2012 129 YCT
 Ans. (d) :efoÙee ieÙee JeekeäÙe grammatically Megæ nw FmeceW efkeâmeer (c) repeatedly (d) No improvement
correction keâer DeeJeMÙekeâlee veneR nw~ Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle sentence ceW ‘in repeated-terms’ kesâ
31. I tried to talk him about his irrational fears. mLeeve hej repeatedly keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ verb, tell
(a) talk with him over (b) talk to him about keâer efJeMes<elee yeleeves kesâ efueS Adverb keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
(c) talk him regarding (d) No improvement Correct sentence–
Ans. (b) : Ghejeskeäle JeekeäÙe ceW ‘talk him about’ kesâ mLeeve hej Didn't mother tell you repeatedly to do your homework
first?
‘talk to him about’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee efoÙee ieÙee
37. Pay careful attention to what I am telling.
structure Fme Øekeâej nw– (a) to what I am saying (b) for what I tell
Note – Talk to Somebody about something keâe ØeÙeesie (c) to what I tell (d) No improvement
neslee nw~ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW ‘to what I am telling’ keâe
Correct sentence– ØeÙeesie grammatically {bie mes ieuele nw Fmekesâ mLeeve hej to What
I tried to talk to him about his irrational fears. I am saying keâe ØeÙeesie keâjvee GheÙegkeäle nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes
32. He whom tells lies, never succeeds. JeekeäÙe ceW what I am telling clause ceW ‘am’ helping verb kesâ
(a) who says lies (b) who talks lies
(c) who tells lies (d) No improvement yeeo telling mLeeve hej saying keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee~
Correct sentence–
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘whom tells lies’ kesâ mLeeve hej
Pay careful attention to what I am saying.
‘who tells lies’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ ÙeneB hej 38. Had you arrived a minute earlier you had seen
whom pronoun keâe ØeÙeesie objective case ceW efkeâÙee ieÙee nw pees the President.
GheÙegkeäle veneR nw ÙeneB hej subjective case (who) keâe ØeÙeesie (a) might seen (b) would have seen
efkeâÙee peeÙesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Fmekesâ yeeo verb, tells keâe ØeÙeesie ngDee nw~ (c) would see (d) No improvement
Correct sentence– Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW ‘had seen’ kesâ mLeeve hej
He who tells lies, never succeeds. ‘would have seen’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee Ùen structure
33. Was I in England now, I would have been conditional sentence hej DeeOeeefjle nw~
frozen. structure:- [Had + sub + v3.......sub + would have + v3]
(a) Were I in (b) If I was in Correct sentence–
(c) Had I been (d) No improvement Had you arrived a minute earlier you would have seen
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Was I in’ kesâ mLeeve hej ‘Had I the President.
been in’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee sentence 39. I sold my car for under its half cost.
conditional sentence nw Fmekeâe structure Fme Øekeâej nw~ (a) less than half price
(b) not half its cost
structure:-[Had+been (v3)- Sub+Would have +V3] (c) less than half its cost
Correct sentence– (d) No improvement
Had I been in England now, I would have been frozen.
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle sentence ceW ‘under its half cost’ keâer
34. I would not have suspected Ram had you not
informed me.
peien ‘less than half its cost’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee Fme
(a) had you never informed sentence ceW under means:- at a lower level than (kesâ
(b) had you not informed me about him Devleie&le) neslee nw pees efkeâ GheÙegkeäle veneR nw Fmekesâ mLeeve hej less
(c) had not you told me about him than (mes keâce) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
(d) No improvement Correct sentence–
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Had you not informed me’ I sold my car for less than half its cost.
keâer peien ‘Had you not informed me about him’ keâe ØeÙeesie 40. Rosy started at dawn then she must have
reached home by now.
efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej hetCe& DeLe& oslee nw~ (a) so she must have
Correct sentence– (b) and so she should have
I would not have suspected Ram had you not informed (c) then she would have
me about him. (d) No improvement
35. A gang of youngsters hatched a plan to scare Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW ‘then she must have’ kesâ mLeeve
their neighbours. hej ‘so she must have’ keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes sentence
(a) drew (b) planned ceW Reason (keâejCe) keâe expression JÙekeäle nes jne nw FmeefueS
(c) plotted (d) No improvement
conjunction 'then' kesâ mLeeve hej so keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee~
Ans. (d) : efoÙee ieÙee sentence Megæ nw keäÙeeWefkeâ ÙeneB hej Correct sentence–
Hatched keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegkeäle nw~ Hatched means: (verb)- To Rosy started at dawn so she must have reached home
form a plan in secret. by now.
36. Didn't mother tell you in repeated terms to do VOCABULARY
your homework first? Directions (Q. Nos. 41 to 50) : Below each of the
(a) continuously (b) always following words (in capital letters) four possible

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2012 130 YCT

substitutes are given. Choose the word which is nearest DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
in meaning to the word given in capital letters and Pandal – heb[eue (Úesše lecyet)
indicate your response on the Answer-Sheet. Crowd – YeerÌ[
41. WEE
Prayer – ØeeLe&vee
(a) Tiny (b) Weep
(c) Us (d) Everyone 47. PRESENTLY
(a) Immediately (b) Later
Ans. (a) : Wee : Deuhekeâeue, Deuhecee$ee, yengle Úesše
(c) Gifted (d) Slowly
Synonym – Tiny
Ans. (a) : Presently (legjvle/DeYeer)
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
synonym – Immediately
Weep – jesvee DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
Us – ncekeâes Later – yeeo ceW
Everyone – ØelÙeskeâ Gifted – iegCeer/ØeefleYeeMeeueer
42. PROPAGATE Slowly – Oeerjs-Oeerjs
(a) Propose (b) Breed
48. SIMULTANEOUS
(c) Introduce (d) Reduce
(a) Pretend (b) Concurrent
Ans. (b) : Propagate (Gieevee Ùee yeÌ{evee) (c) Same (d) Similar
synonym - grow or breed Ans. (b) : Simultaneous (mecekeâeefuekeâ)
DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw– synonym – concurrent
Propose – ØemleeJe jKevee DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYevve DeLe& osles nQ~
Introduce – henÛeeve keâjevee Pretend – yenevee keâjvee
Reduce – keâce keâjvee Same/Similar – meceeve
43. AUTHENTIC 49. TRANSGRESS
(a) Genuine (b) Automatic (a) Translate (b) Omit
(c) Reality (d) Truly (c) Trespass (d) Sinner
Ans. (a) : Authentic (efJeMJemeveerÙe) Ans. (c) : Transgress (GuuebIeve keâjvee)
Synonym – Genuine Synonym – trespass
DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw– DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
Automatic – mJeÛeeefuele Translate – DevegJeeo keâjvee
Reality – nkeâerkeâle Omit – Ûetkeâvee / efceševee
Truly – mener DeLeeX ceW Sinner – heeheer
44. FASTIDIOUS 50. VIGOUR
(a) Speedy (b) Finicky (a) Pride (b) Active
(c) Clean (d) Hardworking (c) Grace (d) Vitality
Ans. (b) : Fastidious – legvegkeâ efcepeepe Ans. (d) : Vigour (Glmeen)
synonym – Finicky synonym – Vitality
DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw– DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nQ–
Speedy – leer›e Pride – IeceC[ Ùee DeefYeceeve
Clean – meeHeâ Active – ef›eâÙeeMeerue
Hardworking – cesnveleer Grace – Devegkeâchee, oÙee
45. EMBLEM Directions (Q. Nos. 51 to 60) : Below each of the
(a) Balm (b) Sign following words (in capital letters) four possible
(c) Signature (d) Logo substitutes are given. Pick out the word that is most
nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capital
Ans. (d) : Emblem (Øeleerkeâ) letters and indicate your response on the Answer-Sheet.
synonym – logo 51. INSANE
DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw– (a) Sanity (b) Sane
Balm – ceuence (c) Sanitation (d) Rational
Sign – efÛevn Ans. (b) : Insane (heeieue/efJeef#ehle) Antonym 'sane'
Signature – nmlee#ej (mecePeoej) nesiee efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe Meyo efYevve nw–
46. PANDEMONIUM Sanity – yegefæceeveer
(a) Pandal (b) Crowd Sanitation – meheâeF/mJeemLÙe j#ee
(c) Chaos (d) Prayer Rational – leke&âmebiele
Ans. (c) : Pandemonium (keâesueenue) 52. KINDRED
synonym – chaos (a) Unkind (b) Rude

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2012 131 YCT

 (c) Unrelated (d) Coarse (c) Dormant (d) Redundant
Ans. (c) : Kindred (efjMlesoej Ùee DeelceerÙe) Antonym, Ans. (a) : Movable (heefjJele&veerÙe) Antonym, stationary
Unrelated (yeenjer Ùee Depeveyeer) DevÙe Meyo efYevve DeLe& osles nQ– (efmLej, "nje ngDee) efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe Meyo keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
Unkind – oÙeenerve/og° Stationery – he$e uesKeve keâeiepe
Rude – DeefMe°/GoC[ Dormant – meghle, efveef<›eâÙe
Coarse – ceesše/DeefMe° Redundant – pe™jle mes pÙeeoe, heâeuelet
53. QUELL 60. LYRICALLY
(a) Foment (b) Supress (a) Sedately (b) Ebulliently
(c) Repress (d) Organise (c) Prosaically (d) Normally
Ans. (a) : Quell (Meeble keâjvee) Antonym, Foment (Gòesefpele Ans. (c) : Lyrically (MeyoeW kesâ efnmeeye mes) Antonym,
keâjvee) DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– prosaically (ÙeLeeleLÙe {bie mes) efoÙes ieÙes MeyoeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw–
Supress – oyeevee Sedately – iebYeerjlee mes
Repress – jeskeâvee, kegâÛeue osvee Normally – meeceevÙe ™he mes
Organise – DeeÙeesefpele keâjvee Ebulliently – (Deefle Øemevve/Glmeeefnle)
54. RATIONAL SELECTING WORDS
(a) Distressed (b) Illogical Directions (Q. Nos. 61 to 80) : Each of the following
(c) Unsatisfactory (d) Hopeless sentences is given with blank space(s) to be filled in with
Ans. (b) : Rational efJeJeskeâhetCe&, meÛesleve, leke&âmebiele, appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for
each sentence. Choose the correct alternative.
Antonym Illogical- Deleeefke&âkeâ, DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ DeLe& Fme Øekeâej 61. The secret should ---------- you and me.
nQ– (a) remain among (b) remain about
Distressed – hejsMeeve, JÙeefLele, Goeme (c) stay in (d) remain between
Unsatisfactory – Demevlees<epevekeâ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW efjkeäle mLeeve hej efJekeâuhe (d)
Hopeless – efvejeMe (remain between) keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegkeäle nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes
55. PROPEL JeekeäÙe ceW oes JÙeefkeäleÙeeW keâer ÛeÛee& keâer ieF& nw oes JÙeefkeäleÙeeW Ùee JemlegDeeW
(a) Improper (b) Driverless kesâ efueS nce between 'preposition' keâe use keâjles nQ leLee oes
(c) Check (d) Push mes DeefOekeâ JÙeefkeäleÙeeW keâe JeCe&ve Deiej Skeâ ner sentence ceW ngDee nw
Ans. (c) : Propel (Øesefjle keâjvee, Deeies yeÌ{evee) Antonym lees nce among keâe ØeÙeesie keâjles nQ~ Correct sentence– The
check (DeÛeevekeâ jeskeâvee) DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ DeLe& efYevve nw– secret should remain between you and me.
Improper – DevegefÛele, DevegheÙegkeäle 62. ---------- responsible for this tragedy.
Driverless – Ûeeuekeâ jefnle (a) Only me alone (b) I am solely
Push – Ûeueevee, Oekesâuevee (c) Me alone is (d) Myself alone is
56. OBSOLETE Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW efjkeäle mLeeve hej nce I am
(a) Futuristic (b) Reputed solely keâe ØeÙeesie keâjWies keäÙeeWefkeâ peye efkeâmeer sentence keâer Meg®Deele
(c) Old (d) Modern nesleer nw lees meyemes henues (Nominative case) mes sentence keâer
Ans. (d) : Obsolete (DeØeÛeefuele) Antonym, modern Meg®Deele keâjles nQ efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW subject (Nominative
(DeeOegefvekeâ) DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw– case) kesâJeue efJekeâuhe (b) 'I am solely' ner nw~ Dele: efJekeâuhe (b)
Futuristic– YeefJe<ÙeJeeoer mener nw~ Correct sentence– I am solely responsible for
Reputed – efJeKÙeele this tragedy.
57. FOREIGNER 63. I do not care --------- you go or stay!
(a) Indian (b) Inside (a) whether (b) weather
(c) Native (d) Alien (c) if (d) even
Ans. (c) : Foreigner (efJeosMeer)Antonym, Native (cetue Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW Keeueer mLeeve ceW whether keâe
efveJeemeer) DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ DeLe& efYevve nw– ØeÙeesie GheÙegkeäle nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ conjunction 'whether' kesâ yeeo
Inside – Deboj, Yeerlejer Yeeie ‘or’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ Correct sentence– I do not
Alien – efJeosMeer, Øeefleketâue care whether you go or stay!
58. NUTRITIOUS 64. You -------- listen -------- carry out orders.
(a) Fast food (b) Trash (a) either, or (b) neither, or
(c) Unhealthy (d) Bold (c) neither, nor (d) either, nor
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence kesâ efjkeäle mLeeveeW ceW Neither----
Ans. (c) : Nutritious (heewef°keâ) Antonym, unhealthy
nor keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Neither ----- nor is used
(DemJemLe, jesieer) DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw– when the choice is negative or the person wants to say
Trash – Kejeye keâjvee, jodoer that more than one thing is not true. Dele: complete
Bold – meenmeer sentence is as follows–
59. MOVABLE 'you neither listen nor carry out the orders'.
(a) Stationary (b) Stationery Mes<e efJekeâuhe nQ–
BPSC AE Gen. English, 2012 132 YCT
 Either------ or, is used to make a positive decision (c) about right (d) received now
between two or more things. Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle sentence ceW blank space keâer peien
65. No one is going to believe --------- . suitable word ‘taken prematurely’ keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ
(a) about you (b) you efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe Meyo sentence kesâ sense (YeeJe) kesâ
(c) in you (d) for you Devegmeej GheÙegkeäle veneR nw~ Dele: efJekeâuhe (b) ner right Answer nw~
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle sentence ceW efoÙes ieÙes (blank) space kesâ Correct Sentence– The decision to wind up business
mLeeve hej ‘you’ keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ grammar kesâ rule kesâ was taken prematurely.
Devegmeej verb kesâ yeeo direct object keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw leLee Deiej 72. Stone walls do not a prison -------- .
pronoun keâe ØeÙeesie ngDee nw lees objective case keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ (a) made (b) construe
Correct Sentence– No one is going to believe you. (c) wear (d) make
66. ----------- your letter dated 26.03.2012, we Ans. (d) : ef o Ùes ieÙes ef j keäl e mLeeve ceW make keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee
regret to state that we reject your offer. peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee sentence Skeâ complete proverb nw~
(a) As per (b) With reference to Correct Sentence– Stone walls do not a prison make.
(c) In replying (d) About 73. --------- many people at the party.
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW efjkeäle mLeeve hej ‘with (a) There were (b) There was
reference to’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘with reference (c) that was (d) Here were
to’ keâer meaning ‘kesâ meboYe& ceW’ nesleer nw pees Fme sentence ceW Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence kesâ blank space keâes efJekeâuhe
YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej GheÙegkeäle nw DevÙe Meyo DevegheÙegkeäle nw~ (a) ceW Øeoòe phrase– `There were' keâes ØeÙegkeäle keâj Fill up
Correct Sentence– With reference to your letter efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ when we refer to plural objects in the
dated 26.03.2012, we regret to state that we reject your present tense we use `There are', However to express
offer. this in past simple tense we use 'There were'.
67. He is -------- praise and blame. Dele: complete sentence Fme Øekeâej nesiee–
(a) equally indifferent to (b) equal to `There were many people at the party'.
(c) the same to (d) likewise to Mes<e efJekeâuhe GheÙegkeäle Gòej veneR nQ~
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle sentence ceW efjkeäle mLeeve kesâ mLeeve hej 74. ----------- apples have you sold?
‘equally indifferent to’ keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes (a) How much (b) How many
(c) What amount (d) What kind
GheÙeg&keäle sentence ceW oes opposite MeyoeW keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw~
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle sentence ceW Keeueer mLeeve hej ‘How
Correct Sentence– He is equally indifferent to praise
and blame. many’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW
68. You must not only speak out --------- act against apples (noun) keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw pees efkeâ countable
corruption. noun nw, countable noun kesâ efueS How many keâe ØeÙeesie
(a) but take (b) and also efkeâÙee peelee nw~
(c) but also (d) but Correct Sentence– How many apples have you sold?
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW efjkeäle mLeeve hej ‘but also’ keâe 75. Fit words are better -------- fine ones.
ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ GheÙegkeäle sentence ceW Not only keâe (a) over (b) although
use efkeâÙee ieÙee nw~ ‘Not only’ kesâ yeeo ‘but also’ (c) than (d) and
conjunction keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ Ans. (c) : ef o Ùes ieÙes sentence ceW blank space keâer peien than
Correct Sentence– You must not only speak out but keâe ØeÙees
i e ef k eâÙee peeÙes i ee keäÙ eeW e f k eâ ef o Ùes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘better’
also act against corruption. comparative degree keâe ØeÙees i e ef k eâÙee ieÙee nw~ comparative
69. This is a quotation ---------- Milton. degree kes â yeeo nces M ee comparison keâjves hej ‘than’ keâe ØeÙeesie
(a) of (b) in efkeâÙee peelee nw~
(c) as (d) from Correct Sentence– Fit words are better than fine ones.
Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle sentence ceW blank space keâer peien 76. He applied for leave ----------- it was not
‘from’ preposition keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ granted.
grammatically {bie mes quotation from author keâe use efkeâÙee (a) and (b) but
peelee nw~ (c) though (d) although
Correct Sentence– This is a quotation from Milton. Ans. (b) : GheÙeg & k eäle sentence ceW ef o Ùes ieÙes efjkeäle mLeeve keâer peien
70. Nothing will come -----------. suitable conjunction 'but' keâe ØeÙees i e ef k eâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes
(a) of nothing (b) from nothing ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe Meyo sentence kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej GheÙegkeäle
(c) through nothing (d) with nothing veneR nw~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW ‘of nothing’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee Correct Sentence– He applied for leave but it was not
peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee sentence idiomatic sense ceW use granted.
efkeâÙee ieÙee nw–Nothing will come of Nothing. 77. Siva has resigned ----------- .
Correct Sentence– Nothing will come of nothing. (a) owing to ill health (b) for illness
(c) from ill health (d) for ill health
71. The decision to wind up business was ------- .
(a) took early (b) taken prematurely

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2012 133 YCT

 Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW Keeueer mLeeve kesâ mLeeve hej 83. Put on hold
‘Owing to ill health’ keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes (a) Carried out (b) Continued
(c) Demanded (d) Deferred
sentence ceW keâejCe (Reason) keâe YeeJe express efkeâÙee ieÙee nw
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘Put on hold’ keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej
FmeefueS suitable preposition 'owing to' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
Correct Sentence– Siva has resigned owing to ill
nw–
health Put on hold– deferred (mLeefiele keâjvee) ØeMve ceW efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe
78. ---------- permitted to leave now? efJekeâuhe keâe DeLe& Fmemes efYevve nw–
(a) Should I be (b) Can I be Carried out – DevegkeâjCe keâjvee
(c) Are I (d) May I be 84. Silver lining
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW blank space keâer peien (a) Ornamental (b) Good looking
‘May I be’ keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW (c) Good news (d) Bad news
Permission uesves keâer yeele keâer ieÙeer nw~ Permission uesves Ùee osves Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle ØeMve ceW efoÙee ieÙee Phrase Idiomatic nw
kesâ efueS Modal Auxiliary May keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ efpemekeâe meaning Fme Øekeâej nw– Silver lining-Good news
Correct Sentence– May I be permitted to leave now? (MegYe, Meiegve) efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe efJekeâuhe suitable Gòej veneR nw~
79. All matter is ------------ . 85. Pour oil over troubled waters
(a) indestructible (b) fictitious (a) Incite (b) Pacify
(c) minimal (d) destructible (c) Agitate (d) Go slow
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW blank space keâer peien Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW ‘Pour oil over troubled
‘indestructible’ (DeveMJej/DeefJeveeMeer) keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee waters’ keâe use Skeâ idiomatic nw efpemekeâe meaning Fme Øekeâej
keäÙeeWefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuhe sentence kesâ expression kesâ Devegmeej nw–Pour oil over troubled waters– pacify (cebo/Meevle nes
GheÙegkeäle veneR nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw– peevee)~ efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe ceW DevÙe Meyo keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
Fictitious– keâeuheefvekeâ/Pet"e Incite – Gòesefpele keâjvee, Gkeâmeevee
Minimal – vÙetvelece, Deuhelece, Deeflemet#ceJeeo Agitate – Deeboesueve keâjvee, Gòesefpele keâjvee
80. There are numerous strings ------- your lute. Go slow – Oeerjs-Oeerjs keâece keâjvee, Oeerjs Ûeuees
(a) for (b) from 86. All in a day's work
(c) on (d) in (a) Common routine (b) One day's work
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW Keeueer mLeeve keâer peien ‘In’ (c) Daily labour (d) Pay day
keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW DevÙe Ans. (a) : ‘All in a day's work’ Skeâ Idiom phrase nw
preposition GheÙegkeäle veneR nw~ strings kesâ yeeo preposition efpemekeâer meaning Fme Øekeâej nw–
‘in’ keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ All in a day's work– common routine (meeceevÙe efoveÛeÙee&)
Correct Sentence– There are numerous strings in ef oÙes ieÙes DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYevve nw~
your lute. 87. Take it or leave it
Directions (Q. Nos. 81 to 90) : Below each of the (a) Option to reject (b) Ultimatum
following underlined idioms or phrases four possible (c) Optional choice (d) Choose freely
substitutes (words or group of words) are given. Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘Take it or leave it’ Skeâ
Select the one which is most nearly the same to the Phrase nw efpemekeâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
given idiom or phrase. Take it or leave it– Optional choice (Jewkeâefuhekeâ ÛegveeJe)
81. Live and let live
(a) Live a full life leLee efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
(b) Enjoy one's life and let others enjoy theirs Ultimatum – Debeflece ÛesleeJeveer Ùee Mele&
(c) Enjoy one's life at all cost Choose freely – mJelev$elee hetJe&keâ ÛegveeJe
(d) Be lenient 88. Leave no stone unturned
Ans. (b) : efoÙee ieÙee Phrase ‘Live and let live’ Skeâ (a) Work hard (b) Do field work
‘idiomatic phrase’ nw efpemekeâe DeLe&– ‘Enjoy one's life and (c) Make all effort (d) make no progress
let others enjoy theirs’ nesiee~ efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe efJekeâuhe GheÙegkeäle Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle ØeMve ceW ‘Leave no stone unturned’ Skeâ
DeLe& veneR nw~ idiom nw efpemekeâe meaning Fme Øekeâej nw–
82. Hidden agenda Leave no stone unturned– Make all effort (hetCe& ØeÙelve
(a) Ulterior motive keâjvee, Yejmekeâ ØeÙeeme keâjvee)
(b) Lost information Dele: efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe efJekeâuhe DevegheÙegòeâ nw~
(c) Not fully written agenda 89. Steer clear of
(d) Unclear agenda
(a) Sail away (b) Paddle in water
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle Idiom – `Hidden agenda' keâe DeLe& – (c) Pull away (d) Stay away from
Ulterior motive (ieghle GodosMÙe) nw DevÙe efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuhe Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes ØeMve ceW ‘Steer clear of’ Skeâ idiomatic
GheÙegkeäle veneR nw~ phrase nw efpemekeâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw–
BPSC AE Gen. English, 2012 134 YCT
 Steer clear of – Stay away from someone or something Ans. (c) : Ghejeskeäle group of words. ‘That which is born
(otj jnvee) efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe efJekeâuhe GheÙegkeäle DeLe& veneR nw keäÙeeWefkeâ before time’– kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe (c) Premature (meceÙe mes henues
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw– pevcee, DemeeceefÙekeâ, DemeceÙe) GheÙegkeäle Meyo nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe keâe
Pull away – heerÚs nš peevee DeLe&–
Sail away – leave, depart Prenatal – pevce mes hetJe& keâe
90. Never say die Stillborn – hewoe nesles ner efceš peeves Jeeuee, ce=lepeele
(a) Never give up
(b) Utter inauspicious words 96. The principle of living and working for the
(c) Avoid discussion of death interest of others
(d) Accept death (a) Alterego (b) Egotism
(c) Voluntarism (d) Altruism
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle ØeMve ceW ‘Never say die’ Skeâ idiomatic
Ans. (d) : efoÙee ieÙee Phrase – ‘The principle of living
phrase nw efpemekeâer meaning Fme Øekeâej nw–
and working for the interest of others’ kesâ efueS GheÙegkeäle
Never say die – Never give up (efnccele cele nejes) Dele: ØeMve
ceW efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe efJekeâuhe suitable veneR nw~ ef Jekeâuhe (d) Altruism (hejeshekeâeefjlee) nw~
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
Directions (Q. Nos. 91 to 100) : Below each of the
following underlined definitions four possible substitutes Egotism – Denbkeâej, Deefmcelee
(words) are given. Choose the correct word which may Voluntarism – mJewefÛÚkeâ, SsefÛÚkeâlee
closely fit each definition. 97. Shortened form or version
91. One who doubts (a) Amalgamation (b) Assimilation
(a) Doubtful (b) Debater (c) Abbreviation (d) Homonym
(c) Sceptic (d) Pessimist Ans. (c) : Ghejeskeäle group of words. ‘Shortened form or
Ans. (c) : Ghejeskeäle group of words – ‘One who doubts’ version’– kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe (c) Abbreviation (mebef#ehleerkeâjCe)
means:- Sceptic (DeefJeMJeemeer) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâe DeLe& GheÙegkeäle Meyo nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe keâe DeLe&–
Fme Øekeâej nw– Amalgamation – meefceßeCe, efceßeCe, efceueehe
Pessimist – efvejeMeeJeeoer Assimilation – meceeJesMe, Deelcemeele
Debater – efJeJeeoer (leke&â keâjves Jeeuee) Homonym – efYevveeLe&keâ Meyo, Ùecekeâ, nceveece
92. One who manages funerals 98. The study or collection of stamps
(a) Overreacher (b) Funeralist (a) Philology (b) Philately
(c) Grave digger (d) Undertaker (c) Philosophy (d) Physiology
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes group of words kesâ efueS possible Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes group of words – ‘The study or
substitute Fme Øekeâej nw– collection of stamps’ kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe (b) Philately (efškeâš
One who manages funerals – Undertaker (ØeÙelve keâjves meb«enCe) GheÙegkeäle Meyo nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&–
Jeeuee Ùee DevlÙesef° ØeyebOekeâ) DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâe DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw– Philology – Yee<eeMeem$e
Funeralist – (oen mebmkeâej, oen mebmkeâej keâjves Jeeuee) Philosophy – oMe&veMeem$e, OeejCee, efmeæevle
Grave digger– (keâyeÇ Keesoves Jeeuee) Physiology – Mejerj ef›eâÙee efJe%eeve
93. A person who loves only himself 99. To look through something again
(a) Self-lover (b) Narcissist (a) Review (b) Renew
(c) Namesake (d) Optimist (c) Redo (d) Relive
Ans. (b) : Ghejeskeäle group of words. ‘A person who loves Ans. (a) : Ghejeskeäle group of words. ‘To look through
only himself’ – kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe (b) Narcissist (Deelceceesner) something again’– kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe Review (meceer#ee, hegve:
Meyo GheÙegkeäle nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– hejer#eCe keâjvee) GheÙegkeäle Meyo nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe keâe DeLe&–
Namesake – (nceveece) Renew – ogyeeje Meg™ keâjvee, efmejs mes yeveevee
Optimist – (DeeMeeJeeoer) Redo – oesyeeje keâjvee, cejccele keâjvee
94. Belonging to the working class Relive – efheâj mes DevegYeJe keâjvee, efheâj mes peervee, jenle
(a) Plebeian (b) Patrician 100. Related to space
(c) Aristocrat (d) Nobleman (a) Special (b) Spatial
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes group of words – ‘Belonging to the (c) Aeronautical (d) Agronomical
working class’ kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe Plebeian (meeOeejCe Ùee Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes group of words – ‘Related to space’
ceecetueer) GheÙegkeäle nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nw– kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe Spatial (mLeeefvekeâ, DeekeâeMeerÙe) GheÙegkeäle Meyo nw~
Patrician – kegâueerve, mebYeüeble, DeefYepeele
DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe&–
Aristocrat – Deceerj, "ešyeeš Jeeuee
Special – Keeme keâeÙe&›eâce, efJeMes<e, efJeefMe°
95. That which is born before time
Aeronautical – Jewceeefvekeâ, JeeÙegÙeeve efJeÅee Ùegkeäle
(a) Prenatal (b) Antenatal
(c) Premature (d) Stillborn Agronomical – ke=âef<e-efJe%eeve mecyevOeer, ke=âef<eMeem$eerÙe

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2012 135 YCT

 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2012
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER-III)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Exam Date : 2 Dec., 2012

1. Cardamom Hills are situated in Earth Day is an annual event celebrated around the
(a) Eastern Ghats (b) Himalayan Range world on April 22 to demonstrate support for
(c) Western Ghats (d) Central Ghats environmental protection. First celebrated 1970, it now
Ans. (c) : Cardamom Hills are situated in Western includes events coordinated globally by the Earth Day
Ghats. Cardamom Hills are mountain range of Network in more than 193 countries.
Southern India a part of the South-West Kerala & No-Tobacco Day – May 31 is World No - Tobacco
Southwest Tamil Nadu in India Day, an annual awareness day sponsored by the World
Cardamom Hills from Periyar Lake is in Kerala. The Health Organization.
Western Ghats and Periyar sub-cluster including the 4. National Maritime Day falls on
Cardamom Hills, are UNESCO World Heritage sites. (a) 5th April (b) 5th June
Cardamom Hills are highest point 269m – Anamudi. (c) 5th October (d) 5th September
Eastern Ghats – The Eastern Ghats are a Ans. (a) : 5th April – The National Maritime Day was
discontinuous range of mountains along India's eastern first celebrated on April 5, 1964. The Saga of India
coast. The Eastern Ghats run from the Ayodhya hills in shipping first started on April 5, 1919. When the SS
the state of West Bengal and pass through Odisha,
Loyalty, the first ship & the SC India steam Navigation
Andhra Pradesh to Tamil Nadu in the south passing
Company Ltd. travelled from Mumbai to the United
some parts of Karnataka as well as Telangana.
Kingdom (London). National Maritime Day is
Himalayan Range– The Himalayas, or Himalaya, is a
celebrated on April 5 every year.
mountain range in Asia separating the plains of Indian
5th June – World Environment Day, hosted by
subcontinent from the Tibetan Plateau. The range has
many of earth's highest peaks, including the highest, Columbia in 2020, is the most renowned day for
Mount Everest, at the border between Nepal and environmental action. Since 1974, it has been
China. Elevation – 8,849m. celebrated every year 5 June : engaging governments,
Central Ghats– Central Ghats are situated in Madhya businesses, celebrities and citizens to focus their
Pradesh & the edge of Narmada river. efforts on a pressing environmental issue.
5th October – World Teacher's Day is observed
2. Indira Gandhi International Airport is in
(a) Mumbai (b) Kolkata globally on 5th October since 1994. The day provides
(c) Chennai (d) New Delhi the occasion to celebrate the teaching profession world
wide, take stock of achievements, and draw attention
Ans. (d) : New Delhi– New Delhi, The National
to the voices of teachers, who are at the best of efforts
Capital of India. It is situated in the north-central part
to attain the global education target of leaving no one
of the country of the west bank of the Yamuna river,
behind.
adjacent to and just south of Delhi city (old Delhi) and
5th September – To mark the birth anniversary of
within the Delhi National Capital Territory.
On 12th December 1911, at the historic Delhi Durbar, President Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, India
the George V, the Emperor of the British Empire celebrates Teacher's Day on September 5. It is said that
proclaimed the shifting of capital of India from when Dr. Radhakrishnan became President (1962-
Calcutta to Delhi. 1967) his students and friends wished to celebrate his
birthday as teachers day.
3. 20th August is celebrated as
(a) Earth Day 5. 31st May is observed as
(b) Sadbhavana Divas (a) World No-Smoking Day
(c) No-Tobacco Day (b) World Environmental Day
(d) Secularism Day (c) Journalists Day
Ans. (b) : Sadbhavana Divas– Every year on 20th (d) World Food Day
August, the birth anniversary of Rajiv Gandhi is Ans. (a) : World No Smoking Day– World Health
celebrated as Sadbhavana Divas or Harmony Day. This Organization celebrates World No Smoking Day every
year on 20th August 2021, we are going to celebrate year on 31st May. The Day is being celebrates to draw
the 77th birth anniversary of former Prime Minister global attention to the tobacco epidemic including the
Rajiv Gandhi. preventable death and disease it causes.

BPSC AE (GS), 2012 136 YCT

 Indian Journalists Day – This Day is celebrated on 9. The most southerly point of South America is
17th November every year. During 1920, the Writer (a) Cape Horn
Walter Lippmann and an American Philosopher John (b) Cape of Good Hope
Dewey, exchanged their views over the role of (c) Cape Comorin
journalism in a democratic society. This was the time (d) Cape Howe
when modern journalism was coming into picture. Ans. (a) : Cape Horn– Cabo dc Hornos, pronounced
World Food Day – It is celebrated every year world is the southernmost headland of Southern Chile, and is
wide on 16 October to commemorate the date of the located on the small Horns' Island. Although not the
founding of the United Nations Food and Agriculture most southern point of South America (which are the
Organization in 1945. The day is celebrated, widely by Diego Ramirez Islands) Cape Horn mark the northern
many other organizations concerned with hunger and boundary of the Drake passage and marks where the
food security, including the World Food Programme Atlantic and pacific oceans meet.
and the International Fund for Agricultural Cape of Good Hope– The Cape of Good Hope is a
Development. rocky headland on the Atlantic coast of the Cape
6. What mineral is the basic ingredient of glass? Peninsula in South Africa.
(a) Fluorite (b) Borax 10. Which celestial body is sometimes said to be
(c) Gypsum (d) Silica made of cheese?
Ans. (d) : Silica – Silica is the major ingredient in (a) The Jupiter (b) The Moon
virtually all types of glass including containers, Flat (c) The Sun (d) The Star
Glass, Lighting Glass, Tableware, TV Tubes and Ans. (b) : The Moon– Before that time, and since, the
Screens, Decorative Glass, Fibre Glass, Optical Glass idea of the moon. Actually being made of cheese has
and Vacuum flasks. appeared as a humorous conceit in much of children's
Fluorite – Fluorite is the mineral form of calcium popular culture with astronomical themes and in adult
fluorite CaF2. It belongs to the Halide minerals. It references to it.
crystallizes in isometric cubic habit, although The Sun – The sun is the star at the center of the solar
octahedral and more complex isometric forms are not system. It is nearly perfect sphere of hot plasma,
uncommon. The Mohs scale of minerals hardness, heated to incandescence by nuclear fusion reactions in
based on scratch hardness comparison defines value 4 its core, radiating the energy mainly as visible light
as fluorite. and infrared radiation. It is by far the most important
Borax – Borax also known as sodium borate, sodium source of energy for life on Earth.
tetra borate, or disodium tetra borate, is a compound 11. The largest island is
with formula Na2H4B4O9.n H2O or, more precisely, (a) Greenland
[Na.t m]2 [B4O5(OH)2 4]. (b) Ireland
Gypsum– Gypsum is a soft sulfate mineral composed (c) Alexander Island
of calcium sulfate dehydrate, with the chemical (d) Andaman Islands
formula CaSO4.2H2O. It is widely mined and is used as Ans. (a) : Greenland – Greenland is the world's
a fertilizer and as the main constituent in many forms largest island, located between the Arctic and Atlantic
of plaster, blackboard/sidewalk chalk and drywall. oceans, east of the Canadian Arctic Archipelago, Like
7. The normal temperature of human body is Faroe Islands, it is an autonomous territory within the
(a) 98.4 K (b) 98.4 0F kingdom of Denmark.
0
(c) 97.4 F (d) 98.6 0F Ireland– Ireland is an Island in the North Atlantic. It is
0
Ans. (d) : 98.6 F – The average normal body separated from Great Britain to its east by the north
temperature is generally accepted as 98.6 0F (370C). channel, the Irish sea, and St. George's channel. Ireland
Some studies have shown that the "normal" body is the second-largest of the British Independent-states,
temperature can have a wide range, from 970F the third-largest in Europe, and the twentieth - largest
(360.10C) to 990F(37.20C). on Earth.
8. An evergreen tree that can grow over 100m is Alexander Island - It is the largest island of
(a) redwood (b) greenwood Antarctica. It lies in the west of Palmer Land,
(c) teakwood (d) sandalwood Antarctic Peninsula from which is separated by
Ans. (a) : Redwood– In botany, an evergreen is a Marguerite.
plant which has foliage that remains green and Andaman Island- It lies in the north east of Indian
functional through move than one growing season. Ocean
This also pertains to plants that retain their foliage only 12. JD is the currency of which of the following
in warm– climates, and contrasts with deciduous countries?
plants, which completely lose their foliage during the (a) China (b) Israel
winter or dry season. (c) Jordan (d) Korea
BPSC AE (GS), 2012 137 YCT
 Ans. (c) : Jordan– The Jordanian Dinar (Arabic code Gambling– Gambling is the wasting of money or
– JD) has been the currency of Jordan since 1950. The something of value in an event with an uncertain
Dinar is divided into 10 Dirham, 100 Irish (Also called outcome, with the primary intent of winning money or
piaster's) or 1000 fulus. The Central Bank of Jordan material goods. Gambling thus requires three elements
commenced operations in 1964 and became the sole to be present consideration, risk, and a prize.
issuer of Jordanians currency, in place of the Jordan 16. The glow caused by sunlight reflected by the
currency Board. earth into the moon is
The Jordanian Dinar is also widely used alongside the (a) earthshine (b) moonlight
Israel Shekel in the West Bank. (c) ultraviolet light (d) infrared light
13. Who is the Minister of Science and Ans. (a) : Earthshine– A glow on the dark part of the
Technology? crescent moon, caused by sunlight reflected from earth
(a) Manmohan Singh to the moon.
(b) Vilasrao Deshmukh Lunar cycle– The approximately 29 day cycle from
(c) Vasantrao Patil one new moon to the next, when the moon is
(d) Pranab Mukherji illuminated from different angles based on its
Ans. (b) : Vilasrao Deshmukh was the science and alignment with the sun and earth.
technology minister in the Union Government from 19 Ultraviolet light– Ultraviolet light is a type of
electromagnetic radiation that mark black-light posters
July 2011 to 14 Aug 2012 and in present 2021 this
glow, and is responsible for summer tans and
ministry is held by Dr. Harsh Vardhan.
sunburns. However, too much exposure to UV
14. The headquarters of ISRO is situated in which radiation is damaging to living tissue.
of the following cities?
17. The game of basketball was invented by
(a) Thiruvandanthapuram
(a) Blue Jeans (b) James Naismith
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Luther Burbank (d) James Ritty
(c) Sriharikota
Ans. (b) : James Naismith– The history of basketball
(d) Delhi
began with its invention in 1891 in spring field,
Ans. (b) : Bengaluru– Bengaluru is known as the Massachusetts by Canadian physical education,
Silicon Valley of India because of its position as the instructor
nation's leading software exporter. A demographically James Naismith as a less injury prone sport than
diverse city, Bengaluru is a major economic and football. Naismith was a 31 year old graduate student
cultural hub and the fastest growing major metropolis when he created the indoor sport to keep athletes
in India. indoors during the winters.
ISRO– The Indian Space Research Organisation or is 18. Who invented and marketed blue jeans?
the National Space Agency of the Republic of India, (a) Foucault Jean
headquartered in Bengaluru. It operates under (b) Levi Strauss
Department of Space which is directly overseen by the (c) George Eastmen
Prime Minister of India while Chairman of ISRO acts (d) Joel Houghton
as executive of DOS as well. Ans. (b) : Levi Strauss– Levi Strauss had moved to
Founder : Vikram Sarabhai San Francisco during the 1853 California 'gold rush' to
Founded : 15 August 1969 start a western branch of his family's dry goods
Director : Kailasavadivoo Sivah business. He was a German immigrant to the USA,
Sriharikota– Sriharikota is a barrier Island off the Bay moving to New York in 1851 to work with his brother.
of Bengal Coast located in the Shar Project settlement Levi sold many products. One of which was a sturdy
of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh Pradesh. It imported cotton fabric, denim.
houses the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, one the two 19. World Wide Web was first invented by the
satellite launch centres in India. scientist
15. Which one of the following is not an indoor (a) Tim Berners-Lee
game? (b) Christiaan N. Barnard
(a) Chess (b) Trekking (c) Joel Glickman
(c) Role playing (d) Gambling (d) Dean Kamen
Ans. (b) : Trekking– Is a long, vigorous wall, usually Ans. (a) : Tim Berners-Lee– Tim Berners-Lee, a
on trails or footpaths in the country side. Walking for British scientist, invented the World Wide Web in
pleasure developed in Europe during the eighteenth 1989, while working at CERN. The web was originally
century. Religious pilgrimages have existed much conceived and developed to meet the demand for
longer but they involve walking long distance for a automated information-sharing between scientists in
spiritual purpose associated with specific religions. universities and institutes around the world.

BPSC AE (GS), 2012 138 YCT

 The first website at CERN and in the world was Grapes– A grapes is a fruit, botanically a berry,
dedicated to the world wide web project itself. Grapes can be eaten fresh as table Grapes Juice, Jelly,
Name of CERN is derived from "European Council for Grape seed extract, raisin, Vinegar and Grape Seed Oil.
Nuclear Research". 24. Which of the following games takes literally
20. An instrument that measures air pressure is long time?
(a) anemometer (b) thermometer (a) Field hockey
(c) barometer (d) lactometer (b) Kabaddi
Ans. (c) : Barometer– A barometer is a scientific (c) Football
instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure, also (d) Basketball
called barometric pressure. Ans. (c) : Football–Football, more commonly known
Lactometer– Lactometer is a small glass instrument as football or soccer, is a team sport played with a
that is used to test the purity of the milk. It works on spherical bale between two team of 11 players in over
the principle of specific gravity of milk. It measures 200 countries and dependences, making it the world's
the relative density of milk with respect to water. If the most popular sport.
specific gravity of a sample of milk within the A match lasts for two equal halves of 45 minutes.
approved ranges, the milk is pure. Field hockey– Field Hockey is a widely played team
Anemometer- It is a device used for measuring wind sport of the hockey family. The game can be played on
speed and direction. grass, watered turf, artificial turf or synthetic field, as
Thermometer- It is a device that measures well as an Indoor boarded surface. Each team plays
temperature or a temperature gradient. with ten field players and a goalkeeper.
21. Velocity of sound is higher in which of the 25. Who was the first woman Prime Minister in
following medium? the world?
(a) Liquids (b) Solids (a) Sirimavo Bandaranaike
(c) Vacuum (d) Gases (b) Benazir Bhutto
(c) Margaret Thatcher
Ans. (b) : Solids– Sound travels fastest through solids.
(d) Indira Gandhi
This is because molecules in solid medium are much
closer together than those in a liquid or gas, allowing Ans. (a) : Sirimavo Bandaranaike(Srilanka) – On 21
sound waves to travel more quickly through it in fact, July 1960, following a landslide victory for the
sound waves travel over 17 times faster through steel freedom party. Bandaranaike was sworn in as the first
than through air. female Prime Minister in the World, as well as
Vacuum– Space in which there is no matter or in Minister of Defence and External Affairs.
which the pressure is so low that any particles in the Born – 17 April 1916 (Rathapura).
space do not effect any process being carried on there. Died – 10 October 2000 (Colombo).
Indira Gandhi– Indira Priyadarshini Gandhi was an
22. Which of the following is known as the heat
Indian Politician and a central figure of the Indian National
sphere?
congress. She was the first and, to date, only female Prime
(a) Mesosphere (b) Stratosphere
Minister of India. Indira Gandhi was the daughter of
(c) Troposphere (d) Thermosphere
Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India.
Ans. (d) : Thermosphere– Talking its name from the
26. Who was the American President assassinated
Greek meaning heat, the thermosphere begins at about
in a cinema theatre?
80 km above sea level. At these high altitudes, the (a) Abraham Lincoln
residual atmospheric gases sort into strata according to (b) John F. Kennedy
molecular mass. (c) James A. Garfield
Mesosphere– The mesosphere is the third layer of the (d) William Mchinley
atmosphere, directly above the stratosphere and
Ans. (a) : Abraham Lincoln– Murderous attack on
directly below the thermosphere. In the mesosphere,
Abraham Lincoln, the 16th president of the United
temperature decrease as altitude increases.
States, at Ford's Theatre in Washington, D.C., on the
23. Which of the following is fourth most widely evening of April 14, 1865. Shot in the head by
grown fruit crop? confederate sympathizer John Lincoln booth, Lincoln
(a) Grapes (b) Banana died the next morning.
(c) Mango (d) Guava
27. In which year Shamshabad International
Ans. (d) : Guava– Guava is the fourth most widely Airport was commissioned?
grown fruit crop in India. The area under guava is (a) 2006
about 0.15 million hectare, producing 1.80 million tonnes (b) 2007
of fruit. Bihar is the leading state in guava production (c) 2008
followed by Andhra Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. (d) 2009
BPSC AE (GS), 2012 139 YCT
 Ans. (c) : Conceived as a new Gateway to South & Ans. (a) : As the moon orbits or circles the earth, the
Central India Hyderabad Airport was commissioned in phase changes. As the moon orbits earth we can see
a record time of 31 months and inaugurated on March more and of the lit up side until finally the moon is on
14, 2008, with an initial capacity of 12 million the opposite side of the earth from the sun and we get a
passengers per annum and 150,000 tons of cargo full moon. As the moon continues to orbit the earth we
handling capacity per annum. now see less and less of the lit up side.
28. Who was the 3rd President of India? 32. What is AAA in networking?
(a) Mohd. Hidayatullah (a) Authentication, Authorization and Accounting
(b) Dr. Zakir Hussain (b) Annual Average Authentication
(c) Sri V. V. Giri (c) Adaptive Access and Accounting
(d) B. D. Jatti (d) Adaptive Analytic Acceleration
Ans. (b) : Dr. Zakir Hussain– Zakir Hussain (8 Ans. (a) : AAA stands for authentication authorization
February 1897 – 3 May 1969) was an Indian and accounting. AAA is a framework for intelligently
economist and politician who served as the third controlling access to computer resources, enforcing
president of India, from 13 May 1967 until his death policies, auditing usage and providing the information
on 3 May 1969. necessary to bill for services.
Sri V. V. Giri– Varahgiri Venkata Giri was the fourth 33. 'Global 500 Awards' are given for the
president of India from 24 August 1969 to 24 August outstanding achievement in which of the
1974. He was the only president to be elected as an following fields?
independent candidate. He was succeeded by (a) Campaign against AIDS
Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed as President in 1974. (b) Population control
29. Which of the following has white blood? (c) Protection of environment
(a) Lizard (b) Cockroach (d) Elimination of illiteracy
(c) House bug (d) Mosquito Ans. (c) : Protection of environment– Unsourced
Ans. (b) : Cockroach– Almost all Arthropods have material may be challenged and removed. The United
this kind of blood, they lack the blood vessels. Nations Environment Programme established the
Hemolymph circulates through the insects body just "Global 500" roll of honour in 1987 to recognize the
like blood in ours but the differences is hemolymph environmental achievements of individuals and
circulates by having direct contact over the insect's organizations around the world. The last Global 500
tissue. Cockroach blood is said to be white in color, Roll of Honour awards were made in 2003.
but its not exactly white. 34. On which date, Tendulkar made his ODI
Note – Commission has deleted this question. debut?
30. Which team did Chennai Super Kings beat in (a) December 16, 1989
the final of IPL, 2011? (b) December 18, 1989
(a) Mumbai Indians (c) November 16, 1989
(b) Royal Challengers, Bengaluru (d) December 20, 1989
(c) Delhi Dare Devils Ans. (b) : On December 18, 1989 : Sachin Tendulkar
(d) Rajasthan Royals
made his debut in International Cricket. New Delhi : It
Ans. (b) : The 2011 Indian Premier League final was a was on November 15, 1989, when India's batsman
day/night Twenty-Twenty cricket match played Sachin Tendulkar made his debut in International
between the Chennai super kings and the Royal Cricket.
challengers Bangalore on 28 May 2011 at the M.A.
35. Against which country, Tendulkar made his
Chidambaram Stadium, Chennai to determine the
35th test century?
winner of the 2011 Indian Premier League, an annual
(a) Sri Lanka
professional Twenty-Twenty Cricket league in India. It
(b) Australia
ended as the defending champion super kings defeated
(c) New Zealand
the Royal Challengers by 58 runs.
(d) South Africa
IPL 2020 is won by Mumbai Indians by defeating
Delhi Capitals (Formerly known as Delhi dare devils). Ans. (a) : Former Indian captain and batting icon
Purple Cap–2020– K. Rabada – Delhi Capitals. slammed his 35th Test Century with a match-winning
Orange Cap – 2020 – K.L. Rahul – Kings XI Punjab 109 run knock against Sri Lanka in Delhi on December
10, 2005.
31. What is/are represented on calendars by circles
and crescents? 36. In which of the following countries, the rivers
(a) The phases of the moon Ganga, Brahmaputra and Meghna merge on a
(b) The position of the sun giant floodplain?
(c) The latitude of the earth (a) Bangladesh (b) India
(d) All of the above (c) Japan (d) Tibet

BPSC AE (GS), 2012 140 YCT

 Ans. (a) : Sometimes the Ganga and Brahmaputra– 43. Which of the following are studied by the
Meghna drainage basins are combined for a total of petrologists?
about are combined for a to 1,600,000 km2 or (a) Rivers
1,621,000 km2. The combined Ganga–Brahmaputra– (b) Rocks
Meghna basin (abbreviated GBM or GMB) drainage (c) Soils
basin is spread across Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, (d) Fossil fuels
Nepal and China. These all rivers merge into bay of Ans. (b) : Petrology is the study of Rocks–Igneous,
Bengal through passing Bangladesh. metamorphic, and sedimentary and the processes that
37. What is caldera? from and transform them. Mineralogy is the study of
(a) Gemstone (b) Cold wind the chemistry, crystal structure and physical properties
(c) Volcanic crater (d) Light fighting of the mineral constituents of Rocks.
Ans. (c) : A large Volcanic crater, especially one Soil– Soil is a mixture of organic matter, minerals,
formed by a major eruption leading to the collapse of gases, liquids and organisms that together support life.
the mouth of the volcano. Earth's body of soil, called the Pedospher, has four
38. Which continent has the longest coastline? important functions :
(a) South America as a medium for plant growth.
(b) Africa as a means of water storage, supply and
(c) Asia purification.
(d) Austrlia as a modifier of earth's atmosphere.
Ans. (c) : Asia– Asia has both the highest and the as a habitat for organisms.
lowest points on the surface of earth, has the longest 44. Against which country, Sachin Tendulkar
coastline of any continent is subject overall to the made his test debut?
world's widest climatic extremes, and consequently (a) Australia
products the most varied forms of vegetation and (b) West Indies
animal life on earth. (c) Pakistan
39. Speed of orbit of the sun and solar system (d) Sri Lanka
around the centre is Ans. (c) : It was on November 15, 1989, when India's
(a) 250 km/sec (b) 360 km/sec batsman Sachin Tendulkar made his debut in
(c) 245 km/sec (d) 520 km/sec International Cricket. Tendulkar made his debut in a
Ans. (a) : Our solar system is moving with an average Test Match between India and Pakistan that was played
velocity of 540,000 miles per hour (720,000 km/hr). in Karachi in 1989. In the same match, Pakistan's spacer
But even at this speed, it makes us about 230 million waqar Younus had also made his debut.
years to make one complete orbit around the milky way. 45. Where is Rajiv Gandhi Govt. Polytechnic
40. How many types of normal galaxy exist in the situated?
visible universe? (a) Itanagar (b) Basara
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) New Delhi (d) Jhansi
(c) 4 (d) 6 Ans. (a) : Rajiv Gandhi Government Polytechnic is
Ans. (c) : In 1936, Hubble debuted a way to classify located in Itanagar (in the Papumpare district) of
galaxies, grouping them into four main type : spiral Arunachal Pradesh in the foothills of the Eastern
galaxies, tenticular galaxies, elliptical galaxies, and Himalaya. It is 30 km from Banderdewa, the border
irregular galaxies. More than two-thirds of all observed between Assam and Arunachal Pradesh and about 410
galaxies are spiral galaxies. km from Guwahati.
41. How long does light from the sun take to reach 46. Central University of Bihar is situated at
the earth? (a) Muzaffarpur
(a) 4 minutes (b) 8 minutes (b) Patna
(c) 12 minutes (d) 15 minutes (c) Madhepura
Ans. (b) : The sun is 93 million miles away, so (d) Bhagalpur
sunlight takes 8 and 1/3 minutes to get to us. Ans. (b) : The Central University of South Bihar is
42. Hydrology is the study of science of what? one of the Sixteen newly established Central
(a) Caves (b) Hurricanes Universities by the Government of India under the
(c) Energy (d) Water Central Universities Act, 2009 (Section 25 of 2009).
Ans. (d) : Hydrology is the study of water and The University is located at Panchanpur, Gaya, India.
hydrologists are scientists who study water. Hydrology On 27 February 2014, Lok Sabha speaker Mira
is the scientific study of the movement distribution and Kumar laid the foundation stone for the permanent
management of water on earth and other planets, campus in Gaya. When completed, it will be spread
including the water cycle, water resources and in a 300 acre campus at Panchanpur. Currently further
environment watershed sustainability. A practitioner of construction is ongoing. Dr. C.P. Thakur is now the
hydrology is called a hydrologist. newly appointed chancellor by President of India.

BPSC AE (GS), 2012 141 YCT

47. What is ACB in computers? Ans. (c) : Baseball is a bat-and-ball game played
(a) Application Control Block between two opposite teams who take turns batting and
(b) Automatic Control Base fielding. The game proceeds when a player on the
(c) Auxiliary Central Base fielding team, called the pitcher, throws a ball which a
(d) Access Control Block player on the batting team tries to hit with a bat.
Ans. (a) : An ACB is the run-time control block which 53. Gemology is the science of
is a consolidation of PsBs and DBDs. In another word. (a) metals (b) lakes
Application Control Blocks (ACBs) are created by (c) forests (d) gemstones
merging information from PsBs and DBDs. For online Ans. (d) : Gemology is the science of studying, cutting
programme ACB must be build before using ACB and valuing precious stones, but the essence of
maintenance utility. gemology is in identifying the gem stones. One who
48. What is ACID in computers? works in the field of gemology is called a gemologist
(a) Automatic Consistent Integration of Database and jewelers and goldsmiths also may be gemologists.
(b) Automatic Consistent Independent and Durable 54. What is the name for an election victory where
(c) Automatic-Consistency Integration of Database one side wins most of the votes?
(d) Automatic Control of Information on Database (a) Landlock (b) Landslide
Ans. (b) : In the context of computer science, ACID (c) Landmine (d) Landover
(Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability) is a set Ans. (b) : A landslide victory is an election result in
of guiding principles that can ensure database which the victor candidate or party wins by an
transactions can be processed reliably. overwhelming margin. The term became popular in the
Note– Commission has deleted this question. 1800s to describe a victory in which the opposition is
49. What is ADF? "buried", similar to the way in which a geological
(a) Automatic Data Format landslide buries whatever is in its path.
(b) Advanced Data Format 55. What is the term for the strong wind that blows
(c) Abstract Data Format about 10 km above the earth?
(d) Audit Data Format (a) Jet stream (b) Cold stream
Ans. (b) : In multifunction or all-in-one printers, fax (c) Gulf stream (d) Wind stream
machines, photocopies and scanners, an automatic Ans. (a) : Jet stream are fast flowing, narrow,
document feeder or ADF is a feature, which takes meandering air currents in the atmospheres of some
several pages and feeds the paper one page at a time planets, including earth. On earth, the main jet streams
into a scanner or copier, allowing the user to scan and are located near the altitude of the tropopause and are
thereby copy, print, or fax, multiple page documents westerly winds. Their paths typically have a
without having to manually replace each page. meandering shape.
50. Which star is monitored by the satellite solar 56. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Awards are given for
max? (a) exploring new dimensions in creative writing
(a) Moon (b) Earth in Indian languages
(c) Sun (d) Jupiter (b) outstanding contribution to science
Ans. (c) : The ACRIM instrument package monitored (c) creating mass awareness on environmental
the total energy output of the sun (often referred to as issues
the "solar constant") throughout the mission with great (d) excellence in film direction
precision. These observation showed the expected Ans. (b) : The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar prize for
dimming of the sun when sun spots rotated into view science and Technology is a science award in India
and provided, important information on the extent of given annually.
this dimming. First awarded : 1958.
51. What is known as the tidal mouth of a large Awarded for : Research in Science in India
river? Presented by : Council of Scientific and Industrial
(a) Actuary (b) Estuary Research : Government of India. Location : Vigyan
(c) Emissary (d) Ancillary Bhawan, New Delhi.
Ans. (b) : Estuary is the tidal mouth of a large river. 57. The highest civilian award of India 'Bharat
Where the tide meets the stream. Ratna' has been awarded to only two
A section of a larger river affected by the tides is a foreigners so far. One of them is Nelson
tidal reach, but it may sometimes be considered a tidal Mandela. The other is
river if it has been given a separate name. (a) Abdul Ghaffar Khan
52. Which sport is played on a diamond? (b) Mikhail Gorbachev
(a) Volleyball (b) Basketball (c) Marshal Tito
(c) Baseball (d) Tennis ball (d) Abdul Wali Khan
BPSC AE (GS), 2012 142 YCT
 Ans. (a) : It has been awarded to a naturalised Indian 61. The Indian delegation to the First World
citizen, Mother Teresa in 1980, and to two non- Conference on Human Rights was led by
Indians, Abdul Ghaffar Khan of Pakistan in 1987 and (a) Dr. Manmohan Singh
the former South African President Nelson Mandela in (b) Farooq Abdullah
1990. M. S. Subbulakshmi from Tamil Nadu became (c) Dinesh Singh
the first musician to receive the honour. (d) Alam Khan
First Awarded 1954 : C. Rajagopalchari; Servepalli Ans. (a) : Dr. Manmohan Singh– He led the first
Radhakrishnan, C.V. Raman. Indian delegation that attended the first world
Last Awarded : 2019 : Nanaji Deshmukh; Bhupen conference on human rights.
Hazarika. Manmohan Singh is an Indian economist, academic
Presented by : President of India. and politician who served as the 13th Prime Minister
Bharat Ratna Award - 2020– Pranab Mukherjee, of India from 2004 to 2014. The first Sikh in office
Nanaji Deshmukh & Bhupen Hazarika. Singh was also the first Prime Minister since
Jawaharlal Nehru to be re-elected after completing a
58. Who has been awarded the first Lifetime full five year term.
Achievement Award for his/her contribution in
62. The headquarters of UNESCO is at
the field of cinema?
(a) New York (b) Paris
(a) Ashok Kumar (c) Geneva (d) Rome
(b) Hou Hsiao-Hsein
Ans. (b) : UNESCO has 195 members and 7 Associate
(c) Akira Kurosawa
members and is governed by the General conference
(d) Bernardo Burtolucci and the Executive Board. The Secretariat, headed by
Ans. (a) : Kumdlal Ganguly (13 October 1911–10 the Director-General, implements the decisions of
December 2001) better know by his stage name Ashok these two bodies. The organization has more two field
Kumar and also called Dadamoni, was an Indian film officers around the world and its headquarters are
actor who attained Iconio status in Indian Cinema and located in Paris, France.
who was a member of the cinematic Ganguly family. 63. Besides UK, USA, Germany and Japan the G-7
59. Against which country, Tendulkar made his countries include
99th century? (a) Canada, France and Russia
(a) South Africa (b) West Indies (b) Canada, Italy and the Netherlands
(c) Bangladesh (d) Australia (c) France, the Netherlands and Russia
Ans. (a) : It took the greatest accumulator of runs in (d) Canada, France and Italy
international cricket more than a year to score his Ans. (d) : G-7 countries consist of the U.S., U.K.,
coveted hundred after he reached 99 centuries with his France, Germany, Italy, Canada and Japan. The G-7
111 against South Africa in the World Cup in Nagpur was formerly referred to as the G-8 until Russia was
on March 12 in 2011. suspended from the group in 2014 after illegally
Annexing Crimea [Ukraine's territory].
60. To whom was 'Bharat Ratna' awarded in
The G-7 is not an official, formal entity and therefore
1999?
has no legislative or authoritative power to enforce the
(a) J. P. Narayan
recommended policies and plans it compiles.
(b) Amartya Sen
64. Brass gets discoloured because of the presence
(c) M. S. Subbulakshmi
of which of the following gases in air?
(d) Atal Behari Vjpayee
(a) Oxygen
Ans. (a & b) : Jayaprakash Narayan (11 October 1902 (b) Hydrogen sulphide
– 8 October 1979), popularly referred to as JP or Lok (c) Carbon dioxide
Nayak was an Indian independence activist, theorist, (d) Nitrogen
socialist and political leader. He is also know as the Ans. (b) : It gets discoloured in air because of
"Hero of Quit India Movement" and he is remembered presence of Hydrogen Sulphide. In the air brass
for leading the Mid-1970 opposition against Prime constitute zinc and copper and these two elements are
Minister Indira Gandhi for whose overthrow he had Hydro-sulphide is a colourless gas and if mixed with
called for a "total revolution. His biography, others, will get colourless. Because brass is metal it get
Jayaprakash Narayan was written by his nationalist react with sulphide.
friend and an eminent writer of Hindi literature, 65. Of the following Presidents of United States of
Rambriksh Benipuri. In 1999, he was posthumously America, who represented the Democratic
awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian Party?
award in recognition of his social work. Other awards (a) Richard Nixon
include he Magsaysay award for Public Service in (b) Gerald Ford
1965. (c) Lyndon B Johnson
Note– Commission has deleted this question. (d) Ronald Reagan
BPSC AE (GS), 2012 143 YCT
 Ans. (c) : Lyndon Baines Johnson (August 27, 1908– 69. Which one of the following countries honours
January 22, 1973) of the referred to by his initials LBJ Lion in their political symbol?
was an American Politician who served as the 36th (a) The Netherlands
President of the United States from 1963 to 1969 and (b) Bangladesh
previously as 37th vice president from 1961 to 1963. (c) South Korea
He assumed the presidency following the assassination (d) Russia
of President John F. Kennedy. A Democrat from Ans. (a) : Cultural depictions of lions are known in
Texas, Johnson also served as a United Leader in the European, African and Asian countries. The lion has
United States Senate. Johson is one of only four people been an important symbol to humans for tens of
who have served in all four federal elected positions. thousands of years the earliest graphic representation
feature. The earliest lions as organized hunters with
66. Which river of India has the greatest volume of
great strength, strategies and skills.
water? Bangladesh is a South Asian country marked by lush
(a) Ganga greenery and many waterways. Its Padma (Ganges),
(b) Brahmaputra Meghna and Jamuna rivers create fertile plains and
(c) Narmada travel by bat is common.
(d) Godavari
70. Olympic Games, 2012 was held in which of the
Ans. (b) : The Brahmaputra has the greatest volume of following places?
water of all the rivers in India because of heavy annual (a) Japan (b) Australia
rainfall levels in its catchment basin. The Brahmaputra (c) America (d) London
called Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet, Siang/Dihang River Ans. (d) : London 2012 Olympic Games, athletic
in Arunchal Predesh and Luit, Dilao in Assam is a festival held in London that took place July 27 August,
trans boundary river which flows through Tibet, India 2012. The London Games were the 27th occurrence of
and Bangladesh. It is the 9th largest river in the world the Modern Olympic Games.
by discharge and the 15th longest. America– The U.S. is a country of 50 states covering a
67. Which of the following major rivers flow into vast swath of North America with Alaska in the
the Arabian Sea? northwest and Hawii extending the nation's presence
(a) Ganga and Yamuna into the pacific ocean. Major Attantic coast cities are
(b) Krishna and Godavari New York, a global finance and culture cities center
(c) Narmada and Tapti and capital Washington DC.
(d) Kaveri and Tungabhadra Note– Last Olympic games was held in Rio. Next
Ans. (c) : Narmada and Tapti are the two major rivers Olympic games will be held in Tokyo, 2021.
that fall into the Arabian sea. The Narmada river, also 71. Whistle is the election symbol for which of the
called the Reva and previously also known as Narbada. following political parties?
This river is located in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh (a) Asom Gana Parishad
state of India. It is also known as "Life Line of (b) Lok Satta Party
(c) Lok Jan Shakti Party
Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat" for its huge contribution
(d) Manipur Peoples Party
to the State of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat in many
ways. Ans. (b) : Lok Satta is a classical liberal political party
in India, founded by Nagabhairaya Jaya Prakash
68. Bangini-Nishi is one of the languages spoken in Narayana, a former I.A.S. officer and renowed activist
which of the following States? from Andhra Pradesh. Since 1996 the Lok Satta
(a) Himachal Pradesh movement functioned as a non governmental
(b) Arunachal Pradesh organisation, but on 2 October 2006, the movement
(c) Uttar Pradesh was reorganised into a formal political party.
(d) Jharkhand Lok Jan Shakti Party– The Lok Jan Shakti Party is a
Ans. (b) : Nyishi (also-known as Nishi, Nisi, Nishang, state political party in the state of Bihar, India. It was
Nissi, Nyising, Leil, Aya, Akang, Bangni-Bangru, led by late Ram Vilas Paswan. The party was formed
solung) is a sino-Tibetan language of the Tani Drench in 2000 when Paswan split from Janata Dal. The party
spoken in papum pare, lower subansiri, kurung kumey, has considerable following amongst Dalits in Bihar.
kradaadi, East kameng, pakke kesong, kamle districts The party is a member of the National Democratic
of Arunachal Pradesh and Darrang District of Assam Alliance.
in India. According to 2011 census of India. The 72. Bicycle is not an election symbol of which of the
population of the Nishi speakers is 300,000 following political parties?
approximately. Though there are plenty of variations. (a) Telugu Desam Party
across regions, the dialects of Nishi, such as Akang, (b) Jammu & Kashmir National Panthers Party
Aya, Nyishi (raga), mishing, Tagin are easily mutually (c) Lok Jan Shakti Party
intelligible. (d) Manipur Peoples Party
BPSC AE (GS), 2012 144 YCT
 Ans. (c) : The Lok Janshakti Party (LJP) is a state Ans. (d) : Hirakund Dam is located in the state of
political party in the state of Bihar, India. It was led by Orissa. It is the longest dam in India with a total length
late Ram Vilas Paswan. The party was formed in of 25.79 km. It is also in the list of the longest dams in
2000 when Paswan split from Janta Dal. The party has the world. Hirakund Dam is situated on the river
considerable following amongst Dalits, in Bihar. The Mahanadi.
party was a member of the National Democratic Ganga– The Ganges or Ganga is a trans-boundary
Alliance. Actor turned politician Chirag Paswan is the river of Asia which flows through India and
party president in present time. Bangladesh. The 2,525 km. river rises in the Western
73. Who is the Governor of Madhya Pradesh? Himalayas in the Indian state of Uttarakhand and flows
(a) Syed Ahmed South & East through Gangetic plain of North India
(b) K. Rosaiah into Bangladesh, where it merges into the bay of
(c) Ram Naresh Yadav Bengal.
(d) Farooq 78. Karnam Malleswari is related to which of the
Ans. (c) : Ram Naresh Yadav former chief minister of following sports?
Uttar Pradesh from 1977 to 1979. He also served (a) Kabaddi
Governor of Madhya Pradesh from September 2011 to (b) Weight lifting
2016. Presently Mrs. Anandi Ben Patel working (c) Wrestling
additional Governor (Along with Uttar Pradesh) of (d) Kho-kho
Madhya Pradesh. Ans. (b) : At the Sydney 2000 Olympic Games,
74. What is SAP? Weightlifter Karnam Malleswari marked her place in
(a) Special Assistant Programme olympic and Indian sports history. As the lifted 110 kg
(b) Service Against Promotion in the "snatch" and 130 kg. in the "clean and jerk" for a
(c) State Agriculture Programme total of 240 kg, she took the bronze medal and became
(d) Space and Aeronomy Project India's first woman to win an olympic medal.
Ans. (a) : SAP SE is a German Multinational Software 79. Which of the following is the biggest planet?
Corporation based in walldarf, Baden-Wurttemberg, (a) Earth (b) Jupiter
that develops enterprise software to manage business (c) Saturn (d) Mars
operations and customer relations. The company is Ans. (b) : The largest planet in our solar system is
especially known for its ERP software. Jupiter, which beats out all the other planets, in both
75. Sixteenth SAARC Summit was held in the year mass and volume. Jupiter's mass is more than 300
(a) 2006 (b) 2008 times that of Earth and its diameter, at 140,000 km. is
(c) 2009 (d) 2010 about 11 times earth's diameter.
Ans. (d) : Sixteenth SAARC Summit 28-29 April Mars– Mars is the fourth planet from the sun and
2010 Thimphu Silver Jubilee Declaration. second smallest planet in the solar system, being larger
Mr. Mahinda Rajapaksa, met in Thimphu, Bhutan, on than only mercury. In English, Mars carries the name
28, 29 April 2010 for the sixteenth summit of the of the Roman god of war and is often referred to as the
South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. "Red Planet".
Note– The 19th SAARC summit was a scheduled 80. How many MLAs were disqualified and
diplomatic conference, which was originally planned expelled from Andhra Pradesh Assembly in
to be held in Islamabad, Pakistan on 15-19 November March 2012 for violating whip?
2016 but got cancelled after, an attack on Indian army (a) 16 (b) 18
camp in Kashmir. (c) 17 (d) 14
76. Who is the Chief Justice of the Supreme Ans. (c) : These developments are a virtual replay of
Court? the political drama enacted in March 2012 when 17
(a) Dalveer Bhandari congress and TDP MLAs were disqualified for voting
(b) S. H. Kapadia against the government during the no confidence
(c) P. Sathasivam motion, were disqualified from the Andhra Pradesh
(d) R. M. Lodha Assembly for openly defying the whips issued by their
Ans. (d) : S.H. Kapadia became 38th Chief Justice of respective parties during voting on the confidence
India from 12th May 2010 to 28 Sep. 2012. In present motion in march this year.
Chief Justice of India is Sharad Arvind Bobde (47th 81. Sohra is the original name for which of the
Chief Justice of India). following places?
Note– Commission has deleted this question. (a) Cherrapunji
77. On which river is built Hirakund Dam? (b) Gangtok
(a) Ganga (b) Narmada (c) Manipur
(c) Kaveri (d) Mahanadi (d) Sikkim
BPSC AE (GS), 2012 145 YCT
 Ans. (a) : The word "Cherrapunji" means 'land of Ans. (b) : Phoebus Apollo is the sun god of Greece
oranges." despite perennial rainfall, Cherrapunji faces and rome religion.
an acute water shortage and the inhabitants often have Huitzilopochtli is the sun god of the Aztec religion.
to trek for miles to obtain potable water. Meghalay Artemis is the Greek goddess of the moon. Inyanya is
state government has renamed Cherrapunji back to its the moon goddess of the zulu religion.
original name "Sohra." Tsukuyomi is the moon god of the Japanese.
82. Which of the following is the width of the 87. What is the colour of the flame produced by
broad gauge used in Indian railway track? burning natural gas?
(a) 1676 mm (b) 1576 mm (a) Red (b) Yellow
(c) 1476 mm (d) 1786 mm (c) Blue (d) Green
Ans. (a) : Indian Railways today predominantly Ans. (c) : A healthy natural gas furnace flame is
characterized by a roaring blue flame with a light blue
operats on 1676 mm (5ft 6 in) broad gauge with more
triangle in its center. There may be a tiny tip of yellow.
than 120,000 km (75000 mil of tracks. Most of the
A blue flame indicates safe and efficient combustion,
metre gauge and narrow gauge railways have been
meaning that the gas is being burned efficiently and
converted to broad gauge. not being wasted.
83. In which State is Raxaul Airport situated? 88. What type of energy radiates from hot objects
(a) Madhya Pradesh and can be seen by cameras?
(b) Bihar (a) Infrared ray (b) Ultraviolet ray
(c) West Bengal (c) X-ray (d) Gamma ray
(d) Uttar Pradesh Ans. (a) : Infrared light is one of the lights we can see
Ans. (b) : Raxaul Airport is an airport located at with special cameras. Infrared light shows as now cold
Raxaul in the state of Bihar, India. It was established things are. IR is generally understood to encompass
after the sino-Indian War of 1962, when it served as an wave lengths from the nominal red edge of the visible
emergency landing ground for the Indian Army. There spectrum around 700 nanometers to 1 millimeter.
have been recent proposals to expand the airport. 89. The obscuring of the sun by the moon is called
84. Who was the recipient of Bharat Ratna Award (a) lunar eclipse
in 2001 in Arts? (b) solar eclipse
(a) M. S. Subbulakshmi (c) Solar ellipse
(b) Pandit Ravi Shankar (d) lunar elapse
(c) Lata Mangeshkar Ans. (b) : Astronomy, the obscuration of the light of
(d) Pandit Bhimsen Gururaj Joshi the moon by the intervention of the earth between if
Ans. (c) : The provision of Bharat Ratna was introduced and the sun (lunar eclipse) or the obscuration of the
in 1954. This award was given was in 2001, to Lata light of the sun by the interventon of the moon
Dinanath Mangeshkar and Ustad Bismillah Khan. between it and a point on the earth (solar eclipse).
Bharat Ratna– The Bharat Ratna is the highest 90. The study of caves is called
civilian award of the Republic of India. In situated on (a) speleology
(b) campanology
2 January 1954. The award is conferred in recognition
(c) subteratology
of exceptional service/performance of the highest
(d) oceanology
order, without distinction of race, occupation, position,
Ans. (a) : The study of caves is called speleology. The
or sex.
word speleology comes from the Latin ward "speleum"
Note– Bhupen Hazarika in 2019 was awarded Bharat
and the Greek Word "spelaion", both of which mean
Ratna in the field of arts. "cave". The ending "ology", means "the study of."
85. Which of the following is the hardest? Oceanology– Oceanology, also known as
(a) Ruby (b) Silicon oceanology, is the study of the physical and biological
(c) Topaz (d) Diamond aspects of the ocean.
Ans. (d) : In diamond, each carbon is sp3 hybridized 91. Which line on a meteorological map connects
state and is linked to 4 other carbon atoms held at the points of the same atmospheric pressure?
corners of a tetrahedron by covalent bonds. Thus it (a) Millibar (b) Milligram
forms a three dimensional cage like structure. Due to (c) Isobar (d) Mesobar
this strong covalent bond, it is the hardest substance. Ans. (c) : Isobars; lines of constant pressure. A line
86. Huitzilopochtli and Phoebus Apollo were both drawn on a weather map connecting points of equal
Gods of pressure is called an "Isobar". Isobars are generated
(a) the moon (b) the sun from mean sea-level pressure reports and are given in
(c) the sea (d) the wind millibars.

BPSC AE (GS), 2012 146 YCT

92. Which of the following cities is nearest to the 97. The term 'no ball' is related to
equator? (a) volleyball
(a) New York (b) Kiev (b) cricket
(c) Safia (d) Marseilles (c) basketball
Ans. (a) : New York city comprises 5 boroughs sitting (d) football
where the Hudson River meets the Atlantic Ocean. At Ans. (b) : In cricket, a no-ball is an illegal delivery to a
its core is Manhattan, a densely populated borough batsman. It is also the extra run awarded to the batting
that's among the world's major commercial financial team as a consequence.
and cultural centers.
98. Mumbai Indians captain for IPL, 2012 is
93. Which of the following cities is nearest to south
(a) Sachin Tendulkar
pole?
(a) Hyderabad (b) Mumbai (b) Harbhajan Singh
(c) Agra (d) Kanyakumari (c) S. Jayasurya
Ans. (d) : Kanyakumari is a coastal town in the state (d) Brett Lee
of Tamil Nadu on India's southern tip. Touching into Ans. (b) : Sachin Tendulkar has stepped down as
the Laccadive sea, the town was known as cape Mumbai Indians captain ahead of the IPL 2012
comorin during British rule and is popular for season– opener against Chennai. Harbhajan Singh,
watching sunrise and sunset over the ocean. It's also a who was Tendulkar's deputy (vice captain), has been
noted pilgrimage site thanks to its Bagavathi Amman appointed captain by the franchise after Tendulkar
Temple, dedicated to a consort of Shiva, and its Lady cited needing a "break" in leadership duties as the
of Ransom Church, a center of Indian Catholisim. reason.
94. Number of MPs in Lok Sabha is Note– Current Captain is Rohit Sharma.
(a) 543 (b) 534 99. PSLV means
(c) 554 (d) 527 (a) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
Ans. (a) : Maximum Strength of the house is 552 (b) Polar Satellite Long Vehicle
members 530 members to represent the states, 20 (c) Position Satellite Land Vehicle
members represent the union territories, and 2 (d) Polar Satellite Land Vehicle
members to be nominated by the president from the
Ans. (a) : Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the
Anglo-India community. At present, the strength of the
house is 545. third generation launch vehicle of India. The Polar
Satellite launch vehicle is an expendable medium-lift
95. Who among the following Prime Ministers
launch vehicle designed and operated by the Indian
belongs to Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Morarji Desai Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It was
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri developed to allow India to launch its Indian Remote
(c) P. V. Narasimha Rao Sensing (IRS) satellites into sun-synchronous orbits, a
(d) G. L. Nanda service that was until the advent of the PSLV in 1993.
Ans. (c) : He became the Chief Minister of Andhra Commercially available only from Russia, PSLV can
Pradesh in 1971 and implemented land reforms and also launch small size satellites into Geostationary
land ceiling acts strictly. Transfer Orbit (GTO).
Pamulaparthi Venkata Narsimha Rao (28 June 1921– 100. The Nanda Devi mountains are in the State of
23 December 2004) was an Indian lawyer and (a) Rajasthan
politician who served as the 9th Prime Minister of (b) Uttar Pradesh
India from 1991 to 1996. (c) Uttarakhand
96. Visakha Express runs between (d) Uttaranchal
(a) Visakhapatnam and Secunderabad Ans. (c) : Nanda Devi is the second highest mountain
(b) Visakhapatnam and Bengaluru in India after Kanchenjunga and the highest located
(c) Bhubaneswar and Secunderabad
entirely within the country. (Kanchenjunga which is
(d) Visakhapatnam and Chennai
within is higher, is on the order of India and Nepal.) It
Ans. (c) : The train runs from Secunderabad via
is the 23rd highest peak in the world. It was considered
Nalgonda, Miryalaguda, Guntur Junction, Vijayawada,
the highest mountain in India until 1975 when Sikkim,
Gudivada Bhikhavaram Town, Rajanmundry,
the state in which Kanchenjunga is located, joined in
Samallkot, Anakapalle, Duvvada Visakhapatham,
Simchachalam, Vizianagatham sim, Brahmapur, the Republic of India. It is part of the Garhwal
Chitrapur Nirakarpur, Khurda Road to Bhubaneswar. Himalayas and is located in Chamoli Garhwal
Train No. : 17016/17016 Himalayas, and is located in Chamoli district of
End : Bhubaneswar (BBS) Uttarakhand, between the Rishiganga valley on the
Start : Secunderabad. west and the Goriganga valley on the east.

BPSC AE (GS), 2012 147 YCT

 Public Service Commission Exam, 2012
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL ENGINEERING SCIENCE (PAPER-IV)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 1 Hour ] [ Exam Date : 3 Dec., 2012

1. Bernoulli equation deals with (a) grey body

(a) work (b) momentum (b) brilliant white polished body
(c) energy (d) force (c) red-hot body
Ans. (c) : Statement of Bernoulli's Theorem–"It (d) black body
states that in a steady, ideal flow of an incompressible Ans. (d) : Black body– According to Kirchhoff's law,
fluid, the total energy at any point of the fluid is the ratio of emissive power to absorptivity of all bodies
constant". is equal to the emissive power of a black body.
The total energy consists of E E E E
We know, 1 = 2 = 3 = ....... = b = E b = f (T)
p v2 α1 α 2 α 3 αb
(i) Pressure energy = , (ii) Kinetic energy =
ρg 2g So, the ratio of the emissive power E to absorptivity α
(iii) Datum or potential energy = z is same for all bodies, and equal to the emissive power
Mathematically, of a black body at the same temperature.
Grey body– In Grey body emissivity for a given
p v2
+ + z = constant wavelength is constant with temperature.
ρg 2g 4. A reversible polytropic process can be
Bernoulli's equation is obtained by integrating the described by the equation
Euler's equation of motion as
( PV )
n
(a) PV n = C (b) =C
dp
∫ ρ + ∫ gdz + ∫ vdv = constant n

(c)   = C
P
(d) P n V = C
p 2
v  V 
+z+ = const. Ans. (a) A reversible polytropic process described by
ρg 2g
the equation PVn = C
Bernoulli equation is based on energy principle. Euler's
PV = C isothermal process
equation is based on momentum principle and γ
continuity equation is based on mass principle. PV = C adiabatic process
P=C isobaric process
2. Continuity equation for an incompressible
fluid is V=C isochoric process
(a) P1A1V1 = P2A2V2 (b) A1V1 = A2V2 5. First law of thermodynamics was developed by
A1V1 A 2 V2 PA PA (a) Charles (b) Carnot
(c) = (d) 1 1 = 2 2 (c) Joule (d) Kelvin
P1 P2 V1 V2
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b) : According to continuity equation mass flow First law of thermodynamics was developed by Joule.
rate at every section is constant so it is based on When a closed system executes a complete cycle the
conservation of mass. sum of heat interactions is equal to the sum of work
m&1 =m &2 interactions.
ρ1A1V1 = ρ2A2V2 (compressible fluid) Mathematically,
A1V1 = A2V2 (incompressible fluid) (∑Q)cycle = (∑W)cycle
First law of thermodynamics for a process as
δQ – δW = dE
E consists of U, KE, PE
Note-Joule's law states that for an Ideal gas internal
energy is a function of temperature only. u = f(T).
Continuity equation for an incompressible fluid A1V1 Second law of Thermodynamics defined by Kelvin–
= A2V2, as ρ remains constant. Plank & Clausius statements.
3. According to Kirchhoff's law, the ratio of 6. The constant volume cycle is also called
emissive power to absorptivity of all bodies is (a) Carnot cycle (b) Otto cycle
equal to the emissive power of a (c) Diesel cycle (d) Rankine cycle
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2012 148 YCT
 Ans. (b) The constant volume cycle or the otto cycle– Ans. (a) : Transformer winding is insulated with thin
layer of varnish. When fault occurs insulation loses its
property and windings get short circuited.
Insulation fails due to moisture or water particles in the
transformer oil. Insulation failure of winding of the
transformer is equivalent voltage to impulsive voltage.
11. Which of the following systems are more prone
to faults?
(1) The adiabatic compression process 1-2 (V↓, P↑, (a) Generators (b) Underground lines
T↑, S = C) (c) Transformers (d) Overhead lines
(2) The constant volume heat addition process 2-3 (S↑, Ans. (d) : Overhead lines are more prone to faults
P↑, T↑, V = C) because overhead lines are erected openly in
(3) The adiabatic expansion process 3-4 (V↑, P↓, T↓, environment and it is affected with weather conditions
S = C) like – Storm, Rain, Snowfall etc.
(4) The constant volume heat rejection process 4-1 12. A 2-ohm resistor having 1 ampere current will
(S↓, P↓, T↓, V = C) dissipate power of
So Otto cycle is constant volume (a) 2 joules (b) 2 watts
Rankine cycle – constant pressure (c) 1 watt (d) 1 joule
Carnot cycle – constant temperature Ans. (b)
Power dissipation in resistors
V2
P=VI=I 2 R= watt
7. Rankine cycle consists of R
(a) three processes (b) four processes given, I = current = 1 amp.
(c) five processes (d) six processes R = 2 ohm
Ans. (b) P = I 2 R = 12 × 2 = 2 watt.
Cycle Process 13. The circuit whose properties are same in either
(a) Rankine cycle Two isentropic process & direction is known as
Two isobaric process (a) reversible circuit (b) irreversible circuit
(b) Carnot cycle Two isothermal (c) unilateral circuit (d) bilateral circuit
Two isentropic Ans. (d) : Bilateral circuit– A circuit whose
(c) Otto cycle Two isochoric properties are same in either direction.
Two isentropic Ex.– Resistor, capacitor, inductor etc.
(d) Diesel cycle One isobaric 14. The cells are connected in series to
One isochoric & two (a) increase the current output
isentropic (b) increase the voltage output
8. In centrifugal pump, the fluid enters the pump (c) decrease the internal resistance
(a) from all sides (b) through the top (d) decrease the amount of charging voltage
(c) through the bottom (d) through the centre required
Ans. (d) Ans. (b) : Cells are connected in series to increase the
voltage. Because when cells are connected in series
9. Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines fall their equivalent is added while in parallel voltage
under the category of remains constant.
(a) impulse turbine (b) reaction turbine
15. A magnetic compass points to the
(c) axial-flow turbine (d) mixed-flow turbine
(a) geographical poles
Ans. (b) (b) true north pole
Reaction turbine Impulse turbine (c) magnetic north pole
ex– Francis turbine ex– Pelton wheel turbine (d) agonic line of the earth field
Kaplan turbine Ans. (c) :
Propeller turbine
16. The electromagnetic radiation can only be
10. The short circuit in any windings of emitted or absorbed by a matter in small
transformer is the result of discrete units is called
(a) impulsive voltage (b) insulation failure (a) proton (b) electron
(c) mechanical vibration (d) loose connection (c) photon (d) neutron
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2012 149 YCT
 Ans. (c) : A photon is the smallest discrete amount or
quantum of electromagnetic radiation. It is the basic
unit of all light. Photons are always in motion with
speed equivalent to light 2.998×108 m/s.
17. One horsepower is equal to
(a) 1.3330 kW (b) 1.0000 kW
(c) 0.8000 kW (d) 0.7457 kW
Ans. (d) One horse power i.e. 1HP is unit of power
1 HP = 746 watt = 0.746 kW.
18. If two forces, each equal to P in magnitude, act We know that,
at right angles, their effect may be neutralised R = F12 + F22 + 2F1F2 cos θ
by a third force acting along their bisector in
opposite direction whose magnitude is equal to R = (P + Q)2 + (P − Q) 2
P + 2 (P + Q) (P–Q) cosθ
(a) 2P (b)
2
3P 2 + Q 2 =
P
(c) 2P (d)
2 P 2 + Q 2 + 2PQ + P 2 + Q 2 − 2PQ + 2(P 2 − Q 2 ) cos θ
Ans. (*) Given, 3P2+Q2 = 2P2+2Q2+2(P2–Q2) cosθ
F1 = P P2–Q2 = 2(P2–Q2) cosθ
F2 = P 1
θ = 900 cosθ =
2
We know that,
1
Resultant R = F12 + F22 + 2F1F2 cos θ θ = cos −1   = 600
2
= P + P + 2PP cos 90 (cos 90 = 0)
2 2 0 0
21. A satellite launch station should be
(a) near the pole region
= P2 + P2 + 0
(b) on the pole axis
= 2P 2 (c) near the equatorial region
R= 2 P (d) All the above locations are equally suitable
Ans. (c) :
19. The conditions of equilibrium of a coplanar
non-concurrent force are 22. A car moving with a speed n can be stopped in
(a) ΣH = 0, ΣV = 0 minimum distance x when brakes are applied.
(b) ΣH = 0, ΣM = 0 If the speed becomes n times, the minimum
distance over which the car can be stopped
(c) ΣV = 0, ΣM = 0
would have the value
(d) ΣH = 0, ΣV = 0, ΣM = 0
x
(a) (b) nx
n
Ans. (d) Those forces acting in one plane and not
x
acted on common point is termed as coplanar non- (c) 2 (d) n2x
concurrent forces. n
Coplanar and Concurrent ∑H = 0, ∑V = 0 Ans. (d) : v2 = u2 + 2aS
Coplanar & Non ∑H = 0, ∑V = 0, ∑M = 0 From given condition
concurrent Case-I
Non coplanar & ∑H = 0, ∑V = 0, ∑Z = 0 02 = n2 + 2ax
Concurrent n2
∴a = –
Non coplanar & Non ∑H = 0, ∑V = 0, ∑M = 0 2x
concurrent Case-II
20. If the resultant of two forces (P + Q) and (P– 02 = (n2)2 + 2ax'
3P 2 + Q 2 , then forces are −n 4
Q) is equal to x' =
2a
inclined to each other at an angle of
0 0 4
(a) 30 (b) 60 –n
=
(c) 900 (d) 1200  −n 2 
2× 
Ans. (b) Given, F1 = P + Q, F2 = P – Q,  2x 
2
R = 3P 2 + Q 2 x' = n x

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2012 150 YCT

23. A body is allowed to fall from the top of a 27. The surface roughness on a drawing is
tower. It falls through half the height in 2 sec. represented by
The total time taken by the body to reach the (a) circles (b) squares
ground is approximately (c) zigzag lines (d) triangles
(a) 4.5 sec (b) 4.8 sec Ans. (d) The surface roughness on a drawing is
(c) 4.2 sec (d) 2.8 sec represented by triangle.
Ans. (d) Given, The basic symbol consists of two legs of unequal
Time taken for half height, t = 2 sec., initial velocity length inclined at approximately 60 degree to the line
(u) = 0, s = h/2 representing the considered surface.
We know that,
1 1
s = ut + gt 2 = 0 + gt 2
2 2
1 2 h 1 2 a = Roughness value Ra in micrometres
s = gt ⇒ = gt
2 2 2 or Roughness grade number N 1 to 12.
2 2
h = gt = g × 2 = 4g b = Production method, treatment or coating
For full height (u = 0) c = Sampling length
1 d = Direction of lay
s = h = gt 2 e = Machining allowance
2
f = Other roughness values
1 2
4g = gt 28. The fact that how closely the instrument
2 reading is following the measured variables is
t = 8 = 2 2 = 2.8sec. termed as
24. The errors of instruments can be determined (a) fidelity (b) accuracy
by (c) threshold sensitivity (d) precision
(a) calibration (b) optical projector Ans. (b) The fact that how closely the instrument
(c) slip gauges (d) None of the above reading is following the measured variables is termed
as accuracy.
Ans. (a) : Calibration–The operations which assure
that an instrument readings are accurate referenced to Precision–Precision is defined as the ability of the
instrument to reproduce a certain set of readings within
established standards.
a given accuracy.
So the errors of instruments can be determined by
Sensitivity–Sensitivity is defined as the ratio of the
calibration. magnitude of response (output signal) to the magnitude
The main objectives of calibration services are– of the quantity being measured (input signal).
(i) To maintain quality control and quality assurance in
29. Bevel protractor is used for
production.
(a) angular measurement
(ii) To comply with requirements of global trade.
(b) linear measurement
(iii) To meet the requirement of ISO guides.
(c) height measurement
(iv) To promote international recognition.
(d) flatness measurement
(v) For tracking back measurement results to national
Ans. (a)
standards.
Measuring parameters Instrument
25. Some substances generating voltage when they Linear Measurement – Steel tape, Vernier calliper
are subjected to mechanical forces or stresses micrometer with vernier
along specific planes are known as Angular measurement – Bevel protractor
(a) thermoelectric (b) magnetoelectric Straightness measurement – Auto collimator, Transit
(c) piezoelectric (d) photoelectric flatness measurement – Inter ferometry
Ans. (c) Roundness measurement– Dial indicator.
26. A photoelectric device in which the resistance 30. An angle-measuring device is
of the metal changes directly proportional to (a) trommel (b) hermaphrodite caliper
the light striking on it is called (c) sine bar (d) All of the above
(a) photocell (b) photoemission cell Ans. (c) : angle-measuring device – sine bars, angle
(c) photovoltaic cell (d) photoconductive cell gauge face standard instrument.
Ans. (d) : A photoelectric cell utilizing 31. Which of the following is not a source of
photoconductivity so that an increase in illumination power?
causes a decrease in electrical resistance and permits (a) Solar cell (b) Photoelectric cell
the flow of greater electric current. (c) Thermocouple (d) Photovoltaic cell
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2012 151 YCT
 Ans. (c) : A thermocouple device is used for Ans. (a)
measuring temperatures consisting of two wires of End condition Equivalent
different metals connected at two points. length
A voltage is developed as a result of temperature in (i) One end fixed one end free 2L
thermocouple.
32. The property of a material by virtue of which it
can be beaten or rolled into plates is called
(a) elasticity (b) malleability
(c) ductility (d) plasticity
Ans. (b) Some important mechanical properties of
materials are – (ii) Both end hinged L
Malleability – Beaten or rolled into plates
Elasticity – After load removal regain its shape & size
Plasticity– Permanent deformation
Ductility– Drawn into wire
33. A beam of length l, having uniform load of w
kg per unit length, is supported freely at the (iii) One fixed one hinged L
ends. The moments at the mid-span will be
2
wl wl 2
(a) (b)
4 2
2
wl wl 2
(c) (d)
8 4 (iv) Both end fixed L
Ans. (c) B.M. 2
wl 2
8
T S s Gθ
2
37. The value of J in equation = = for a
wl J y l
4 circular shaft of diameter d is
πd 3 πd 4
wl 2 (a) (b)
32 32
2
πd 4
πd 4
(c) (d)
64 16
34. The beam is loaded as cantilever. If the load at Ans. (b) Given,
the end is increased, the failure will occur T Gθ Ss
Torsion equation = =
(a) in the middle J L R
(b) at the support T– Torque
(c) at the tip below the load J – Polar moment of Inertia
(d) anywhere G – Shear modulus of rigidity
Ans. (b) : Maximum moment generated at support. θ – Angle of twist
When load increases cantilever failure at support. Ss – Max shear stress
J for circular shaft
35. Unit of strain is
Polar moment of Inertia (J) = Ixx + Iyy
(a) cm/cm (b) dimensionless
(c) kg/cm2/cm πd 4 πd 4 πd 4
(d) kg/cm = + =
Ans. (b) : We know that, 64 64 32
Change in dimension(δ) πd 4
Strain (∈) = J=
Original dimension(l) 32
Strain is the ratio of same unit quantity so it is unit 38. The shear stress along the principal plane
less. subjected to maximum principal stress is
36. The equivalent length of a column supported (a) minimum (b) maximum
firmly at one end free and other end fixed (c) zero (d) negative
(a) 2l (b) 0.7 l Ans. (c) : Principle plane is the plane of maximum
(c) l (d) 0.5 l normal stress at which shear stress equals to zero.

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2012 152 YCT

 39. In a beam, at a place where the shear force is 46. Alloy used for making a resistance of electrical
maximum, the bending moment will be and heating elements is
(a) maximum (b) minimum (a) invar (b) elinvar
(c) zero (d) None of the above (c) inagnin (d) nichrome
Ans. (d) : If shear force changes sign at a section the Ans. (d) : An alloy of nickel and chromium– (80%
bending moment at that section is either maximum or nickel + 20% chromium) is used in making heating
minimum. elements for electric heating devices is nichrome. It is
If bending moment changes sign at a point as such used as a resistance wire.
point is called point of contra flexure or point of 47. Break-even point shows that
inflection. (a) sales revenue > total cost
40. Raw material for all iron and steel products is (b) sales revenue < total cost
(a) cast iron (b) wrought iron (c) sales revenue = total cost
(c) pig iron (d) steel (d) variable cost = fixed cost
Ans. (c) : Pig iron also known as crude iron, obtained Ans. (c) : At break even point sales revenue is equal to
by smelting iron ore in a blast furnace is raw product total cost is break even point.
for steel products.
41. Cast iron contains carbon approximately
(a) 0.2% to 0.4% (b) 1% to 1.3%
(c) 2% to 4% (d) None of the above
Ans. (c) Type of Iron % of Carbon
Pig iron 4 – 5%
Cast iron 2 – 4%
Carbon steel < 2%
Wrought iron < 0.1% 48. CPM is
42. Compressive strength of cast iron as compared (a) time-oriented technique
to tensile strength is (b) event-oriented technique
(a) more (b) less (c) activity-oriented technique
(c) same (d) None of the above (d) target-oriented technique
Ans. (a) Cast iron contains high % of carbon than Ans. (c) CPM (Critical Path Method)
other forms of iron which makes it brittle so it has high (a) Activity oriented technique
compressive strength than tensile strength. (b) Cost important criteria
(c) Deterministic approach
43. In steel, main alloy causing corrosion resistance
(d) Only single time estimate for each activity
is
(e) Suited to repetitive type of work
(a) manganese (b) vanadium
(f) Normal distribution is followed
(c) chromium (d) cobalt
Ans. (c) : Steel – alloy of (iron + Carbon + Chromium 49. PERT is
+ Copper + Magnesium + Nickel + Silicon) (a) time-oriented technique
Chromium alloy causing corrosion resistance in steel. (b) event-oriented technique
(c) activity-oriented technique
44. Bronze is an alloy of (d) work-oriented technique
(a) copper and zinc (b) copper and tin
Ans. (b) : PERT (Program evaluation review
(c) copper, in and zinc (d) None of the above Technique)
Ans. (b) : Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin. (a) Event oriented technique
Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc. (b) 3 time estimate
45. Polyesters belong to the group of (c) It is based on probabilistic approach
(a) phenolics (b) thermoplastics (d) Useful for new type of project (research and
(c) thermosetting plastics (d) PVC development)
Ans. (c) (e) β-distribution
Thermosetting– Once hardened, can not be melted for 50. All financial decisions on any project appraisal
reshaping. are based on
Ex.– Polyester resin, vulcanised rubber, Bakelite, (a) future value of money
Duroplastic (b) present value of money
Thermoplastic– Can be cooled and heated several (c) opportunity cost of money
times for reshaping (d) None of the above
Ex.– ABS, Nylon, Acrylic, Polyethylene. Ans. (b)
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2012 153 YCT

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 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2006
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL HINDI (PAPER-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Marks : 100

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[e@keäšj ves keâne legcehejnspe mes jnes nesiee– efleleueer kesâ megvoj hebKe nesles nQ~
1.
(a) (b) (c)
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keâesF& $egefš venerR~ 7.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(d)
Ans. (c) : ‘Dejs! Gmeves lees iepeye keâj efoÙee’ keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe
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nesiee–
yeehet keâer ce=lÙeg hej cegPes yeÌ[e keâ<š ngDee
Megæ JeekeäÙe– [e@keäšj ves keâne legce hejnspe keâjes~ 8.
(a) (b) (c)
Sšce yece Kelejveekeâ Dem$e nw keâesF& $egefš venerR~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
2.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(d)
Ans. (d) : Sšce yece Kelejveekeâ Dem$e nw~ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW keâesF& $egefš
Ans. (b) : ‘yeehet keâer ce=lÙeg hej cegPes yeÌ[e keâ<š ngDee’ keâe Megæ
veneR nw~
JeekeäÙe nesiee– yeehet keâer ce=lÙeg hej cegPes yengle og:Ke ngDee~
Jew<eJecesWner keâ=<Ce ves meyekeâes ceesn efueÙee
3. MeeÙeo Deepe DeJeMÙe Je<ee& nesiee~r keâesF& $egefš venerR~
(a) (b) (c) 9.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
keâesF& $egefš venerR~
Ans. (b) : ‘MeeÙeo Deepe DeJeMÙe Je<ee& nesieer,’ keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe
(d)
nesiee– MeeÙeo Deepe Je<ee& nes, keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘MeeÙeo’ Deewj ‘DeJeMÙe’ keâe
Ans. (a) : Jew<eJe ceW ner ke=â<Ce ves meyekeâes ceesn efueÙee~ ØeÙeesie Skeâ meeLe veneR efkeâÙee peelee nw~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– Jew<CeJe ceW ke=â<Ce ves meyekeâes ceesn efueÙee~
jlvee meewYeeiÙeJeefle keâvÙee nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
10.
‘efvejeuee’ peer ves DeveskeâesW hegmlekeâsW efueKeer nwQ~ (a) (b) (c) (d)
4.
(a) (b) (c) Ans. (b) : ‘jlvee meewYeeiÙeJeefle keâvÙee nw’, keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee–
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ jlvee DeeÙeg<celeer keâvÙee nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ efJeJeen kesâ yeeo ner keâvÙee
(d) meewYeeiÙeJeleer nesleer nw, henues veneR~
Ans. (b) : ‘efvejeuee peer ves DeveskeâeW hegmlekeWâ efueKeer nQ’– keâe Megæ iejceieeÙekeâe otOe heeveer ÛeeefnS~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
11.
JeekeäÙe nesiee– efvejeuee peer ves Deveskeâ hegmlekeWâ efueKeer nQ~ (a) (b) (c) (d)
cegPes Ùes keâefJelee heÌ{keâj Deevevo keâe DeeYeeme ngDee Ans. (a) : ‘iejceieeÙekeâe otOe heeveer ÛeeefnS’, keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee–
5.
(a) (b) (c) ieeÙe keâe iejce otOe ÛeeefnS~
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ yeern[cesW keâF& efJeKÙeele [eketâ IetcelesjnlesnwQ~
12.
(d) (a) (b) (c)
Ans. (c) : ‘cegPes Ùes keâefJelee heÌ{keâj Deevevo keâe DeeYeeme ngDee keâe keâesF& $egefš venerR~
Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– cegPes Ùes keâefJelee heÌ{keâj Deevevo keâer DevegYetefle ngF&~ (d)

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2006 154 YCT

 Ans. (b) : ‘yeern[ceW keâF& efJeKÙeele [eketâ Ietceles jnles nQ’ keâe Megæ Ans. (c) : ‘meerlee jece keâer m$eer Leer’ keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– meerlee
JeekeäÙe nesiee– yeern[Ì ceW keâF& kegâKÙeele [eketâ Ietceles jnles nQ~ jece keâer helveer Leer~
cesjs YeeF& keâes cewQves ®heÙes efoÙes~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ efveoxMe : Fme KeC[ ceW 20 JeekeäÙe efoÙes ieÙes nQ~ ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe ceW
13. leerve-leerve efJekeâuhe nQ~ FveceW mes pees Megæ JeekeäÙe nes Gmekesâ efueS
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ans. (a) : ‘cesjs YeeF& keâes ceQves ®heÙes efoÙes’ keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– efveOee&efjle a, b, c ceW mes keâesF& Gòej kesâ ¤he ceW efueKeW~
21. efJeÅeeefLe&ÙeeW keâe ue#Ùe efJeodÙee Øeeefhle nesveer ÛeeefnS~
Deheves YeeF& keâes ceQves ®heÙes efoS~
(a) efJeÅeeefLe&ÙeeW keâe ue#Ùe efJeÅee Øeeefhle nesveer ÛeeefnS~
ÙeneB yengle mes ueesie jnlesnwQ~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ (b) efJeÅeeefLe&ÙeeW keâe ue#Ùe efJeÅee-Øeeefhle nesvee ÛeeefnS~
14.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) efJeÅeeefLe&ÙeeW keâe ue#Ùe efJeÅee-Øeeefhle nesveer ÛeeefnS~
Ans. (b) : ‘ÙeneB yengle mes ueesie jnles nQ’, keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– Ans. (b) : efJeÅeeefLe&ÙeeW keâe ue#Ùe efJeodÙee Øeeefhle nesveer ÛeeefnS~
ÙeneB yengle ueesie jnles nQ~ Megæ JeekeäÙe– efJeÅeeefLe&ÙeeW keâe ue#Ùe efJeodÙee-Øeeefhle nesvee ÛeeefnS~
pepe ves nlÙeejs keâesce=lÙeg-oC[ keâer mepee oer 22. ceQ efnceeueÙe heJe&le hej DeJeMJecesJe Ûe{tBiee~
15.
(a) (b) (c) (a) ceQ efnceeueÙe heJe&le hej DeJeMÙe Ûe{tbiee~
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ (b) ceQ efnceeueÙehej DeJeMÙe Ûe{tbiee~
(d) (c) ceQ efnceeueÙe hej DeJeMÙe ner Ûe{tBiee~
Ans. (c) : ‘pepe ves nlÙeejs keâes ce=lÙeg oC[ keâer me]pee oer’, keâe Megæ Ans. (c) : ceQ efnceeueÙe heJe&le hej DeJeMJecesJe Ûe{tBiee~
JeekeäÙe nesiee– pe]pe ves nlÙeejs keâes ce=lÙegoC[ efoÙee~ Fme JeekeäÙe kesâ Megæ JeekeäÙe– ceQ efnceeueÙe hej DeJeMÙe Ûe{tbiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ efnceeueÙe
ce=lÙegoC[ ceW ner me]pee Meeefceue nw FmeefueS ce=lÙegoC[ kesâ meeLe me]pee mJeÙeb heJe&le nw Gmekesâ meeLe heJe&le keâe ØeÙeesie DeMegæ nw~
Meyo keâe ØeÙeesie DeMegæ nw~ 23. yeÛÛes keâes Ûeeketâ mes keâeškeâj mesye efKeueeDees~
(a) yeÛÛes keâes keâeškeâj Ûeeketâ mes mesye efKeueeDees~
meYeer Úe$eesW cesW jcesMe Ûelegjlej nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
16. (b) yeÛÛes keâes mesye Ûeeketâ mes keâeškeâj efKeueeDees~
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) yeÛÛes keâes mesye keâeškeâj Ûeeketâ mes efKeueeDees~
Ans. (c) : ‘meYeer Úe$eeW ceW jcesMe Ûelegjlej nw’ keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe
Ans. (b) : yeÛÛes keâes Ûeeketâ mes keâeškeâj mesye efKeueeDees~
nesiee– meYeer Úe$eeW ceW jcesMe Ûelegj nw~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– yeÛÛes keâes mesye Ûeeketâ mes keâeškeâj efKeueeDees~
keâ=heÙee cesje keâecekeâjves keâer keâ=hee keâjsW~ 24. yeoes keâer ßeæe–Yeefkeäle keâjvee ÛeeefnS~
17.
(a) (b) (c)
(a) yeoes keâer ßeæe–Yeefkeäle keâjveer ÛeeefnS~
keâesF& $egefš venerR~ (b) yeoes keâer ßeæe keâjveer ÛeeefnS~
(d) (c) yeÌ[eW hej ßeæe jKeveer ÛeeefnS~
Ans. (c) : ‘ke=âheÙee cesje keâece keâjves keâer ke=âhee keâjW’, keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe Ans. (c) : yeoes keâer ßeæe–Yeefkeäle keâjvee ÛeeefnS~
nesiee– ke=âheÙee cesje keâece keâjW~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Skeâ ner JeekeäÙe ceW ‘ke=âheÙee’ Megæ JeekeäÙe– yeÌ[eW hej ßeæe jKeveer ÛeeefnS~
Deewj ‘ke=âhee’ keâe ØeÙeesie DeMegæ nw~ 25. njer ves keâne ceQ keâue DeJeMÙe DeeTBiee~
Me$eg cewoeve mes oewÌ[KeÌ[engDee~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ (a) njer ves keâne, ceQ keâue DeJeMÙe DeeTBiee~
18.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (b) njer ves keâne ‘‘ceQ keâue DeJeMÙe DeeTBiee~’’
Ans. (c) : ‘Me$eg cewoeve mes oewÌ[ KeÌ[e ngDee’, keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe (c) njer ves keâne, ‘‘ceQ keâue DeJeMÙe DeeTBiee~’’
nesiee– Me$eg cewoeve mes Yeeie KeÌ[e ngDee~ Ans. (c) : njer ves keâne ceQ keâue DeJeMÙe DeeTBiee~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– njer ves keâne, ‘‘ceQ keâue DeJeMÙe DeeTBiee~’’
SkeâÚe$eDeewj Skeâ Úe$ee heÌ{les nwQ~
19. 26. Ùen efkeâmekeâe nmlee#ej nw?
(a) (b) (c)
(a) Ùen efkeâmekeâe nmlee#ej nw~
keâesF& $egefš venerR~
(b) Ùen efkeâmekesâ nmlee#ej nQ~
(d)
(c) Ùen efkeâmekesâ nmlee#ej nQ?
Ans. (b) : Skeâ Úe$e Deewj Skeâ Úe$ee heÌ{les nQ, ceW mener Megæ JeekeäÙe Ans. (c) : Ùen efkeâmekeâe nmlee#ej nw?
nesiee– Skeâ Úe$e Deewj Úe$ee heÌ{les nQ~ Megæ JeekeäÙe– Ùen efkeâmekesâ nmlee#ej nQ?
meelree jece keâer m$eer Leer~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ 27. yeeuekeâ Úle ceW Kesue jns nQ~
20.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) yeeuekeâ Úle mes Kesue jns nQ~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2006 155 YCT
 (b) yeeuekeâ Úle keâes Kesue jns nQ~ Ans. (b) : Gmekeâer meewvoÙe&Ùelee hej ceesefnle ntB~
(c) yeeuekeâ Úle hej Kesue jns nQ~ Megæ JeekeäÙe– Gmekesâ meewvoÙe& hej ceesefnle ntB~
Ans. (c) : yeeuekeâ Úle ceW Kesue jns nQ~ 35. ncekeâes, legcekeâes Deewj jece keâes DeJeMÙe peevee nw~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– yeeuekeâ Úle hej Kesue jns nQ~ (a) nceW, legcnW Deewj jece keâes DeJeMÙe peevee nw~
28. meceüeš efJepeÙeer neskesâ jepeOeeveer ceW DeeÙee~ (b) cegPes, legcnW Deewj jece keâes DeJeMÙe peevee nw~
(a) meceüeš efJepeÙeer neskeâj jepeOeeveer DeeÙee~ (c) ncekeâes, legckeâes, Deewj jece keâes DeJeMÙe ner peevee nw~
(b) meceüeš efJepeÙeer neskesâ jepeOeeveer heOeeje~ Ans. (a) : ncekeâes, legcekeâes Deewj jece keâes DeJeMÙe peevee nw~
(c) meceüeš efJepeÙeer neskeâj jepeOeeveer ceW heOeeje~ Megæ JeekeäÙe– nceW, legcnW Deewj jece keâes DeJeMÙe peevee nw~
Ans. (c) : meceüeš efJepeÙeer neskesâ jepeOeeveer ceW DeeÙee~ 36. ieerlee iece& hÙeeuee ÛeeÙe efheuee oes~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– meceüeš efJepeÙeer neskeâj jepeOeeveer ceW heOeeje~ (a) ieerlee ÛeeÙe keâe Skeâ iece& hÙeeuee efheuee oes~
(b) ieerlee Skeâ hÙeeuee iece& ÛeeÙe efheuee oes~
29. ceQ legcnejs GppeJeue YeefJe<Ùe keâer keâecevee keâjlee ntB~
(c) ieerlee iece& ÛeeÙe keâe Skeâ hÙeeuee efheuee oes~
(a) ceQ legcnejs GppeJeue YeefJe<Ùe keâer keâecevee keâjlee ntB~
Ans. (b) : ieerlee iece& hÙeeuee ÛeeÙe efheuee oes~
(b) ceQ legcnejs YeefJe<Ùe keâer GppJeue keâecevee keâjlee ntB~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– ieerlee Skeâ hÙeeuee iece& ÛeeÙe efheuee oes~
(c) ceQ legcnejs GppJeue YeefJe<Ùe keâer keâecevee keâjlee ntB~
37. cenelcee ieeBOeer keâe osMe meoe DeYeejer jnsiee~
Ans. (c) : ceQ legcnejs GppeJeue YeefJe<Ùe keâer keâecevee keâjlee ntB~
(a) osMe meoe cenelcee ieeBOeer keâe DeeYeejer jnsiee~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– ceQ legcnejs GppJeue YeefJe<Ùe keâer keâecevee keâjlee ntB~
(b) osMe meoe cenelcee ieeBOeer keâe DeeYeejer jnsiee~
30. jeJeCe keâe DehejeOe oC[ osves ÙeesiÙe Lee~ (c) meoe osMe cenelcee ieeBOeer keâe DeeYeejer jnsiee~
(a) jeJeCe keâe DehejeOe ÙeesiÙe Lee oC[ osves kesâ~ Ans. (a & b) : cenelcee ieeBOeer keâe osMe meoe DeYeejer jnsiee~
(b) jeJeCe keâe DehejeOe oC[ heeves ÙeesiÙe Lee~ Megæ JeekeäÙe– osMe meoe cenelcee ieeBOeer keâe DeeYeejer jnsiee~
(c) jeJeCe keâe DehejeOe oC[ ÙeesiÙe heeves Lee~ 38. iele jefJeJeej keâes Jen yecyeF& peeSiee~
Ans. (b) : jeJeCe keâe DehejeOe oC[ osves ÙeesiÙe Lee~ (a) jefJeJeej Jen yecyeF& peeSiee~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– jeJeCe keâe DehejeOe oC[ heeves ÙeesiÙe Lee~ (b) iele jefJeJeej Jen yecyeF& ieÙee Lee~
31. jece ceesnve Deewj meesnve DeÛÚe Úe$e nQ~ (c) iele jefJeJeej keâes Jen yecyeF& ieÙee Lee~
(a) jece ceesnve Deewj meesnve DeÛÚs Úe$e nQ~ Ans. (b) : iele jefJeJeej keâes Jen yecyeF& peeSiee~
(b) jece, ceesnve Deewj meesnve DeÛÚe Úe$e nQ~ Megæ JeekeäÙe– iele jefJeJeej Jen yecyeF& ieÙee Lee~
(c) jece, ceesnve Deewj meesnve DeÛÚs Úe$e nQ~ 39. Ûeuees ÛeueW mewj keâjves iebiee kesâ efkeâveejs~
Ans. (c) : jece ceesnve Deewj meesnve DeÛÚe Úe$e nQ~ (a) ÛeueW Ûeuees mewj keâjves iebiee kesâ efkeâveejs~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– jece, ceesnve Deewj meesnve DeÛÚs Úe$e nQ~ (b) Ûeuees iebiee kesâ efkeâveejs mewj keâjves ÛeueW~
32. YeejleerÙe yeÌ[s meYÙe Deewj megmebmke=âle nQ~ (c) mewj keâjves iebiee kesâ efkeâveejs ÛeueW~
(a) YeejleerÙe yengle meYÙe Deewj megmebmke=âle nQ~ Ans. (b) : Ûeuees ÛeueW mewj keâjves iebiee kesâ efkeâveejs~
(b) YeejleerÙe yeÌ[s meYÙe Deewj megmebmke=âle nQ~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– Ûeuees iebiee kesâ efkeâveejs mewj keâjves ÛeueW~
(c) YeejleerÙe yengle meYÙe Deewj megmebmke=âle nw~ 40. jece, ue#ceCe Deewj meerlee Jeve keâes ieF&~
(a) jece, ue#ceCe Deewj meerlee Jeve ieF&~
Ans. (a) : YeejleerÙe yeÌ[s meYÙe Deewj megmebmke=âle nQ~
(b) jece, meerlee Deewj ue#ceCe Jeve keâes ieS~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– YeejleerÙe yengle meYÙe Deewj megmebmke=âle nQ~
(c) jece, ue#ceCe Deewj meerlee Jeve keâes ieS~
33. DeveskeâeW ueesieeW ves cegPes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~
Ans. (c) : jece, ue#ceCe Deewj meerlee Jeve keâes ieF&~
(a) DeveskeâeW ueesie ves cegPes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– jece, ue#ceCe Deewj meerlee Jeve keâes ieS~
(b) Deveskeâ ueesieeW ves cegPes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~
efveoxMe : efvecveefueefKele 10 JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe keâe Skeâ
(c) DeveskeâeW ueesie ves cegPes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~
Meyo jsKeebefkeâle nw~ nj jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS a, b, c, d kesâ
Ans. (b) : DeveskeâeW ueesieeW ves cegPes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~ meeceves Skeâ-Skeâ Meyo efueKee ieÙee nw~ FveceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
Megæ JeekeäÙe– Deveskeâ ueesieeW ves cegPes hekeâÌ[ efueÙee~ mes DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes pees Jewkeâefuhekeâ Meyo Deefle efvekeâš nw Gmes
34. Gmekeâer meewvoÙe&Ùelee hej ceesefnle ntB~ efÛeefvnle keâerefpeS~
(a) Gmekesâ meewvoÙe&lee hej ceesefnle ntB~ 41. ceueÙe–meceerj Meerleue Je megieefvOele nesleer nw~
(b) Gmekesâ meewvoÙe& hej ceesefnle ntB~ (a) Deefveue (b) Deveue
(c) Gmekeâer meewvoÙe& hej ceesefnle ntB~ (c) Deveerue (d) Deeveue
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2006 156 YCT
 Ans. (a) : ceueÙe–meceerj Meerleue Je megieefvOele nesleer nw~ JeekeäÙe ceW Ans. (b) : Ûebove kesâ Je=#e hej JÙeeue efuehešs jnles nQ, ceW JÙeeue mes
jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâe meceeveeLeea Meyo nesiee– Deefveue mecyeefvOele Meyo Ùee efvekeâš Meyo nesiee– meeBhe
DevÙe meceeveeLeea Meyo meceerj kesâ– ce®le, ØeYebpeve, yeÙeej, meceerjCe, ‘meeBhe’ kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo– Deefn, Yegpebie, efJe<eOej, HeâCeer,
heJeve, Jeele, cee®efle, Øekeâcheve~ veeie, hevveie FlÙeeefo~
42. ÛeceÌ[e keâe DeLe& nw– 49. ieesOetefue keâer yesuee nw~
(a) mesvee (b) ÛebJej (a) ieeÙeeW keâer Oetue (b) DebOekeâej
(c) efove-jeef$e keâe efceueve (d) ieeÙeeW keâ mecetn
(c) Ûece& (d) Ûeerleue
Ans. (c) : ieesOetefue keâer yesuee nw, ceW ieesOetefue keâe DeLe& nesiee– efove-
Ans. (b) : ÛeceÌ[e keâe DeLe& neslee nw– ÛebJej
jeef$e keâe efceueve~
DevÙe meceeveeLeea Meyo– Keeue, ÛeceÌ[e, Ûece&, lJeÛee FlÙeeefo~
50. lejveer levetpee leš leceeue le®Jej yeng ÚeÙes~
43. Deefue keâueer ner meeQ yeeOÙees DeeieQ keâewve nJeeue~
(a) ke=â<Ce (b) Je=#e-efJeMes<e
(a) meKeer (b) Yeücej (c) levee (d) le®Ce
(c) jmeerkeâ (d) heefle Ans. (b) : lejveer levetpee leš leceeue le®Jej yeng ÚeÙes, ceW leceeue
Ans. (b) : ‘Deefue keâueer ner meeQ yeeOÙees DeeieQ keâewve nJeeue’ oesns ceW Meyo keâe DeLe& nesiee– Je=#e-efJeMes<e
jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Deefue’ keâe DeLe& nw– Yeücej~ ‘Yeücej’ kesâ DevÙe efveoxMe : veerÛes efueKes JeekeäÙe Ùee JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej
heÙee&ÙeJeeleer Meyo nQ– ceOegkeâj, ceOeghe, Ye=bie, Yeewje, ceOegjepe, ceOegYe#ee Meyo efoÙes ieÙes nQ~ FveceW mes Skeâ GheÙegkeäle Meyo Ûegvekeâj Gòej-
FlÙeeefo~ hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefvnle keâjW~
44. keâyeerj kesâ heo DeOÙeelce mes mecyeefvOele nQ~ 51. cejCeemevve DeJemLee Jeeuee~
(a) Oece& (b) oMe&ve (a) cetcet<e& (b) cegcet<e&
(c) Deelcee (d) Deelcee-hejceelcee (c) cetcet<e (d) cegcet<e&
Ans. (d) : keâyeerj kesâ heo DeOÙeelce mes mecyeefvOele nQ, ceW DeOÙeelce Ans. (b & d) : cejCeemevve DeJemLee Jeeuee – cegcet<e&
kesâ efvekeâš Meyo nesiee– Deelcee-hejceelcee~ 52. efpemekeâe mecyevOe mecemle he=LJeer mes nes~
45. Ùen ØeLee meveeleve keâeue mes Ûeueer Dee jner nw~ (a) Yet-ieYeea (b) meeJe&Yeewefcekeâ
(c) Yetjepe (d) Yetefceheefle
(a) Jewefokeâkeâeue (b) Yetlekeâeue
Ans. (b) : efpemekeâe mecyevOe mecemle he=LJeer mes nes – meeJe&Yeewefcekeâ
(c) ncesMee (d) jereflekeâeue
53. pees ueesieeW mes megveer ieF& nes~
Ans. (a) : Ùen ØeLee meveeleve keâeue mes Ûeueer Dee jner nw, JeekeäÙe ceW
(a) Øeefleßegefle (b) Devegßegefle
jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâe Deefle efvekeâš Meyo nesiee– Jewefokeâkeâeue
(c) ßegefle (d) megßegefle
meveeleve keâe DeLe& nw, pees yengle henues mes Ûeuee Dee jne nes~
Ans. (b) : pees ueesieeW mes megveer ieF& nes – Devegßegefle
46. Jenve veJeerle keâneB peelee nw, jn peelee le›eâ~
54. ieeso efueÙee ngDee heg$e~
(a) lelJe (b) ceªe
(a) GòejeefOekeâejer (b) ollekeâ
(c) mebmeej (d) leLÙe (c) olekeâ (d) keâevetve DeefOekeâejer
Ans. (b) : Jenve veJeerve keâne peelee nw, jn peelee le›eâ~ Ùen Ans. (b) : ieeso efueÙee ngDee heg$e – ollekeâ
cewefLeueerMejCe ieghle keâer keâefJelee ‘ÙeMeesOeje’ keâe Skeâ DebMe nw, efpemeceW 55. Deemeheeme yew"keâj efkeâmeer efJe<eÙe hej efJeÛeej keâjvee~
efmeæeLe& keâe efÛevleve Øekeâš ngDee nw efpemeceW efmeæeLe& peerJeve kesâ (a) Gheefve<eo (b) cev$eCee
meejlelJe ¤heer cešd"s keâer Øeeefhle keâer yeele keâjles nQ~ Dele: keâefJelee kesâ (c) <e[Ùeb$e (d) iees<"er
DebMe ceW DeeÙes ‘le›eâ’ keâe DeLe& cešd"e nw~ Ans. (b) : Deemeheeme yew"keâj efkeâmeer efJe<eÙe hej efJeÛeej keâjvee –
47. yegæ keâes Deueewefkeâkeâ %eeve Øeeefhle ngF&~ ceb$eCee
(a) ueeskeâ mes mecyeefvOele (b) yeÇåce mes mecyeefvOele 56. efpemekeâer $egefšÙeeB otj keâj oer ieF& nes~
(c) ueewkeâer mes mecyeefvOele (d) mebmeej mes mecyeefvOele (a) $egefšnerve (b) mebMeesefOele
Ans. (b) : yegæ keâes Deueewefkeâkeâ %eeve Øeeefhle ngF& ceW Deueewefkeâkeâ Meyo (c) MeesefOele (d) $egefšJeeve
kesâ efvekeâš Meyo nesiee– yeÇåce mes mecyeefvOele Ans. (b) : efpemekeâer $egefšÙeeB otj keâj oer ieF& nes – mebMeesefOele
Deueewefkeâkeâ keâe DeLe& neslee nw pees Fme ueeskeâ ceW ve efceuelee nes~ 57. pees DeekeâeMe ceW Ietcelee nes~
48. Ûebove kesâ Je=#e hej JÙeeue efuehešs jnles nQ~ (a) KesÛej (b) YetÛej
(a) efieuenjer (b) meeBhe (c) peueÛej (d) ieghleÛej
(c) efyeuueer (d) JÙeeIeÇ Ans. (a) : pees DeekeâeMe ceW Ietcelee nes – KesÛej

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2006 157 YCT

58. pees Øeefleefove venelee nes~ 65. Deefcuekeâe–
(a) efvelmveeveer (b) efvelÙemveeÙeer (a) Decejkeâ (b) Dece¤o
(c) Øeeflemveeveer (d) ØeeflemveeÙeer (c) Deveej (d) Fceueer
Ans. (b) : pees Øeefleefove venelee nes – efvelÙemveeÙeer Ans. (d)
59. pees $e+Ce os~ lelmece leodYeJe
(a) GlleceCe& (b) DeOeceCe& Deefcuekeâe – Fceueer
(c) $e+Ceer (d) G$e+Ceer 66. ieesOetce–
Ans. (a) : (a) ieeÙe (b) iesntB
pees $e+Ce os – GlleceCe& (c) peew (d) ieeÙe kesâ Ketj
pees $e+Ce ueslee nes – $e+Ceer
Ans. (b)
efpemeves $e+Ce Ûegkeâe efoÙee nes – G$e+Ceer lelmece leoYeJe
$e+Ce uesves Jeeuee – DeOeceCe&
ieesOetce – iesntB
60. efpemekeâe oceve keâjvee keâef"ve nes~
ieew – ieeÙe
(a) ogoefcele (b) ogo&ceveerÙe
ÙeJe – peew
(c) megoceveerÙe (d) ocevenerve
67. ce=efllekeâe–
Ans. (b) : efpemekeâe oceve keâjvee keâef"ve nes – ogo&ceveerÙe
(a) efceóer (b) KeefÌ[Ùee
efveoxMe : efvecveefueefKele lelmece MeyoeW kesâ efueS efoÙes Ûeej-Ûeej
(c) Ûetvee (d) helLej
Jewkeâefuhekeâ leoYeJe Meyo efoÙes ieÙes nQ a, b, c, d ceW mes GheÙegkeäle
Meyo keâes efÛeefvnle keâjW~ Ans. (a)
lelmece leoYeJe
61. keâllesve–
(a) KegjÛeve (b) keâlejvee
ce=efllekeâe – efceóer
(c) efkeâle&ve (d) efHeâmeueve ÛetCe& – Ûetvee
Ans. (b) Øemlej – helLej
lelmece leoYeJe 68. Decyee–
keâllesve – keâlejvee (a) Deccee (b) ogiee&
62. ÛeJe&Ce– (c) Kecyee (d) Deece
(a) megvevee (b) efyeuevee Ans. (a)
(c) Ûeuevee (d) Ûeyeevee lelmece leoYeJe
Ans. (d) mlecYe – Kecyee
lelmece leoYeJe Decyee – Deccee
ÛeJe&Ce – Ûeyeevee Deeceü – Deece
63. kegâ"ej– 69. le=Ce–
(a) uekeâÌ[er (b) keâehe" (a) peÌ[ (b) Hetâue
(c) kegâuneÌ[er (d) Heâjmee
(c) levee (d) eflevekeâe
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
lelmece leoYeJe
lelmece leoYeJe
kegâ"ej – kegâuneÌ[er
le=Ce – eflevekeâe
64. Deef#e–
peše – peÌ[
(a) ceÚueer (b) cekeäKeer
Hegâuue – Hetâue
(c) veeJe (d) DeeBKe
70. ße=bKeuee–
Ans. (d)
lelmece leoYeJe (a) kegbâ[e (b) Ûeškeâveer
Deef#e – DeeBKe (c) meebkeâue (d) Deie&uee
celmÙe – ceÚueer Ans. (c)
ceef#ekeâe – cekeäKeer lelmece leoYeJe
veewkeâe – veeJe ße=bKeuee – meebkeâue
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2006 158 YCT
efveoxMe : efvecveefueefKele cegneJejeW kesâ efueS a, b, c, d De#ej kesâ JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie– Deepe kesâ ÙegJee heer{Ì er keâes helee nw efkeâ veMee keâjvee
meeceves DeLe& efueKes ngS nQ FveceW mes GheÙegkeäle DeLe& keâes Gòej neefvekeâejkeâ nw Jes efHeâj Yeer veMes keâer uele ces heÌ[s jnles nQ Jes
hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefvnle keâjW~ peeveyetPekeâj cekeäKeer efveieueves pewmee keâece keâj jns nQ~
71. cegBn ceW Ketve ueievee 77. cegBn Ûeueevee~
(a) Ûeesš ueievee (b) Ketve keâes cetBn hej ueieevee (a) Keevee Keevee (b) ieevee
(c) JÙemeve heÌ[ peevee (d) KegMe nesvee (c) yekeâJeeme keâjvee (d) iehme ceejvee
Ans. (c) : cegBn ceW Ketve ueievee cegneJejs keâe DeLe& nesiee– JÙemeve ceW
Ans. (c) : cegBn Ûeueevee – yekeâJeeme keâjvee
heÌ[ peevee
JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie– Meece keâes ÛeeÙe keâer ogkeâeve hej jesefnle Deheveer heÌ{eF&
JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie– peye jcesMe ves pegDeeb Kesuevee Meg¤ efkeâÙee leye mes Jen
ÚesÌ[keâj oes IeCšs cegBn Ûeueelee nw DeLee&led yekeâJeeme keâjlee jnlee nw~
ncesMee ner pegDeeb Kesuelee nw Deye Gmekesâ cegBn ceW Ketve ueie ieÙee nw
78. DeeBKeeW ceW Ûeyeea Úe peevee~
DeLee&led jcesMe Deye JÙeJemeve ceW heÌ[ ieÙee nw~
(a) DeeBKe ceW jesie nesvee (b) ›eâesefOele nesvee
72. Oeesleer {erueer nesvee~
(c) DeefYeceeveer nesvee (d) JÙeefLele nesvee
(a) heesue Keguevee (b) Ieyeje peevee
(c) yesFppeleer nesvee (d) mecceeve Ans. (c)
Ans. (b) : Oeesleer {erueer nesvee cegneJejs keâe DeLe&– Ieyeje peevee
DeeBKeeW ceW Ûeyeea Úe peevee, cegneJejs keâe DeLe& nesiee– DeefYeceeveer
JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie– Mewues<e ves meeue Yej heÌ{eF& veneR efkeâ Deewj peye nesvee~
hejer#ee keâ#e ceW yew"e lees ØeMvehe$e osKekeâj Ieyeje ieÙee~ JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie– jengue keâer peye mes mejkeâejer veewkeâjer ueie ieÙeer nw leye
73. yeieguee Yeiele~
mes Jen meerOes cegBn efkeâmeer mes yeele ner veneR keâjlee, Ssmee ueielee nw pewmes
(a) F&ceeveoej JÙeefkeäle (b) Oetle& JÙeefkeäle
Jen DeefYeceeveer nes ieÙee nw~
(c) Oeeefce&keâ JÙeefkeäle (d) keâevetveer JÙeefkeäle 79. petleer Ûeešvee~
Ans. (b) : yeieguee Yeiele cegneJejs keâe DeLe&– Oetle& JÙeefkeäle (a) petleeW keâes peerYe mes Ûeešvee (b) Pet" yeesuevee
JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie– DeeMeejece yeehet Skeâ yeieguee Yeiele Lee Gmekeâer heesue (c) KegMeeceo keâjvee (d) Ûetieueer keâjvee
Kegueves hej Jen pesue Ûeuee ieÙee~ Ans. (c) : petleer Ûeešvee – KegMeeceo keâjvee~
74. meele Ieeš keâe heeveer heervee~ JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie– Deheves YeeF& keâer veewkeâjer ueieJeeves kesâ efueS jcesMe
(a) leerLe& Ùee$ee keâjvee (b) IeešeW hej pee keâj heeveer heervee ncesMee Deheves GÛÛe DeefOekeâeefjÙeeW keâer KegMeeceo keâjlee jnlee nw~
(c) DevegYeJeer nesvee (d) DevegYeJenerve nesvee 80. eflevekeâe oeBleeW ceW uesvee~
Ans. (c) : meele Ieeš keâe heeveer heervee cegneJejs keâe DeLe& nesiee– (a) oeble meeHeâ keâjvee (b) iegmmee keâjvee
DevegYeJeer nesvee (c) nej ceevevee (d) ogKeer nesvee
JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie– Depeerle [esYeeue peer keâes Yeejle keâe megj#ee meueenkeâej Ans. (c) : eflevekeâe oeBleeW ceW uesvee, cegneJejs keâe DeLe& nesiee– nej
yeveeÙee ieÙee nw keäÙeeWefkeâ Jes Skeâ Jeefj<" IPS DeefOekeâejer nQ Deewj ceevevee~
heeefkeâmleeve, yeebiueeosMe pewmes osMeeW ceW Depeerle [esYeeue peer Yeejle keâer JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie– Yeejle ves SkeâefoJemeerÙe cewÛe ceW henueer heejer ceW 445
megj#ee kesâ efueS keâF& Je<eeX lekeâ keâeÙe& efkeâÙee nw~ jve yevee efueS efJehe#eer šerce ves jve osKekeâj ner nej ceeve ieÙeer~
75. Mewleeve kesâ keâeve keâlejvee~
efveoxMe : efvecve JeekeäÙeeW ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS a, b, c, d
(a) efkeâmeer kesâ keâeve keâešvee (b) DeefOekeâ Ûelegj nesvee
De#ej kesâ meeceves Deueie-Deueie Meyo efueKes ngS nQ~ Fve MeyoeW ceW
(c) DeefOekeâ DevegYeJeer nesvee (d) DeefOekeâ Jeerj nesvee
mes GheÙegkeäle efJeueesce Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefvnle
Ans. (b) : Mewleeve kesâ keâeve keâlejvee cegneJejs keâe DeLe& nesiee–
keâjW~
DeefOekeâ Ûelegj nesvee~
81. meeceeefpekeâ peerJeve ceW jepeveerefle keâe efJemleej "erkeâ veneR–
JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie– ceesnve yengle Ûelegj ueÌ[keâe nw, Kego ceesnve jele Yej
(a) efJekeâeme (b) mebkeâesÛe
heÌ{lee nw, uesefkeâve efove Yej yeÛÛeeW kesâ meeLe Kesuelee nw Deewj Mewleeveer
(c) DeYeeJe (d) Deheej
keâjlee nw Deewj peye hejer#ee kesâ heefjCeece Deeles nQ lees Deewj yeÛÛeeW keâer
Dehes#ee Gmekesâ vecyej meJee&efOekeâ Deeles nQ~ Ans. (c) : meeceeefpekeâ peerJeve ceW jepeveerefle keâe efJemleej "erkeâ veneR ceW,
76. peerleer cekeäKeer efveieuevee~ efJemleej keâe efJeueesce nesiee– DeYeeJe, peyeefkeâ efJekeâeme keâe Üeme,
(a) Devepeeves ceW ieueleer keâjvee (b) peeveyetPekeâj ieueleer keâjvee mebkeâesÛe keâe efve:mebkeâesÛe, leLee Deheej keâe LeesÌ[e efJeueesce Meyo nw~
(c) cekeäKeer keâer Keevee (d) cekeäKeer keâes hekeâÌ[vee 82. FefvõÙeeW keâes peerlekeâj ner cees#e keâer Øeeefhle mecYeJe nw~
Ans. (b) : peerleer cekeäKeer efveieuevee, cegneJejs keâe DeLe& nesiee– (a) yebOeve (b) mebÙece
peeveyetPekeâj ieueleer keâjvee~ (c) peerJeve (d) melÙe

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2006 159 YCT

 Ans. (a) : FefvõÙeeW keâes peerlekeâj ner cees#e keâer Øeeefhle mecYeJe nw, ceW Ans. (a) : hegmlekeâ keâe veJeerve mebmkeâjCe DevegheueyOe nw, ceW veJeerve keâe
cees#e keâe efJeueesce – yebOeve, peyeefkeâ mebÙece keâe DemebÙece, peerJeve keâe efJeueesce – ØeeÛeerve
cejCe, leLee melÙe keâe DemelÙe efJeueesce Meyo nw~ efveoxMe : efvecveefueefKele DeMegæ MeyoeW kesâ efueS a, b, c, d kesâ
83. jcesMe ØeKej yeeuekeâ nw~ meeceves Deueie-Deueie Meyo efueKes ieÙes nQ~ FveceW mes Megæ Meyo keâes
(a) cetKe& (b) yegefæceeve efÛeefvnle keâerefpeS~
(c) Ûeeueekeâ (d) yesJeketâHeâ 91. ogmeeOÙe–
(a) ogmmeeOÙe (b) otmeeOÙe
Ans. (a)
jcesMe ØeKej yeeuekeâ nw, ceW ØeKej keâe efJeueesce nesiee – cetKe&, peyeefkeâ (c) otmmeeOÙe (d) štmeeOeÙe

yegefæceeve keâe cetKe&, Ûeeueekeâ keâe yesJeketâHeâ, yesJeketâHeâ keâe mecePeoej Ans. (a) : ogmeeOÙe keâe Megæ Meyo nesiee – ogmmeeOÙe
efJeueesce Meyo nw~ 92. JÙeJeneefjkeâ–
(a) JÙeeJeeneefjkeâ (b) JÙeeJeneefjkeâ
84. otef<ele JeeleeJejCe ÛeejeW Deesj JÙeehle nw~
(c) JÙeeJeenejerkeâ (d) JÙeeJenejerkeâ
(a) ot<eCe jefnle (b) Deotef<ele
Ans. (b) : JÙeJeneefjkeâ keâe Megæ Meyo nesiee – JÙeeJeneefjkeâ
(c) DeMegæ (d) efJeMegæ
93. yeeuceerefkeâ–
Ans. (b) : otef<ele JeeleeJejCe ÛeejeW Deesj JÙeehle nw, ceW otef<ele keâe
(a) Jeeuceerefkeâ (b) yeeueceerefkeâ
efJeueesce Meyo nesiee – Deotef<ele (c) yeeefucekeâer (d) yeeuceerefkeâ
85. DeefleJe=ef<š kesâ keâejCe Heâmeue ve<š nes ieF&~ Ans. (a) : yeeuceerefkeâ keâe Megæ Meyo nesiee – Jeeuceerefkeâ
(a) DeefOeJe=ef<š (b) efveJe=ef<š 94. DeeshevÙeeefmekeâ–
(c) DeveeJe=ef<š (d) Dekeâeue (a) DeewhevÙeeefmekeâ (b) DeewheveÙeeefmekeâ
Ans. (c) : DeefleJe=ef<š kesâ keâejCe Heâmeue ve<š nes ieF&, ceW DeefleJe=ef<š (c) DeeshevÙeemeerkeâ (d) DeewhevÙeemeerkeâ
keâe efJeueesce nesiee – DeveeJe=ef<š Ans. (a) : DeeshevÙeeefmekeâ keâe Megæ Meyo nesiee – DeewhevÙeeefmekeâ
86. jece kesâ yeeCe yengle leer#Ce Les~ 95. GuebIeve–
(a) kegbâef"le (b) Mesj (a) GuuebIeve (b) GuueIebve
(c) lespe (d) peÌ[ (c) GueIebve (d) GueuebIeve
Ans. (a) : jece kesâ yeeCe yengle leer#Ce Les, ceW leer#Ce keâe efJeueesce Ans. (a) : GuebIeve keâe Megæ Meyo nesiee – GuuebIeve
nesiee– kegbâef"le 96. ogjeJemLee–
(a) otjeJemLee (b) ogjJemLee
87. JÙeefkeäle efceleJÙeÙeer nesles nQ~
(c) otjJemLee (d) otjJemLee
(a) DeuheJÙeÙeer (b) DeheJÙeÙeer
Ans. (b) : ogjeJemLee keâe Megæ Meyo nesiee – ogjJemLee
(c) DeefOeJÙÙeer (d) yengJÙeÙeer
97. keâefJeÙe$eer–
Ans. (b) : JÙeefkeäle efceleJÙeÙeer nesles nQ, ceW efceleJÙeÙeer keâe efJeueesce
(a) keâefJeÙe$eer (b) keâefJeefÙe$eer
nesiee – DeheJÙeÙeer (c) keâJeefÙe$eer (d) keâJeefÙe$eer
88. he=lJeer mes nceW efJehegue mebÙece Øeehle nesleer nw~ Ans. (c) : keâefJeÙe$eer keâe Megæ Meyo nesiee – keâJeefÙe$eer
(a) vÙetve (b) efJeMeeue 98. ueyOeØeefleef<"le–
(c) DeefOekeâ (d) efJeue#eCe (a) uebyeOeØeefleef<"le (b) ueyOeØeefle<"
Ans. (a) : he=lJeer mes nceW efJehegue mebÙece Øeehle nesleer nw, ceW efJehegue keâe (c) ueyOeØeefleef<"le (d) ueyeOeØeefle<"
efJeueesce nesiee – vÙetve Ans. (b) : ueyOeØeefleef<"le keâe Megæ Meyo nesiee – ueyOeØeefle<"
89. ÛeeCekeäÙe kegâefšue yegefæÙegkeäle Lee~ 99. meebmeeefjkeâ–
(a) mejue (b) keâef"ve (a) mebmeejerkeâ (b) meebmeeefjkeâ
(c) menpe (d) og<š (c) meebmeejerkeâ (d) meebmeefjkeâ
Ans. (a) : ÛeeCekeäÙe kegâefšue yegefæÙegkeäle Lee, ceW kegâefšue keâe efJeueesce Ans. (b) : meebmeeefjkeâ keâe Megæ Meyo nesiee – meebmeeefjkeâ
nesiee – mejue 100. hetpÙeveerÙe–
90. hegmlekeâ keâe veJeerve mebmkeâjCe DevegheueyOe nw~ (a) hetpeveerÙe (b) hetpÙebefveÙe
(a) ØeeÛeerve (b) hegjeleve (c) hetpeveerÙe (d) hetpeefveÙe
(c) hegjevee (d) ØeLece Ans. (a & c) : hetpÙeveerÙe keâe Megæ Meyo nesiee – hetpeveerÙe

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2006 160 YCT

 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2006
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL ENGLISH (PAPER-II)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Marks : 100

SPOTTING ERRORS : that whether we want to read it

Directions (Q. No. 1-20) Read each sentence to find out (b)
whether there is an error in any underline part No
sentence has more than one error. If you feel there is no only once or more than once No error
error in a sentence, signify a 'No Error' response : (c) (d)
How long you have been in this city Ans. (b) : option (b) ceW that whether we want to read it
1. ?
(a) (b) (c) kesâ mLeeve hej whether we want to read it keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee,
No error keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe ceW that keâe ØeÙeesie superfluous nw~ Dele: Megæ
(d) JeekeäÙe nesiee– The test of a great book is whether we want
Ans. (b) : Part (b) ceW you have been kesâ mLeeve hej have to read it only once or more than once.
you been keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Meg®Deele ceW how He made proposals with a view
7.
long (adverb) kesâ ØeÙeesie mes mhe° nw efkeâ JeekeäÙe interrogative ceW (a)
nw~ (Question word + H.V. + Subject + Object+ other to bringing the conflicting parties
word). (b)
Dele: Correct sentence will be– How long have you to common platform No error
been in the city? (c) (d)
Like all the women she loves tea parties Ans. (b) : option (b) ceW the conflicting parties kesâ mLeeve
2.
(a) (b) hej the conflict parties keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ parties Skeâ
and gossip No error noun nw, Deewj Gmekesâ henues Adj. (conflict) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
(c) (d) Dele: Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee– He made proposals with a view to
Ans. (d) : No error bringing the conflict parties to common platform.
She has slept for eight hours last night His brother neither has
3. 8.
(a) (b) (c) (a)
No error the personality nor the ability
(d) (b)
Ans. (d) : No error to become an executive No error
Have you finished to read the noval (c) (d)
4.
(a) (b) (c) Ans. (a) : option (a) ceW His brother neither has kesâ mLeeve
No error hej His brother has neither keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ neither
(d) ---------- nor Skeâ co-relative conjunction nw~ Dele: Fmemes
Ans. (b) : option (b) ceW to read (to + v1) infinitive kesâ some parts of speech peesÌ[s peeles nQ~ Hence correct
mLeeve hej reading (v + ing) Gerund form keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, sentence will be– His brother has neither the
keäÙeeWefkeâ some verbs is followed by the – ing, for example personality nor the ability to become an executive.
– finish, keep, avoid, begin, detest, dislike enjoy etc. No sooner he appeared
9.
Hence the correct sentence will be – Have you finished (a)
reading the novel?
on the stage than the people began
The officer advised me to meet (b)
5.
(a) (b)
to cheer him loudly No error
the concerned clerk No error
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
Ans. (a) : option (a) ceW No sooner he appeared kesâ mLeeve
Ans. (d) : No error
hej No sooner did he appear keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ No
The test of a great book is
6. sooner ........ than keâe ØeÙeesie nce leye keâjles nQ peye Skeâ keâece
(a)
Kelce nesves mes henues otmeje keâece Meg¤ nes peelee nw~ No sooner,
BPSC AE Gen. English, 2006 161 YCT
 barely, hardly leLee scarcely kesâ meeLe verb keâe inversion The hall was packed to an almost
15.
(verb keâes noun mes henues jKevee) efkeâÙee peelee nw~ Dele: Megæd (a) (b)
JeekeäÙe nesiee– No sooner did he appear on the stage than maximum capacity No error
the people began to cheer him loudly. (c) (d)
The driver has mistook the road he Ans. (b) : ÙeneB an almost kesâ mLeeve hej the almost keâe ØeÙeesie
10.
(a) (b) GheÙegkeäle nesiee~
took the wrong turn No error correct sentence– The hall was packed to the almost
(c) (d) maximum capacity.
Ans. (a) : option (a) ceW The driver has mistook kesâ mLeeve Ganga is a sacred river of the Hindus
16.
hej The drier has mistaken keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee (a) (b) (c)
JeekeäÙe Present Perfect Tense ceW nw~ Dele: verb kesâ III form No error
keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ mistake (V1) – mistook (V2) – mistaken (d)
(V3) neslee nw~ Hence correct sentence will be – The Ans. (a) : Ganga kesâ mLeeve hej The Ganga keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee,
driver has mistaken the road he took the wrong turn. keäÙeeWefkeâ veefoÙeeW kesâ veece mes meeLe definite article 'the' keâe ØeÙeesie
11.
I as well as my parents, sister and brother efkeâÙee peelee nw~ Hence correct sentence will be–
(a) (b) The Ganga is a sacred river of the Hindus.
are going to Calcutta No error My friend-told me
17.
(c) (d) (a)
Ans. (c) : option (c) ceW are kesâ mLeeve hej am keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, that he will visit me yesterday
keäÙeeWefkeâ as well as (conjunction) mes pegÌ[s noun Ùee pronoun (b)
ceW as well as kesâ henues DeeÙes noun/person (I) kesâ Devegmeej But he did not come No error
verb (am) keâes jKeles nQ~ Dele: Megæ JeekeäÙe– I as well as my (c) (d)
parents, sister and brother am going to Calcutta.
Ans. (b) : part (b) ceW that he will visit me yesterday kesâ
You as well as he are expected to chalk out mLeeve hej that he would visit me yesterday keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee,
12.
(a) (b) keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe Indirect Narration ceW nw~
programme for the future No error Correct Sentence– My friend told me that he would
(c) (d) visit me yesterday but he did not come.
Ans. (d) : No error. His finger began to bleed
18.
The news were received (a) (b)
13.
(a) as soon as he cut himself No error
that the eminent educationist and author (c) (d)
(b) Ans. (b) : option (b) ceW began to bleed kesâ mLeeve hej
has passed away No error began bleeding keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ kegâÚ verbs – ing
(c) (d) form keâes follow keâjleer nw~ pewmes– begin, finish, keep, avoid
Ans. (a) : option (a) ceW The news were received kesâ mLeeve etc.
hej The news was received keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ The The correct sentence will be– His finger began
news Skeâ singular subject nw~ Dele: verb Yeer singular bleeding as soon as he cut himself.
nesieer~ The correct sentence will be – It is true that God helps those
19.
The news was received that the eminent educationist (a) (b)
and author has passed away.
who helps themselves No error
Mathematics is not a subject I am interested (c) (d)
14.
(a) (b)
Ans. (c) : option (c) ceW who helps themselves kesâ mLeeve
with No error
hej who help themselves keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ who keâe
(c) (d)
antecedent (those) plural form ceW nw~ Dele: those kesâ
Ans. (c) : option (c) ceW with (preposition) kesâ mLeeve hej in Devegmeej plural verb keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
(preposition) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ interested kesâ meeLe Correct Sentence– It is true that God helps those who
preposition (in) keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ Hence the help themselves.
correct sentence will be– Mathematics is not a subject
I am interested in.

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2006 162 YCT

 Being a rainy day we did not go out 26. I ought be working but I like relaxing in the
20. company of friends
(a) (b) (c)
(a) ought working
No error
(b) ought to be working
(d)
(c) should ought to work
Ans. (a) : option (a) ceW being a rainy day kesâ mLeeve hej It (d) No improvement
being a rainy day keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe keâes Ans. (b) : ÙeneB ought be working kesâ mLeeve hej 'ought to
complete keâjves kesâ efueS being kesâ henues as a subject `It' keâe be working' keâe ØeÙeesie JeekeäÙe ceW GefÛele nw~ Øeoòe JeekeäÙe ceW
ØeÙeesie nesiee~ So the correct sentence will be – moral duty keâe YeeJe ought to (modal verb) mes JÙekeäle efkeâÙee
It being a rainy day we did not go out.
ieÙee nw~ Dele: Megæ JeekeäÙe –
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT :
Directions (Q. No. 21 – 40) : Below each sentence three I ought to be working but I like relaxing in the
possible substitutes are given for the italicized part. If company of friends.
one of them is better than the italicized part, indicate 27. I did not recognize him although he said we
your response on the answer-sheet against the had mat before
corresponding letter 'a', 'b', or 'c', if none of the (a) however (b) since
substitutes improves the sentence indicate 'd' as you (c) I spoke about (d) No improvement
response on the answer-sheet. Ans. (a) : JeekeäÙe ceW although (conjunction) kesâ mLeeve hej
21. The police seized the truck carrying smuggled
opium however (conjunction) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ although
(a) caught (b) arrested (ÙeÅeefhe/ceevees) Skeâ contrasting conjunct nw, peyeefkeâ nceW JeekeäÙe
(c) ceased (d) No improvement kesâ DeLe& keâes osKeles ngS conjunctive adverb however
Ans. (d) : No improvement. Seized – peyle keâjvee (leLeeefhe/lees Yeer) (used when you are saying something that
22. You have had to suffer for no fault of you. seems surprising after your previous statement) keâe
(a) in you (b) of yours ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~
(c) by you (d) No improvement
Correct Sentence– I did not recognize him however
Ans. (b) : ÙeneB of you kesâ mLeeve hej of yours keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, he said we had mat before.
keäÙeeWefkeâ preposition kesâ yeeo Deeves Jeeuee pronoun meeceevÙele: 28. The man whom about I spoke of is waiting
objective Ùee possessive form ceW neslee nw~ outside
Correct sentence– You have had to suffer for no fault (a) I spoke about him (b) who I spoke about
of yours. (c) I spoke about (d) No improvement
23. That coffee smells strongly.
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW 'whom about I spoke of' kesâ
(a) smells strong (b) is smelling strong
(c) has smelled strongly (d) No improvement mLeeve hej 'I spoke about' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ Fmekeâe ØeÙeesie
Ans. (d) : No improvement JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
Note– Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW verb, smells keâer efJeMes<elee yeleeves kesâ correct sentence will be–
efueS adverb, strongly keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, ve efkeâ adjective, The man whom I spoke about is waiting outside.
strong keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ 29. "How I wish I am a man", said the girl
24. It is no used going to him again. (a) I was (b) I are
(a) to go (b) to have gone (c) I were (d) No improvement
(c) to be going (d) No improvement Ans. (c) : ÙeneB I am kesâ mLeeve hej option (c) I were keâe
Ans. (c) : ÙeneB going kesâ mLeeve hej to be going keâe ØeÙeesie ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe hypothetical (keâeuheefvekeâ) nw~
nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ no used to + (verb + ing) ceW ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee efpemeceW subject kesâ meeLe helping verb, were keâe ØeÙeesie neslee
nw~ no used to keâe DeLe& nw– 'failed to do' nw~
Correct sentence– It is no used to be going to him Correct sentence will be –
again. "How I wish I were a man" said the girl.
25. I have told you times and again that you should
30. The meeting will start when the manager is
not disturb me in my work.
arriving
(a) time and again (b) time and time
(c) time to time (d) No improvement (a) arrives (b) arrived
(c) was arrived (d) No improvement
Ans. (a) : ÙeneB times and again kesâ mLeeve hej time and
Ans. (a) : ÙeneB arriving kesâ mLeeve hej arrives keâe ØeÙeesie
again (phrase) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ time and again (phrase)
GheÙegòeâ nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ peye principal clause future indefinite
keâe DeLe& nw– many time (keâF& yeej/yeej-yeej)
ceW nes, lees subordinate clause present indefinite ceW neslee nw~
Correct Sentence– I have told you time and again that
you should not disturb me in my work. 31. We blamed politicians for inspiring students
against the authorities.

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2006 163 YCT

 (a) expiring (b) inciting 37. Who works hard succeeds in life.
(c) executing (d) No improvement (a) those working (b) He works
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej inspiring (c) whoever works (d) No improvement
(ØesjCeeoeÙekeâ) kesâ mLeeve hej inciting (Gkeâmeeves) keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele Ans. (c) : ÙeneB who works kesâ mLeeve hej whoever works keâe
nw~ Dele: correct sentence will be– We blamed ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ who keâe ØeÙeesie peye relative pronoun
politicians for inciting students against the authorities. kesâ ¤he ceW keâjles nQ lees Gmekeâe antecedent nesvee DeeJeMÙekeâ nw
32. If only we came two minutes earlier, we should peyeefkeâ 'whoever' relative compound pronoun keâe ØeÙeesie
have caught the train. without antecedent keâjles nQ, Gmekeâe antecedent Gmeer ceW efÚhee
(a) we have come (b) we had come jnlee nw~ Hence correct sentence will be–
(c) we should come (d) No improvement Whoever works hard succeeds in life.
Ans. (b) : ÙeneB we came kesâ mLeeve hej we had come keâe 38. I am writing this essay for the last two days and
ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ next clause should have caught it is not yet complete.
(model + have + vIII) form mes DeejcYe nw~ Hence correct (a) was writing (b) had been writing
sentence will be– (c) have been writing (d) No improvement
If only we had come two minutes earlier, we should Ans. (c) : ÙeneB am writing kesâ mLeeve hej have been writing
have caught the train. keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW for the last two
33. Dr. Johnson spent often the evening at a toffee days kesâ ØeÙeesie mes mhe° nw efkeâ JeekeäÙe present perfect
house continuous ceW nw~ Hence correct sentence will be–
(a) spent the evenings often
(b) often spent the evenings I have been writing this essay for the last two days and
(c) often spent evening it is not yet complete.
(d) No improvement 39. Nature has blessed our country with all her
Ans. (b) : ÙeneB spent often the evening kesâ mLeeve hej bounty.
(a) the bounty (b) his bounty
option (b) often spent the evening keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ (c) their bounty (d) No improvement
often (adverb) keâe ØeÙeesie subject leLee main verb kesâ yeerÛe ceW Ans. (d) : No improvement.
neslee nw~ The famine gender is often applied to lifeless objects
Correct Sentence– Dr. Johnson often spent the evening known for beauty or gracefulness.
at a toffee house. Examples are – Nature, earth, spring, autumn peace,
34. Some of the houses are not fit to live mercy etc.
(a) to live in (b) for living Note– JeekeäÙe ceW Nature kesâ efueS possessive adjective
(c) for to love (d) No improvement (Feminine gender) 'her' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
Ans. (a) : ÙeneB to live kesâ mLeeve hej to live in keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, 40. The Janata Express, who should arrive at 15 –
keäÙeeWefkeâ live in Skeâ phrasal verb nw~ efpemekeâe DeLe& nw– to live 45 hours, is late.
at the place. Hence correct sentence will be– (a) which (b) whom
Some of the houses are not fit to live in. (c) it (d) No improvement
35. The stranger's movements aroused suspicion Ans. (a) : ÙeneB 'who' kesâ mLeeve hej which keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee,
and the police arrested him keäÙeeWefkeâ which keâe antecedent 'The Janata Express' Skeâ
(a) raised (b) arose
train keâe veece nw peesefkeâ efvepeeaJe nw efpemekesâ efueS relative
(c) arise (d) No improvement
pronoun kesâ ¤he ceW which/that keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegkeäle nw~ Hence
Ans. (a) : ÙeneB 'aroused' kesâ mLeeve hej raised keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee,
correct sentence will be –
keäÙeeWefkeâ arise keâe second form– 'arose' Skeâ intransitive The Janata Express which should arrive at 15 – 45
verb nw peyeefkeâ JeekeäÙe ceW Skeâ transitive verb raised keâer hours, is late.
DeeJeMÙekeâlee nw~ Hence correct sentence will be – VOCABULARY :
The stranger's movements raised suspicion and the Directions (Q/s No. 41 – 50) : Choose the word nearest
police arrested him. in meaning and indicate your response on the answer-
36. War, by who it may be started, must be sheet :
condemned 41. Perfunctory
(a) whom (b) whoever (a) half hearted (b) listless
(c) whom so ever (d) No improvement (c) complete (d) thorough
Ans. (a) : ÙeneB by who kesâ mLeeve hej by whom keâe ØeÙeesie Ans. (a) : Perfunctory – (DemeeJeOeeve/yeshejJeen) efpemekeâe
nesiee~ by kesâ yeeo objective case kesâ noun Ùee pronoun keâe meceeveeLe&keâ Meyo half hearted nw~ DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&–
ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ JeekeäÙe passive voice ceW Øeoòe nw~ Hence Listless – tired and without energy (Lekeâe Deewj megmle)
correct sentence will be– Complete – to make whole or perfect
War, by whom it may be started, must be condemned Thorough – detailed and careful.

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2006 164 YCT

42. Alacrity keâjvee) efpemekeâe meceeveeLeea Meyo disregard (efkeâmeer keâer Ghes#ee
(a) briskness (b) frankness keâjvee)
(c) fear (d) alarm DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&–
Ans. (a) : Alacrity (N) speed and eagerness Respect – Deeoj keâjvee
(Glmeen/lelhejlee) efpemekeâe meceeveeLe&keâ Meyo briskness (the Antagonistic – efJejesOeer/ØeeflejesOeer
quality of being quick and energetic (peesMe/leer›elee)
Comprehend – mecePevee/yetPevee
DevÙe Øeoòe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&–
48. Compatible
Frankness – honesty (mhe<šJeeefolee) (a) competitor (b) harmonious
Fear – the feeling that you have when something (c) appropriate (d) amiable
Frightening might happen (YeÙe, [j) Ans. (b) : Compatible (Adj.) – Capable of existing
Alarm – a warning of danger (Kelejs keâer ÛesleeJeveer) together in harmony (Skeâ-otmejs kesâ meeLe mebiele) efpemekeâe
43. Predilection meceeveeLe&keâ Meyo Harmonious – friendly, peaceful and
(a) antagonism (b) aversion without disagreement (meecebpemÙehetCe&);
(c) disapproval (d) preference
peyeefkeâ DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe& –
Ans. (d) : Predilection (N) If you have a predilection
Competitor – ØeeflemheOeea
for something, you like it very much (efkeâmeer Ûeerpe kesâ Øeefle
Appropriate – efkeâmeer heefjefmLeefle Deeefo kesâ efueS GÙegkeäle Ùee GefÛele
ienje PegkeâeJe) efpemekeâe meceeveeLe&keâ Meyo Preference(N) One
Amiable – meewcÙe/megMeerue
that is preferred (hemevo); peyeefkeâ DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&–
49. Paucity
Antagonism – efJejesOe/cevecegšeJe
(a) slackness (b) abundance
Aversion – Ie=Cee/És<e (c) publicity (d) shortage
Disapproval – DemJeerke=âefle / veecebpetjer Ans. (d) : Paucity – the fact that there is too little of
44. Frivolous something (keâceer/DeYeeJe); efpemekeâe meceeveeLe&keâ Meyo shortage
(a) unfriendly (b) serious (keâceer/DeYeeJe); peyeefkeâ DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&–
(c) playful (d) untidy Slackness – ef{ueeF&/{erue
Ans. (c) : Abundance – ØeÛegjlee/efJeheguelee
Frivolous – legÛÚ/efÚÚesje synonym playful – cepeeefkeâÙee~
Publicity – ØeÛeej/meeJe&peefvekeâlee
unfriendly – Deefce$eJele/™Keeheve
50. Dissent
serious – iecYeerj (a) ascent (b) disagreement
untidy – ievoe/ueehejJeen (c) tolerance (d) convergence
45. Immaculate Ans. (b) : Dissent – disagreement with official or
(a) neat (b) orderly generally agreed ideas or opinions (celeYeso/Demenceefle);
(c) untidy (d) neglect efpemekeâe meceeveeLe&keâ Meyo Disagreement (Demenceefle); peyeefkeâ
Ans. (a) : Immaculate – perfectly clean and tidy (Skeâoce DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&–
meeHeâ-megLeje) efpemekeâe meceeveeLe&keâ Meyo – neat – mJeÛÚ Ascent – the act of climbing or going up (ÛeÌ{eJe/DeejesnCe)
DevÙe Øeoòe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&– Tolerance – menveMeeruelee
Orderly – JÙeJeefmLele/›eâceyeæ Convergence – DeefYemejCe
untidy – cewuee kegâÛewuee Direction (Q/s no. 51 – 60) : Pick out the word that is
neglect – Ghes#ee/Deveeoj~ most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in
46. Audacity hold letters and indicate your response on the answer-
(a) arrogance (b) bravery sheet.
(c) ferocious (d) simplicity 51. Punctilious
Ans. (a) : Audacity(N) unusually strong and rude (a) late (b) scrupulous
(c) disorganised (d) apathetic
confidence in yourself (efÌ{"eF&/ogmmeenme) efpemekeâe meceeveeLe&keâ
Ans. (c) : Punctilious – (pe™jle mes pÙeeoe heefjMegæ) efpemekeâe
Meyo arrogance (DekeäKeÌ[heve, IeceC[)
DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ DeLe&– efJeueesce Disorganised (kegâJÙeJeefmLele)
peyeefkeâ DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&–
Bravery – Jeerjlee/meenme
Late – osj mes
Ferocious – very aggressive and violent (YeÙebkeâj)
scrupulous – meceÙeefve<"/Deeflemeleke&â
Simplicity – meeoieer
Apathetic – Goemeerve/efve®lmeen
47. Flout
(a) respect (b) disregard 52. Discrete–
(a) orderly (b) antisocial
(c) antagonistic (d) comprehend
(c) crude (d) grouped
Ans. (b) : Flout – to refuse to obey or accept
something (keâevetve, efveÙece Deeefo) DeJensuevee keâjvee/GuuebIeve

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2006 165 YCT

 Ans. (a) : Discrete – individually separate and distinct Ans. (d) : Amicable – made or done in a friendly way,
(he=Lekeâ/efYevve) efpemekeâe efJeueesce Orderly (JÙeJeefmLele/›eâceyeæ) without argument (meewneo&hetCe&, mvesner) efpemekeâe efJeueesce
peyeefkeâ DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&– Disagreeable – (DeefØeÙe, PeieÌ[euet) peyeefkeâ DevÙe MeyoeW keâe
Antisocial – Demeeceeefpekeâ/meceepeefJejesOeer DeLe&–
Crude – Deheefj<ke=âle/keâÛÛee Avoidable – heefjneÙe&/šeueves ÙeesiÙe
53. Vociferous Tough – keâ"esj/¤Kee
(a) reticent (b) vehement
(c) laconic (d) boisterous Unaccountable – DekeâLeveerÙe
Ans. (a) : Vociferous – marked by or given to 59. Omnipotent
vehement insistent – (keâesueenuehetCe&) efpemekeâe efJeueesce reticent (a) omnipresent (b) powerless
– ceewve jnves Jeeuee~ DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&– (c) omniscient (d) prominent
Vehement – ØeÛeC[/Øeyeue Ans. (b) : Omnipotent – having the ability or skill to
Laconic – using very few words to express what you do everything (kegâÚ keâjves keâer Demeerefcele Meefkeäle, meJeexheefj,
mean (mebef#ehle) meJe&#eceleeMeeueer) efpemekeâe efJeueesce Powerless – without
Boisterous – GheõJeer/keânuekeâejer strength (Meefkeälenerve); peyeefkeâ DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&–
54. Acquit Omnipresent – meJe&JÙeeheer
(a) restrain (b) convict omniscient – meJe&%e
(c) exonerate (d) entrap prominent – Øeefmeæ/cenlJehetCe&
Ans. (b) : Acquit – to state formally that a person is
60. Docile
not guilty of a crime (efkeâmeer kesâ efveoex<e nesves keâer efJeefOeJele (a) vague (b) vagabond
Iees<eCee keâjvee) efpemekeâe efJeueesce Convict – vÙeeÙeeueÙe Éeje (c) stubborn (d) gentle
DehejeOeer Ùee oes<eer "njeÙee peevee~ DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ DeLe&– Ans. (c) : Docile – quiet and easy to control (Meeble Deewj
Restrain– Calm and controlled behaviour (mebÙece/keâ"esjlee)
efJeveerle) efpemekeâe efJeueesce stubborn (n"er/efpeöer) peyeefkeâ DevÙe
Exonerate – DeefOekeâeefjkeâ ¤he mes oes<ecegkeäle Ieesef<ele keâjvee
MeyoeW keâe DeLe&–
Entrap – Hebâos ceW Hebâmevee/HeBâmeevee
Vague – Demhe<š
55. Sporadic
(a) scattered (b) concentrated Vagabond – DeeJeeje
(c) prejudiced (d) assembled Gentle – meppeve
Ans. (b) : Sporadic – happening sometimes; not SELECTING WORDS :
regular or continuous (DeefveÙeefcele ¤he mes efkeâÙee ieÙee Ùee nesves Directions (Q/s No. 61 – 80) : Sentence are given with
Jeeuee) efpemekeâe efJeueesce 'concentrated' – showing blanks to be filled with appropriate word. Four
determination– megÂÌ{, hekeäkesâ FjeosJeeuee~ DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&– alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the
Scattered – efyeKejs ngS~ correct alternative
61. It's nine O'clock ................. and I am still at
Prejudiced – he#eheelehetCe&
breakfast
Assembled – mebkeâefuele/Fkeâªs~ (a) so (b) yet
56. Blunt (c) already (d) till
(a) bold (b) intelligent
Ans. (b) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej 'yet' (conjunction) keâe ØeÙeesie
(c) crude (d) sharp
Ans. (d) : Blunt – kegbâo/ceboyegefæ; efpemekeâe efJeueesce sharp
GefÛele nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ yet and kesâ meeLe still keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
Hence the correct sentence will be– It's nine o'clock
(lespe/leer›e); peyeefkeâ DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&–
yet and I am still at breakfast.
Bold – meenefmekeâ / efveYeeakeâ
62. The meaning was presided .............. by the
Intelligent – yegefæceeve
Prime Minister
Crude – Deheefj<ke=âle (a) upon (b) over
57. Censure (c) at (d) as
(a) praise (b) criticise Ans. (b) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej over keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~
(c) flatter (d) hate
presided over– to be in charge something (such as a
Ans. (a) : Censure – strong criticism or disapproval
meeting or organization) The given sentence is in
(DevegefÛele keâece keâjves kesâ efueS efkeâmeer Yeer Yelme&vee keâjvee) efpemekeâe passive voice. Hence the correct sentence will be the
efJeueesce praise (ØeMebmee keâjvee) peyeefkeâ DevÙe MeyoeW keâe DeLe&– meeting was presided over by the Prime Minister.
Criticise – DeeueesÛevee keâjvee 63. Mary is ............ polite that everyone likes her
Flatter – Ûeeheuetmeer keâjvee (a) much (b) so
Hate – Ie=Cee keâjvee (c) very (d) on
58. Amicable Ans. (b) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej so (adv.) keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~
(a) avoidable (b) tough so polite kesâ yeeo Jeeueer clause that mes DeejcYe nw, FmeefueS efoÙes
(c) unaccountable (d) Disagreeable
BPSC AE Gen. English, 2006 166 YCT
 ieÙes filler ceW so keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Hence correct sentence (c) are (d) are being
will be– Mary is so polite that everyone likes her. Ans. (c) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej are (linking verb) keâe ØeÙeesie
64. The man is so ill that he can ............ walk. GefÛele nw~ efoÙee ieÙee JeekeäÙe present tense ceW nw~ Hence
(a) little (b) rarely correct sentence will be– Computers are devoid of
(c) merely (d) hardly emotions, though they seem to be able to think.
Ans. (d) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej hardly (Adverb) keâe ØeÙeesie 71. ............. large city Bangalore has become in
nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ principal clause ceW so keâe ØeÙeesie nw~ Twenty Years.
(a) what a (b) what
subordinate clause ceW hardly negative sense os jne nw pees
(c) How a (d) How
GefÛele nw~ Hence correct sentence will be– Ans. (a) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej what a keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~ Fme
The man is so ill that he can hardly walk.
JeekeäÙe ceW what Skeâ exclamatory Meyo nw~ pees YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej
65. The committee would submit its report ...........
six months.
JeekeäÙe ceW GefÛele nw~ Hence correct sentence will be –
(a) within (b) about What a large city Bangalore has become in Twenty
(c) during (d) until Years.
72. Children always enjoy ............. at the sea-side.
Ans. (a) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej within (preposition) keâe (a) theirs (b) them
ØeÙeesie nesiee~ meceÙe kesâ Devoj keâeÙe& kesâ hetCe& nesves kesâ efueS within (c) their self (d) themselves
keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~ Hence the correct sentence will be – Ans. (d) : Øeoòe efjòeâ mLeeve ceW themselves keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee,
The committee would submit its report within six keäÙeeWefkeâ enjoy, present, absent, avail etc. kesâ yeeo object ve
months. efoÙes nesves keâer efmLeefle ceW mecyeefvOele reflexive pronoun keâe ØeÙeesie
66. They want to expel him for his anti-party neslee nw~
activities...... the recent by elections in the state. Correct Sentence– Children always enjoy themselves
(a) during (b) while
at the sea-side.
(c) inside (d) through
73. The leaders hoped that the two countries could
Ans. (a) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej during (within the period
profit ............. each other's experience.
of time – kesâ oewjeve, efveefo&<š keâeueeJeefOe ceW) preposition keâe (a) between (b) from
ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Hence correct sentence will be– (c) by (d) on
They want to expel him for his anti-party activities Ans. (b) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej from (preposition) keâe ØeÙeesie
during the recent by elections in the state. GefÛele nw~ each other's experience kesâ efueS Fmemes henues from
67. "Can you lend me a pencil, please?" "........" keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ ‘Skeâ-otmejs kesâ DevegYeJe mes’ 'from each other's
(a) yes, here you are ! (b) yes, here experience keâe nw~ peyeefkeâ between keâe ØeÙeesie oes kesâ yeerÛe kesâ
(c) yes, here you ! (d) yes, I can
efueS neslee nw~ Hence correct sentence will be–
Ans. (d) : ÙeneB efjòeâ kesâ mLeeve hej yes, I can keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ The leaders hoped that the two countries could profit
nesiee~ from each other's experience.
'yes + pronoun + modals Hence the correct sentence will 74. There is a disturbing nexus ........... politics and
be–"Can you lend me a pencil, please?" "yes I can" sports in India.
68. A show down ............. the ruling Akali dal and (a) with (b) among
its breakaway faction appeared imminent. (c) around (d) between
(a) over (b) among Ans. (d) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej between keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~
(c) of (d) between between keâe ØeÙeesie oes kesâ yeerÛe leLee among oes mes DeefOekeâ kesâ
Ans. (d) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej between (preposition) keâe mevoYe& ceW neslee nw~ Hence correct sentence will be–
ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~ efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW between keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, There is a disturbing nexus between politics and sports
keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe ceW Deeies and keâe ØeÙeesie Dele: between ........ and in India.
keâe ØeÙeesie nw~ Hence correct sentence will be– 75. I wanted to join their club : for a long time
A show down between the ruling Akali dal and its ............ I didn't qualify for membership until
breakaway faction appeared imminent. the spring of this year.
(a) but (b) since
69. Have you finished my book yet? No, I'm ......... (c) while (d) and
in the middle fit.
Ans. (a) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej 'but' (adversative
(a) already (b) till
(c) yet (d) still conjunction) keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~ Adversative
Ans. (d) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej still keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~ still conjunctions express contrast between two statements.
means – continuing to happen. Hence the correct Hence correct sentence will be –
sentence will be– Have you finished my book yet? No, I wanted to join their club : for a long time but I didn't
I'm still in the middle fit. qualify for membership until the spring of this year.
70. Computers ............. devoid of emotions, though 76. ............. will you take, madam, the blue or the
they seem to be able to think. red one?
(a) have (b) being (a) which (b) who
BPSC AE Gen. English, 2006 167 YCT
 (c) what (d) whatever Ans. (a) : A Pet aversion (Idiom) – someone or
Ans. (a) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej which (interrogative) Meyo something greatly disliked. Hence the correct answer –
keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~ JeekeäÙe ceW choice keâe sense nw the blue or an object of taunting (efkeâmeer Jemleg keâer DeJeceevevee keâjvee)
the red one. so correct sentence will be– 83. Above Ground
Which will you take, madam, the blue or the red one? (a) proud (b) untrustworthy
(c) alive (d) trustworthy
77. This sort of situation will be allowed to last
............. long. Ans. (c) : Above Ground (Idiom/phrase)– alive
(a) till (b) for (peerJeble)~
(c) up (d) until 84. Give a wide berth to
Ans. (b) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej for (preposition) keâe ØeÙeesie (a) to give a lift (b) to offer a seat
(c) to welcome (d) to avoid
GefÛele nw~ JeekeäÙe kesâ Devle ceW long keâe ØeÙeesie nw~ JeekeäÙe ceW period Ans. (d) : Give a wide berth (Idiom)– to avoid (mes otj
of time keâe ØeÙeesie nw~ Hence the correct sentence will be–
jnvee) avoid somebody; keep away from somebody.
This sort of situation will be allowed to last for long. Hence option (d) is correct.
78. I like to sit in a park all by ........... sometimes. 85. Blow hot and blow cold
(a) self (b) me (a) To be in consistent
(c) myself (d) oneself (b) changing weather
Ans. (c) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej myself keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ all by (c) to play a game
myself (Dekesâuee) keâe ØeÙeesie JeekeäÙe ceW YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej GefÛele nw~ (d) to be rich and poor frequently
Hence the correct sentence will be– Ans. (b) : Blow hot and blow cold (Idiom) : to change
I like to sit in a park all by myself sometimes. mood frequently about something or someone.
79. It ............. too cold to go out last night, so we Hence the correct sentence will be– option (b).
stayed at home. 86. Break New Ground
(a) had been (b) has been (a) to till the ground (b) begin something new
(c) used to be (d) was (c) to occupy new site (d) to work as a farmer
Ans. (d) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej was keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegkeäle nw~ Ans. (b) : Break New Ground (Idiom/phrase) – to do
or discover something new (if you 'break new ground'
JeekeäÙe ceW 'too + adj/adv + to' keâe ØeÙeesie nw~ JeekeäÙe past ceW efoÙee you do something completely different or you do
ngDee nw~ something in a completely different way. Hence option
Hence the correct sentence will be– (b) is correct.
It was too cold to go out last night, so we stayed at 87. In clover
home. (a) in suspense (b) in league with
80. I ............ missed the train this morning as I got (c) in difficulties (d) in luxury
up late Ans. (d) : In clover (Idiom/phrase)– in case and luxury
(a) narrowly (b) scarcely (If you say that someone is 'in clover', you mean that
(c) hardly (d) quite they are living a luxurious and comfortable life.
Ans. (a) : ÙeneB efjkeäle mLeeve hej narrowly (adv.) keâe ØeÙeesie Hence correct option is (d).
88. Unlicked cub
GefÛele nw~ Narrowly keâe DeLe& – ‘peje mes/yeejerkeâer mes’ Hence (a) young one of a lioness
the correct sentence will be– (b) an ill-mannered person
I narrowly missed the train this morning as I got late. (c) a dirty plant
Directions (Q/s No. 81 – 90) : From the four (d) a young wolf
words/group of words (a), (b), (c) and (d) select the one Ans. (b) : Unlicked cub (Idiom/phrase)– a rude
which is most nearly the same to the given idiom/phrase: uncouth young fellow. Hence the correct answer will
81. Adam's Ale be option (b) an ill mannered person.
(a) wine (b) water 89. To the end of one's Tether
(c) pleasure (d) grace (a) the last scene of a drama
Ans. (b) : Adam's Ale (Phrase/Idiom) – Water (A (b) the end of ones enjoyment
humorous phrase based on the idea that the only thing (c) the end of one's ambition
Adam and Eve had to drink in the Garden of Eden was (d) the limit of one's patience
water. Ans. (d) : To the end of one's Tether – a state in which
82. Pet Aversion one is not able to deal with a problem difficult
(a) an object of taunting situation, any longer. Hence correct sentence will be–
(d) the limit of one's patience.
(b) a fond of gift
(c) bet noise 90. Halcyon Days
(d) on object of love (a) days of discoveries
(b) holidays
(c) sad days
(d) a time of happiness and prosperity
BPSC AE Gen. English, 2006 168 YCT
 Ans. (d) : Halcyon Days (Idiom/phrase) a period of Ans. (a) Ghejesòeâ group of word 'Walking in sleep' kesâ efueS
peace and happiness or a time of happiness and efJekeâuhe somnabulism (efveõe-YeüceCe) GheÙegòeâ Meyo nw DevÙe
prosperity. Hence the correct sentence will be (d) a
time of happiness and prosperity. efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
Directions (Q/s No. 91 – 100) out of the four Somniloquism– sleep talking.
alternatives, (a), (c), (c) and (d), choose the correct word Hallucination– an experience in which you see, hear,
with may closely fits each definition feel that does not exist, usually because you are ill or
91. An unmarried Man have taken a drug (ceefleYeüce)
(a) bachelor (b) master Obsession– the state in which you can only think
(c) miser (d) messrs (cevees«emlee)
Ans. (a) : An unmarried man refers the correct word – 97. Study of insects
'bachelor' – a man who has not yet married (DeefJeJeeefnle (a) etymology (b) entomology
heg®<e, kegâceeje) Hence the correct answer is option (a) (c) zoology (d) biology
bachelor. Ans. (b) Ghejesòeâ group of word 'Study of insects' kesâ efueS
92. Animal that can live on land and water efJekeâuhe entomology (keâerš efJe%eeve) GheÙegòeâ Meyo nw DevÙe
(a) amphibious (b) abstemious
(c) aquatic (d) aquarion efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
Ans. (a) : Amphibious– animal that can live on land Etymology– the study of the origin and history of
and water or able to live or used both on land and in words.
water (peue Deewj Oejleer oesveeW ceW keâeÙe&#ece, GYeÙeÛej peuemLeueÛej)~ Zoology– the scientific study of animals (peblegefJe%eeve)
93. One who eats human flesh Biology– the scientific study of the natural processes
(a) cannibal (b) furious of liming things.
(c) carnivorous (d) beast 98. Disbeliever in God
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ group of word 'one who eats human (a) agnostic (b) theist
flesh' kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe cannibal (vejYe#eer) GheÙegòeâ Meyo nw DevÙe (c) theologist (d) I trust
efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– Ans. (a) Ghejesòeâ group of word 'Disbeliever in God' kesâ
Furious – very angry. ›eâesefOele~ ef ueS efJekeâuhe agnostic (F&Õej ceW mebMeÙe jKeves Jeeuee) GheÙegòeâ Meyo
Carnivorous – relating to a person, animal, or other nw DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
living thing that eats meat. ceebmeenejer~ Theist– a person who believes in the existence of God.
Beast – an animal, especially a large or wild one. Deeefmlekeâ
peeveJej~ Theologist – someone who is learned in theology
94. A thing which easily catches fire (Oece&Meem$eer)
(a) efflorescent (b) callous 99. Speaking too much of oneself
(c) impatient (d) inflammable (a) equivocal (b) hypocrite
Ans. (d) Ghejesòeâ group of word 'A thing which easily (c) egoism (d) egotism
catches fire' kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe inflammable (pJeueveMeerue) Ans. (d) Ghejesòeâ group of word 'Speaking too much of
GheÙegòeâ Meyo nw DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– oneself' kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe egotism (Denbkeâej YeeJe) GheÙegòeâ Meyo
Efflorescent– the period when flowers start to appear
on a plant (Hetâuevee, efKeuee ngDee)
nw DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
Egotism– speaking too much of oneself or the practice
Callous– not caring about the feelings or suffering of
of talking about oneself too much.
other people (keâ"esj/yesoo&)
Equivocal– without a single clear or definite meaning
Impatient– easily annoyed by someone's mistakes or intention.
(DeOeerj) Hypocrite– a person who puts on a false appearance of
95. A person who hates women virtue or religion.
(a) misogamist (b) misogynist 100. A person who is hard to please
(c) merchant (d) misanthropist (a) fastidious (b) contagious
Ans. (b) Ghejesòeâ group of word 'A person who hates (c) contiguous (d) neurotic
women' kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe misogynist (veejer/És<eer) GheÙegòeâ Meyo Ans. (a) Ghejesòeâ group of word 'A person who is hard to
nw DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– please' kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe fastidious (legvekeâ efcepeepe) GheÙegòeâ
misogamist– a marriage hater (efJeJeen mes Ie=Cee keâjves Jeeuee) Meyo nw DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
misanthropist– a person who hates or avoids other Contagious– a contagious disease can be caught by
people (ceveg<Ùe mes Ie=Cee keâjves Jeeuee)~ touching someone.
96. Walking in sleep Contiguous– in contact with something.
(a) somnabulism (b) somniloquism Neurotic– behaving strangely or an anxious way, often
(c) hallucination (d) obsession because you have a mental illness.
BPSC AE Gen. English, 2006 169 YCT
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2006
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER-III)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Marks : 100

1. Total area of India is about..... Ans. (d) : The growth of Indian economy in the year
(a) 30 LAKHS sq. k.m. 2006-2007 is 8.7%
(b) 33 LAKHS sq. k.m. According to the advance estimates released by central
(c) 35 LAKHS sq. k.m. statistical organisation (CSO) the real GDP growth rate
(d) 42 LAKHS sq. k.m. moderated to 8.7% in 2007–08 from 9.6 percentage in
Ans. (b) : Total area of India is 33 LAKHS sq. k.m. 2006-07.
[Area of India 3287263 sq. k.m.] 5. Who was the Army Chief killed by the terrorist
India lies on the Indian plate in the northern part of the in Pune?
Indo-Australian plate. The country is situated north of (a) General Mukharjee
the equator between 804' north to 3706' North latitude (b) General Vaidya
and 6807' east to 97025' east longitude. It is the seventh (c) General K-Sundarjee
largest country in the world with a total area of (d) General Krishna Rao
3287263 km2. India extends 3214 km from north to Ans. (b) : General Vaidya was killed by the terrorist
south and 2933 km from east to west. It has a land attack in Pune.
frontier of 15200 km and a coastline of 7516.6 km. The assassination of former army Chief General A.S.
2. Which one of the following pair is correct? Vaidya in Pune had exposed the vulnerability of the
(a) Shambhu Maharaj-Kathak security shield around terrorist targets and a new
(b) Birju Maharaj-Kuchipudi terrorist strategy adding to the increasing in security of
(c) Yamini Krishnamurthy-Kathakali Sikhs living outside Punjab.
(d) Indrani Rahman-Manipuri 6. What is the Indian Railways?
Ans. (a) (a) Government Department
(a) Shambhu Maharaj belongs to Kathak (b) Public corporation
(b) Birju Maharaj belongs to Kathak (c) Business Joint venture
(c) Yamini Krishnamurthy belongs to Kuchipudi (d) Government company
(d) Indrani Rahman belongs to Kathakali Ans. (a) : Indian Railways is Government Department
3. Common Salt is..... Indian Railways is a governmental entity under the
(a) Sodium Chloride ministry of Railways that operates India's National
(b) Sodium Bicarbonate Railway System. It is run by the government as a
(c) Sodium Carbonate public good and manages the fourth largest railway
(d) Calcium Chloride network in the world by size with a route length of
Ans. (a) : Sodium Chloride is commonly known as 68155 km as of March 2019.
common salt. 7. "Operation Blue Star" was carried out at-
(NaCl) Sodium Chloride is a mineral substance of (a) Allahabad (b) Amritsar
great importance to human and animal health as well (c) Ambala (d) Asansol
as to industry. The mineral form halite or rock salt is Ans. (b) : Operation Blue Star war carried out at
some times called common salt to distinguish it from a Amritsar (Punjab).
class of chemical compounds called salt. Operation Blue Star was carried out between June 1
Common table salt, a soluble colourless crystalline and June 8, 1984 in Amritsar. Operation Blue Star took
compound occurring naturally as halite and sea water place after the rise of Khalistan movement in Punjab.
widely used as a seasoning and preservative for food Operation Blue Star was a Military operation that was
and in the manufacture of chemicals, glass and soap. carried out in June 1984 to flush out Armed militant
4. What was the growth rate of Indian economy who were held up in the golden temple. The operation
in the year 2006-2007? has to be carried out in order to get back the control of
(a) 4 to 5% (b) 5 to 6% the golden temple (Harmandir Sahib) from the
(c) 6 to 7% (d) 8 to 9% militants.

BPSC AE (GS), 2006 170 YCT

8. Jayprakash Narayan was not...... 12. Which river flows Northwards?
(a) President of All India Panchayat Parishad (a) Kosi (b) Ghaghara
(b) Founder of Servants of India Society (c) Gandak (d) Chambal
(c) Patron of Janta Party Ans. (d) : River Narmada and Chambal flows
(d) Executive of world peace organisation northwards.
Ans. (b) : Gopal Krishna Gokhale was the founder of ⇒ Kosi river drains the northern slope of the
servants of India Society. Himalaya in the Tibet.
Jayaprakash Narayan popularly referred to as JP or ⇒ Ghaghara– The river Ghaghara is called Karnali
Lok Nayak was an Indian independent activist, or Manchu it rises from Mapchachungo Glacier in
theorist, socialist and political leader. Tibet (China) and flows in west to east direction.
Jayaprakash Narayan (11 October 1902 – 08 October ⇒ Gandak is also known as the Narayani and Kali
1979) popularly referred to as JP or Lok Nayak took Gandak.
participate in quit India, Sarvodaya, JP movement. He Narmada river also called the Rewa and previously
was the founder and the President of Lok Satta Party and also known as Narbada. This river is located in
was an ex-member of the legislative Assembly from Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh. It is also known as life
Kukatpally constituency Andhra Pradesh in India. line of Madhya Pradesh for its huge contribution to the
9. How many MP's were expelled for taking cash State of M.P. and Gujarat in many ways.
for asking questions in parliament? 13. 'Karbala' is the pilgrimage of the...
(a) 10 (b) 11 (a) Muslims (b) Sunnis
(c) 13 (d) 17 (c) Shias (d) Jews
Ans. (b) : A sting operation by television news Ans. (c) : Karbala is the pilgrimage of the Shias.
channel had caught 11 MPs taking bribe purportedly ⇒ Sunnis and Shias are a part of Islam
for asking questions in parliament. ⇒ Jews or Jewish people are an ethnoreligious group
These are not only the more down and out MPs either and a nation originating from the Israel.
they are from across party and ideological lines. While Ashura, the tenth day of the Islamic month of
most belong to the BJP there is healthy representation Muharram commemorates the day hussain died for
from in power parties like the Congress and RJD. millions of shia. This mourning period culminates in a
10. Which one is the third populous country after pilgrimage to Karbala in Iraq. This pilgrimage has in
China and India? recent years become the largest gathering of people in
(a) U.S.A. (b) Argentina the world for a religious reason.
(c) Brazil (d) Indonesia 14. When was the planning Commission
Ans. (a) : Population of – established?
(1) China ⇒ 1394015977 (a) 1947 (b) 1950
(2) India ⇒ 1325,349639 (c) 1952 (d) 1957
(3) United State America ⇒ 329,877,505 Ans. (b) : The Planning commission was set up by a
Besides India overtaking China, the U.N. report said resolution of the government of India in March 1950 in
that Nigeria will be the third most populous country by pursuance of declared objectives of the government to
2050 with an estimated 733 million people overtaking promote a rapid rise in the standard of living of the
the united states which will fall to fourth place with a people by efficient exploitation of the resources of the
population of 434 million. Pakistan will remain the country increasing production and offering
world's fifth largest country in terms of population. opportunities to the country peoples. Planning
11. Indian classical dance form Kuchipudi is from Commission dissolved in 2015 and NITI Aayog has
which state? taken its place.
(a) Orrisa (b) Kerala 15. Who invented Television?
(c) Andhra (d) Tamilnadu (a) Marconi (b) Kepler
Ans. (c) : Kuchipudi is one of six classical dance (c) Graham Bell (d) Johan Dalton
styles of India Kuchipudi is the name of a village in Ans. (*) : John Logie Baired was a Scottish scientist.
the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh. ⇒ The world's first working television invented by
Kuchipudi is indigenous to the State of Andhra John logie Baired.
Pradesh and differs from the other five classical styles Electrical engineer and innovator demonstrating the
by the inclusion of singing Kuchipudi originated in the world's first working television system on 26 January
17th century with the creation by Sidhyendra Yogi of the 1926. He also invented the first publicity demonstrated
dance-drama Bhama Kalapam, a story of Satyabhama the colour television system and the first purely electronic
charming but jealous wife of the god Krishna. colour television picture tube.

BPSC AE (GS), 2006 171 YCT

16. Age of retirement of a High-Court Judge is..... (v) Cultural and Educational Rights [Article 29 – 30]
(a) 58 (b) 60 (vi) Right to Constitutional Remedies [Article 32]
(c) 62 (d) 65 ⇒ Right to Property is not a Fundamental Right to
Ans. (c) : The age of retirement of High Court Judge is Property comes under Article 300-A. It is legal
62 years. right.
⇒ Article 214 – High Courts for states. There shall be 20. Which is the largest state in India?
a High Court for each state. (a) Uttar Pradesh
⇒ Article 217 – Deals with the appointment of Judges (b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
and states that every Judge of High Court shall be
(d) Rajasthan
appointed by the President by consultation with the
Ans. (d) : According to area largest state in India
Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State.
Rank State Area (km2)
The retirement age for the Supreme Court Judges is 65
1. Rajasthan 342,239
years whereas initially for the High Court Judges it
2. Madhya Pradesh 308,252
was 60 years. It was increased to 62 years by the 3. Maharashtra 307,713
Constitution (Fifteenth Amendment) Act 1963. 4. Uttar Pradesh 240,928
17. First Non-congress Prime Minister was...... According to population largest state in India.
(a) A.B Bajpeyi (b) Ch-Charn Singh Rank State Population
(c) Morarji Desai (d) V.P. Singh 1. Uttar Pradesh 199,812341
Ans. (c) : First Non-congress Prime Minister was 2. Maharashtra 112,374333
Morarji Desai 3. Bihar 104,099,452
⇒ 4th Prime Minister of India Note– All the data has been taken from census of
⇒ Political Party – Janata Dal 2011.
Morarji Desai was selected by the Janata alliance later 21. Chairman of the Central-State Relation
Janata Party as their parliamentary leader and thus Commission was:
become the first non Congress Prime Minister of India. (a) Dr. Man Mohan Singh
(b) Swaran Singh
18. National Defence Academy in located at....
(c) S.C. Sarkar
(a) Shri Hari Kotta (d) R.S. Sarkaria
(b) Khadakwasla
Ans. (d) : The Sarkaria Commission's Charter was to
(c) Pokharan
examine the central state relationship.
(d) Mount abu It was headed by Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria.
Ans. (b) : National Defence Academy (NDA) is the The commission was so named as it was headed by
Joint Services Academy of the Indian Armed forces. Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria (Chairman of the
The NDA is located in Khadakwasla Pune, Commission) a retired Judge of the Supreme Court of
Maharashtra. It is the first tri service academy in the India. It was setup by Central Government in 1983.
world. 22. A solar eclipse occurs when.....
The National Defence Academy (NDA) is the joint (a) the moon comes between the sun and earth
services academy of the Indian Armed Forces where (b) the earth comes between the sun and moon
cadets of the three services the Army, the Navy and the (c) the sun comes between the earth and moon
Air force train together before they go on to respective (d) the sun, the moon and the earth are not in the
service academy for further pre-commission training. same line
19. Which one is not a Fundamental Right? Ans. (a) : A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets
(a) Right to equality between Earth and the Sun, and the Moon casts a
(b) Right to religion shadow over Earth.
(c) Right to assembly A total solar eclipse happens when the Moon
(d) Right to property completely covers the sun. It can take place only when
the Moon is near Perigee, the point of the Moon's orbit
Ans. (d) : Article 12–35 of Indian Constitution deal closest to the earth. You can see a total solar eclipse
with Fundamental Rights. only if you are in the path where the Moon casts its
There are 6 Fundamental Right of India Constitution. darkest shadow.
(i) Right to equality [Article 14 – 18)] A hybrid solar eclipse also known as an annular–total
(ii) Right to freedom [Article 19 – 22] eclipse is the rarest type. It occurs when the same
(iii) Right against exploitation [Article 23 – 24] eclipse changes from an annular to a total solar eclipse
(iv) Right to freedom of religion [Article 25 – 28] and or vice versa along the eclipse's path.

BPSC AE (GS), 2006 172 YCT

23. Maximum Wickets taker in Test Cricket is Yugoslavia from 14 January 1953 until his death on 4
Shane Warne of Australia. How many Wicket May 1980. During World War II he was the leader of
he had taken? the partitions often regarded as the most effective
(a) 620 (b) 690 resistance movement in occupied Europe.
(c) 700 (d) 708 27. Weight of an object is maximum in..............
Ans. (d) : Warne's 708 test wickets was the record of (a) Air (b) Water
the most wicket taken by any bowler in test cricket. (c) Atmosphere (d) Vacuum
Most wickets in test cricket Ans. (d) : Weight of an object is maximum in vacuum.
Player Match Wickets There is no force of buoyancy therefore weight is
M. Muralitharan (Srilanka) 133 800 maximum in vacuum. The weight of an object is
S. Warne (Austalia) 145 708 minimum when it is placed at the center of the earth
A Kumble (India) 132 619 because when an object is in the center, experiences
J. Anderson (England) 156 600 gravitational pull from all directions and the weight of
24. Who authored 'Jana Gana Mana', National an object maximum on earth is on the poles.
anthem? 28. The people of Indus Valley Civilization
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhayaya worshipped......
(b) Sharat Chandra Chatterji (a) Pashupati (b) Indra
(c) Mohammad Igbai (c) Brahma (d) Vishun
(d) Rabindranath Tagore Ans. (a) : The Indus Valley civilisation was a Bronze
Ans. (d) : The National anthem of India is "Jana Gana age Civilisation. It is flourished in the basin of the
Mana" which was written by the Nobel laureate Indus river. The Indus people worshipped Pashupati
Rabindranath Tagore. National anthem adopted by the Nath Shiva.
Constituent Assembly of India as national anthem on The deity Shiva Pashupati had been found on clay
24 January 1950. seals unearthed. Pashupati Mahadeva was the Chief
Jana Gana Mana is the National anthem of India. It male deity of people of Indus valley civilization. The
was originally composed as Bharata Bhagya Bidhata is Pashupati seal founded at Mohan Jodaro had an image
Bengali by polymath Rabindranath Tagore. The first of Pashupati Mahadeva with three face two horns
stanza of the song Bharata Bhagya Vidhata was sitting on a low throne. He was surrounded by a tiger,
adopted by the constituent assembly of India as the a Rhino, a buffalo and an elephant with two deers near
National anthem on 24 January 1950. his feet. It was also called as Bronze age civilisation. It
Tagore wrote the song on 11 December 1911. Next was flourished in the basins of the Indus river.
day the Delhi Durbar or mass assembly was held when 29. Who declared that "Swaraj is my birth right"
George V. was proclaimed emperor of India song was (a) Subhash Chandra Bose
first sung on 28 Dec. 1911 at the Congress session in (b) Bhagat Singh
Kolkata. (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
25. Which is a nationalized bank? (d) Lala Lajpat Rai
(a) HDFC Bank (b) Federal Bank Ans. (c) : Bal Gangadhar Tilak is known for his quote
(c) Citi Bank (d) Dena Bank "Swarajya is my birthright and I shall have it"
Ans. (d) : 14 banks were Nationalised by the ⇒ Mahatma Gandhi called him 'The maker of modern
government of India on July 1969. India.'
⇒ Dena Bank is a nationalized bank. ⇒ Tilak started two newspaper – (i) The Maratha (in
The Central Bank of India, RBI in its official English), (ii) The Kesari (in Marathi Language).
website has listed the following 19 banks as Lokmanya Tilak's slogan "Swaraj is my birth right and
Nationalized banks. The major nationalized banks in I shall have it" caught the imagination of a country
India are State Bank of India (SBI), Punjab National fighting to free itself from the colonial rule. He died on
Bank (PNB), Bank of Baroda (BOB), Canara Bank, 01 August 1920 in Mumbai.
Union Bank of India, Dena Bank and so on. 30. Who introduced English education in India?
26. Marshal Tito was the President of...... (a) Nehru (b) Curzon
(a) Poland (b) Ugoslavia (c) Macaulay (d) Dalhousie
(c) Hungery (d) Czechoslovakia Ans. (c) : Thomas Babington Macaulay introduced
Ans. (b) : Marshal Tito was the President of English Education in India. He was a British historian
Ugoslavia. Ugoslavia → Belgrade (Capital) and Whig politician.
Josip Broz commonly known as tito was a Yugoslav Thomas Babington better known as lord Macaulay was
communist revolutionary and he also served as the the man who brought the English language and British
President of the Socialist Federal Republic of education to India. His highly debatable introduction
BPSC AE (GS), 2006 173 YCT
 of the English language and approach to minimise the 34. The southern-most tip of India is in....
use of traditional language make an interesting read. In (a) Kanyakumari
1835 Lord Macaulay successfully Westernized (b) Lakshadweep
education in India, English was made the official (c) Andaman & Nicobar
language for the government and courts and was (d) Tamilnadu
adopted as the official medium of instruction.
Ans. (c) : The southern-most tip of India is in
31. Who among the following did not receive Noble Andaman & Nicobar.
Prize?
⇒ The only volcano in India, Barren located in
(a) C.V. Raman
Andaman & Nicobar.
(b) Dr. Chandrashekhar
(c) Dr. Radhakrishnan ⇒ The popular tribes of Andaman & Nicobar is onge,
(d) Dr. Hargovind Khurana Jarawa, sentinelese.
Ans. (c) : The Nobel Prize in Physics 1930 was Indira Point (Andaman and Nicobar Island) is the
awarded to Sir C.V. Raman for his work on the southern most point of the Indian territory in the
Scattering of light. This Phenomenon is now called Andaman & Nicobar Islands. It's cape comorin or Kanya
Raman scattering and is the result of the Raman effect. Kumari is the southernmost point in mainland India.
Dr. Hargovind Khurana awarded in 1968 Noble Prize 35. Who performs the function of Central Banking
for physiology or medicine. His research helped to in India?
show how to nucleotides in nucleic acid, which carry (a) Reserve Bank of India
the genetic code of the cell. (b) Central Bank of India
⇒ S. Chandrasekhar made India proud in 1983 when (c) State Bank of India
he bagged the Noble prize for theoretical studies of (d) Finance Ministry
the physical processes of importance to the Ans. (a) : The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's
structure and evolution of the stars. central bank established on 1 April, 1935
⇒ Dr. Radhakrishan was the first Vice President of Headquarter – Mumbai
India and the second President of India Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the Central Bank of
⇒ Radhakrishan birthday celebrated as Teachers Day India. RBI was established on 1 April 1935 by the RBI
in India. Act 1934. Key functions of RBI are banker's bank, the
32. Buddha preached first sermon at custodian of foreign reserve controller of credit and to
(a) Lumbini (b) Sarnath manage printing and supply of currency notes in the
(c) Sanchi (d) Gaya country.
Ans. (b) : Gautam Buddha was born in 563 BC in the 36. Narayana Murthy is the founder of .....
village of Lumbini a few miles from Kapilvastu. (a) WIPRO (b) INFOSYS
⇒ Buddha preached first sermon at Sarnath (c) INFOSOFT (d) MICROSOFT
(Rishipattana). A popular subject in Medieval
Ans. (b) : Narayana Murthy is the founder of
Buddhist art is the Buddha preaching his first
INFOSYS.
sermon in a deer forest at Sarnath, North of
Bodhgaya where he had experienced enlightenment ⇒ INFOSYS Technologies Ltd. the first Indian
some weeps prior. company to be listed on an American Stock
Exchange.
33. What is NSE?
(a) National Saving Exchange Nagavara Ramarao Narayana Murthy is an Indian
(b) National Storage Engine Billionaire businessman. He is the co-founder of
(c) National Statistics Economy Infosys, and has been the Chairman, Chief Executive
(d) National Stock Exchange Officer, President and Chief mentor of the company
Ans. (d) : NSE ⇒ National Stock Exchange. before retiring and taking the title Chairman Emeritus
Murthy was born and raised in Shidlaghatta Karnatka.
⇒ NSE was established in 1992 located in Mumbai.
National Stock Exchange (NSE) of India is the leading 37. Which is the largest tributary of River Ganga
stock exchange of India located in Mumbai (a) Kosi (b) Yamuna
(Maharastra). (c) Sarwaswati (d) Gomati
NSE (National Stock Exchange) was established in Ans. (b) : Yamuna is the longest and the second
1992 as the first dematerialized electronic exchange in largest tributary river of the Ganga.
the country. Yamuna ⇒ originating from the Yamunotri Glacier at
Vikram Limaye (MD & CEO) of NSE a height of 6387 metres on the south western slope of
Girish Chandra Chaturvedi (Chairman) Banderpooch peak.

BPSC AE (GS), 2006 174 YCT

 Banderpooch peaks in the upper most region of the Ans. (b) : The Council of Minister is responsible to
lower Himalayas in Uttarakhand it travels a total Parliament.
length of 1376 kilometers and has a drainage system of ⇒ Article 79 – there shall be a Parliament for the
366,223 square kilometers 40.2% of the entire Ganges Union which shall consists of the President and two
basin. houses to be known as the Council of States and the
It is the longest river in India which does not directly house of the people.
flow to the sea. Cabinet collective responsibility also known as
38. Which pair of the following is not correct? collective ministerial responsibility is a constitutional
(a) Jaspal Rana-Gold Medal in Asian Games convention in Parliamentary System that members of
(b) Zendeine Zidane-Golden Ball award in the cabinet must publicity support all governmental
Football decisions made in cabinet even if they do not privately
(c) Roger Federer-Tennis World Champion agree with them.
(d) Brian Lara-Highest runs in Test Cricket 42. Who was the President of the Constituent
Ans. (c) : Jospal Rana is an Indian shooter. He was a Assembly?
gold medalist at the 1994 Asian games. (a) Dr. Ambedkar
⇒ Zendeine Zidane is a french football player. He is (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
the current manager of La Liga club. In 1998 he (c) Dr. Kidwai
awarded Golden Ball award. (d) Dr. B.N. Rau
⇒ Roger Federer is a Tennis Player. Ans. (b) : Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the
⇒ West Indies batsman Brain Lara has the highest Constituent Assembly.
individual score in test cricket he scored 400 not ⇒ Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was Chairman of a Drafting
out against England in 2004. Committee.
39. Negarjuna Sagar dam is built on which river? Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President and
(a) Godavari (b) Kaveri its Vice President was Harendra Coomar Mookerjee, a
(c) Koyana (d) Krishna Christian from Bengal and former Vice Chancellor of
Ans. (d) : The Krishna river originates in the western Calcutta University. It was composed for the purpose
ghats near Mahabaleshwar. of drafting and adopting a Constitution. The
World's largest masonry Dam protected with 26 gates Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on 09
measuring 124.666m height. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is December 1946. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha the oldest
located in Nalgonda district, built across river Krishna. member was elected as the temporary President of
The Dam has a storage capacity of nearly 11,472 Assembly.
million cubic meters with an irrigation capacity for 43. Where in the Central mining Research
9.81 Lac areas of land. Institute Idcated?
There are many dams constructed across the Krishna (a) Jamshedpur (b) Ruraki
river–(i) Almatti Dam, (ii) Srisailam Dam, (iii) (c) Pilani (d) Dhanbad
Nagarjun Sagar Dam. Ans. (d) : Central Mining Research Institute located in
40. Who was second President of India? Dhanbad.
(a) Dr.Zakir Hussain Central Institute of Mining and fuel research (CIMFR),
(b) V.V. Giri Dhanbad, a Constituent Laboratory under the aegis of
(c) Dr. Radhakrishnan Council of Scientific and Industrial research (CSIR),
(d) Zail Singh aims to provide R & D inputs for the entire coal energy
Ans. (c) : Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (5 Sep. 1888 – chain encompassing exploration, mining and
17 April 1975) was an Indian Philosopher and utilization. The laboratory also strives to develop
Stateman who was the first Vice President of India mineral based industries to reach the targeted
(1952–1962) and the Second President of India from production for country's energy security and growth
1962 to 1967. One of India's most distinguished 20th with high standards of safety economy and cleaner
century scholar of comparative religion and environment.
philosophy, his academic appointments included 44. Governor of a State is appointed by the
Professor of Philosophy at the University of Mysuru president on the advice of ......
(1918–1921) the king George V Chair of Mental and (a) Vice President
Moral science at the University of Calcutta. (b) Prime Minister
⇒ He was awarded Bharat Ratna in 1954. (c) Chief Minister
41. Collectively the Council of Minister is (d) Chief Justice
responsible to..... Ans. (b) : President of India appoints Governor for
(a) President (b) Parliament each state. Central Government is responsible to
(c) Prime Minister (d) People recommend the governor for each state.
BPSC AE (GS), 2006 175 YCT
 Article 153 – There shall be governor for each state. Ans. (d) : The filament of an electric bulb is made of
The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the Tungsten
President by warrant under his hand and seal (Article ⇒ Tungsten has a very high melting point. It has very
155). A person to be eligible for appointment as high resistivity. So it does not burn easily at room
Governor should be citizen of India and has completed temperature.
age of 35 years (Article 157). ⇒ The lamp glows at high temperatures.
45. What is the U.G.C.? Incandescent Light Bulbs consist of an air tight glass
(a) United Golf Club enclosure (the envelope or bulb) with a filament of
(b) University Grants Commission tungsten.
(c) Universal Grants Club 50. Charlie Chaplin was a.......
(d) Union of Golden Consortium (a) Actor (b) Musician
Ans. (b) : University Grants Commission (UGC) came (c) Scientist (d) Singer
into existence on 28th Dec. 1953. Ans. (a) : Charlie Chaplin was an actor.
The University Grants Commission of India is a Sir Charles Spencer Chaplin KBE (16 April 1889 – 25
statutory body setup by the government of India in Dec. 1977) was an English Comic Actor, Film Maker
accordance to the UGC Act 1956 under ministry of and composer who rose to fame in the era of silent film.
education and is charged with coordination He became a worldwide icon through his screen
determination and maintenance of standards of higher persona. The tramp and is considered one of the most
education. important figures in the history of the film industry.
46. In which state it is compulsory to have a 51. What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha?
separate Minister for Tribal Welfare? (a) 525 (b) 537
(a) Gujarat (b) Bihar (c) 550 (d) 545
(c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala Ans. (d) : The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 545.
Ans. (b) : Article 164 of the Indian Constitution talks Article 79 – Constitution of Parliament
about of having Council of Ministers and a Chief Article 81– Composition of the house of people.
Minister in every state of India. It also states that for At present the maximum strength of the house is 552
the state of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa, there members 530 members to represent the states, 20
shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may members to represent the union territories and 2
in addition be in charge of the welfare of the scheduled members to be nominated by the president from the
castes and backward classes or any other works. Anglo Indian Community at present the strength of the
house is 545.
47. Purity of the Gold is measured by........
(a) 32 Carat (b) 28 Carat 52. Why did Mahatma Gandhi withdrew
(c) 24 Carat (d) 22 Carat Satyagraha Movement in 1922?
(a) Arrest of Leaders
Ans. (c) : 24 carat is the best gold (100% pure)
(b) Chauri Choura violence
22 carat (92% gold and 8% alloyed metals)
(c) Agreement with Viceroy
The weight of gold is measured in tray ounces (1 tray
(d) Jalianwala Bagh Killings
ounce = 31.1034768 grams) however it's purity is
Ans. (b) : Gandhi ji decided to withdraw the Non-
measured in 'carats'.
cooperation movement in February 1922 because in
48. When was the state of Jharkhand created? 1922 at Chauri Choura in Gorakhpur a peaceful mob
(a) June 1999 (b) February 2000 turned violent and clashed with the police resulting in
(c) July 200 (d) November 2000 the death of several policemen.
Ans. (d) : 15 November 2000 Jharkhand came as 28th ⇒ On that time Viceroy of India ⇒ Lord Reading
State of the Union. It is a homeland of the tribals. Chauri Chaura is a place located in Gorakhpur Uttar
Capital – Ranchi Pradesh. The movement was in full swing when at
– Babulal Marandi was the first Chief Minister of Chauri Chaura (Gorakhpur) the Police fired upon a
Jharkhand. Congress procession of about 3300 peasants. The
Jharkhand which came into being on 15 November angry crowd set the police station on fire killing 22
2000 as the 28th state of the union is the homeland of policemen. Gandhi Ji always emphasised that the entire
the tribals who had dreamed of a separate state for a movement should be non-voilent and peaceful. After this
long time. incident he called off the movement unilaterally in 1922.
49. The filament of an electric bulb is made of...... 53. Who spent more time in space?
(a) Copper (a) Kalpana Chawla
(b) Iron (b) Velentina Tereshkova
(c) Lead (c) Sunita Williams
(d) Tungsten (d) Tatana Kucharova
BPSC AE (GS), 2006 176 YCT
 Ans. (c) : Kalpana Chawla spent 30 days 19 hours 54 The Constitution of India was adopted by the
minutes in space. Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and
⇒ Sunita Williams had spent a total 322 days in came into force on 26th January 1950. This date was
space. chosen so as to commemorate the idea of Purna Swaraj
⇒ Velentina Tereshkova had spent 3 days in space. put forward by Nehru in 1928.
⇒ Tatana Kucharova is actress who won the miss 59. Sardar Sarovar Project is in......
world in 2006. (a) Madhya Pradesh
54. In which country Noble Prize committee (b) Andhra Pradesh
works? (c) Maharashtra
(a) Sweden (b) Denmark (d) Gujarat
(c) Finland (d) Norway Ans. (d) : Sardar Sarovar Dam located on Narmada
Ans. (a) river at the village of Kevadia in the state of Gujarat.
⇒ There are five Nobel Committes. The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a concrete gravity Dam
⇒ Four of these committes for prizes in Physics, built on the Narmada river at Kevadiya near Navagan,
Chemistry, Physiology or medicine and literature Gujarat in India. Four Indian States Gujarat, Madhya
by Swedish Academy (Sweden) Pradesh, Maharastra, Rajasthan receive water and
⇒ The fifth Nobel Committee is the Norwegian Nobel electricity supplied from the Dam.
Committee, responsible for the Nobel Peace prize. The height of Sardar Sarovar Dam is 163 metre (535 fit)
55. In which year Bihar was made a separate 60. Which year World Cup Cricket was started?
Province? (a) 1972 (b) 1975
(a) 1911 (b) 1923 (c) 1979 (d) 1983
(c) 1936 (d) 1941 Ans. (b) : The First Cricket World Cup was organised
Ans. (c) : On 1 April 1912 both Bihar and Orissa were in England on June 1975 with the first ODI Cricket
separated from Bengal as Bihar and Orissa province. Match having been played only four years earlier.
On 1 April 1936 Bihar and Orissa became separate First edition– 1975 England.
provinces. The Government of India Act provided for Latest edition– 2019 England & Wales.
the election of a provincial legislative assembly and a Next edition– 2023 India
responsible government. The winner of first Cricket World Cup was West
56. Which one is the Kolkata Airport? Indies.
(a) Sahar (b) Dum dum 61. Remain of Vijayanagar empire are found at.....
(c) Palam (d) Santacruz (a) Bijapur (b) Hampi
Ans. (b) : Dum Dum (Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose (c) Golkonda (d) Baroda
International Airport) located in Kolkata. Ans. (b) : Harihara and Bukka are, the founder of the
⇒ Palam Airport located in Delhi. Vijayanagar in 1336 A.D.
⇒ Santacruz Airport located in Mumbai. ⇒ They made 'Hampi' as their capital city.
⇒ Sahar Airport located in Mumbai. The ruins of Vijayanagar empire was found at Hampi
Also known as Chattrapati Shivaji Maharaj (Karnataka). The temple town of Hampi was declared
International Airport. the UNESCO world heritage site in 1986. Vijayanagar
57. Ajanta caves are situated in which state? (city of victory) was the capital city of the historic
(a) Maharashtra (b) Goa Vijayanagar Empire located on the bank of the
(c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh Tungabhadra river. It was spread over a large area and
Ans. (a) : Ajanta caves are situated in Maharashtra. included the modern group of monuments at Hampi
⇒ Ajanta caves incidentally discovered and brought site in Vijayanagar district Bellary district and others
to western attention in 1819 by a colonial British in and around these districts in Karnatka India.
officer Captain John Smith. 62. In which year India won the World Cup
Ajanta caves Buddhist rock - cut cave temples and Cricket?
Monasteries located near Ajanta village in north (a) 1975 (b) 1980
central Maharastra state [Western India] famous for (c) 1983 (d) 1987
their wall paintings. Ans. (c) : The Indian Cricket Team won Cricket World
58. Indian Constitution. came into force on...... Cup in 1983. Captain of Indian Team was Kapil Dev.
(a) August 15, 1947 It was on 25 June 1983 when India lifted her first
(b) November 26, 1949 Cricket World Cup title defeating West indies in the
(c) January 26, 1950 finals by 43 runs at the Lord's cricket ground. It is now
(d) January 30, 1950 37 years to India's trumps in the tournament into 2011
Ans. (c) : 26 January 1950 is the day when the Indian cricket team won another World Cup in the
Constitution of India came into force. captaincy of Mahendra Singh Dhoni.

BPSC AE (GS), 2006 177 YCT

63. Shortage of which food item causes the Goitre 68. The words "Socialist Secular" were added to
Disease? the preamble of Indian Constitution by....
(a) Priteubs (b) Vitamins (a) 2nd Amendment (b) 24th Amendment
(c) Iodine (d) Iron (c) 42nd Amendment (d) 44th Amendment
Ans. (c) : Iodine deficiency can lead to enlargement of Ans. (c) : The 42nd amendment of 1976 changed the
the thyroid (Goiter disease) description of India from "Sovereign Democratic
Element Iodine an essential nutrient in the diet. It may Republic" to "Sovereign, Socialist, Secular,
result in metabolic problems such as goiter. Sometimes
Democratic Republic" and also changed the words
as an endemic goiter as well as cretinism due to
unity of the nation to unity and integrity of the nation.
untreated congenital hypothyroidism which results in
developmental delays and other health problems. 69. When is the Rajya Sabha dissolved?
64. Which is the best conductor of heat? (a) During Emergency
(a) Water (b) Mercury (b) During President's Rule
(c) Ether (d) Alcohol (c) During a war
Ans. (b) : According to the thermal properties of (d) Never
matter, mercury is the only liquid good conductor of Ans. (d) : Indian Parliament is bicameral in nature that
heat. it has two houses– Rajya Sabha (the upper house of
As you can see out of the more common metals copper the Parliament) and Lok Sabha (Lower house of the
and aluminium have the highest thermal conductivity Parliament)
while steel and bronze have the lowest thermal ⇒ Maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is 250. But
conductivity. current strength is 245
65. President of India submits his resignation to: ⇒ Rajya Sabha is permanent body, it is never
(a) Vice President dissolved.
(b) Prime Minister
70. Which Indian player has taken Hat-trick in
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Chief Justice of India world Cup?
(a) Mohinder Amarnath
Ans. (a) : President of India will submit resignation to
(b) Kapil Dev
Vice President of India.
(c) Anil Kumble
⇒ Article 56 of the Indian Constitution makes its clear
that the term of the President is five years from the (d) Chetan Sharma
date on which he enters the office. Ans. (d) : Indian player Chetan Sharma was the first
His term may terminate earlier : cricketer to take a Hat-trick in a World Cup Match.
By resignation, He may by writing and can resign Eleven hat-trick have been taken in World Cup
addressing to the Vice President. Executive power of Matches. Pakistan's Wasim Akram and Mohammad
the union is vested in the President and is exercised by Sami are the only players to have taken hat-tricks in
him directly or through officers subordinate to him in ODI's and tests.
accordance with the Constitution. 71. NABARD is a:
66. Which state ‘Gol Gumbaz’ is situated? (a) Bureau (b) Board
(a) Kerala (b) Gujarat (c) Bank (d) Business House
(c) Maharashtra (d) Karnataka
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d) : Gol Gumbaz is the tomb of king NABARD– National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Muhammad Adil Shah, the tomb located in Vijaypura Development.
Karnataka.
Founded– 12 July 1982
Gol Gumbaz situated in the North Karnataka Gol
Headquarters– Mumbai
Gumbaz marks the splendour of Adil Shahi rule in the
Southern India. The seventh ruler of the Adil Shahi NABARD as a development bank is mandated for
Empire, Mohammed Adil Shah started the construction providing and regulating credit and other facilities for
of the tomb right after he became the sultan in 1626. the promotion and development of agriculture small
67. Who is the Chief Election Commissioner of scale industries cottage and village industries
India? handicrafts and other rural crafts and other allied
(a) M. Gopal Krishnan economic activities in rural areas with a view to
(b) M. Damodaran promoting agriculture in India.
(c) N. Gopalswami 72. First non-congress Government in a state was
(d) Y.V. Reddy formed by....
Ans. (c) : N. Gopalaswami was the Chief Election (a) DMK in Tamil Nadu
Commissioner of India in 2006. (b) Akalis in Punjab
In 2021 the Chief Election Commissioner is Sunil (c) Lok Dal in Utter Pradesh
Arora. (d) Communist in Kerala
BPSC AE (GS), 2006 178 YCT
 Ans. (d) : The Kerala Legislative Assembly Election Venus– Venus is called earth's twin because of the
of 1957 was the first Assembly Election in the Indian similarities in their masses, sizes and
State of Kerala. First non-congress Government in densities.
1957 and that was the first ever Communist Jupiter– Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar
Government in the world elected by the people but in system.
1959 Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru dismissed Kerala Saturn– Saturn is the second largest planet in our
government which was headed by Namboodripad. solar system.
73. Which one of the following is twin cities? 77. India is a Welfare State because of the
(a) Mumbai-Pune provisions of the......
(b) Hyderabad-Secunderabad (a) Preamble
(c) Banglore-Mysore (b) Fundamental Rights
(d) Delhi-Faridabad (c) Directive Principles
Ans. (b) : Twin city in India– (d) VII the schedule
(i) Hyderabad and Secunderabad Ans. (c) : The Directive Principles of State Policy
(ii) Kolkata and Howarh (DPSP) enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution
(iii) Kochi and Ernakulam reflects that India is a welfare state.
74. Indian economy is a ⇒ India is called a welfare state because it is founded
(a) Mixed Economy on the concept of equal opportunities. Seat are
(b) Socialist Economy reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes
(c) Capitalist Economy in government jobs educational institutions Lok
(d) Free Economy Sabha and Vidhan Sabha.
Ans. (a) : India has mixed economy because it is 78. Which of the following is not correct
neither completely socialist nor capitalist. Mixed combination?
economic system are also called dual economic (a) Shahnai-Bismilla Khan
system. (b) Sitar-Ali Akbar Khan
Economic activities of Indian economy can be (c) Tabla-Zakir Husain
classified into three sector– (d) Sarod-Amjad Ali Khan
(i) Primary Sector– It is that sector which relies on Ans. (b) : Bismillah Khan was Indian Musician who
the environment for any production or played the Shahnai
manufacturing a few examples of the primary sector ⇒ Ali Akbar Khan know for his virtuosity in playing
are mining, farming, agriculture, fishing etc. Sarod.
(ii) Secondary Sector– In this sector the raw ⇒ Zakir Hussain is an Indian Tabla virtuoso.
material is transferred to a valuable product. ⇒ Amjad Ali Khan is an Indian Classical Sarod
(iii) Tertiary Sector– It is also known as service player.
sector includes production and exchange of 79. Which steel plant was built with Russian help?
services. A few example are Banking, Insurance, (a) Bhilai (b) Durgapur
Transportation, Communication etc. (c) Jamshedpur (d) Bokaro
75. The President of India is Ans. (a & d) : The Bhilai Steel Plant in Chhattisgarh
(a) Head of the state and the Bokaro Steel Plant in Jharkhand were
(b) Head of the Government commissioned with soviet collaboration while
(c) Head of the State and the Government Rourkela Steel Plant in Odisha and the Durgapur Steel
(d) Not head of any one of these Plant in West Bengal were setup with German and
Ans. (a) : The President (Article 52) is the head of the British assistance respectively. Today all plants are
Indian State. He is the first citizen of the country. integrated in the Public Sector.
Article 52– The President of India. 80. About how many Universities are there in
Article 53– The executive power of the President. India
Article 54– Election of the President. (a) 210 (b) 300
Article 72– Power of the President to grant pardons (c) 350 (d) 700
etc. and to suspend, remit or commute Ans. (*) : In 2019 according to UGC in India there are
sentences in certain cases. approx 993 Universities.
76. Which planet is known as red planet? 81. Which organ of a plant performs respiration?
(a) Venus (b) Mars (a) Flower (b) Leaf
(c) Jupiter (d) Saturn (c) Root (d) None of these
Ans. (b) : Mars is known as the red planet. The Iron Ans. (b) : Leaf– Leaves possess small opening called
minerals in the Martian soil oxidize, or rust causing the as stomata through which exchange of gases takes
soil and atmosphere to look Red. place.

BPSC AE (GS), 2006 179 YCT

82. Who worked for the service of the blind Ans. (d) : ICICI – Industrial Credit and Investment
people? Corporation of India. It is a private sector development
(a) Helen Keller bank (established January 1955)
(b) Mother Teresa ⇒ IDBI– Industrial Development Bank of India. The
(c) Anny Besant IDBI was established in July 1964 as a wholly
(d) Madam Cury owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank but was
Ans. (a) : Helen Keller services for the blind people. made an autonomous institution in February 1976.
Mother Teresa – Mother Teresa, the Roman catholic ⇒ IFCI– Industrial Finance Corporation of India.
nun who worked with the poor in the Indian city of The IFCI was the first development bank
Kolkata. established in India in 1948.
Annie Besant– Annie Basant was an women's rights ⇒ UTI–Unit Trust of India is a Mutual Fund Company.
activist, writer, educationist and philanthropist. In the 87. Who was the first Field Marshal of India?
year 1916, she launched the All India Home Rule (a) Manekshaw
league. (b) Cariappa
Madam Cury– Madam Cury was scientist she was the (c) Choudhary
first woman to win a noble prize, and she is the only (d) Jagjit Singh Arora
woman to win the award in two different fields. Ans. (a) : Sam Manekshaw was the first Field Marshal
Madam Cury is famous for her work on radioactivity. of India on 1st January 1973 he was conferred first
field Marshal.
83. New Secretary-General of United Nations BAN
The second was K.M. Cariappa
KI-Moon belongs to which country
⇒ Field Marshal is equivalent to an admiral of the
(a) Japan (b) China
fleet in the Indian Navy and a Marshall of the
(c) South Korea (d) Thailand
Indian Airforce in the Indian Air force..
Ans. (c) : Ban Ki Moon born on 13 June 1944 is a
88. When were the Indian states reorganised on
South Korean Politician and diplomat who served as the basis of language?
the eighth secretary general of the United Nations from (a) 1950 (b) 1956
January 2007 to December 2016 before becoming the (c) 1971 (d) 1952
Secretary General Ban was a diplomat in South Ans. (b) : The State Reorganisation Act 1956 was a
Korea's Ministry of foreign Affairs. He entered into major reform of the boundaries of Indian's state and
diplomat service in the year he graduated from territories organising them along linguistic lines.
University, accepted his first post in New Delhi India. ⇒ Article 343(1) of the Indian Constitution cleary
84. Which is the Capital of Mizoram? mentions that "the official language of the union
(a) Aizawl (b) Imphal shall be Hindi in Devnagari Script.
(c) Agartala (d) Kohima 89. Against which country Kapil Dev scored 175
Ans. (a) : Mizoram, state of India. It is located in the runs in the World Cup?
north eastern part of country and is bounded by (a) England (b) Zimbabwe
Myanmar and Bangladesh and the state of Tripura, (c) West Indies (d) East Africa
Assam, Manipur. Ans. (b) : Kapil Dev scored 175 runs in the World Cup
Aizawl is the capital of Mizoram 1983 against Zimbabwe.
Legislature– unicameral (40 seats) 90. Most important for the growth of a child is.....
85. In which state Rourkela Steel Plant is located? (a) Protein (b) Vitamin
(a) Bihar (c) Fat (d) Milk
(b) Orissa Ans. (a) : Proteins are important for the growth of
(c) Madhya Pradesh children upto the age of 14. This is because proteins
(d) Karnataka helps to build, maintains and repair body tissue during
Ans. (b) : Rourkela Steel Plant is located in the the growth process of the adolescent.
western tip of Odisha and at the heart of a rich mineral ⇒ Milk and other dairy product also are good protein
belt. It founded in 1955. sources for children.
Rourkela Steel Plant (RSP) the first integrated Steel 91. Which is the longest day if the year
Plant in the public sector in India. It was setup with (a) 21st June (b) 22nd December
German collaboration with an installed capacity of 1 (c) 22nd June (d) 14 January
million tonnes in 1960. It is operated by SAIL (Steel Ans. (a) : The summer solstice of June is the longest
Authority of India Ltd.) day in the northern hemisphere.
86. Which of the following is not a development The summer solstice usually fall on June 21 and is
bank? said to mark the on set of summer in the northern
(a) ICICI (b) IDBI hemisphere. It occurs when the north pole is the
(c) IFCI (d) UTI nearest to the sun.

BPSC AE (GS), 2006 180 YCT

92. Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. does not have a Ans. (b) : East India Company was in Carporated by
unit at Royal Charter on 31 Dec. 1600. On that time Akbar
(a) Nasik (b) Bangalone (1556–1605) was Ruler of India.
(c) Lucknow (d) Kolkata ⇒ Sir Thomas Roe visited the court of the Mughal
Ans. (d) : Kolkata does not have a unit of Hindustan Emperor Jahangir in 1615 CE and obtained
Aeronautics Ltd. (HAL). permission to trade in Surat.
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) is an Indian 97. Where is the ''Nirwan Sthala'' (death place) of
state owned aerospace and defence company, it is Budha?
governed under the management of the Indian Ministry (a) Saarnath (b) Rajgir
of defence. (c) Bodhgaya (d) Kushinagar
HAL – (Headquarter) – Bangalore Ans. (d) : Gautam Buddha "Nirwan Sthala" located in
Units – Bangalore, Nasik, Lucknow, Kanpur, Kushinagar.
Barrackpore. ⇒ He is also called Shakyamuni Buddha because
93. India Panchayati Raj was started in...... he was a member of the Sakya clan.
(a) 1957 (b) 1952 ⇒ After Buddha attained enlightenment at Bodh
(c) 1959 (d) 1951 Gaya in 528 BC, he came to Sarnath and preached
Ans. (c) : Panchayati Raj, which was inaugurated by first sermon.
then Prime Minister Pandit Nehru on 2 October 1959 98. Who was the first woman President of
at Nagaur in Rajasthan. Congress?
(a) Amrita Shergil
⇒ A three-tier structure of the Indian Administration
(b) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
for Rural Development is called Panchayati Raj.
(c) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
The system later came to be known as Panchayati Raj
(d) Sarojini Naidu
which was inaugurated by the Prime Minister Pandit
Ans. (d) : First Indian Woman President of Indian
Jawaharlal Nehru on 2 October 1959 at Nagaur in
National Congress was Sarojini Naidu in Kanpur
Rajasthan. The first elections under the Rajasthan
session in 1925.
Panchayat Samits and Zilla Parishad Act, 1959 held in
⇒ Sarojani Naidu was the first woman to become
September-October 1959.
governor of an Indian state (Uttar Pradesh)
94. The law of gravitation was propounded by?
⇒ Rajkumari Kaur was first woman cabinet minister
(a) Keple (b) Galileo (Health Minister) who founded Delhi AIIMS (All
(c) Newton (d) Copernicus India Institute of Medical Science).
Ans. (c) : Issac Neuton put forward the law in 1687 ⇒ Vijay Lakshmi Pandit was first female President of
and used it to explain the observed motions of the United Nations General Assembly.
planets and their moons which had been reduced to ⇒ Amrita Shergil was a famous painter.
mathematical form by Johannes Kepler early in the
99. In which election Congress party won
17th century. maximum seats in Lok Sabha?
⇒ Galileo developed his own version of a telescope. (a) 1952 (b) 1971
Kepler– Johannes Kepler is best known for his (c) 1980 (d) 1984
three laws of planetary motion. Ans. (d) : In the Lok Sabha Elections of 1984 the
Copernicus– Nicolous copernicus known as the father Congress Party came to power winning 415 of the 543
of modern astronomy. Lok Sabha seats more than 80% of the seats.
95. 10th December is celebrated as..... ⇒ INC was founded in 1885
(a) Red Cross day ⇒ Womesh Chandra Banerjee was the first President
(b) United Nations Day of INC.
(c) Human Rights Day 100. Who received 2006 Noble Prize for Peace?
(d) International Women's Day (a) G.P. Koirala
Ans. (c) (b) Indra Nooyi
Human Rights Day ⇒ 10th December (c) Mohammad Yunus
Red cross day ⇒ 8th may (d) Sinzo Abe
United Nation day ⇒ 24 October Ans. (c) : The Norwegian Nobel Committee,
International Women's day ⇒ 8 March responsible for the Nobel Peace Prize.
96. Who was the ruler in India when East India ⇒ Mohammad Yunus received 2006 Noble Peace
Company was established? Prize.
(a) Aurangzeb (b) Akbar Note– The Noble Peace Prize was awarded to World
(c) Jahangir (d) Humayun Food Programme in 2020.

BPSC AE (GS), 2006 181 YCT

 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2006
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL ENGINEERING SCIENCE (PAPER-IV)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 1 Hour ] [ Marks : 100

1. A retarding force on a body does not Ans. (d) Given, P > Q, θ = 1800
(a) Change the motion of the body
(b) retard the motion of the body
(c) introduce the motion of the body
P>Q
(d) None of these
Ans. (c) "Newton's second law of motion can be We know that,
formally stated that the acceleration of an object as
produced by a net force is directly proportional to the Resultant (R) = P 2 + Q 2 + 2PQ cos θ
magnitude of the net force, in the same direction as the
R = P 2 + Q 2 + 2PQ cos1800 = P 2 + Q 2 – 2PQ
net force, and inversely proportional to the mass of the
object." R = (P – Q)2 = P–Q
A retarding force, is simply put, the force that causes
the acceleration of an object to be negative. So a 4. If two forces of 3 kg. and 4 kg. act at right
retarding force brings retardation to a body and angles to each other, their resultant force will
decreases its velocity. be equal to
(a) 7 kg (b) 1 kg
2. The centre of gravity of a quadrant of a circle
(c) 5 kg (d) 1/7 kg
lies along its central radius at distance of
(a) 0.2 R (b) 0.3 R Ans. (c) Given,
(c) 0.4 R (d) 0.5 R F1 = 3 kg, F2 = 4 kg, θ = 900
Ans. (c) : C.G. of Quadrant circle

Resultant force
R = F12 + F22 + 2F1F2 cos θ

= (3)2 + (4)2 + 2 × 3 × 4 × cos 900

= 9 + 16 + 0 = 25 = 5kg
5. If two equal forces of magnitude P act an angle.
Their resultant will be
θ θ
4R 4 (a) P.cos (b) 2P.sin
Y= = R 2 2
3π 3 × 3.14
= 0.424R θ θ
(c) P. tan (d) 2P.cos
2 2
3. If two forces P and Q (P >Q) act on the same
straight line but in opposite direction, their Ans. (d) Given, F1 = F2 = P
resultant is We know that,
(a) P + Q (b) P/Q The Resultant Force
(c) Q/P (d) P – Q R = F12 + F22 + 2F1F2 cos θ
(e) Q - P
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2006 182 YCT
 Momentum– The momentum is defined as the total
= P 2 + P 2 + 2PP cos θ
motion possessed by a body.
= 2P 2 + 2P 2 cos θ Momentum = mass × velocity

= 2P 2 (1 + cos θ ) 9. Joule is the unit of

(a) work (b) force
θ
= 2P 2 1 + 2 cos 2 − 1
(c) power (d) energy
 2  Ans. (d & a) : SI unit of both work and energy is Joule
Quantity Unit
θ
= 4P 2 cos 2 Energy Joule
2
Force Newton
θ
R = 2P cos Power Watt
2
Work N-m or Joule
6. The velocity of a moving body, is 10. One Newton force, is
(a) vector quantity (b) Scalar quantity (a) 103 dynes (b) 104 dynes
(c) constant quantity (d) none of these (c) 105 dynes (d) 106 dynes
Ans. (a) Ans. (c) : We know, SI unit of force is Newton
Vector Quantity Scalar Quantity 1N = kg–m/s2
Have magnitude & Only magnitude = 105gm-cm/sec2
direction = 105 dynes (1 dyne = 1 gm - cm/sec2)
ex.–displacement, ex.–area, volume, length 11. The slope correction for a length of 30m along
velocity, acceleration, speed, distance, mass, a gradient of 1 in 20
momentum, force, drag density, energy, power, (a) 3.75 cm (b) 0.375 cm
work, entropy, (c) 37.5 cm (d) 2.75 cm
temperature Ans. (a)
7. Time required to stop a car moving with a 1 in 20 mean that rise for 20m distance then for
velocity of 20 m/sec within a distance of 40 m, is 30m distance rise will be 1.5m
(a) 2 sec (b) 1/2 sec So,

h 2 (1.5)
2
(c) 1 sec (d) 5 sec
Slope correction = =
Ans. (*) : Given, u = 20 m/sec., v = 0 2l 2 × 30
v2 = u2 + 2aS = 3.75cm
02 = 202 + 2a × 40 12. Greater accuracy in linear measurements, is
400 obtained by,
a=– m / sec 2
80 (a) tachometry (b) direct changing
= –5 m/sec2 (c) direct taping (d) all of above
v = u + at Ans. (c) : Actually linear measurement are done with
0 = 20 – 5t chain or tape but accuracy of tape is more than chain.
t = 4 sec. 13. The angles between two plane mirrors of an
optical square, is
8. The inherent property of a body which offers
(a) 200 (b) 30
reluctance to change its state of rest or uniform
(c) 450 (d) 600
motion is 0
(e) 90
(a) weight (b) mass
(c) inertia (d) momentum Ans. (c) : Optical square– most accurate to make 1st
offset angle between mirrors = 450
Ans. (c) : Inertia– The inherent property of a body
14. The construction of optical squares is based, on
which offers reluctance to change its state of rest or
the principle of
uniform motion is called inertia. (a) reflection
Mass – The mass is a matter contained in a body. (b) refraction
Weight– The weight of a body is a force by which it is (c) double reflection
attracted towards the centre of the earth. (d) double refraction
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2006 183 YCT
 Ans. (c) : Construction of optical square is based on R. B = 1800 – WCB
the principle of double reflection. = 1800 – 1200
15. The line normal to the plumb line is known as = 600
(a) horizontal line = S 600 E
(b) level line 20. Removal of parallax, may be achieved by
(c) datum line focusing
(d) vertical line (a) objective
Ans. (b) (b) eye-piece
Level Line– Line lying on the level surface (c) the objective and eye piece
– line normal to the plumb line (d) none of these
Horizontal Line– Tangential line to the level line.
Ans. (c)
Vertical Line– Normal to the level line.
16. A well condition triangles does not have any
angle less than
(a) 200 (b) 300
0 21. The type of steel used for precision of levelling
(c) 45 (d) 600
staff is quantity
Ans. (b) (a) Titanium steel (b) Carbon steel
30 < θ < 120
(c) Invar (d) Stain less steel
17. Diaphargm of a surveying telescope is held Ans. (c) Invar is temperature invariant.
inside
(a) eye piece 22. The fire clay contains pure
(b) objective (a) lime
(c) telescope tube at its mid point (b) oxide of iron
(d) telescope at the end nearer the eye piece (c) hydratedaluminium silicate
(e) telescope at its end nearer the objective (d) magnesium
Ans. (d) Ans. (c) : Fire clay are primarily hydrous alumina
18. The angle of intersection of a contour and a silicates with varying amounts of impurities such as
ridge line, is iron oxides, lime, magnesia, alkali and free silica.
0 0
(a) 30 (b) 45 23. Ply wood is made from
(c) 600 (d) 900 (a) common timber (b) bamboo fibre
Ans. (d) (c) teak wood only (d) asbestos sheets
19. If whole circle bearing of a line is 1200, its Ans. (c) : Ply wood is made from teak wood only.
reduced bearing is
24. The most fire resistant paints are
(a) S 200 E (b) S 600 E
(a) enamel paints
(c) N 1200 E (d) N 600
(b) aluminium paints
Ans. (b) : Whole Circle Bearing (WCB) (0 to 3600)–
(c) asbestos paints
angle made by magnetic north in clockwise
Reduced Bearing (RB) (0 to 900)– shortest angle (d) cement paints
made by magnetic north or south. Ans. (c)
(a) Asbestos paint – fire resistant, stop leakage
(b) Enamel paint – acid resistant & water proof
(c) Aluminium paint – attractive appearance, visible
in night
25. Bullet proof glass is made of thick glass sheet
sandwiched by a layer of
(a) steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) high test plastic
(d) chromium plate
given W.C.B. = 1200 Ans. (c) : Bullet proof glass is made of thick glass
R.B → shortest angle from North or South sheet sandwiched by a layer of high test plastic.

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2006 184 YCT

26. Bitumen is 32. A dummy activity
(a) solid state, is called as phalt (a) artificially introduced
(b) semi fluid state, is called mineral tar (b) is represented by a dotted line
(c) fluid state, is called petroleum (c) does not consume time
(d) all the above (d) all the above
Ans. (d) Ans. (d) : Dummy Activity– it is an artificial activity
represented by dashed lines which neither consumes
any time nor resources.
33. The performance of specific task in CPM is
known as
27. For brick construction, the lime-sand mortar is (a) Dummy (b) Event
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) Activity (d) Contract
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4 Ans. (c) : CPM (Critical Path Method)
(e) 1 : 5 → Activity oriented
Ans. (b & c) :lime – sand mortar → Deterministic approach
→ Suited to repetitive type of work
→ Normal distribution is followed.
34. The difference between the time available to do
ex.– Cement mortar – Plaster work is 1:3 to 1:4 the job and the time required to do the job, is
28. The nominal thickness of an expansion joint in known
brick walls, is kept more than (a) event (b) float
(a) 5 mm (b) 10 mm (c) duration (d) constraint
(c) 15 mm (d) 20 mm Ans. (b) : Float– It indicates the time by which
(e) 40 mm starting or finishing of an activity can be delayed
Ans. (d) : Thickness of an expansion joint in brick without affecting the project completion time.
should be more than 15mm. Event– It's an instant of time at which some specific
Standard thickness = 15mm milestone has been achieved an event does not
Nominal thickness = 20mm consumes any time or resource.

29. Laterite is found in 35. Critical path moves along the activities having
total float
(a) UP (b) Punjab
(a) Positive (b) negative
(c) West Bengal (d) Bihar
(c) zero (d) all the above
(e) Kerala
Ans. (c) : For critical path, all the three floats i.e. total
Ans. (e) : Laterite is found in – Karnataka, Kerla,
float, free float and independent float are generally
Tamilnadu, M.P. & the hilly areas of Orissa & Assam. zero. Because critical path passes through those events
30. Stones used for the construction of retaining where slack is zero.
walls must be 36. The time which results in the least possible
(a) soft (b) hard construction
(c) light (d) heavy (a) normal time
Ans. (d) (b) slow time
(c) crash time
31. Which one of the following represents an even
(d) standard time
(a) concrete cured (b) fixing of door
Ans. (b) : The time which results in the least possible
(c) plaster of walls (d) selecting sites
construction cost of an activity is known as slow time.
(e) all the above
37. If a steel rod 5 cm long elongates by 5 mm, the
Ans. (a) : Curing of Concrete is a method by which the stress developed is
concrete is protected against loss of moisture required (a) 2.1 × 102 kg/cm2
for hydration and kept within the recommended (b) 4.2 × 103 kg/cm3
temperature range. Curing will increase the strength (c) 2.1 × 103 kg/cm2
and decrease the permeability of hardened concrete. (d) none of these
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2006 185 YCT
 Ans. (d) Ans. (d)
For steel, 1. Fixed Beam Point of contraflexure
E = 200 GPa
(a) with UDL 2
l = 5 cm
∆l = 5mm = 0.5 cm
∆l 0.5
Strain (ε) = = = 0.1
l 5
Stress (σ) = E × ε
N (b) with 2
= 200 ×109 2 × 0.1
m concentrated
N load
= 20 × 109 4
10 × cm 2
N  1N kg 
= 20 × 105 Q cm 2 = 0.101972 cm 2 
cm 2   (c) moment-applied 3
kg of mid point
= 2.03944 × 105
cm 2
38. The bending moment diagram over the length
of the beam carrying uniformly distributed
load is always :
(a) zero (b) parabolic
2. simply supported with 0
(c) cubical (d) rectangular
UDL
Ans. (b)
3. cantilever with UDL 0
Load B.M.D. Shape
No external load 40. A simply supported beam of span L carried a
UDL of w kN/m. The maximum bending
moment M is
(a) WL/2 (b) WL/4
(c) WL/8 (d) WL/12
UDL parabolic (e) WL/16
Ans. (c) : Given
W = w×L
Type of loading Maximum B.M
2
WL wL
UVL cubical =
8 8

2
WL wL
=
2 2
Point load triangular
WL
4

WL

39. In a fixed beam the points of contraflexure

(a) for a uniformly distributed loads are 2 WL
(b) for a concentrated load are 2 6
(c) for a moment applied at mid points are 3
(d) all the above

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2006 186 YCT

 41. The property by which a body return to its Ans. (e) Equation of continuity of fluid is applicable
original shape after removal of the force, is only if flow is steady, flow is compressive, flow is one
called dimensional and velocity is uniform over the cross-
(a) plasticity (b) elasticity section.
(c) ductility (d) malleability
45. Practical fluids possess
Ans. (b) : Elasticity– Body return to its original shape (a) Viscosity
after removal of the force.
(b) Surface tension
Plasticity– Body not return its original shape after
(c) compressibility
removal of the load.
(d) all the above
Malleability– Material ability to be hammered out into
thin sheets. Ans. (d) : Practical Fluid or Real Fluids– These
Fluids posses the properties of viscosity, surface
42. Simple bending equation tension & small amount of compressibility.
(a) M/I = R/E = F/Y
46. Units of kinematic viscosity is
(b) I/M = E/R = Y/F
(a) m2/sec (b) Newton sec/m2
(c) M/I = E/R = F/Y
(c) Newton sec/m3 (d) kg. sec/m2
(d) M/I = R/E = Y/F
Ans. (a) : Kinematic viscosity(ν)– It is the ratio of
Ans. (c) : Simple Bending Equation
dynamic viscosity of fluid to its density.
M F E Dynamic viscosity µ
Simple bending equation = = ν= =
I Y R mass density ρ
T Gθ τ Unit of kinematic viscosity →m2/sec or stoke
Torsion equation = =
J L R 1 stoke = 10–4m2/s
47. The period of cleaning of a slow sand filter is
43. The tensile force required to cause an
usually
elongation of 0.045 mm in a steel rod of 1000
mm length and 12, mm diameter is (a) 5 to 10 days (b) 2 to 3 weeks
(a) 166 kg (c) 1 month to 3 month (d) 3 month to 6 month
(b) 102 kg Ans. (c) : Period of cleaning
(c) 204 kg Slow sand filter – 1 to 3 months
(d) 74 kg (Assume E = 2.1 × 106 kg/cm2) Rapid sand filter – 1 to 3 days
Ans. (b) : Given, 48. The gas which may cause explosion in sewers is
Elongation(δ) = 0.045mm = 0.0045cm (a) Carbondioxide (b) Methane
l = 1000mm = 100cm,d = 12mm = 1.2cm (c) ammonia (d) carbon monoxide
π 2 Ans. (b)
Area(A) = d = 0.785 × 1.22 = 1.13cm 2
4 49. A bio-filter is an example of
E = 2.1×106 kg/cm2 (a) accelo-filter
We know, (b) intermittent sand filter
(c) standard rate trickling filter
PL
elongation δ = (d) high rate trickling filter
AE
Ans. (d) : High rate trickling filter– Recirculation is
δ × AE 0.0045 ×1.13 × 2.1×106 done by pumping the effluent of trickling filter to
P= =
L 100 influent of trickling filter or to primary sedimentation
= 106.785 ≈ 106 kg tank.
ex.– Bio filter.
44. Equation of continuity of fluid is applicable
only if 50. Aerobic activity is maximum
(a) Flow is steady (a) in freshly produced sewage
(b) Flow is compressive (b) at sewer pipes
(c) Flow is one dimensional (c) in sewer treatment plants
(d) Velocity is uniform over the cross-section (d) none of these
(e) all the above Ans. (a)

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2006 187 YCT

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 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2001
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL HINDI (PAPER-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Marks : 100

efveoxMe : veerÛes efoS ieÙes cegneJejeW kesâ efJekeâuhe kesâ ¤he ceW Ûeej 7. ‘Ûeb[tKeeves keâe iehe’ keâe mener DeLe& nw–
DeLe& a, b, c, d efoÙes ieÙes nQ~ Fve Ûeej efJekeâuhe ceW Skeâ ner mener (a) yeslegkeâer yeeleW keâjvee
nw~ mener efJekeâuhe (DeLe&) keâes Ûegvekeâj efveefo&<š keâerefpeS~ (b) iehe ceejvee
1. ‘leesles keâer lejn DeeBKeW Hesâjvee, keâe mener DeLe& nw– (c) otmejs keâes ieuele efmeæ keâjvee
(a) Jescegjyyele (b) DeeBKeW ceesÌ[vee (d) ieuele yeeleW keâjvee
(c) ve]pej Iegceevee (d) MeefceËoe nesvee Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Ûeb[tKeeves keâer iehe’ cegneJejs keâe
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘leesles keâer lejn DeeBKes hesâjvee’ mener DeLe& ‘yeslegkeâer yeeleW keâjvee’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& ‘yescegjJJele’ nQ~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ 8. ‘peceerve hej hewj ve heÌ[vee’ keâe mener DeLe& nw–
2. ‘Dee"-Dee" DeeBmet Hesâjvee’ keâe mener DeLe&– (a) F&<Ùee& keâjvee (b) peceerve mes Thej G"vee
(a) jesvee - Oeesvee (b) efÛevlee«emle nesvee (c) IeceC[ keâjvee (d) yenkeâvee
(c) DeeBKeeW ceW keâ<š nesvee (d) DeeBKeeW ceW IeeJe nesvee Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘peceerve hej hewj ve heÌ[vee’
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Dee"-Dee" DeeBmet hesâjvee’ cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& ‘IeceC[ keâjvee’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe
cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& ‘jesvee-Oeesvee’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ Demebiele nw~
3. ‘Úeleer hej meeBhe ueesšvee, keâe mener DeLe&– 9. ‘efmej efhešvee’ keâe mener DeLe& nw–
(a) Meeskeâ keâjvee (b) og:Keer nesvee
(a) keâ<š hengBÛevee (b) og:Keer nesvee
(c) og:Ke heevee (d) keâ<š heevee
(c) Úeleer peuevee (d) F&<Ùee& nesvee
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efmej heeršvee’ cegneJejs keâe mener
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Úeleer hej meeBhe ueesšvee’
DeLe& ‘Meeskeâ keâjvee’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& ‘F&<Ùee& nesvee’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
10. ‘ieo&ve hej meJeej nesvee’ keâe mener DeLe& nw–
4. ‘ieeue yepeevee’ keâe mener DeLe& nw–
(a) efKeueJeeÌ[ keâjvee
(a) neBkeâvee (b) DeefleMeÙeesefkeälehetCe&
(b) ieo&ve hej yew"vee
(c) ieue mes OJeefve efvekeâuevee (d) ieeue Hegâueevee
(c) ieo&ve hej yew"keâj Kesuevee
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ieeue yepeevee’ cegneJejs keâe
(d) heerÚe ve Úes[ Ì vee
mener DeLe& ‘[eRie neBkeâvee’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ieo&ve hej meJeej nesvee’ cegneJejs
5. ‘cegBn Ûeuevee’ keâe mener DeLe& nw– keâe mener DeLe& ‘heerÚe ve ÚesÌ[vee’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(a) Keevee Keevee (b) ieevee efveoxMe : veerÛes efoÙes ieÙes Meyo ceW pees mebefOe nw Gmekesâ Ûeej a, b, c,
(c) yekeâJeeme keâjvee (d) iehheW ceejvee d efoÙes ieÙes nQ~ Fve Ûeej efJekeâuhe ceW Skeâ ner mener nw~ efJekeâuhe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘cegBn Ûeuevee’ cegneJejs keâe mener (DeLe&) keâes Ûegvekeâj efveefo&<š keâerefpeS~
DeLe& ‘yekeâJeeme keâjvee’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ 11. ‘Oecee&lcee’ Meyo ceW mebefOe nw–
6. ‘iegoÌ[er keâe ueeue nesvee’ keâe mener DeLe& nw– (a) iegCe mebefOe (b) ÙeCed mebefOe
(a) OewÙe&Jeeved nesvee (c) DeÙeeefo mebefOe (d) oerIe& mebefOe
(b) #eceeMeerue nesvee Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Oecee&lcee’ Meyo ceW oerIe& mJej
(c) iegCeJeeve mebefOe nw~ Fmekeâe mebefOe efJeÛÚso nesiee- Oece& ± Deelcee~ Ùeefo De, Dee,
(d) iejeryeeW kesâ Iej ceW iegCeJeeve keâe Glhevve nesvee F, F&, G, T Deewj $e+ kesâ yeeo Jes ner ÜmJe Ùee oerIe& mJej DeeÙes, lees
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘iegoÌ[er keâe ueeue nesvee’ oesveeW efceuekeâj ›eâceMe: Dee, F&, T Deewj $e+ nes peeles nQ~
cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& ‘iejeryeeW kesâ Iej ceW iegCeJeeve keâe Glhevve nesvee’ pewmes– cene ± Deelcee · cenelcee
nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ hejced ± Deelcee · hejceelcee
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2001 188 YCT
12. ‘ceneslmeJe’ Meyo ceW mebefOe nw– 17. ‘Ú$eÚeÙee’ Meyo ceW mebefOe nw–
(a) ÙeCed mebefOe (b) iegCe mebefOe (a) JÙebpeve mebefOe (b) iegCe mebefOe
(c) DeÙeeefo mebefOe (d) oerIe& mebefOe (c) DeÙeeefo mebefOe (d) ÙeCed mebefOe
Ans. (b) : ‘ceneslmeJe’· ‘cene ± GlmeJe’ ceW iegCe mJej mebefOe nw~ Ans. (a) : ‘Ú$eÚeÙee’ keâe mebefOe efJeÛÚso ‘Ú$e ± ÚeÙee’ nesiee~ Ùen
Fme mebefOe kesâ Devegmeej Ùeefo ‘De’ Ùee ‘Dee’ kesâ yeeo ‘F’ Ùee ‘F&’, ‘G’ JÙebpeve mebefOe keâe GoenjCe nw~ Ùeefo efkeâmeer mJej kesâ yeeo ‘Ú’ JeCe&
Ùee ‘T’ Deewj ‘$e+’ mJej DeeÙes lees oesveeW efceuekeâj ›eâceMe: ‘S’, ‘Dees’ DeeÙes, lees ‘Ú’ mes henues ‘Ûed’ JeCe& peg[Ì peelee nw~
Deewj ‘Dej’ nes peeles nQ~ 18. ‘efvejvlej’ Meyo ceW mebefOe nw–
pewmes– vej ± Fvõ · vejsvõ
(a) JÙebpeve mebefOe (b) iegCe mebefOe
cene ± GoÙe · cenesoÙe
(c) Je=efæ mebefOe (d) efJemeie& mebefOe
jepee ± Fvõ · jepesvõ
13. ‘meowJe’ Meyo ceW mebefOe nw– Ans. (d) : ‘efvejvlej’ keâe mebefOe efJeÛÚso ‘efve: ± Deblej’ nesiee~ Ùen
(a) JÙebpeve mebefOe (b) Je=efæ mebefOe
efJemeie& mebefOe keâe GoenjCe nw~ efJemeie& mebefOe kesâ efveÙeceevegmeej Ùeefo
(c) iegCe mebefOe (d) DeÙeeefo mebefOe
efJemeie& kesâ henues ‘De’ Ùee ‘Dee’ kesâ DeueeJee keâesF& otmeje mJej nes Deewj
yeeo ceW keâesF& otmeje mJej nes, Ùee JeCe& keâe leermeje, ÛeewLee, heeBÛeJeeB
Ans. (b) : ‘meowJe’ Meyo ceW Je=efæ mJej mebefOe nw~ ‘meowJe’ keâe mebefOe
JeCe& Ùee Ùe, j, ue, Je, n ceW mes keâesF& nes, lees efJemeie& keâe ‘jd’ nes
efJeÛÚso nw– meoe±SJe~ peye ÜmJe Ùee oerIe& De kesâ Ghejevle S, Ss,
peelee nw~
Dees, Deew DeeÙes lees ‘S’ Deewj ‘Ss’ kesâ mLeeve hej ‘Ss’ leLee ‘Dees’ Deewj
pewmes– efve: ± DeeMee · efvejeMee
‘Deew’ kesâ mLeeve hej ‘Deew’ nes peelee nw~
pewmes– Skeâ ± Skeâ · Skewâkeâ og: ± yeue · ogye&ue
cene ± Deew<eOe · cenew<eOe 19. ‘efvemmebosn’ Meyo ceW mebefOe nw–
hejce ± Deew<eOe · hejceew<eOe (a) efJemeie& mebefOe (b) JÙebpeve mebefOe
14. ‘veeÙekeâ’ Meyo ceW mebefOe nw– (c) ÙeCed mebefOe (d) Je=efæ mebefOe
(a) Je=efæ mebefOe (b) ÙeCed mebefOe Ans. (a) : ‘efvemmebosn’ Meyo keâe mebefOe efJeÛÚso ‘efve: ± mebosn’ nw~
(c) iegCe mebefOe (d) DeÙeeefo mebefOe Ùen efJemeie& mebefOe keâe GoenjCe nw~ Ùeefo efJemeie& kesâ yeeo Me, <e, me
Ans. (d) : vew ± Dekeâ · veeÙekeâ (DeÙeeefo mJej mebefOe)~ S, Ss, Dees nesves hej Ùee lees efJemeie& ÙeLeeJele jnlee nw Ùee Deheves mes Deeies Jeeuee
DeLeJee Deew kesâ yeeo keâesF& efYevve mJej Deelee nw lees ‘S’, kesâ mLeeve hej JeCe& nes peelee nw~ pewmes–
DeÙed, Dees, kesâ mLeeve hej DeJed, Ss kesâ mLeeve hej ‘DeeÙed’ leLee Deew kesâ efve: ± meneÙe · efve:meneÙe DeLeJee efvemmeneÙe
mLeeve hej ‘DeeJed’ nes peelee nw~ Ùen DeÙeeefo mJej mebefOe keânueeleer nw~ efve: ± mebosn · efve:mebosn DeLeJee efvemmebosn
pewmes– iew ± Dekeâ · ieeÙekeâ 20. ‘ceveesÙeesie’ Meyo ceW mebefOe nw-
ßeew ± Deve · ßeeJeCe (a) iegCe mebefOe (b) JÙebpeve mebefOe
15. ‘FlÙeeefo’ Meyo ceW mebefOe nw–
(c) efJemeie& mebefOe (d) ÙeCed mebefOe
(a) iegCe mebefOe (b) ÙeCed mebefOe
Ans. (c) : ‘ceveesÙeesie’ keâe mebefOe efJeÛÚso ‘ceve: ± Ùeesie’ nw~ Ùen
(c) JÙebpeve mebefOe (d) efJemeie& mebefOe
efJemeie& mebefOe keâe GoenjCe nw~ Ùeefo efJemeie& kesâ henues ‘De’ DeeÙes Deewj
Ans. (b) : ‘FlÙeeefo’ (Fefle ± Deeefo) ceW ÙeCed mJej mebefOe nw~ ÙeCed Gmekesâ yeeo Yeer ‘De’ DeLeJee Jeie& keâe le=leerÙe, ÛelegLe& Ùee hebÛeced JeCe&
mebefOe kesâ Devegmeej Ùeefo ‘F’, ‘F&’, ‘G’, ‘T’ Deewj ‘$e+’ kesâ yeeo keâesF& DeeÙes lees Ùe,j,ue,Je,n jns lees efJemeie& keâe ‘Dees’ nes peelee nw~
efYevve mJej DeeÙes lees ‘F’ Deewj ‘F&’ keâe ‘Ùet’, ‘G’ Deewj ‘T’ keâe ‘Jed’ pewmes– ÙeMe: ± oe · ÙeMeesoe
Deewj ‘$e+’ keâe ‘jd’ nes peelee nw~
pewmes– Deefle ± DeefOekeâ · DelÙeefOekeâ efveoxMe : veerÛes ØelÙeskeâ meeceeefmekeâ Meyo ceW keâewve meceeme nw, Gmekesâ
Fefle ± Deeefo · FlÙeeefo Ûeej efJekeâuhe a, b, c, d efoÙes ieÙes nQ~ Fve Ûeej efJekeâuhe ceW Skeâ
Deveg ± DeÙe · DevJeÙe ner mener nw~ mener efJekeâuhe keâes Ûegvekeâj efveefo&<š keâerefpeS~
16. ‘meppeve’ Meyo ceW mebefOe nw– 21. meeceeefmekeâ Meyo–jmeesF&Iej ceW meceeme nw–
(a) iegCe mebefOe (b) Je=efæ mebefOe (a) lelheg®<e meceeme (b) odJebodJe meceehe
(c) JÙebpeve mebefOe (d) DeÙeeefo mebefOe (c) odefJeieg meceeme (d) yengyeÇerefn meceeme
Ans. (c) : ‘meppeve’ keâe mebefOe efJeÛÚso ‘meled ± peve’ nesiee~ Ùen Ans. (a) : ‘jmeeF&Iej’ keâe meceeme efJe«en ‘jmeesF& kesâ efueS Iej’ nesiee~
JÙebpeve mebefOe keâe GoenjCe nw~ ‘led’ kesâ yeeo Ùeefo ‘pe’ nes, lees ‘led’– Ùen mecØeoeve lelheg®<e meceeme keâe GoenjCe nw~ efpeme meceeme ceW otmeje
‘pe’ ceW yeoue peelee nw~ heo ØeOeeve nes Deewj oesveeW heoeW kesâ yeerÛe keâer efJeYeefkeäle efÛevn keâe ueeshe
pewmes– peieled ± peveveer · peieppeveveer nes peeÙes, lelheg®<e meceeme keânueelee nw~ pewmes– ØeÙeesieMeeuee–ØeÙeesie kesâ
efJe<eled ± peeue · efJe<eppeele efueS Meeuee~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2001 189 YCT
22. meceeefmekeâ Meyo–ÛelegYeg&pe meceeme nw– 27. meceeefmekeâ Meyo-nmleefueefKele ceW meceeme nw–
(a) keâce&OeejÙe meceeme (b) odefJeieg meceeme (a) odJebodJe meceeme (b) keâce&OeejÙe meceeme
(c) odJebodJe meceeme (d) DeJÙeÙeerYeeJe meceeme (c) lelheg®<e meceeme (d) odefJeieg meceeme
Ans. (b) : ‘ÛelegYeg&pe’ keâe meceeme efJe«en ‘Ûeej YegpeeDeeW keâe meceenej’ Ans. (c) : ‘nmleefueefKele’ Meyo keâe meceeme efJe«en ‘nmle mes efueefKele’
nesiee~ Ùen efÉieg meceeme keâe GoenjCe nw~ Jen meceeme efpemekeâe henuee nesiee~ Ùen ‘keâjCe lelheg®<e’ meceeme keâe GoenjCe nw~ keâjCe lelheg®<e
heo mebKÙeeJeeÛekeâ efJeMes<eCe neslee nw leLee mecemleheo efkeâmeer mecetn Ùee meceeme ceW efJeYeefkeäle (mes) keâe ueeshe heeÙee peelee nw~
efheâj efkeâmeer meceenej keâe yeesOe keâjelee nw, lees Jen efÉieg meceeme pewmes– jsKeebefkeâle – jsKee mes Debefkeâle
keânueelee nw~ pewmes–
keâ°meeOÙe– keâ° mes meeOÙe
ÛeejheeF& – Ûeej hewjes keâe mecetn
ceveie{ble – ceve mes ieÌ{e ngDee
ef$eYegJeve – leerve YegJeveeW keâe meceenej
28. meceeefmekeâ Meyo–hebÛeJešer ceW meceeme nw–
23. meceeefmekeâ Meyo–Øeefleefove ceW meceeme nw–
(a) keâce&OeejÙe meceeme (b) odJebodJe meceeme
(a) lelheg®<e meceeme (b) odJebodJe meceeme
(c) DeJÙeÙeerYeeJe meceeme (d) odefJeieg meceeme (c) lelheg®<e meceeme (d) odefJeieg meceeme

Ans. (c) : ‘Øeefleefove’ keâe meceeme efJe«en ‘ØelÙeskeâ efove’ nesiee Ùen Ans. (d) : ‘hebÛeJešer’ Meyo ceW efÉieg meceeme nw~ efpeme meceeme keâe
DeJÙeÙeer YeeJe meceeme keâe GoenjCe nw~ efpeme meceeme keâe henuee heo hetJe& heo mebKÙeeJeeÛeer neslee nw leLee mecemle heo mecetn keâe yeesOe keâjeles
DeJÙeÙe Ùee Ghemeie& nes, Gmes DeJÙeÙeerYeeJe meceeme keânles nQ~ pewmes- nes, efÉieg meceepe keânueeles nQ~
Deepevce, Øeefleketâue, Yejhesš Deeefo~ pewmes– veJejlve – veew jlveeW keâe mecetn
24. meceeefmekeâ Meyo-oMeeveve ceW meceeme nw– hebÛeJešer – heeBÛe JešeW keâe mecetn
(a) odJebodJe meceeme (b) lelheg®<e meceeme Meleeyoer – meew Deyoes (meeueeW) keâe mecetn
(c) odefJeieg meceeme (d) yengyeÇerefn meceeme 29. meceeefmekeâ Meyo–ef$eYegJeve ceW meceeme nw–
Ans. (d) : ‘oMeeveve’ keâe meceeme efJe«en ‘ome nw Deeveve efpemekesâ’ (a) lelheg®<e meceeme (b) odefJeieg meceeme
DeLee&led jeJeCe nesiee~ Ùen yeng›eerefn meceeme keâe GoenjCe nw~ Fme (c) odJebodJe meceeme (d) yengyeÇerefn meceeme
meceeme ceW keâesF& heo ØeOeeve veneR neslee nw~ oesveeW heo efceuekeâj efkeâmeer Ans. (b) : ‘ef$eYegJeve’ Meyo keâe meceeme efJe«en ‘leerveeW YegJeveeW keâe
le=leerÙe heo keâer Deesj mebkesâle keâjles nQ~ pewmes– meceenej’ Ùen efÉiegkeâce&OeejÙe meceeme keâe GoenjCe nw~ efpeme keâce&OeejÙe keâe
uecyeesoj – uecyee nw Goj efpemekeâe DeLee&led ieCesMe~ hetCe&heo mebKÙeeyeesOekeâ nes, Jen efÉiegCe keâce&OeejÙe meceeme keânueelee nw~
veeruekebâ" – veeruee nw kebâ" efpemekeâe DeLee&led efMeJe~
pewmes– ef$eueeskeâ – leerveeW ueeskeâeW keâe meceenej
25. meceeefmekeâ Meyo-megKeog:Ke ceW meceeme nw– De°eOÙeeÙeer – Dee" DeOÙeeÙeeW keâe meceenej
(a) odefJeieg meceeme (b) odJebodJe meceeme ef$eYegJeve – leerveeW YegJeveeW keâe meceenej
(c) yengyeÇerefn meceeme (d) lelheg®<e meceeme
30. meceeefmekeâ Meyo–pevceevOe ceW meceeme nw–
Ans. (b) : ‘megKe-og:Ke’ keâe meceeme efJe«en ‘megKe Deewj og:Ke’ nesiee~
(a) odefJeieg meceeme (b) odJebodJe meceeme
Ùen ÉvÉ meceeme keâe GoenjCe nw~ efpeme meceeme ceW hetJe&heo Deewj
Gòejheo oesveeW ner ØeOeeve nes DeLee&led DeLe& keâer Âef° mes oesveeW keâe mJeleb$e (c) yengefyeÇefn meceeme (d) lelheg®<e meceeme
DeefmlelJe nes Deewj Gvekesâ ceOÙe mebÙeespekeâ efÛevnd keâe ueeshe nes, lees Jen Ans. (d) : ‘pevceevOe’ Meyo keâe meceeme efJe«en ‘pevce mes DebOe’ nw~
ÉvÉ meceeme keânueelee nw~ Ùen ‘Deheeoeve lelheg®<e’ meceeme keâe GoenjCe nw~
pewmes– ceelee - efhelee · ceelee Deewj efhelee pewmes– $e+Cecegkeäle – $e+Ce mes cegkeäle
heehe - hegCÙe · heehe Deewj hegCÙe Oece&Yeü° – Oece& mes Yeü°
YeeF& - yenve · YeeF& Deewj yenve heoÛÙegle – heo mes ÛÙegle
26. meceeefmekeâ Meyo–‘Øesce-meeiej’ ceW meceeme nw– efveoxMe : ØelÙeskeâ Meyo kesâ Ûeej efJekeâuhe a, b, c, d efoÙes ieÙes nQ~
(a) keâce&OeejÙe meceeme (b) lelheg®<e meceeme Fve Ûeej efJekeâuhe ceW Skeâ ner mener nw~ mener efJekeâuhe keâes Ûegvekeâj
(c) odJebodJe meceeme (d) odefJeieg meceeme efJeefo&<š keâerefpeS~
Ans. (b) : ‘Øesce-meeiej’ Meyo keâe meceeme efJe«en ‘Øesce keâe meeiej’ 31. (a) Deveg«enerle (b) Devegie&nerle
nw~ Ùen lelheg®<e meceeme ceW ‘mebyebOe lelheg®<e’ keâe GoenjCe nw~ mecyevOe (c) Devegie=nerle (d) Devegie=efnle
lelheg®<e meceeme ceW efJeYeefkeäle (keâe,kesâ,keâer) keâe ueeshe heeÙee peelee nw~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Devegie=nerle’ Meyo Megæ nw~
pewmes– meewjceb[ue – metÙe& keâe ceb[ue DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
mesveeOÙe#e – mesvee keâe DeOÙe#e 32. (a) cenlJe (b) cenlleJe
ceveesefJe%eeve– ceve keâe efJe%eeve (c) cenled (d) cenlllJe
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2001 190 YCT
 Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘cenled’ Meyo Megæ nw~ DevÙe 42. efheÙet<e keâes heerkeâj osJelee Decej nes ieS~
meYeer efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ (a) jkeälehe (b) MegYee
33. (a) DeeOeerve (b) DeeefOeve (c) ÙeelegOeeve (d) Je=<ee
(c) DeOeerve (d) DeefOeve Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘efheÙet<e’ keâe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeOeerve’ Meyo Megæ nw~ DevÙe
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer ‘MegYee’ nw, ‘efheÙet<e’ kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nw– Dece=le,
meYeer efJekeâuhe $egefšhetCe& nQ~ megOee, DeefceÙe, meesce, peerJeveesokeâ, ceOeg FlÙeeefo~ peyeefkeâ jkeälehe leLee
ÙeelegOeeve ‘Demegj’ kesâ heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw~
34. (a) ie®Ì{ (b) ie®Ì[
43. mJeie& kesâ jepee Fvõ nQ~
(c) ie®Ce (d) iee®Ì{
(a) efJe<Cegheo (b) heerefle
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ie®Ì[’ Meyo Megæ nw~ DevÙe (c) ceOeJee (d) efMeKeer
meYeer $egefšhetCe& nQ~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘Fvõ’ keâe
35. (a) efÛeåve (b) efÛevn heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer ‘ceOeJee’ nw, Fvõ kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw-megjheefle,
(c) efÛe$e (d) efÛeve MeÛeerheefle, Me›eâ, cesIeheefle, efyeJegOesMe, Je»eOej FlÙeeefo~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efÛe$e’ Meyo Megæ nw~ Mes<e 44. DeeBKe keâe DevOee veece veÙevemegKe~
meYeer $egefšhetCe& nQ~ (a) Jeen (b) jepeerJe
36. (a) keâewlegnue (b) kegâletnue (c) meejbie (d) Decyekeâ
(c) keâewletnue (d) ketâletnue Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘DeeBKe’ keâe
Ans. (b & c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘kegâletnue Deewj keâewletnue’ heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer ‘Decyekeâ’ nw~ ‘DeeBKe’ kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw-
oesveeW Megæ Meyo nw~ DevÙe meYeer $egefšhetCe& nQ~ ueesÛeve, veÙeve, Ûe#eg, Âie, F&#eCe, efJeueesÛeve FlÙeeefo~ peyeefkeâ
37. (a) lÙekeäle (b) lÙeepe
jepeerJe, keâceue keâe leLee meejbie efmebn keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nw~
45. Ûeesj-Ûeesj ceewmesjs YeeF& nesles nQ~
(c) lÙeepÙe (d) lÙeeie
(a) Kevekeâ (b) keâemeej
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘lÙeepÙe’ Meyo Megæ nw~ DevÙe
(c) mejmeer (d) me©e
meYeer $egefšhetCe& nQ~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘Ûeesj’ keâe
38. (a) keâefv<š (b) keâefvve<š
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer ‘Kevekeâ’ nw~ Ûeesj kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw-jÛeveerÛej,
(c) keâveer<" (d) keâefve<" cees<ekeâ, lemkeâj, kegbâefYeue FlÙeeefo~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘keâefve‰’ Meyo Megæ nw~ Mes<e 46. iebiee Skeâ heefJe$e veoer nw~
meYeer $egefšhetCe& nQ~ (a) ef$eoMe (b) cees<ekeâ
39. (a) odJebodJe (b) odJevo (c) osJeeheiee (d) MeerleebMeg
(c) obodJe (d) odJebOe Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘iebiee’ keâe
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘odJebodJe’ Meyo Megæ nw~ Mes<e heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer ‘osJeeheiee’ nw~ iebiee kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw–
meYeer $egefšhetCe& nQ~ YeeieerjLeer, megjmeefj, ef$eheLeiee, ceboeefkeâveer FlÙeeefo~
40. (a) he=<š (b) he=<" 47. Ûevõcee keâer jefMce "b[er nesleer nw~
(c) he=mš (d) Øe<" (a) efveueÙe (b) leejeheefle
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘he=‰’ Meyo Megæ nw~ Mes<e (c) JesMce (d) kegbâefYeue
meYeer $egefšhetCe& nQ~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘Ûevõcee’ keâe
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer ‘leejeheefle’ nw~ Ûevõcee kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw–
efveoxMe : efvecve JeekeäÙeeW ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS a, b, c, d
efveMeekeâj, keâueeOej, megOeebMeg, Fvog, efJeOeg, efnceebMeg, MeefMe FlÙeeefo~
De#ej kesâ meeceves Deueie-Deueie Meyo efueKes ngS nQ~ Fme MeyoeW ceW
peyeefkeâ efveueÙe Oej keâe, kegbâefYeue Ûeesj keâe leLee JesMce Iej keâe
mes GheÙeg&keäle heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer keâes Ûegvekeâj Gmekesâ Jeie& keâes efveefo&<š
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw~
keâerefpeS~
48. meerlee ßeerjece keâer helveer LeeR~
41. Deefive mes Yeespeve yevelee nw~
(a) MeÛeerMe (b) Jeeceebieer
(a) Oeve_peÙe (b) ceneyeueer (c) ceefnuee (d) veejer
(c) Decyekeâ (d) keâeWCehe Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘helveer’ keâe
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Deefive’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer ‘Jeeceebieer’ nw~ ‘helveer’ kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw–
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer ‘Oeve_peÙe’ nw, peyeefkeâ ‘Decyekeâ’ jeef$e keâe, ceneyeueer YeeÙee&, oeje, ie=efnCeer, JeuueYee, Jeecee, keâevlee FlÙeeefo~ peyeefkeâ
yeueJeeve keâe leLee keâeWCehe ‘oeveJe’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw~ ceefnuee leLee veejer ‘m$eer’ kesâ heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2001 191 YCT
49. he=LJeer DevvoeefÙeveer nesleer nw~ 56. Goej JÙeefkeäle mejene peelee nw~
(a) he$ejLe (b) DeCe& (a) GoYeJe (b) eflejesYeeJe
(c) heeLe (d) DeÛeuee (c) eflejesefnle (d) Devegoej
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘he=LJeer’ keâe Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Goej’ keâe
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer ‘DeÛeuee’ nw~ he=LJeer kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nQ– Oeefj$eer, efJeueesce Meyo ‘Devegoej’ nw, peyeefkeâ GoYeJe keâe efJeueesce DeJemeeve,
OejCeer, JemegOee, peieleer, ef#eefle, DeJeveer FlÙeeefo~ eflejesYeeJe keâe DeeefJeYee&Je leLee eflejesefnle keâe DeeefJeYet&le neslee nw~
50. keäÙee mecegõ ceW Yeer Deeie ueieleer nw– 57. cee$eeSB ueIeg Yeer nesleer nQ~
(a) leesÙeefveefOe (b) ieebiesÙe (a) oerIe& (b) ieg¤
(c) meelebie (d) he$eie (c) Úesšer (d) Úesšer-yeÌ[er
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘mecegõ’ keâe Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘}Ieg’ keâe
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer ‘leesÙeefveefOe’ nw~ mecegõ kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw– efJeueesce ‘oerIe&’ Ùee ‘ieg®’ neslee nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
efmevOeg, peueefOe, GoefOe, heÙeesefveefOe, jlveekeâj, DeefyOe, FlÙeeefo~ 58. ceesnve Skeâ ke=âleIve JÙeefkeäle nw~
efveoxMe : efvecve JeekeäÙeeW ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS a, b, c, d (a) ke=âle%e (b) Deke=âle%e
De#ej kesâ meeceves Deueie-Deueie Meyo efueKes ngS nQ~ Fme MeyoeW ceW (c) ke=âle]peer (d) Deke=âle]peer
mes GheÙeg&keäle efJeueesce (efJe®æeLeea) keâes Ûegvekeâj (efpeme De#ej kesâ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘ke=âleIve’ keâe
meeceves keâe Jen Meyo nw) Gmekesâ Jeie& keâes efveefo&<š keâerefpeS~ efJeueesce ‘ke=âle%e’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
51. ßeerjece Skeâ Oeerj veeÙekeâ nQ~ 59. ceveg<Ùe Ghekeâej keâjves mes ceneved neslee nw~
(a) meOeerj (b) DeOeerj (a) hejeshekeâej (b) Dehekeâej
(c) Oeerjueefuele (d) efOejØeMeeble (c) oeveer (d) Deveghekeâej
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Oeerj’ keâe Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Ghekeâej’ keâe
efJeueesce Meyo ‘DeOeerj’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ efJeueesce ‘Dehekeâej’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
60. ke=â<Ce jbie hej otmeje jbie veneR ÛeÌ{lee~
52. Deveenej jnvee Mejerj keâes mJemLe yeveelee nw~
(a) Megukeâ (b) keâvnwÙee
(a) Deenej (b) meveenej
(c) GppJeue (d) meHesâo
(c) GheJeeme (d) ›ele
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘ke=â<Ce’ keâe
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Deveenej’ keâe
efJeueesce ‘mehesâo’ Ùee ‘Megkeäue’ neslee nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
efJeueesce Meyo ‘Deenej’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
efveoxMe : veerÛes efueKes JeekeäÙe Ùee JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Ûeej-Ûeej
53. heefjßece mes JÙeefkeäle keâe GlLeeve neslee nw~ Meyo efoÙes ieÙes nQ~ FveceW mes Skeâ GheÙegkeäle Meyo Ûegvekeâj Gòej-
(a) Glkeâ<e& (b) efJekeâeme hegefmlekeâe efÛeefvnle keâjW~
(c) DeJeveefle (d) heleve 61. pees ueeBIee veneR pee mekesâ~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘GlLeeve’ keâe (a) meuebIÙe (b) DeuebIÙe
efJeueesce Meyo ‘heleve’ nw, peyeefkeâ Glkeâ<e& keâe efJeueesce Dehekeâ<e&, efJekeâeme (c) DeueYÙe (d) GuuebIÙe
keâe Üeme leLee DeJeveefle keâe Gvveefle nesiee~ Ans. (b) : ‘pees ueeBIee veneR pee mekesâ’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo
54. ceesnve keâer nlÙee keâe ÂMÙe yeÌ[e keâ®Ce Lee~ ‘DeuebIÙe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(a) oe®Ce (b) keâ<škeâejkeâ 62. pees peue mes Glhevve nes~
(c) heerÌ[eoeÙekeâ (d) JeerYelme (a) peuepe (b) mejefmepe
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘keâ®Ce’ keâe (c) mejespe (d) mejpe
efJeueesce Meyo ‘oe®Ce’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~ Ans. (a) : ‘pees peue mes Glhevve nes’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo
55. ßeerke=â<Ce kesâ DeeefJeYeeJe& mes pevelee yeÌ[er Øemevve Leer~ ‘peuepe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(a) GoYeJe (b) eflejesYeeJe 63. efpevekesâ Deeves keâer efleefLe ve nes~
(c) eflejesefnle (d) DevegYeeJe (a) mecceeefvele (b) DeefleefLe
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘DeeefJeYee&Je’ keâe (c) meefleefLe (d) meceeefnle
efJeueesce Meyo ‘eflejesYeeJe’ nw, peyeefkeâ GodYeJe keâe DeJemeeve leLee Ans. (b) : ‘efpevekesâ Deeves keâer efleefLe ve nes’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ
DevegYeeJe keâe efJeYeeJe neslee nw~ Meyo ‘DeefleefLe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2001 192 YCT
64. efpemekesâ hetJe& Jewmes keâYeer ve ngDee nes~ Ans. (c) : ‘meeceeefpekeâ DevÙeeÙeeW keâes keâjves kesâ efueS efpemeves oMecegKe
(a) DeYetlehetJe& (b) YetlehetJe& OeejCe efkeâÙee nw, Gmes oMeeveve keânles nQ~’ JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo
(c) meYetlehetJe& (d) DehetJe& keâe DeLe& ‘jeJeCe’ nw~ uebkeâe kesâ jepee jeJeCe kesâ ome efmej nesves kesâ
Ans. (a) : ‘efpemekesâ hetJe& Jewmes keâYeer ve ngDee nes’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS keâejCe Gmes ‘oMeeveve’ keâne peelee Lee~
Skeâ Meyo ‘DeYetlehetJe&’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ 72. pees Fme peiele keâe peerJe nw Jen DebMe Yeer nw~
65. efpemekeâe keâesF& Yeer Me$eg veneR pevcee nes~ (a) šgkeâÌ[e (b) Skeâ efnmmee
(a) efJepeeleMe$eg (b) DepeeleMe$eg (c) Skeâ Yeeie (d) peerJe
(c) DeMe$et (d) efJeMe$et Ans. (a) : ‘pees Fme peiele keâe peerJe nw Jen DebMe Yeer nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW
Ans. (b) : ‘efpemekeâe keâesF& Yeer Me$eg veneR pevcee nes’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâe DeLe& ‘šgkeâÌ[e’ nw~ YeejleerÙe DeeOÙeelce ceW peerJe keâes
efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘DepeeleMe$eg’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ yeÇÿe keâe DebMe ceevee ieÙee nw, leelheÙe& Ùen nw efkeâ peerJe yeÇÿe mes Glhevve
66. pees he=LJeer mes yevee nes~ ngDee nw~
(a) he=LJeerpevÙe (b) DeheeefLe&Je 73. Skeâ mebleeve kesâ efyevee Gme yesÛeejer keâe Debkeâ metvee nw~
(c) heeefLe&Je (d) Keefvepe (a) mebKÙee (b) ieeso
Ans. (c) : ‘pees he=LJeer mes yevee nes’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo (c) veeškeâ keâe Skeâ Yeeie (d) Øeefle%ee
‘heeefLe&Je’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ Ans. (b) : ‘Skeâ mebleeve kesâ efyevee Gme yesÛeejer keâe Debkeâ metvee nw~’
67. pees Yet kesâ ieYe& keâe neue peevelee nes~ JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâe DeLe& ‘ieeso’ nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ efkeâmeer ceefnuee
(a) Yet%eelee (b) YeieYe&Jesòee kesâ mebleeve ve nesves hej Gmekeâer ieeso metveer nesleer nw~
(c) Yet%eeveer (d) YetJesllee 74. njs-njs helleeW keâer Deesš ceW efÚhee nefj hekesâ Heâue efieje
Ans. (b) : ‘pees Yet kesâ ieYe& keâe neue peevelee nes’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS ieÙee~
Skeâ Meyo ‘YetieYe&Jesòee’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (a) efJe<Ceg (b) yevoj
68. efMeJe keâer Gheemevee keâjves Jeeuee~ (c) ke=â<Ce (d) Skeâ he#eer
(a) Jew<CeJe (b) yeewæ Ans. (b) : ‘njs-njs helleeW keâer Deesš ceW efÚhee nefj hekesâ Heâue efieje
(c) MewJe (d) keâheeefue ieÙee~’ JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâe DeLe& ‘yevoj’ nw~ nefj yevoj keâe
Ans. (c) : ‘efMeJe keâer Gheemevee keâjves Jeeuee’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw~
Meyo ‘MewJe’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ 75. YeieJeeved efMeJe kesâ efheveekeâ mes DemebKÙe je#ekeâ veekeâ ceW
69. pees yengle yeesuee keâjlee nes~ hengBÛe ieÙes~
(a) yeÌ[yeesuee (b) JeeÛeeue (a) mJeie& (b) Øeefle<"
(c) yeelegveer (d) yeeÛekeâ (c) ieewjJe (d) GÛÛe mLeeve
Ans. (b) : ‘pees yengle yeesuee keâjlee nes’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ
Ans. (a) : ‘YeieJeeved efMeJe kesâ efheveekeâ mes DemebKÙe je#ekeâ veekeâ ceW
Meyo ‘JeeÛeeue’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
hengBÛe ieÙes~’ JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâe DeLe& ‘mJeie&’ nw~ Mes<e
70. meceeve Goj mes hewoe nesves Jeeuee~ efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(a) menesoj (b) menhee"er
76. ie®Ì[ Skeâ efJeMeeuekeâeÙe veYeÛej nw~
(c) menÙeesie (d) menYeeieer
(a) heMeg (b) YetÛej
Ans. (a) : ‘meceeve Goj mes hewoe nesves Jeeuee’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ
(c) Skeâ he#eer (d) JeeÙegceeve
Meyo ‘menesoj’ nesiee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
Ans. (c) : ‘ie®Ì[ Skeâ efJeMeeuekeâeÙe veYeÛej nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle
efveoxMe : efvecveefueefKele ome (10) JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe
Meyo keâe DeLe& ‘Skeâ he#eer’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
Skeâ Meyo jsKeebefkeâle nw~ nj jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS a, b, c, d
kesâ meeceves Skeâ-Skeâ Meyo efueÙee ieÙee nw~ FveceW mes jsKeebefkeâle 77. heleve keâer jen hej Ûeueves Jeeues JÙeefkeäle keâes Glkeâ<e& keâer
Meyo keâe DeLe& keâer Âef<š mes pees Jewkeâefuhekeâ Meyo Deefle efvekeâš nw, DeeMee veneR keâjveer ÛeeefnS~
Gmes Gòej-hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefvnle keâjW~ (a) Gvveefle (b) efJekeâeme
71. meeceeefpekeâ DevÙeeÙeeW keâes keâjves kesâ efueS efpemeves oMecegKe (c) GoÙe (d) Je=efæ
OeejCe efkeâÙee nw Gmes oMeeveve keânles nQ~ Ans. (a) : ‘heleve keâer jen hej Ûeueves Jeeues JÙeefkeäle keâes Glkeâ<e& keâer
(a) Skeâ ceveg<Ùe (b) Skeâ heMeg DeeMee veneR keâjveer ÛeeefnS~’ JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâe DeLe&
(c) jeJeCe (d) Skeâ osJelee ‘Gvveefle’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2001 193 YCT
78. ueeskeâ kesâ Thej Decyej efJejepeceeve nw~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Fme meceÙe Deehekeâer DeJemLee
(a) Jem$e (b) DeekeâeMe Ûeeueerme Je<e& keâer nw~’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘DeeÙeg’ mecemle peerJeve
(c) jbie (d) yeeoue keâeue keâes Deewj ‘DeJemLee’ meeOeejCe Gceü keâes keânles nQ~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe
Ans. (b) : ‘ueeskeâ kesâ Thej Decyej efJejepeceeve nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW DeMegæ nw~
jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâe DeLe& ‘DeekeâeMe’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ 84. efJeiele oes Je<e& mes Yeejle Deewj heeefkeâmleeve kesâ yeerÛe keâšglee
79. ieefleMeerue efpevoieer keâe veece nw peerJeve~ Glhevve nes ieF& nw~
(a) heeveer (b) mecceeve (a) efJeiele oes Je<eeX mes Yeejle Deewj heeefkeâmleeve kesâ yeerÛe keâšglee
(c) peerves ÙeesiÙe (d) ØeeCe
Glhevve nes ieF& nw~
(b) efJeiele oes Je<eeX mes Yeejle Deewj heeefkeâmleeve kesâ yeerÛe
Ans. (d) : ‘ieefleMeerue efpevoieer keâe veece nw peerJeve~’ JeekeäÙe ceW
cevecegšeJe Glhevve nes ieÙee nw~
jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâe DeLe& ‘ØeeCe’ nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ efyevee ØeeCe kesâ efpevoieer
(c) efJeiele oes Je<e& mes Yeejle Deewj heeefkeâmleeve kesâ yeerÛe Me$eglee
ieefleMeerue veneR nes mekeâleer~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
Glhevve nes ieF& nw~
80. Deepe ceQves peeåvJeer ceW mveeve efkeâÙee~ (d) FveceW mes keâesF& veneR
(a) Ùecegvee (b) iebiee
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efJeiele oes Je<eeX mes Yeejle Deewj
(c) YeeieerjLeer (d) Je®Ce heeefkeâmleeve kesâ yeerÛe keâšglee Glhevve nes ieF& nw~’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, Mes<e
Ans. (b) : ‘Deepe ceQves peeåvJeer ceW mveeve efkeâÙee~’ JeekeäÙe ceW efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâe DeLe& ‘iebiee’ nw~ Fme Øekeâej JeekeäÙe nesiee-Deepe ceQves 85. ceQves Skeâ Je<e& lekeâ Gvekeâer Øeleer#ee osKeer~
iebiee ceW mLeeve efkeâÙee~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (a) Skeâ Je<e& lekeâ ceQves Gvekeâer Øeleer#ee osKeer~
efveoxMe: efvecveefueefKele (10) JeekeäÙe efoÙes ieÙes nQ~ ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe ceW (b) ceQves Skeâ Je<e& lekeâ Gvekeâer Øeleer#ee keâer~
Ûeej-Ûeej efJekeâuhe nQ~ FveceW pees Megæ JeekeäÙe nes, Gmekesâ efueS (c) ceQves Gvekeâer Øeleer#ee keâer Skeâ Je<e& lekeâ~
efveOee&efjle a, b, c, d ceW mes keâesF& De#ej Gòej kesâ ¤he ceW efueKeW~ (d) FveceW mes keâesF& veneR
81. nceejer meewYeeiÙeMeeueer keâvÙee keâe efJeJeen nesves pee jne nw~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ceQves Skeâ Je<e& lekeâ Gvekeâer
(a) nceejer meewYeeiÙekeâebef#eCeer keâvÙee keâe efJeJeen nesves pee jne nw~ Øeleer#ee keâer~’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘Øeleer#ee’ keâer peeleer nw, osKeer
(b) nceejer DeeÙeg<celeer keâvÙee keâe efJeJeen nesves pee jne nw~ veneR peeleer~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) nceejer efÛejbpeerJeer keâvÙee keâe efJeJeen nesves pee jne nw~ 86. leguemeer keâer Skeâ jÛevee keâe veece nw ‘jeceÛeefjleceeveme’~
(d) FveceW mes keâesF& veneR (a) jeceeÙeCe leguemeer keâer Skeâ jÛevee keâe veece nw~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘nceejer DeeÙeg<celeer keâvÙee keâe (b) jeceÛeefjleceeveme leguemeer keâer Skeâ jÛevee keâe veece nw~
efJeJeen nesves pee jne nw~’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ efJeJeen nesves kesâ (c) ‘jeceÛeefjle jeceeÙeCe’ leguemeer keâer Skeâ jÛevee keâe veece nw~
yeeo ner keâvÙee ‘meewYeeiÙeJeleer’ nesleer nw, henues veneR~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe (d) FveceW mes keâesF& veneR
DeMegæ nw~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘jeceÛeefjleceeveme leguemeer keâer
82. Meeskeâ nw efkeâ Deeheves cesjs he$eeW keâe keâesF& Gòej veneR efoÙee~ Skeâ jÛevee keâe veece nw~’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(a) keâ<š nw efkeâ Deeheves cesjs he$eeW keâe keâesF& Gòej veneR efoÙee~ 87. LeesÌ[er osj yeeo Jes Jeeheme ueewš DeeÙes~
(b) jes<e nw efkeâ Deeheves cesjs he$eeW keâe keâesF& Gòej veneR efoÙee~ (a) Jes Jeeheme ueewš DeeÙes LeesÌ[er osj yeeo~
(c) Keso nw efkeâ Deeheves cesjs he$eeW keâe keâesF& Gòej veneR efoÙee~ (b) LeesÌ[er osj yeeo Jes Jeeheme DeeÙes~
(d) FveceW mes keâesF& veneR~ (c) LeesÌ[er osj yeeo ner Jes Jeeheme DeeÙes~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Keso nw efkeâ Deeheves cesjs he$eeW (d) FveceW mes keâesF& veneR
keâe keâesF& Gòej veneR efoÙee~’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ he$e keâe Gòej Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘LeesÌ[er osj yeeo Jes Jeeheme
veneR efceueves hej Keso JÙekeäle efkeâÙee peelee nw, Meeskeâ veneR~ Mes<e DeeÙes~’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘Jeeheme’ ceW ner ueewšvee Meeefceue nw~
efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ Dele: ‘ueewšvee’ keâe ØeÙeesie efvejLe&keâ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
83. Fme meceÙe Deehekeâer DeeÙeg Ûeeueerme keâer nw~ 88. leye MeeÙeo Ùen keâece pe¤j nes peeÙesiee~
(a) Deehekeâer DeeÙeg Fme meceÙe Ûeeueerme keâer nw~ (a) leye mecYeJele: Ùen keâece pe¤j nes peeÙesiee~
(b) Fme meceÙe Deehekeâer DeeÙeg Ûeeueerme keâer ner nw~ (b) leye Ùen keâece pe¤j nes peeÙesiee~
(c) Fme meceÙe Deehekeâer DeJemLee Ûeeueerme Je<e& keâer nw~ (c) leye Ùen keâece Yeer pe¤j nes peeÙesiee~
(d) FveceW mes keâesF& veneR~ (d) FveceW mes keâesF& veneR

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2001 194 YCT

 Ans. (b) : ‘leye Ùen keâece pe¤j nes peeÙesiee~’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, Jen meeslee-meeslee mees ieÙee~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
94.
keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘MeeÙeo’ Deewj ‘pe™j’ keâe ØeÙeesie Skeâ meeLe veneR neslee~ Mes<e (a) (b) (c) (d)
efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ Ans. (b) : ‘Jen meeslee-meeslee mees ieÙee’ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘JeÛeve’ keâer
89. cesjs efueS yeHe&â Deewj iece& Deeie ueeDees~ DeMegefæ nw~ ÙeneB ‘Jen meesles-meesles mees ieÙee’ nesvee ÛeeefnS~ Mes<e
(a) cesjs efueS "b[er yeHe&â Deewj iece& Deeie ueeDees~ JeekeäÙeebMe Megæ nw~
(b) cesjs efueS iece& Deeie Deewj "b[er yeHe&â ueeDees~
Ùen meye-keâgÚ cesje nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
(c) cesjs efueS yeHe&â Deewj Deeie ueeDees~ 95.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) FveceW mes keâesF& veneR
Ans. (a) : ‘Ùen meye kegâÚ cesje nw’ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘keâlee&’ keâer DeMegefæ nw~
Ans. (c) : ‘cesjs efueS yeHe&â Deewj Deeie ueeDees~’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, ÙeneB ‘Ùes meye kegâÚ cesje nw’ nesvee ÛeeefnS~ Mes<e JeekeäÙeebMe Megæ nw~
keäÙeeWefkeâ yehe&â "b[er Deewj Deeie iece& ner nesleer nw~ Dele: Fvekeâe meeLe ceW
Jen keâgmeera cesW yew"keâj heÌ{elee nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
ØeÙeesie DevegheÙegkeäle nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ 96.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
90. ke=âheÙee Deehe Ùen yeleeves keâe Deveg«en keâjW~
Ans. (b) : ‘Jen kegâmeea ceW yew"keâj heÌ{lee nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘kegâmeea ceW
(a) ke=âheÙee Deehener Ùen yeleeÙeW~
yew"keâj’ JeekeäÙeebMe ceW DeMegefæ nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘kegâmeea hej’ yew"keâj heÌ{e
(b) ke=âheÙee Deehener Ùen yeleeves keâer Devegkeâccee keâjW~
peelee nw, kegâmeea ceW yew"keâj veneR~ Mes<e JeekeäÙeebMe Megæ nQ~
(c) ke=âheÙee Deehener Ùen yeleeves keâer oÙee keâjW~
(d) FveceW mes keâesF& veneR~
Gvekeâer keâece keâjves keâer FÛÚe veneRr nw~
97.
(a) (b) (c)
Ans. (a) : ‘ke=âheÙee Deehe ner Ùen yeleeÙeW~’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, Mes<e
keâesF& $egefš venerR~
efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~
(d)
efveoxMe : ÙeneB ome (10) JeekeäÙe efoÙes ieÙes nQ~ Ùes leerve Deueie-
Ans. (a) : ‘Gvekeâer keâece keâjves keâer FÛÚe veneR nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW
Deueie YeeieeW ceW efJeYeeefpele nQ~ FvnW meeJeOeeveer kesâ meeLe heÌ{ves kesâ
‘Gmekeâer keâece keâjves keâer FÛÚe veneR nw’ nesvee ÛeeefnS~ Mes<e JeekeäÙeebMe
yeeo DeMegæ DebMe keâer peevekeâejer keâjkesâ a, b, c, d ceW mes $egefš mes
Megæ nw~
mecyeefvOele De#ej keâes Gòej-hegefmlekeâe ceW efueefKeS~ Ùeefo keâesF& $egefš
veneR nw lees D kesâ ceeOÙece mes metefÛele keâerefpeS~ meelree efJeueehe keâjkeâs jesves ueiee~r keâesF& $egefš venerR~
98.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Gme hej lejme Deeleer nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
91. Ans. (c) : ‘meerlee efJeueehe keâjkesâ jesves ueieer’ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘jesvee’ keâe
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ans. (c) : ‘Gme hej lejme Deeleer nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘lejme Deeleer nw’ kesâ ØeÙeesie DeveheÙegkeäle nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘efJeueehe’ ceW jesvee Meeefceue nw~ Fme
mLeeve hej ‘oÙee Deeleer nw’ nesvee ÛeeefnS~ DevÙe JeekeäÙeebMe Megæ nw~ Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe ‘meerlee efJeueehe keâjves ueieer’ nesiee~ Mes<e JeekeäÙeebMe
Megæ nw~
peeJreve cesW yengle mee Gleej-ÛeÌ{eJe osKee nw~
92.
(a) (b) (c) nJee "b[er Ûeue jner nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
99.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
keâesF& $egefš venerR~
(d) Ans. (a) : ‘nJee "b[er Ûeue jner nw’ JeekeäÙe ceW "b[er keâe ØeÙeesie
Ans. (b) : ‘peerJeve ceW yengle mee Gleej-ÛeÌ{eJe osKee nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW DeveheÙegkeäle nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘nJee’ "b[er ner nesleer nw~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ
‘yengle mee’ kesâ mLeeve hej ‘yengle’ nesvee ÛeeefnS~ DevÙe JeekeäÙeebMe Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee-nJee Ûeue jner nw~ Mes<e JeekeäÙeebMe Megæ nw~
nw~ Yeejle keâer jepeveeerfle hesÛeeroe nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~
100.
Ùen nej meesves keâe nw~ keâesF& $egefš venerR~ (a) (b) (c) (d)
93.
(a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (c) : ‘Yeejle keâer jepeveerefle hesÛeeroe nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Jele&veer’ keâer
Ans. (b) : ‘Ùen nej meesves keâe nw’ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘›eâce keâer DeMegefæ nw’ DeMegefæ nw~ ÙeneB ‘hesÛeeroe’ kesâ mLeeve hej ‘heWÛeeroe’ nesvee ÛeeefnS~ Mes<e
ÙeneB ‘Ùen meesves keâe nej nw’ nesvee ÛeeefnS~ DevÙe JeekeäÙeebMe Megæ nw~ JeekeäÙeebMe Megæ nw~

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2001 195 YCT

 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2001
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL ENGLISH (PAPER-II)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Marks : 100

Spotting Errors : Read each sentence to find out It was a clouded day. No error
whether there is an error in any underline part. No 5. (A) (B) (C) (D)
sentence has more than one error. If you feel there is
no error in a sentence signify a 'No Error' response. Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (B) ceW clouded kesâ mLeeve hej
1
Honestly speaking like him Adjective cloudy (OegbOeuee/cesIeÙegòeâ) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ
(A) noun (day) keâes Modify keâjves kesâ efueÙes Adjective keâe ØeÙeesie
not because he is handsome neslee nw~
(B)
Correct sentence–
and charming, It was a cloudy day.
(C)
I remember having read
but that he is exceedingly kind 6.
(A)
(D)
Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (d) ceW 'that' kesâ mLeeve hej somewhere that the first satelite
because keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùeefo Skeâ Clause kesâ meeLe not (B)
because keâe ØeÙeesie ngDee nes lees otmejer clause kesâ meeLe but was unshed by Russians. No error
because keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ (C) (D)
Not because ……………. but because…….. Ans. (d) : No Error
Correct sentence– One of her firmest belief was that her
Honestly speaking I like him not because he is hansome 7.
(A)
and charming but because he is exceedingly kind.
He used rather harsh words in denouncing her,
friend shouted at
2.
(A) her with a view to making her
but he must have had some (B)
(B) aware of her repeated lapses. No error
very strong reason for doing so. No error (C) (D)
(C) (D)
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (a) ceW belief kesâ mLeeve hej
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&òeâ Sentence kesâ Part (a) ceW in kesâ mLeeve hej
for keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Correct Sentence - beliefs keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
He used rather harsh words for denouncing her..... Note- One of kesâ yeeo Deeves Jeeues nouns/pronouns ncesMee
Neither your earnest pladings plural use nesles nw, leLee verb singular use nesleer nw~
3.
(A) Correct Sentence– One of her firmest beliefs was that
nor your profuse tears her friend shouted at her with a view to making her
(B) aware of her repeated lapses.
have made me change my decision. No error The bus takes you there with three rupees
8.
(C) (D) (A) (B) (C)
Ans. (d) : No error. No error
Will you borrow me your pen? No error (D)
4.
(A) (B) (C) (D) Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (C) ceW 'with' kesâ mLeeve hej
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (B) ceW Borrow kesâ mLeeve hej For keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej
Lend (GOeej osvee) keâe ØeÙeesie Megæ nesiee~ GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
Correct sentence– Correct sentence–
Will you lend me your pen? The bus takes you there for three rupees.
BPSC AE Gen. English, 2001 196 YCT
 It was generally agreed that that their departure from the normal
9.
(A) (B)
the speeches of their Prime Minister canons of political behavior
(B) (C)
in always an index to grave
were better than the ministers. No error (C)
(D) (E)
disease in the state.
Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (D) ceW 'than the ministers'
No error
kesâ mLeeve hej 'than those of the ministers' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee
(D)
keäÙeeWefkeâ The speech of Prime minister keâer leguevee The
speech of ministers mes nes jner nw ve efkeâ ministers mes~ Dele: Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efJekeâuhe (a) ceW 'Obey' kesâ mLeeve hej
leguevee keâes mebiele keâjves kesâ efueÙes minister kesâ henues those of keâe 'Obeying' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
ØeÙeesie Megæ nesiee~ Note–Accustomed to + doing something keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
Correct sentence– Africa is in the south of Europe.
It was generally agreed that the speeches of their Prime 14.
(A) (B) (C)
minister were better than those of the ministers.
No error
I am a teacher of a secondary school (D)
10.
(A) (B) (C)
Ans. (d) : No error
No error
(D) He was on board his ship. No error
15.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (A) ceW 'a teacher' kesâ mLeeve
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (B) ceW 'on board' kesâ mLeeve
hej 'the teacher' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ peye oes noun 'of' mes
pegÌ[s ngÙes nesles nQ lees henues noun kesâ henues definite article 'the' hej 'on the board of' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ board Deewj ship
keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ kesâ yeerÛe GheÙegòeâ Preposition 'of' (kesâ) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee Deewj of
Correct sentence–
mes pegÌ[ves kesâ keâejCe board kesâ henues the keâe Yeer ØeÙeesie nesiee~
I am the teacher of a secondary school. Correct sentence–
He was on the board of his ship.
I am really meaning the feeling
11. He directed us to a place where there is
(A) 16.
(A) (B)
that comes to most at certain times
(B) not any restaurant nor hotel. No error
that are fulfilling a greater purpose by (C) (D)
(C) Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (C) ceW 'not any restaurant
doing what they do. No error nor hotel' kesâ mLeeve hej 'neither any restaurant nor any
(D) hotel' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ nor kesâ meeLe neither keâe ØeÙeesie
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efJekeâuhe (b) ceW 'at' kesâ mLeeve hej neslee nw~
'of' preposition keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Correct sentence–
Correct Sentence– I am really meaning the feeling He directed us to a place where there is neither any
comes to most of certain times that are fulfilling a restaurant nor any hotel.
greater purpose by doing what they do. The newcomer appeared quite suddenly.
17.
I must give answer, to the question (A) (B) (C)
12.
(A) (B) (C) No error
No error (D)
(D) Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (B) ceW 'appeared' kesâ meeLe
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW Give keâe ØeÙeesie Superfluous nw 'himself' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
keäÙeeWefkeâ Answer, Kego ner hetCe& DeLe& oslee nw~ Correct Sentence Note: Absent, Present, appear, enjoy etc kesâ meeLe Object
I must answer to the question. kesâ ve efoÙes nesves keâer efmLeefle ceW mecyeefvOele reflexive pronoun keâe
Truth is that men in general are so ØeÙeesie nesiee~
13.
(A) Correct sentence–
accustomed to obey The new comer appeared himself quite suddenly.

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2001 197 YCT

 We had to do several works No error Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part C ceW are kesâ mLeeve hej have
18.
(A) (B) (C) (D) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ tired (VIII) kesâ ØeÙeesie mes mhe<š nw efkeâ
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part C ceW Works kesâ mLeeve hej JeekeäÙe Present perfect tense ceW nw~ Correct Sentence -
Pieces of work keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Work uncountable If you have tired go and lay down.
noun nw Deewj Fmekeâe Plural veneR yevelee nw~ 25.
By these means we shall have
(A) (B)
We had to compete against
19. much time and money. No error
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
a much stronger team No error
Ans. (d) : No error.
(C) (D)
These kind of dresses
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (C) ceW 'much' keâe ØeÙeesie veneR 26.
(A)
nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ 'stronger' henues mes ner Comparative degree ceW seem to be expensive but it is
nw Deewj Skeâ ner JeekeäÙe ceW Skeâ meeLe Double comparative keâe (B)
ØeÙeesie veneR neslee~ relatively economical to maintain them.
Correct sentence– (C)
We had to compete against a stronger team.
No error
He ran outside to see, what is happening (D)
20.
(A) (B) (C) Ans. (d) : No error
No error If you would have studies hard
(D) 27.
(A) (B)
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (C) ceW 'is' kesâ mLeeve hej 'was' you should have passed the examination
keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ 'ran' (Verb IInd) kesâ ØeÙeesie mes mhe° nw efkeâ (C)
JeekeäÙe Past tense ceW nw, Dele: Past keâer Verb 'was' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ No error
Correct sentence– (D)
He ran outside to see, what was happening. Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (B) ceW 'would have
Tell me where is your book? No error studies hard' kesâ mLeeve hej 'had studied hard' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee
21.
(A) (B) (C) (D) keäÙeeWefkeâ Conditional (if) keâer Structure efvecve nesleer nw
Ans. (d) : No error. If + Past perfect → Perfect Conditional
Correct sentence–
Every one admired at his courage.
22. If you had studied hard you should have passed the
(A) (B) (C) examination.
No error He began relating several details
(D) 28.
(A)
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (B) ceW 'at' keâe ØeÙeesie veneR connecting with the Accident
nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Admire kesâ meeLe efvecve Structure ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw– (B)
admire (No preposition) → Something/somebody unmindful of bouing the audience No error
Correct sentence– (C) (D)
Everyone admired his courage. Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part B ceW 'connecting' kesâ mLeeve
23.
The thief denied hej 'connected' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe keâe sence past
(A) tense ceW nw~
to confess where he had hidden They questioned me unendingly about
(B) 29.
(A)
the stolen property. No error
in the conference
(C) (D) my participation
(B)
Ans. (d) : No error. where I had made some real valuable
If you are tired go and lay down (C)
24.
(A) (B) (C) No error
contributions
No error (D)
(D) Ans. (d) : No error.

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2001 198 YCT

 Is there further reasing you Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (c) ceW said kesâ mLeeve hej
30.
(A) asked keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe Interrogative ceW nw~
can give me for your failure Correct sentence -
(B) He knocked the door and asked , may I come in!.
to do as you promised? No error At the outside of the Patna station
36.
(C) (D) (A) (B)
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efJekeâuhe (a) ceW 'reasing' kesâ mLeeve a car was waiting No error
hej 'reason' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ (C) (D)
Correct Sentence– Is there further reason you can Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (b) ceW the keâe ØeÙeesie veneR
give me for your failure to do as you promised?
nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Proper noun (Patna) kesâ henues article keâe ØeÙeesie
After Napoleon had lost the Battle of Waterloo veneR neslee nw~ Correct sentence -
31.
(A)
At the outside of Patna station a car was waiting.
in 1815 he had been exiled to
(B) When atleast we got to the theatre
37.
(A)
the island of St. Helena No error
(C) (D) the much publicized play
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part B ceW had been exiled kesâ (B)
mLeeve hej exiled keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ sense kesâ was already begun No error
Devegmeej Ùen past indefinite ceW nw efpemeceW subject kesâ meeLe (C) (D)
verb2 keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (A) ceW 'atleast' keâe ØeÙeesie
When asked a question he rose his hand veneR nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueÙes Superfluous nw~
32.
(A) (B) Correct sentence–
to catch the teacher's attention No error When we got to the theatre the much publicized play
(C) (D) was already begun.
Ans. (d) : No error They call happiness to the things that
38.
When we remind the old times we are sad (A) (B)
33.
(A) (B) (C) make them laugh. No error
No error (C) (D)
(D) Ans. (d) : No error
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (C) ceW 'we are sad' kesâ mLeeve The visitors complained at
hej 'we become sad' (Present Indefinite) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee 39. (A)
keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~ the poor accomodation they were given.
Correct sentence– (B) (C)
When we remind the old times we become sad.
No error
She had been a nurse for three years (D)
34.
(A)
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (A) ceW 'at' kesâ mLeeve hej
and then she want to study medicine
'about' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Verb complain kesâ meeLe efvecve
(B) (C)
Preposition keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw–
No error
Complain → to → Somebody
(D)
Complain → about/of → Something
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (c) ceW 'want' kesâ mLeeve hej
'wanted' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe ceW had been kesâ ØeÙeesie Correct sentence–
The visitors complained about the poor
mes mhe<š nw efkeâ JeekeäÙe past tense ceW nw~
accommodation they were given.
Correct sentence–
She had been a nurse for three years and then she Besides of that he was too old No error
40.
wanted to study medicine. (A) (B) (C) (D)
He knocked the door and Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (b) ceW of keâe ØeÙeesie veneR nesiee
35.
(A) (B) keäÙeeWefkeâ Besides kesâ meeLe keâesF& Preposition veneR ueielee nw~
said, may I Come in! No error Correct sentence-
(C) (D) Besides that he was too old.

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2001 199 YCT

 Few people know the answer did they? Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (B) ceW 'seeing' kesâ mLeeve hej
41.
(A) (B) (C) 'He saw' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Past indefinite (Verb2) keâe
No error ØeÙeesie nesiee~
(D) Correct sentence–
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (C) ceW 'did they' kesâ mLeeve He ran off when he saw the police.
hej 'don’t they' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ question tag yeveeves kesâ It is fourteen years since I saw him
47.
efueÙes efvecve Structure keâe heeueve neslee nw~ (A) (B) (C)
Positive sentence → Negative question tag No error
Negative sentence → Positive question tag (D)
Note: Question tag ceW ØeÙegòeâ helping verb Gmeer JeekeäÙe ceW Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (A) ceW 'is' kesâ mLeeve hej
ØeÙegòeâ tense kesâ Devegmeej nesleer nw~ 'was' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej JeekeäÙe Past ceW
Correct sentence– ØeÙegòeâ ngDee nw~
Few people know the answer don’t they? Correct sentence–
He went there by horse No error It was fourteen years since I saw him.
42.
(A) (B) (C) (D) They could not scarcely see anything.
48.
Ans. (d) : No error. (A) (B) (C)
Your car is being repaired is it? No error
43.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
No error Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (c) ceW 'scarcely' (cegefMkeâue
(D) mes) keâe ØeÙeesie Superfluous ngDee nw~ keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe already
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (C) ceW 'is it' kesâ mLeeve hej negative ceW ØeÙegòeâ ngDee nw Deewj Ùen Negative sense oslee nw~
'isn't it' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Positive sentence keâer Correct sentence–
question tag negative ceW yevelee nw~ They could not see anything.
Correct sentence– If he would study harder
Your car is being repaired isn't it? 49.
(A)
There are some who calls it a bore he would have passed
44. The examination.
(A) (B) (C)
(B) (C)
No error
No error
(D)
(D)
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (B) ceW 'calls' kesâ mLeeve hej
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (A) ceW 'If he would study
'call' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe ceW Verb 'call' that kesâ henues
harder' kesâ mLeeve hej 'If he had studied harder' keâe ØeÙeesie
ØeÙegòeâ some (plural) kesâ efueÙes ØeÙegòeâ ngF& nw~ Dele: Ùen (call) Yeer
Plural ØeÙegòeâ nesieer~
nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Conditional sentence keâe Structure efvecve neslee
Correct sentence–
nw–
There are some who call it a bore. If + Subject + had + VIII + subject + would/should +
have + other words
Twenty miles is
45. Correct sentence–
(A)
If he had studied harder he would have passed the
not a great distance in these days of examination.
(B)
We are all tired to listen to his complaints
rapid travel No error 50.
(A) (B) (C)
(C) (D)
No error
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (b) ceW in kesâ mLeeve hej of keâe (D)
ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueÙes GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Part (A) ceW 'We are all tired to'
He ran off when seeing the police kesâ mLeeve hej 'We all are trying to' Ùee 'we all tried to' keâe
46.
(A) (B) (C)
ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe Continuous Ùee Past Indefinite ceW
No error
ØeÙegòeâ nesiee~
(D)
Correct sentence–
BPSC AE Gen. English, 2001 200 YCT
 We all are trying to listen to his complaints. Ans. (a) : Luminous (ØekeâeMeceeve/mhe°) keâe Antonym
Or We all tried to listen to his complaints. 'Dark' (DebOekeâejceÙe) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
51. Accord Bright – Ûecekeâeruee
(a) discontinue (b) detail Slow – Oeercee
(c) disagree (d) return
Partial – DeebefMekeâ/DeOetje
Ans. (c) : Accord – (mecePeewlee) keâe Antonym Disagree –
57. Plethora
(celeYeso/Demenceefle) nesiee~ (a) shortage (b) weakness
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– (c) sickness (d) smallness
Discontinue– meceehle/yevo keâjvee Ans. (a) : Plethora (yengleeÙele) keâe Antonym 'Shortage'
Detail – efJemleej (keâceer/DeYeeJe) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
Return – Jeehemeer Weakness – ogye&uelee
52. Alacrity Sickness – DemJemLelee
(a) hesitation (b) uncertainty
Smallness – Úesšeheve
(c) inability (d) interest
58. Adamant
Ans. (a) : Alacrity (lelhejlee/Glmeen) keâe Antonym
(a) Satisfied (b) comfortable
'Hesitation' (mebkeâesÛe/mebMeÙe) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– (c) yielding (d) luxurious
Uncertainty– Deefveef§elelee/Mekeâ Ans. (c) : Adamant (Dešue/n"er) keâe Antonym 'Yielding'
Inability – DeÙeesiÙelee (ceeveves Jeeuee/vece&) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
Interest – ™Peeve/efoueÛemheer Satisfied – mebleg°
53. Timidity Comfortable – DeejeceoeÙekeâ
(a) health (b) fear Luxurious – efJeueemeer/ØeÛegj
(c) humility (d) temerity
59. Belligerent
Ans. (d) : Timidity (keâeÙejlee/yegpeefoueer) keâe Antonym (a) friendly (b) opposite
'Temerity' (GleeJeueeheve) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– (c) enmity (d) question
Health– mJeemLÙe Ans. (a) : Belligerent (Ùegæjle/ueÌ[eketâ) keâe Antonym
Fear – YeÙe 'Friendly' (efce$eleehetCe&/oÙeeuet) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
Humility – efJeveceülee Opposite – efJehejerle/kesâ meeceves
54. Barren Question – ØeMve/mebosn/cemeuee
(a) wrong (b) long 60. Despondency
(c) fertile (d) similar (a) hopeless (b) despair
Ans. (c) : Barren (yebpej/DeveghepeeT) keâe Antonym 'Fertile' (c) dark (d) hope
(GhepeeT) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– Ans. (d) : Despondency (efvejeMee/Goemeer) keâe Antonym
Wrong– ieuele/DevegheheÙegòeâ 'Hope' (DeeMee) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
Long – uecyee/oerIe& Hopeless – efvejeMeepevekeâ
Similar – meceeve/Deveg™he Despair – efvejeMee/ceeÙetmeer
55. Ancillary Dark – DebOesje/Demhe°
(a) important (b) sole 61. Mundane
(c) main (d) opposite (a) excellent (b) superior
Ans. (c) : Ancillary (DeOeervemLe/ieewCe) keâe Antonym 'Main' (c) spiritual (d) extraordinary
(cegKÙe/efJeMes<e) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– Ans. (c) : Mundane (meebmeeefjkeâ/ueewefkeâkeâ) keâe Antonym
Important – cenlJehetCe& 'Spiritual' (DeeOÙeeeflcekeâ) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
Sole – leueJee/Skeâcee$e Excellent – ßes‰/Gòece
Opposite – efJehejerle Superior – yesnlej/Jeefj‰
56. Luminous Extraordinary – DemeeOeejCe
(a) dark (b) bright 62. Ephemeral
(c) slow (d) partial (a) permanent (b) ethical
(c) stable (d) unable

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2001 201 YCT

 Ans. (a) : Ephemeral (Deuhekeâeefuekeâ) keâe Antonym 70. The phrase 'fall through' means
'Permanent' (mLeeÙeer/efvelÙe) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– (a) fail (b) quarrel with
(c) run (d) sleeps
Ethical – veweflekeâ
Stable – DeÕeMeeuee Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ Phrase "fall through" (Demeheâue/jö nes
Unable – DeÙeesiÙe
peevee) kesâ efueÙes efJekeâuhe (a) 'fail' GheÙegòeâ Meyo nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW
kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nQ~
63. Centrifugal
(a) central (b) concentric 71. Living or moving in herds
(c) centripetal (d) old (a) notorious (b) nefarious
(c) monotonous (d) gregarious
Ans. (c) : Centrifugal (kesâvõ lÙeeieer) keâe Antonym
Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ Phrase "Living or moving in herds" kesâ
'Centripetal' (kesâvõieeceer) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
efueÙes efJekeâuhe (d) 'gregarious' (PegC[ ceW jnves Jeeuee) GheÙegòeâ
Central – kesâvõerÙe
Meyo nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
Concentric – ieeÌ{e
Notorious– kegâKÙeele
Old– hetJe&/peerCe&
Nefarious – kegâefšue
64. Coarse Monotonous – veerjme
(a) refined (b) rough
(c) hard (d) tough 72. A leader who can provoke his followers by
oratory
Ans. (a) : Coarse (ceesše/Kegjogje) keâe Antonym 'Refined' (a) demagogue (b) monopoly
(heefj<ke=âle/Megæ) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– (c) democrat (d) suitor
Rough – ™Kee/keâ"esj Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ group of words kesâ efueÙes efJekeâuhe (a)
Hard – ÂÌ{/keâÌ[e 'demagogue' (ogpe&veeW keâe veslee) GheÙegòeâ Meyo nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW
Tough – keâ"esj/meKle kesâ DeLe& nQ–
65. Opaque Monopoly– SkeâeefOekeâej
(a) reluctant (b) reduce Democrat – Øepeeleb$eerÙe
(c) reticent (d) transparent
Suitor – DeeJesokeâ/Jeeoer
Ans. (d) : Opaque (DeheejoMeea/Demhe°) keâe Antonym
73. A person in charge of museum
'Transparent' (heejoMeea) nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– (a) orator (b) curator
Reluctant – DeefveÛÚgkeâ/Demevleg° (c) magician (d) musician
Reduce – keâce keâjvee Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ Phrase "A person in charge of
Reticent – DeuheYee<eer museum" kesâ efueÙes efJekeâuhe (b) 'curator' (meb«eneOÙe#e) GheÙegòeâ
for from during since Meyo nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
Use , , , in the blank spaces
a b c d Orator – Jeòeâe
below : Magician – peeotiej
66. He was ill ................... a week. Musician – mebieerlekeâej
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'for' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ 'A 74. A person who often changes his opinions
week' Skeâ Deefveef§ele meceÙe nw~ (a) philosopher (b) moderator
Correct sentence– (c) turncoat (d) hypocrite
He was ill for a week. Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ Phrase "A person who often changes
67. ............... that week his wife never left his side. his opinions" kesâ efueÙes efJekeâuhe (c) 'turncoat' (oue-yeouet)
Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'Since' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ GheÙegòeâ Meyo nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
Correct sentence– Philosopher – oeMe&efvekeâ
Since that week his wife never left his side.
Moderator – ceOÙemLe
68. Gomti has lived here ................... 1996.
Hypocrite – {eWieer/heeKeC[er
Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'Since' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ
75. The inside of a nut
‘1996’ Skeâ efveef§ele meceÙe (fixed time) nw~ (a) juice (b) peel
Correct sentence– (c) kennel (d) kernel
Gomti has lived here since 1996.
Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ Phrase keâes hetje keâjves kesâ efueÙes efJekeâuhe (d)
69. These books must be ................... my brother.
'kernel' (ieg"ueer) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'for' (kesâ efueÙes) keâe ØeÙeesie
Juice– jme
nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueÙes GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
Peel – efÚuekeâe
Correct sentence–
These books must be for my brother. Kennel – kegâòeeIej/peueceeie&

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2001 202 YCT

Choose the word nearest in meaning and indicate you Ans. (a) : Apparition (Yetle-Øesle/efheMeeÛe) keâe Synonym
response on the answer sheet 'Ghost' nesiee~
76. Nexus DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
(a) deficit (b) difference
Goal – ue#Ùe
(c) connection (d) distance
Activity – ef›eâÙeekeâueehe
Ans. (c) : Nexus (yebOeve/mebyebOe) keâe Synonym 'Connection'
Laziness – DeeuemÙe
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
82. Conjecture
Deficit – Ieeše (a) definite (b) guess
Difference – Devlej (c) simplicity (d) poverty
Distance – otjmLe/heâemeuee Ans. (b) : Conjecture (Devegceeve/KÙeeue) keâe Synonym
77. Parity 'Guess' nesiee~
(a) equality (b) beauty DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
(c) ugliness (d) poverty Definite – efveef§ele/mhe°
Ans. (a) : Parity (meceevelee) keâe Synonym 'equality' nesiee~ Simplicity – mejuelee/meeoieer
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– Poverty – iejeryeer
Beauty – megvojlee 83. Contour
Ugliness – kegâ™helee (a) straight line (b) outline
Poverty – iejeryeer (c) opposition (d) angular
78. Plagiarism Ans. (a) : Contour (™hejsKee) keâe Synonym 'Outline' nesiee~
(a) writing (b) copying ideas DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
(c) greenery (d) eleveness Straight line – meceesÛÛe jsKee
Ans. (b) : Plagiarism (meeefneflÙekeâ Ûeesjer) keâe Synonym Opposition – efJejesOe
'copying ideas' nesiee~ Angular – keâesCeerÙe
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– 84. Confiscate
Writing – uesKe (a) seize (b) punish
(c) impeach (d) sue
Greenery – nefjÙeeueer
Ans. (a) : Confiscate (peyleer) keâe Synonym 'Seize' nesiee~
79. Kindred
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
(a) kindness (b) pitiful
(c) connected (d) bright Punish – oC[ osvee
Impeach – DeefYeÙeesie ueieevee
Ans. (c) : Kindred (DeelceerÙe/mebyebOeer) keâe Synonym
'connected' nesiee~ Sue – cegkeâocee Ûeueevee
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– 85. Haggard
(a) Wild looking (b) rough
Kindness– oÙeeueglee (c) diseased (d) lean and thin
Pitiful – oÙeeuet Ans. (a) : Haggard (pebieueer) keâe Synonym 'Wild looking'
Bright – GppeJeue nesiee~
80. Sombre DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
(a) sleepy (b) serious Rough – DemeYÙe/DeefMe°
(c) quiet (d) full Diseased –jesieer/DemJemLe
Ans. (b) : Sombre (efvejeMeepevekeâ/Goemeerve) keâe Synonym 86. Imperious
'serious' nesiee~ (a) domineering (b) impatient
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– (c) dangerous (d) important
Sleepy– efveef<›eâÙe/efveõeueg Ans. (d) : Imperious (Meener/ØeYeeJeMeeueer) keâe Synonym
Quiet – Ûeghe/Meevle 'Important' nesiee~
Full – Yeje/hetCe& DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
81. Apparition Domineering – IeceC[er
(a) ghost (b) goal Impatient – DeOeerj
(c) activity (d) laziness Dangerous – Kelejveekeâ
BPSC AE Gen. English, 2001 203 YCT
87. Mammoth 93. (a) marrygible (b) marriageable
(a) wild (b) greedy (c) marriageble (d) marriagable
(c) straight (d) huge Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efJekeâuhe (b) 'marriageable'
Ans. (d) : Mammoth (efJeMeeue) keâe Synonym 'Huge' nesiee~ (efJeJeen ÙeesiÙe) keâer Jele&veer Megæ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâer Jele&veer
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– DeMegæ nw~
Wild – pebieueer 94. (a) spontanity
Greedy – ueeueÛeer (b) sponteneity
Straight – meerOee/mhe° (c) spontaiety
88. Gregarious (d) spontaneity
(a) common (b) social Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efJekeâuhe (d) 'spontaneity'
(c) plain (d) shocking (mJeÛÚbolee) keâer Jele&veer Megæ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâer Jele&veer DeMegæ
Ans. (b) : Gregarious (JÙemle/meeceeefpekeâ) keâe Synonym nw~
'Social' nesiee~ 95. (a) blasphenmous
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– (b) blissphamous
Common – meeceevÙe (c) blessfemous
(d) blasphemous
Plain – cewoeve/meeoe
Shocking – Ûeewkeâe osves Jeeuee/YeÙeevekeâ
Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efJekeâuhe (d) 'blasphemous'
(eflejmkeâejer) keâer Jele&veer Megæ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâer Jele&veer DeMegæ
89. Opulence
(a) poverty (b) health
nw~
(c) wealth (d) misery 96. (a) reluctant (b) relactant
Ans. (c) : Opulence (DeefOekeâlee/mecheVelee) keâe Synonym (c) relactunt (d) reliactant
'wealth' nesiee~ Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efJekeâuhe (a) Reluctant'
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– (DeefveÛÚgkeâ) keâer Jele&veer Megæ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâer Jele&veer DeMegæ
Poverty – iejeryeer nw~
Health – mJeemLÙe 97. (a) carider (b) carrider
(c) coridor (d) corridor
Misery – keâ°/efJeheefòe
Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efJekeâuhe (d) 'Corridor'
90. Analogy
(a) opposite (b) similarity (ieefueÙeeje) keâer Jele&veer Megæ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâer Jele&veer DeMegæ
(c) mixture (d) enmity nw~
Ans. (b) : Analogy (meceevelee) keâe Synonym 'Similarity' 98. (a) denominator
nesiee~ (b) diamaneter
(c) denamater
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
(d) denaminater
Opposite – efJehejerle
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efJekeâuhe (a) Denominator
Mixture – efceßeCe
(Yeepekeâ) keâer Jele&veer Megæ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâer Jele&veer DeMegæ nw~
Enmity – Me$eglee
99. (a) sakumb
Choose the correct spelling in the given words and
(b) succumb
indicate it on the answer sheet :
(c) sacumb
91. (a) traquallity (b) tranquility
(c) tranqulity (d) tranqueilety (d) sucumb
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efJekeâuhe (b) tranquility Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efJekeâuhe (b) Succumb
(Meebefle) keâer Jele&veer Megæ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâer DeMegæ nw~ (efMekeâej) keâer Jele&veer Megæ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâer Jele&veer DeMegæ nw~
92 (a) vilane (b) villane 100. (a) changiable (b) changeable
(c) villain (d) villaiin (c) changable (d) changible
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efJekeâuhe (c) 'Villain' Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efJekeâuhe (b) 'changeable'
(KeueveeÙekeâ) keâer Jele&veer Megæ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâer Jele&veer (DeefmLej/efJekeâeÙe&) keâer Jele&veer Megæ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâer Jele&veer
DeMegæ nw~ DeMegæ nw~

BPSC AE Gen. English, 2001 204 YCT

 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2001
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER-III)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Marks : 100

1. The height of a tower is h metres. Is is found 4. The sides of a triangle are 5 cm and 7 cm. One
that, when walking 100 metres towards it in a more triangle is formed by joining the mid
horizontal line through its base, the elevation of points of the sides. The perimeter of the second
0 0
its top changes from 30 to 60 h is equal to triangle is
(a) 18 cm (b) 12 cm
(a) 100 m (b) 100 3 m (c) 9 cm (d) 6 cm
(c) 50 m (d) 50 3 m Ans. (*)
Ans. (d) 5. How many bricks, each measuring 25 cm ×
a 12.5 cm × 7.5 cm. are required to build a wall 5
h= m long 3 m high and 20 cm thick?
cot θ1 – cot θ2 (a) 1000 (b) 1080
100 100 (c) 1100 (d) 1280
⇒ ⇒
cot 30 – cot 60 1 Ans. (d)
3−
500 × 300 × 20
3 No. of bricks = = 1280
25 ×12.5 × 7.5
100 × 3
⇒ = 50 3 m 6. Find the value of k it the roots of the equation
3 −1 kx2 - 12x + 9 = 0 are equal.
2. The diagonal of a rectangle is three its smaller (a) 4 (b) 6
side. The ratio of the sides is (c) 8 (d) 10
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 3 : 1 Ans. (a)
b2 – 4ac = 0
(c) 2 2 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 kx2–12x + 9 = 0
Ans. (c) (12)2 – 4 × 9k = 0
36k = 144
k=4
7. If f(x) = x + l,g(x) = 2x + 3 and h(x) = g {f(x)},
evaluate h(l):
(a) 10 (b) 7
d=3×b (c) 5 (d) 3
d 2 = b 2 + l2 Ans. (b) h(x) = g {f(x)}
9b2 = b2 + l2 = 2f(x) + 3
2 2 = 2(x+1) + 3
8b = l = 2x + 5
l2 l h(1) = 2×1+5 = 7
= 8 ⇒ = 2 2 :1
b2 b 8. Which of the following sets is finite?
3. The difference between the circumstances and (a) The set of the people living on earth
(b) The set of natural numbers
radius of a circle is 37 cm. Its diameter is
(c) The set of real numbers
(a) 14 cm (b) 28 cm (d) None of these
(c) 42 cm (d) 56 cm
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a) 9. Two candidates, contested an election. One got
D 35% of the votes and lost by 150 votes. Find the
πD – = 37
2 total number of votes
 22 1  (a) 300 (b) 500
D  −  = 37 (c) 700 (d) 900
 7 2
Ans. (b)
37 65% – 35% = 150 votes
D× = 37
14 30% = 150 votes
D = 14 cm 1% = 5 votes
100% = 500 votes

BPSC AE (GS), 2001 205 YCT

10. If x ears 25% more than y find what percent y (c) heavy rain fall on the Western Ghats
earns less than x. (d) winter rain fall in north-west India and Tamil
(a) 10% (b) 18% Nadu
(c) 20% (d) 25% Ans. (b) : The Indian agriculture is considered gamble
Ans. (c) against monsoon because agricultural activities all part
x 5 of India are very much dependent on the monsoon. In
= fact monsoon is the axis around which the Indian
y 4
economy revolves.
1
% y earns less than x = × 100 = 20% Hence monsoon plays very important role in shaping
5 Indian Economy.
11. The Nanga Parbat Peak in situated in the 17. The longest irrigation canal in India is the
(a) Karakoram Range (b) Zaskar Range (a) Yamuna Canal
(c) Ladakh Range (d) Himalayas (b) Sirhind Canal
Ans. (d) : Nanga Parbat, is locally known as 'Diamir' (c) Rajasthan Canal
It is the 9th highest mountains of the world (8126m) (d) Upper Bari Doab Canal
which is situated in the western Himalayas in Pakistan Ans. (c) : The Indira Gandhi Canal (Rajasthan Canal)
occupied Kashmir region. is the longest canal (649 km) of India. It starts from the
12. Which of the following in not a union Harike Barrage at Harike a few kilometer away from
Territory? the confluence of the Satluj and Byas rivers in the
(a) Diu and Daman (b) Pondicherry Indian State of Punjab and terminates in irrigation
(c) Goa (d) Chandigarh facilities in the Northwestern of Rajasthan. Previously,
Ans. (c) : Goa is a state, even after the India's known as the Rajasthan Canal it was renamed as the
independence Goa continued to be in the hand of Indira Gandhi Canal on 02 Nov., 1984 following the
Portuguese on 19 December 1961, Goa was liberated assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
and made a composite union territory with Daman & 18. The world's longest dam has been built across
Diu on 30 May 1987. Goa was conferred state hood the river
and Daman & Diu was made a seperate union territory. (a) Kosi (b) Damodar
13. Lac is a product of (c) Mahanadi (d) Cauvery
(a) tropical evergreen forests Ans. (c) : The Hirakund Dam is the longest dam in the
(b) tropical deciduous forests world. It is situated on the river Mahanadi in the State
(c) tropical thorn forests of Orissa. Total length of Hirakund Dam is 25.79 km.
(d) tropical mountain vegetation 19. The first oil refinery in India was built by
Ans. (b) : Lac is a natural resin secreted by Indian Lac (a) ESSO
insect Kerria Lacca (Kerr) which thrives on the tender (b) Caltax
twigs of specific host trees. Lac is a biodegradable non (c) Burma Oil Company
toxic and highly safe resin that is extensively used in (d) Assam Oil Company
the Pharmaceutical and cosmetic industry. Ans. (d) : The first oil refinery in India was built by
Lac is product of tropical deciduous forests. Assam Oil Company Ltd. at Digboi in 1901.
14. Melons grow best in 20. The oldest integrated steel plant in India is
(a) Sandy soils (b) Alluvial soils (a) BSL (b) HSL
(c) Black soils (d) Laterite soils (c) IISCO (d) TISCO
Ans. (a) Ans. (c) : IISCO– Established as an industrial
⇒ Melons grow best on Sandy loam soils, with a pH enterprise in 1918, the steel plant called Indian Iron
between 6.0 and 6.5 and Steel Company (IISCO). Production Iron from an
⇒ Rice, Wheat, Sugarcane grow in alluvial soils. open top blast furnace at Hirapur (later to be called
⇒ Cotton, Sugarcane, Tobacco, millets grown in Burnpur) in West Bengal for the first time in 1922.
Black soil. This is the oldest integrated Steel Plant in India.
⇒ Tea, Coffee, Rubber, Cinchona grown in laterite 21. When under ground water rises naturally out
soils. of the ground it is called
15. The National bird of India is (a) a well
(a) Pheasant (b) Peacock (b) a tubewell
(c) Patakect (d) Pigeon (c) a spring
Ans. (b) : The Peacock (Pavo cristatus) is the National (d) a well as well as tubewell
Bird of India. Ans. (c) : Spring occur when water pressure causes a
⇒ The Tiger (Panthera Tigris) is a National Animal of natural flow of ground water on to the earth's surface.
India As rain water enters or 'recharge' the aquifer, pressure
⇒ Lotus (Nelumbo Nucifera) is the National Flower is placed on the water already present. This pressure
of India. moves water through the crack and tunnels within the
16. Indian agriculture is a gamble in the monsoons, aquifer and this water flows out naturally to the surface
due to at places called springs.
(a) heavy rainfall during the monsoons 22. The ratio of saline water and fresh water
(b) uncertain and unreliable monsoons respectively on the globe is
BPSC AE (GS), 2001 206 YCT
 (a) 90% amd 10% (b) 95% amd 5% around 1.34 billion people or 17% of the world
(c) 98% amd 2% (d) 97% amd 3% population.
Ans. (d) : Distribution of saline and fresh water of the Asia is the largest continent on earth by size. More
total volume of water on earth is estimated at 1.386 than a third of the world's people live in China and
billion km3 (333 million cubic miles) with 97.5% India alone.
being salt water and 2.5% being fresh water of the The Yangtze is the longest river in Asia the third
fresh water only 0.3% in liquid form on the surface. longest in the world.
Most water in earth's atmosphere and crust comes from 27. Small scale industries
the world ocean's saline sea water while fresh water (a) produce small items
accounts for nearly 1% of the total because the oceans (b) have small machines
that cover roughly 71% of the area of earth reflect blue (c) use small machines
light earth appears blue from space and is often (d) deal with small capital, few workers and
referred to as the Blue Planet. small bulk or raw materials
23. What would be the duration of daylight at the Ans. (d) : Small Scale Industries (SSI) are those
equation on December 21st? industries in which manufacturing provides services,
(a) 13 hours 27 minutes (b) 10 hours 33 minutes productions are done on a small scale or micro scale
(c) 12 hours (d) 24 hours for example, these are the ideas of small scale
Ans. (b) : On December 21, the shortest day of the industries–
year the day length ranges would be almost 11 hours Napkins, tissues, small toys, water bottles.
(10h33m). ⇒ These industries make a one-time investment in
24. Which of the following conventional colours machinery, plants and industries, but it does not
would you select to represent forested region exceed Rs. 1 crore.
on a topographic map? Small Scale Industries (S.S.I.) are those industries in
(a) Light green (b) Dark green which manufacturing providing services productions
(c) Yellowish green (d) Brown are done on a small scale or micro scale for example
Ans. (b) : Dark Green colour is used in the these are the ideas of small scale industries Napkins,
topographical map to show forest region. Topographic Tissues, Chocolates, toothpick, water bottles, small
maps may use different colours to represent area toys, papers, pens.
features. Most topographic maps will use Green for Small Scale Industries are categorized into three parts
vegetation or national parks and wildlife management manufacturing/production ancillary and service
area. They also use Blue for rivers, lakes or other industries. Other than these type of industries there are
bodies of water. feeder industries and mining or quarries.
White colour is used in the topographical map to
show rocky or bad lands and uncultivated lands. 28. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?
25. The primary source of energy in the world is (a) Petroleum (b) Uranium
(a) volcanic activity (b) tidal energy (c) Natural gas (d) Coal
(c) wind energy (d) solar energy Ans. (b) : Fossil fuels are made of buried organic
Ans. (d) material. Examples of fossil fuels are Coal, Natural
⇒ The solar energy is the primary source of energy in gas, Oil etc.
the world. ⇒ Uranium is classified as a nuclear fuel not a fossil
⇒ Solar energy is the renewable source of energy fuel.
which is essential for all living beings. All plant life 29. The increased content of carbon dioxide in the
needs solar energy to prepare their food by atmosphere causes
photosynthesis and the animal life is dependent on (a) skin cancer (b) respiratory diseases
plants directly or indirectly. So it is the primary
(c) global warming (d) smog
source of energy.
Primary energy can be non renewable or renewable Ans. (c) : Carbon dioxide is one of the most harmful
where primary energy is used to describe fossil fuel the greenhouse gases, which is constantly increasing the
embodied energy of the fuel is available as thermal earth's temperature and causing global warming.
energy 70% is typically lost in conversion to electrical On earth human activities are changing the natural
or mechanical energy. There is a similar 60–80% green house. Over the last century the burning of fossil
conversion loss when solar and wind energy is fuels like coal and oil has increased the concentration
converted to electricity but today UN conventions on of atmospheric Carbon Dioxide (CO2). This happens
energy statistic counts the electricity made from wind because the coal or oil burning process combines
and solar as the primary energy itself for these sources. carbon with oxygen in the air to make CO2.
26. Which of the following continents supports the 30. The most polluted river of India is
largest number of people in the world? (a) Ganga (b) Sutlej
(a) Europe (b) Asia (c) Tapti (d) Mahanadi
(c) North America (d) South America
Ans. (b) : Asia is the most populous continent in the Ans. (a) : The Ganga river is a 2525 km long river
world with 4.64 billion people accounting for nearly flowing across India and Bangladesh into the Bay of
60% of the world population as of 2020. Africa is the Bengal. The Ganga river begins from the Himalaya's
second most largest continent by population with 'Gangotri Glacier'.

BPSC AE (GS), 2001 207 YCT

 ⇒ The top most polluted rivers in India are Yamuna, 34. The ceremonial head of the Municipal
Ganga and Sabarmati. Corporation is
The Ganga river holds deep religious significance in (a) the nominated Chairman
India with thousands thronging the Ganga's ghats (b) the elected mayor
(banks) every year to bathe and offer prayers but the (c) the nominated Commissioner
alarming levels of pollutants and sewage waste that are (d) the elected Commissioner
discharged into it every day by over 1100 industrial Ans. (b) : The mayor is the head of the Municipal
unit and several towns situated on its banks have made Corporation, but the role is largely ceremonial as
it one of the most polluted rivers in the world. A recent executive powers are vested in the Municipal
report by the Central pollution control board (CPCB) Commissioner.
declared that the Ganga water is unfit for bathing let The office of the mayor combines a functional role of
alone drinking. chairing the corporation meeting as well as ceremonial
31. The President of India can be removed from role associated with being the first citizen of the city.
office by Mayor is the head of a municipal government. As such
(a) the Prime Minister of India the mayor is almost invariably the Chairman of the
(b) the Chief Justice of India Municipal Council and of the Council Executive
(c) the Parliament Committee. In addition the mayor may fulfill the roles
(d) the Lok Sabha of Chief Executive Officer ceremonial figurehead and
Ans. (c) : The President of India be removed from local agent of the Central Government. In another
office on the ground of violation of the Constitution. more recent system of municipal management the
He can be removed by the parliament by the process counsel manager system the mayor has a much
of Impeachment which is mentioned in the Article 61 reduced role serving essentially only as head of the
of the Constitution of India. council. Whatever the form of local government the
The president may also be removed before the expiry Mayor's role may be said to rest largely on the
of the term through impeachment for violating the relationship of the Mayor to the Council and to the
constitution of India by the Parliament of India. The Central Government.
process may start in either of the two houses of the 35. "All human beings are born free and all are
parliament. The house initiates the process by levelling equal in dignity and rights" has been outlined
the charges against the president. in the
The process is started by a two third majority vote of (a) U.N. Charter
the parliament to impeach the president where upon (b) French Revolution
the constitutional court decides whether the president (c) Declaration of Human Rights
is guilty of the crime of which he is charged. If he is (d) Magna Carta
found guilty he is removed from power. Ans. (c) : Article one of the universal declaration of
32. Who is the chairman of the planning Human Rights States, "All human" beings are born
Commission? free and equal in dignity and rights. Remember that a
(a) The President right is a freedom of some kind something to which
(b) The Vice-President you are entitled by virtue of being human. It does not
(c) The Planning Minister matter where we are born or what kind of a family we
(d) The Prime Minister are born into. We are all born into this world and
should be given the same opportunities.
Ans. (d) : The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the
planning commission. Which worked under the over The universal declaration was adopted by the general
all guidance of the national development council. assembly of the United Nations on 10 December 1948.
During Modi government in 2014, this commission has 36. The most important countries the biparty
been dissolved and replaced by new body (NITI system are
Aayog) National Institutions for Transforming India. (a) France and Britain (b) France and USA
33. The number of members of State Legislative (c) Britain and USA (d) France and Italy
Assembly cannot be more than Ans. (c) : Britain and USA has biparty (two party)
(a) 500 (b) 250 system.
(c) 425 (d) 540 Type of party system–
Ans. (a) : State Legislative Assembly must have not One party system– In this only one party has right to
less than 60 and not more than 500 members however form government and exclusive control over political
an exception may be granted via an Act of Parliament power.
as is the case in the states of Goa, Sikkim, Mizoram Two party (Biparty) system– In this type of party
and the Union Territory of Puducherry which have system two major political parties can form the
fewer than 60 members. A State Legislative Assembly government. Example– USA and England.
may be dissolved in the state of emergency by the Multi party system– In this system three or more
governor on request of the Chief Minister or if a parties has power to form government. The formation of
motion of no confidence is passed against the ruling government can be done by single party or in coalition.
majority party or coalition. Example–France, Russia, Israel, India, Canada.
BPSC AE (GS), 2001 208 YCT
37. The Mc Mohan Line is the line that demarcates ⇒ The middle course is marked by gently sloping
the boundary between valley sides and a wider and deeper channel.
(a) Indian and Bangladesh ⇒ The lower course is a very wide, nearly flat valley
(b) Indian and Bhutan and usually has a wide deep channel.
(c) India and Pakistan A river can be divided into the upper middle and lower
(d) India, China and Burma course.
Ans. (d) The upper course is marked by a V. Shaped valley
⇒ The Mc Mohan line is a demarcation line drawn on with steep sides and a shallow channel.
map referred to in the Simla Convention, a treaty The middle course is marked by gently sloping valley
between Britain and Tibet signed in 1914. sides and a wider and deeper channel. The lower
Although it is legal but status is disputed, it is course is a very wide nearly flat valley and usually has
currently the effective boundary between China and a wide deep channel.
India. 41. After the Second World war, one of the first
This dispute is used a pretext in a war between China countries in Asia to proclaim her Independence
and India in 1962. The line proposed by British was
Colonial Administrator Sir Henry McMohan at the (a) India (b) Burma
1914. Simla convention signed between British and (c) Indonesia (d) Sri Lanka
Tibetan representatives. Ans. (c) : In August 1945 two days after the Japanese
38. Sanctuaries are set up to surrendered Sukarno (leader the independence
(a) rear animals for meat movement) proclaimed Indonesia's independence and
(b) rear animals for milk named himself president.
(c) protect animals 42. Who was the first Indian to be elected to the
(d) entrap animals British Parliament?
Ans. (c) : A sanctuary is an area where animal habitats (a) Keshab Chandra Sen (b) Dadabhai Naorji
and their surroundings are protected from any sort of (c) Justice Ranade (d) Behramji Malbari
disturbance. The capturing, killing and poaching of Ans. (b) : Dadabhai Naorji elected for the Liberal
animal is strictly prohibited in these regions. Party in Finsbury central at the 1892 general election
The wildlife sanctuaries are established to protect the he was the first British Indian M.P.
endangered species. It is quite difficult to always Dadabhai Naorji was known as the `Grand old man
relocate the animals from their natural habitat therefore of India'. He was an Indian Nationalist and critic of
protecting them in their natural environment is British Economic Policy in India. He put forward the
advantageous. A sanctuary is an area where animal drain theory in his book "Poverty and unbritish rule
habitats and their surroundings are protected from any in India" published in 1901.
sort of disturbance. The capturing, killing and
43. The greatest achievement of the Arya Samaj
poaching of animal is strictly prohibited in these
was in the field of
regions.
(a) Industrial development
39. Meteors in the atmosphere are (b) Educational reform
(a) pieces of stony or metallic rocks (c) Rural development
(b) shining droplets of water (d) Political reform
(c) shining balls of ice
Ans. (b) : Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the
(d) pieces of glasses
Arya Samaj in 1875. An organization that attempted to
Ans. (a) : Meteors, also known as shooting stars are reform hinduism. The members of Arya Samaj
pieces of stony or metallic rocks. constructed the schools called as the Gurukuls. This
They are simply little bits of matter plunging into the school is the greatest achievement of the Arya Samaj.
earth's atmosphere and burning up in a fiery display. 44. Who said that neglect of the masses is sin?
There are a lot of small chunks of rock floating
through space. These are called meteoroids this creates (a) Ramakrishna
the bright streak of light in the sky that we call a (b) Swami Vivekanand
meteor. (c) Maulana Mehmed-ul-Hassan
40. A river makes a very gentle sloping smooth (d) Badruddin Tyabji
wide valley Ans. (b)
(a) during its upper course ⇒ Swami Vivekanand was born in 12 January 1863 in
(b) during the middle course Kolkata
(c) during its lower course ⇒ He was a disciple of Ramakrishna Paramhans.
(d) at its month ⇒ Vedanta movement led by Swami Vivekanand.
Ans. (b) : A river can be divided into the upper, ⇒ Swami Vivekanand clearly identified the causes for
middle and lower course. our downfall, one of the which was the neglect of
⇒ The upper course is marked by a V-shaped valley, the masses which he labeled as the great national
with steep sides and a shallow channel. sin.

BPSC AE (GS), 2001 209 YCT

45. The first newspaper in India was (3) Right against exploitation (Article 23-24)
(a) Sambad Kaumudi (b) The Bengal Gazette (4) Right to freedom of religion (Article 25-28)
(c) Meratul Akbar (d) The Pioneer (5) Cultural and educational rights (Article 29-30)
Ans. (b) : The first newspaper in India was published (6) Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
on 29 January 1780 by James Augustus Hicky its ⇒ Right to property is not a fundamental right. This
name was 'The Bengal Gazette". It was also called as right was removed from the list of fundamental
"Calcutta General Advertiser". It was a four days right by 44th constitutional amendment.
weekly newspaper. ⇒ The right to property is now a legal right. Under
46. The revolt of 1857 began in Meerut on Article 300-A
(a) 24th April (b) 9th May 51. The origin of life on this earth was written by
(c) 10 May (d) 29th March (a) Charles Darwin (b) Wallace
Ans. (c) : The revolt began on 10th May 1857 in (c) Darwin and wallace (d) Gregor Mendal
Meerut afterwards it spread intensely throughout the Ans. (a) : The origin of life on this earth was written
provinces of North India. by Charles Darwin.
The rebellion began on 10th May 1857 in the form of a 11 Feb. 1871 Charles Darwin proposed a natural
mutiny of sepoys of the company's army in the process for the origin of life. He suggested that the
garrison town of Meerut 64km north east of Delhi original spark of life may have begun in a "warm little
(now old Delhi). pond" with all sorts of ammonia and phosphoric salts
47. Who declared 'The only hope for India is from lights heat electricity etc.
the masses. The upper classes are physically 52. The first use of wheel was made in
and normally dead? (a) drawing a cart (b) Pottery
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (c) spinning (d) metallurgy
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans. (b) : The first wheels were not used for
(c) Mahatma Gandhi transportation. Evidence indicate they were created to
(d) Swami Vivekanand serve as a potters wheels around 3500 B.C. in
Ans. (d) : "The only hope of India is from the masses. Mesopotamia. 300 years before someone figured out to
The upper classes are physically and morally dead" use them for chariots.
was made by Swami Vivekananda in the context of the 53. Chandragupta Maurya built the first empire in
need for mass action by the Indian people. with the help of
48. A public meeting was held on 13th April, 1919 (a) Mahapaddmananda (b) Bindusara
in Jallianwala Bagh to (c) Seleuces (d) Kautilya
(a) protest against the arrest of popular leaders Ans. (d) : Chandragupta Maurya was the first emperor
(b) organize a hartal of the Maurya empire. He defeated the Nandas (Dhan
(c) protest against the Rowlatt Act Nanda) and founded this empire in 321 BC (in some
(d) demand Swaraj books may be 320 BC) with the help of Kautilya.
Ans. (a) : On 13 April 1919 People gathered at Who had overthrown Nanda dynasty and rapidly
Jallianwala Bagh (Amritsar) to protest against the expanded his power westward across central and
arrest of the two nationalist leaders Satyapal and Dr. western India in order to take advantage of the
Saifuddin Kitchlew. Suddenly a British Military descriptions of local powers in the wake of the
Officer General Dyer entered the park with his troops withdrawal by Alexander the great's armies.
& ordered for opening fire on innocent crowd. 54. The jains believe that Mahavira was the last of
49. Subhash Chandra Bose escaped from India in the
March 1941 and went to (a) teachers (b) prophets
(a) USSR (b) Germany (c) monks (d) tirthankaras
(c) Japan (d) Italy Ans. (d) : Jainism came into prominence in 6th
Ans. (b) : On 26 January 1941 though closely watched century BC. When Lord Mahavira propagated the
but he escaped from his Calcutta residence in disguise Religion.
and travelling via Kabul and Moscow eventually ⇒ There were 24 great teachers, the last of whom was
reached Germany in 1941. Lord Mahavira.
Bose Authored the book 'The Indian Struggle' which ⇒ The 24 teachers were called "Tirthankars".
covers the Indian Independence movement from 1920
⇒ The first Tirthankara was Rishabnatha.
to 1942.
The last and 24th Tirthankara of the jainas was
50. The right to property is Vardhamana Mahavira. He was a Kshtriya prince of
(a) a legal right (b) a fundamental right the Licchavi's a group that was part of the Vajji
(c) an ordinary right (d) a statutory right Sangha. At the age of 30, he left home and went to live
Ans. (a) : Article 12-35 of Indian Constitution with in a forest for 12 years. He led a hard and lonely life at
Fundamental Rights. the end of which he attained enlightenment and called
⇒ 6 Fundamental Rights of India is– `Jitendriya'.
(1) Right to equality (Article 14-18) 55. One of the most outstanding ancient Indian
(2) Right to freedom (Article 19-22) astronomer was
BPSC AE (GS), 2001 210 YCT
 (a) Panini (b) Asvaghosha Ans. (c) Karl Marx was a German Philosopher during
(c) Aryabhatta (d) Susruta the 19th century. He worked primarily in the realm of
Ans. (c) : Aryabhatta was an extraordinary political philosophy and was a famous advocate for
mathematician and astronomer. He suggested the communism.
heliocentric theory which proved that the sun is located Karl Marx advocated the establishment of a classless
in the centre of the solar system and all the planets society.
revolve around it. Das capital and the Poverty of Philosophy are his
56. Who got the Ten Commandments? famous book.
(a) Moses (b) Abraham 61. The largest Serpentarium in India is situated in
(a) Kolkata (b) Mumbai
(c) David (d) Solomon
(c) Delhi (d) Chennai
Ans. (a) : Moses receiving the Ten commandments Ans. (d) : The largest serpentarium in India is situated
Moses. in Chennai.
Ten Commandments– ⇒ Chennai Snake Park is the first Snake Park in India
1. Don't worship any other God- just me . established in 1972.
2. Dont make anything or anyone into an idol and The park formerly known as the Madras Snake Park
don't worship them. Trust (MSPT) was established by the American-born
3. Don't use Gods name or do evil in God's name . naturalised Indian herpetologist Romulus Whitaker
4. Don't do your usual work on the seventh day of who before coming to India in 1967 had worked with
each week -treat it as a special holyday. the Miami Serpentarium at Florida United States.
5. Always show respect to your parents. 62. Which one of the following is the National
6. Don't commit adultery by having sex with Animal India?
anyone other than the person you are married to . (a) Lion (b) Tiger
7. Don't steal from anyone . (c) Langur (d) Elephan
8. Don't murder anyone. Ans. (b) : Tiger or Panthera Tigris is the national
9. Don't tell lies about someone . animal of India. It has earned this pride due to its
10. Don't be envious of anyones house ; their partner agility, strength, power and grace.
or anything they own. 63. Ascorbic acid is
(a) Vitamin B (b) Vitamin C
57. The invention of gunpowder took place in the
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin E
century in
(a) India (b) Arabia Ans. (b)
(c) China (d) Europe Vitamin-C → Ascorbic Acid is natural water soluble
vitamin that helps keep our skin, hair
Ans. (c) : Gun powder was invented in 9th century and bones healthy.
China as one of the four great inventions and spread Vitamin-A → (Scientific Name) ⇒ Retinol
throughout most parts of Eurasia by the end of the 13th is fast soluble vitamin that is naturally
century. Gun powder was first used for warfare around present in many foods vitamin-A is
904 AD. important for normal vision the
58. The religion which arose in medieval India as a immune system and reproduction.
result the fusion of the many ideas of Islam and Vitamin A is also helps the heart,
Hinduism was lungs, kidneys and other organs work
(a) Vaishnavism (b) The Bhakti Movement properly.
(c) Sikhism (d) Sufism Vitamin-D → Calciferol
Ans. (c) : The Sikh faith began around 1500 CE, when Vitamin-E → Tocopherol
Guru Nanak began teaching a faith that was quite 64. The liver stores food in the form of
distinct from Hinduism and Islam. (a) albumen (b) glycogen
⇒ The Adi Granth is belived by Sikhs to be the abode (c) glucose (d) proteins
of the eternal Guru and for that reason it is known
Ans. (b) : Once glucose is inside the liver, glucose is
to all Sikhs as the "Guru Granth Sahib".
phosphorylated into glucose-6 phosphate ORG6P. G6P
59. The first scientist who saw the Sun, stars and is further metabolized into triglyceridos, fatty acids,
planet through a telescope made by him was glycogen or energy. Glycogen is the form in which the
(a) Copernious (b) Gallileo body stores glucose. The liver can only store about
(c) Kepler (d) Isaac Newton 100g of glucose in the form of glycogen.
Ans. (b) : Gallileo did not invent the telescope but was
65. With increasing temperature, the respiratory
the first to use it systematically to observe celestial
objects and record his discoveries. His book 'Sidoreus rate will
nuncios " or 'The starry messenger' was first published (a) increase (b) decrease slowly
in 1610 and made him famous. In it he reported on his (c) decrease rapidly (d) remain unaffected
observations of the moon, Jupiter and the milky way. Ans. (a) : As the temperature increases, the kinetic
60. Karl Marx advocated the establishment of a energy also increases and hence increases the rate of
(a) Democratic Society (b) Feudal Society reactions. Due to this the rate of cellular respiration
(c) Classless Society (d) Capitalist Society also increases.

BPSC AE (GS), 2001 211 YCT

66. An artery differs from a vein in having 73. Bacteria do not need sunlight to grow because
(a) narrow lumen (a) they do not like sunlight
(b) thicker walls (b) they prepare their food without the help of
(c) valves to control direction of flow of blood light
towards the heart (c) they get killed
(d) None of these (d) they have no chlorophyll
Ans. (b) : Arteries have a much thicker wall to Ans. (b) : Chemosynthetic Bacteria do not need
withstand the high pressure of blood flowing in them, sunlight to grow because they prepare their food
whereas veins have a thinner wall so that they can be without the help of light. They use inorganic molecules
pressed flat against adjacent muscles, helping to move as a source of energy and convert into organic
the blood. substance.
67. In the human body, the number of bones is 74. Penicillin was discovered by
(a) 205 (b) 306 (a) Felix Dujardin (b) E. Strasburger
(c) 206 (d) 305 (c) Charles Darwin (d) Alexander Fleming
Ans. (c) : The human skeleton is the internal Ans. (d) : Sir Alexander fleming was biologist and
framework of the body. It is composed of 270 to 300 Pharmacologist most famous for his discovery of the
bones at birth but this total decrease to 206 bones by antibiotic substance penicillin in 1928.
adulthood after some bones have flushed together.
75. Mushroom is a/an
68. The hormone, insulin is produced in (a) flowering plant (b) Fungus
(a) spleen (b) kidney (c) Alga (d) Lichen
(c) liver (d) pancreas
Ans. (b) : Mushroom is a fungus.
Ans. (d) : Insulin is a hormone made by an organ
located behind the stomach called the pancreas. Its Fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include micro
function is to regulate the blood glucose level by organism such as yeasts, moulds and mushroom. These
allowing our body's cells to absorb the glucose. organism are classified under kingdom fungi.
69. Selective accumulation of iodine occurs in the 76. Turpentine oil is obtained from
(a) Thyroid (b) Thymus (a) Pinus (b) Cycas
(c) Liver (d) Pituitary (c) Gnetum (d) Dryopteris
Ans. (a) : Iodine is a micronutrient of crucial Ans. (a) : Turpentine oil is the fluid formed by the
importance for the health and well being of all distillation or resins that obtained from the Pine tree or
individuals. Iodine is mostly concentrated in thyroid Pinus. It is used as a solvent and oil based paints.
gland.Deficiency of iodine led to Goitre disease . 77. A clove is a
70. If all the plants of the world die, all the animals (a) fruit (b) seed
will also die due to the shortage of (c) vegetative bud (d) flowering bud
(a) nitrogen (b) oxygen Ans. (d) : The highly priced, medicinally valued clove
(c) carbon monoxide (d) carbon dioxide is an aromatic flower bud.
Ans. (b) : Human being and other animal need plants Clove (Syzygum aromaticum) tropical evergreen tree
to live. When green plants make food they give off of the family myrtacea and its small reddish brown
oxygen. This is a gas that all animals need to breathe in flower buds used as a spice. Cloves were important in
order to stay alive. the earliest spice trade and are believed to be
71. Which of the following is known as marsh gas? indigenous to the Moluccas or spice Islands of
(a) Methane (b) Ethane Indonesia.
(c) Butane (d) Acetylene 78. Which of the following is least effective in
Ans. (a) : Methane (CH4) gas is called as marsh gas. photosynthesis?
Marsh gas is produced by the anaerobic bacterial (a) Blue light (b) Red light
decomposition of vegetable matter and the rumen of (c) Green light (d) Yellow light
herbivorous animals under water. Ans. (c) : Green is the least effective colour of light in
Methane is colourless and odourless gas. It is also driving photosynthesis. Photosynthesis occur in plants
known as Methyl hydride. and algae using chlorophyll, because chlorophyll
72. Pasteurization means reflects rather than absorb green light, green light can't
(a) sterilization by pressure cooker at 1200C for be used in the photosynthetic process.
15 minutes 79. The ripening of fruits can be accelerated by
(b) heating liquids or milk to 620C for 30 minutes (a) keeping the fruits in a refrigerator
(c) vaccination of a body against smallpox (b) reducing the supply of water to the plant
(d) cooling the liquids to zero degree when the fruits are maturing
Ans. (b) : Pasteurization is a process of sterilization. (c) exposing the fruits to light
In this process milk and other liquids are heated with (d) artificially adding calcium carbide or ethylene
mild heat, that is 600C to 700C for short duration in gas to the atmosphere surrounding them
order to eliminate pathogens and extend shelf life. The Ans. (d) : Artificial adding calcium carbide or
process was developed by Louis's Pasteur in 1864. Ethylene gas to the atmosphere surrounding term.

BPSC AE (GS), 2001 212 YCT

 Ethylene is unique in that it found only in gaseous 85. One mole of a gas occupies a volume of 22.4L.
form, and accelerates ripening of fruits, leaves This is derived from
abscission and promotes senescence. Ripening of (a) Berzelius hypothesis (b) Dalton's law
many fruits can be stimulated by exposure to ethylene (c) Gay-Lussac's law (d) Avogadro's law
for example exposure of bananas to ethephon Ans. (d) : One gram mole of gas at NTP requires 22.4
increased ripening without a decrease in quality as volume. This fact was derived from Avogadro
(Bonded 1976) applying ethephon to mango fruits hypothesis.
when they are small may advance ripening by as much Avogadro's hypothesis states that equal volumes of any
as 10 days. gas at the same temperature and pressure contain the
80. Spraying of oil on stagnant water controls same number of particles at standard temperature and
malaria because the pressure 1 mole of any gas occupies 22.4 L.
(a) Oil kills malarial parasites in mosquitoes 86. By increasing the temperature of a sugar
(b) water becomes dirty fro mosquitoes solution, the solubility of sugar
(c) mosquitoes larvae cannot breathe (a) increases
(d) man's blood is not available
(b) decreases
Ans. (c) : When oil is sprayed on top of the stagnant (c) remains the same
water which breeds mosquitoes, it make a filmy layer
on top it. This film layer prevents the interaction or (d) first increases and then decreases
dissolution of air in water and ultimately results in a Ans. (a) : When the temperature of sugar solution is
lack of respiratory gases in water. This indirectly increased, it would become unsaturated due to increase
results in the death of mosquito larvae. in solubility of the solute.
81. Which of the following scientists gave the idea If a solute is a solid or liquid increasing the
that units of charge are associated with matter? temperature increases its solubility for example more
(a) Dalton (b) Faraday sugarcane dissolve in hot water than in cold water. If a
solute is a gas increasing the temperature decreases its
(c) Avogadro (d) Stony solubility for example less carbon dioxide can dissolve
Ans. (*) : A British Physicist named J.J. Thompson in in warm water than in cold water.
the year 1897 proposed that an atom constitutes of at 87. The purest form of carbon is
least one negatively charged particle. He discovered
electrons while on a experiment. (a) wood charcoal (b) diamond
(c) coal (d) coke
82. An element has atomic number 13. Which of
the following statements concerning this Ans. (b) : Diamond is the purest from the carbon.
element is right? Different forms of the same chemical substance are
(a) The element has 13 protons called allotrope. Graphite and diamond are two major
allotropes of carbon. Diamond is a form of carbon in
(b) The element is placed in the period of the which each carbon atom is covalently bonded to four
periodic table other carbon atoms.
(c) The element is placed in the fourth period of
the periodic table 88. In which of the following processes in CO not
emitted?
(d) The element is transition metal
(a) Respiration (b) Combustion
Ans. (a) : Elements with atomic number = 13 has 13 (c) Burning coke in air (d) Photosynthesis
protons and 13 electrons.
After atomic number 10, 3rd periods starts. The Ans. (d) : Photosynthesis– The process by which
configuration of elements is (2,8,3) so it belong to green plants synthesize food (glucose) from carbon
group III. dioxide and water in presence of chlorophyll and light
83. Which of the following substances can conduct carbon dioxide water 6CO2 + 6H20+Sunlight →
electricity in the solid state? C6H12O6 + oxygen in photosynthesis process
(a) Iodine (b) Ice realsing oxygen .
(c) Graphite (d) Soli sodium chloride 89. Which of the following forms of carbon is used
Ans. (c) : In graphite, each Carbon is bonded with in atomic piles?
other 3 other Carbon's and one valiancy is free. One (a) Diamond (b) Coal
free electron is there due to which graphite conducts
(c) Graphite (d) Coke
electricity in the solid state.
Iodine is a molecular solids which do not conduct Ans. (c) : An atomic pile is a nuclear reactor that uses
electricity. controlled nuclear fission to generate energy. The most
common reactor consists of a large assembly of
84. The correct classification of elements was given by graphite (an allotropic form of carbon) blocks having
(a) Dobereiner (b) Odiling rods of uranium metal fuel.
(c) Mendeleev (d) Robert Boyle
90. Baking soda is
Ans. (c) : The correct classification of elements was (a) ammonium carbonate
given by Dmitri Mendeleev. Mendeleev is known as (b) sodium bicarbonate
the "father of the periodic table". (c) sodium carbonate
Mendeleev's table was based on mass number. (d) citric acid
BPSC AE (GS), 2001 213 YCT
 Ans. (b) : Baking Soda is also known as sodium 95. How many electrons are present in sodium
bicarbonate. It is a chemical leaving agent used in atom?
baked food. (a) 10 (b) 12
Sodium bicarbonate commonly known as baking soda. (c) 9 (d) 11
It is a chemical compound with the formula NaHCO3. Ans. (d) : Sodium is an atom in the periodic table with
It is a salt composed of a sodium cation and a atomic number 11 and mass number 23. The electronic
bicarbonate anion. Sodium bicarbonate is a white solid configuration of sodium is
that is crystalline but often appears as a fine powder. Na : 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s1
91. The number of teeth in two gear wheel A and The valence shell of the sodium atom is 1 it has a total
B, which are engages with a common third gear of 11 protons and 11 electrons.
wheel C. are 100 and 8 respectively. The 96. Which of the following sources of energy is
velocity ratio between A and B will be different from others?
(a) 1:1.25 (b) 1:8 (a) Gobar gas (b) Bitumen
(c) 1:12.5 (d) 1:800 (c) Anthracite (d) Coke
Ans. (c) : Given, Ans. (a) : Gobar gas is a non conventional source of
TA = 100, TB = 8 energy while all other are conventional sources. Coke,
ω T T bitumen & anthracite have carbon content in them
Velocity ratio = Driver = Driven = B while Gobar gas majorly contains methane. Moreover
ωDriven TDriver TA Gobar gas is a clearer fuel than rest of the given
8 1 option.
= = ⇒ 1:12.5
100 12.5 97. Most of the propellants used in rockets are
92. A wooden block of density 780 kg-m and (a) solids (b) liquids
volume 0.30 m3 is floating in oil of density 900 (c) gases (d) light
kg-m. What volume of wood is below the oil? Ans. (b) : Most of the propellants used in rocket are
(a) 0.14 m3 (b) 0.22 m3 liquids.
(c) 0.26 m3 (d) 0.32 m3 The main type of liquid propellants are storable
Ans. (c) : Given, propellants, which tend to be hypergolic and cryogenic
propellants.
ρBlock = 780 kg / m3
Most current rockets are chemically powered rockets
Vol. = 0.30 m3 that emit a hot exhaust gas. A rocket engine can use
ρoil = 900 kg/m3 gas propellants, solid propellants, liquid propellants or
Vol. (Voil) = ? a hybrid mixture of both solid and liquid.
According to floatation 98. A satellite is a body which is continuously
ρblock × g × Vblock = ρoil × g × Voil revolving around a
(a) bigger body
780 × 0.30 = 900 × Voil
(b) lighter body
234
Voil = = 0.26m3 (c) body of the same mass
900 (d) body of the same density
93. One gram of water at 1000C is to be converted Ans. (a) : A satellite is an objects that moves around a
into steam at the same temperature. The bigger (larger) body. Earth is a satellite because it
amount of heat required would be: moves around the sun. The moon is a satellite because
(a) 540J (b) 540×4.2J it moves around earth in earth-sun system gravitational
(c) 270J (d) 13.5J force acts the vector joining the two bodies. Thus there
Ans. (*) is no torque due to gravitational force.
Q = mcwater∆T 99. The first artificial satellite was
= 1×10 × 4182 × 373
–3 (a) Explorer-I (b) Aryabhatta
= 1559.886J (c) Luna-3 (d) Sputnik-1
94. In general, when the temperature of a metal is Ans. (d) : Sputnik-1 was the first artificial satellite.
raised, its conductance The Soviet union( former USSR) launched it into an
(a) decreases elliptical low earth orbit on 4 October 1957.
(b) increases 100. Who was the first Astronaut in space?
(c) remains the same (a) Neil Armstrong (b) Edwin Aldrin
(d) first increases and then decreases (c) Yuri Gagarin (d) Kepler
Ans. (a) : In metals conductivity is due to movement Ans. (a) : Yuri Gagarin was a soviet air force pilot and
of free electrons. When temperature increases the Astronaut who become the first human to journey into
vibrations of metal ions increases. This results in space.
increasing in resistance of metal and hence decrease in Neil Armstrong was the first man who walk on the
conductivity. moon.
BPSC AE (GS), 2001 214 YCT
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 2001
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL ENGINEERING SCIENCE (PAPER-IV)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 1 Hour ] [ Marks : 100

1. A Talysurf is an instrument to measure 4. At a point in a plate subjected to in-place forces

(a) roughness of a surface the maximum and the minimum shearing
(b) curvature of a surface stress at the same point is
(c) height of a surface from a datum (a) 20 N/mm2 (b) 40 N/mm2
(d) none of these (c) 20 N/mm2 (d) zero
Ans. (a) : Talysurf– Talysurf is an instrument to Ans. (d)
measure roughness of a surface σ − σ2
τmax = 1
Spherometer– An instrument to measure curvature of a 2
surface σ1 = σ2
2. An electrical measuring instrument that can τ=0
measure only A.C. quantities is of
5. The maximum shearing stress in simply
(a) moving iron type
supported beam of span 4m and of rectangular
(b) moving coil type
section 100 mm × 160 mm carrying uniformly
(c) dynamometer type distributed load of 8 kN/m is
(d) induction type (a) 15.0 N/mm2 (b) 1.5 N/mm2
Ans. (d) (c) 1.0 N/mm 2
(d) none of these
Type Suitable for Ans. (b) : Given,
(a) Moving iron D.C. or A.C. L = 4m, w = 8 kN/m, b = 100 mm, d = 160 mm
(b) Permanent magnet D.C.
moving coil
(c) Dynamometer type D.C. or A.C.
(d) Electrostatic D.C. or A.C
(e) Induction type A.C.
(f) Thermocouple D.C. or A.C.
(g) Hot wire D.C. or A.C.
(h) Electrolytic meter D.C. only w × L 8× 4
(i) Rectifier D.C. or A.C. Maximum shear load ( Fmax ) = = = 16kN
2 2
3. If a body deformed by a system of forces, Therefore average shear stress
regains its original shape and size on removal 16 × 103
of the forces, the body is ( ) F
τavg = max =
A 160 × 100
= 1 N / mm 2
(a) isotropic For rectangular section
(b) elastic Maximum shear stress
(c) plastic
(d) solid ( τmax ) = 32 τavg = (1.5) × (1) = 1.5 N / mm 2
Ans. (b) : Elastic– If a body deformed by an acted
∴ τmax = 1.5 N / mm 2
system of forces, regains its original shape and size on
removal of the forces the body is elastic. 6. The number of independent equations of
Plastic– If a body deformed by a system of forces, not equilibrium a body subjected to a system of
regains original shape on removal of the forces the coplanar forces is
body is plastic. (a) two (b) three
Isotropic– Identical properties in all direction. (c) six (d) none of these
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2001 215 YCT
 Ans. (b) Ans. (c) : Given, r' = 2r
Force system No. of Independent eqn.

(a) Coplanar & ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0

concurrent
(b) Coplanar & Non ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0,
concurrent ΣMz = 0
(c) Non coplanar & ΣFx = 0, ΣFx = 0,
concurrent ΣFz = 0
(d) Non coplanar & Non ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0,
concurrent ΣFz = 0, ΣM = 0 We know
mv 2
7. The impulse is equal to the change of centripetal force (Fc) = = mrω2
(a) velocity r
(b) force if Fc is constant then
(c) momentum Fc = Fc'
(d) mass m rω2 = m r ' ω '2
Ans. (c) : Impulse is a way to measure change in
r 2
momentum. ω '2 = ω
r'
Impulse(I) = force × change in time = F × ∆t
r r ω
Newton's second law of motion ω' = ω= ω=
r' 2r 2
Change in momentum (∆P)
F=
Change in time (∆t) ω
ω' =
Hence, 2
F × t = m.∆v
10. A body of weight W lying on a smooth inclined
⇒ Impulse = change in momentum. plane of angle of inclination with the
8. Kilowatt is a unit of horizontally to keep it in equilibrium the
(a) energy (b) force normal reaction offered by the plane in
(c) work (d) none of these (a) Wsec φ (b) W tan φ
Ans. (d) : Kilowatt (kW) is the unit of power. (c) cos φ (d) none of these
Energy – Joule Ans. (d) : Given, for smooth inclined plane µ = 0
Force – Newton
Work – Joule
Resistance – Ohm
Inductance – Henry
Magnetic flux – Weber
Flux density – Tesla
Frequency – Hz
Power – Watt In equilibrium
Watt =
Joule
; kW =
Watt ΣFv = 0,
Sec. 1000 N–W cosφ = 0
9. A mass tied to the end of a string of a certain N = W cosφ
length can be rotated about the other end with
11. Rounded aggregate in concrete
a limiting angular velocity ω beyond which the
(a) requires more water for good workability
string is torn. If the length of the string is
(b) needs more cement for a giving strength
doubled, the limiting angular velocity will be
(c) causes greater shrinkage
(a) ω / 2
(d) leads to poor development of bond
(b) 2 /ω
Ans. (d) : Rounded Aggregate–These are generally
(c) ω 2 obtained from river or sea shore and produce minimum
(d) none of these voids (about 32%) in coucrete.

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2001 216 YCT

 Advantage– 15. To measure impact strength of a material one
(a) For a given volume/weight it has less surface uses
and void, so excess paste is available to give (a) Rockwell test (b) Brinell test
better lubricating effect. (c) Wicker's test (d) Izod test
(b) Due to rounded shape it has less friction Ans. (d) : Izod Test–The Izod test is most commonly
resistance. used to evaluate the relative toughness or impact
Disadvantage– Only disadvantage is that inter locking toughness of materials
between the particle is less and hence the development Izod test sample usually have a V-notch cut into them
of bond is poor making it unsuitable for high strength Metallic samples tend to be square in cross section,
concrete and pavement. while polymeric test specimens are often rectangular.
12. ASCU treatment is given for
(a) prevention of corrosion of steel
(b) preservation of timber
(c) waterproofing of roof
(d) galvanising iron
Ans. (b) : Preservation of timber– Increase the life of
timber, durability & protect timber from attack of
white ants, fungi, insects etc.
Commonly used preservatives are–
• Oil type preservatives are creosote, carbolinium,
solignum etc.
• Organic solvent preservatives.
• Water soluble preservation are copper-chrome or
senic composition, AsCu, Zinc-meta-arsenite
composition etc. There are two types of Impact Test
13. Compared to mild steel, high carbon steel 1. Izod Impact Test– For Izod Impact Test, the
specimen will be placed vertically on the
(a) is more ductile
specimen holder.
(b) is less hard
2. Charpy Impact Test– For Charpy Impact Test,
(c) can be rolled more easily requires the specimen to be placed horizontally on
(d) none of these the specimen holder.
Ans. (d) Impact strength– The energy required to fracture a
Mild steel High carbon steel material under an impact force.
Less carbon content Higher carbon content 16. If a bullet of mass M moving with a velocity V
Ductility high Ductility low hits a stationary ball of mass 99M and they
both start moving together with the same
Brittleness' low Brittleness high velocity in the same direction, the loss of kinetic
Rolled more easily Not easily rolled energy of the whole system due to the impact is
14. Efflorescence in bricks is caused by (a) MV 2/2 (b) 99 MV2/100
2
(a) over burning of bricks (c) 99MV /200 (d) zero
(b) too much lime in brick earth Ans. (c) : Given, Mass of bullet = M, Velocity of
(c) sodium or potassium salts in brick earth bullet = V, Mass of Ball = 99M, Velocity of Ball = 0
(d) not soaking bricks in water before use. 1 1 1
KE1 = m1 v12 = MV 2 , KE 2 = m 2 v 22 = 0
Ans. (c) : Efflorescence in bricks is caused by salts in 2 2 2
brick earth.
Some salts are sodium or potassium salts.
Efflorescence is typically caused by water soluble salt
in solution brought to the exterior face of the brick and
subsequently deposited upon the brick's face by
evaporation. The more common efflorescence salts
according to the technical literature are aluminium, According to conservation of momentum.
calcium, magnesium, potassium, and sodium total momentum before collision = total momentum
carbonates and sulphate. after collision

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2001 217 YCT

 m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1+m2v2 19. A transit theodolite is one which can
M×V+0 = M×V'+99MV' (a) measure horizontal distance
MV V (b) measure only horizontal angles
V' = =
( M + 99M ) 100 (c) measure both horizontal and vertical angles
(d) be revolved completely about the horizontal
Loss of kinetic energy ( ∆KE )
axis.
= ( KE1 + KE 2 ) − ( KE1 + KE 2 ) ' Ans. (c & d) : Theodolite– Telescope revolved
through a complete revolution about its horizontal axis
=  MV 2 + 0  −  MV'2 + 99M × V'2 
1 1 1
in vertical plane.
2  2 2 
use→ To measure horizontal & vertical angle
1 1
= MV 2 − (100 M ) V'2 → To measure horizontal & vertical distance
2 2
2
indirectly
MV 2 − (100 M ) × 
1 1 V  → Ranging
= 
2 2  100 
20. A meggar can be used to detect fault in a(n)
= MV 2 
1 99  99MV 2 (a) hydraulic circuit (b) pneumatic circuit
 = 200
2  100  (c) electrical circuit (d) none of these
17. Ranging means Ans. (c) Open Circuit fault
(a) measuring the horizontal length of a line The type of fault is checked with the help of a device
between two point called meggar in this type of fault the '3' conductors of
(b) measuring difference in height between two the 3-core cable at the far end are shortened and then
point connected to the ground. The meggar is than used to
(c) establishing intermediate points on a straight read the resistance between each conductor and the
line between two end points ground.
(d) focusing a distant object 21. The maximum shearing stress in a solid shaft
Ans. (c) : Ranging – Process of establishing of 200 mm diameter subjected to a torque of 5
intermediate point. × 105 N-m is
There are two types of ranging– (a) 100/mN/mm2
(a) direct ranging – when end station visible (b) 200/ mN /mm2
(b) Indirect-ranging or reciprocal ranging – when (c) 2000/7 mN /mm2
end station not visible due to rising ground
(d) none of these through shear centre, the beam
between them or due to long distance between
is subjected to
end stations.
Ranging– Ans. (d) : Given,
⇒ When a survey line is longer than a chain length, it D s = 200 mm, T = 5 × 105 N-m = 5 × 108 N-mm
is necessary to align intermediate points on chain
line so that the measurements also along the line. Maximum shearing stress for solid shaft
The process of locating intermediate points on 16T
survey line is known as ranging. τmax =
πD3s
18. A plan meter is an instrument for
16 × 5 × 108 1000
(a) taking ground measurements to prepare plans = = N / mm 2
(b) measurement of area of plans π× (200) 3
π
(c) making surfaces of timber plane 1000
τmax = N / mm 2
(d) none of these π
Ans. (b) : Plan Meter– It is an instrument used for 22. If the lines of action of loads on a beam do not
measurement of area of plans. pass through shear centre, the beam is
Plan meter is a precise instrument which measures the subjected
area of plan of any shape with more accuracy.
(a) stretching (b) bending
⇒ Two types of Plan meter (c) shear (d) twisting
(I) Polar Plan meter
Ans. (d) : If the lines of action of loads on a beam do
(II) Roller Plan meter.
not pass through shear centre, the beam is subjected to
⇒ The accuracy of the results obtained from using
twisting.
Plan meter in the measurement of areas depends
mainly on the original accuracy drawn map as well Shear centre is defined as that point through which
as on the experience of the operator when tracing when the loads act, the twisting or torsion does not
boundary of the figure. occur in the beam.

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2001 218 YCT

23. The moment of inertia of a beam section about 2. Incompressible flow → the density doesn't changes
a principal axis is w.r.t. time.
(a) maximum 3. Non-viscous flow → there is no viscosity in the
(b) minimum flow
(c) either maximum or minimum 4. Irrotational flow → No Rotationality there
(d) zero 5. Flow along streamline.
Ans. (a) : Moment of inertia maximum – If it is taken 27. The entropy of a real isolated system
about principal axis. (a) increases
24. The strain energy in an elastic column of solid (b) decreases
circular section of diameter d carrying a given (c) remains the same
load at the top is U. If the column section is (d) is difficult to predict
tubular with external diameter d and internal
Ans. (a) : The entropy of an isolated systems always
diameter d/2, the stain energy is
increases.
(a) U (b) 3U/4
Change in entropy of system.
(c) 3U/2 (d) none of these
(∆S) = (∆S)I.I.R. + (∆S)E.I.
Ans. (d) : Given, do = d, di = d/2
dQ
We know that = Sgen +
T
2
Strain energy ( U ) = 12 PAEL For real isolated system
dQ
1 External Interaction (EI) of heat =0
U∝ T
A
U A' π 2
( ∆S) = Sgen
= A= d
U' A 4 Entropy of real isolated system will increase due to
π d  internal irreversibility (IIR) of the system.
2
π
A ' =  d o2 − d i2  = d 2 −   
4 4 2  28. A steam power plant normally uses
(a) a Carnot cycle
π 2  1
d 1− (b) a Rankine cycle
U 4  4  3
= = (c) a modified Ranking cycle
U' π 2 4
d (d) none of these
4
Ans. (b) : Rankine cycle– heat rejection takes place at
4
U' = U constant pressure.
3
ex.– steam power plant, thermal plant.
25. The final setting time for ordinary Portland 29. In a diesel cycle heat addition takes place
cement should be not more than (a) under constant volume
(a) 30 minutes (b) 60 minutes (b) under constant pressure
(c) 300 minutes (d) 600 minutes (c) under constant temperature
Ans. (d) (d) none of these
Cement Initial Final setting time Ans. (b) : There are four process in Diesel cycle–
setting time
Process 1-2→ Isentropic compression
OPC 30 min 10 hrs or 600 min Process 2-3→ Constant Pressure heat addition
Quick setting 5 min 30 min Process 3-4→ Isentropic Expansion
Low Heat 1 hr 10 hr Process 4-1→ Constant volume heat rejection
26. Assumptions made in deriving Bernoulli
equation are
(a) steady flow and non-viscous fluid
(b) steady and uniform flow
(c) uniform flow and incompressible fluid
(d) steady flow and ideal fluid
Ans. (d) : Assumption of Bernoulli equation–
1. Steady flow → properties of fluid not change w.r.t.
time.
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2001 219 YCT
 V1 33. The crashing slope of an activity is
Let compression ratio (rc) = crash cost – normal cost
V2 (a)
crash cost – normal cost
V3
Cut-off ration ( ρ ) = crash cost – normal cost
V2 (b)
normal time – crash time
V4 V1 V2 rc
Expansion ratio ( γ ) = = × = (c) normal time – crash time
V3 V2 V3 ρ (d) none of these
 ργ − 1  Ans. (b) : Crashing slope or cost slope–
1
ηD = 1 − γ −1  
( rc )  γ (ρ − 1)  Cost slope =
crash cost – normal cost
normal time – crash time
Otto cycle – heat addition at Constant volume Normal time(tn)– Normal time is the standard time an
heat rejection at Constant volume estimator usually allow for an activity.
Rankine cycle– Both heat addition and heat rejection Crash time (tc)– Crash time is the minimum possible
at constant pressure time in which an activity can be completed by
Carnot cycle– Both heat addition and rejection at employing extra resources.
Constant Temperature Normal cost (cn)– This is direct cost required to
30. An isochoric process is one for which complete the activity in normal time duration.
(a) volume is constant Crash cost (cc)– This is the direct cost corresponding
(b) pressure is constant to the completion of the activity within crash time.
(c) temperature is constant
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
Isothermal process – Constant temperature (T=C)
Isobaric process – Constant pressure (P = C)
Isochoric process – Constant volume (V = C)
31. Eminently hydraulic line has
(a) no clay content
(b) about 5% content
(c) about 25% clay content
(d) about 60% clay content 34. 100 m3 of brick work, sand-cement mortar
requirement is about
Ans. (c)
(a) 35 m3 (b) 50 m3
Classification hydraulic % of clay impurities 3
(c) 20 m (d) 70 m3
line
(a) Feebly hydraulic 5 – 10% Ans. (a) : Volume of brick with mortar =
lime 200 × 100 × 100 (10mm mortar thickness on all sides)
(b) Moderately hydraulic 10 – 20% Volume of brick with mortar = 0.002 cum(m3)
lime Volume of 1 brick without mortar = 0.001539 cum
(c) Eminently hydraulic 20 – 30% (m3)
lime Volume of 500 bricks without mortar = 0.001539 cum
(d) Poor or lean lime > 30% Volume of bricks without mortar for 1cum = 0.7695
cum(m3)
32. The difference between Latest Finish Time and Volume of bricks without mortar = 1 – 0.7695
Earliest Finish time of a particular job is
termed as = 0.2305 cum
(a) free float (b) interfering float Dry mortar = 0.2305 × 1.51
(c) total float (d) independent float = 0.348 cum
Ans. (a) for 100m3 required mortar = 0.318 × 100
Free float – Difference b/w latest finish time and = 34.8535m3
earliest finish time of a particular job 35. In construction projects, statistical timing of
Total Float– Difference b/w latest start time & completion is assumed to have
earliest start time or latest finish time & (a) Poisson's distribution
earliest finish time (b) Uniform distribution
Total Float– LST–EST = LFT – EFT (c) Chi square distribution
Interfering Float = Total float – Free float (d) Beta distribution
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2001 220 YCT
 Ans. (d) : In construction projects, statistical timing of (c) temperature increases and wind velocity
completion is assume to have β distribution. decreases
(d) temperature increases and wind velocity
36. Starter of a d.c. shunt motor is used to limit its
increases
(a) line current
Ans. (a) In atmosphere under normal condition it is
(b) armature current
observed that with increase in altitude temperature
(c) field current
decreases and wind velocity decreases.
(d) Both line current and armature current
⇒ The stratosphere is the layer in the atmosphere
Ans. (a) : Basically main purpose of starter is to limit above the troposphere. Temperature in the
the starting current or line current which is very high stratosphere rises with increasing altitude, because
during starting of motor. the ozone layer absorbs the greater part of the solar
37. To remove turbidity from a water sample the ultraviolet radiation.
unit process adopted is 41. A sheep foot roller is used for
(a) sedimentation (a) finishing road top
(b) aeration (b) compaction of earthen embankment
(c) coagulation-flocculation (c) soil excavation
(d) centrifugation (d) hoisting joists
Ans. (c) : Coagulation flocculation, softening & Ans. (b)
absorption are the unit process in water treatment. (a) Sheep foot roller – compaction of earth dams
Coagulation - flocculation– The use of chemical (b) Smooth wheeled roller – Road construction
reagents to destabilise and increase the size of the (c) Vibratory roller – embankments for oil storage
particles mixing increasing of floc size. A physical tank.
separation of the solids from the liquid phase. This (d) Pneumatic tyred roller – sub-base, sub-grade,
separation is usually achieved by sedimentation, airfield highway base & earth dam
flotation or filtration. Aluminium sulphate (Alum) is It is used to compact fine grained soil layers and is
most common coagulant used in water purification. typically called sheep foot roller. There are many
38. During water purification Cl2 solution is used techniques and equipment used for the compaction of
for soils and the sheeps foot rollers is one of those. There
(a) removal of bad colour are static and vibratory types.
(b) killing the bacteria 42. Stanton number is the ratio of
(c) producing cleaver water (a) Reynolds number to Prandtl number
(d) making the water more tasteful (b) Prandtl number to Nusselt number
Ans. (b) : Direct chlorine (Cl2) effectively kills a large (c) Nusselt number to Peclet number
variety of microbial waterborne pathogens, including (d) Peclet number to Reynolds number
those that can cause typhoid fever, dysentery, cholera Ans. (c)
and legionnaires diseases. Nusselt number(Nu) h
The pH value is less than '5'. Stanton number (St) = =
Peclet number (Pc) ρVC P
39. BOD is a measure of
Nu
(a) overall pollution =
Re.Pr
(b) inorganic pollution
Peclet number = Reynolds number × Prandtl number
(c) semi-organic pollution
Pe = Re.Pr
(d) organic pollution
43. Electrical analogy for heat transfer coefficient
Ans. (d) is
BOD – Biological Oxygen Demand– It is the amount (a) resistance (b) inductance
of dissolved oxygen required by aerobic micro-
(c) unit conductance (d) none of these
organisms to break down organic material present in a
given water sample. High level of BOD means Ans. (c)
pollutants are more in the water. KA∆T
Q=–
40. In atmosphere under normal condition it is L
observed that with increase in altitude Ohm's Law
(a) temperature decreases and wind velocity V = IR
decreases Maintaining analogy
(b) temperature decreases and wind velocity V as ∆T and comparing
increases K → 1/ρ (σ)

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2001 221 YCT

 44. For steady flow of an incompressible fluid Ans. (c) :
through a pipe, the critical Reynolds number is
(a) 500 (b) 1000
(c) 2000 (d) 6 × 10
ρvD
Ans. (c) Re =
µ
Reynolds no. (Re) Flow
Re < 2000 Pipe
Re < 1000 Parallel plates
Re < 1 soil
Re < 500 open channel
45. For a vertical plane surface kept immersed in a
liquid, the centre of pressure lies
(a) below the centroid of the surface
(b) on the centroid of the surface
(c) above the centroid of the surface
(d) none of these V = 20 volt
Ans. (a) : Centre of pressure (C.P.) – The point of Req = 100Ω
application of total pressure on the surface Current flow from source
Note – C. G & C.P. will consider only when surface is V 20
horizontally immersed. I= = = 0.2 Amp.
R e q 100
otherwise C.P. will always below the C.G.
46. With usual notations, the expression for 48. For a sinusoidal voltage r.m.s. value is
specific speed of a hydraulic machine based on (a) 2 times the maximum value
power is given by (b) 0.707 times the maximum value
1/2 3/4 1/2 5/4
(a) NP /H (b) NP /H (c) 2 times the average value
(c) NP1/2/H3/2 (d) None of these (d) none of these
Ans. (b) :Specific speed (Ns) Ans. (b)
for turbine As we know for rms value of sinusoidal wave
N P V
Ns = Vrms = m
H 5/4
2
for pump
Vrms = 0.707 Vm
N Q
Ns= 3/4
H 49. A common emitter amplifier is used for
Specific speed (Ns)– Specific speed (Ns) of any (a) voltage amplification
turbine is the speed in r.p.m of a turbine, geometrically (b) current amplification
similar to the actual turbine but of such a size that (c) power amplifications
under corresponding conditions it will develop unit (d) load matching
power when working under unit head
Ans. (a) : The common emitter circuit is popular
N P
Ns = 5 / 4 because its well suited for voltage amplification
H especially at low frequencies. Common-emitter
⇒ Specific speed is not a dimension less parameter its amplifiers are also used in radio frequency.
units is [M1/ 2 L–1/ 4 T −5 / 2 ] 50. The efficiency of single phase, 2–winding
47. A 20 V ideal d.c. source is connected to a 50 Ω transformer is maximum the copper loss is
resistance in series with two 100 Ω resistance in (a) half the iron loss
parallel. The current flowing from the source (b) equal to the iron loss
will be (c) double the iron loss
(a) 0.8 amp (d) none of these
(b) 0.4 amp Ans. (b) : Efficiency is maximum in transformer
(c) 0.2 amp
when Copper losses = Iron losses
(d) none of these
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 2001 222 YCT

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 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 1995
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL HINDI (PAPER-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 1 Hours ] [ Marks : 100

efveoxMe : ÙeneB 10 JeekeäÙe efoÙes ieÙes nQ Ùes leerveeW Deueie-Deueie Deeheves cesjer yeele venerR ceeveeRr Fmekeâe cegPes Keso nw~
6.
YeeieeW ceW efJeYeeefpele nQ~ FvnW meeJeOeeveer kesâ meeLe heÌ{ves kesâ (a) (b) (c)
yeeo DeMegæ DebMe keâer peevekeâejer keâjkesâ a, b, c ceW $egefš
keâesF& $egefš venebr
mes mebyebefOele Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efueefKeS~ Ùeefo keâesF& $egefš nw
(d)
lees d kesâ ceeOÙece metefÛele keâerefpeS~
Ans. (b) : Deeheves cesjer yeele neR ceeveeR Fmekeâe cegPes Keso nw keâe Megæ
cegPes Fme yew"keâ keâe meceeÛeej venebr Lee
1.
(a) (b) (c)
JeekeäÙe nesiee–Deeheves cesjer yeele veneR ceeveer, Fmekeâe cegPes Keso nw-
keâesF& $egefš venebr jece ves Deheves efhelee keâs heeme He$e Yespee
7.
(d) (a) (b) (c)

Ans. (c) : cegPes Fme yew"keâ keâe meceeÛeej veneR Lee- ceW JeekeäÙe nesiee- keâesF& $egefš venebr
cegPes Fme yew"keâ keâer peevekeâejer veneR Leer~ (d)

jeceg keâes yengle Yeejer hÙeeme ueieer nw~ keâesF& $egefš venebr Ans. (d) : jece ves Deheves efhelee kesâ heeme he$e Yespee- Fme JeekeäÙe ceW
2.
(a) (b) (c) (d) keâesF& $egefš veneR nw~
Ans. (b) : jecet keâes yengle Yeejer hÙeeme ueieer nw, keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe
cesjs iee@BJe cesW yeepeejsW mehleen cesW oes efove ueieleer nwQ~
nesiee- jecet keâes yengle hÙeeme ueieer nw~ 8.
(a) (b) (c)
Deehe Fme keâeÙe& keâes Deemeeveer hetJe&keâ keâj mekeâles nwQ~
3. keâesF& $egefš venebr
(a) (b) (c)
(d)
keâesF& $egefš venebr
(d)
Ans. (b) : cesjs ieeBJe ceW yeepeejW mehleen ceW oes efove ueieleer nw- keâe
Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee- cesjs ieebJe ceW yeepeej mehleen ceW oes efove ueieleer nw~
Ans. (b) : Deehe Fme keâeÙe& keâes Deemeeveer hetJe&keâ keâj mekeâles nQ- keâe
Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee- Deehe Fme keâeÙe& keâes Deejece mes keâj mekeâles nQ~ Ghejesòeâ GæjCe jeceÛeefjleceeveme keâe nw~
9.
(a) (b) (c)
oes hegmlekeâ Skeâ efJeÅeeLee&r keâes venerb efceuesieer
4.
(a) (b) (c) keâesF& $egefš venebr
keâesF& $egefš venebr (d)
(d) Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ GæjCe jeceÛeefjleceeveme keâe nw– keâe Megæ
Ans. (a) : oes hegmlekeâ Skeâ efJeÅeeLeea keâes veneR efceuesieer keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe JeekeäÙe nesiee– GheÙeg&keäle GæjCe jeceÛeefjleceeveme keâe nw~
nesiee- oes hegmlekeWâ Skeâ efJeÅeeLeea keâes veneR efceuesieer~
legce Ûeej yepes lekeâ cesjer Øeleer#ee osKevee
DeeÛeeÙe& Megkeäue ves DeveskeâesW «evLe efueKes 10.
5. (a) (b) (c)
(a) (b) (c)
keâesF& $egefš venebr
keâesF& $egefš venebr (d)
(d)
Ans. (c) : legce Ûeej yepes lekeâ cesjer Øeleer#ee osKevee– keâe Megæ
Ans. (b) : DeeÛeeÙe& Megkeäue ves DeveskeâeW «evLe efueKes keâe Megæ JeekeäÙe
nesiee- DeeÛeeÙe& Megkeäue ves Deveskeâ «ebLe efueKes~ JeekeäÙe nesiee– legce Ûeej yeÛes lekeâ cesjer Øeleer#ee keâjvee~

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 1995 223 YCT

efveoxMe : ÙeneB 10 JeekeäÙe efoÙes ieÙes nQ ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe ceW leerve-leerve Ans. (b) : Ùes ueesie hejmhej Skeâ otmejs mes efJeÛeej efJeceMe& keâj jne Lee~
efJekeâuhe nQ~ FveceW mes pees Megæ JeekeäÙe nes Gmekesâ efueS Megæ JeekeäÙe–Ùes ueesie Skeâ-otmejs mes hejmhej efJeÛeej-efJeceMe& keâj jns Les~
efveOee&efjle a, b, c ceW mes keâesF& De#ej Gòej kesâ ™he ceW 17. Ûeuees ÛeueW mewj keâjves iebiee kesâ efkeâveejs~
efueKeW : (a) ÛeueW Ûeuees Deewj meewj keâjves efkeâveejs iebiee kesâ
11. ßeerOej Øeefle Je<e& efnceeueÙe hej mewj kesâ efueS peeles nQ~ (b) Ûeuees iebiee kesâ efkeâveejs mewj keâjves ÛeuesW
(a) ßeerOej Øeefle Je<e& efnceeueÙe ceW mewj keâes peeles nQ~ (c) mewj keâjves ÛeueW iebiee kesâ efkeâveejs~
(b) ßeerOej Øeefle Je<e& mewj kesâ efueS efnceeueÙe peeles nQ~ Ans. (b) : Ûeuees Ûeues mewj keâjves iebiee keâs efkeâveejs~
(c) ßeerOej Øeefle Je<e& peeles nQ efnceeueÙe ceW mewj kesâ efueS~ Megæ JeekeäÙe– Ûeuees iebiee keâs efkeâveejs mewj keâjves Ûeuesb~
Ans. (b) : ßeerOej Øeefle Je<e& efnceeueÙe hej mewj kesâ efueS peeles nQ– 18. Deieues mehleen lekeâ hewâmeuee yew"keâ keâe nes peeSiee
Megæ JeekeäÙe– ßeerOej Øeefle Je<e& mewj kesâ efueS efnceeueÙe peeles nQ~ (a) yew"keâ keâe nes peeÙeiee hewâmeuee Deieues mehleen lekeâ~
12. Jen Yeespeve keâes Keeves yew"e~ (b) Deieues mehleen lekeâ yew"keâ keâe nes peeÙeiee hewâmeuee
(a) Jen Yeespeve keâjves yew"e~ (c) Deieues mehleen lekeâ yew"keâ keâe hewâmeuee nes peeÙeiee
(b) Gmeves Yeespeve keâes keâjves yew"e~ Ans. (c) : Deieues mehleen lekeâ Heâwmeuee yew"keâ keâe nes peeÙesiee~
(c) Jen yew"e Yeespeve keâjves keâes~ Megæ JeekeäÙe– Deieues mehleen lekeâ, yew"keâ keâe Heâwmeuee nes peeÙesiee~
Ans. (a) : Jen Yeespeve keâes Keeves yew"e~ 19. meoea ceW oner veneR Keeveer ÛeeefnS~
Megæ JeekeäÙe– Jen Yeespeve keâjves yew"e~ (a) oner veneR Keeveer meoea ceW ÛeeefnS~
13. ceesnve keâes jeslee osKe cegPes Yeer DeeBmeg Dee ieÙee (b) oner meoea ceW veneR Keeveer ÛeeefnS~
(a) ceesnve keâes jeslee osKe cesjs keâes Yeer DeeBmet Dee ieÙes~ (c) meoea ceW oner Keeveer ÛeeefnS veneR~
(b) ceesnve keâes jeslee osKe cegPes Yeer DeeBmet Dee ieÙes~ Ans. (*) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes keâesF& Yeer JeekeäÙe Megæ neR nw,
(c) jeslee ngDee ceesnve keâes osKe cesjs Yeer DeeBmet Dee ieÙes keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘oner’ hegefuuebie Meyo nw Dele: ef›eâÙee Yeer hegefuuebie kesâ Devegmeej
Ans. (b) : ceesnve keâes jeslee osKe cegPes Yeer DeeBmeg Dee ieÙee~
nesieer~ Fme Øekeâej Megæ JeekeäÙe nesiee–meoea ceW oneR veneR Keevee ÛeeefnS~
20. keâcejs ceW leerve hegmlekeâ Skeâ kegâmeea Deewj Skeâ cespe jKeer nw
Megæ JeekeäÙe–ceesnve keâes jeslee osKe cegPes Yeer DeeBmet Dee ieÙes~
(a) keâcejs ceW leerve hegmlekeâ, Skeâ kegâmeea lekeâ Skeâ cespe jKeer nwb~
14. Ùegæ ceW mewefvekeâ keâe ØeeCe mebkeâš ceW neslee nw~
(b) keâcejs ceW leerve hegmlekeâW, Skeâ kegâmeea leLee Skeâ cespe jKeer nwb~
(a) Ùegæ ceW mebkeâš mewefvekeâ keâe ØeeCe neslee nww~
(c) keâcejW ceW leerve hegmlekeWâ, Skeâ kegâmeea Deewj Skeâ cespe jKeer nwb~
(b) mewefvekeâ keâe ØeeCe mebkeâš ceW neslee nw Ùegæ ceW~
Ans. (b) : keâcejs ces leerve hegmlekeâ, Skeâ keâgmeer& Deewj Skeâ cespe jKeer nw~
(c) Ùegæ ceW mewefvekeâ keâe ØeeCe mebkeâš ceW nesles nQ~
Megæ JeekeäÙe–keâcejs ceW leerve hegmlekeâW, Skeâ kegâmeea leLee Skeâ cespe jKeer nwb~
Ans. (c) : Ùegæ ceW mewefvekeâ keâe ØeeCe mebkeâš ceW neslee nw~
(F)efveosMe& : efvecveefueefKele 10 JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ØelÙeskeâ JeekeäÙe keâe
Megæ JeekeäÙe– Ùegæ ceW mewefvekeâ keâe ØeeCe mebkeâš ceW nesles nQ~
Skeâ-Skeâ Meyo jsKeebefkeâle nw~ nj jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS
15. nerje, ceeefCekeäÙe Deewj ceesleer keâerceleer Deewj DeÛÚer jlve nw~
a, b, c, d kesâ meeceves Skeâ-Skeâ Meyo efueKee ieÙee nw~
(a) nerje, ceeefCekeäÙe Deewj ceesleer DeÛÚe keâerceleer jlve nw~ FveceW mes jsKeebefkeâle Meyo mes DeLe& keâer Âef° mes pees
(b) nerje, ceeefCekeäÙe Deewj ceesleer keâerceleer Deewj DeÛÚs jlve nQ~ Jewkeâefuhele Meyo Deefle efvekeâš nw Gmes Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW
(c) nerje ceeefCekeäÙe Deewj ceesleer jlve nQ DeÛÚs Deewj keâerceleer~ efÛeefvnle keâerefpeS~
Ans. (b) : nerje, ceeefCekeäÙe Deewj ceesleer keâerceleer Deewj DeÛÚer jlve nw~ 21. meeceeefpekeâ DevÙeeÙeeW keâe efJe<e heÛee peeves Jeeuee ner
Megæ JeekeäÙe–nerje, ceeefCekeäÙe Deewj ceesleer keâerceleer Deewj DeÛÚs jlve nQ~ veeruekebâ" keânueelee nw~
16. Ùes ueesie hejmhej Skeâ-otmejs mes efJeÛeej-efJeceMe& keâj jne (a) Skeâ ceveg<Ùe (b) Skeâ jbie
Lee~ (c) Mebkeâj YeieJeeve (d) Skeâ osJelee
(a) Ùes ueesieeW Skeâ-otmejs kesâ efJeÛeej-efJeceMe& keâj jne Lee~ Ans. (c) : meeceeefpekeâ DevÙeeÙees keâe efJe<e heÛee peeves Jeeuee ner
(b) Ùes ueesie Skeâ-otmejs mes hejmhej efJeÛeej-efJeceMe& keâj jns Les~ veeruekeâb" keânueelee nw, JeekeäÙe ces ‘veeruekeâb"’ keâs vepeoerkeâ Meyo nesiee–
(c) Ùes ueesie hejmhej efJeÛeej-efJeceeMe& keâj jne Lee~ Mebkeâj YeieJeeve~

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 1995 224 YCT

22. pees Deveeefo Deewj Devevle nw Jen Depe Yeer nw~ Ans. (d) : ØeLece jefMcekeâe Deevee he#eer letves kewâmes henÛeevee~ JeekeäÙe ceW
(a) yekeâje (b) oMejLe ‘jefMcekeâe’ kesâ vepeoerkeâ Meyo nesiee– efkeâjCe~
(c) Skeâ he#eer (d) yeÇÿe 30. Meerleue cebo meceerj ves Gmekeâer meejer Lekeâeve efceše oer~
Ans. (d) : pees Deveeefo Deewj Devevle nw Jen Depe Yeer nw– cesb ‘Depe’ (a) ieefle (b) Jeele
keâs efvekeâš Meyo nesiee– yeÇÿe~ (c) DeeBOeer (d) #eeÙee
23. Skeâ mevleeve kesâ efyevee Gme yesÛeejer keâe Debkeâ metvee jn ieÙee Ans. (b) : Meerleue cebo meceerj ves Gmekeâer meejer Lekeâeve efceše oer~
(a) ieeso (b) mebKÙee JeekeäÙe ceW ‘meceerj’ kesâ Deefle efvekeâš Meyo nesiee–Jeele~
(c) Øeefle%ee (d) veeškeâ keâe Skeâ Yeeie (F&) efveoxMe : veerÛes efueKes JeekeäÙe keâe JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS leerve-
Ans. (a) : Skeâ mebleeve kesâ efyevee Gme yesÛeejer keâe Debkeâ metvee jn ieÙee leerve Meyo efoÙes ieÙes nQ~ FveceW mes Skeâ GheÙegòeâ Meyo
ceW ‘Debkeâ’ kesâ efvekeâš Meyo nesiee– ieeso~ Ûegvekeâj Gòej hegefmlekeâe ceW efÛeefÖle keâjW~
24. YeieJeeve efMeJe kesâ efheveekeâ mes DemebKÙe je#eme veekeâ ceW heÌÌ[ 31. pees efyevee yegueeÙes DeeÙes~
ieÙes~ (a) heÌ[esmeer
(a) ieewjJe (b) Øeefle‰e (b) DeefleefLe
(c) mJeie& (d) GÛÛe mLeeve (c) efYeKeejer
Ans. (c) : YeieJeeve efMeJe kesâ efheveekeâ mes DemebKÙe je#eme veekeâ ceW heÌ[ Ans. (b) : pees efyevee yegueeÙes DeeÙes– DeefleefLe~
ieS, JeekeäÙe ceW ‘veekeâ’ Meyo kesâ efvekeâš Meyo nesiee–mJeie&~
32. pees Ùeeo jKeves ÙeesiÙe nes
25. njs-njs heòeeW keâer Deesš ceW efÚhee nefj hekesâ heâue efieje ieÙee~
(a) mcejCeerÙe
(a) efJe<Ceg (b) yevoj
(b) keâneveer
(c) keâ<Ce (d) Skeâ he#eer
(c) ieerle
Ans. (b) : njs-njs heòeeW keâer Deesš ceW efÚhee nefj hekesâ Heâue efieje
Ans. (a) : pees Ùeeo jKeves ÙeesiÙe nes–mcejCeerÙe~
ieÙee, JeekeäÙe ceW ‘nefj’ kesâ efvekeâš Meyo nesiee– yevoj~
33. meyekeâes meceeve osKeves Jeeuee
26. keâeÙee kesâ jbie kesâ meceeve ner OeejCe efkeâÙee ngDee Decyej mes
(a) meppeve
oslee nw~
(b) meceoMeea
(a) JeŒe (b) DeekeâeMe
(c) cenelcee
(c) yeeoue (d) jbie
Ans. (b) : meyekeâes meceeve osKeves Jeeuee– meceoMeea~
Ans. (a) : keâeÙee kesâ jbie kesâ meceeve ner OeejCe efkeâÙee ngDee Decyej
34. Dee%ee keâe heeueve keâjves Jeeuee
efoKeeF& oslee nw, JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Decyej’ kesâ vepeoerkeâ Meyo nesiee–JeŒe~
(a) DevegÛej
27. ie®Ì[ Skeâ efJeMeeuekeâeÙe veYeÛej nw~
(b) efJeÕeemeer
(a) Skeâ he#eer (b) YetÛej
(c) Dee%eekeâejer
(c) JeeÙegÙeeve (d) heMeg
Ans. (c) : Dee%ee keâe heeueve keâjves Jeeuee– Dee%eekeâejer~
Ans. (a) : ie®Ì[ Skeâ efJeMeeuekeâeÙe veYeÛej nw, JeekeäÙe ceW ‘ie®Ì[’ kesâ
efvekeâš Meyo nw– Skeâ he#eer~ 35. pees heefjßece keâjves mes peer Ûegjelee nw

28. heleve keâer jen hej Ûeuevee Jeeuee mLeeÙeer GVeefle keâer DeeMee (a) keâeceÛeesj
veneR keâj mekeâlee (b) Deeuemeer

(a) GlLeeve (b) GoÙe (c) oerIe&met$e

(c) Je=efæ (d) efJekeâeme Ans. (b) : pees heefjßece keâjves mes peer Ûegjelee nw– Deeuemeer~

Ans. (d) : heleve keâer jen hej Ûeuevee Jeeuee mLeeÙeer GVeefle keâer DeeMee 36. meYeer mLeeveeW hej jnves Jeeuee
vener keâj mekeâlee, JeekeäÙe ceW ‘GVeefle’ kesâ efvekeâš Meyo nesiee–efJekeâeme~ (a) keâerš-helebie
29. ØeLece jefMcekeâe Deevee he#eer letves kewâmes henÛeevee~ (b) ueesYeer
(a) Skeâ jbie (b) DebMeg (c) meJe&JÙeeheer
(c) Ûevõcee (d) efkeâjCe Ans. (c) : meYeer mLeeveeW hej jnves Jeeuee–meJe&JÙeeheer~

BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 1995 225 YCT

37. De%eele Jemleg keâe helee ueieeves Jeeuee 44. uetmeer Skeâ Ûelegj ueÌ[keâer nw~
(a) Ûeesj (a) meef›eâÙe (b) F&ceeveoej
(b) peemetme (c) Deeuemeer (d) veemecePe
(c) DevJes<ekeâ Ans. (d) : uetmeer Skeâ Ûelegj ueÌ[keâer nw~ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Ûelegj’ keâe
Ans. (c) : De%eele Jemleg keâe helee ueieeves Jeeuee–DevJes<ekeâ~ efJeueesce Meyo nesiee– veemecePe~
38. efpemekeâe %eeve FefvõÙeeW Éeje ve nes 45. jesie mes «emle JÙeefòeâ ØeeÙe: DeuheeÙeg nes peelee nw~
(a) DeleerefvõÙe (a) ogye&ue (b) keâeceÛeesj
(b) De%eele (c) oerIe&peerJeer (d) ›eâesOeer
(c) hejceyeÇÿe Ans. (c) : jesie mes «emle JÙeefòeâ ØeeÙe: DeuheeÙeg nes peelee nw~ JeekeäÙe
Ans. (a) : efpemekeâe %eeve FefvõÙeeW Éeje ve nes–DeleerefvõÙe~ ceW ‘DeuheeÙeg’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo nesiee- oerIe&peerJeer~
39. pees megKe-og:Ke ceW Skeâ mee jns 46. nceejs osMe ceW ÛeewLeeF& Deeyeeoer DeYeer Yeer efvej#ej nw~
(a) Jeerlejeieer (a) DeheÌ{ (b) ieBJeej
(b) Jewjeieer (c) pegJeeÌ[er (d) mee#ej
(c) ie=nmLe Ans. (d) : nceejs osMe ceW ÛeewLeeF& Deeyeeoer DeYeer Yeer efvej#ej nw~
Ans. (b) : pees megKe-og:Ke ceW Skeâ mee jns–Jewjeieer~ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘efvej#ej’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo nesiee- mee#ej~
40. pees keâevetve keâes ve ceeves 47. Ùen efveefJe&Jeeo ÙeLeeLe& nw efkeâ efJeosMeer hetBpeer keâer yeeÌ{ nceejer
(a) melÙee«ener Deepeeoer keâes ues [tyesieer~
(b) Devegoej (a) mebosnÙegòeâ (b) ØeKej
(c) ef$eoener (c) efJeJeeoemheo (d) ØelÙe#e
Ans. (a) : pees keâevetve keâes ve ceeves–melÙee«eener~ Ans. (c) : Ùen efveefJe&Jeeo ÙeLeeLe& nw efkeâ efJeosMeer hetBpeer kesâ yeeÌ{ nceejer
(G) mebkesâle: efvecve JeekeäÙeeW ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ efueS De#ejDeepeeoer keâes ues [tyesieer~ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘efveefJe&Jeeo’ Meyo keâe efJeueesce–
kesâ meeceves Deueie-Deueie Meyo efueKes ngS nQ~ Fve MeyoeW ceWefJeJeeoemheo nesiee~
GheÙegòeâ efJeueesce (efJe®æeLeea) Meyo keâes Ûegvekeâj (efpeme48. DehejeefOeÙeeW keâes jepeveereflekeâ mebj#eCe Devejerefle nw~
De#ej kesâ meecevehes keâe Skeâ Meyo nw) Gmekesâ Jeie& keâes (a) DevegefÛele (b) jerefle
efveefo&° keâerefpeS~ (c) GheÙegòeâ (d) neefvekeâejkeâ
41. Ieves yeeoue kesâ keâejCe meJe&$e DevOekeâej Úe ieÙee nw~ Ans. (b) : DehejeefOeÙeeW keâes jepeveereflekeâ mebj#eCe Devejerefle nw~ JeekeäÙe
(a) kegbâpe (b) ØekeâeMe ceW ‘Devejerefle’ Meyo keâe efJeueesce Meyo nesiee– jerefle~
(c) DeceeJemÙee (d) efveMee 49. meeceeefpekeâ peerJeve ceW jepeveerefle keâe efJemleej Ùen YeÙeevekeâ
Ans. (b) : Ieves yeeoue kesâ keâejCe meJe&$e DevOekeâej Úe ieÙee nw~ mebkesâle nw~
JeekeäÙe ceW DevOekeâej keâe efJeueesce Meyo nesiee– ØekeâeMe~ (a) mebkeâesÛe
42. Deehekeâe Ghekeâej ceW keâYeer veneR YetuetBiee~ (b) DeYeeJe
(a) Yeõlee (b) mener keâece (c) efJekeâeme
(c) Dehekeâej (d) mejuelee (d) Iegme-yew"
Ans. (c) : Deehekeâe Ghekeâej ceW keâYeer veneR YetuetBiee~ JeekeäÙe ceW Ans. (a) : meeceeefpekeâ peerJeve ceW jepeveerefle keâe efJemleej Ùen YeÙeevekeâ
‘Ghekeâej’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo nesiee– Dehekeâej~ mebkesâle nw~ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘efJemleej’ Meyo keâe efJeueesce nesiee– mebkeâesÛe
43. Deepe-keâue Kegues Deece vÙeeÙe keâe ieuee IeeWše peelee nw~ 50. ceQ Deheveer heÌ{eF& hetjer keâjkesâ efveef§evle nes peevee Ûeenlee ntB~
(a) DeveeÛeej (b) Deveweflekeâlee (a) ØemeVe (b) Deveglmeeefnle
(c) mebefJeOeeve (d) DevÙeeÙe (c) efÛeefvlele (d) mebleg°
Ans. (d) : Deepe-keâue Kegues Deece vÙeeÙe keâe ieuee IeeWše peelee nw~ Ans. (c) : ceQ Deheveer heÌ{eF& hetjer keâjkesâ efveef§evle nes peevee Ûeenlee
JeekeäÙe ceW ‘vÙeeÙe’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo nesiee– DevÙeeÙe~ ntB~ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘efveef§evle’ keâe efJeueesce nesiee– efÛeefvlele nesiee~
BPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 1995 226 YCT
 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 1995
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL ENGLISH (PAPER-II)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 1 Hours ] [ Marks : 100

Three is an error is any underlined part. No Note – Ùeefo oes Subject as-well-as, with, Along with, and
sentence has more than one. If you feel there is no not, together with mes pegÌ[keâj DeeÙes lees Verb keâe ØeÙeesie henues
error In a sentence, signify a 'No Error' response: Subject kesâ Devegmeej keâjles nw leLee Pronoun Yeer Gmeer kesâ Devegmeej
1.
They have less books ueieeles nw~
(a) (b) Correct Sentence.
than I have No error He as well as you is tired.
(c) (d) I have returned from
5.
(a) (b)
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ Part (b) ceW less kesâ mLeeve hej
'Fewer' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ 'books' Countable noun nw Delhi yesterday No error
(c) (d)
leLee Countable nouns kesâ efueÙes 'few' keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw Deewj
Uncountable nouns kesâ efueÙes 'little' keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW 'Yesterday' keâe ØeÙeesie ngDee nw
Correct Sentence. pees efkeâ Skeâ Past denoting word nw Dele: JeekeäÙe keâe ØeÙeesie Past
They have fewer books than I have. Indefinite tense ceW nesiee~ Fmekeâe structure efvecve nw–
Subject + verb2 + object + other word
He writes faster than Correct Sentence.
2.
(a) (b) I returned from Delhi Yesterday
me No error Mr. X is one of the best
(c) (d) 6.
(a) (b)
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&òeâ Sentence to Part (c) ceW me kesâ mLeeve hej I surgeons here No error
keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ leguevee ØeoefMe&le keâjves kesâ efueS oesveeW (c) (d)
subjective case ceW nesvee ÛeeefnS~ Ans. (d) : No error
Correct Sentence. The apple tasted
He writes faster than I. 7.
(a) (b)
No Sooner had the guard whistled bitterly No error
3.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
when the train started No error Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ Part (c) ceW bitterly kesâ mLeeve
(c) (d) hej bitter keâe use GefÛele nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ kegâÚ Words pewmes Taste,
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ Part (c) ceW when kesâ mLeeve hej Smell Deeefo kesâ meeLe Adverb keâe ØeÙeesie ve keâjkesâ meeceevÙele:
than keâe use nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ No sooner........... than, Structure Adjective keâe ner ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
Correct Sentence.
keâe use neslee nw~
The apple tested bitter.
Correct Sentence.
No sooner had the guard whishled than the train started. 8. He congratulated him for his
(a) (b)
He as well as you
4. brilliant success No error
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
are tired No error
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ Part (b) ceW 'for' kesâ mLeeve hej
(c) (d)
'on' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Congratulate kesâ meeLe 'on'
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ Part (c) ceW 'are' kesâ mLeeve hej Preposition keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
'is' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe keâe cegKÙe Subject 'He' nw~ Correct Sentence.
Dele: Fmekesâ Devegmeej singular verb 'is' keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegkeäle nw~ He congratulated him on his brilliant success.

BPSC AE Gen. English, 1995 227 YCT

 He ordered for has 13. He is neither brilliant at languages nor at
9. science.
(a) (b)
(a) He is brilliant neither at
a drink No error (b) He is not brilliant at
(c) (d)
(c) He neither is brilliant at
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ Part (b) ceW for has keâe ØeÙeesie (d) No Improvement.
vener nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ order kesâ meeLe meeceevÙele: Preposition keâe Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW efJekeâuhe (a) He is brilliant
ØeÙeesie vener neslee nw~ neither at keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Neither............Nor keâe
Correct Sentence. ØeÙeesie Skeâ meceeve Part of speech kesâ henues neslee nw~
He ordered a drink. Correct Sentence.
He is brilliant neither at languages nor at science.
She insisted to wear
10. 14. I am accustomed to take rest after mid-day
(a) (b)
meal
yellow socks No error (a) accustomed in taking
(c) (d) (b) accustomed to taking
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence kesâ Part (b) ceW 'to' kesâ mLeeve hej (c) accustomed to taking
'on' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛepe nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ insisted kesâ meeLe 'on' (d) No Improvement
Preposition use neslee nw leLee Prepostion kesâ yeeo Gerund Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW efJekeâuhe (b) accustomed to
taking keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Accustomed to kesâ yeeo
form keâe use neslee nw~
meeceevÙele: Gerund/ing from keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
Correct Sentence.
I am accustomed to taking rest after mid day meal.
She insisted on wearing yellow socks.
15. Character and not riches wins us respect.
Sentence Improvement: Below each sentence
(a) Character and not riches win us respect
three possible substituted are given for the
(b) Character and riches no wins us respect
italicized part. If one of them is better than the
(c) Character and no riches win us respect
italicized part indicate your response on the
(d) No Improvement.
answer sheet against the, corresponding letter
"a", "b" or "c". If none of the substitutes Ans. (d) : No improvement
improves the sentence, indicate "d" as your 16. I grace him a ten rupees note.
response on the answer sheet: (a) ten rupee note
11. I don't agree with your proposal. (b) a ten rupee note
(a) to your proposal (c) ten rupees note
(b) on your proposal (d) No Improvement
(c) for your proposal Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW 'a ten rupees note' kesâ mLeeve
(d) No Improvement hej 'a ten rupee note' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ idifinite
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW 'with' kesâ mLeeve hej to keâe ØeÙeesie article 'a' kesâ ØeÙeesie kesâ keâejCe 'rupee' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~
GefÛele nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Proposal kesâ Sense ceW 'Agree to Note– Ghejeskeäle JeekeäÙe ceW `ten rupee' Skeâ unit keâes efoKeelee nw
Something' keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ Dele: Ùen singular ceW ØeÙegkeäle nesiee~
Correct Sentence. Correct Sentence.
I grace him a ten rupee note.
I don't agree to your proposal.
17. There is no objection of Mohan and me going
12. He died from cholera.
(a) of Mohan and I going
(a) with
(b) in Mohan and my going
(b) of
(c) to Mohan's and my going
(c) because
(d) No Improvement.
(d) No Improvement
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW efJekeâuhe (c) keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW 'from' kesâ mLeeve hej 'of' keâe nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ objection kesâ yeeo 'to' preposition keâe ØeÙeesie
ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efkeâmeer yeerceejer mes cejves kesâ sense ceW die kesâ meeLe neslee nw~ leLee 'me' kesâ mLeeve hej Possessive adjective 'my' keâe
preposition 'of' keâe ØeÙeesie keâjles nw~ ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~
Correct Sentence. Correct Sentence.
He died of chalera. There is no objection to mohan's and my going.

BPSC AE Gen. English, 1995 228 YCT

18. I should have liked to have been there. 22. Equivocal
(a) I should have liked to be there (a) well-balanced
(b) I liked to have been there (b) worthless
(c) I should like to be there (c) forceful
(d) No Improvement (d) of doubtful meaning
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW YeeJeevegmeej 'to have been Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ Meyo Equivocal (efÉDeLeea/ mebefoiOe DeLeea) keâer
nearest meaning efJekeâuhe (d) of doubtful meaning
there' kesâ mLeeve hej 'to be there' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~
(mebosnemheo DeLe&) nesieer~
Correct Sentence.
I should have liked to be there.
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&-
worthless - yeskeâej
19. India as well as Pakistan were represented at
the conference forceful – meMeòeâ
(a) represented at the conference 23. Clandestine
(b) was represented at the conference (a) secret
(c) had represented at the conference (b) aloof
(d) No Improvement. (c) persistent
(d) doomed
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW were kesâ mLeeve hej was keâe
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ Meyo Clandestine (iegheÛeghe) keâer nearest
ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ peye JeekeäÙe ceW oes Noun as-well-as, and meaning secret (ieghle) nesieer~
not, along with mes pegÌ[keâj DeeÙes lees Verb keâe ØeÙeesie henues
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&-
Subject kesâ Devegmeej neslee nw~
aloof – Deueie
Correct Sentence.
persistent – ÂÌ{
India as well as Pakistan was represented at the
doomed - DehejeOeer
conference.
24. Poignant
20. He will come if you will call him
(a) serious
(a) If you shall call him
(b) unlikeable
(b) If you call him
(c) pathetic
(c) If you are calling him (d) touching
(d) No Improvement.
Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ Meyo Poignant(ceeefce&keâ) keâer nearest
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ Sentence ceW If you will call him kesâ mLeeve meaning touching (ceeefce&keâ) nesieer~
hej if you call him keâe use nesiee Fme lejn kesâ JeekeäÙe ceW If Jeeueer DevÙe efJekeâuhees kesâ DeLe&-
close keâes Present Indefinite leLee main closes keâes future Serious – iebYeerj
Indefinite ceW ØeÙeesie keâjles nQ~ Unlikable - veehemebo
Correct Sentence. Pathetic - efvejeMe/keâ®Ceepevekeâ
He will come if you call him. 25. Anathema
Vocabulary: Choose the word nearest in (a) object of loathing
meaning and indicate your response on the (b) opposition
answer sheet: (c) after effect
21. Ethnic (d) state of disorder
(a) distinctive Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ Meyo Anathema (DeefYeMeehe) keâer nearest
(b) artistic meaning efJekeâuhe "Object of loathing" ceW oer ieÙeer nw~ DevÙe
(c) racial efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw~
(d) bigoted Opposition – efJejesOe
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ Meyo Ethnic (mebpeeleerÙe) keâer nearest After effect – yeeo keâe ØeYeeJe
meaning, racial (peeleerÙe) nesieer~ State of disorder - DeJÙeJemLee
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& 26. Jargon
distinctive – efJeMes<e (a) rivalry
Artistic – keâueelcekeâ (b) specialized language
(c) judgment
bigoted – Oecee&Oe
(d) discordant sound
BPSC AE Gen. English, 1995 229 YCT
Ans. (d) : Jargon (Meyo peeue/ efvejLe&keâ yekeâJeeme) keâer nearest Selecting words : In this diction you are given
a choice of your words 'a', 'b', 'c', 'd' Choose
meaning efJekeâuhe "Discordant sound" ceW oer ieÙeer nw~ DevÙe
the impropriate word to fill in the four gaps
efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw~ and indicate your choice on the answer sheet.
Rivalry – efJejesOe/ØeeflemheOee& Use
few a few little a little
Specialised Language – efJeMes<e Yee<ee
(a) (b) (c) (d)
where necessary in the blank spaces below:
Judgement – efveCe&Ùe
31. A man makes..................friends in the wilds.
27. Lithe Ans. (a) : Ghejeskeäle JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW "few" keâe ØeÙeesie
(a) light nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ few keâe ØeÙeesie countable sense ceW ‘‘kegâÚ ner’’ (ve
(b) heavily muscled kesâ yejeyej) kesâ DeLe& ceW Negative sense ceW efkeâÙee peelee nw~
(c) flexible Correct Sentence
(d) lame A man makes few friends in the wilds.
Ans. (c) : Lithe (ueÛeeruee/vece&) keâer nearest meaning efJekeâuhe 32. There is ............... milk in the jug: you can use
it for tea.
"flexible" ceW oer ieÙeer nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw~
Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW ‘a little’ keâe ØeÙeesie
Light – ØekeâeMe/ nukeâe
nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘a little’ keâe ØeÙeesie ‘Uncountable sense’ ceW
Lame – Deheeefnpe/hebieg ‘LeesÌ[e’ kesâ DeLe& ceW Positive sense ceW efkeâÙee peelee nw~
28. Analgesic Correct Sentence
(a) stretching mechanism There is a little milk in the jug. you can use it for tea.
(b) stimulant 33. There are ..............mangoes on the tree.
(c) deep breathing programme Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW ‘a few’ keâe ØeÙeesie
(d) pain remedy nes iee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘a few’ keâe ØeÙeesie ‘countable sense’ ceW ‘‘kegâÚ’’
Ans. (d) : Analgesic ‘‘oo&-efveJeejkeâ Deew<eefOe’’ keâer nearest kes â DeLe& ceW Positive sense ceW efkeâÙee peelee nw~
Correct Sentence
meaninng efJekeâuhe "Pain remedy" ceW oer ieÙeer nw~ DevÙe
There are a few mangoes on the tree.
efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& - 34. There is ................hope of his survival.
Stimulant – Gòespekeâ heoeLe& Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW Little keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee
29. Glean keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘little’ keâe ØeÙeesie uncountable sense ceW ‘LeesÌ[e ner’ (ve
(a) to move silently kesâ yejeyej) kesâ DeLe& ceW negative sense ceW efkeâÙee peelee nw~
(b) agow thin Correct Sentence
(c) shine faintly There is Little hope of his survival.
(d) gather because since as when
Use
Ans. (d) : Glean (yešesjvee) keâer nearest meaning efJekeâuhe (a) (b) (c) (d)
in the blank spaces below:
gather (Fkeâšd"e keâjvee) ceW oer ieÙeer nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&-
35. I cannot go .............I have no ticket .
To move silently – Meeefvle mes nševee
Shine Faintly – Demhe°leehetJe&keâ Ûecekeâvee Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW "because" (keäÙeeWefkeâ)
30. Garish keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
(a) graceful Correct sentence
(b) flavorsome I cannot go because I have no ticket.
(c) showy 36. .............you have been here before, you'd better
lead the way.
(d) argumentative
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW "since" (peye mes/kesâ
Ans. (c) : Garish (YeÌ[keâeruee/efoKeeJešer) keâer nearest meaning
yeeo) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee
efJekeâuhe (c) showy (efoKeeJešer) ceW oer ieF& nw, DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ nw~
DeLe&– veesš– Since keâe ØeÙeesie JeekeäÙe kesâ Meg®Deele ceW keâjves mes ‘peye mes’
Graceful– megvoj/megKeo Deewj JeekeäÙe kesâ yeerÛe ceW keâjves hej Ùen ‘mes’ keâe DeLe& oslee nw~
Flavour some– mJeeefo°/jmeeruee Correct sentence
Since you have been here before, you'd better lead the
Argumentative– efJeJeeohetCe&/leeefke&âkeâ
way.
BPSC AE Gen. English, 1995 230 YCT
37. ...............we are early, let's have a drink first. 44. Take the book............your hands.
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW "as" (pewmeeefkeâ/Ûetbefkeâ) Ans. (a): Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjkeäle mLeeve ceW in (ceW) keâe ØeÙeesie
keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
Correct sentence
Correct sentence
As we are early, let's have a drink first.
Take the book in your hands.
38. You can't expect him to know the
story............he hasn't read it. 45. He spoke ...............his holiday .
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW "because" (keäÙeeWefkeâ) Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjkeäle mLeeve ceW about (yeejs ceW) keâe
keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~ ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
Correct sentence Correct sentence
You can't expect him to know the story because he He spoke about his holiday.
hasn't read it.
46. Open the book.............page three.
some any one ones
Use
(a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjkeäle mLeeve ceW at (hej (efveef§ele
Where necessary in the blank spaces below: meceÙe)) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe&
39. They say the blue............are best. oslee nw~
Ans. (d) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'ones' [DeefOekeâ Correct sentence
(Ûeerpe/ueesie)] keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueÙes GheÙegòeâ Open the book at page three.
DeLe& oslee nw~ across over round through
Correct Sentence Use
(a) (b) (c) (d)
They say the blue ones are best.
47. He came...................to see us yesterday.
40. I want ...............oranges.
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjkeäle mLeeve ceW round keâe ØeÙeesie
Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjkeäle mLeeve ceW Some ‘kegâÚ’ keâe
ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Fmekesâ yeeo ØeÙegòeâ noun 'oranges' 'Plural nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ "came round" keâe DeLe& Deeme-heeme Deevee neslee nw
number nw~ Deewj Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
Correct sentence Correct sentence
I want some oranges. He came round to see us yesterday.
41. Don't make.............noise. 48. Satish's parents came.............to spend a day
Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjkeäle mLeeve ceW Any (keâesF&) keâe with us.
ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Fmekeâe ØeÙeesie negative sentence ceW efkeâÙee Ans. (b) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjkeäle mLeeve ceW over keâe ØeÙeesie
peelee nww~ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ "came over" keâe DeLe& ‘‘DeÛeevekeâ mes efJeÛeej Deevee’’
Correct sentence neslee nw Deewj Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
Don't make any noise.
Correct sentence
42. So this is your house It's a very pretty............
Satish's parents came over to spend a day with us.
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjkeäle mLeeve ceW One (Skeâ/Skeâner)
49. The business has not come.................
keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw
Correct sentence Ans. (a) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjkeäle mLeeve ceW across keâe ØeÙeesie
So this is your house it's a very pretty one. nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ "came across" keâe DeLe& ‘‘mecePevee’’ neslee nw Deewj
Use
in at on about Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
(a) (b) (c) (d) Correct sentence
in the blank spaces below: The business has not come across.
43. He is sitting..................a chair.
50. He has not come....................me for long time.
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjkeäle mLeeve ceW On (hej) keâe ØeÙeesie
Ans. (c) : Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjkeäle mLeeve ceW round keâe ØeÙeesie
nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
veesš- efyevee nlLes keâer kegâmeea hej yew"ves hej Preposition "On" Deewj nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ "came round" keâe DeLe& ‘‘Deeme-heeme Deevee’’ neslee
nlLes Ùegòeâ kegâmeea hej yew"ves hej Preposition "in" keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ nw Deewj Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
Correct sentence Correct sentence
He is sitting on a chair. He has not come round me for long time.

BPSC AE Gen. English, 1995 231 YCT

 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 1995
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER-III)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 1 Hour ] [ Marks : 100

1. Head office of ESCAP (Economic and Social 5. Which of the following is not a method of
Commission for Asia and Pacific) is situated at calculating national income?
(a) Manila (b) Hong Kong (a) Income method
(c) Bangkok (d) Tokyo (b) Export-Import
Ans. (c) : United Nations Economic and Social (c) Production method
Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is one of
(d) Expenditure method
the five regional commissions under the jurisdiction of
the United Nations Economic and Social Council. It Ans. (b) : The National Income of a country can be
was established in the year 28 March, 1947, ESCAP measured by three alternative methods–
(Economic and Social Commission for Asia and 1. Production Method
Pacific) is situated at Bangkok, Thailand. 2. Income Method
2. The term 'paper gold' is associated with 3. Expenditure Method
(a) Deficit budgeting Import-Export were considered during the measurement
(b) Currencies still in gold standard of balance of trade.
(c) Special drawing rights on the IMF
6. India's foreign trade is highest with
(d) Special facility of the World Bank
(a) OPEC countries
Ans. (c) : Special drawing rights of the International
Monetary Fund is also called 'Paper Gold'. They are allotted (b) East European countries
only to member countries by IMF and cannot used by (c) Developing countries
private parties. They are supplementary to forex reserves. (d) OECP countries
3. Finances are distributed between the Centre Ans. (b) : India's foreign trade is highest with East
and the State on the basis of the European countries during the period of 1993-94. East
recommendation of the European countries like Germany and United Kingdom
(a) Planning Commission respectively with sharing 6.64 percents and 6.42 percent
(b) Public Accounts Committee of trade. At current time US is one of the country with
(c) Finance Commission India has trade surplus.
(d) National Development Council 7. When was RBI nationalized?
Ans. (c) : According to Constitution of India, President (a) 1948 (b) 1969
is empowered to set up a Finance Commission after
(c) 1949 (d) 1980
every five years to make recommendations to him about
the distribution of net proceeds of taxes to be divided Ans. (c) : The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised
between the center and states. Article 280 of Indian with effect from 1st January, 1949 on the basis of the
Constitution deals with Finance Commission. N.K. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1948. All shares in the
Singh is the Chairman of 15th Finance Commission. capital of the Bank were deemed transferred to the
4. The Fourth Plan did not succeed because of Central Government on payment of a suitable
(a) Indo-China conflict compensation.
(b) Bangladesh refugee influx 8. 'Gresham's law' in Economics relates to
(c) Bad monsoons (a) Supply and demand
(d) Deteriorating price situation (b) Circulation of currency
Ans. (b) : Fourth Five Year Plan (1969-74) was the first (c) Distribution of goods and service
plan launched by Indira Gandhi Government. The
(d) Consumption and supply
country was fighting with population explosion,
unemployment, poverty. In addition, the situation in Ans. (b) : Gresham's law in economics is a monetary
East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) was becoming dire principle stating that- "bad money drives out good
because of the Indo-Pakistan war of 1971. Funds money. It was originally based on the composition of
Embarked for the industrial development had to be used minted coins and the value of the precious metals used
for the war effort. in them.

BPSC AE (GS), 1995 232 YCT

9. State Bank of India was known as ............ 14. Who was the first leader of the Opposition in
before Nationalization. the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Federal Bank (b) Presidency Bank (a) Y.B. Chavan (b) Bhola Paswan
(c) Imperial Bank (d) None of the above (c) Kamlapati Tripathy (d) C.M. Stephen
Ans. (c) : State Bank of India was known as Imperial Ans. (*) : Shri Shyam Nandan Mishra is the first leader
Bank before Nationalization in 1955. SBI is the 43rd of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha (December 1969
largest bank in the world and ranked 221 in the to March 1971).
Fortune Global 500 list in 2020. It is largest Shri Bhola Paswan is the fourth leader of the
nationalized bank in India with 23% market share by Opposition in the Rajya Sabha (24 February 1978 to 23
assests and 25% share of total loan and deposits market. March 1978).
10. A deflector is a technique of 15. Match the following:
(a) adjusting for changes in price level A. Saddler 1. Recommendation of
(b) adjusting for change in commodity Commission Rowlatt Act
(c) accounting for decline of GNP B. Lyall Commission 2. Police
(d) accounting for higher increase of GNP Administration
Ans. (a) : A deflector is a technique of adjusting for C. Frazer 3 Famine
changes in price level. The GDP price deflector, also Commission
known as the GDP deflector or the implicit price D. Sedition 4. University
deflator, measures the changes in prices for all of the Commission Education
goods and services produced in an economy. A B C D
11. In Lahore Session, Congress declared its aim of (a) 1 2 3 4
'Full independence'. In which year this was (b) 1 2 4 3
held? (c) 2 1 4 3
(a) 1947 (b) 1929 (d) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1927 (d) 1925 Ans. (d) : Correct match are as–
Ans. (b) : In 1929, the Indian National Congress Saddler Commission (1917) University Education
Session was held at Lahore in 1929. In this session Lyall Commission (1897) Famine
Congress took the resolution on Poorna Swaraj or Frazer Commission Police Administration
complete independence. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru was the Sedition Commission (1917) Recommendation of
President of this session. Congress decided to observe Rowlatt Act
26th January, 1930 as the total independence or Purna
16. Mahatma Gandhi entered Indian politics with
Swaraj Day. Pt. Nehru hosted Indian tricolour flag on
movement?
the bank of river Ravi.
(a) Surat session
12. What was 'Abhinav Bharat'? (b) Champaran
(a) Political party
(c) Non-cooperation movement
(b) Newspaper (d) Dandi March
(c) Secret terrorist organization
Ans. (b) : After returning from South Africa in 1915.
(d) None of the above
Mahatma Gandhi entered Indian politics with
Ans. (c) : 'Abhinav Bharat' was a Secret terrorist Champaran Movement in 1917. Champaran Satyagraha
organization. It was started by Veer Damodar Savarkar was the first successful Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi.
in 1904. It was named after the Abhinav Bharat Society. Raj Kumar Shukla was an Indigo farmer from
Savarkar wrote a book titled "The History of the War of Champaran (Bihar) requested Gandhiji to visit
Indian Independence. Champaran.
13. Who was the 'Political Gure' of Mahatma 17. Which of the following statements about Simon
Gandhi? Commission is correct?
(a) Ranade (b) Gokhale 1. There was no Indian representation
(c) Chitta Ranjan Das (d) Tilak 2. It omitted any mention of dominion status
Ans. (b) : Mahatma Gandhi returned from South Africa 3. It recommended no transfer of power
to India in 1915, he was personally guided by Gopal 4. It further perpetuated separate electorate
Krishna Gokhale. G.K. Gokhale is considered as the provision. Choose the correct option
'Political Guru' of Mahatma Gandhi, Servants of India (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only
society was founded by G.K. Gokhale in 1915. (c) 4 only (d) All of the above
BPSC AE (GS), 1995 233 YCT
Ans. (d) : The Simon Commission was a group of 7 Ans. (d) : An Indian mathematician and Astronomer,
MP's from Britain who were sent to India in 1928 to Aryabhatta wrote one of the earliest known books on
study Constitutional reforms and make Maths and Astronomy called the " Aryabhatta " by
recommendations to the Government. The Simon Modern Scholars. In India, Aryabhatta is credited with
Commission was published in 1930's. It recommended the invention of Algebra.
the retention of separate Communal electorates. It 22. Which of the following battles marked the real
omitted any mention of dominion status. It beginning of Mughal Empire in India?
recommended no transfer of power. Simon Commission (a) First battle of Panipat
had no Indian representation. This commission was also (b) Second battle of Panipat
called as White Commission so all the given statements (c) Battle of Talikota
are correct. (d) Battle of Haldighati
18. Match the list: Ans. (a) : The First battle of Panipat was fought
A. Abul Kalam Azad 1. India Divided between the Invading Forces of Babar and Ibrahim Lodi
B. V.D. Savarkar 2. India Wins which took place on 21st April 1526 AD in North India.
Freedom It marked the real beginning of the Mughal Empire.
C. Rajendra Prasad 3. The Nation's Voice This was one of the earliest battles involving
gunpowder, firearms and field artillery.
D. Rajagopalachari 4. India War of
Independence 23. Mitakshara is a book on
Codes: (a) Medicine
(b) Astronomy
A B C D
(c) Hindu law of inheritance
(a) 2 4 1 3
(d) Dharmashastra
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 1 2 4 Ans. (a) : The Mitakshara is one of the schools
belonging to Hindu law and it is a legal trealise on
(d) 3 2 1 4
inheritance Chalukya Court in the 12th century.
Ans. (a) : Correct matches are as– It is most influential text in Hindu law and its principle
Abul Kalam Azad India Wins Freedom regarding proportion distribution property right.
V.D. Savarkar India War of Independence 24. Where did Shivaji formally crown himself in
Rajendra Prasad India Divided 1674?
Rajagopalachari The Nation's Voice (a) Raigarh (b) Kondana
19. Who was the first President of All India Trade (c) Tema (d) poona
Union Congress? Ans. (a) : In 1674, Shivaji crowned himself formally at
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Jawaharlal Nehru Raigarh. His crown chair was made higher than
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) V.V. Giri Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb.
Ans. (a) : All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) 25. When was Indian Penal Code formed?
was the Primary trade union organization in India (a) 1857 (b) 1861
working under the Indian National Congress. It was (c) 1873 (d) 1885
formed on 31 October, 1920 in Bombay. It's first Ans. (b) : The Indian Penal Code is the official criminal
President was Lala Lajpat Rai. AITUC present code of the Republic of India. It was formed on 6
President (2021) is Ramendra Kumar. October 1860 and came into force on 1 January 1862 in
20. Which of the following was not a farmers all British Presidencies, although it did not apply to the
revolt? Princely states, which had their own court and legal
(a) Champaran (b) Mopla system.
(c) Flag Satyagraha (d) Khera Satyagraha 26. Which is the Western-most limit of the Siwalik
Ans. (b) : Moplah Revolt of 1921 was not a farmers Hills?
revolt. It was the culmination of series of riots by (a) Pirpanjal (b) Patwar Basin
Mappila Muslim of Kerala against the British and (c) River Kosi (d) Morni Hills
Hindu Landlords in Malabar. It was led by Ans. (b) : Patwar Basin is the western most limit of the
Chakkiparamban Variyankunnathu Kunjahammed Haji. Shiwalik hills. It is located near the Rawalpindi district
21. Who among the following is credited with the of Pakistan adjoining with Indian Land Frontiers.
invention of Algebra? 27. The largest producer of bauxite:
(a) Medhatidhi (b) Bhaskara (a) Canada (b) India
(c) Apastamba (d) Aryabhatta (c) Australia (d) U.S.A.
BPSC AE (GS), 1995 234 YCT
Ans. (c) : Largest producer of bauxite in the world is 33. Which of the following is not a part of the
Australia followed by Guinea. Constitution?
28. Where are the Toda tribes found in India? (a) Preamble
(a) Garo hills (b) Higher Himalayas (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Nandadevi (d) None of the above (c) Directive Principles
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d) : Toda tribes mainly live in Nilgiri hills of the
Indian State of Tamil Nadu. Ans. (d) : In the Berubari Union case 1960, The
Supreme Court of India stated that 'Preamble is the key
29. Security Paper Mill is situated at
to open the mind of maker's but it cannot be considered
(a) Nasik (b) Hoshangabad as part of Indian Constitution.
(c) New Delhi (d) None of the above Kesvananda Bharti case 1973– In this case for the first
Ans. (b) : Security Paper Mill was established in 1968 time 13 Judges bench was assembled to hear a writ
at Hoshangabad, Madhya Pradesh and is one of the 9 petition held that–
units under security printing and minting corporation of • The Preamble of the Constitution will now be
India limited (SPMCIL). considered as part of the Constitution.
30. Coal is an example of In 1995 case of Union Government Vs. LIC of
(a) Igenous rock (b) Metamorphic rock India also, the Supreme Court has once again held
(c) Sedimentary rock (d) None of the above that preamble is the Integral Part of the Constitution
Ans. (c) : Coal is an example of Sedimentary rock. Coal but is not directly enforceable in a court of Justice in
is a biochemical sedimentary rock because coal is India.
formed from organic matter or sediments that comes 34. Which of the following is the Indian
from biological processes. contribution to Parliamentary procedures?
31. Members of Rajya Sabha are not associated (a) Zero Session
with (b) Cut motion
1. Public Accounts Committee (c) Adjournment motion
2. Estimates Committee (d) Guuillotine
3. Committee on public Undertakings Ans. (c) : Adjournment motion is the procedure for
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 adjournment of the business of the house for the
purpose of discussing a definite matter of urgent public
(c) 2 (d) 1 and 3
importance, which can be moved with the consent of the
Ans. (c) : There are some financial committee of Lok speaker.
Sabha with which members of Rajya Sabha are Primary objective of an adjournment motion is to draw
associated. These are– the attention of Lok Sabha to a recent matter of urgent
1. Committee on public accounts public importance with regard to which a motion or a
2. Committee on public undertakings. resolution with proper notice will be too late.
Estimates Committee–It was established in 1950. The 35. Indian Constitution has called India
Estimate Committee consists of not more than 30 (a) a federal
members who are selected by Lok Sabha only. The (b) a federation of States
main function is for scrutinise the budget estimates and (c) a Union of States
suggest economies in policy implementation.
(d) None of the above
32. Which of the following languages are in the 8th Ans. (c) : The Constitution of India establishes a
Schedule of the Indian Constitution but are not Federal system of Government as it contains all the
official languages in any state? usual feature of a federation, viz, Administration,
1. Sindhi 2. Sanskrit division of power, written constitution. Supermacy of
3. Kashmiri 4. Urdu constitution, rigidity of constitution independent
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 judiciary and bicameralism.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of them
36. Alphabet and number are given in certain
Ans. (d) : There are 22 languages that have been order. Fill the place left (?) in the same order.
recognised in the 8th schedule of the Indian
Constitution. Part XVII of the Indian Constitution deals
with the official languages of India from Articles 343 to
351. In the given option Sindhi (Gujarat and
Maharashtra), Sanskrit (H.P. and Uttrakhand), Urdu
(J&K, UP, Bihar etc.), Kashmiri (Jammu and Kashmir)
are state official language.

BPSC AE (GS), 1995 235 YCT

 (a) C (b) I 39. ABCD is a rectangle and area of ABC is 15
(c) J (d) H cm. If EC = 2 BE then what will be the area of
Ans. (a) rectangle?

(a) 90 cm2 (b) 80 cm2

(c) 25 cm2 (d) 24 cm2
Ans. (a)

Option (c) will be the correct option.

37. The pie chart below represents the annual
agriculture production of a State. If the
production of Sugar is 3,000 tonnes. What is
total production of rice and Wheat?
area of triangle
∆ ABE
1
⇒ AB × BE = 15cm 2
2
AB × BE = 30cm 2
Given,
EC = 2 BE
Area of the rectangle
(a) 8,000 tonnes (b) 6,000 tonnes
⇒ AB × BC [BC = 3BE]
(c) 4,000 tonnes (d) 3,000 tonnes
⇒ AB × 3BE
Ans. (b) : Production of sugar is = 3000 tonne
⇒ 3AB × BE
900 = 3000 tonne
⇒ 3 × 3D = 90 cm2
40. Which graph represents the motion of a body
with same speed?

(a) (b)

then total production of Rice & Wheat

⇒ 900 + 900
⇒ 1800 = 2 × 900 (c) (d)
⇒ 2 × 3000 tonne = 6000 tonne
1 1 1 1 Ans. (a) :
+ × 1
2 + 2× 2 2 2 2
38. Find that value of + × 3 41. What is the essential component of photo
2 + 2× 2 1 + 1 × 1 1 1 chromic glass?
2 2 2 2 (a) Silver Bromide
(a) 1 (b) 2 (b) Silver Iodide
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) Silver Chloride
Ans. (d) : (d) None of the above

BPSC AE (GS), 1995 236 YCT

Ans. (c) : Photo Chromic glasses are often made by Ans. (c) : Columbia chaired the movement of NAM
embedding Silver Chloride (AgCl) or another silver between 1995 and 1998. It joined the movement as an
halide in micro crystalline form. observer in 1974 and then became a permanent member
42. L.S.D. is extracted from which of the in 1983 after VII summit held in New Delhi. During its
following? chairing period, Columbia defended the movement and
promoted its modernization and strengthening. Current
(a) Algae (b) Fungi
head of NAM is President of Azerbaijan, Ilham Aliyev.
(c) Virus (d) Bacteria
47. In which city was Olympic held twice?
Ans. (b) : L.S.D. is one of the most potent, mood–
1. Paris 2. London
Changing chemicals. It is manufactured from Lysergic
3. Berlin 4. Seoul
Acid, which is found in the Ergot fungus that grows on
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
rye and other grains.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 4 only
43. Where is Central Cotton Research Institute
(CCRI) situated? Ans. (c) : Paris hosted Olympic Games in 1900 and
1924 and will host in 2024 while London already hosted
(a) Hyderabad (b) Bangalore
three times 1908, 1948 and 2012.
(c) Nagpur (d) Pune
48. Which of the following is the host of 2002 Asian
Ans. (c) : ICAR – Central Institute for Cotton Research
Games?
founded by ICAR in 1976, to promote long term
(a) Japan (b) South Korea
research efforts in cotton production.
(c) India (d) China
CCRI – Citrus Research Institute is an institute for
Ans. (b) : The 2002 Asian Games, also known as the
research in citrus fruits & horticulture at Nagpur
XIV Asian Games, was an international multi sport
Maharashtra. It falls under ICAR.
event held in Busan, South Korea from September 29 to
44. Marijuana is a October 14, 2002 with the football event commenced 2
(a) Sedative days before opening ceremony. There were 419 events
(b) Optiate narcotic in 38 sports. The first in medal tally was held by China
(c) Stimulant followed by South Korea and then Japan. Total 44
(d) Hallucinogen countries participated. 2022 Asian Games are due to
Ans. (c&d) : Stimulants–These drugs elevate your happen in Hangzhou China.
mood and increase your alertness and energy. 49. 1995 has been celebrated as
Hallucinogen–This type of drug alters your perception (a) Year for homeless
of reality by changing the way the nerve cells in your (b) International tolerance year
brain communication with each other. (c) Year for peace
Marijuana also called weed, herb, pot, grass and a vast (d) Year for girl child
number of other slang terms is a greenish clay mixture Ans. (b) : In 1995, to mark the United Nations Year for
of the dried flowers of Cannabi's Sativa. Tolerance and the 125th anniversary of the birth of
45. What is 'Taliban'? Mahatma Gandhi, UNESCO created a prize for the
(a) News agency promotion of tolerance and non-violence.
(b) Rebel Group 50. Who among the following is elected President
(c) Ruling party of Afghanistan of France?
(d) None of the above (a) Alain Juppe
Ans. (c) : The Taliban is an extreme Islamic group, (b) Carlos Saul Menem
which ruled Afghanistan from 1996 to 2001. They say (c) Les Aspin
they are followers of Islam, but many people do not (d) Jacques Chirac
Ans. (d) : Jacques Rane Chirac was a French Politician
agree with this, as their beliefs are much more extreme
than those of the majority of the Muslim. who served as President of France from 1995 to 2007.
46. Which of the following countries is the current Chirac was previously the Prime Minister of France
head of the Non-Aligned Movement? from 1974 to 1976 and from 1986 to 1988. He was born
(a) Indonesia (b) Philippines on 29 November 1932. He died on 26 September 2019.
(c) Columbia (d) Malaysia • At present President of France is Emmanuel Macron.

BPSC AE (GS), 1995 237 YCT

 Bihar Public Service Commission Exam, 1995
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL ENGINEERING SCIENCE (PAPER-IV)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 1 Hour ] [ Marks : 100

1. Minimum force required to move a body on a 2. Newton's second law of motion states, "The rate of
horizontal surface will be proportional to change of momentum is directly proportional to the
impressed force, and takes place in the same direction,
(a) sin φ / cos (θ – φ) (b) sin φ / cos (θ – φ) in which the force acts."
(c) cos φ / cos (θ – φ) (d) cos φ / sin (θ + – φ) Rate change of momentum
Where φ = tan–1 µ and θ is inclination of the ∆P mv1 − mv 2 ∆v
surface with respect to horizontal. = = = m× = ma
∆t ∆t ∆t
Ans. (a) : Let, P is applied force at an angle θ ∴ F ∝ rate change of momentum
F ∝ ma, F = cma (C = Constant)
r r
F = ma
3. Newton's third law of motion states, "To every
action, there is always an equal and opposite
reaction."
3. The gravitational force of attraction between
the earth and sun is balanced by
(a) centripetal force (b) centrifugal force
In equilibrium condition, (c) direct force (d) none of these
P cosθ = F Ans. (b) : Centripetal Force or Pseudo Force – If an
object moving in a circle and experience an outward
P cosθ = µRN ------------- (I)
force then this force is called centrifugal force (Fc).
P cosθ = tanφ RN
RN + P sinθ = W
RN = W– P sinθ ------------- (II)
P cosθ = tanφ (W–Psinθ)
sin φ
P cosθ = (W–Psinθ)
cos φ
Ex– (a) A Bike making a turn
P cosθ.cosφ = Wsinφ – P sinφ .sinθ (b) The gravitational force of attraction b/w the
P [cosθ.cosφ + sinθ.sinφ] = W sinφ earth and sun. Balanced by centrifugal force.
P cos(θ–φ) = W sinφ (c) Washing machines.
Centripetal Force– Centripetal Force is defined as the
W sin φ force required to keep a body moving in a circular path
P=
cos ( θ − φ ) and direct towards the centre of a circle
Ex– (a) The revolution of the moon around the earth.
2. Newton's first law of motion (b) Turning a car
(a) defines an inertia reference frame (c) Spinning a ball on a string
(d) Planets orbiting around the sun
(b) is used for measuring inertia of bodies
(e) Going through a loop on a roller coaster
(c) is used for calculating displacement
(d) none of the above
Ans. (a)
1. Newtons' first law of motion states, "Everybody
continues in its state of rest of uniform motion, in a
straight line, unless it is acted upon by some external
force." Newton's first law of motion defines an inertia
reference frame.

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 1995 238 YCT

4. The product of mass and velocity is called Ans. (a) : The Telescopes used in surveying
(a) power (b) moment instruments consists of metal tubes are moving axially
(c) momentum (d) impulse within the other.
Ans. (c) : Momentum– Defined as the product of the There are mainly two types of telescope
mass and velocity of an object (a) The external focusing telescope
m = mass (b) The Internal focusing telescope
p = mv
v = velocity Most of the modern levelling instruments are designed
with internal focusing telescope.
Power (P)– Power is the rate of doing work
The telescope in which focusing is achieved internally
w w = work with a concave lens is known as internal focusing
P=
t t = time telescope. In an internal focusing telescope the
Moment (M)– The moment of a force is a measure of objective and eyepiece are kept at a fixed distance and
its tendency to cause a body to rotate about a specific focusing is achieved by a double concave lens
point or axis. mounted in a short tube capable of sliding axially
Impulse (I)– The product of a force and time along the between the eyepiece and the objective with a rack
force axis is called the impulse. and pinion arrangement attached to the focusing screw.
– impulse is a way to measure change in momentum. 8. Sensitivity of a voltmeter is given by the
5. If the efficiency of a machine is less than 50%, (a) reciprocal of full scale deflection current
it will be a (b) ohms per volt
(a) reversible machine (c) both of above
(b) irreversible machine (d) none of the above
(c) self locking machine Ans. (c) : Sensitivity of a voltmeter is given by–
(d) none of these 1
(i) Reciprocal of full scale deflection current as  
Ans. (b & c) : Reversible machine–If a machine is  Ifs 
capable of doing some work in the reversed direction,
after the effort is removed then the machine is known And (ii) ohms per volt (ohms/V)
as reversible machine. 9. The scale of a wattmeter gives maximum
indication of 100. What will be the
Condition – efficiency should be more than 50%
multiplication factor if the current and voltage
Non reversible or self locking machine– if a machine ranges are 5A and 400V.
is not capable of doing some work in the reversed (a) 1.25 (b) 80
direction after the effort is removed, called non- (c) 20 (d) 1/20
reversible machine or self locking machine.
Ans. (c) : Given,
Condition – efficiency should be less than 50% wattmeter scale range = 100
voltage range = 400V
6. The smallest basic unit of length in metric
system is taken as current range = 5A
(a) millimetre (b) centimetre voltage range × current range
M(multiplication factor) =
(c) metre (d) kilometre range of wattmeter scale

Ans. (a) : Unit of length in metric system– 400 × 5

= = 20
Decreasing order– 100
Kilometer – 1000m 10. A single phase induction type energy meter is
Meter – 1m (a) an ampere-hour-meter
Decimeter – 10–1 m (b) a volt-hour-meter
Centimeter – 10–2 m (c) watt-hour-meter
Millimeter – 10–3 m (d) wattmeter
Micrometer – 10–6 m Ans. (c) : Single phase induction type energy meter is
Nanometer – 10–9 m also popularly known as watt-hour meter.
7. Modern levels are generally fitted with a 11. In subsequent loading of material "which was
telescope which is : loaded beyond its yield-point, then its
(a) internal focusing (a) elastic limit is reduced but yield stress
(b) external focusing increases
(c) both internal and external focusing (b) elastic limit is increased but yield stress
(d) none of the above decrease
BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 1995 239 YCT
 (c) both elastic limit and yield stress decrease (a) maximum principal stress
(d) none of the above (b) the difference of corresponding principal
Ans. (a) : stresses
(c) the sum of the corresponding principal
12. The maximum stress, developed in a cantilever
stresses
of 1cm square cross-section and 1m long
(d) none of the above
having a load of 10kg at the free end, will be
(a) 1 kg/cm (b) 10 kg cm Ans. (b) : Maximum shear stress theory (Guest &
Tresca's theory)
(c) 10 kg/cm2 (d) 6000 kg/cm2
→ Maximum shear stress theory of failure states that
Ans. (d) Given, l = 1m, b = h = 1 cm, W = 10 kg the stress at which failure occurs in simple tension is
equal to the difference of corresponding principle
stresses.

We know that,
Maximum B.M. (Mmax) = WL –
M = WL
= 10 × 100 σx + σy
2
 σ − σy 
y = D/2 σ1,2 = ±  x  + τ xy
2

2  2 
bh 3
σ1 − σ 2
I= τ max =
12 2
M σ E τmax ≥ σ yt
Bending equation = =
I y R
According to maximum shear stress theory τmax <
My 0.5σy and hence it is safe (from experiment τmax < 0.57
σ=
I σy).
10kg × 100cm × 0.5cm As ductile materials are weak in shear and this theory
= = 6000kg / cm 2 concern about shear failure therefore it is
13 cm 4
1× predominantly used for ductile materials.
12
13. The number of points, at which the bending 16. Which one the following is used in roads?
moment is zero in thin oval cylinders subjected (a) granite (b) basalt
to internal pressure, is (c) limestone (d) none of these
(a) 2 (b) 4 Ans. (a)
(c) 8 (d) it is not true Granite– An igneous-plutonic rock.
Ans. (d) : In thin oval cylinders subjected to internal used in – Architectural construction ornamental
pressure the bending moment zero at only on centre. stone road & monuments
No. of points where B.M zero = 1 Basalt– An igneous volcanic rock
used in – aggregate
14. A hollow shaft of the same cross-sectional area
Limestone– A sedimentary rock
as that of solid shaft can resist.
used in – manufacture of Portland cement
(a) less torque
production of lime, Fiberglass, glass
(b) equal torque
17. The standard size of an ordinary brick is
(c) twice the amount of torque
(d) none of these (a) 22.5 cm × 19.0 cm × 0.0 cm
(b) 20 cm × 19.0 cm × 9 cm
Ans. (d) : The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft
having the same weight as that of a solid shaft is more (c) 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
than the torque transmitted by the solid shaft. Power (d) none of the above
transmitted by the hollow shaft is directly proportional Ans. (c)
to the torque transmitted by the shaft. Brick Size
15. The maximum shear stress theory of failure Standard or modular size → 19×9×9 cm
states that the stress at which failure occurs in Nominal size → 20cm×10cm×10cm
simple tension is equal to Traditional size → 23cm×11.4cm×7.6cm

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 1995 240 YCT

18. The initial setting time of quick-setting cement (a) 10% by volume of cement
is (b) 10% by weight of cement
(a) 30 seconds (c) both the above
(b) 5 minutes (d) none of the above
(c) 30 minutes Ans. (b) : Fineness test is sieve method– weight of
(d) greater than 30 minutes residue left after sieve through IS sieve no. 9 (90µ)
Ans. (b) ·10% for opc (Ordinary Portland cement)
Cement Initial Final ·10% for Portland Pozzolona cement
setting time setting time 22. The metals which provide corrosion resistance
Ordinary Portland 30 min 10 hrs in steel are
cement (a) S, P, Pb
Rapid hardening 30 min 10 hrs (b) Cr, Ni
cement (c) Mn, Si, Ni, Mo
Quick setting cement 5 min 30 min (d) Si, Al, Ti
Low heat cement 1 hr 10 hr Ans. (b) : Steel → It is an alloy composed of
19. Woodwork should be painted to (iron + carbon + chromium + copper + magnesium +
(a) prevent against weathering effect nickel + silicon – etc.)
(b) impart better appearance Chromium + Nickel– are very resistant to corrosion &
(c) both the above other chemical reactions.
(d) none of the above 23. The principle of a group incentive plan is to
Ans. (c) : Wood work is painted to prevent against– (a) evaluate the collective performance of the
weathering effect & import better appearance. group
Surface Preparation– The wood should be well (b) calculate total incentives and earnings
seasoned dried cleaned and the surface made smooth (c) divide the earnings amongst workers in equal
with an emery paper nails. If any should be driven or any other proportions
down the surface by at least 3mm (d) all of the above
Priming Coat Ans. (d) : Under individual incentive system workers
Ingredient Exterior are paid on the basis of their personal performance
Exterior Interior their wages will be directly linked to efforts. A worker
work work may improve his return creation by raising the level of
Red lead 0.03 kg 0.12 kg output.
White Lead 4.5 kg 3.6 kg 24. The technique of C.P.M. is
Raw Linseed oil 2.27 litres 0.57 litres (a) activity oriented (b) event oriented
Litharge 0.06 kg 0.45 kg (c) both of the above (d) none of the above
20. What type of glass should generally be used in Ans. (a) : CPM – Critical Path Method
bathrooms? (a) Activity oriented
(a) ground glass (b) wired glass (b) Deterministic approach
(c) foam glass (d) all of them (c) Only single time estimate for each activity
Ans. (d) : Wired glass– Wired mesh is put in the glass (d) Normal distribution approach
while rolling during manufacture of glass which keeps (e) Cost main concern
the pieces of glass held together. 25. The technique of PERT is
Foam glass– Foam glass is a porous glass foam (a) activity oriented (b) event oriented
material. It advantages as a building material in clued (c) both of the above (d) none of the above
its light weight, high strength and thermal and acoustic Ans. (b) :
insulating properties.
PERT– Programe evaluation review technique
Ground glass– Ground or frosted glass is widely used
(a) event oriented
as a weather and heat proof light diff. user in ambient
lighting mainly on glass covers or enclosure for lamp (b) probablistic approach
fixtures and sometimes or incandescent bulbs. (c) β–distribution
(d) 3-time estimates (to, tp, tm)
21. When standard fineness test is performed on a
sample of 100 gm cement, then the residue (e) useful for new type of project
should not exceed (f) time main concern

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 1995 241 YCT

26. The breaker-even point can be calculated by 29. Frictional losses in turbulent flow are
the relation where P is the selling price of each proportional to
unit and F is the fixed cost. V is either variable (a) fluid velocity
cost per unit or total variable cost. (b) square of fluid velocity
V F (c) fluid temperature
(a) (b)
1– F/ P 1– V / P (d) none of theses
1 P Ans. (b) : Friction losses in Turbulent flow–
(c) (d)
F–V/P 1– F/ V 2
Where P is the selling price of each unit and F is Darcy weisbach equation ⇒ h f = f L v
the fixed cost. V is either variable cost per unit or D 2g
total variable cost. ∴ h F × v2
Ans. (*)
f → friction factor
fixed cost
Break even point =
Sales price – Variable Cost v → velocity of fluid
per unit per unit D → dia. of pipe

Given, fixed cost = F 30. The drag force on a ship will depend upon
selling price = P (a) Froude number
variable cost = V (b) Reynolds number
(c) both Froude and Reynolds numbers
F
Break even point = (d) none of the above
P–V
F Ans. (c) : Drag force on a ship will depend upon both
= Froude & Reynolds number.
1– V / P
27. The velocity of fluid particles in uniform flow 31. Boundary layer analysis is used for
are (a) high Reynolds number flow
(a) equal at all section (b) low Reynolds number flow
(b) not equal at all sections (c) flow of ideal fluid
(c) always dependent upon time (d) none of the above
(d) none of the above Ans. (b) : Boundary layer analysis is used for low
Ans. (a) : Uniform flow-A fluid is said to be uniform Reynolds number flow.
flow when the velocity of the fluid doesn't change with 32. The amount of heat flowing across a flat plate
space coordinate otherwise it is non-uniform flow. depends
∂
i.e.  = 0 
v (a) directly on the surface area
 ∂ s  (b) directly on the temperature difference
The liquid particles at all sections of pipes/channels (c) inversely upon the plate thickness
have same velocity. (d) all the above factors
∂v
Non uniform flow  ≠ 0 
Ans. (d) : Heat flowing across a flat vertical plate
 ∂s 
The liquid particle at different section of pipe/channel
have different velocities.
28. Bernoulli's equation is a
(a) momentum equation
(b) mechanical energy equation
(c) thermal energy equation According to Fourier's law of conductive heat transfer–
(d) none of the above
dT T −T
Ans. (b) Bernoulli's equation is a mechanical energy Qcond. = − kA = kA 1 2
dx L
equation which based on conservation of energy.
∴ Qcond. = f(k, A, ∆T, x)
According to Bernoulli's equation –
The amount of heat flowing across a flat plate depends
P v2 on directly on surface area (A)
+ + z = const. J/N
pg 2g → directly on the temp difference (∆T)
Each term represents energy per unit weight → inversely upon the plate thickness. (L)

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 1995 242 YCT

33. Water pipeline in cold countries is laid at a Ans. (a) : ∫ pdv → indicates closed system work
certain depth from the surface in order to and ∫-vdp → indicates open system work
(a) supply warm water
(b) supply chilled water 38. For the same compression ratio the efficiency
(c) prevent water from freezing of Otto cycle, as compared to Diesel cycle will
be
(d) none of the above
(a) same (b) less
Ans. (c) : An illustration of the range in temperatures
experienced at different depths in the ground during (c) more (d) none of the above
the year. The active layer thaws each summer and Ans. (c) : For same compression ratio :
freezes each winter, while the permafrost layer remains efficiency ηotto cycle > ηdiesel cycle
below 00C all year.
34. The process of cooling of turbine blades is 39. If the specific speed is less than ten, then the
called turbine used is of the type
(a) conduction (a) radial flow reaction turbine
(b) radiation (b) an impulse turbine
(c) both conduction and radiation (c) propeller turbine
(d) none of these (d) none of the above
Ans. (a) : The process cooling of turbine blades is Ans. (b)
called conduction.
Name of Type of Specific speed
Heat is removing by convection in the process of
Turbine reaction (NS)
cooling of turbine blades.
Turbine
35. Ratio of energy absorbed to the total incident (a) Pelton Impulse turbine 10 ≤ Ns ≤ 35
energy is called
turbine → single jet
(a) absorptivity (b) emissivity
(c) reflectivity (d) none of the above 35 ≤ Ns ≤ 60
multiple jet
Ans. (a) : Absorptivity (α)→ It is the ratio of energy
absorbed to the total incident energy. (b) Old Reaction turbine 60 ≤ Ns ≤ 300
Francis
Q
α = abs Modern Mixed flow
Qi
Francis turbine
Emissivity (∈)– Defined as the ratio of emissive power
(c) Kaplan Reaction turbine 300 ≤ Ns ≤
of real body to the emissive power of black body.
Turbine 1000
E
∈= 40. The type of pump used for water supply in the
Eb
city is :
Reflectivity (τ)– Reflectivity is the fraction of incident
(a) reciprocating pump (b) centrifugal pump
radiation to reflected radiation.
(c) axial pump (d) none of these
Q
τ= Ans. (b) : Centrifugal pump → convert the mechanical
Q ref
energy into hydraulic energy by centrifugal force on
36. Work done during free expansion is zero the liquid.
because → used to move liquid through a piping system.
(a) pdv = 0 (b) vdp = 0 ex. – water supply in the city.
(c) pv = 0 (d) none of these
41. An energy source whose resistance is 40 kΩ is
Ans. (a) : Free Expansion–It is also an unrestrained
expansion whose expansion against vacuum. It is a connected to load of 200Ω. The source will be
case of irreversible process and in the case of free (a) a current source
expansion. (b) a voltage-source
δQ = dE + δW (c) both current and voltage source
δQ = 0, δW = 0, dE = 0, dU = 0 (d) none of the above
But change in entropy (∆S) ≠ 0 Ans. (a) : In the given question internal resistance
37. The difference between ∫ pdv and ∫-vdp gives (40kΩ) of energy source is high.
(a) flow work (b) kinetic energy So, energy source will be current source because
(c) intrinsic energy (d) none of these current source have high internal resistance.

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 1995 243 YCT

 42. The efficiency of power transformer is of the 45. A commercial alternator has
order of (a) rotating armature and stationary field
(a) 50% (b) 75% (b) stationary armature and rotating field
(c) M% (d) 100% (c) both armature and field rotatary
Ans. (b) : Ideally the efficiency of transformer is (d) none of the above
100% but practically it is not possible due to various Ans. (b) : A commercial alternator has stationary
types of losses such as core losses or ohmic losses armature and rotating magnetic field.
another types of losses so practically the value of Advantages of stationary armature–rotating field
efficiency of a transformer is usually more than 90%. alternator
Most appropriate answer is 75%. • The insulation of stationary armature winding is
43. When a bar magnet is bent at its centre in the easier.
shape of L; its magnetic moment as compared • Armature windings can be constructed more rigidly
to its original value will be to prevent deformation due to any mechanical stress.
1 1 • The current is drawn directly from fixed terminal on
(a) time (b) time the stator without the use of brush contact.
2 2
(c) 2 time (d) none of these 46. Highly doped-part of the transistor is
(a) emitter (b) base
Ans. (b)
(c) collector (d) none of these
Ans. (a) : In most transistors, emitter is heavily doped.
Its job is to emit or inject electrons in to the base.
These bases are lightly doped and very thin. It passes
The pole strength of the magnet be m the initially, the most of the emitter injected electrons on to the
distance is l. collector.
The magnetic moment M = ml ------ (i) 47. Traditional coal mining from underground
After bending into a L shape of magnet. tunnels is
(a) expensive
(b) not all the available coal is mined
2 2

Ql ' =   +  
l l (c) it involves dangerous working condition
(d) all the above
2 2 Ans. (d) : All the above
l 48. Air masses of marine origin have high
l' = concentration of the following elements :
2 (a) Na, Ca.K (b) Au, Ag, Cu
M' = ml'
(c) Pn., S., P (d) none of these
l
M' = m ------- (ii) Ans. (d) :
2
49. The primary treatment for domestic sewage
From equation (i) and (ii) consists of the removal of
M (a) suspended particles
M' =
2 (b) biodegradable pollutants
(c) absorption
44. At light load the field circuit of a d.c. shunt (d) none of these
motor gets opened, then the motor
Ans. (a) : Primary treatment– Removes material that
(a) will stop (b) will run normally
for domestic sewage will either float or readily settle
(c) will slow down (d) none of these out by gravity if includes physical process of
Ans. (d) : As we know screening, grit removal & sedimentation.
Speed of DC Shunt motor 50. The genetic variability in the population also
1 includes
N∝
φ (a) recombination
(b) gene flow
Field circuit open that means φ = 0
(c) mutation and genetic drift
so, if field winding gets opened then DC motor will
(d) all the above
attain dangerously high speed.
Ans. (d) : All the above

BPSC AE (Gen. Engg. Sci.), 1995 244 YCT

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 JPSC Assistant Engineer (Pre) Exam, 2019
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 2 Hours ] [ Exam Date : 19 Jan. 2020

1. Who became the first Minister of Education in Ganesh festival (1893) Shivaji festival (1895) he started
the Indian Government? Organised in Maharashtra.
(a) Zakir Hussain (b) Maulana Azad Annie Besant– Born in London, a British scholar,
(c) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai (d) G. B. Pant Social reformer and Indian Independence leader.
Ans. (b) : Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was Became the first lady who presented the Indian National
Independent India's first Education Minister in the Congress session in 1917 in Calcutta.
Ministry of Jawaharlal Nehru. He was a Educationist 4. Sher Shah's currency, "Dam", was made of
statesman and a freedom fighter. Born in Mecca, Saudi which metal?
Arabia in 1888, his family relocated to Calcutta (now (a) Silver (b) Gold
Kolkata) two years after his birth. In 1992 he was (c) Copper (d) None of these
posthumously conferred the Bharat Ratna Award, Ans. (c) : "Dam" was a small Indian copper coin. The
India's highest civilian award. coin was first introduced by Shershah Suri during his
G.B. Pant– One of the India's prominent freedom rule of India between 1540 and 1545 along with
fighter born in 1887 (10 September). He was first Mohur, the gold coin and Rupiya the silver coin.
Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh (UP).
5. In 1913 Lala Hardayal founded the Ghadar
Rafi Ahmad Kidwai– He born on 18 Feb. 1894 in
Party in
Masauli Village in Barabanki district, UP. Kidwai was
(a) New York (b) Tokyo
particularly active during Khilafat Movement in 1920s.
(c) San Francisco (d) Kabul
After Independence, he was appointed as the first
Communication Minister and inaugurated the first Ans. (c) : Lala Hardayal– Born in Delhi on Oct 14,
night air mail service. 1884 a indian revolutionary and scholar who was
dedicated to the removal of British Influence in India.
2. Rani Gaidinliu launched a tribal movement to
Ghadar Movement– An early 20th century movement
oust the British from
(a) Gujarat (b) Himachal Pradesh among Indians, Prinapally Sikhs living in North
(c) Manipur (d) M.P. America, to end British rule in their homeland of India.
The movement originated with an organization of
Ans. (c) : Rani Gaidinliu, a Naga spiritual and political
immigrants in California called the Hindustani workers
leader, who fearlessly fought against the British
of the Pacific.
colonesers for the right of her people. Born on 26
January 1915. In Tamerglong district of present day Headquarter – Yugantar Ashram in San Francisco.
Manipur Gaidinliu belonged to the Rongmei Naga 6. Which Indian sports person has won Gold in
tribe. 14th Asian Shooting Championship recently?
3. Who ran the Home Rule movement in India? (a) Gagan Narang (b) Manu Bhaker
(a) Annie Besant and B.G. Tilak (c) Jitu Rai (d) Heena Sidhu
(b) Nehru and Gandhiji Ans. (b) : Manu Bhaker claimed the women's 10 meter
(c) Hasrat Mohani and Ranade air pistol gold medal in the 14th Asian championship.
(d) Madan Mohan Malviya and Motilal Nehru She is the youngest Indian to win a gold medal at the
Ans. (a) : Home Rule movement– Between the years ISSF World Cup.
1916 and 1918 the Indian Independence movement Asian Games– The Asian games is a multi-disciplinary
witnessed the growth and spread of the home rule sports event held once in every four years-second
movement spearheaded by leaders like Bal Gangadhar largest multi-sport event after the Olympics.
Tilak and Annie Besant. The first ever Asian games were held in New Delhi in
The aim of Home Rule movement was the attainment of 1951.
home rule or a dominion status for India. Under the Gagan Narang– Indian Shooter
British Empire along the lines of countries like Canada, 7. Who has been appointed as the first Lieutenant
Australia. Goernor of the Union Territory of Ladakh?
Balgangadhar Tilak– By name Lokmanya (born July (a) R. K. Mathur
23, 1856, Ratnagiri) a scholar, philosopher and ardent (b) Kalraj Mishra
nationalist two weekly News papers– Kesari (The Lion) (c) Bhagat Singh Koshiyari
in Marathi and the "Maratha" in English. (d) None of these
JPSC AE (Pre) GS Paper-I 2019 245 YCT
Ans. (a) : On 5 August 2019, the special status of J & K coordination between the power, coal and Railway
(Act 370) abolished and Jammu Kashmir and Laddakh ministries to ensure coal supplies to power plants.
made Union Territory. J & K legislature while Laddakh It has been developed by NTPC and sources and source
without Legislature. data from different stake holders, such as central
R.K. Mathur has become the first LG of Union territory Electricity Authority (CEA), centre for Railway
Laddakh. He is retired IAS first posted as Collector of Information System (RIS) and coal companies.
West Tripura. (2) This power is not accessible to the general public.
He retired as the Chief Information Commissioner of NTPC- Formerly known as National Thermal Power
India in November 2018. Corporation Limited is an Indian Public Sector
Bhagat Singh Koshiyari– Since 2019, he is Governor undertaking founded in 1975.
of Maharashtra. He is a RSS veteran served as National Headquarter – New Delhi
Vice President of BJP. NHPC– National Hydro Electric Power Corporation
8. Geetanjali is a collected work of famous poet founded 1975 Headquarter Faridabad, Haryana.
(a) Mirza Ghalib (b) Panini 12. Which Indian sports person was honoured with
(c) Banbhatt (d) Rabindranath Tagore the lifetime achievement award in Indian
Ans. (d) : Gitanjali – Collection of poems by the Sports Award 2019?
Bengali poet Rabindranath Tagore. Tagore received (a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Milkha Singh
the Noble Prize for literature, largely for the English (c) Saurav Ganguly (d) Jaspal Rana
translation. It is a part of the UNESCO collection of Ans. (b) : Independent India's first Individual sports
Representative works. star, Milkha Singh dominated Indian track and field for
9. Name of the author of the Anandmath. over a decade with his speed and spirit, creating
(a) Rabindranath Tagore multiple records and winning numerous medals in his
(b) Bankim Chandra carrier.
Represented India at the 1956 Olympics in Melbourne the
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
1960 Olympics in Rome and 1964 Olympics in Tokya.
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
13. What is the name of recently launched NASA
Ans. (b) : Anandmath is a Bengali fiction written by
satellite to study lonosphere?
Bankimchandra Chattopadhyay and published in 1882. (a) ICON (b) ICON-I
It is based on the Sanyasi Rebellion in the late 18th (c) IONO-I (d) IONO
cent.
Bankim chandra Chattopadhyay– Born in 1838 near Ans. (a) : ICON Ionosphere connection Explorer
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration
Naihati Bengal, Indian author who novels firmly
(NASA) launched a satellite ICON to detect. Dynamic
established prose as a literary vehicle for the Bengali
zones of Earth's ionosphere.
language.
(1) The ICON Satellite will study the earth's ionosphere.
Vande Matram the Indian national song has been
It includes various layers of the uppermost atmospheric
adopted from his famous Novel "Anandmath". where free electrons flow freely. It affects Earth's
Aurbindo Ghose- A philosopher, Guru poet and a great magnetic field and radio communication.
nationalist. The ICON mission is the 39th successful launch and
10. The first electric train ran in India on which satellite deployment by Pegasus rocket.
route? 14. Indian Army's recent Mountain Combat
(a) Bombay to Madras exercise "Him Vijay" held in which state?
(b) Surat to Bombay (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand
(c) Bombay VT and Kurla Harbour (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Sikkim
(d) Madras to Bangalore Ans. (c) : Indian Army in 2019 undergoes its biggest
Ans. (c) : The first electric train ran in India with the transformation has started its biggest mountain assault
inauguration of services between Bombay VT and exercise.
Kurla Harbour on 3rd Feb 1925 on ex GIP Railway The exercise is to its test mobility communication and
system. The section was electrified on 1500 volt DC. coordination of such huge body of fast moving troops in
Note- The first passenger train in India ran between difficult terrain.
Bombay (Bori Bunder) and Thane on 16 April 1853. It happened in Arunachal Pradesh.
11. Recently launched PRAKASH Portal of 15. Which Indian State has recently launched
Central Government have been developed by Children's Safety App?
which organisation? (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Jharkhand
(a) NTPC (c) Assam (d) Sikkim
(b) Power Grid Corporation Ans. (c) : On children's day (November 14) Assam got
(c) NHPC a mobile application that will enable people to lodge a
(d) Coal India complaint about the violation of child rights.
"Shishu Suraksha" the mobile application is the branch
Ans. (a) : The government has launched a web portal, held of Assam state commission for protection of child
PRAKASH (ØekeâeMe)– Power Rail Koyla Availability Rights (ASCPCR). It was launched by CM Sarbanand
through supply harmony) with a view to improving Sonowal of Assam.

JPSC AE (Pre) GS Paper-I 2019 246 YCT

16. When the International Day of the Girl Child Ans. (d) : Project Tiger– Project tiger was launched in
was celebrated recently? 1973 with a 9 tiger reserves for conserving our National
(a) On 5th October (b) On 9th October Animal- The Tiger.
th
(c) On 14 October (d) On 11th October Currently the project Tiger coverage has increased to 50
Ans. (d) : International day of the girls 2020, 11 spread out in 18 tiger range states.
October amplify the voices and rights of girls. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is
Everywhere the theme for 2020 was "My voice, our a statutory body of the ministry of environment, forests
equal future" remagines a better world inspired and led and climate change, with an over arching
by adolescent girls, as part of the global generation supervisory/coordination role, performing functions as
equality movement. provided in the wild life (Protection) Act 1972.
5 October- International day of Teachers. 29 July, 2020 date show that increase of 741 tigers in 4
14 October- World Standards Day years, India becomes 70% global tiger population (2967
9 October- World Post Day. in number)
17. Who has won the Nobel in the field of 21. Tungabhadra multi-purpose project is a joint
Literature for 2018 recently? venture of which of the following pair of
(a) Peter Handke (b) Olga Tokarczuk States?
(c) James Pebbles (d) Michel Mayor (a) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
Ans. (b) : Olga Tokarczuk was born in Poland. Her (b) Karnataka and Kerala
parents were teachers and his father also functioned as (c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
school liberation. (d) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
She was conferred Noble Prize in Literature in 2018 Ans. (d) : Tungabhadra Multipurpose Project is a joint
"Narrative Imagination that with Encyclopedic passion undertaking by the governments of Andhrapradesh and
represents the crossing of Boundaries as a form of life" Karnataka. The project Compresses a dam across the
18. Who have been appointed as the Chief Justice Tungabhadra River near Mallapuram. It is a power
of Jharkhand High Court recently? Project of Gujrat equipped with power Generating sets
(a) Justice Ajay Kumar manufactured by Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited on
(b) Amreshwar Pratap Sahi October 12, 1977.
(c) Dr. Ravi Ranjan 22. The proposed sea route 'Setu Samundram' is a
(d) None of these canal through which of the following lanes?
Ans. (c) : Hon'ble Mr. Justice Dr. Ravi Ranjan was born (a) Malacca Strait (b) Gulf of Manner
on 20th December 1960 at Patna. He presented paper on (c) Gulf of Kutch (d) Ten degree channel
"Trafficking in women in India" and the Protection of Ans. (b) : Setu Samundram is the part of sea that
women in India" form Domestic violence Act, 2005- A separates Tamilnadu, India and Island nation Sri
portal of hope "In conferences held by 'West Bengal Lanka. It passes through the Gulf of Mannar, the Palk
Commission for women and national commission for street and a shoal of Islands and bays.
women respectively both held of Kolkata. Ram Sethu or Adam's Bridge – Adam's bridge as
He appointed chief Justice of Patna high court in 2018 known as Ram Setu of Valmiki's Ramayana fame 189
and now elevated. The chief Justice of high court of chain of limestone shoal between Pamban Island, also
Jharkhand on 17th day to November 2019. known as Rameswaram Island, off the south eastern
19. In which of the following State of India Deoni coast of Tamilnadu.
breed of cattle is found? Gulf of Kutch – West coast of India in the state of
(a) Haryana (b) Rajasthan Gujarat.
100 channel – Separates the Andaman Islands and
(c) Maharashtra (d) Punjab
Nicobar Islands.
Ans. (c) : Deoni is a drought type animal believed to be Malacca street – Between Malay Peninsula and the
developed from a strain descended from the mixture of Indonesian Island of Sumatra.
Gir, Dangi and local cattle.
23. Which one of the following is not a great
The Breed developed its name from the place of origin Siberian river of Russia?
i.e. Deoni Taluk of Latur District in Maharashtra. (a) Lena (b) Amur
Local Breeds State (c) Ob (d) Yenisi
Alambadi – Tamilnadu
Ans. (b) : Amur river, world's 10th longest river,
Amrit Mahal – Karnataka
forming the border between the Russian for East and
Bachaur – Bihar
Badri – Uttarakhand North Eastern China. The Amur proper is 2824 km.
Belahi – Haryana long and has a drainage basin of 1,855,000 square
Binjharpuri – Orissa kilometer.
Brown sind – Allahabad (UP) Lena is the easternmost of the 3 great Siberian rivers
that flow into the Arctic ocean.
20. In which year Project Tiger was launched?
Ob river is a major Russian river (Ùesvemeer) Yenisi is also
(a) 1972 (b) 1984
(c) 1986 (d) 1973 a Russian river.

JPSC AE (Pre) GS Paper-I 2019 247 YCT

24. The older Alluvium of Indian plain is known as 12000 square km. in the Durgapur–Raniganj area– is
(a) Khadar (b) Kankar the world's third shale gas find.
(c) Bhabar (d) Bhangar ONGC – Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
Ans. (d) : Bhangar are older alluvial plain which Head quarters – New Delhi.
represents upland alluvial tract. These areas are 29. According to 2011 Census of India which
welldrained and make it suitable for cultivation. These district of India has the highest literacy rate?
area lies quiet above the flood limits of the (a) Ernakulam (b) South Delhi
neighbouring rivers. The soil is rich in humus. (c) Kozhikode (d) Serchhip
Khadar Plains – The new plain formed due to alluvial Ans. (d) : According to Census 2011, serchhip District
deposit along the course of the river. Enriched and of Mizoram has the highest literacy rate. Here 97.91%
formed by fresh deposits of silt every year. people has been literate male 98.28%, female 97.53%.
25. Which of the following river of India is West The results of 2011 census reveal that there has been
flowing? increase in literacy rate in the country. It stands
(a) Cauvery (b) Tungabhadra 74.04%. 82.14% makes and 65.46% females.
(c) Narmada (d) Damodar Kerala tops the literacy percentage in India around
Ans. (c) : Narmada – It is located mainly in Madhya 93.91%.
Pradesh. The Narmada river also known as the Rewa 30. The term 'Syzygy' refers to :
river. It is a west flowing river. (a) Moon, Earth and Sun lie along a straight line.
Tributaries are – Kolar river, Shakkar river, Dudhi, (b) Earth is at perihelion and Moon at perigee.
Tawa and Hiran river. (c) Earth at perihelion and Moon at apogee.
Damodar river– Jharkhand and West Bengal. (d) Moon and Sun are at right angles with respect
to Earth.
26. At which among the following places, River
Brahmaputra takes a U-turn at the time of Ans. (a) : Syzygy – The nearly straight-line
entering into India? configuration of three celestial bodies (such as the sun,
(a) Namcha Barwa (b) Noijin Kangrang moon and earth during a solar or lunar eclipse in a
(c) Kula Kangri (d) Bomdi La gravitational system.
Ans. (a) : Namcha Barwa is a mountain peak in 31. Due to its surface colour, which planet is called
as 'Red Planet'?
Tibetian Himalaya with the height of 7757 meters. The
(a) Venus (b) Mars
Tsangpo – Brahmputra river takes a U-turn on
(c) Jupiter (d) Saturn
reaching the Namcha Barwa and enters India in
Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge. Ans. (b) : MARS– The Red planet mars named for the
Brahmputra river– Yarlong Psangpo in Tibet. Roman God of War, has long been an omen in the
Siang/Dihang river in Arunachal Pradesh is a night sky and in its own way, the planet's rusty red
Transboundary river. It is a 9th largest river of world. surface tells a story of destruction. It is fourth planet
from the sun and second smallest planet in the solar
Kula Kangri– Mountain range in Bhutan.
system after mercury.
Bomdi la – Between Cona country Tibet and Tawang
Venus– has been called as Earth's twin. Brightest
district of Arunachal Pradesh.
Natural object in earth's night sky after the moon.
27. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are Jupiter– Biggest planet in the solar system.
submerged parts of mountain range called : 32. The lacustrine deposits of Kashmir called
(a) Tian Shan (b) Arakan Yoma 'Karewas' are famous for :
(c) Pegu Yoma (d) Aksai Chin (a) Saffron cultivation (b) Terrace farming
Ans. (b) : Arakan Yoma is the extension of the (c) Apple orchards (d) Jhum cultivation
Himalayas located in Myanmar. The Arakan Ans. (a) : Karewas are the soft, unconsolidated,
mountains are also known as the Rakhine mountains. Aeolian glacial and fluvio– Lacustrine– sedimentary
These are a mountain range in Western Myanmar. The deposits of Kashmir valley. Karewa sediments occur in
Andaman and Nicobar Islands are submerged parts of the form of terraces, plateaus, mounds and vast table
Arakan Yoma mountain. lands. It is considered appropriate for cultivation of
Tain Shan – Central Asia saffron.
Aksai Chin – (China captured illegally from India in 33. On which of the following rivers, 'Grand
1962) Canyon' is located?
Pegu range – (Central Burma (yecee&) (a) Columbia River (b) Mississippi River
28. In which of the State ONGC discovered the (c) Nile River (d) Colorado River
first gas reserve of India in 2011? Ans. (d) : The Grand Canyon is a steep-sided Canyon
(a) Assam (b) West Bengal carved by the Colorado river in Arizona, USA.
(c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra Colorado river– South Western USA Northern
Ans. (b) : In January 2011, India's biggest energy Mexico.
explorer Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) has Columbia river– North America.
discovered the country's first shale gas reserve at Mississippi river– North American Continent.
Durgapur in West Bengal. The gas reserve spread over Nile river – African river.
JPSC AE (Pre) GS Paper-I 2019 248 YCT
34. Which of the following mountain is the Ans. (d) : The old book of Tang, one of the 24
highest? histories stated that the Japanese enjoy disliked his
(a) Godwin Austin (b) Nandadevi country's name WOGUO (Chinese) and changed it to
(c) Mount Mackinlay (d) Mount Albert NIPPON (Japanese, or origin of the sun.
Ans. (a) : The name Mount Godvin Austin is for the Belgium – old name was – Belgae
Peak's first surveyor col. Godvin Austen a 19th century Norway – old name – Noreg or norge
english geographer. It is world's second only to mount- France – old name – Ancien Regime
Everest. K-2 is located in the Karakoram range and lies 39. In which State of India, Maikal range is
partly in Chinese control Kashmir and Party in Gilgit located?
Baltistan (Pakistan occupied Kashmir) (a) Bihar (b) Chhattisgarh
Nanda Devi – Uttrakhand. (c) Rajasthan (d) Odisha
Mount Mack inlay – North America. Ans. (b) : Maikal range mountain range in Chattisgarh
Mount Albert – USA. state, central India. It runs in a north–south direction
35. What happens when one crosses 1800 longitude and forms the eastern base of the Triangular Satpura
range.
from East to West?
The Maikal range consists of laterite – capped flat
(a) Gain of a day
topped plateaus with elevations ranging from 2000 to
(b) Loss of a day
3000 feet (600 to 900 meters)
(c) No gain or loss of day but time changes
(d) No change in time or day 40. 'Taklamakan' Desert is located in which of the
following country?
Ans. (b) : Earth is divided into imaginary lines called (a) Mexico (b) Saudi Arabia
meridians that run from North to the South pole. In (c) Uzbekistan (d) China
total there are 360 meridians of longitudes and 180 Ans. (d) : Taklamakan desert (Taklimakan Shamo)
parallels of latitudes. Known as Prime Meridian – great desert of Central Asia and one of the largest
International date line. The centre point of the sandy deserts in the world. The Taklamakan occupies
meridian lies at the Greenwich observer victory the central part of the Tarim Basin in the Uygur
England making it GMT (Greenwich Mean Time) Autonomous region of Xinjiang, Western China. The
O degree longitudes are at Prime Meridian a degree of desert area covers 600 miles west to east.
longitude is widest at the equator with a distance of 41. Which of the following sea is largest in terms of
111.321 km. Geographical area?
So if one crosses 1800 longitude from East to West (a) Caribbean sea (b) South China sea
then loss of a dry happens. (c) East China sea (d) Baltic sea
36. Where the tropical cyclones are known as Ans. (b) : South China sea, Chinese Nan Hai arm of
'Hurricane'? the western pacific ocean that borders the South East
(a) Bay of Bengal (b) Philippines Asian mainland. It is bounded on the north east by the
(c) West Indies (d) Australia Tarwan strait (by which it is connected to the East
Ans. (c) : Hurricane – A Hurricane is a type of storm China sea) on the east by Tarwan and the Philippines,
called a tropical storm which forms over tropical or on the South East and South by Borneo, and the
subtropical waters. southern limit of Gulf of Thailand and the east coast of
A tropical cyclone is a rotating low– pressure weather the Malay peninsula.
system that has organized thunderstorms but no fronts. The South China sea and East China sea together
In West India it is known as Hurricane. forms the China sea.
Philippines – Typhoon It embraces an area of about 1,423,000 square miles
Bay of Bengal – Cyclone Caribbean sea– Sub oceanic basin of the western
Atlantic ocean lying between latitute 90 and 220 degree
Australia – Cyclone
N and longitudes 890 and 600 degree W.
37. Which among the following is the northern It is bordered by Venezuela, Colombia and Panama. It
most State of U.S.A.? is an American Mediterranean sea of the Atlantic
(a) New York (b) Hawaii-Island ocean.
(c) Alaska (d) Washington 42. What is 'Selva'?
Ans. (c) : Alaska – Northern most point : Point barrow (a) Crop of equatorial area
Alaska 71023'N Latitude and 156'29'W longitude. (b) Animals of equatorial area
Alaska – Admitted in USA in 1959. (c) Equatorial rainforest
Hawai Island – Island in the pacific ocean (d) Type of farming in equatorial area
Washington – Capital of USA, North Western Part. Ans. (c) : Selva meaning dense equatorial forest
New York – North eastern side. especially in the Amazon basin, characterized by tall
38. Which of the following country was known as broad–leaved evergreen trees epiphytes ----- etc.
'Nippon' in ancient times? The Selva Maga, which includes part of the territory of
(a) France (b) Belgium Belize, northern Guat---- and south eastern Mexico is
(c) Norway (d) Japan one of the worlds most important ecological system.

JPSC AE (Pre) GS Paper-I 2019 249 YCT

43. Watson and Crick are famous for the discovery Ans. (a) : Minamata disease, sometimes referred to as
of. Chirro-minamata disease is a neurological syndrome
(a) Structure of DNA (b) Antibiotics caused by severe mercury poisoning. Symptoms
(c) Vaccine for cancer (d) Photo-synthesis includes at axial, numbness in the hands and feet,
Ans. (a) : The 3 dimensional double helix structure of general muscle weakness, narrowing of the field of
DNA, correctly elucidated by James Watson and vision and damage to nearing and speech.
Francis Crick. D.N.A. is a double stranded helix, with Iron – Anemia
the 2 strands connected by Hydrogen bonds. Cadmium – Kidney disease
A bases are always paired with TS and CS are always Arsenic – Hypertension, chronic diseases.
with GS which is consistent with the accounts for 49. Which of the following is found in Iodised salt?
Chargaff's rule. (a) Sodium Iodide (b) Potassium Iodide
44. The colour of stars depend upon which factor? (c) Calcium Iodide (d) Barium Iodide
(a) Distance (b) Temperature Ans. (b) : Potassium Iodide is a salt of stable iodine
(c) Atmospheric Pressure (d) None of these that can help block radioactive iodine from being
Ans. (b) : Stars come in lots of different colours and absorbed by the thyroid glands, thus protecting this
their colour depends on the temperature of the star. We gland from radiation injury.
bind that small stars are cool (less than 30000C) with a Sodium Iodide– Formed by chemical reaction of
redish appearance, whereas big heavy stars are hot Sodium metal and Iodide, it is water soluble
(over 300000C) and have a bluish glow. comprising 1:1
Star – Any massive self-luminous celestial body of
gas that shines and radiation derived from its internal 50. Which one of the following options most closely
energy sources. represents mechanism of sexual reproduction
Sun is also a star. in phylum Ciliophora?
(a) Mating (b) Binary Fission
45. Which of the following region receives rainfall
(c) Conjugation (d) Budding
throughout the year?
(a) Atlas Region (b) Western Australia Ans. (c) : Binary Fission is a form of a sexual
(c) North China (d) Zaire Valley reproduction in which an organism divides into two
Ans. (d) : Zaire province has two seasons from each part carrying one copy of genetic material. In
November to May, the rainy season and from June to phylum Ciliophora, ciliates generally reproduce by
October, the dry season. The predominant types of Binary Fission during binary fission, the macronucleus
weather in the province are tropical wet climate and enlarges and then splits (but is does not go through
semi-arid. mitosis)
Fauna and flora of the region are very varied with Phylum Ciliphora the conjugation method the ciliates
savannah and dense rainforests. form a natural group distinguishable from other
Western Australia– Covering the entire western third protozoa by a number of specialized features,
of the country Australia is made up of the Arid including the possession of cilia, which are short hair
outbreak. like processes at some stage in their life cycle, the
Alaska– A very cold and frozen place of the northern presence of two types of nuclei and a unique form
most of U.S.A. sexual reproduction.
46. Who is the first Indian cricketer to take a 'Hat 51. Which one of the following options represents a
Trick' in T-20 International Cricket Match? common application of potassium graphite and
(a) Mohammed Shami (b) Irfan Pathan calcium graphite?
(c) Deepak Chahar (d) Chetan Sharma (a) Moderators (b) Semiconductors
Ans. (c) : Deepak Chahar's 6 for 7 in 3.2 overs has (c) Superconductors (d) Lubricants
battered the previous record of 6 for 8 by Sri Lankan Ans. (c) : The Potassium graphite and calcium
mystery spinner Ajantha Mendis. Chahar also became graphite can be used as super conductor .
the first Indian bowler to take a hat-trick in the shortest (i) These substances conduct electricity so freely that
format of the cricket. there is absolutely no obstruction to the flow of free
47. The first solar powered aircraft to charges.
circunnavigate the earth is, (ii) These materials clearly carry billions and billions
(a) Solar Impulse 1 (b) Solar Impulse 2 of free charges and the motion of charges takes
(c) Solar Impulse 3 (d) Solar Impulse 4 place without obstruction.
Ans. (b) : Solar impulse 2 is a solar powered aircraft 52. If a moving car increases its speed from 30
equipped with more than 17000 solar cells that weighs km/hr to 60 km/hr, what will be the impact of
only 2.4 tons. Completed its world journey and became its kinetic energy?
first aircraft charged with solar power to do so. (a) will become 2 times (b) will become 4 times
48. Which one of the following elemental pollution (c) will become 6 times (d) No change
of water bodies causes Minamata disease? Ans. (b) : Kinetic energy depends upon the speed of
(a) Mercury (b) Cadmium the car so when the speed of car increase the kinetic
(c) Iron (d) Arsenic energy of car also increases.
JPSC AE (Pre) GS Paper-I 2019 250 YCT
 1 rest or move at a constant speed in a straight line
Kinetic energy = mv 2 unless it is acted on by an unbalanced force inertia
2 comes from mass objects with more mass have more
when the speed = 30 km/h
inertia.
1 According to Newton's first law an unbalanced force is
K.E1 = m × (30) × 30)
2 needed to move the book on the desk you could supply
when speed increases then the kinetic energy of the car the force by pushing the book.
is. 56. Problem of solid waste disposal can be reduced
v = 60 km/h by
1 (a) Recycling
K.E2 = m × 60 × 60
2 (b) Use of plastic
1 (c) Dumping of waste in rivers
m × 60 × 60 (d) None of these
K.E 2 2 4
= = Ans. (a) : Recycling is the process of converting waste
K.E1 1 m × 30 × 30 1 materials into new materials and objects. It is an
2 alternative to "conventional" waste disposal that can
then the kinetic energy will become 4 times . save materials and help lower greenhouse gas
K.E 2 = 4K.E1 emissions. Recycling can prevent the waste of
potentially useful materials and reduce the
53. Which one of the following is considered as a consumption of fresh raw materials, there by reducing
rarest blood group? energy usage, air pollution and water pollution.
(a) 'O' negative (b) 'O' positive 57. In some enzyme a non-protein substance is
(c) 'AB' negative (d) 'AB' positive required to catalyse a reaction. These non
Ans. (c) : The percentage distribution of AB negative protein part is generally referred as
blood group is below the 1%. So it can be considered (a) Protease (b) Cofactor
as rarest blood group. (c) Coenzyme (d) Reducing ions
Here is the Average blood type distribution in the Ans. (b) : A non protein substance that is required by
Indian population. an enzyme if it is to catalyze a reaction describes a
Types Ratios cofactor a cofactor is a non protein chemical
O+ 38.4% compound or mettalic ion that is require for an
O– 7.7% enzyme's activity as a catalyst (a catalyst is a substance
+
A 32.3% that increases the rate of a chemical reaction).
A– 6.5% Cofactors can be considered "helper molecules" that
B+ 9.4% assist in bio chemical transformations a non protein
–
B 1.7% organic molecule that is required by some enzymes in
AB+ 3.2% order to catalyze a reaction on a substrate describes a
AB– 0.7% co-enzyme.
54. Software which is most likely to be used to 58. In Gram's staining method, the primary stain
create, edit and print any document? is
(a) Word Processor (b) PDF (a) Crystal violet (b) Phenolphthalein
(c) Java (d) Linux (c) Bromocresol green (d) Methyl blue
Ans. (a) : Word processor is a software program Ans. (a) : The Primary stain of the Gram's method is
capable of creating, storing, and printing typed crystal violet. Crystal violet is sometimes substituted
documents. Today, the word processor is one of the with methylene blue, which is equally effective the
most frequently used software programs on a computer microorganisms that retain the crystal violet -ioine
with Microsoft word being the most popular word complex appear purple brown under microscopic
processor. examination.
Word processor can create multiple types of files, 59. Bootstrapping is generally referred for
including text files (.txt), rich text files (.rtf), HTML (a) A language that compile itself.
files (.htm & html) and word files (.doc & .docx) some (b) A language used to interpret other language.
word processors can also be used to create XML files (c) A language used to compile other language.
(.XML). (d) All of these
55. Identify the correct option that explains law of Ans. (a) : In computing a boot strap loader is the first
inertia. piece of code that runs when a machine starts and is
(a) Newton's first law responsible for loading the rest of the operating
(b) Newton's second law system. In modern computer it's stored in ROM, but I
(c) Newton's third law recall the boot strap process on the PDP-11 where you
(d) All of these would poke bits via the front panel switches to load a
Ans. (a) : Newton's first law of motion explains how particular disk segment into memory, and then run it.
inertia affects moving and non moving object. "boot strapping" comes from the term pulling yourself
Newton's first law states that an object will remain at up by your own boot straps.

JPSC AE (Pre) GS Paper-I 2019 251 YCT

60. The process process of galvanization is coating electrically charged particles are released from or
of iron sheet with within a material when it absorbs electromagnetic
(a) Zinc (b) Tin radiation.
(c) Copper (d) All of these 66. Taj Mahal is mostly getting affected by
Ans. (a) : Iron sheets are galvanized to prevent it to get ..............
rust due to the action of air and moisture in the process (a) soil pollution (b) water pollution
of galvanizing the iron sheet is platted by zinc which (c) air pollution (d) noise pollution
do not react with oxygen or moisture. Most common Ans. (c) : Sulfur dioxide emitted by factories near the
method is hot dip galvanizing is which the parts are monument and exhaust from trucks and buses are
submerged in a bath of molten zinc. slowly corroding the Taj Mahal's marble SO2 produces
61. Which is a protected area for biodiversity sulfurous sulfuric acids with water sulfuric acid react
conservation? with marbles to produce calcium sulphate which is
(a) City garden (b) Zoological park soluble in water hence marble dissolves and erodes.
(c) Tiger Reserve (d) Agriculture field 67. The theory of inheritance of acquired
Ans. (c) : In Indian Constitution under the provisions character was proposed by
of wildlife (Protection) Act 1972. Tiger reserves are (a) De Vries (b) Darwin
constituted by including the areas of National Parks (c) Mandel (d) Lamarck
and wild life sanctuaries in May 2012. The protected Ans. (d) : Theory of inheritance of acquired
areas of India is almost 4.95% of the total surface area. characteristic was proposed by Lamarck in the year
62. Sustainable development refers to -------- 1801. The inheritance of acquired characteristic states
(a) Development without compromising the that modification acquired by the organism during the
future needs of development. course of evolution is transferred from one generation
(b) High growth of industry. to other.
(c) Only agricultural development. 68. The normal valency of nitrogen is
(d) None of these (a) Two (b) Three
Ans. (a) : Sustainable development is development (c) Five (d) Seven
that meets the needs of the present without Ans. (b) : Valency of nitrogen is 3 as nitrogen has
compromising the ability of future generations to meet electrons in its valence shell. It can therefore, accept 3
their own needs. electrons to complete its octel. Hence the valency of
63. Which of the following is a major cause of nitrogen is 3.
wildlife extinction? 69. Which is a green house gas?
(a) Hunting (b) Poaching (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane
(c) Habitat loss (d) Wildlife trade (c) Water vapour (d) All of these
Ans. (c) : The primary cause of it is simply human Ans. (d) : Healing of the earth and its environment due
over population of the planet of earth. The most to radiation of the sun trapped by carbon dioxide and
important causal anthropogenic activities are habitat other gases in the atmosphere is known as the green
destruction, over exploitation pollution etc. the growth house effect. The various green house gases are water
of the human population has led to the destruction of vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, chlorofluro carbon,
many animal habitats as forests are cut down to make ozone.
room for new homes and developments, animals are 70. Climate change can affect ------------
left with no where to lie. If they can not find another (a) agriculture (b) human health
suitable area to live many species face extinction. (c) rainfall (d) All of these
64. Water pollution is not caused by ----------- Ans. (d) : The climate change can affect
(a) flood (b) sewage (i) Increased wild fires.
(c) agriculture (d) desalination (ii) Declining water supplies.
Ans. (d) : Sea water desalination is the romal of salt (iii) Reduced Agriculture yields.
and impurities from sea water to produce fresh water. (iv) Flooding and erosion in coastal areas are
Our desalination plants use a reverse osmosis process. additional concerns.
The filtered sea water is then farced under pressure (v) Health impacts in cities due to heat.
through special membranes where by Osmosis process (vi) Drought and insect out breaks.
that normally occurs in nature is reversed.
71. Which are the major causes of climate change?
65. Albert Einstein was awarded Nobel Prize for (a) Deforestation (b) Burning of fossil fuel
his path breaking research on ----------- (c) Industries (d) All of these
(a) Theory of critical opalescence
(b) Theory of relativity Ans. (d) : Major causes of climate change by burning
(c) Law of photoelectric effect of fossil fuels which influencing the climate and earth
(d) Wave-particle theory temperature cutting down rainforest and farming live
Ans. (c) : Albert Einstein was awarded Nobel prize for stock. This adds enormous amounts of green house
his path breaking research and formulation of the laws gases to those naturally occurring in the atmosphere
of photo electric effect. It is the phenomenum is which increasing the green house effect and global warming.
JPSC AE (Pre) GS Paper-I 2019 252 YCT
72. Main causes of water pollution are ---------- world. This organisation was formerly known as the
(a) Sewage (b) Agriculture european management forum.
(c) Industry (d) All of these IMF– International monetary fund is an organization
Ans. (d) : Water Pollution caused by of 190 countries founded in 1945 and head quarters in
(i) Throwing waste materials into water bodies. Washington D.C.
(ii) Release of chemicals from the factories. 76. How Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati are
(iii) Wash off from the industries and agricultural similar?
farms. (a) Uranium deposits (b) Tropical rain forests
(iv) Flooding (c) Water reservoirs (d) None of these
(v) Sewage pollution Ans. (c) : Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati are water
Water pollution controlled by reservoirs. Aliyar Dam is a charming location
Purify chemicals before releasing into water bodies surrounded by Annamalai hills and wonderful natural
and less use of chemical fertilizers. views.
73. Cortex region found in between Isapur Dam is an earth field dam on Penganga river in
(a) Epidermis and endodermis the state of Maharastra.
(b) Pericycle and endodermis Kangsabati Dam is the second largest earth in dam of
(c) Endodermis and Vascular bundle India in the state of West Bengal.
(d) Epidermis and Vascular bundle 77. The Indian Independence Act was passed by
Ans. (d) : Cortex is the ground tissue present below British Parliament in
the epidermis. It surrounds the central cylinder and (a) March, 1946 (b) July, 1946
endodermis lines the outermost layer of the cylinder so (c) June, 1947 (d) July, 1947
the region between epidermis and stele is cortex. Ans. (d) : The Indian Independence Act 1947 received
Pericycle is present between endodermis and vascular the Royal Assent and entered into force on 10th July
bundle. The whole ground tissue system is present 1947. This act put into action the Mountbatten plan for
between epidermis and stele. the Independence and partition of India.
The legislation was drafted by the labour government
74. Which one pair is not correct? of clement Attlee. It was based on the Mountbatten
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar – Mook Nayak plan or the 3rd June plan which was formulated after
(b) Mahatma Gandhi – Young India the leaders of the Indian National Congress and the
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale – Bombay Chronicle Muslim league agreed to the recommendations of the
(d) Devendranath Tagore – Indian Mirror Viceroy Lord Mountbatten.
Ans. (c) : Gopal Krishna Gokhale – Bombay 78. Which vitamin among the following is
Chronicle book written by produced in skin in sunlight?
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar– Castes in India, Mook Nayak, (a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin C
The problem of Rupee (its origin and its solution (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin B
1923), Janta, thoughts on Pakistan, state and Ans. (a) : Vitamin D is sometimes called the
minorities, who were the shudras, the untouchables. "Sunshine Vitamin" because it is produced in your skin
Sir Pherozeshah Mehta– Bombay chronicle was in response to sunlight. It is fat-soluble vitamin in a
english language newspaper published from mumbai family of compounds that includes Vitamin D-1, D-2
started in 1910. and D-3. Your body produces Vitamin D naturally
Mahatma Gandhi– Young India, Hind Swaraj, the when it is directly exposed to sunlight.
story of my experiments with truth Harijan. 79. Who is the recipient of 66th Dada Saheb
Devendra Nath Tagore– Indian Mirror. Phalke Award 2018?
75. Which organisation has released Energy (a) Girish Karnad (b) Amitabh Bachchan
Transition Index 2019? (c) Raj Babbar (d) None of these
(a) World Bank (b) World Economic Forum Ans. (b) : Amitabh Bachchan got selected for the 66th
(c) IMF (d) None of these Dada Saheb Phalke award 2018. Dada Saheb Phalke
Ans. (b) : The Global Energy Transition has been in award is India's highest award in Cinema.
2019 released by the World Economic Forum (WEF) 65th award 2017 (Dada Saheb Phalke) Vinod Khanna
The index benchmarks 115 economies on the current (Posthumously) got.
performance of their energy systems across economic 80. Which Indian sport professional has been listed
development and growth environmental sustainability in Time 100 Next list?
and energy security and access indicators and their (a) Dutti Chand (b) Hima Das
readiness for transition to secure, sustainable, (c) P. V. Sindhu (d) Neeraj Chopra
affordable and inclusive energy systems. Ans. (a) : Time Magazine has named Indian athelete
Sweden has topped the list. China 78th position, India Dutti Chand to its first ever time 100 next, a new,
74th position. expansion of the time 100 list of the most influential
World Economic forum– It is a non-profit people in world.
organization that was founded in January 1971. WEF Time 100 – is an annual list of 100 most influential
people in the world.
is based in cologny Genewa Switzerland and was
formed with an initiative to improve the states of the 81. Alha is a popular music of which region?

JPSC AE (Pre) GS Paper-I 2019 253 YCT

 (a) Bundelkhand (b) Nimar Siddharth was brought up by his maternal aunt Prajapati
(c) Malwa (d) None of these Gautmi. This gave him name "Gautma".
Ans. (a) : Alha is an oral epic, the story is also found His wife name was Yasodha and son Rahul. Channa
in a number of medieval manuscripts of Pritiiraj Rao was his chariot he left home at 29 and got
and the Bhavisya Purana. There is also belief that the enlightenment in 35. He gave his first sermon at Sarnath
story was originally written by Jagnik, Bard of near Varanasi. This event is called Dharm Chakra
Mahoba. Pravartan.
Singa and Daluji – Nimar region He died in 483 BC under a Sal tree in Kushinagar
Lavani – Malwa (Mawa region) in U.P. This event is called
82. One Petabyte is equal to – Mahaparinirvana.
(a) 10 Terabyte (b) 100 Terabyte 87. Oldest of the Vedas is
(c) 1000 Terabyte (d) None of these (a) Samveda (b) Yajurveda
Ans. (c) : A Petabyte is a measure of memory of data (c) Rigveda (d) Atharvaveda
storage capacity that is equal to 2 to the 50th Ans. (c) : There are 4 types of Vedas – Rigveda,
83. Which one of the following pair is not correct? Samaveda, Yajur Veda and Atharva Veda. One of the
(a) First Battle of Panipat – 1526 best sources of Ancient Indian history is vedic
(b) Battle of Khanwa – 1527 literature.
(c) Battle of Plassey – 1758 Rig Veda– The oldest Veda is the Rig Veda. It has
(d) Battle of Chittorgarh – 1567 1028 hymns called 'Suktas' and is a collection of 10
Ans. (c) : On 23 June 1757 battle of Plessey was books called ''Mandalas"
bought between British forces under Lord Clive and The feature of Rig Veda– 1. Rigvedic books 2-9 Deal
force of Nawab of Bengal Siraj. with cosmology and deities. 2. 1028 hymns deal with
First battle of Panipat fought between Babur's force deities including Deefive, Fvõ and are attributed and
and Ibrahim Lodi in Panipat (1526). dedicated to a sage Rishi.
84. Qutbuddin Aibak was a Turkish meeceJeso– known as the veda of melodies and chants
(a) Nobleman (b) Merchant Yajurveda– Stands to mean 'worship knowledge'.
(c) Writer (d) Slave Athrava Veda– Stands to mean a Tatpurusha
Ans. (d) : Mamluk dynasty is also called the Slave compound of atharvan, an ancient sage and knowledge.
dynasty. Mamluk laterally means 'owned' and it refers 88. Who founded Ajivika sect?
to a powerful military caste called Mamluks. (a) Mahatma Buddha (b) Kapil
Slave dynasty established by Qutbud-din Albak dynasty (c) Makkhali Gosala (d) Badrayan
lasted from 1206 to 1290. It was the first of the Ans. (c) : Aajivika are followers of the doctrine of
dynasties to rule as the Delhi Sultanate. Dynasty ended immutability or pre-determined belonging to the
when Jalal -ud-din Firoz Khilji overthrew the last religious order or sect founded by Gosala Makkiputta, a
Mamluk ruler Muiz-ud-din Qalqabad in 1290. senior contemporary of Buddha and Mahavira.
Qutbud-din started construction of the Auwwat-ul-islam The basic theme of Ajivikism is the doctrine of Niyati
mosque in Delhi. This is one of the first Islamic or destiny. The main source of information on
momuments in Northern India. Ajivikism is Bhagvati sutra.
85. Turkish nobility 'Turkan-i Chahalgani was 89. Which of the following statement about
created by Aurangzeb is correct?
(a) Qutbuddin Aibak (b) Iltutmish (a) He forbade the Kalma being inscribed on
(c) Razia (d) Balban coins
Ans. (b) : The corps of forty also known as Dal (b) Discontinued the festival of Navroz
Chalisha or Turkan-1 chahalgani was the council of 40 (c) Appointed Muhtasib
Turkic and non-turkic nobles that administered the (d) All of these
Delhi Sultanate under the Sultan of the Delhi Sultan ate.
Iltutmish was a son-in-law of Aibak. He ruled Ghurid Ans. (d) : Aurangzeb was the 3rd son of Shah Iahan. He
Regions of Northern India. had three brothers and 2 sisters. He is birth name was
Iltutmish was the greatest of the slave rulers of Delhi. Muhi-ud-din Muhammad. He was the 6th Mughal
He shefted his capital from Lahore to Delhi. Emperor and according the many the last effective one
(died in 1707). He was also Infamous for executing the
86. Mahatma Budha gave his first sermon at: Sikh leader.
(a) Bodh Gaya (b) Kapilvastu
(c) Pataliputra (d) Sarnath 90. The Chishti order was established in India by
Ans. (d) : Buddhism was founded by Gautam Buddha. (a) Sheikh Moinuddin (b) Bakhtiyar Kaki
Buddha was born as Prince Siddharth at Lumbani near (c) Sheikh Fariduddin (d) Nasiruddin Chirag
Kapilvastu (in present Nepal). He was the son of Ans. (a) : Sufism is an important concept that
Suddhodhana and Mahamaya. Suddhodhana was the influenced religion in India in the medieval ages. There
chief of the Sakya dan due to this Buddha was also are many Sufi Saints whose Dargahs still attract people
known as 'Shakyamuni". from all over the country irrespective of their religious
affiliations.
JPSC AE (Pre) GS Paper-I 2019 254 YCT
 Chisti order (Chishtiyyah)– (a) Syed Mahmood
(1) Originated in Persia and central Asia. (b) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
(2) First saint was Abu Ishaq Shami. (c) Mohsin-ul-Mulk
(3) The most important saint was Moinuddin Chishti (d) Viqar-ul-Mulk
who died in 1236 in Ajmer. His resting place is the Ans. (b) : In 1860 Sir Syed Ahmad Khan wrote the
Ajmer Sharif Dargah in Ajmer, Rajasthan. loyal Mohammedans of India. In this work he defended
He made this order very popular in India, this continues the Muslims from the British accusation that they were
to this day.
disloyal. He gave a detailed account of the loyal
Another important saint of this order was Nizammuddin
services rendered by the Muslim and named various
Auliya [1335 death in Delhi]
who had shown particular loyalty to the British. At the
91. The author of Shah Nama was ________. same time he called on the British to end their hostility
(a) Al-Biruni (b) Faizi
towards the muslim community.
(c) Firdausi (d) Malik Mohammad Jaisi
Ans. (c) : The Shahnama or book of kings is an epic 97. Who represented Indian National Congress in
poem written in 1010 and containing about 60000 the Brussels Congress of 1927?
couplets. Its author was Abu Al Qasim Firdausi. It had (a) Gandhiji (b) J.L. Nehru
written in Persian language. (c) Subhash C. Bose (d) Acharya Kripalani
Fauzi– Shaikh Abu al - Fauzi Mubarak popularly Ans. (b) : In February 1927 Jawaharlal Nehru on behalf
known as Faizi, was the court poet in the court of Akbar of national congress attended the congress of oppressed
and elder brother of Abul-Fazla ibn Mubarak, Akbar's nationalities at brussels organised by political exiles and
court historian. revolutionaries from the countries of Asia. Africa and
Latin America suffering from economic or political
92. Jambudvipa in 14th century Java's text was
imperialism. The congress was called to coordinate and
referred to plan their common struggle against imperialism many
(a) India (b) Indonesia left wing intellectuals and political leaders of Europe
(c) China (d) Sri Lanka also joined the Congress.
Ans. (a) : A Jambudvipa is the Duipa (Island or 98. Who formed the all India Kisan Sabha in 1936?
continent) of the terrestrial world as envisioned in the (a) Kumaranand
cosmologies of Hinduism. (b) Sahajanand Saraswati
In 14th century in Java Scripts Jambudvipa was used to (c) S.A. Dange
refer to that place where "blackberry" was found in a (d) Mahendra Singh Tikat
great number. Ans. (b) : Sahajanand Saraswati the All India Kisan
93. Annic Besant translated Gita into English Sabha (AIKS) was an important peasant moement
under the title of formed by Sahajanand Saraswati at the Lucknow
(a) New India (b) Common Weal session of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1926.
(c) Sirr-e Akbar (d) Lotus Song 99. Who is popular as Frontier Gandhi in Indian
Ans. (*) : Bhagvat Geeta was translated by Annie- history?
Besant : The Lord's song Annie Besant embedded (a) Mahatma Gandhi
basically to the perception of Hindu identity of Indian (b) Raj Mohan Gandhi
nationhood. She understood and was thinking (c) Mazharul Haque
'Hinduism' is the soul of India. (d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Note– So no option is correct here. Ans. (d) : Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan nick named Bacha
94. Who wrote Futahat i-Firozshahi? Khan was a Pashtun independence act activist against
(a) Barani (b) Isami the rule of the British Raj. The foremost 20th century
(c) Firozshah Tughlaq (d) Afif leader of the pashtuns (Pashtuns or Pathans, a Muslim
Ans. (c) : Firozshah Tughlaq was a Turkish leader who ethnic group of Pakistan and Afghanistan), who became
was born in 1309 and was in power in Delhi from 1351 a follower of Mahatma Gandhi was called the frontier
to 1388. He was the child of a Hindu. Gandhi.
95. Who had started 'Khaki Dress' for British 100. Digambara and Shvetambara were major sects
Indian Soldiers? of which religion ?
(a) Sir Lawrence (a) Buddism (b) Brahmanical Religion
(b) William Hunter (c) Jainism (d) Hindu Religion
(c) Lord Barley Ans. (c) : Digambara believes that in order to a achieve
(d) Sir Harry Barnet Lamsden Niravana one must renounce or liberation, one must
Ans. (d) : In 1846-47 a British Officer named Harry renounce everything including clothes. Therefore
Lamsden an his adjutant William Hodson cure the first Digambara monks are completely ranked. Svetambara
to experiment with shifting their troops into natural on the other hand believes that practice of Nudity is not
colours and design more suited to local condition. essential to attain liberation. Now ever nuns in both the
96. The book, "Loyal Mohammadan of India' a sects were white clothes.
pioneer work of: Digambara and Shvetambara are two sects of Jainism.

JPSC AE (Pre) GS Paper-I 2019 255 YCT

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 Jharkhand Public Service Commission Exam, 2013
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL HINDI (PAPER-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Marks : 100

1. cegneJejs kesâ Devegmeej GheÙegkeäle JeekeäÙe keâewve-mee nw? Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'Executive Engineer' keâe
(a) peye ceQ meesÙee ngDee Lee, lees cesjer Úeleer hej meeBhe ueesš ieÙee mener DevegJeeo ‘keâeÙe&heeuekeâ DeefYeÙevlee’ Ùee DeefOeMee<eer DeefYeÙeblee Yeer
(b) Kesle ceW heÌ[s MeJe keâer Úeleer hej meeBhe ueesš jne Lee keâj mekeâles nQ~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(c) Úeleer hej meeBhe ueesšles osKe Jen yesnesMe nes ieÙee 8. External Relations Division keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee
(d) legcnejer meHeâuelee osKekeâj cesjer Úeleer hej meeBhe ueesš ieÙee nw?
Ans. (d) : cegneJejs kesâ Devegmeej GheÙegkeäle JeekeäÙe nw–‘legcnejer (a) Jee¢e mecyevOeer efJeYeeie (b) Jee¢e mecyevOe ØeYeej
meheâuelee osKekeâj cesjer Úeleer hej meeBhe ueesš ieÙee’~ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW (c) efJeosMe mecyevOe ØeYeeie (d) efJemleej mecyevOeer efJeYeeie
cegneJeje ‘Úeleer hej meeBhe ueesšvee’ nw, efpemekeâe DeLe& nw– F&<Ùee& mes Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'External Relations
og:Keer nesvee~ Division' keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘efJeosMe mecyevOe ØeYeeie’ nw~ DevÙe
2. cegneJejs kesâ Devegmeej GheÙegkeäle JeekeäÙe keâewve-mee nw? efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(a) Gmeves Keekeâ Úevekeâj Iej ceW pecee efkeâÙes nQ 9. Production Engineer keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw?
(b) Keekeâ Úeveves mes keäÙee nesiee, jesÌ[eW mes Iej yevelee nw (a) Glheeo DeefYeÙevlee (b) efJemleej DeefYeÙevlee
(c) Jen veewkeâjer heeves kesâ efueS hetjs osMe keâer Keekeâ Úevelee efHeâj (c) Glheeokeâ DeefYeÙevlee (d) Glheeove DeefYeÙevlee
jne nw Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'Production Engineer' keâe
(d) Keekeâ Úevekeâj Fppele veneR efceuesieer mener DevegJeeo ‘Glheeove DeefYeÙevlee’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
Ans. (c) : cegneJejs kesâ Devegmeej GheÙegkeäle JeekeäÙe nw– ‘Jen veewkeâjer 10. Machine Operator keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw?
heeves kesâ efueS hetjs osMe keâer Keekeâ Úevelee efheâj jne nw’~ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW (a) Ùeb$e Jeenkeâ (b) ceMeerve ØeÛeeuekeâ
cegneJeje ‘Keekeâ Úevevee’ nw, efpemekeâe DeLe& nw–Yeškeâvee~ (c) Ùeb$e Ûeueeves Jeeuee (d) Ùeb$e keâeÙe&keâlee&
3. cegneJejs kesâ Devegmeej GheÙegkeäle JeekeäÙe keâewve-mee nw? Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'Machine Operator' keâe
(a) veew oes iÙeejn ner neslee nw, efnmeeye keâjvee veneR Deelee? mener DevegJeeo ‘ceMeerve ØeÛeeuekeâ’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(b) veew oes iÙeejn keâjkesâ ner Jen GòeerCe& ngDee nw 11. Administrative approval may be obtained keâe
(c) IeÌ[er Ûegjekeâj Jen veew oes iÙeejn nes ieÙee mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw?
(d) veew oes iÙeejn DebkeâeW keâe Kesue nw (a) ØeMeemekeâerÙe DevegMebmee Øeehle nes
Ans. (c) : cegneJejs kesâ Devegmeej GheÙegkeäle JeekeäÙe nw– ‘IeÌ[er Ûegjekeâj (b) ØeMeemeefvekeâ Devegceesove Øeehle efkeâÙee peeÙes
Je veew oes iÙeejn nes ieÙee’~ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW cegneJeje ‘veew-oes iÙeejn (c) ØeMeemeefvekeâ DevegMebmee Øeehle keâer pee mekeâleer nw
nesvee’ nw, efpemekeâe DeLe& nw-Yeeie peevee/Ûechele nesvee~ (d) ØeMeemeefvekeâ Devegceesove Øeehle ngDee
4. Civil Engineer keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw? Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'Administrative
approval may be obtained' keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘ØeMeemeefvekeâ
(a) Deveeieefjkeâ DeefYeÙevlee (b) veeieefjkeâ FbpeerefveÙej
Devegceesove Øeehle efkeâÙee peeÙes’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(c) efmeefJeue FbpeerefveÙej (d) efmeefJeue DeefYeÙevlee
12. Ban on creation of posts keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw?
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'Civil Engineer' keâe mener
(a) heoeW kesâ mepe&ve hej jeskeâ (b) me=efpele heoeW hej jeskeâ
DevegJeeo ‘efmeefJeue DeefYeÙevlee’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (c) me=efpele heoeW hej heeyevoer (d) jeskesâ ieÙes heoeW hej mepe&ve
5. Archaeological Officer keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw? Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'Ban on creation of
(a) KegoeF& DeefOekeâejer (b) hegjeleòJe DeefOekeâejer posts' keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘heoeW kesâ mepe&ve hej jeskeâ’ nw~ DevÙe
(c) Keveve DeefOekeâejer (d) KegoeF& heoeefOekeâejer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'Archaeological Officer' 13. Is adjourned sine die keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw?
keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘hegjeleòJe DeefOekeâejer’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (a) hetCe&le: mLeefiele
6. Advertisement Manager keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw? (b) mLeieveeosMe
(a) ØeÛeej ØeyevOekeâ (b) efJe%eeheve ØeyevOekeâ (c) DeefveefMÛele keâeue kesâ efueS mLeefiele
(c) efJe%eeheve efveÙeespekeâ (d) ØeÛeej mebÙeespekeâ (d) hetCe& efve<esOe
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'Advertisement Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'Is adjourned sine die' keâe
Manager' keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘efJe%eeheve ØeyevOekeâ’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe mener DevegJeeo ‘DeefveefMÛele keâeue kesâ efueS mLeefiele’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe
Demebiele nw~ Demebiele nw~
7. Executive Engineer keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw? 14. Both days inclusive keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw?
(a) keâeÙe&keâejer DeefYeÙevlee (b) keâeÙe&ØeYeejer DeefYeÙevlee (a) oes efoveeW kesâ Devoj (b) oes efoveeW ceW
(c) keâeÙe&heeuekeâ DeefYeÙevlee (d) keâeÙe&mebYeejkeâ DeefYeÙevlee (c) oesveeW ner efove (d) oesveeW efove Meeefceue
JPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2013 256 YCT
 Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'Both days inclusive' keâe Ans. (d) : kesâvõerÙe efnvoer mebmLeeve keâer mLeehevee DevegÛÚso 351 kesâ
mener DevegJeeo ‘oesveeW efove Meeefceue’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ lenle efnvoer Yee<ee kesâ efJekeâeme kesâ efueS efkeâÙee ieÙee Lee~ kesâvõerÙe efnvoer
15. Failing which keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw? mebmLeeve, Deeieje ceW nw~ efnvoer Yee<ee kesâ DeefKeue YeejleerÙe mJe™he keâes
(a) DemeHeâue nesves hej (b) DemeHeâuelee kesâ heMÛeeled meceeve mlej keâe yeveeves kesâ efueS Deewj meeLe ner hetjs Yeejle ceW efnvoer
(c) pees DemeHeâue keâjs (d) Ssmee ve keâjves hej Yee<ee kesâ efMe#eCe keâes meyeue DeeOeej osves kesâ GodosMÙe mes 19 ceeÛe&,
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'Failing which ' keâe mener 1960 keâes Yeejle mejkeâej kesâ lelkeâeueerve ‘efMe#ee SJeb meceepe keâuÙeeCe
DevegJeeo ‘Ssmee ve keâjves hej’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ ceb$eeueÙe’ ves Skeâ mJeeÙeòeMeemeer mebmLee ‘kesâvõerÙe efnvoer efMe#eCe ceb[ue’
16. Explanation may be called for keâe mener DevegJeeo
keâe ie"ve efkeâÙee~ 29 Dekeäštyej, 1963 ceW ‘kesâvõerÙe efnvoer efMe#eCe
ceneefJeÅeeueÙe’ keâe veece yeouekeâj ‘kesâvõerÙe efnvoer mebmLeeve’ keâj efoÙee
keäÙee nw? ieÙee~ Fmekeâe cegKÙeeueÙe Deeieje ceW nw~ cegKÙeeueÙe kesâ Deefleefjkeäle
(a) mhe<šerkeâjCe hetÚe peeÙes Fmekesâ 8 #es$eerÙe kesâvõ nw~
(b) peJeeye leueye efkeâÙee peeÙes
23. kesâvõerÙe efnvoer efveosMeeueÙe keâneB nw?
(c) JÙeeKÙee keâer peeÙes
(a) Deeieje (b) efouueer
(d) JÙeeKÙee keâjves keâer Devegceefle oer peeÙes
(c) ueKeveT (d) Yeesheeue
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes 'Explanation may be
Ans. (b) : ‘kesâvõerÙe efnvoer efveosMeeueÙe’ Yeejle mejkeâej keâe efJeYeeie
called for' keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘peJeeye leueye efkeâÙee peeÙes’ nw~ DevÙe
efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ nw, pees ceevekeâ efnvoer kesâ Øemeej kesâ efueS GòejoeÙeer nw~ Fmekeâer
mLeehevee 1 ceeÛe&, 1960 keâes ‘efouueer’ ceW keâer ieF&~
17. mejkeâejer he$e ‘efÉYee<eer’ nesves ÛeeefnS~ mener keäÙee nw?
24. keâewve-mee JeekeäÙe mener nw?
(a) Deb«espeer Deewj #es$eerÙe Yee<ee ceW
(a) IeeJe kesâ Thej oJee ueiee oes
(b) efnvoer Deewj Deb«espeer Yee<ee ceW
(b) IeeJe kesâ Devoj oJee ueiee oes
(c) Deb«espeer Deewj mLeeveerÙe Yee<ee ceW
(c) IeeJe hej oJee ueiee oes
(d) Deb«espeer Deewj jepÙeYee<eeDeeW ceW
(d) IeeJe ceW oJee ueiee oes
Ans. (d) : mejkeâejer he$e ‘Deb«espeer Deewj jepÙeYee<eeDeeW ceW’ nesves
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘IeeJe hej oJee ueiee oes’ JeekeäÙe
ÛeeefnS~ Jen he$e pees efkeâmeer mejkeâejer keâeÙee&ueÙe mes efkeâmeer DevÙe Megæ nw, peyeefkeâ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~
mejkeâejer keâeÙee&ueÙe keâes Yespee peeÙes Deewj efpemeceW mejkeâej keâer veerefle,
25. keâewve-mee JeekeäÙe mener nw?
mecemÙee, efveCe&Ùe Deeefo keâe GuuesKe nes, mejkeâejer he$e keânueelee nw~
veesš– DeeÙeesie ves Fme ØeMve keâe Gòej efJekeâuhe (b) keâes ceevee nw~ (a) Fve heeBÛeeW efJeÅeeefLe&ÙeeW ceW jepesMe ner Mejejleer nw
(b) Fve heeBÛeeW efJeÅeeefLe&ÙeeW kesâ yeerÛe jepesMe ner Mejejleer nw
18. efnvoer keâer efueefhe keäÙee nw? (c) Fve heeBÛeeW efJeÅeeefLe&ÙeeW mes jepesMe ner Mejejleer nw
(a) yeÇeÿeer (b) jesceve (d) Fve heeBÛeeW efJeÅeeefLe&ÙeeW kesâ Devleie&le jepesMe ner Mejejleer nw
(c) osJeveeiejer (d) ieg®cegKeer
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Fve heeBÛeeW efJeÅeeefLe&ÙeeW ceW
Ans. (c) : efnvoer Yee<ee keâer efueefhe ‘osJeveeiejer’ nw, peyeefkeâ Deb«espeer jepesMe ner Mejejleer nw’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, peyeefkeâ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe
keâer ‘jesceve’, hebpeeyeer keâer ‘ieg™cegKeer’ leLee ‘yeÇeÿeer efueefhe’ Jele&ceeve DeMegæ nw~
Yeejle ceW ØeÛeefuele meYeer Yee<eeDeeW keâer efueefhe nw~ 26. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ m$eerefuebie veneR nw?
19. efkeâme Meyo ceW Ghemeie& veneR nw? (a) vece&oe (b) MeesCe Ùee meesve
(a) Øeefleef›eâÙee (b) DeefOeefveÙece (c) Ùecegvee (d) leehleer
(c) yegefæpeerJeer (d) Deveceesue Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘MeesCe Ùee meesve’ hegefuuebie nw,
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘yegefæpeerJeer’ Meyo ceW Ghemeie& peyeefkeâ vece&oe, Ùecegvee, leehleer m$eerefuebie nw~
veneR nw, peyeefkeâ ‘Øeefleef›eâÙee’ ceW ‘Øeefle’, DeefOeefveÙece ceW ‘DeefOe’ leLee veesš–MeesCe, efmebOeg, yeÿeheg$e veo nw, Dele: Ùes hegefuuebie nw~
‘Deveceesue’ ceW ‘Deve’ Ghemeie& ueiee nw~ ‘Ghemeie&’ Gme MeyoebMe Ùee 27. ‘ueewnheg®<e’ Meyo keâe mener DeLe& keäÙee nw?
DeJÙeÙe keâes keânles nQ, pees efkeâmeer Meyo kesâ henues Deekeâj Gmekeâe efJeMes<e (a) ueesns keâe JÙeefkeäle
DeLe& Øekeâš keâjlee nw~ efnvoer ceW GhemeieeX keâer mebKÙee 10, mebmke=âle ceW (b) ueesns keâer heg®<ecetefle&
22 leLee Got& ceW 19 Ghemeie& nesles nQ~
(c) ueesns kesâ meceeve ÂÌ{efveMÛeÙeer JÙeefkeäle
20. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Meyo m$eerefuebie veneR nw? (d) ueesns keâe meeceeve yeveeves Jeeuee
(a) keâcheveer (b) šesheer (c) hegefueme (d) oner Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ueewnheg®<e’ keâe mener DeLe& ‘ueesns kesâ
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘oner’ hegefuuebie Meyo nw, meceeve ÂÌ{efveMÛeÙeer JÙeefkeäle’ nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
peyeefkeâ DevÙe meYeer m$eerefuebie Meyo nw~ Keeves-heerves keâer ÛeerpeW m$eerefuebie 28. Megæ JeekeäÙe keâewve-mee nw?
nesleer nw~ pewmes-keâÛeewÌ[er, hetjer, Keerj, oeue, jesšer, efKeÛeÌ[er FlÙeeefo~ (a) ØelÙeskeâ JÙeefkeäleÙeeW keâes Megæ yeesuevee ÛeeefnS
21. keäÙee efueKevee mener nw? (b) ØelÙeskeâ JÙeefkeäleÙeeW keâes Megæ yeesueveer ÛeeefnS
(a) efYevveefYeVe (b) efYeVe2 (c) ØelÙeskeâ JÙeefkeäle keâes Megæ yeesuevee ÛeeefnS
2
(c) efYevve-efYevve (d) efYevve (d) JÙeefkeäleÙeeW keâes Megæ yeesueveer ÛeeefnS
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efYevve-efYevve’ efueKevee mener nw, Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ØelÙeskeâ JÙeefkeäle keâes Megæ
peyeefkeâ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ yeesuevee ÛeeefnS’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, peyeefkeâ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~
22. kesâvõerÙe efnvoer mebmLeeve keâneB nw? 29. keâewve-mee JeekeäÙe mener nw?
(a) efouueer (b) Fueeneyeeo (a) cesje veece [e@0 keâceue efkeâMeesj nw
(c) hešvee (d) Deeieje (b) cesje veece keâceue efkeâMeesj nw
JPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2013 257 YCT
 (c) cesje veece ßeer keâceue efkeâMeesj nw 37. Inspectorate of Engineering Equipments keâe
(d) cesje veece ßeerceeve keâceue efkeâMeesj nw mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw?
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘cesje veece keâceue efkeâMeesj nw’ (a) DeefYeÙevlee meJex#eCe Ghemkeâj
JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, peyeefkeâ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~ (b) DeefYeÙevlee efvejer#eCe Ghemkeâj
30. ‘keâesÙeues keâer oueeueer ceW cegBn keâeuee’ keâe mener DeLe& keâewve- (c) FbpeerefveÙejer Ghemkeâj efvejer#eCeeueÙe
mee nw? (d) FbpeerefveÙej efvejer#eCeeueÙe Ghemkeâj
(a) keâesÙeuee keâeuee neslee nw lees Gmekeâe jbie Mejerj ceW ueie peelee nw Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Inspectorate of
(b) keâesÙeuee-JÙeJemeeÙe yengle yegje nw Engineering Equipments’ keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘FbpeerefveÙejer
(c) keâesÙeuee yesÛeves Jeeues oueeue nesles nQ Ghemkeâj efvejer#eCeeueÙe’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(d) yegjs ueesieeW kesâ meeLe jnves mes keâuebkeâ ueiesiee ner 38. Plant Inspector keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw?
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘keâesÙeues keâer oueeueer ceW cegBn (a) Ùeb$e meJex#ekeâ (b) Ùeb$e efvejer#ekeâ
keâeuee’ ueeskeâesefkeäle keâe mener DeLe& nw ‘yegjs ueesieeW kesâ meeLe jnves mes (c) mebÙeb$e efvejer#ekeâ (d) mebÙeb$e meJex#ekeâ
keâuebkeâ ueiesiee ner’~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Plant Inspector’ keâe mener
31. ‘Keesoe heneÌ[ efvekeâueer ÛegefnÙee’ keâe mener DeLe& keäÙee nw? DevegJeeo ‘mebÙeb$e efvejer#ekeâ’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
(a) ÛegefnÙee {tBÌ{ves kesâ efueS heneÌ[ Keesovee 39. mener Meyo keäÙee nw?
(b) heneÌ[ Keeso-Keesokeâj ÛegefnÙee keâe heerÚe keâjvee (a) DeefYeÙev$eCee (b) DeefYeÙevlee
(c) keâef"ve heefjßece keâjvee uesefkeâve yengle keâce Heâue efceuevee (c) DeYeerÙevlee (d) DeefYeÙeev$eCe
(d) keâef"ve heefjßece keâj-keâjkesâ Ûetne yeve peevee Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeefYeÙevlee’ Megæ Meyo nw,
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Keesoe heneÌ[ efvekeâueer ÛegefnÙee’ peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
ueeskeâesefkeäle keâe mener DeLe& ‘keâef"ve heefjßece keâjvee uesefkeâve yengle keâce 40. mener keäÙee nw?
heâue efceuevee’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ (a) efvecee&Ce–Skeâ keâuee nw
32. ‘meeBhe keâes otOe efheueevee’ keâe mener DeLe& keäÙee nw? (b) efvecee&Ce–kegâMeuelee nw
(a) veeiehebÛeceer keâe heJe& (c) efvecee&Ce–keâuee Deewj kegâMeuelee nw
(b) meeBhe keâer hetpee keâjvee (d) efvecee&Ce–oesveeW veneR nw
(c) meeBhe pewmes JÙeefkeäle keâes DeÛÚe Yeespeve osvee Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efvecee&Ce-keâuee Deewj kegâMeuelee
(d) og<š keâe Ghekeâej keâjvee nw’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘meeBhe keâes otOe efheueevee’ 41. mener keäÙee nw?
cegneJejs keâe mener DeLe& ‘og° keâe Ghekeâej keâjvee’ nQ~ DevÙe meYeer (a) DeefYeÙevlee kesâ heeme heefjkeâuhevee nesveer ÛeeefnS
efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (b) DeefYeÙevlee kesâ heeme keâuhevee nesveer ÛeeefnS
(c) DeefYeÙevlee kesâ heeme heefjkeâuhevee Deewj lekeâveerkeâ oesveeW nesves
33. Administer oath keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw?
ÛeeefnS
(a) ØeMeemeefvekeâ Øeefle%ee (b) MeheLe efoueevee
(d) DeefYeÙevlee kesâ heeme cee$e Yejesmee nesvee ÛeeefnS
(c) MeheLehetJe&keâ ØeMeemeve (d) ØeMeemeve keâer MeheLe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeefYeÙevlee kesâ heeme heefjkeâuhevee
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Administer oath’ keâe Deewj lekeâveerkeâ oesveeW nesves ÛeeefnS’ mener JeekeäÙe nw~ DevÙe meYeer
mener DevegJeeo ‘MeheLe efoueevee’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
34. Administrative approval keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw? 42. efnvoer Deheves ner Iej ceW oemeer nes ieÙeer nw Deewj Deb«espeer
(a) ØeMeemeve mecyevOeer DevegMebmee (b) ØeMeemeefvekeâ Devegceesove jeveer yeveer yew"er nw~ Fme efmLeefle kesâ efueS mejkeâej, nceejs
(c) ØeMeemeve keâer mJeerke=âefle (d) ØeMeemekeâerÙe #ecelee jepeveslee, DeefOekeâejer, kegâÚ mJeeLeea leòJe, DeueieeJeJeeoer
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Administrative leLee mJeÙeb GòejoeÙeer nQ~
approval’ keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘ ØeMeemeefvekeâ Devegceesove’ nw~ DevÙe (a) efoÙes ieÙes meYeer keâejCe GòejoeÙeer nQ
efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (b) cee$e ‘mJeÙeb’ ner GòejoeÙeer nw
35. Appropriate technology keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw? (c) cee$e mejkeâej Deewj DeefOekeâejer GòejoeÙeer nQ
(a) GefÛele lekeâveerkeâ (b) GefÛele lekeâveerkeâer (d) FveceW mes keâesF& GòejoeÙeer veneR nw
(c) GheÙegòeâ ØeewÅeesefiekeâer (d) GheÙegòeâ lekeâveerkeâer Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle DevegÛÚso kesâ Devegmeej efnvoer Yee<ee kesâ efJekeâeme
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Appropriate veneR nesves kesâ keâejCeeW ceW mejkeâej, jepeveslee DeefOekeâejer, kegâÚ mJeeLeea
technology’ keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘GheÙegkeäle ØeewÅeesefiekeâer’ nw~ DevÙe lelJe, DeueieeJeJeeoer leLee mJeÙeb efnvoer Yeer GòejoeÙeer nw~
efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ 43. meceÙe keâes Oeve mes Yeer DeefOekeâ cetuÙeJeeve yeleeÙee ieÙee nw,
36. Conversion table keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw? keäÙeeWefkeâ Oeve Kees peeves hej heefjßece mes Oeve keâcee mekeâles nQ
(a) heefjJele&veerÙe cespe hejvleg Oeve kesâ Éeje meceÙe veneR keâcee mekeâles~
(b) heefjJele&ve meejCeer mener keäÙee nw?
(c) yeoueves Jeeueer cespe (a) Oeve mes meceÙe Kejeroe pee mekeâlee nw
(d) Jen Debkeâ pees heefjJele&veerÙe nw (b) Oeve Deewj meceÙe oesveeW heefjßece mes keâceeÙes pee mekeâles nQ
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Conversion table’ keâe (c) Oeve Deewj meceÙe oesveeW meceeve ¤he mes cetuÙeJeeve nQ
mener DevegJeeo ‘heefjJele&ve meejCeer’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (d) Oeve mes meceÙe veneR Kejeroe pee mekeâlee nw

JPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2013 258 YCT

 Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle DevegÛÚso kesâ Devegmeej meceÙe Oeve mes DeefOekeâ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Instrument Mechanic’
cetuÙeJeeve nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ Oeve Kees peeves hej Gmes hegve: keâcee mekeâles nQ, keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘Ùeb$e cewkesâefvekeâ’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
uesefkeâve Oeve mes meceÙe veneR keâceeÙee pee mekeâlee~ 51. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ hegefuuebie veneR nw?
44. keâeue keâjw mees Deepe keâj, Deepe keâjw mees Deye~ (a) meeiej (b) jepÙe
heue ceW hejueÙe nesÙeieer, yengefj keâjwiees keâye~ (c) heJe&le (d) Peerue
Fmekeâe DeLe& keäÙee nw? Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Peerue’ Meyo m$eerefuebie nw,
(a) keâeue Deehekeâes Deepe ner meceehle keâj osiee keäÙeeWefkeâ ØeueÙe peyeefkeâ meeiej, heJe&le leLee jepÙe hegefuuebie Meyo nQ~ meb%ee kesâ efpeme
Deeves Jeeuee nw ™he mes JÙeefkeäle Ùee Jemleg keâer vej Ùee ceeoe peeefle keâe yeesOe nes, Gmes
(b) DeYeer keâece keâjes yengle-mee keâece heÌ[e nw JÙeekeâjCe ceW efuebie keânles nQ~ efnvoer ceW oes efuebie nesles nQ–(1) hegefuuebie
(c) heue Yej ceW ner ØeueÙe nesiee Dele: Deepe ner yengle-mee keâece (2) m$eerefuebie~
keâj uees 52. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ hegefuuebie veneR nw?
(d) efpemes keâue keâjvee nw Gmes Deepe keâj uees helee veneR heue Yej (a) Yeejle (b) uebkeâe
ceW ner ØeueÙe Dee peeÙes lees keâeÙe& keâye keâjesies (c) Ûeerve (d) heeefkeâmleeve
Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle oesns keâe DeLe& nw- efpeme keâece keâes keâue keâjvee Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘uebkeâe’ Meyo m$eerefuebie nw,
nw, Gmes Deepe keâj uees, helee veneR heue Yej ceW ner ØeueÙe Dee peeÙes lees peyeefkeâ Yeejle, Ûeerve leLee heeefkeâmleeve hegefuuebie Meyo nw~
keâeÙe& keâye keâjesies~ veesš– osMeeW kesâ veece ØeeÙe: hegefuuebie nesles nQ~
45. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ mener veneR nw? 53. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ hegefuuebie veneR nw?
(a) hegmlekeâeueÙeeOÙe#e (b) DeeJeMÙekeâleevegmeej (a) he=LJeer (b) metÙe&
(c) DeveeefOekeâej ØeJesMe (d) DeYÙeemeJeMe (c) cebieue (d) Meg›eâ
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeveeefOekeâej ØeJesMe’ DeMegæ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘he=LJeer’ m$eerefuebie Meyo nw~
nw~ Fmekeâe Megæ ™he ‘DeveefOekeâej ØeJesMe’ nesiee~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe peyeefkeâ metÙe&, cebieue leLee Meg›eâ hegefuuebie Meyo nw~
Megæ nw~ veesš– ve#e$eeW kesâ veece hegefuuebie nesles nQ~ pewmes- Je=nmheefle, Meefve,
46. mener JeekeäÙe keäÙee nw? yegOe, cebieue, Meg›eâ FlÙeeefo~
(a) mecYeJele:, Jen Deepe yecyeF& DeJeMÙe peeÙesiee 54. mener JeekeäÙe keäÙee nw?
(b) mebYeJele: Deepe ner Jen yecyeF& peeÙesiee (a) ke=âheÙee yew" peeves keâer ke=âhee keâjW
(c) Jen Deepe yecyeF& DeJeMÙe peeÙesiee (b) ke=âheÙee yew"ves keâer ke=âhee keâjW
(d) Jen yecyeF& mecYeJele: Deepe DeJeMÙe peeÙesiee (c) ke=âheÙee keâjkesâ yew" peeÙeW
(d) ke=âheÙee yew" peeÙeW
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Jen Deepe yecyeF& DeJeMÙe
peeÙesiee’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw~ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ke=âheÙee yew" peeÙeW’ JeekeäÙe Megæ
47. mener JeekeäÙe keäÙee nw?
nw~ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~
55. mener JeekeäÙe keäÙee nw?
(a) ke=âheÙee keâjkesâ megneveer ceewmece keâe cepee ueW
(b) ke=âheÙee keâjkesâ megneves ceewmece keâe cepee ueW (a) DeefYeÙevleeDeeW kesâ cegefKeÙee keâes yegueeÙeW
(b) DeefYeÙevleeDeeW kesâ DeiegJee keâes yegueeÙeW
(c) ke=âheÙee megneves ceewmece keâe cepee ueW
(c) DeefYeÙevlee-ØecegKe keâes yegueeÙeW
(d) ke=âheÙee megneveer ceewmece keâe cepee ueW
(d) leerveeW ceW keâesF& mener veneR
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ke=âheÙee megneves ceewmece keâe cepee
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeefYeÙevlee ØecegKe keâes yegueeÙeW’
ueW’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw~ peyeefkeâ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw~ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~
48. mener JeekeäÙe keäÙee nw?
56. mener keäÙee nw?
(a) peJeenjueeue vesn¤ yegefæceeve JÙeefkeäle Lee
(a) Yeejer FbpeerveerÙejer ØeYeeie (b) nsJeer FbpeerefveÙeefjbie ØeYeeie
(b) ieeBOeer Jekeâerue Yeer Lee (c) nsJeer FbpeerveerÙejer efJeYeeie (d) Yeejer FbpeerveerÙejer efJeYeeie
(c) [e@0 jepesvõ Øemeeo je<š^heefle Les
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Yeejer FbpeerveerÙejer ØeYeeie’ JeekeäÙe
(d) ueeue yeneogj Meem$eer ØeOeeveceb$eer Lee
Megæ nw~ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘[e@0 jepesvõ Øemeeo je°^heefle
57. mener keäÙee nw?
Les’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw~ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~ (a) meeJeOeevehetJe&keâ (b) meeJeOeeveerhetJe&keâ
49. FveceW mes efkeâmekeâes je<š^keâefJe keâne ieÙee nw? (c) memeeJeOeeve (d) leerveeW ceW keâesF& mener veneR
(a) ceneosJeer Jecee& (b) efovekeâj Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘meeJeOeeveerhetJe&keâ’ Megæ Meyo
(c) efvejeuee (d) Oece&Jeerj Yeejleer nw, peyeefkeâ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes jeceOeejer efmebn ‘efovekeâj’ keâes 58. efveOee&efjle efJe<eÙe hej hetje Yee<eCe efueKekeâj Ùeeo keâj uesves
je°^keâefJe keâne ieÙee nw~ ‘efovekeâj’ DeespemJeer je°^keâefJe mes Deesle-Øeesle mes efnÛeefkeâÛeenš otj nes peeleer nw~ Yee<eCe kesâ DeYÙeeme mes
keâefJe kesâ ™he ceW peeves peeles nQ~ Fvekeâe pevce 23 efmelecyej,1908 keâes DeelceefJeMJeeme Glhevve nes peelee nw Deewj yeeo ceW efyevee
efyenej kesâ yesietmejeÙe efpeues ceW ngDee~ ‘jefMcejLeer’ Fvekeâer Øeefmeæ jÛevee nw~ keâC"mLe efkeâÙes Yeer Yee<eCe efoÙee pee mekeâlee nw~
50. Instrument Mechanic keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw? heÌ{keâj mener Gòej yeleeSB :
(a) mebÙeb$e keâejkeâ (b) Ùeb$e cewkesâefvekeâ (a) keâC"mLe keâjves mes DeelceefJeMJeeme Glhevve neslee nw
(c) mebÙeb$e megOeejkeâ (d) Ùeb$e meJex#ekeâ (b) Yee<eCe osves kesâ efueS keâC"mLe keâjvee pe¤jer nw
JPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2013 259 YCT
 (c) Yee<eCe osves kesâ efueS efueKekeâj DeYÙeeme keâjves mes 66. ‘mebiees<"er’ keâe mener DeLe& keäÙee nw?
DeelceefJeMJeeme hewoe neslee nw~ (a) meYee (b) meccesueve
(d) Yee<eCe efueKekeâj efoÙee peelee nw~ (c) mesefceveej (d) yew"keâ
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle DevegÛÚso kesâ Devegmeej Yee<eCe osves kesâ efueS Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘mebiees‰er’ keâe mener DeLe&
efueKekeâj DeYÙeeme keâjves mes DeelceefJeMJeeme hewoe neslee nw~ Deelce ‘mesefceveej’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
efJeMJeeme Dee peeves hej efyevee keâC"mLe efkeâÙes Yeer Yee<eCe efoÙee pee 67. Ground Engineer keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw?
mekeâlee nw~ (a) Yet-DeefYeÙeblee (b) mLeue DeefYeÙevlee
59. Meyo ‘efMe<šeÛeej’ kesâ efueS mener keäÙee nw? (c) Yetefce DeefYeÙevlee (d) efvecve DeefYeÙevlee
(a) efMe<š ± DeÛeej (b) efMe<š ± DeeÛeej Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Ground Engineer’ keâe
(c) efMe<še ± Ûeej (d) efMe: ± šeÛeej mener DevegJeeo ‘mLeue DeefYeÙevlee’ nQ~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efMe°eÛeej’ kesâ efueS ‘efMe° ± 68. Flight Engineer keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw?
DeeÛeej’ mener Meyo nw~ DevÙe meYeer Meyo Demebiele nQ~ (a) nJeeF& DeefYeÙevlee (b) nJeeF& penepe keâe DeefYeÙevlee
60. Meyo ‘heÙee&JejCe’ kesâ efueS mener keäÙee nw? (c) GÌ[eve DeefYeÙevlee (d) HeäueeFš DeefYeÙevlee
(a) heefj ± DeeJejCe (b) heÙe& ± DeeJejCe Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Flight Engineer’ keâe mener
(c) heÙee& ± JejCe (d) heÙee&Je ± jCe DevegJeeo ‘GÌ[eve DeefYeÙevlee’ nQ~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘heÙee&JejCe’ kesâ efueS ‘heefj ± 69. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ mener veneR nw?
DeeJejCe’ mener Meyo nw~ DevÙe meYeer Meyo Demebiele nQ~ (a) ßes<"–ßes<"lej–ßes<"lece
61. mener JeekeäÙe keäÙee nw? (b) efvekeâš–efvekeâšlej–efvekeâšlece
(a) efce$e ves Yeespeve keâe efveceb$eCe efoÙee (c) meewvoÙe&–meewvoÙe&lej–meewvoÙe&lece
(b) efce$e ves Yeespeve keâe Deeceb$eCe efoÙee (d) ÙeesiÙe–ÙeesiÙelej–ÙeesiÙelece
(c) efce$e ves iees<"er keâe efveceb$eCe efoÙee Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘meewvoÙe&-meewvoÙe&lej-meewvoÙe&lece’
(d) efce$e ves ogkeâeve Ûeueves keâe efveceb$eCe efoÙee ™he mener veneR nw~ Fmekeâe Megæ ™he megvoj-megvojlej-megvojlece’
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efce$e ves Yeespeve keâe efveceb$eCe nesiee~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Megæ nw~
efoÙee’ mener JeekeäÙe nw~ Meeoer-efJeJeen, Yeespeve Deeefo keâer JÙeJemLee nes 70. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw?
lees ueesieeW keâes efveceb$eCe Yespee peelee nw~ peyeefkeâ cebÛe hej Yee<eCe keâjves, (a) Gmeves hegmlekeâ heÌ{ Ûegkeâer nw
keâefJelee Deeefo heÌ{ves kesâ efueS yegueee nes lees Deecebef$ele efkeâÙee peelee nw~ (b) ceQ cesjs Iej peeTBiee
DevÙe meYeer DeMegæ JeekeäÙe nw~ (c) yeÛÛee veoer hej Ûeue jne Lee
62. ‘DeefYeuesKeyeæ keâjvee’ keâe mener DeLe& keäÙee nw? (d) ceQ Deheves Iej peeTBieer
(a) hegve: efueKevee Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ‘ceQ Deheves Iej peeTBieer’ JeekeäÙe
(b) efueKes ngS keâes Skeâ$e keâjvee Megæ nw~ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nQ~
(c) efueKes ngS keâes ope& (efjkeâe@[&) keâjvee 71. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ mener nw?
(d) efueKevee (a) meOevÙeJeeo meefnle (b) Deehekeâe YeJeoerÙe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeefYeuesKeyeæ keâjvee’ keâe mener (c) ke=âheÙee DevegjesOe keâjlee ntB (d) YeJeoerÙe
DeLe& ‘efueKes ngS keâes ope& (efjkeâe[&) keâjvee’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘YeJeoerÙe’ Meyo mener nw,
Demebiele nQ~ keäÙeeWefkeâ peye oes heefjefÛele Deewj DeheefjefÛele JÙeefkeäleÙeeW kesâ yeerÛe he$e
63. ‘hegveefve&Ùegefòeâ’ keâe mener DeLe& keäÙee nw? JÙeJenej neslee nw, leye JeneB ‘YeJeoerÙe’ keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ DevÙe meYeer
(a) efveÙegefkeäle keâer hegef<š keâjvee efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(b) hegveefve&Ùeespeve keâjvee 72. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ JeekeäÙe mener nw?
(c) hegve: ØeJesMe keâjvee (a) DeveskeâeW kegâòes YeeQkeâ jns nQ
(d) efveÙegefkeäle kesâ efueS hegve: DeeJesove osvee (b) ceQ mekegâMeuehetJe&keâ ntB
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘hegveefve&Ùegefòeâ’ keâe mener DeLe& (c) efouueer ceW keâF& oMe&veerÙe mLeue nQ
‘efveÙegefòeâ kesâ efueS hegve: DeeJesove osvee’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer Meyo Demebiele nw~ (d) efouueer ceW keâF& oMe&veerÙe mLeue osKeves ÙeesiÙe nQ
64. ‘heefjMeesefOele šW[j’ keâe mener DeLe& keäÙee nw? Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efouueer ceW keâF& oMe&veerÙe mLeue
(a) mebMeesefOele šW[j (b) heefjMeesefOele efveefJeoe nQ’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw~ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~
(c) hegvejeref#ele efveefJeoe (d) hegve:ØeJeefle&le efveefJeoe 73. Meyo ‘mJewefÛÚkeâ’ kesâ efueS mener keäÙee nw?
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘heefjMeesefOele šW[j’ keâe mener (a) mJe ± FefÛÚkeâ (b) mJew ± FefÛÚkeâ
DeLe& ‘heefjMeesefOele efveefJeoe’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer Meyo Demebiele nQ~ (c) mJe ± SsefÛÚkeâ (d) mJewefÛÚ ± Fkeâ
65. Meyo ‘ØelÙeejesheCe’ kesâ efueS mener keäÙee nw? Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘mJewefÛÚkeâ’ keâe mener DeLe&
(a) ØelÙe ± DeejesheCe (b) Øeefle ± DeejesheCe ‘mJe ± SsefÛÚkeâ’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
(c) ØelÙee ± jesheCe (d) ØelÙeÙe ± jesheCe 74. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ mener nw?
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ØelÙeejesheCe’ kesâ efueS (a) ueeskeâ ceW ØeÛeefuele Gefòeâ keâes ueeskeâesefòeâ keânles nQ
‘Øeefle±DeejesheCe’ mener Meyo nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ (b) ueeskeâ DevegYeJe keâes ueeskeâesefòeâ keânles nQ
JPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2013 260 YCT
 (c) pees ueeskeâ keâes hemevo nes Gmes ueeskeâesefòeâ keânles nQ (a) efve: ± Ûeue (b) og: ± Ûeefj$e
(d) ueeskeâ DevegYeJe mes efveefce&le, ueeskeâ ceW ØeÛeefuele Gefòeâ keâes (c) efve: ± Úue (d) Øeele: ± keâeue
ueeskeâesefòeâ keânles nQ Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Øeele:±keâeue’ mebefOe efJeÛÚso kesâ
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ueeskeâ DevegYeJe mes efveefce&le, Devleie&le efJekeâej veneR nw~ Øeele:keâeue efJemeie& mebefOe keâe GoenjCe nw~
ueeskeâ ceW ØeÛeefuele Gefòeâ keâes ueeskeâesefòeâ keânles nQ’ JeekeäÙe mener nw~ DevÙe Ùeefo efJemeie& kesâ henues ‘De’ nes Deewj yeeo ceW keâ, Ke, he, heâ ceW mes
meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~ keâesF& JeCe& nes, lees efJemeie& pÙeeW keâe lÙeeW jnlee nw~ FveceW keâesF& heefjJele&ve
75. DeefYeÙevleeDeeW keâe mecyevOe FveceW mes efkeâme Skeâ keâuee mes veneR neslee nw~
cegKÙe ¤he mes nw? pewmes- Øeele: ± keâeue · Øeele:keâeue
(a) efÛe$ekeâuee (b) cetefle&keâuee HeâÙe: ± heeve · heÙe:heeve
(c) Jeemlegkeâuee (d) keâeJÙekeâuee Devle:± keâjCe · Devle:keâjCe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes DeefYeÙevleeDeeW keâe mecyevOe cegKÙe 82. efkeâme Skeâ Meyo ceW ‘Øe’ Ghemeie& veneR nw?
™he mes ‘Jeemlegkeâuee’ mes neslee nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~ (a) ØeÙeesie (b) ØeefleOJeefve
76. DeefYeÙeb$eCe kesâ #es$e ceW kewâmeer MeyoeJeueer keâer DeeJeMÙekeâlee (c) Øeyeue (d) ØeÙelve
nw? Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ØeefleOJeefve’ Meyo ceW ‘Øe’
(a) meeefneflÙekeâ MeyoeJeueer keâer Ghemeie& veneR nw, yeefukeâ FmeceW ‘Øeefle’ Ghemeie& ueiee nw, peyeefkeâ ØeÙeesie,
(b) yeesueÛeeue keâer MeyoeJeueer keâer Øeyeue leLee ØeÙelve ceW ‘Øe’ Ghemeie& nw~
(c) Jew%eeefvekeâ Deewj lekeâveerkeâer MeyoeJeueer keâer 83. efvecveefueefKele keâewve-mes Skeâ Meyo ceW Got& Ghemeie& nw?
(d) mebmke=âle keâer lelmece MeyoeJeueer keâer (a) DeJeiegCe (b) megkeâvÙee
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes DeefYeÙeb$eCe kesâ #es$e ceW (c) yeoÛeueve (d) Glkeâ<e&
‘Jew%eeefvekeâ Deewj lekeâveerkeâer MeyoeJeueer keâer’ DeeJeMÙekeâlee nesleer nw~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘yeoÛeueve’ (yeo ± Ûeueve)
DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ Meyo ceW Got& Ghemeie& ØeÙegkeäle ngDee nw~ Got& ceW GhemeieeX keâer mebKÙee 19
77. ‘Keespe’ Meyo kesâ efueS FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ Meyo nw~ DevÙe meYeer MeyoeW ceW efnvoer GhemeieeX keâe ØeÙeesie ngDee nw~
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer veneR nw Ùee keânW efkeâ Gmekeâe DeLe& veneR 84. ‘efpe%eemeg’ keâe DeLe& keäÙee nw?
yeleelee? (a) pees peeveves keâes Glmegkeâ nw (b) pees peervee Ûeenlee nw
(a) DeeefJe<keâej (b) MeesOe (c) efpemeceW peerves keâer FÛÚe nw (d) pees peervee veneR Ûeenlee nw
(c) ÙeeÛevee (d) DevJes<eCe Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘efpe%eemeg’ keâe DeLe& nw-pees
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ÙeeÛevee’ Meyo ‘Keespe’ keâe peeveves keâes Glmegkeâ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Ùee DeLe& veneR yeleelee~ ‘ÙeeÛevee’ keâe DeLe& ‘ØeeLe&vee keâjvee’ 85. FveceW mes efkeâme Skeâ keâe mecyevOe DeefYeÙeebef$ekeâer mes veneR nw?
neslee nw, peyeefkeâ DeeefJe<keâej, MeesOe leLee DevJes<eCe Keespe kesâ (a) JewÅegle DeefYeÙeebef$ekeâer ef[hueescee
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nQ~ (b) Ùeebef$ekeâ DeefYeÙeebef$ekeâer ef[hueescee
78. keâewve-mee Skeâ leLÙe mener nw? (c) jmeeÙeve DeefYeÙeebef$ekeâer ef[hueescee
(a) Yee<ee keâe Megæ %eeve he$e-heef$ekeâeDeeW mes neslee nw (d) vewoeefvekeâ efJeke=âefleefJe%eeve ef[hueescee
(b) Yee<ee keâe Megæ %eeve yeesueves mes neslee nw Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘vewoeefvekeâ efJeke=âefleefJe%eeve
(c) Yee<ee keâe Megæ %eeve JÙeekeâjCe mes neslee nw ef[hueescee’ keâe mecyevOe DeefYeÙeebef$ekeâer mes veneR nw~ yeefukeâ Fmekeâe
(d) Yee<ee keâe Megæ %eeve otjoMe&ve mes neslee nw mecyevOe efÛeefkeâlmee efJe%eeve mes nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuheeW keâe mecyevOe
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Yee<ee’ keâe Megæ %eeve DeefYeÙeebef$ekeâer mes nw~
JÙeekeâjCe mes neslee nw’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~ 86. Leave preparatory to retirement keâe mener DevegJeeo
79. ‘efnvoer efoJeme’ keâye ceveeÙee peelee nw? keäÙee nw?
(a) hevõn Deiemle keâes (b) Ûeewon efmelecyej keâes (a) mesJeeefveJe=efòe kesâ henues ÚesÌ[ oW
(c) heeBÛe efmelecyej keâes (d) Ú: efomecyej keâes (b) mesJeeefveJe=efòe keâe efnmeeye efkeâÙee peeÙes
Ans. (b) :efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Ûeewon efmelecyej keâes’ ‘efnvoer (c) mesJeeefveJe=efòe hetJe& Úgóer
efoJeme’ ceveeÙee peelee nw~ 14 efmelecyej 1949 keâes mebefJeOeeve meYee ves (d) mesJeeefveJe=efòe keâer lewÙeejer
Skeâ cele mes efveCe&Ùe efueÙee efkeâ efnvoer ner Yeejle keâer jepeYee<ee nesieer~ Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Leave preparatory to
FmeerefueS 14 efmelecyej keâes efnvoer efoJeme ceveeÙee peelee nw~ retirement’ keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘mesJeeefveJe=efòe hetJe& Úgóer’ nw~ DevÙe
80. Meyo-keâesMe ceW DeLe& {tBÌ{ves kesâ efueS keäÙee peevevee pe¤jer meYeer efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw~
nw? 87. As verbally instructed keâe mener DevegJeeo keäÙee nw?
(a) JeCe&ceeuee keâe mener ›eâce (b) MeyoeW keâe DeLe& (a) pewmee ceewefKekeâ DeeosMe efoÙee ieÙee nw
(c) MeyoeW keâe GÛÛeejCe (d) MeyoeW keâe ØeÙeesie (b) ceewefKekeâ DeeosMeevegmeej
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes Meyo-keâes<e ceW DeLe& {tb{ves kesâ (c) cegBnpeyeeveer DeeosMe
efueS ‘JeCe&ceeuee keâe mener ›eâce’ peevevee pe™jer nw~ DevÙe meYeer (d) keâne ieÙee efveoxMe
efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘As verbally instructed’
81. efvecveefueefKele MeyoeW ceW mes efkeâme Skeâ ceW meefvOe kesâ keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘ceewefKekeâ DeeosMeevegmeej’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe
Devleie&le efJekeâej veneR Deelee? Demebiele nw~
JPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2013 261 YCT
88. Workshop Electrical Engineer keâe mener DevegJeeo 94. Megæ JeekeäÙe keâewve-mee nw?
keäÙee nw? (a) cegPes Deheej n<e& leLee Deevevo ngDee
(a) keâce&Meeuee efyepeueer FbpeerefveÙej (b) cegPes Deheej n<e& leLee Deevevo ngS
(b) keâeÙe&Meeuee efyepeueer FbpeerefveÙej (c) cegPes Deheej n<e& Deewj Deevevo efceuee
(c) keâece keâjves Jeeuee efJeÅegle mecyevOeer DeefYeÙevlee (d) cegPes Deheej n<e& leLee Deevevo efceues
(d) efJeÅegle DeefYeÙevlee pees keâeÙe&Meeuee DeeÙeesefpele keâjlee nw Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘cegPes Deheej n<e& Deewj Deevevo
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Workshop Electrical efceuee’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw, peyeefkeâ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~
Engineer’ keâe mener DevegJeeo ‘keâce&Meeuee efyepeueer FbpeerefveÙej’ nw~ 95. keâewve-mee he$e mejkeâejer he$e keâne peeÙesiee?
DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (a) heg$e keâe efhelee kesâ heeme jKee ieÙee he$e, efpemeceW Heâerme keâer
89. mener ceb$eeueÙe keäÙee nw?
jeefMe ceeBieer ieÙeer nw
(b) ØeOeeveeOÙeehekeâ keâe he$e pees efMe#ee efveosMekeâ keâes efueKee
(a) ceeveJe mebmeeOeve keâuÙeeCe ceb$eeueÙe
ieÙee nw, efpemeceW efJeÅeeueÙe kesâ efueS Devegoeve jeefMe ceeBieer
(b) ceeveJe mebjÛevee efJekeâeme ceb$eeueÙe ieÙeer nw
(c) ceeveJe keâuÙeeCe Deewj efJekeâeme efJeYeeie (c) efce$e keâes efueKee ieÙee he$e efpemeceW ceneefJeÅeeueÙe keâer
(d) ceeveJe mebmeeOeve Deewj efJekeâeme ceb$eeueÙe efMekeâeÙele keâer ieÙeer nw
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ceeveJe mebmeeOeve Deewj efJekeâeme (d) DeHeâmej keâe he$e pees Deheves efce$e keâes efueKee ieÙee nw
ceb$eeueÙe’ Skeâ mener ceb$eeueÙe nw~ efMe#ee kesâ #es$e ceW Ùen Yeejle keâer Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ØeOeeveeOÙeehekeâ keâe he$e pees
meJeexÛÛe mebmLee nw~ Fmekeâe ie"ve 15 Deiemle, 1947 keâes ‘efMe#ee efMe#ee efveosMekeâ keâes efueKee ieÙee nw, efpemeceW efJeÅeeueÙe kesâ efueS
ceb$eeueÙe’ kesâ ™he ceW efkeâÙee ieÙee Je<e&, 1985 ceW jepeerJe ieeBOeer mejkeâej Devegoeve jeefMe ceeBieer ieÙeer nw’ Skeâ ‘mejkeâejer he$e’ nw~ mejkeâej kesâ
ves Fmekeâe veece ‘ceeveJe mebmeeOeve efJekeâeme ceb$eeueÙe’ keâj efoÙee~ ‘je°^erÙe keâecekeâepe mes mecyeefvOele he$e mejkeâejer he$e Ùee MeemekeâerÙe he$e keânueeles
efMe#ee veerefle–2020’ keâer Iees<eCee kesâ meeLe Fme ceb$eeueÙe keâe veece efheâj nQ~ Fvekeâe ØeÙeesie mejkeâejer efJeYeeieeW/keâeÙee&ueÙeeW Éeje efkeâÙee peelee nw~
mes ‘efMe#ee ceb$eeueÙe’ keâj efoÙee ieÙee nw~ Jele&ceeve ceW Fmekesâ DeOÙe#e 96. mener keäÙee nw?
‘jcesMe heesKeefjÙeeue efveMebkeâ’ nw~ (a) DeeÙe-JÙeÙe keâe yÙeesje efoÙee peelee nw
90. ‘DeOeesieefle’ keâe DeLe& keäÙee nw? (b) DeeÙe-JÙeÙe keâe JeCe&ve efkeâÙee peelee nw
(a) heleve (b) veerÛes peevee (c) DeeÙe-JÙeÙe ceW mebKÙee efueKeer peeleer nw
(c) Thej peevee (d) veerÛes Glejvee (d) DeeÙe-JÙeÙe keâer mebefJeoe Øemlegle keâer peeleer nw
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeOeesieefle’ keâe DeLe& ‘heleve’ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeeÙe-JÙeÙe keâe yÙeewje efoÙee
nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ peelee nw’ mener JeekeäÙe nw~ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~
91. ‘Ùen Deewjle šsÌ{er nw’ keâe mener DeLe& keäÙee nw? 97. mener keäÙee nw?
(a) Gmekeâe Mejerj šsÌ{e nw (a) FbpeerefveÙeefjbie ØeYeeie keâe mecyevOe efnvoer meeefnlÙe mes nw
(b) FbpeerefveÙeefjbie ØeYeeie keâe mecyevOe Deb«espeer meeefnlÙe mes nw
(b) Jen meerOeer neskeâj veneR Ûeueleer, uebieÌ[ekeâj Ûeueleer nw
(c) FbpeerefveÙeefjbie ØeYeeie keâe mecyevOe kesâJeue mebKÙeeDeeW mes nw
(c) Gmekeâer Deeke=âefle Je›eâ nw
(d) FbpeerefveÙeefjbie ØeYeeie keâe mecyevOe efnvoer Yee<ee mes nw
(d) Jen Deewjle kegâefšue mJeYeeJe keâer nw
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘FbpeerefveÙeefjbie ØeYeeie keâe mecyevOe
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Ùen Deewjle šsÌ{er nw’ keâe mener
efnvoer Yee<ee mes nw’ mener JeekeäÙe nw~ DevÙe meYeer JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw~
DeLe& ‘Jen Deewjle kegâefšue mJeYeeJe keâer nw’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe 98. keäÙee efueKevee mener nw?
DeMegæ nw~ (a) heg®<e DeefYeÙevlee/veejer DeefYeÙevlee
92. ‘Jen Deeoceer ieeÙe nw’ keâe mener DeLe& keäÙee nw? (b) vej DeefYeÙevlee/veejer DeefYeÙevlee
(a) Jen ieeÙe keâer lejn ueeYekeâejer nw (c) heg®<e DeefYeÙevlee/ceefnuee DeefYeÙevlee
(b) Jen ieeÙe keâer lejn meerOee-meeoe (mJeYeeJe) nw (d) DeefYeÙevlee/DeefYeÙevlee (ceefnuee)
(c) Jen ieeÙe keâer lejn heg<š nw Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘DeefYeÙevlee/DeefYeÙevlee
(d) Jen ieeÙe keâer lejn ceewve jnves Jeeuee nw (ceefnuee)’ efueKevee mener nw~ DevÙe meYeer efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Jen Deeoceer ieeÙe nw’ keâe mener 99. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ mener veneR nw?
DeLe& ‘Jen ieeÙe keâer lejn meerOee-meeoe (mJeYeeJe) keâe’ nw~ DevÙe meYeer (a) JÙeeheeefjkeâ (b) heefjJeeefjkeâ
efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ (c) meeceeefpekeâ (d) DeeOegefvekeâ
93. ‘yeng›eerefn’ keäÙee nw? Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘heefjJeeefjkeâ’ Meyo mener veneR
(a) meefvOe (b) meceeme nw, peyeefkeâ JÙeeheeefjkeâ, meeceeefpekeâ leLee DeeOegefvekeâ Megæ Meyo nQ~
(c) meb%ee (d) efJeMes<eCe 100. FveceW mes keâewve-mee Skeâ mener veneR nw?
Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘yengyeÇerefn’ meceeme nw~ meceeme (a) Ùeb$e – Ùeebef$ekeâ (b) leb$e – leebef$ekeâ
ceW DeeÙes heoeW keâes ÚesÌ[keâj peye efkeâmeer DevÙe heoeLe& keâer ØeOeevelee nes, (c) lebõe – lebefõue (d) šbkeâCe – šebefkeâle
leye Gmes yengyeÇerefn meceeme keânles nQ~ pewmes- Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘šbkeâCe – šebefkeâle’ DeMegæ
veeruekebâ"– veeruee nw kebâ" efpemekeâe DeLee&led efMeJe~ Meyo nw, Fmekeâe Megæ ¤he nesiee– šbkeâCe – šbefkeâle~ peyeefkeâ DevÙe
Ûevõceewefue– Ûevõ nw efmej hej efpemekesâ DeLee&led Mebkeâj~ Meyo-Ùegice Megæ nw~
JPSC AE Gen. Hindi, 2013 262 YCT
 Jharkhand Public Service Commission Exam, 2013
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL ENGLISH (PAPER-II)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Marks : 100

Group–A 5. All the criminals have been brought to book.

Direction : Each of the following sentences contains an (a) let off (b) bailed
idiom/phrase. At the end of each sentence four (c) punished (d) warned
alternatives have been given. You have to choose the Ans: (c) The underlined idiom – 'Brought to book'
one that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase means ‘oefC[le keâjvee’, efpemekeâer GefÛele JÙeeKÙee efJekeâuhe (c)
that has been underlined. 'Punished' ‘oefC[le keâjvee’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
1. His deeds are at variance with his words. Let off – cegòeâ keâjvee, #ecee keâjvee
(a) in disagreement with
(b) in agreement with Bailed – peceevele efceuevee
(c) without any relevance to Warned – ÛesleeJeveer osvee
(d) in compliance with 6. Who broke the ice in the meeting?
Ans: (a) The underlined idiom – 'At variance with' (a) distributed ice cream (b) ate ice cream
means efkeâmeer mes efYeVe nesvee (kesâ efJe™æ), efpemekeâer GefÛele JÙeeKÙee (c) broke silence (d) laughed loudly
efJekeâuhe (a) in disagreement with – (efkeâmeer mes Demenceefle/ Ans: (c) The underlined idiom 'Broke the ice' – ‘Ûeghheer
efYeVelee nesvee) nw~ peyeefkeâ Mes<e efJekeâuhe efYeVe DeLe& Øeoeve keâjles nQ~ leesÌ[vee’ efpemekeâer mhe° JÙeeKÙee efJekeâuhe (c) 'Broke silence' –
2. I do not know what exactly is the bone of ‘Ûeghheer lees[Ì vee’ nw~ peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
contention between them. Distributed ice cream – DeeFme›eâerce efJeleefjle efkeâÙee
(a) point of agreement Ate ice cream – DeeFme›eâerce KeeÙee
(b) point of quarrel Laughed loudly – peesj mes nBmee
(c) point of adjustment
(d) point of compromise 7. He wants to be rich by hook or by crook.
(a) by fair means
Ans: (b) The underlined idiom 'bone of contention' –
(b) by foul means
‘efJeJeeo keâe efJe<eÙe’, keâer GefÛele JÙeeKÙee efJekeâuhe (b) Point of (c) by flattering others
quarrel – (PeieÌ[s keâer peÌ[) nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& leke&âmebiele (d) by fair or foul means
veneR nQ~ Ans: (d) efoS ieS Idiom/Phrase 'By hook or by crook' –
3. A man's life is not at all a bed of roses. ‘efkeâmeer Yeer keâercele hej, efpemekeâer JÙeeKÙee efJekeâuhe (d) 'By fair on
(a) wearisome foul means' – ‘efve<he#e Ùee yesF&ceeveer mes’ keâjlee nw~ peyeefkeâ DevÙe
(b) troublesome
(c) painful efJekeâuhe mhe° JÙeeKÙee veneR keâjles nQ~
(d) comfortable and colourful 8. She cut a sorry figure before the interview
Ans: (d) The underlined idiom 'A bed of roses' – board.
‘megKeoeÙekeâ Je mejue heo Ùee heefjefmLeefle’, efpemekeâer GefÛele JÙeeKÙee (a) performed well
(b) performed badly
efJekeâuhe (d) 'comfortable and colourful' – (c) answered all the questions
‘DeejeceoeÙekeâ/megKeoeÙekeâ’ Deewj jbieerve nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe GefÛele DeLe& (d) answered boldly
veneR Øeoeve keâjles~ Ans: (b) The underlined idiom 'Cut a sorry figure'
4. Every group has some black sheep in it. means ‘Dehevee mee cegBn ueskeâj jn peevee’ efpemekeâer GefÛele JÙeeKÙee
(a) good people 'Performed badly' ‘Kejeye ØeoMe&ve efkeâÙee’ keâjlee nw~ DevÙe
(b) bad people
(c) famous people efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
(d) people with black colour Performed well – DeÛÚe ØeoMe&ve efkeâÙee
Ans: (b) The underlined idiom 'black sheep' – ‘kegâue- Answered all the questions– meYeer ØeMveeW kesâ Gòej efoÙee
keâuebkeâ/yegjs ueesie’, efpemekeâer JÙeeKÙee efJekeâuhe (b) 'bad people'– Answered boldly – meenmehetCe& Gòej efoÙee
‘yegjs ueesie’, nw~ peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– 9. Your friend is chickenhearted.
Good people – DeÛÚs ueesie (a) has the heart of a chicken
(b) is very brave
Famous people – Øeefmeæ ueesie
(c) is heartless
People with black colour – keâeues jbie Jeeues ueesie (d) is a coward
JPSC AE Gen. English, 2013 263 YCT
 Ans: (d) The underlined idiom 'Chickenhearted' – peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
‘keâeÙej, [jheeskeâ’ Idiom keâer mhe° JÙeeKÙee efJekeâuhe (d) 'is a Diameter – JÙeeme
coward' – ‘[jheeskeâ’ keâjlee nw~ peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– Countenance – cegKeeke=âefle, neJe-YeeJe, DeefYeJÙeefòeâ
Has the heart of a chicken– cegieea keâe efoue nesvee Praise – ØeMebmee
Is very brave – yengle yeneogj nesvee 15. (a) Judge (b) Justece
Is heartless – efyevee ùoÙe kesâ nesvee (c) Formality (d) Process
10. Nature has endowed him with the gift of the Ans: (b) efoS ieS efJekeâuheeW ceW mes Wrongly spelt Meyo
gab. efJekeâuhe (b) 'Justece' nw~ efpemekeâer Correct spelling nw
(a) costly gift
(b) gift of music Justice'– ‘vÙeeÙe’~
(c) poetic gift DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
(d) gift of good expression Judge – vÙeeÙeeOeerMe
Ans: (d) The underlined idiom 'Gift of the gab' – Formality – DeewheÛeeefjkeâlee
‘Yee<eCe #ecelee’ keâer mhe° JÙeeKÙee efJekeâuhe (d) 'Gift of good Process – Øeef›eâÙee
expression' ‘DeÛÚer DeefYeJÙeefòeâ keâe Ghenej’ keâjlee nw~ DevÙe 16. (a) Beautify (b) Bailable
efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– (c) Batle (d) Monstrous
Costly gift – cebniee Ghenej Ans: (c) GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes Wrong spelling efJekeâuhe (c)
Gift of music – mebieerle keâe Ghenej 'Batle' nw, efpemekeâer Correct spelling 'Battle' – ‘ueÌ[eF&’ nw~
Poetic gift – keâeJÙeelcekeâ Ghenej DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
Group–B Beautify – megboj yeveevee
Direction : In each of the following units four choices Bailable – peceevele ÙeesiÙe/peceeveleer
numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d) have been given. One of
Monstrous– je#emeer/efJeMeeuekeâeÙe
them has been wrongly spelt. Identify that word.
11. (a) Contaminate (b) Genocide 17. (a) Propreity (b) Property
(c) Devaur (d) Glutton (c) Progressive (d) Promising
Ans: (c) The wrongly spelt word is option (c). Ans: (a) efoS ieS efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ieuele Jele&veer, efJekeâuhe (a)
Devaur – Devour (ueeueÛe mes Keevee) 'Propreity' nw, efpemekeâer mener Jele&veer nw– 'Propriety'–
(Incorrect) (Correct) ‘DeewefÛelÙe’~ peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– Property – mecheefòe
Contaminate – otef<ele keâjvee Progressive – ØeieefleMeerue
Genocide – vejmebnej Promising – Jeeoe keâjvee
Glutton – KeeT
18. (a) Torrensial (b) Tortoise
12. (a) Complement (b) Compliment (c) Typhoid (d) Tangent
(c) Cyberspace (d) Dredful
Ans: (a) efoS ieS efJekeâuheeW ceW mes Wrongly spelt Meyo efJekeâuhe
Ans: (d) The wrong spelling among the given options
is option (d) (a) 'Torrensial' nw, efpemekeâer Correct spelling nw–
Dredful – Dreadful (YeÙeevekeâ) 'Torrential' – (cetmeueoej)~
(Incorrect) (Correct) DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– Tortoise – keâÚgDee
Complement – hetjkeâ Typhoid – Deeb$e pJeej, efceÙeeoer yegKeej
Compliment – ØeMebmee Tangent – mheMe& jsKee
Cyberspace – meeFyej mhesme 19. (a) Butter (b) Citizen
13. (a) Inherent (b) Feasible (c) Knowladge (d) Occupy
(c) Graple (d) Thieves Ans: (c) GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes Wrongly spelt Meyo efJekeâuhe
Ans: (c) Wrongly spelt word is given in option (c) (c) 'Knowladge' nw, efpemekeâer Megæ Jele&veer nw 'Knowledge'–
Graple – Grapple (neLeeheeF&) (%eeve)~
(Incorrect) (Correct)
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&– DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
Butter – cekeäKeve
Feasible – mebYeJe
Inherent – efveefnle, pevcepeele Citizen – veeieefjkeâ
Thieves (Plural of thief) – Ûeesj, pesyekeâleje Occupy – keâypee keâjvee
14. (a) Diameter (b) Countenance 20. (a) Prevant (b) Prescribe
(c) Daignosis (d) Praise (c) Prepare (d) Produce
Ans: (c) The wrong spelling is provided in option (c) Ans: (a) efoS ieS efJekeâuheeW ceW mes Wrongly spelt Meyo efJekeâuhe
Daignosis – Diagnosis (efveoeve/cetuÙeebkeâve/Deboepe) (a) 'Prevant' nw, efpemekeâer Correct spelling nw 'Prevent' –
(Incorrect) (Correct) jeskeâvee/ØeefleyebOe keâjvee~ peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
JPSC AE Gen. English, 2013 264 YCT
 Prescribe – meueen osvee, yeleueevee, ngkeäce osvee Ans: (c) 'Resistance' – ‘ØeeflejesOe’, efJejesOe Meyo keâer Opposite
Prepare – lewÙeej keâjvee meaning efJekeâuhe (c) 'Acceptance' – ‘mJeerkeâej’ nw~
Produce – Glheeefole keâjvee Agreement – mecePeewlee, meguen
Group–C Compliance – Dee%eeheeueve, mJeerke=âefle
Direction : Pick out the word that is most opposite in 27. ANCIENT
meaning to the word given in Capitals. (a) New (b) Modern
21. PERPETUAL (c) Fresh (d) Old
(a) Innovative (b) Continuous Ans: (b) 'Ancient' – ‘ØeeÛeerve’ Meyo keâer Opposite meaning
(c) Flexible (d) Irregular efJekeâuhe (b) 'Modern' – ‘veJeerve’ nw~
Ans: (d) 'Perpetual' – ‘ueieeleej’ Meyo keâer Opposite DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
meaning word efJekeâuhe (d) 'Irregular' – ‘DeefveÙeefcele/pees New – veÙee
ueieeleej ve nes’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– Fresh – leepee
Innovative – ceewefuekeâ, ØeieefleMeerue Old – hegjevee
Continuous – ueieeleej 28. MISERLY
Flexible – ueÛeeruee (a) Extravagant (b) Hospitable
22. ALIEN (c) Generous (d) Responsible
(a) Irrelevant (b) Indigenous Ans: (a) 'Miserly' – ‘kebâpetme keâer Yeebefle/ueeueÛeer/cekeäKeerÛetme’ keâer
(c) Foreign (d) Artificial Opposite meaning keâe Meyo efJekeâuhe (a) 'Extravagant' –
Ans: (b) efoS ieS Meyo 'Alien' – ‘efJeosMeer’ keâer Opposite ‘efheâpetue KeÛe&’ nw~
meaning word efJekeâuhe (b) 'Indigenous' – ‘mJeosMeer’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– Hospitable – cesnceeveveJeepe
Irrelevant – Demebiele Generous – Goej
Foreign – efJeosMe Responsible – GòejoeÙeer
Artificial – ke=âef$ece 29. ADVANCE
23. DORMANT (a) Retreat (b) March
(a) Open (b) Active (c) Travel (d) Circle
(c) Vigilant (d) Basic Ans: (a) efoS ieS Meyo 'Advance' – ‘Deef«ece/GVele’ keâer
Ans: (b) 'Dormant' – ‘efveef<›eâÙe’ Meyo keâer Opposite Opposite meaning word 'Retreat' – ‘heerÚs nšvee’ nw~ peyeefkeâ
meaning word efJekeâuhe (b) 'Active' – ‘meef›eâÙe’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW keâe DeLe& nw–
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– March – peguetme/heâeuiegve
Open– Keguee Travel – Ùee$ee/meheâj keâjvee
Vigilant – peeie®keâ Circle – Je=òe
Basic – yegefveÙeeoer 30. PROMINENT
24. FOLLY (a) Eminent (b) Obscure
(a) Goodness (b) Foolishness (c) Famous (d) Renowned
(c) Action (d) Wisdom Ans: (b) 'Prominent' – ‘ØecegKe’ Meyo keâer Opposite
Ans: (d) 'Folly' – ‘cetKe&lee’ keâer Opposite meaning word meaning word efJekeâuhe (b) 'Obscure' – ‘Demhe°’ nw~ DevÙe
efJekeâuhe (d) 'Wisdom' – ‘yegefæceòee’ nw~ efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– Eminent – ØeKÙeele
Goodness – YeueeF& Famous – KÙeeefle Øeehle
Foolishness – yesJeketâheâer Renowned – Øeefmeæ
Action – keâej&JeeF& Group–D
25. LETHARGIC Direction : In each of the following sentences, a word
(a) Immobile (b) Active in capital letters has been underlined. For each
(c) Unpleasant (d) Irresponsible underlined word, four words have been given as (a),
Ans: (b) 'Lethargic' – ‘megmle/efveõeueg’ Meyo keâer Opposite (b), (c) and 9d). Choose the word nearest in meaning to
meaning word efJekeâuhe (b) 'Active' – ‘meef›eâÙe’ nw~ peyeefkeâ the underlined word.
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– 31. ATROCITY is a sin.
Immobile – efmLej (a) Endurance (b) Hatred
(c) Courage (d) Cruelty
Unpleasant – DeefØeÙe/veehemevo
Ans: (d) 'Atrocity'–‘›etâjlee’ Meyo keâer nearest similar
Irresponsible – iewj efpeccesoej
meaning word efJekeâuhe (d) 'Cruelty' – ‘›etâjlee/efveo&Ùelee’ nw~
26. RESISTANCE
(a) Agreement (b) Opposition
peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
(c) Acceptance (d) Compliance Endurance – OewÙe&, Hatred – Ie=Cee, Courage – meenme

JPSC AE Gen. English, 2013 265 YCT

32. The striking workers tried to INTIMIDATE Ans: (c) 'Garrulity' – ‘JeeÛeeuelee’ Meyo keâer Similar
the officers. meaning word efJekeâuhe (c) 'Loquaciousness' –
(a) persuade (b) inform
(c) explain (d) threaten ‘efMeefLeuelee/JeeÛeuelee’ nw~
Ans: (d) 'Intimidate' – ‘YeÙeYeerle keâjvee’ keâer Similar Mes<e efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efvecve nQ–
meaning word efJekeâuhe (d) 'Threaten' – ‘Oecekeâevee’ nw~ Credulity – menpe efJeÕeeme
peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– Senility – yegÌ{ehee
Persuade – jepeer keâjvee 38. We are all hungry for power and PELF.
Inform – metefÛele keâjvee (a) wisdom (b) shrewdness
(c) wealth (d) status
Explain – JÙeeKÙee keâjvee
Ans: (c) 'Pelf' – ‘Oeve’ keâer Similar meaning word efJekeâuhe
33. John PARRIED the blow aimed at him by his
enemy. (c) 'Wealth' – ‘Oeve/oewuele’ nw~
(a) evaded (b) opposed Mes<e efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
(c) accepted (d) counted Wisdom – yegefæceòee
Ans: (a) 'Parried' – ‘nševee/šeuevee’ Meyo keâer Similar Shrewdness – Oetle&lee
meaning word efJekeâuhe (a) 'evaded' – ‘yeÛevee/šeuevee’ nw~ Status – mlej
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– 39. Human race has EVOLVED down the ages.
opposed – efJejesOe keâjvee (a) introduced (b) started
Accepted – mJeerkeâej keâjvee (c) developed (d) established
Counted – efievee ngDee Ans: (c) The underlined word 'Evolved' – ‘efJekeâefmele’ keâer
34. He was EXONERATED by the court. Similar meaning word efJekeâuhe (c) 'Developed' –
(a) forgiven ‘efJekeâefmele’ nw~ peyeefkeâ Mes<e efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
(b) suspended Introduced – ØemleeefJele/hesMe keâjvee, DeejcYe keâjvee
(c) declared innocent
Started – Meg™ keâjvee
(d) warned
Established – Øeefleef‰le Ùee ØeceeefCele
Ans: (c) 'Exonerated' – ‘oes<e cegòeâ’ Meyo keâer Similar
meaning word efJekeâuhe (c) 'Declared Innocent' – ‘efveoex<e 40. We should ENDURE suffering.
(a) ensure (b) revise
Ieesef<ele keâjvee’ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& Fme Øekeâej nQ– (c) dare (d) tolerate
Forgiven – ceeheâ keâjvee
Ans: (d) efoS ieS Meyo 'Endure' – ‘menvee/Yeesievee’ keâer
Suspended – yeKee&mle keâjvee
Similar meaning word nw 'Tolerate' – ‘menve’, pees efJekeâuhe
Warned – ÛesleeJeveer osvee
(d) ceW Øeoòe nw~
35. The teacher REITERATED his statement.
(a) contradicted (b) disputed
Mes<e efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
(c) repeated (d) explained Ensure – megefveef§ele keâjvee
Ans: (c) 'Reiterated' – ‘oesnjeÙee’ keâer Similar meaning Revise – mebMeesefOele keâjvee
word efJekeâuhe (c) 'Repeated' – ‘oesnjeÙee ieÙee’ nw~ DevÙe Dare – efnccele/meenme keâjvee
efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ– Group–E
Contradicted – efJejesOeeYeeme Direction : The following sentences have been divided
Disputed – efJeJeeefole into four parts. They have been underlined. One part
Explained – JÙeeKÙee keâjvee contains a grammatical error. You select the part that
36. It was MOMENTOUS event in the history of contains the error.
the nation. She said me that she had
41.
(a) insignificant (b) everlasting (a) (b)
(c) an important (d) sudden thrown away my letters into
Ans: (c) The word similar in meaning to the given (c)
word 'Momentous'– ‘meyemes Dence/cenlJehetCe&’ is option (a)
the wastepaper basket.
'An important' – ‘cenlJehetCe&’ nw~
(d)
Mes<e efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
Insignificant – legÛÚ Ans: (a) efoÙes ieÙes Sentence kesâ Reporting speech ceW said
Everlasting – Devevle/efvelÙe kesâ mLeeve hej told keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ Indirect
Sudden – DeÛeevekeâ speech kesâ reporting verb part ceW object nesves hej said to
37. GARRULITY makes the speaker boring. keâes told ceW yeoueles nQ~
(a) Credulity (b) Senility Correct Sentence– She told me that she had thrown
(c) Loquaciousness (d) Slow speech away my letters into the wastepaper basket.

JPSC AE Gen. English, 2013 266 YCT

 He told me that he was going home Ans: (b) efoS ieÙes Sentence kesâ part (b) ceW grammatically
42.
(a) (b) error nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee Sentence Indirect speech
with his son today in the morning. Interrogative sentence keâe nw efpemeceW asked kesâ yeeo to keâe ØeÙeesie
(c) (d) veneR efkeâÙee peelee yeefukeâ meerOee object keâe ØeÙeesie keâjles nQ leLee
Ans: (d) 'Today in the morning' kesâ mLeeve hej 'that day in conjunction kesâ ™he ceW Wh. word keâe ØeÙeesie keâjles nw Deewj
the morning' GefÛele nw keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee Sentence, Indirect reported speech keâes simple Sentence kesâ ™he ceW ØeÙeesie keâjles nQ~
Correct Sentence– The student asked the teacher
speech of Simple Past Tense keâe nw efpemeceW 'today' keâes
what he had done to deserve such punishment.
'that day' ceW yeoueles nQ~
Correct sentence will be– The stranger asked him
47.
He told me that he was going home with his son that (a) (b)
day in the morning. which the shortest route to the station is?
He asked me that what I was doing (c) (d)
43.
(a) (b) (c) Ans: (d) efoS ieS Sentence kesâ Part (D) ceW grammatical
in the evening error nw~ ÙeneB hej reporting verb, (asked) past tense ceW nw,
. FmeefueS reported speech keâer verb ceW is kesâ mLeeve hej was keâe
(d)
Ans: (b) efoS ieS Sentence ceW Part (B) ceW grammatical ØeÙeesie nesiee~
Hence- Correct sentence will be–
error nw~ ÙeneB oes Conjunction 'that' Deewj 'what' Skeâ meeLe
The stranger asked him which the shorted route to the
ØeÙeesie ngS nQ~ efpevekeâer peien kesâJeue 'what' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw station was?
keäÙeeWefkeâ Subject 'he' kesâ yeeo 'asked' pees Reported verb nw The teacher asked the students
ØeÙegòeâ ngDee nw efpemekesâ efueS 'Wh' connector word 'What' keâe 48.
(a) (b)
ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~ Dele: Correct sentence nw– if they had done his homework
He asked me, what I was doing in the evening. .
(c) (d)
She asked her husband that why he was
44. Ans: (d) Sentence kesâ Part (D) ceW grammatical error nw~
(a) (b) (c)
ÙeneB sentence ceW ØeÙegòeâ 'Students' kesâ Personal Pronoun
so sad that day
. 'They' keâe Possessive Pronoun 'his' keâe ØeÙeesie DevegefÛele nw,
(d) efpemekesâ mLeeve hej 'Their' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Dele: Correct
Ans: (c) efoS ieS Sentence kesâ (C) part ceW grammatical sentence will be–
error nw~ ÙeneB 'that' Deewj 'why' oes conjunction keâe ØeÙeesie Skeâ The teacher asked the students if they had done their
meeLe ngDee nw~ efpemekesâ mLeeve hej efmehe&â 'why' conjunction keâe homework.
ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ peye Yeer Indirect speech ceW Convert keâjles The doctor advised the patient
nQ lees Reporting Verb kesâ yeeo 'Wh' conjunction word keâe 49.
(a)
ØeÙeesie keâjWies, Deiej yeeo Jeeueer clause interrogative ceW nes~ that walk for at least one hour
Correct Sentence- She asked her husband why he was (b)
so sad that day.
everyday regularly in the morning
The judge asked the accused that if he had .
45. (c) (d)
(a) (b)
Ans: (b) efoÙes ieÙes Ghejesòeâ sentence ceW part (b) ceW
anything to say in his defence
. grammatical error nw, ÙeneB conjunction that kesâ mLeeve hej
(c) (d)
to keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ Reported speech ceW efoÙee
Ans: (b) Øeoòe Sentence kesâ Part (B) ceW Error nw~ ÙeneB 'that' ieÙee JeekeäÙe imperative sentence ceW nw~
Deewj 'if' oes conjunction keâe ØeÙeesie Skeâ meeLe ngDee nw~ hejvleg Correct Sentence– The doctor advised the patient to
ÙeneB efmehe&â 'If' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ peye Indirect speech ceW walk for at least one hour everyday regularly in the
Convert keâjles nQ lees Reporting verb kesâ yeeo 'If' keâe ØeÙeesie morning.
keâjWies Deiej efkeâmeer ØeMve kesâ peJeeye ceW Gòej Yes/No nes~ 50.
He told his servant that it was time
Correct sentence– The judge asked the accused if he (a) (b)
had anything to say in his defence. for lunch and lay the table
The student asked to the teacher .
46. (c) (d)
(a) (b) Ans: (d) Sentence kesâ Part (d) ceW grammatical error nw~
what he had done ÙeneB 'and' (Deewj) kesâ mLeeve hej 'so' (FmeefueS/Dele:) keâe ØeÙeesie
(c) GefÛele nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
to deserve such punishment Correct Sentence- He told his servant that it was time
. for lunch so lay the table.
(d)

JPSC AE Gen. English, 2013 267 YCT

 Group–F 57. Cuckoos ------ nests; they use the nest of other
Direction : Choose the correct form of the verb from birds.
among the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given (a) do not build (b) could not build
below to fill in the blank spaces left in the sentences. (c) should not build (d) have not built
51. We shall go as soon as you ------ ready. Ans: (a) efoS ieS Sentence kesâ Blank space ceW 'Do not
(a) are (b) is
(c) will (d) shall build' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Next Sentence simple
Ans: (a) Blank space ceW 'Are' plural helping verb keâe present tense keâe nw Fmekeâe structure Fme Øekeâej nw~
ØeÙeesie keâjWies keäÙeeWefkeâ 'you' Skeâ Plural subject nw leLee ØeLece [Sub + Do + not + V1 + Object] structure keâe ØeÙeesie keâjWies~
JeekeäÙe ceW future indefinite keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw~ Dele: otmeje Correct Sentence- Cuckoos do not build nests; they
use the nest of other birds.
part present ceW nesiee~
Correct Sentence- We shall go as soon as you are 58. We shall finish the work before he ------ back.
ready. (a) will come (b) comes
(c) shall come (d) would come
52. He --------- me a month ago.
(a) leave (b) leaving Ans: (b) efoÙes ieÙes sentence kesâ blank space ceW comes keâe
(c) will leave (d) left ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ ØeLece sentence ceW future
Ans: (d) Blank space ceW Option (d) 'left' (Past Tense of indefinite tense keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee FmeefueS second
leave) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW ago keâe sentence ceW Yeer present indefinite, singular number keâe
ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw peesefkeâ past tense ceW ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee~
Correct Sentence- He left me a month ago. Correct Sentence- We shall finish the work before he
53. He ------- in India when the war broke out. comes back.
(a) serve (b) was serving 59. If I -------- a bird, I would fly from place to
(c) is serving (d) will be serving place.
Ans: (b) Blank space ceW 'was serving' keâe ØeÙeesie keâjWies (a) was (b) were
keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee second Sentence Past Tense ceW nw~ (c) would be (d) had been
Correct Sentence- He was serving in India when the Ans: (b) efoÙes ieÙes sentence ceW blank space kesâ mLeeve hej
war broke out. were keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeÙesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee sentence
54. Although he was tired, he ------ smoking. hypothetical (heefjkeâefuhele, keâefuhele) nw Deewj Fme efmLeefle ceW
(a) was going on (b) is going on
were keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
(c) goes on (d) went on
Correct Sentence- If I were a bird, I would fly from
Ans: (d) 'Went on' keâes Blank space ceW ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peeSiee
place to place.
keäÙeeWefkeâ 'Although' conjunction kesâ yeeo Deeves Jeeueer Verb 60. When he reached home at midnight he found
Past Tense ceW nw, Dele: 'go' kesâ Past Tense 'Went' keâe ØeÙeesie his mother ------- for him.
GefÛele nw~ (a) waited (b) has been waiting
Correct Sentence- Although he was tired, he went on (c) waiting (d) will be waiting
smoking. Ans: (c) Blank space ceW Option (c) 'waiting' keâe ØeÙeesie
55. When he stopped, no one ------- anything. efkeâÙee peeSiee keäÙeeWefkeâ 'Found' kesâ yeeo verb + ing keâe ØeÙeesie
(a) say (b) said
(c) says (d) had say efkeâÙee peelee nw, Correct sentence -
Ans: (b) Blank Space keâes 'say' kesâ Past Tense 'said' mes When he reached home at midnight he found his
mother waiting for him.
fill efkeâÙee peeSiee keäÙeeWefkeâ 'stopped' mes %eele neslee nw efkeâ
Sentence Past Tense ceW nw~ Group–G
Correct Sentence- When he stopped, no one said Direction : To each of the following sentences in the
anything. active voice, four alternatives in the passive voice have
56. She ------- for you in the lounge since 6 been given. Choose the correct one.
o'clock. 61. They pulled down the wall.
(a) had been waiting (b) was waiting (a) The wall had been pulled down by them.
(c) has been waiting (d) will be waiting (b) The wall is pulled down by them.
Ans: (c) Blank space ceW 'has been waiting' keâe ØeÙeesie (c) The wall was being pulled down by them.
GefÛele nw keäÙeeWefkeâ sentence ceW 'since 6 o'clock' kesâ ØeÙeseie mes (d) The wall was pulled down by them.
Ans: (d) Since the given sentence is in Simple past,
mhe° nw efkeâ JeekeäÙe 'Present Perfect Continuous' ceW nw efpemekeâe
the following structure will be used to make the
Structure efvecve nw– sentence into passive voice–
[Sub + has been + V+ing + Object + since/for + time] [Object + was/were + V3 + by + Subject.
Correct Sentence- She has been waiting for you in the The correct passive will be–
lounge since 6 o'clock. 'The wall was pulled down by them.'

JPSC AE Gen. English, 2013 268 YCT

62. They settled the dispute amicably. 67. The robbers robbed him of all his belongings.
(a) The dispute is settled amicably by them. (a) He was robbed of all his belongings by the
(b) The dispute was amicably settled by them. robbers.
(c) The dispute will be amicably settled by (b) He was robbed with all his belongings by
them. the robbers.
(d) The dispute has been amicably settled by (c) He was robbed of all his belongings.
them. (d) All his belongings has been robbed by the
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ active sentence, simple past ceW nw Deewj robbers.
Fmekeâe passive structure efvecve nesiee– Ans: (a) efoÙee ieÙee active Sentence, simple past ceW nQ~
[Object + was/were + V3 + by + Subject] Dele: Fmekeâe Passive form nesiee–
The correct passive will be– [Object + was/were + V3 + by + Subject]
'The dispute was amicably settled by them. 'He was robbed of all his belongings by the robbers.'
63. A taxi knocked down a cyclist. 68. She has very badly prepared the breakfast.
(a) A cyclist has been knocked down by a taxi. (a) The breakfast has been very badly prepared
(b) A cyclist was knocked down. by her.
(c) A cyclist was knocked down by a taxi (b) The breakfast was very badly prepared by
(d) A cyclist had been knocked down. her.
Ans: (c) Ghejesòeâ active sentence, simple past ceW nw Deewj (c) The breakfast was being badly prepared.
Fmekeâe passive structure efvecve nesiee– (d) The breakfast had been badly prepared.
[Object + was/were + V3 + by + subject] Ans: (a) efoÙee ieÙee Sentence Present Perfect Tense keâe
The converted sentence will be– nw, Dele: efvecveefueefKele Structure will be followed–
'A cyclist was knocked down by a taxi'. [Object + has/have + been + V3 + by + Subject]
64. Help those who are in need. Correct Sentence- The breakfast has been very badly
(a) Those who are in need have to be helped. prepared by her.
(b) Those who are in need should be helped. 69. The shoemaker has mended my shoes.
(c) Let those who are in need be helped. (a) My shoes has been mended by the
(d) Those who are in need may be helped. shoemaker.
Ans: (c) efoÙee ieÙee Sentence Imperative nw meeLe ner (b) My shoes are being mended by the
Sentence ceW Advice efkeâÙee pee jne nw lees efvecve Structure shoemaker.
(c) My shoes had been mended by the shoemaker.
follow keâjWies to change into passive form– (d) My shoes have been mended by the shoemaker.
[Let + Object + be + V3]
Ans: (d) efoÙee ieÙee Sentence Past Perfect Tense keâe nw
Let those who are in need be helped.
65. Did you post my letter? Dele: Fmekeâe passive structure efvecve nesiee~
(a) Had my letter been posted by you? [Object + has/have + been + V3 + by + Subject]
(b) My letter was posted by you. The correct sentence will be–
(c) Was my letter posted by you? 'My shoes have been mended by the shoemaker,'
(d) Will my letter be posted by you? 70. We shall talk about it later on.
Ans: (c) efoÙee ieÙee Sentence Simple Past Interrogative (a) It will be talked about later on.
(b) It will be talked later on.
sentence ceW nw, Dele: efvecve Structure follow nesiee–
(c) It will have been talked about later on
[Was/were + Object + V3 + by + Subject]
(d) It was talked about later on.
The correct sentence of passive form will be–
'Was my letter posted by you?' Ans: (a) Ghejesòeâ active sentence, simple future ceW nw Deewj
66. I left some questions unanswered. Fmekeâe passive structure efvecve nesiee–
(a) Some questions were left unanswered. [Object + shall/will + be + V3 + by + Subject +
(b) Some questions were left by me other].
unanswered. 'It will be talked about later on'.
(c) Were not some questions left by me Note- keâYeer-keâYeer by + Subject keâes understanding ceevekeâj
unanswered? ÚesÌ[ efoÙee peelee nw~
(d) Some questions have been left by me
unanswered. Group–H
Ans: (a) eqoÙee ieÙee sentence past indefinite ceW nw Fmekeâe Direction : Prepositions are missing from the blank
spaces in the following sentences. Four alternatives
passive structure Fme Øekeâej nw–
have been given at the end of each sentence. Choose the
Object + was/were +V3 + by + subject + other words.
correct alternative.
The correct passive form of this sentence will be–
'Some questions were left unanswered.' 71. You will be cured ----- this disease at the
earliest.
Note- keâYeer-keâYeer 'by + Subject' keâes understand ceevekeâj
(a) at (b) of
ÚesÌ[ efoÙee peelee nw~ (c) on (d) down
JPSC AE Gen. English, 2013 269 YCT
 Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej Blank space ceW 78. Rakesh is faithful ------- you.
Preposition 'of' (keâe) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ (a) for (b) by
(c) to (d) on
efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
Ans: (c) efoS ieS Sentence kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW Preposition
Correct sentence- 'You will be cured of this disease
at the earliest.' 'to' – ‘kesâ efueS’ keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~
72. I am disgusted ------- their actions. 'faithful to' – which exists within yourself (efkeâmeer kesâ Øeefle
(a) of (b) at Jeheâeoej nesvee)
(c) with (d) from The correct sentence will be–
Ans: (c) efoS ieS Sentence kesâ Blank space ceW 'Rakesh is faithful to you.'
Preposition 'with' keâe ØeÙeesie keâjWies, keäÙeeWefkeâ disgusted kesâ 79. There is no cause -------- anxiety.
meeLe preposition, with keâe ØeÙeesie keâjles nQ~ (a) for (b) to
(c) on (d) of
Correct sentence- 'I am disgusted with their actions.'
Ans: (a) efoS ieS Sentence kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW Preposition
73. Hardwork has told ------ his health and he
needs rest. 'for' (efueÙes) ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe&
(a) upon (b) off oslee nw~
(c) out (d) on Hence, the correct sentence will be–
Ans: (a) Sentence kesâ Blank space ceW 'upon' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee 'There is no cause for anxiety.'
keäÙeeWefkeâ 'told upon' (yegje ØeYeeJe [euevee) JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ 80. The climate of Africa is not conductive --------
DeLe& oslee nw~ - health.
Correct sentence- Hardwork has told upon his health (a) for (b) to
and he needs rest. (c) of (d) with
74. The teacher advised John to give ------ bad Ans: (b) efoS ieS Sentence kesâ Blank space ceW 'to' (kesâ
habits. efueS) keâe ØeÙeesie keâjWies~
(a) away (b) off 'Conducive to' – 'tending to cause or produce'
(c) out (d) up The complete sentence will be–
Ans: (d) efoS ieS Sentence kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'up' keâe ØeÙeesie 'The climate of Africa is not conducive to health.'
keâjWies keäÙeeWefkeâ 'give up' Phrasal verb keâe DeLe& nw – 'to leave' Group–I
‘lÙeeie osvee’~
Direction : Read the underlined words. Some of them
Correct sentence- The teacher advised John to give -
may or may not have separate plural forms. Some of
up bad habits.
them are used either in the singular or plural form in the
75. His name has become a synonym ------ evil.
same way. Some of them have different forms. Four
(a) for (b) with
(c) of (d) in alternatives are given following each underlined word.
Choose the right one in plural form.
Ans: (b) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ Blank space ceW Preposition 81. Cattle
'with' ØeÙeesie keâjWies keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee (a) Cattles (b) Cattls
nw~ correct sentence will be– (c) Cattelo (d) Cattle
'His name has become a synonym with evil.' Ans: (d) The plural form of 'Cattle' is 'Cattle' (ceJesMeer)
76. Would you confide your secrets ------------ a 82. Sheep
stranger? (a) Sheep (b) Sheeps
(a) with (b) to (c) Ships (d) Sheepes
(c) at (d) on
Ans: (a) The plural form of 'Sheep' is 'Sheep' (YeWÌ[)
Ans: (b) efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe kesâ Blank space ceW Preposition
'to' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ 'Confide to' Phrasal verb mean 83. Datum
(a) Data (b) datas
– 'to reveal'.
The complete sentence will be– (c) Datums (d) Datumes
'Would you confide your secrets to a stranger?' Ans: (a) 'Data' is the plural form of 'Datum' (DeebkeâÌ[s,
77. Jealousy was his main motive ------ attacking leLÙe)
me. 84. Memorandum
(a) of (b) for (a) Memorandiums (b) Memoranda
(c) in (d) at (c) Memorandi (d) Memorandas
Ans: (b) In the given blank space of the sentence Ans: (b) 'Memoranda' is the plural form of
preposition 'for' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ 'for + verb + ing' 'Memorandum' (%eeheve)
keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ neslee nw~ 85. Alumnus
The complete sentence will be– (a) Alumni (b) Alumnais
'Jealousy was his main motive for attacking me.' (c) Alumnuses (d) Alumna
JPSC AE Gen. English, 2013 270 YCT
 Ans: (a) 'Alumni' is the plural form of 'Alumnus' 93. 'Gossiping' means
(YetlehetJe& Úe$e) (a) political discussion
86. Fish (b) economic analysis
(a) Fishies (b) Fish (c) military planning
(c) Fishis (d) Fishs (d) casual talk or conversation about the affairs
Ans: (b) The plural form of 'Fish' is 'Fish'. of other people
Note- efJeefYeVe Øepeeefle keâer ceÚefueÙeeW kesâ efueS Fishes keâe ØeÙeesie Ans: (d) 'Gossiping' – ‘ieheMehe’ (Casual talk or
efkeâÙee peelee nw~ conversation about the affairs of other people).
87. Furniture 94. Which is the abstract noun form of the verb
(a) Furnitures (b) Furniture 'repeat'?
(c) Furniturs (d) Furniturum (a) Repeatition (b) Repetition
Ans: (b) The plural form of 'Furniture' is 'Furniture'. (c) Repetation (d) Repeating
88. Virus Ans: (b) 'Repeat' – ‘oesnjevee’ Meyo kesâ efueS abstract, noun
(a) Viruses (b) Virusis nw – Repetition.
(c) Virosis (d) No change 95. What part of speech is the word 'mighty' in
Ans: (d) No. change the passage?
89. News (a) Abstract noun (b) Adjective
(a) Newes (b) News (c) Adverb (d) Common noun
(c) New (d) Newis Ans: (b) 'Mighty' – ‘heje›eâceer’ Meyo Skeâ Adjective nw~
Ans: (b) The plural of 'News' is 'News'.
90. Nouveau riche Adjective – The words that qualifies a noun.
(a) Nouveaux riches (b) Nouveaus rich 96. Which of the following words is used as
(c) Nouveau riches (d) Nouveaus riches abstract noun of the verb 'expect'?
Ans: (b) ' Nouveaus rich' is the plural form of (a) Expectment (b) Expecting
'Nouveau riche'. (c) Expectation (d) Expection
Nouveaus rich – 'are the people who recently have Ans: (c) 'Expectation' – ‘Dehes#ee’ Jen Meyo nw pees given
become rich and have taste and manner that few option ceW mes 'Expect' keâe Abstract noun nw~
people consider vulgar.'
Abstract Noun – The words that refers to feelings,
Group–J actions, ideas, concepts etc.
Direction : Read the passage given below and answer 97. What is the writer's comment on the thinking
the questions that follow. Four alternatives are given. and reading habits of Indians?
Choose the right one. (a) Indians are good readers
"What I would like you to do first of all is to think. (b) Indians are serious readers
Thinking is something which does not come (c) Indians are intelligent readers
automatically to a person. Gossiping with a neighbour (d) Indians think and read little
is not thought. If you repeat something which
somebody has said, it is not thought. I do not expect all Ans: (d) efoS ieS Passage mes mhe° nw efkeâ 'Indians think
of you to become mighty thinkers. But I would like all and read little', Ùen Writer keâe Comment nw on thinking
of you to develop thinking and art of thinking. Nothing and reading habits of Indians.
is more helpful to thinking than reading. I have often 98. What is helpful to thinking?
said that it is very unfortunate that people think and (a) Gossiping (b) Travel
read so little nowadays, especially in India. I do not call (c) Reading (d) Sleeping
newspaper reading real reading."
Ans: (c) efoS ieS Passage mes mhe° nw efkeâ 'Reading is
91. What does the writer tell us to do first?
(a) To buy books (b) To read books helpful to thinking'.
(c) To think (d) To talk 99. Which of the following words is opposite in
Ans: (c) According to the Ist line of the passage we can meaning to 'develop'?
say that the writer tell us to do first- 'to think'. (a) Helpful (b) Improve
92. What does the word 'automatically' mean? (c) Decline (d) Dazzle
(a) Done without thinking, especially from Ans: (c) 'Develop' – ‘efJekeâefmele nesvee/keâjvee’ keâer Opposite
habit or routine meaning word nw 'Decline' – ‘heleve nesvee/keâjvee’~
(b) Done with the help of a machine 100. What does the word 'nowadays' imply in the
(c) Done with speed
passage?
(d) Done without any thinking
(a) In days long ago (b) At present time
Ans: (a) Automatically – ‘Kego ye Kego/Deheves Deehe’ means (c) In the last decade (d) In ancient times
Done without thinking, especially from habit or routine Ans: (b) 'Nowadays' – ‘Deepe keâue’ mean – 'at present
DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYeVe DeLe& osles nw~ time'.
JPSC AE Gen. English, 2013 271 YCT
 Jharkhand Public Service Commission Exam, 2013
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER-III)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 3 Hours ] [ Marks : 100

1. What does the letter 'S' stand for in the Web Ans. (c) : Mount Sharp, officially Aeolis Mons, is a
terminology 'HTTPS'? mountain on Mars. It forms the central peak within
(a) Safe (b) Secure Gale crater and is located around 5.08°S 137.85°E,
(c) Short (d) Sorter rising 5.5 km high from the valley floor. Its ID in the
Ans. (b) : HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer United States Geological Survey's Gazetteer of
Protocol Secure. HTTPS is an extension of HTTP and Planetary Nomenclature is 15000.
is used for secure communication over a computer 6. Where was the Indian Science congress, 2012
network, and is widely used on the Internet. held?
2. Which of the following agencies in India (a) New Delhi (b) Shillong
provides financial support for the promotion of (c) Ludhiana (d) Bhubaneswar
alternative energy usage? Ans. (d) : The five-day, 99th edition of the ISCA,
(a) CERN (b) NCERT from 3 to 7 January 2012 was hosted by KIIT
(c) SDBI (d) IREDA University and National Institute of Science Education
Ans. (d) : Indian Renewable Energy Development and Research (NISER) in Bhubaneswar, Orissa. It saw
Agency (IREDA) is a Government of India Enter prise the participation of more than 15000 delegates, which
under the administrative control Ministry of New and included 500 foreign scientists and 20 Nobel laureates.
Renewable Energy (MNRE). The objective of IREDA 7. In which year was IIT, Patna, established?
is to provide Financial support to specific projects and (a) 2008 (b) 2009
schemes for generating energy and electricity through (c) 2010 (d) 2011
new and renewable sources and conserving energy Ans. (a) : It is one of the new IITs established by an
through energy efficiency. Act of the Indian Parliament on August 6, 2008. The
3. Which of the following is not a major objective permanent campus of IIT Patna is located at Bihar
of a multipurpose river valley project? which is approximately 30 km from Patna and has
(a) Flood control (b) Power generation been fully operational since 2015.
(c) Pest control (d) Irrigation 8. Which is the apex body of Indian scientists?
Ans. (c) : Pest control is not a major objective of a (a) Indian Institute of Science
multipurpose river valley project. Multipurpose river (b) Indian National Science Academy
valley project are basically designed for the (c) National Academy of Science
development of irrigation for agriculture and electricity (d) Institute of Engineers
through the construction of dams. Initially, dams were Ans. (b) : Indian National Science Academy (INSA)
built only for storing rain water to prevent flooding but is the apex body of Indian scientists representing all
now it became multipurpose. branches of science and technology. It promotes
4. What is the full form of CDMA in mobile science and its use in India. Formerly it was known as
phones? National Institute of Science of India (NISI), was
(a) Code Division Multiple Access established on January 7, 1935.
(b) Code destination Major Access 9. Which of the following organizations is
(c) Card distribution Multiple working to spread scientific sensibility among
(d) Catalogue Dipolar Maximum Access school children aged 10 to 17 years in the
Ans. (a) : Code-Division Multiple Access (CDMA) is country in a big way?
a channel access method used by various radio (a) CARE Science
communication technologies. CDMA is an example of (b) Rashtriya Pragya Vikas
multiple access, where several transmitters can send (c) National Children's Science Congress
information simultaneously over a single (d) Vidyalaya Vigyan Setu
communication channel. CDMA is used as the access Ans. (c): National Children's Science Congress (NCSC)
method in many mobile phones standards. is a nationwide Science Communication programme
5. Mount Sharp, where the NASA rover Curiosity started in the year 1993. National Children’s Science
is supposed to conduct experiments, is on Congress is working to spread scientific sensibility
which of the following astral bodies? among school children aged10 to 17 years in country
(a) Jupiter (b) Moon in a big way. Any child in the age group of 10-17
(c) Mars (d) Saturn years can participate in the Congress. It is not
JPSC AE (GS), 2013 272 YCT
 necessary that a participant should be a school/college Ans. (b) : Sunita Lyn Williams is an American
student. A child scientist cannot participate in the astronaut and United States Navy officer who formerly
National Level NCSC two times, as a group leader, in held the records for most spacewalks by a woman and
the same age group. most spacewalk time for a woman. Williams was
10. Which of the following air pollutants are assigned to the International Space Station as a
responsible for acid rain within and downwing member of Expedition 14 and Expedition 15.
areas of major industrial emission? 16. What is a 'blue moon'?
(a) H2S and oxides of Nitrogen (a) When a second full moon appears in a
(b) SO2 and oxides of Nitrogen calendar month
(c) CO2 and H2S (b) When there is a halo of water vapour visible
(d) CH4 and H2S around the moon
Ans. (b) : Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction (c) The last full moon of the year
that begins when compounds like sulfur dioxide and (d) As moon is visible from the arctic regions
nitrogen oxides are released into the air. These Ans. (a) : A blue moon is an additional full moon that
substances can rise very high into the atmosphere, appears in a subdivision of a year: either the third of
where they mix and react with water, oxygen, and four full moons in a season, or a second full moon in a
other chemicals to form more acidic pollutants, known month of the common calendar.
as acid rain. 17. Where is the headquarters of Indian Space
11. One coulomb of charge is contributed by how Research Organization situated?
many electrons? (a) Chennai (b) Sri Harikota
(a) 0.625×1019 (b) 1.6×1019 (c) Bengaluru (d) New Delhi
19
(c) 10 (d) 1.6×1012
Ans. (c) : The Indian Space Research Organisation is
Ans. (a) : One coulomb (C) of charge represents an the national space agency of the Republic of India,
excess or deficit of 0.625 x 1019 electrons. The quantity headquartered in Bengaluru. It operates under
of charge (Q) on an object is equal to the number of Department of Space which is directly overseen by the
elementary charges on the object (N) multiplied by the prime minister of India. Current chairman of ISRO is
elementary charge (e). K. Sivan.
12. INSPIRE (Innovation in Science Pursuit for 18. What is Ductal?
Inspired Research) is a programme initiated by (a) A New kind of concrete
(a) SERC (b) IDBI (b) An electron microscope
(c) DST (d) UCET (c) A superconductor
Ans. (c) : Innovation of Science Pursuit for Inspired (d) A super crane
Research programme (INSPIRE) is one such
Ans. (a) : Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is the
innovative scheme proposed by the Department of
presence of abnormal cells inside a milk duct in the
Science & Technology for attraction of talent to
science. breast. DCIS is considered the earliest form of breast
cancer. DCIS is non invasive, meaning it hasn't spread
13. When n number of resistances each of value r out of the milk duct and has a low risk of becoming
are connected in parallel, then the resultant invasive.
resistance is x. When these n resistances are
connected in series, their total resistance is 19. Wet sand is more compact than dry sand
(a) n x (b) n2 x (a) because water creates water bridges between
(c) j (d) r n x sand grains
(b) because sand acquires the strength of concrete
Ans. (b) : When n resistances each of value r are
(c) It is false
connected in parallel, then resultant resistance is x.
(d) because the volume of sand decreases by half
When these n resistances are connected in series,
total resistance is. n2 x. Ans. (a) : At equal volumes of wet and dry
sand would not weigh the same; the wet sand would
14. At which of the following places in South India
are the people protesting against the building weigh more because it has more mass, because water
of a nuclear power plant? creates water bridges between sand grains and the
(a) Coonoor (b) Kudankulam mass of the water in-between the sand and the mass of
(c) Tenali (d) Athola the sand itself. The dry sand has only the mass of
the sand and the air between the grains of sand.
Ans. (b) : On 10 September 1994, thousands
of people from four villages in Tamil Nadu 20. Who among the following was not a winner of
gathered on the beaches of Idinthakarai, a village Nabel Prize for Physics, 2011?
in the state's Tirunelveli district, to protest against (a) Saul Perlmutter (b) Brian P. Schmidt
the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant, located barely (c) Adam G. Riess (d) W.C. Rontgen
two kilometers away. Ans. (d) : The Nobel Prize in Physics 2011 was
15. Sunita Williams went to the space station on divided, one half awarded to Saul Perlmutter, the other
July 15 in a spacecraft belonging to which of half jointly to Brian P. Schmidt and Adam
the following countries? G. Riess "for the discovery of the accelerating
(a) Chine (b) USA expansion of the Universe through observations of
(c) Russia (d) India distant supernovae."

JPSC AE (GS), 2013 273 YCT

21. One kWh is the same as Superconductivity, complete disappearance of
(a) 36×105 watt (b) 36×105 erg electrical resistance in various solids when they are
5
(c) 36×10 joule (d) 36×105 BTU cooled below a characteristic temperature. .This
Ans. (c) : One kilowatt-hour is equivalent to the temperature, called the transition temperature, varies
energy of 1,000 joules used for 3,600 seconds or 3.6 for different materials but generally is below 20 K
million Joules. In equation form: 1 kWh = 36×105 J. (−253 °C).
1 kilowatt hour is the energy produced by 1 kilowatt 27. In which of the following activities are
power source in 1 hour. wingsuits used?
∴ 1 kW = 1000 Joule/sec (a) Skydiving (b) Scuba diving
1 kWh = 1000 × 3600 J (c) Boxing (d) Parasailing
= 36 × 105 J Ans. (a) : Wingsuit flying (or wingsuiting) is the sport
Hence, option (c) is the correct option. of flying through the air ie. Paragliding, using a
22. Which of the following do common microwave wingsuit which adds surface area to the human body to
ovens use to generate energy? enable a significant increase in lift. The modern
(a) Thermostat (b) Magnetron wingsuit, first developed in the late 1990s, creates a
(c) Particle accelerator (d) Superconductors surface area with fabric between the legs and under
Ans. (b) : Microwaves are produced inside the oven the arms.
by an electron tube called a magnetron. The 28. What is biomimicry?
microwaves are reflected within the metal interior of (a) A new movement in Sweden making fun of
the oven where they are absorbed by food. biology texts
Microwaves cause water molecules in food to vibrate, (b) Imitation of nature to create new products
producing heat that cooks the food. (c) A latest discipline in biological studies to
23. To which class of levers does the bottle opener study fatal diseases
belong? (d) Writing biography of a famous person in the
(a) Class I (b) Class II fullest detail
(c) Class III (d) None of the above Ans. (b) : Biomimetics or biomimicry is the emulation
Ans. (b) : A bottle opener functions as a second-class of the models, systems, and elements of nature for the
lever: the fulcrum is the far end of the bottle opener, purpose of solving complex human problems. i.e.
placed on the top of the crown, with the output at the Biomimicry is a practice that learns from and mimics
near end of the bottle opener, on the crown edge, the strategies found in nature to solve human design
between the fulcrum and the hand: in these cases, one challenges — and find hope along the way.
pushes up on the lever. 29. The following are the half-lives of 4 active
24. Which of the following layers of the isotopes. Which one of the following is the most
atmosphere blocks most of the ultraviolet rays dangerous to handle?
from space? (a) 3 billion years (b) 100 years
(a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere (c) 0.01 minute (d) 30 days
(c) Ozonosphere (d) None of the above Ans. (c) : 0.01 minute half life isotope is the most
Ans. (a) : Ozone in Stratosphere blocks most of the dangerous to handle.
UV rays from space. The ozone layer or zone shield is 30. Which is the largest dam in India?
a region of Earth's stratosphere that absorb most of the (a) Bhakra-Nangal dam (b) Maithon dam
sun's ultraviolet radiation. It contains a high (c) Hirakud dam (d) Tehri dam
concentration of ozone (O3) in relation to other parts of Ans. (a) : Bhakra Nangal Dam is the largest dam in
the atmosphere although still small in relation to other India having a height of 225 meters and also in the 2nd
gases in the stratosphere. position in the largest dams in all over Asia. Bhakra
25. What is Maglev? Nangal Dam is located in the state of Himachal
(a) A supernova Pradesh and Punjab. It is situated on the river Sutlej.
(b) A system of transport 31. Lightning strikes sometimes explode trees,
(c) The tallest building because
(d) A telescope (a) the lightning bolt strikes very fast
Ans. (b) : Maglev (derived from magnetic levitation) (b) the leaves become electrically discharged
is a system of train transportation that uses two sets of during the lightning strike
magnets: one set to repel and push the train up off the (c) the water inside the tree evaporates too
track, and another set to move the elevated train ahead, rapidly
taking advantage of the lack of friction. (d) there is biomagnetic repulsion
26. Who among the following discovered Ans. (c) : Trees can explode when struck by
superconductivity? lightning. The strong electric current is carried mostly
(a) H. K. Onnes (b) Walther Meissner by the water-conducting sapwood below the bark,
(c) Robert Ochshenfeld (d) John Bardeen heating it up and boiling the water. The pressure of the
Ans. (a) : On April 8, 1911, Heike Kamerlingh steam can make the trunk burst. This happens
Onnes and his staff at the Leiden cryogenic laboratory especially with trees whose trunks are already dying or
were the first to observe superconductivity . rotting.

JPSC AE (GS), 2013 274 YCT

32. Who among the following invented the 37. In which State is the longest railway bridge in
crescograph? India located?
(a) C. V. Raman (a) Bihar (b) Jharkhand
(b) Homi J. Bhabha (c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala
(c) Jagadish Chandra Bose Ans. (d) : The longest railway bridge is in the Kerala.
(d) S. Ramanujan The length of the bridge is 4.62 km and is dedicated to
Ans. (c) : It was invented in the early 20th century good trains. The bridge passes through three small
by Sir Jagadish Chandra Bose. The Bose Islands in this the part of Kerala and is built over the
crescograph uses a series of clockwork gears and a backwaters of the Vembanad Lake.
smoked glass plate to record the movement of the tip 38. The Latin word 'scientia', from which the term
of a plant (or its roots). 'science' has derived, means
33. Which of the following is also known as God (a) universe (b) knowledge
particle? (c) curiosity (d) logic
(a) Hunter boson (b) Higgs boson Ans. (b) : In English, science came from Old
(c) Hayashi boson (d) Herbig boson French, meaning knowledge, learning, application,
Ans. (b) : In 2012, scientists confirmed the detection and a corpus of human knowledge. It originally came
of the long-sought Higgs boson, also known by its from the Latin word scientia which meant
knowledge, a knowing, expertness, or experience.
nickname the "God particle," at the Large Hadron
Collider (LHC), the most powerful particle accelerator 39. Which of the following commands is used in a
on the planet. This particle helps give mass to all document (Microsoft Word) to convert small
elementary particles that have mass, such as electrons letters into capitals?
and protons. (a) Ctrl + P (b) Shift + Ctrl + Del
(c) Caps Lock + F8 (d) Shift + F3
34. Which of the following bodies bestows the
Ans. (d) : Shift + F3 is used to convert small letters
Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize for Science into capitals in Microsoft word or we can say it is used
and Technology? to change from 'lowercase' to 'uppercase'.
(a) ISRO (b) NCERT
(c) CSIR (d) NCSC 40. Mohs' scale is a scale for testing
(a) colour intensity
Ans. (c) : The Shanti swarup Bhatnagar prize for (b) electrical conductivity
science and technology is a science award in India (c) hardness of material
given annually by the Council of Scientific and (d) velocity of light through different mediums
Industrial Research (CSIR) for notable and outstanding Ans. (c) : Mohs' scale is a scale for testing hardness of
research applied or fundamental in biology, chemistry, material. It is one of the most important tests for
environmental science, mathematics, medicine and identifying mineral specimens. This test compares the
physics. It is the most coveted award in resistance of a mineral being scratched by ten
multidisciplinary science in India. The award is reference minerals known as the Mohs Hardness scale.
named after the founder Director of the Council of Friedrich Mohs, a German mineralogist, developed the
Scientific & Industrial Research, Shanti Swarup scale in the year 1812.
Bhatnagar. 41. Where was the first underground railway
35. Who is the chairman of Wipro? metro started in India?
(a) Ajim H. Premji (b) T. K. Kurien (a) Kolkata (b) Delhi
(c) Suresh C. Senapaty (d) Ashok S. Ganguly (c) Mumbai (d) Chennai
Ans. (a) : During the question asking period Ajim Ans. (a) : The Kolkata Metro is the first planned and
H.Prem Ji was the chairman of WIPRO but in present operational rapid transit system in India. It was
Rishad Premji is the Chairman of Wipro Limited. initially planned in the 1920s, but construction started
When this question was asked, Ajim H. Premji was the in 1970s. The first underground stretch, from
chairman of WIPRO. But in present time, Rishad Bhawanipore (now Netaji Bhawan) to Esplanade,
Premji is the chaiman of WIPRO. WIPRO was opened in 1984. Line 2, or the East–West Corridor,
founded by Mohamed Premji in the year of 1945. opened in 2020.
WIPRO is an Indian MNC company that provides 42. What is green technology?
information technology, consulting and business (a) Technology for the development of green
process services. pigments
36. Which of the following is used in pencils? (b) Technology from far East countries
(a) Phosphorus (b) Carbon (c) Technology that cares for environment
(c) Graphite (d) Lead (d) Technology used for producing green plants
and trees
Ans. (c) : Most pencil cores are made of graphite
Ans. (c) : Green tech–or green technology–is an
powder mixed with a clay binder. Graphite pencils umbrella term that describes the use of technology and
(traditionally known as "lead pencils") produce grey or science to create products that are more
black marks that are easily erased, but otherwise environmental friendly. The goal of green tech is to
resistant to moisture, most chemicals, ultraviolet protect the environment and in some cases, to even
radiation and natural aging. repair past damage done to the environment.

JPSC AE (GS), 2013 275 YCT

43. Since when have the latest rules concerning (c) Integrated Copula Basic Median
radiation from mobile phones and telecom (d) Incorporated Collision Beta Models
towers come in force in India? Ans. (b) : An intercontinental ballistic missile
(a) January 1, 2012 (b) April 1, 2012 (ICBM) is a missile with a minimum range of 5,500
(c) July 1, 2012 (d) September 1, 2012 kilometres (3,400 mi) primarily designed for nuclear
Ans. (d) : The rule is that- Electromagnetic Radiation weapons delivery (delivering one or more
from Mobile towers is reduced to 1/10th of the limit thermonuclear warheads).
prescribed by the ICNIRP with effect from 01.09. 49. What is the full form of ATM?
2012. 1.6watt/Kg (averaged over 1 gm of tissue) also (a) Automated Teller Machine
implemented from 01.09. 2012. (b) Any Time Money
44. What is the full form of SAR in terms of (c) Automatic Travel Money
cellphone emissions? (d) Auto Teller Money
(a) Sent and receive Ans. (a) : An automated teller machine (ATM) is an
(b) Specific absorption rate electronic banking outlet that allows customers to
(c) Satellite aided rolling complete basic transactions without the aid of a branch
(d) Specified anticipated return representative or teller. Anyone with a credit card or
Ans. (b) : SAR(Specific absorption rate) is a debit card can access cash at most ATMs.
measure of the rate of RF (radiofrequency) energy 50. What is the full form of SIM in mobile phones?
absorption by the body from the source being (a) Subscriber Identification modem
measured – in this case, a cell phone. SAR provides a (b) Subscriber Intelligence Module
straightforward means for measuring the RF exposure (c) Subscriber Identity Modem
characteristics of cell phones to ensure that they are (d) Subscriber Identity Module
within the safety guidelines set by the FCC. Ans. (d) : A subscriber identity module or
45. The rear rotor blades in a common helicopter subscriber identification module (SIM), widely
(a) Provide lift when the pilot takes off during known as a SIM card, is an integrated circuit that is
bad weather, especially during thunderstorms intended to securely store the international
(b) are used for supporting the front and rear mobile subscriber identity (IMSI) number and its
weights by spinning very rapidly related key, which are used to identify and authenticate
(c) Push the tail boom to counter the movement subscribers on mobile.
of the main rotor blades 51. The breakdown mechanism in a lightly doped
(d) cancel the noise in the cockpit p-n junction under reverse biased condition is
Ans. (c) : The tail rotor is a vertical (or near-vertical) called
set of blades mounted at the end of the tail of (a) avalanche breakdown
the chopper. It ensures that the torque produced by the (b) Zener breakdown
main rotors is properly compensated for by 'pushing' (c) breakdown by tunelling
the chopper in the opposite direction of the torque. (d) high voltage breakdown
46. The chemical name of the product 'Teflon', Ans. (a) : Avalanche breakdown occurs in lightly-
also used in nonstick cookware, is doped p-n junction where the depletion region is
(a) Polytetrafluoroethylene comparatively long and the reverse voltage increases
(b) Polycarbontetrafluoroethylene beyond 5 V.
(c) Polyfluoroethylene 52. Sindhughosh, Sankul and chakra are Indian
(d) Polytetrafluoroethyl (a) battle tanks (b) fighter aircrafts
Ans. (a) : Polytetrafluoroethylene is a synthetic (c) destroyers (d) submarines
fluoropolymer of tetrafluoroethylene that has Ans. (d) : Sindhu Ghosh Sankul and Chakra are Indian
numerous applications. The commonly known brand Submarines.
name of PTFE-based formulas is Teflon by Chemours, 53. The Indian INSAT geostationary satellite has
a spin-off from DuPont, which originally discovered an orbit period that is almost the same
the compound in 1938. (a) as that of the earth around its axis
47. Who is known as the ‘Missile Woman’ of (b) as that of the moon around the earth
India? (c) as that of the earth around the sun
(a) Kamal Ranadive (b) Radha Balakrishnan (d) as that of the moon around its axis
(c) Kalpana Chawla (d) Tessy Thomas Ans. (a) : Geostationary orbit, a circular orbit 35,785
Ans. (d) : Tessy Thomas is an Indian scientist and km (22,236 miles) above Earth's Equator in which a
Director General of Aeronautical Systems and the satellite's orbital period is equal to Earth's rotation
former Project Director for Agni-IV missile in Defence period of 23 hours and 56 minutes. A spacecraft in this
Research and Development Organisation. She is the orbit appears to an observer on Earth to be stationary
first ever woman scientist to head a missile project in in the sky.
India. 54. Where is the biggest oil refinery of India
48. The full form of ICBM in technology is located?
(a) Intel Caller Beacon Mode (a) Barauni (b) Digboi
(b) Inter Continental Ballistic Missile (c) Jamnagar (d) Mathura
JPSC AE (GS), 2013 276 YCT
 Ans. (c) : The Jamnagar Refinery is a private sector Ans. (a) : Thermal power is the "largest" source of
crude oil refinery owned by Reliance Industries power in India. There are different types of thermal
Limited in Jamnagar, Gujarat, India. The refinery was power plants based on the fuel used to generate the
commissioned on 14 July 1999 with an installed steam such as coal, gas, and diesel, natural gas. About
capacity of 668,000 barrels per day (106,200 m3/d). It 71% of electricity consumed in India is generated by
is currently the largest refinery in the world. thermal power plants.
55. Regulation of a DC power supply is given by 61. What is carbon footprint?
(a) product of no-load output voltage and full- (a) The total set of greenhouse gas emission
load current caused by an organization, person or event
(b) ratio of full-load output voltage and full-load (b) The total amount of carbon dioxide emission
current caused by an organization, person or event
(c) change in output voltage from no load to full (c) A tradable certificate or permit representing
load the right of emitting one tone of carbon
(d) change in output impedance from no load to dioxide
full load (d) None of the above
Ans. (c) : Regulation of a DC power supply is given Ans. (a) : A carbon footprint is the total greenhouse
by change in output voltage from no-load to full-load. gas emissions caused by an individual, event,
Therefore option C is correct. organization, service, or product, expressed as carbon
56. Which of the following is going to introduce dioxide equivalent.
'Green Toilets'? 62. Photovoltaic cells are generally mode of
(a) Air India (a) selenium (b) phosphorus
(b) Delhi metro (c) silicon (d) uranium
(c) Indian Railways Ans. (c) : Solar cells can be classified into first, second
(d) Karnataka Roadways and third generation cells. The first generation cells—
Ans. (c) : During the question asking period , Indian also called conventional, traditional or wafer-based
Railways was going to introduce ‘Green Toilets’ in cells—are made of crystalline silicon, the
India. During 2017-18, IR has installed highest ever commercially predominant PV technology, that
bio-toilets in coaches which is 40% higher than the set includes materials such as polysilicon and
target of 40,000 bio-toilets and 64% higher than the monocrystalline silicon.
fitment of 34134 bio-toilets in 2016-17. 63. Which of the following States of India is the
Presently, Indian Railways have commissioned and largest producer of electricity from wind
operating 27 sections as Green Corridors. turbines?
57. Where are Volvo buses manufactured in India? (a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat
(a) Gurgaon (b) Bangaluru (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
(c) Chennai (d) Sanand Ans. (d) : Tamil Nadu tops the list of states with the
Ans. (b) : The Volvo Group Trucks assembly plant at largest installed wind power generation capacity in the
Hosakote, Bangalore started its operations in the year country.
1998, becoming the first European Commercial The southern state of Tamil Nadu tops the list with 93
Vehicle manufacturer in India. GW of cumulative wind installations, representing a
58. The value of g is maximum at 25% share of the total installed capacity in India as of
(a) the poles (b) the equator 2020. Since 2016 to 2019 Tamil Nadu has been the
(c) the tropics (d) None of the above leading wind installer in the country.
Ans. (a) : The value of acceleration due to gravity is 64. The fighter aircraft Sukhoi, used by the Indian
maximum at poles and minimum at equator. Air Force, is originally from
59. On marshy land. which of the following would (a) Germany (b) Russia
be the best means of travelling? (c) France (d) USA
(a) Sailboat (b) Four-wheel-drive vehicle Ans. (b) : The first Russian-made Su-30MKI variant
(c) Jet boat (d) Hovercraft was accepted into the Indian Air Force in 2002, while
Ans. (d) : On Marshy land, Hovercraft would be the the first Su-30MKI assembled in India entered service
best means of travelling. A hovercraft, also known as with the IAF in 2004.
an air-cushion vehicle or ACV, is an amphibious craft
capable of travelling over land, water, mud, ice, and 65. Which of the following machines is the Indian
other surfaces. Hovercraft use blowers to produce a Railways going to introduce for selling train
large volume of air below the hull, or air cushion, that tickets?
is slightly above atmospheric pressure. (a) ATM (b) ATVM
60. Which of the following contribute most to (c) TVM (d) SVM
electricity generation in India? Ans. (b) : Automatic Ticket Vending Machine
(a) Thermal sources of energy (ATVM) was introduced by Indian Railways to reduce
(b) Hydroelectric sources of energy passengers queuing up at the ticket counters at the
(c) Nuclear sources of energy Railway stations. ATVMs are touch screen based
(d) Nonconventional sources of energy ticketing kiosks operated using smart cards and the
JPSC AE (GS), 2013 277 YCT
 passenger can purchase and recharge the smart cards 71. One of the winners of the first Yuri Milner
from nominated ticket counters. This system is Fundamental Physics Award, 2012, from India, is
gradually being popularized among the commuters and (a) Y. Subbarao (b) Ashoke Sen
presently this system is carrying 23% of overall (c) Sujoy K. Guha (d) Rajesh Gopakumar
tickets. Ans. (b) : Theoretical physicist Ashoke Sen, a string
66. The colour of a star is determined by its theorist at India's Harish-Chandra Research Institute,
(a) volume (b) mass is one of nine winners of the first Yuri Milner
(c) temperature (d) distance Fundamental Physics Prize. At US$3 million,
Ans. (c) : The color of a star depends on its surface the award is worth nearly three times more than a
temperature. Our Sun's surface temperature is about Nobel and is the most lucrative academic prize in the
6,000 Kelvin. Although it looks yellow from here on world.
Earth, the light of the Sun would actually look very 72. Eye Control TV is an invention by a company
white from space. belonging to which of the following countries?
67. What is the average temperature of the sun's (a) India (b) Japan
surface in our solar system? (c) Korea (d) China
(a) 105000 0C (b) 55000 0C Ans. (d) : Eye control TV is an invention by a
(c) 10500 0C (d) 5500 0C company belonging to China.
Ans. (d) : The temperature in the photosphere is about 73. Who among the following was the founder of
10,000 degrees F (5,500 degrees C). It is here that the the apple Company?
sun's radiation is detected as visible light. Sunspots on
the photosphere are cooler and darker than the (a) Steve Jobs (b) Bill Gates
surrounding area. At the center of big sunspots the (c) Daniel Kottke (d) Edwin H. Land
temperature can be as low as 7,300 degrees F Ans. (a) : Steven Paul Jobs was an American business
(4,000 degrees C). magnate, industrial designer, investor, and media
68. Dinosaurs were found in which of the following proprietor. He was the chairman, chief executive
geological Ages? officer (CEO) and founder of Apple company.
(a) Paleozoic (b) Precambrian Apple company is an American Multinational
(c) Jurassic (d) None of the above technology company founded by Steve Job, Steve
Ans. (d) : Dinosaurs come in the group of reptiles of Wozniak and Ronald Wayne an 1st Apr 1976. The
the clade Dinosauria. Dinosaurs first appeared during head quartered of Apple is in Cupertino, California.
the Triassic period, between 243 and 233.23 million 74. The 'Ultrabook' is an initiative of
years ago. Though the exact origin and timing of the (a) Apple (b) Intel
evolution of dinosaurs is the subject of active research. (c) Samsung (d) Asus
Therefore, the option (d) none of the above is correct. Ans. (b) : Ultrabook is an Intel specification and
69. Who among the following statesmen has said trademark for a line of high-end subnotebook
that dams as the temples of modern India? computers featuring reduced bulk without
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri compromising battery life. Ultrabooks use low-power
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru Intel Core processors, solid-state drives, and a unibody
(c) Rajiv Gandhi chassis to help meet these criteria.
(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 75. In which year did man first land on the moon?
Ans. (b) : Temples of modern India was a term (a) 1968 (b) 1969
coined by India's first Prime Minister Jawahar Lal (c) 1970 (d) 1971
Nehru while starting the construction of the Bhakra Ans. (b) : On July 20, 1969, Neil Armstrong became
Nangal Dam.
Jawaharlal Nehru Proudly proclaimed the dams as the the first human to step on the moon. He and Aldrin
temple of modern India as it was felt that the walked around for three hours.
construction of large dams would solve many 76. Graphene can be used as base material for
problems of India. It would result in the generation of making
electricity, would provide water for irrigation to the (a) transistors (b) edible oil
formers, supply water to household and industries. (c) DNA (d) fertilizers
Main purpose of launching multipurpose river projects Ans. (a) : Graphene is an allotrope of carbon
in India was to combine development of agriculture consisting of a single layer of atoms arranged in a two-
and village Economy with rapid industrialisation and dimensional honeycomb lattice.
Urbanisation. Potential graphene applications include lightweight,
70. The large hadron collider is situated near thin, and flexible electric/photonics circuits, solar cells,
(a) Geneva (b) Prague and various medical, chemical and industrial processes
(c) Brussels (d) Madrid enhanced or enabled by the use of new graphene
Ans. (a) : The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is the materials.
most powerful particle accelerator ever built. The 77. Who is the Indian cofounder of Hotmail?
accelerator sits in a tunnel 100 metres underground at (a) Ramesh Rastogi
CERN, the European Organization for Nuclear (b) Nandan Nilekani
Research, on the Franco-Swiss border near Geneva, (c) N. R. Narayan Murthi
Switzerland. (d) Sabeer Bhatia
JPSC AE (GS), 2013 278 YCT
 Ans. (d) : Sabeer Bhatia, the Indian-born co-founder Ans. (b) : The main technology used in home remote
of Hotmail, has hailed Microsoft's decision to controls is infrared (IR) light. The signal between a
relaunch the iconic email service as Outlook.com. remote control handset and the device
78. What is Hubble? it controls consists of pulses of infrared light, which is
(a) A sound-capturing software invisible to the human eye but can be seen through a
(b) The deepest spot in the world's oceans digital camera, video camera or a phone camera.
(c) A space telescope 84. Compact fluorescent lamps pose problems of
(d) The largest seagoing crane in Oslo disposal, because of
Ans. (c) : The Hubble Space Telescope is a space (a) their glass content
telescope that was launched into low Earth orbit in (b) their mercury content
1990 and remains in operation. It was not the first (c) their sulphur content
space telescope, but it is one of the largest and most (d) their plastic content
versatile, well known both as a vital research tool and Ans. (b) : Compact fluorescent light bulbs (CFLs)
as a public relations boon for astronomy. use dramatically less energy than
79. Cloud Computing is a term related with incandescent bulbs and reduce greenhouse gas
(a) artificial rainfall emissions. But they also contain mercury –
(b) web technology a dangerous toxin. So, there is problem of disposal.
(c) acid rains 85. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(d) lightning phenomenon (a) CO2 (b) CH4
Ans. (b) : Cloud computing is the on-demand (c) N2O (d) None of the above
availability of computer system resources, especially Ans. (d) : A Greenhouse Gas (GHG) is a gas that
data storage (cloud storage) and computing power, absorbs and emits radiant energy within the thermal
without direct active management by the user. The infrared range, causing the greenhouse effect. The
term is generally used to describe data centers primary greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are
available to many users over the Internet. water vapor (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane
80. Cerebral malaria is caused by (CH4), Nitrus oxide (N2O) and Ozone (O3). Therefore,
(a) Plasmodium falciparum the option (d) none of the above is correct.
(b) P. ovale 86. Three Mile Island, Fukushima and Chernobyl
(c) P. malariae are associated with
(d) None of the above (a) nuclear mishaps
Ans. (a) : Cerebral malaria is the most severe (b) tsunami
neurological complication of infection with (c) International Science Exhibitin
Plasmodium falciparum malaria. It is a clinical (d) World Scientists' Meet
syndrome characterized by coma and a sexual forms of Ans. (a) : Three Mile Island, fukushima and
the parasite on peripheral blood smears. Chernobyl are associated with nuclear mishaps.
81. Most hybrid surface vehicles combine 87. The full form of HIV is
(a) internal combustion engines and electric (a) Human immunodeficiency virus
motors (b) Human immunopositive virus
(b) internal combustion engines and air power (c) Human immune virus
(c) internal combustion engines and external (d) None of the above
combustion engines Ans. (a) : HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a
(d) internal combustion engines and nuclear- virus that attacks cells that help the body fight
powered engines infection, making a person more vulnerable to other
Ans. (a) : Hybrid electric vehicles are powered by an infections and diseases.
internal combustion engine and an electricmotor, 88. In an optical fibre, the refractive index of the
which uses energy stored in batteries. A hybrid core
electric vehicle cannot be plugged in to charge the (a) is greater than that of the cladding
battery. Instead, the battery is charged through (b) is less than that of the cladding
regenerative braking and by the internal combustion (c) and the cladding is the same
engine. (d) None of the above
82. In the context of cameras, what is the full form Ans. (a) : In optical fibres, refractive index of core
of SLR? material > refractive index of the cladding. Therefore
(a) Shutter lens release (b) Shutter late reflex in optical fibre, the refractive index of the core is
(c) Single lens reflex (d) Single lens release greater than that of the cladding.
Ans. (c) : In cameras, SLR means Single Lens Reflex. 89. Petrology is
83. The technology commonly used in the remote (a) the study of petrol exploration in marine
control of TVs at home is environments
(a) Ultraviolet (b) Infrared (b) the study of petrol manufacturing in
(c) Bluetooth (d) Radio waves laboratories
JPSC AE (GS), 2013 279 YCT
 (c) the geological and chemical studies of rocks Ans. (d) : PET is a type of nuclear medicine procedure
(d) the study of radioisotopes found in mineral that measures metabolic activity of the cells of body
fuels tissues. Therefore, option (d) is correct.
Ans. (c) : Petrology is the branch of geology that 96. A Taser is
studies rocks and the conditions under which they (a) an electroshock weapon
form. Petrology has three subdivisions: igneous, (b) a depth-surveying apparatus
metamorphic, and sedimentary petrology. (c) a new kind of laser
90. Who among the following female astronauts (d) a new drug to cure cancer
holds the record for the longest duration of
Ans. (a) : A Taser is a non-lethal electroshock weapon
cumulative space walk?
used to incapacitate targets via shocks that temporarily
(a) Peggy Whitson (b) Sally Ride
impair the target's physical function to a level that
(c) Pamela melroy (d) Sunita williams allows them to be approached and handled in an
Ans. (a) : Peggy Whitson retains the records for the unresisting and thus safe manner. It is sold by Axon,
most cumulative time in space by an American formerly TASER International.
astronaut and by a woman worldwide at 665 days 97. The Gaia theory is related to
logged over three missions.
(a) Mercury's irregular orbit
Sunita Williams spent approx 322 days in space.
(b) Pluto being outside our solar system
91. P1V1 = P2V2 is a derivation based on (c) Saturn's rings and their origin
(a) Avogadro's gas law (b) Boyle's law (d) Earth as a single organic complex
(c) Charles' law (d) None of the above Ans. (d) : The Gaia theory or the Gaia principle,
Ans. (b) : Boyle's law, also referred to as the Boyle– proposes that living organisms interact with their
Mariotte law, or Mariotte's law, is an experimental gas inorganic surroundings on Earth to form a synergistic
law that describes how the pressure of a gas tends to and self-regulating, complex system that helps to
increase as the volume of the container decreases. maintain and perpetuate the conditions for life on the
92. Which of the following areas has been planet.
identified by the Department of Scientific and 98. Stephen Hawking is
Industrial Research, India, India, for a global (a) a British theoretical physicist
hunt for patented technology to accelerate (b) an American theoretical physicist
innovation in the country? (c) a German theoretical physicist
(a) Affordable healthcare (d) a French theoretical physicist
(b) Low-cost diagnostics Ans. (a) : Stephen William Hawking was an English
(c) Solar energy theoretical physicist, cosmologist, and author who was
(d) All of the above director of research at the Centre for Theoretical
Ans. (d) : All of the above areas have been identified Cosmology at the University of Cambridge at the time
by the Department of Scientific and Industrial of his death.
Reasearch , India for a global hunt for patented 99. Where is India's Maitri Research Station
technology to Accelerate innovation in the country. located?
(a) Ladakh
93. Which of the following is the 100th space
mission of ISRO? (b) Gangotri
(a) PSLV C-21 (b) PSLV III (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) Antarctica
(c) Agni IV (d) SLV I
Ans. (d) : Maitri is India's second permanent research
Ans. (a) : PSLV-C21 was the 100th space mission of station in Antarctica as part of the Indian Antarctic
ISRO. PSLV-21 was launched from Shriharikota in Programme. The name was suggested by the Prime
Andhra Pradesh. Minister of India Mrs. Indira Gandhi.
94. Homi J. Bhabha was a 100. Isaac Asimov is a
(a) cytologist (b) nuclear physicist (a) scientist
(c) cryologist (d) robotics expert
(b) astronaut
Ans. (b) : Homi Jehangir Bhabha was an Indian (c) science fiction writer
nuclear physicist, founding director, and professor of
(d) environmental activist
physics at the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
Ans. (c) : Isaac Asimov was an American writer and
95. Positron emission tomography is commonly professor of biochemistry at Boston University. He
used for was known for his works of science fiction and
(a) the study of stars popular science. Asimov was a prolific writer. He
(b) boring holes in hard materials wrote or edited more than 500 books. He also wrote an
(c) guiding missiles to their estimated 90,000 letters and postcards. Asimov wrote
(d) looking at organs in the body hard science fiction.

JPSC AE (GS), 2013 280 YCT

 Jharkhand Public Service Commission Exam, 2013
Assistant Engineer
GENERAL ENGINEERING (PAPER-IV)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed : 1 Hour ] [ Marks : 100

1. The minimum coefficient of friction between a 5

sphere and an inclined plane of θ, so that the a = µg cos θ
2
sphere may roll without slipping is 5
1 g(sinθ – µcosθ) = µg cos θ
(a) tanθ (b) tan θ 2
2 5 
2 1 gµ  cos θ + cos θ  = g sin θ
(c) tan θ (d) tan θ 2 
7 7
2 sin θ  2 
µ= ⇒ µ = tan θ 
7 cos θ 
Ans. (c) : Figure shows a sphere rolling on an inclined
7 
plane without slipping.
Note-Option (d) is given by the commission.
2. If a ball which is dropped from a height of 2.25
m on a smooth floor attains the height of
bounce equal to 1.00 m, the coefficient of the
restitution between the ball and the floor is
equal to
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50
Net force driving the sphere downwards (c) 0.67 (d) 0.33
Fnet = mgsinθ – µR = mgsinθ – µmgcosθ = ma Ans. (c) : Given,
F Initial height from which the ball is dropped hi = 2.25 m
Acceleration of shpere, a =
m height to which the ball will rebound after first collision
mg sin θ − µmg cos θ is given by (hf = 1 m)
a=
m hf = e2 hi
a = g (sinθ – µcosθ) hf 1
e= = = 0.67
Sphere is rolling due to the torque created by friction hi 2.25
force µR
3. Horizontal range of a projectile fired with
For rotational motion,
initial velocity u at angle α to horizontal is
τ = Iα .....(1) equal to
Where τ is the torque, u 2 sin 2α u 2 cos 2α
τ = µR × r .....(2) (a) (b)
g g
Where r is radius of sphere,
u cos α
2
u sin α
2
2 2 (c) (d)
MOI of sphere I = mr g g
5
Angular acceleration of sphere, Ans. (a) : The horizontal range of the projectile fired at
an angle is given by–
a
α= .....(3) u 2 sin 2α
r R=
From equation (1) & (3) g
2 a
τ = mr 2 ×
5 r
2
µR × r = mra
5
2
µmgcosθ = ma
5
JPSC AE (Gen. Engg.), 2013 281 YCT
Maximum Range (α = 45)  60 × 1000   84 × 1500   36 × 800 
= − + 
2
u sin 90 0
 400 × 210   800 × 210   600 × 210 
R=
g = 0.7142 – 0.75 + 0.2285
= 0.1927mm
u2 Note- Option (b) is given by commission.
R=
g 5. The shape of a cantilever for uniformly
2u sin α distributed load will be
Time of flight, (T) =
g (a) straight line (b) parabolic
(c) elliptical (d) None of the above
u 2 sin 2 α
Maximum height reached, H = Ans. (b) : The shape of a cantilever for uniformly
2g distributed load will be parabolic.
4. The steel bar ABCD of varying sections is
subjected to the axial forces as shown in the
figure below. Find the value of P necessary for
equilibrium. If E = 210 kN/mm2, determine the
total elongation of the bar

BMD
6. According to Euler's formula, the buckling
load ρ for a column of length l with both ends
hinged and having I = least moment of inertia
(a) P = 74 kN; 2.01 mm of the section of the column, and E = modulus
(b) P = 84 kN; 1.11 mm of the elasticity of the material of the column, is
(c) P = 94 kN; 3.17 mm 2π2 EI π2 EI
(a) ρ = (b) ρ =
(d) P = 104 kN; 0.01 mm l 4l 2
Ans. (*) : π EI
2
4π2 EI
(c) ρ = 2 (d) ρ =
l l2
Ans. (c) : For both end hinged (le = l)
π2 EI
Euler's buckling load (ρ) =
l 2e
For equilibrium, π2 EI
60 + 120 = P + 36 (ρ) =
l2
P = 180 – 36 = 144kN

7. Maximum shear stress in a Mohr's circle is

(a) equal to radius of Mohr's circle
(b) greater than the radius of Mohr's circle
From the figure,
(c) less than the radius of Mohr's circle
P1 = 60 kN P2 = –84 kN P3 = 36 kN
(d) Could be any of the above
A1 = 400 mm2 A2 = 800 mm2 A3 = 600 mm3
Ans. (a) : Maximum shear stress in a Mohr's circle is
l1 = 1 m = 1000 mm equal to radius of Mohr's circle.
l2 = 1.5 m = 1500 mm Rradius of Mohr's circle ( τmax )
l3 = 0.8 m = 800 mm
2
Pl Pl Pl  σ − σy 
Total elongation ( ∆ ) = 1 1 − 2 2 + 3 3 ( τmax ) =  x  + τ xy
2

A1 E A 2 E A 3 E  2 

JPSC AE (Gen. Engg.), 2013 282 YCT

8. A boiler shell 200 cm diameter and plate Ans. (a) : In case of pure shear
thickness 1.5 cm is subjected to internal Normal stresses on (2-D) orthogonal planes
pressure of 1.5 MN/m2, then the hoop stress σx = 0 , σy = 0 ,
will be τ xy = τ
(a) 30 MN/m2 (b) 50 MN/m2
σ1= τ, σ2= -τ,
(c) 100 MN/m2 (d) 200 MN/m2
Ans. (c) : Given, d = 200 cm, t = 1.5 cm, p = 1.5
MN/m2
pd
Hoop stress ( σ h ) =
2t 12. For an irreversible process, entropy change is
1.5 × 200 δQ δQ
= (a) greater than (b) equal to
2 × 1.5 T T
= 100 MN/m2 δQ
(c) less than (d) equal to zero
9. The deformation of a bar under its own weight T
compared to the deformation of same body δQ
subjected to a direct load equal to weight of the Ans. (a) : Change of entropy, (ds)system = ∫ T
+ s gen
body is For Reversible Process, sgen = 0
(a) same (b) double δQ
(c) half (d) four times ∫
(ds)system =
T
WL For Irreversible Process, sgen > 0
Ans. (c) : Deformation due to direct load (δ) =
AE δQ

Deformation due to its own weight (δself-weight) =

WL ∫
(ds)system >
T
2AE δQ
So, The deformation of a bar under its own weight
In General, ∫
(ds)system >
T
compared to the deformation of same body subjected to 13. To reduce the possibility of knock in the CI
a direct load equal to weight of the body is half. engines, the first elements of fuel and air
10. Two solid shafts are made of same material and should have
have their diameters D and D/2. The ratio of (a) high temperature (b) high density
the strength of bigger shaft to smaller one in (c) short delay (d) All of the above
torsion is Ans. (d) : To reduce knocking in CI engine.
(a) 4 (b) 2 (i) High compression ratio
(c) 8 (d) 16 (ii) High inlet pressure and temperature
(iii) high combustion wall temperature
D (iv) short ignition delay
Ans. (c) : Given, d1 = D, d 2 =
2 (v) Low ignition temperature of fuel.
16T 14. In impulse-reaction turbines, the pressure
We know that τ =
πd 3 drops
(a) in fixed nozzles
π 3
T= τd ⇒ T ∝ d 3 (b) in moving blades
16 (c) in fixed blades
3 3
T1  d1   D  (d) in both fixed and moving blades
=  =  =8
T2  d 2   D / 2  Ans. (d) : In reaction turbine both the nozzles and
blades act as expanding nozzles.
T1 Therefore, the static pressure decreases in both the fixed
= 8 T1 = 8T2
T2 and moving blades. The fixed blades act as nozzles and
direct the flow to the moving blades at a velocity
11. In case of pure shear at a point, the sum of slightly higher than the moving blade velocity.
normal stresses on two orthogonal planes is
15. Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its
equal to emissivity
(a) maximum shear stress (a) at all temperatures
(b) twice the maximum shear stress (b) at one particular temperature
(c) half the maximum shear stress (c) when the system is under thermal equilibrium
(d) zero (d) at critical temperature
JPSC AE (Gen. Engg.), 2013 283 YCT
Ans. (c) : When a body is in thermal equilibrium with 19. What is the basic equation of thermal radiation
its surroundings the emissivity of its surface is equal to from which all other equations of radiation can
its absorptivity. α=ε be derived?
(a) Stefan-Boltzmann equation
16. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube
manometer, one leg is usually inclined by angle (b) Planck's equation
θ. Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of U- (c) Wein's equation
tube is equal to (d) Rayleigh-Jeans formula
1 Ans. (b) : Plank's law of thermal radiation – The law
(a) sinθ (b) states that the monochromatic emissive power of a
sin θ
black body is dependent on both absolute temperature
1
(c) cosθ (d) of black body and also on wavelength of radiation
cos θ energy emitted 'r'.
Ans. (b) : A simple U-tube manometer sensitivity E b λ = f ( λ, T )
denoted by S is given by–
h 2 πC1
Ssimple = = E bλ = watt/m2-µm
∆p π5 ( ec 2 / πt − 1)
But when it comes to a inclined manometer h is C1 & C2 are experimental constant.
substituted by L which is the length of the fluid column 20. An insulated box containing 0.5 kg of a gas
h = Lsinθ having CV = 0.98 kJ/kg-K falls from a balloon 4
L = h/sinθ km above the earth's surface. The temperature
L h rise of the gas when the box hits the ground is
Sinclined = = (a) 0 K
∆p sin θ × ∆p
(b) 20 K
Taking ratio of both the sensitivity we get,
(c) 40 K
Sinclined h / sin θ 1
= = (d) 60 K
Ssimple h sin θ
Ans. (c) : Given m = 0.5 kg CV = 0.98 kJ/kg-K
17. To avoid cavitation in centrifugal pumps h = 4 km = 4 × 103m
(a) suction pressure should be low Energy balance
(b) delivery pressure should be low ∆PE = change in internal energy (∆E)
(c) suction pressure should be high mgh = m Cv ∆T
(d) delivery pressure should be high gh 9.8 × 4 ×103
Ans. (c) : Cavitation occurs when the liquid in a pump ∆T = =
Cv 0.98 × 103
turns to a vapour at low pressure. It occurs because
there is not enough pressure at the suction end of the ∆T = 40K
pump or insufficient Net Positive Suction Head 21. For the flow over a flat plate, the
available (NPSH). To avoid cavitation in centrifugal hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness is 0.5
pumps suction pressure should be high. mm. The dynamic viscosity is 25 × 10–6 Pa-s,
18. Heat transferred to a system at constant specific heat is 2-0 kJ/kg-K and thermal
pressure is equal to conductivity is 0.05 W/m-K. The thermal
(a) work transfer boundary layer thickness would be
(b) change in internal energy (a) 0.1 mm
(c) change in enthalpy (b) 0.5 mm
(d) change in entropy (c) 1 mm
Ans. (c) : Enthalpy is given by (d) 2 mm
H = U + PV Ans. (b) : Given, δ = 0.5 mm, µ = 25 × 10–6 Pa-s, Cp =
dH = dU + d (PV) = dU + dPV + VdP 2 kJ/kg-K, K = 0.05 W/m-K
at constant pressure (P = C) µCp 25 × 10−6 × 2 × 103
Prandtl Number (Pr) = = =1
dH = dU + PdV ––––––(i) K 0.05
from first law of thermodynamics For Pr = 1
δQ = dU + δW δ
1
δ
for constant pressure = (Pr) 3 ⇒ =1
δ th δ th
δQ = dU + PdV
δ = δ th = 0.5mm
δQ = dH
JPSC AE (Gen. Engg.), 2013 284 YCT
22. Match list-I with List-II and select the correct (a) a function of Re
answer using the code given below the Lists : (b) a function of Re and k/D
a. Reynolds 1. Film coeff., pipe (c) a function of k/D
number diameter, thermal (d) independent of Re and k/D
b. Prandtl 2. Flow velocity, acoustic Ans. (c) : The friction factor f at a given Reynold's
number velocity number, in the turbulent region, depends on the relative
c. Nusselt 3. Heat capacity, dynamic roughness, defined as the ratio of average roughness (k)
number viscosity, thermal to the diameter of the pipe (D).
conductivity 26. Power dissipated in a pure capacitor is
d. Mach 4. Flow velocity, pipe (a) minimum (b) maximum
number diameter, kinematic (c) infinite (d) zero
viscosity Ans. (d) : Power dissipated in a pure capacitor is zero
Code: because it consumes no active power.
(a) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2 (b) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2 Voltage lags current by 90° in a pure capacitive circuit.
(c) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4 (d) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
Ans. (b) :
23. The equation of a velocity distribution over a
plate is given by u = 2y – y2, where u is the
velocity in m/s at a point y meter from the plate
measured perpendicularly. Assuming, µ = 8.60 P = VI cos90
poise, the shear stress at a point 15 cm from the P=0
boundary is 27. High current of the order of 100 A can be
(a) 1.72 N/m2 (b) 1.46 N/m2 measured by an ammeter of 0-1 A rating by
2
(c) 14.62 N/m (d) 17.20 N/m2 using
N−s (a) shunt (b) capacitor
Ans. (b) : Given, µ = 8.60 Poise = 0.86 (c) R-C network (d) current transformer
m2
y = 15 cm = 0.15 m Ans. (d) : An ammeter is a device used to measure
u = 2y – y2 current in range of ampere's to increase range of
ammeter, current transformer is used.
du
Q = 2 − 2y Hence current transformer is suitable to increase the
dy range of ammeter to measure current of 100 A.
du 28. The torque developed by an induction motor
= 2 − 2(0.15) = 1.7
dy corresponding to zero-slip is equal to
y = 0.15
(a) maximum (b) full-rated capacity
the shear stress at a point 15 cm from the boundary is, (c) zero (d) minimum
du
τ= µ Ans. (c) : Torque developed by induction motor is
dy proportional to the slip.
= 0.86 × 1.7 = 1.46 N/m2 KsE 2 R
T= 2 2 2 2
24. For turbulent boundary layer flow, the R 2 + (sX 2 )
thickness of laminar sublayer δ is given by At low slip (s)–
v  v sX2 < < R
(a) * (b) 5  * 
u u  (sX2)2 <<<< R
 v  v (sX2)2 Neglected
(c) 5.75log  *  (d) 2300  *  T∝s
u  u 
Hence, slip is zero and the torque developed by the
Ans. (*) : The thickness of laminar sub layer in motor is zero.
turbulent boundary layer flow is given by
29. Which of the following is zero inside a charged
11.6v
δ' = conducting sphere?
u* (a) Potential (b) Electric intensity
This is the result of experiment by Nikuradse's (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
experiment for hydrodynamic smooth pipe. Ans. (c) : In a conducting solid or hollow sphere which
Note- Option (b) is given by commission. is charged, charged inside sphere Qin = 0
25. In a fully turbulent flow through a rough pipe, so E = 0 [According to gauss law]
the friction factor f is (Re is the Reynolds
∆V = − ∫ E ⋅ ds
number and k/D is relative roughness)
JPSC AE (Gen. Engg.), 2013 285 YCT
Because E = 0, hence 33. Which of the following aggregates gives
∆V is also zero maximum strength in concrete?
∆V = 0 (a) Rounded aggregate (b) Elongated
aggregate
30. Thevenin resistance Rth is found (c) Flaky aggregate (d) Cubical aggregate
(a) between any two open terminals
Ans. (d) : Angular Aggregate:
(b) by short-circuiting the given two terminals
They have sharp, angular and rough pasties having
(c) by removing voltage sources along with their maximum voids (about 40 percent). Angular aggregate
internal resistances provide very good bond than the rounded and irregular
(d) between same open terminal as for Vth Aggregate. Angular aggregate are most suitable for high
Ans. (d) : According to Thevenin Theorem, Thevenin strength concrete and pavements; the requirement of
resistance Rth is equivalent resistance seen by load cement paste is relatively more. Angular aggregate most
terminal and voltage source replaced by their internal of whose particles have their thru dimensions
resistance and current source gets open. approximately equal are called cubical aggregate.
Rounded Aggregate-
Rounded aggregates are generally obtained from river
or sea shore and produce minimum void (about 33
percent) in concrete.
They have minimum ratio of surface area to the volume
and cement paste required is minimum. Poor
interlocking bond makes it unsuitable for high strength
31. Consider the following statements : concrete and pavement.
Casein glue is Irregular aggregate- They have voids about 36 percent
1. obtained from milk and requires more cement paste as compared to rounded
2. obtained from the blood of animals aggregate. Because of irregularity in shape they develop
good bond and are suitable for making ordinary
3. used in painting of metals
concrete.
4. used in plywood industry
5. white in colour 34. For stones, Moh's scale is used to determine
(a) toughness (b) hardness
6. red in colour
(c) flakiness index (d) durability
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Ans. (b) : For stones, Moh’s scale is used to determine
(a) 1, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 4 and 5 hardness.
(c) 2, 3 and 6 (d) 2, 4 and 6 Hardness: It is the most important property for rapid
identification of minerals. It is measured by scratching
Ans. (b) : (1) Casein glue is obtained from milk the mineral with a series of substances of known
(2) Casein glue used in plywood industry variation in hardness using following scale of Moh’s
(3) Casein glue is white in colour Mineral Hardness
32. A concrete cylinder of size 15 mm diameter and Talc → 1
300 mm long is tested for split tensile strength Gypsum → 2
of concrete. It failed at a load of 100 kN, the Calcite → 3
split tensile strength (in N/mm2) is
Fluorite → 4
(a) 0.35 (b) 0.71
Apatite → 5
(c) 1.42 (d) 2.83
Orthoclase → 6
Ans. (c) : In question, diameter should be 150 mm
Quartz → 7
mistaken question.
P = 100 kN Tapaz → 8
D = 150 mm Sapphire → 9
L = 300 35. Match List-I (constituents of bricks) with List-
In split tensile strength test, II (corresponding influence) and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
Split tensile strength of converter
Lists :
2P
( Fcr ) = List-I List-II
πDL (Constituents of (Corresponding
2 × 100 × 1000 bricks) influence)
=
π × 150 × 300 a. Alumina 1. Colour brick
= 1.4147 N/mm2 b. Silica 2. Plasticity recovery
= 1.42 N/mm2 for moulding

JPSC AE (Gen. Engg.), 2013 286 YCT

 c. Magnesia 3. Reacts with silica 38. Select the correct statement :
during burning and Dummy activity on a PERT/CPM chart means,
causes particles to it
unite together and (a) consumes time, but no resources
development of (b) consumes resources, but no time
strength (c) consumes neither time nor resources
d. Limestone 4. Preserves the form of (d) consumes both resources and time
brick at high
temperature and Ans. (c) : Dummy Activity–An activity which use to
prevent shrinkage show logic, dependency or relationship of one activity
over the other but does not consume any time or
Code: resources for its completion.
(a) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 (b) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
39. If a is the optimistic time, b is the pessimistic
(c) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 (d) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
time and m is most likely time of an activity,
Ans. (c) : Alumina in brick earth provides plasticity for then the expected time of activity is
melding, silica preserves the form of brick at high
a+m+b a + 2m + b
temperature and prevents shrinkage, magnesia imports (a) (b)
yellow tint to the brick line prevents the raw brick from 6 6
shrinkage, enables the silica to fuse during burning and a + 4m + b a + 5m + b
(c) (d)
binds the particles of brick together. 6 6
36. Two heaters rated at 1000 W, 250 volts each, Ans. (c) : There are three estimation times involved in
are connected in series across a 250 volts, 50 Hz PERT; i.e. optimistic time, most likely time and
AC mains. The total power drawn from the pessimistic time. In PERT these three time estimate
supply would be derived for each activity.
(a) 1000 W (b) 500 W The expected completion time (te) is calculated below
(c) 250 W (d) 2000 W a + 4m + b
Ans. (b) : te =
6
40. Critical path moves along the activities having
total float of
(a) positive value (b) negative value
(c) zero value (d) same value
P1 = 1000 W Ans. (c) : Critical path moves along the activities
P2 = 1000 W having total float of zero value.
Total power supply (P) – 41. Which of the following are the guidelines for
P ×P the construction of a network diagram?
P= 1 2 1. Each activity is represented by one and only
P1 + P2
one arrow in the network.
1000 ×1000 2. Two activities can be identified by the same
P=
2000 beginning and end events.
P = 500 W 3. Dangling must be avoided in a network
37. At half-power points of a resonance curve, the diagram.
current is how much times the maximum 4. Dummy activity consumes no time or
current? resource.
(a) 2 (b) 2 Select the correct answer using the code given
below :
(c) 1 2 (d) 1/ 2
Code:
Ans. (d) : The current is 1/ 2 (0.707) times the (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
maximum current at half power point of a resonance (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
curve. Ans. (b) :
42. Which of the following methods of offsets
involves less measurement on the ground?
(a) Method of perpendicular offsets
(b) Method of oblique offsets
(c) Method of ties
(d) All involving equal measurement on the
Note- Option (c) is given by commission. ground
JPSC AE (Gen. Engg.), 2013 287 YCT
 Ans. (a) : Maximum length of the offset depends upon 47. Which of the following methods of plane table
the: surveying is used to locate the position of an
1. Scale of plotting inaccessible points?
2. Possible error in direction and length (a) Radiation (b) Intersection
3. Accuracy desired (c) Traversing (d) Resection
43. Which of the following are the fundamental Ans. (b) : Intersection method- In this method, two
lines of a theodolite? says are drawn from two station whose location is
1. The vertical and horizontal axes. already plotted on shut in the direction of point whose
2. The diagonally opposite screw lines. location is to be drawn. The rays where cut is the
3. The line of collimation and axes of the plate location of the point to be platted.
levels. This method is commonly adopted when the station are
4. The bubble line of the attitude level. inaccessible or distance b/w the stations is too large.
Select the correct answer using the code given This method is commonly adopted in hilly area.
below : Radiation method- In this method the instrument is
Code: setup at a station and says are drawn to various station
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 which are to be platted.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 This method is suitable only when the area to be
surveyed is small and all the required stations to be
Ans. (d) : Fundamental lines of a theodelite are the
plotted are clearly visible and accessible from the
vertical axis, the axis of plate levels, the line of
instrument station.
collimation, the horizontal axis and the bubble line of
altitude. Traversing- This method is similar to compass or
theodolite traversing
44. During the chaining along a straight line, the
This method is most suited when a narrow strip of
leader of the party has 4 arrows in his hand
terrain is to be surveyed eg. survey of road, railways
while the follower has 6. Distance of the
etc.
follower from the starting point is
(a) 4 chains (b) 6 chains Resection method- It is the process of determining the
plotted position of the station occupied by the plane
(c) 120 m (d) 180 m
table, by means of sights taken towards known paints,
Ans. (b) : locations of which have been plotted.
45. Height of the instrument method of leveling is 48. Disinfection of water results in
(a) more accurate than rise and fall method (a) removal of turbidity
(b) less accurate than rise and fall method (b) removal of hardness
(c) quicker and less tedious for large number of
(c) killing of disease bacteria
intermediate sights
(d) complete sterilization
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c) : Disinfection of water results in killing of
Ans. (b) : Height of the instrument method of leveling
disease bacteria.
is less accurate than rise and fall method.
49. In water-treatment plant, dissolved iron and
• Rise and fall method is well suited for determining the
difference of levels of two planes where precision is manganese can be removed from the water by
required eg. establishing new benchmarks. (a) aeration
• Height of instrument method/height of collimation (b) aeration and coagulation
method is most suited for longitudinal or cross-sectional (c) aeration and flocculation
leveling. (d) aeration and sedimentation
46. Direct method of controlling is Ans. (b) : In water treatment plant, dissolved Iron and
(a) a quick method manganese can be removed from the water by aeration
(b) adopted for large surveys only and coagulation.
(c) most accurate method 50. The intensification of greenhouse effect is
(d) suitable for hilly terrains attributed to the increased level of
Ans. (c) : Direct method of controlling is most accurate (a) carbon dioxide (b) carbon monoxide
method. (c) chlorofluorocarbon (d) sulphur dioxide
Direct method- In this method, distance is measured Ans. (a) : The intensification of greenhouse effect is
by the process of stooping which consist of measuring attributed to the increased level of carbon dioxide
distance in short horizontal length. (CO2).

JPSC AE (Gen. Engg.), 2013 288 YCT

Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)

 Jharkhand Public Service Commission
Combined Assistant Engineer Exam
General Ability Test (Paper-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 2 Hrs Exam. Date: 09 April, 2021

Direction (1-5): Select the right choice with the Ans. (c) : In this sentence, we used 'between' as a
correct spelling in each of the questions given below: preposition to complete the sentence.
1. (a) Accreditation (b) Accredition • We use 'between' to refer two things which are clearly
(c) Accreditatation (d) Acreditation separated.
Ans. (a) : The correct spelling is 'Accreditation. It 9. The two governments entered ________ an
means-accepted or approved of. Use this word as a
example- If you earn a teaching certificate, then you agreement for riparian rights although it was
have an accreditation to teach. to be governed by international laws.
2. (a) Acommodate (b) Accomodate (a) No preposition (b) in
(c) Accommodate (d) Acomoddate (c) for (d) into
Ans. (c) : The correct spelling is 'Accommodate'. It Ans. (d) : In this sentence, we used 'into' as a
means-to provide with something desired. Use this word preposition to complete the sentence.
as a example- I need money, and they accommodated • We use 'into' to talk about the movement of something.
me with a loan. 10. The station master of the Malegaon railway
3. (a) Vaacum (b) Vaccum station reported that the train was running
(c) Vacuum (d) Vaccuum ________ time.
Ans. (c) : The correct spelling is 'Vacuum'. It means a (a) without (b) through
space that is completely empty of all substances, (c) to (d) in
including air or other gases. Ans. (d) : In this sentence, we used 'in' as a preposition
4. (a) Diarrhea (b) Diarrhoea to complete the sentence.
(c) Diarrheoa (d) Diariya • We use 'in' to indicate place, time or any direction.
Ans. (b) : The correct spelling is 'Diarrhoea'. It is a
disease. It is usually caused by a virus or sometimes Direction: Choose the right order of the
contaminated food. sections in each question below to make a
5. (a) Macroni (b) Makroni meaningful sentence : (Q. 11-15)
(c) Macronny (d) Macaroni a fort night of the mishap
11. /
Ans. (d) : The correct spelling is 'Macaroni'. It is a type A
of junk food. turned on the giant digging machine
Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions in /
B
each of the questions given below : (Q. 6-10)
they could have repaired the motor and
6. The greedy man in the large, palatial house of /
Sohanpur hankered _______more money. C
(a) of (b) on to resume work within
(c) with (d) after D
Ans. (d) : Preposition-A word or phrase that is used (a) C B A D (b) B C D A
before a noun or pronoun to show place, time, direction (c) C A D B (d) C B D A
etc.
• In this sentence, we used 'after' as a preposition to Ans. (d) : The correct sequence of the sentence is
complete the sentence. 'CBDA'.
7. The injured man died ________loss of blood the left wing snapped away from its
12. /
even after he was admitted in the A
multispecialty hospital. mooring bolts
(a) from (b) of /
(c) since (d) in B
Ans. (a) : In this sentence, we used 'from' as a with such a tremendous jolt
/
preposition to complete the sentence. C
• We use 'from' to refer to the place where someone or lightning struck the aircraft
something starts or originates.
D
8. The application form can be submitted _______ (a) D C B A (b) A B C D
ten a.m. and five p.m. online at the web portal
of the chemical company. (c) C D B A (d) A C D B
(a) at (b) from Ans. (a) : The correct sequence of the sentence is
(c) between (d) through 'DCBA'.

289
 to the horizon that glowed Ans. (c) : The correct sentence is -
13. / The engineer told the trainees that the nuclear power
A
and serene ocean stretching endlessly complex comprised the nuclear core, a heat exchanger
/ and a computerized control room.
B 17. (a) The communication masts in the African
all he could see before him was a calm nation were taller, stronger and thick than
/
C those found in the island nation.
like liquid gold inside a crystal bowl (b) The communication masts in the African
nation were taller, stronger and thicker than
D the island nation.
(a) C A B D (b) C B A D (c) The communication masts in the African
(c) B A C D (d) A C B D nation were taller, stronger and thicker than
Ans. (b) : The correct of sequence of the sentence is those found in the island nation.
'CBAD.' (d) The communication masts in the African
measure its amount in a calibrated jar nation were taller, stronger and thicker than
14. / those found in the island nation.
A Ans. (d) : The correct sentence is-
the inner volume of an irregularly The communication masts in the African nation were
B taller, stronger and thicker than those found in the island
shaped vessel nation.
/ 18. (a) The spy was committed to destroy the missile
B
the easiest way to compute installation located in the middle of the heavy
/ guarded military facility.
C (b) The spy was committed for destroy the
is to pour water inside it and missile installation located in the middle of
D the heavily guarded military facility.
(a) A D C B (b) C B D A (c) The spy was committed to destroying the
(c) B C A D (d) D C B A missile installation located in the middle of
the heavily guarded military facility.
Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of the sentence is (d) The spy was commit to destroy the missile
'CBDA'. installation located in the middle of the
as science advances to a higher level heavily guarded military facility.
15. /
A Ans. (c) : The correct sentence is-
the old theory that light always The spy was committed to destroying the missile
/ installation located in the middle of the heavily guarded
B military facility.
soon by a whole new series of discoveries 19. (a) The small, round, red block of granite was
/
C quite useful for the historians because it
travels in a straight line will be refuted carried inscriptions in three languages.
D (b) The small, round, red block of granite was
(a) A D B C (b) C D C A quite useful for the historians because it
carried inscription in three languages.
(c) B D C A (d) B C D A
(c) The small, round, red block of granite was
Ans. (c) : The correct sequence of the sentence is quite useful for the historians because it
'BDCA'. carried an inscription in three language.
Direction : Choose the correct sentence from the (d) The small, round, red block of granite was
choices given below in each of the sentences : (Q. 16- quite useful among the historians because it
20) carried an inscription in three languages.
16. (a) The engineer told the trainees that the nuclear Ans. (a) : The correct sentence is-
power complex comprised of the nuclear The small, round, red block of granite was quite useful
core, a heat exchanger and a computerized for the historians because it carried inscriptions in three
control room. languages.
(b) The engineer told the trainees that the nuclear 20. (a) The pilgrim had been walking for three years
power complex comprised of the nuclear without pause to reach the famous religious
core, a heat exchanger and a computerized shrine in South Asia.
control room. (b) The pilgrim had been walking from three
(c) The engineer told the trainees that the nuclear years without pause to reach the famous
power complex comprised the nuclear core, a religious shrine in South Asia.
heat exchanger and a computerized control (c) The pilgrim had been walking since three
room. years without pause to reach the famous
(d) The engineer said the trainees that the nuclear religious shrine in South Asia.
power complex comprised of the nuclear (d) The pilgrim had been walked for three year
core, a heat exchanger and a computerized without pause to reach the famous religious
control room. shrine in South Asia.
290
 Ans. (a) : The correct sentence is- Direction (31-35) : Choose the most suitable pair
The pilgrim had been walking for three years without of fillers for the blanks in each of the sentences
pause to reach the famous religious shrine in South given below:
Asia. 31. The strangest _______about this strange
Direction (21-25): Choose the most suitable ______ was that it was launched by a word.
synonyms in the questions below : (a) thing, journey (b) ball, maker
21. Scared (c) barbecue, ran (d) short, tall
(a) Afraid (b) Emotional Ans. (a) : The strangest thing about this strange journey
(c) Angry (d) Boring was that it was launched by a word.
Ans. (a) : Synonym-A synonym is a word that means 32. Health _______have become a _______ among
exactly or nearly the same as another word. the digital generation in today's world.
• Here Synonym of 'Scared' is 'Afraid, means being in a (a) common, wire (b) bands, rage
state of fear. (c) fan, blade (d) trees, capillaries
22. Predicament Ans. (b) : Health bands have become a rage among the
(a) Greenish (b) Tall digital generation in today's world.
(c) Problem (d) Saucer 33. The _______ has been used to spy on cross-
Ans. (c) : Synonym of 'Predicament' is 'Problem' means border _________by almost every country.
difficult situation that is hard to get out of. (a) national, calculate
(b) bacteria, metals
23. Hilarious
(c) plastic, buttons
(a) Tragic (b) Steep
(d) contraption, communications
(c) Comical (d) Dark
Ans. (d) : The contraption has been used to spy on
Ans. (c) : Synonym of 'Hilarious' is 'Comical' means cross-border communications by almost every country.
extremely funny.
34. A _______, joyful and fresh ________ came in,
24. Soothing loaded with dampness.
(a) Edible (b) Comforting (a) square, pickled (b) cool, wind
(c) Broken (d) Studious (c) white, English (d) glassy, boss
Ans. (b) : Synonym of 'Soothing' is 'Comforting', Ans. (b) : A cool, joyful and fresh wind came in loaded
means making you feel calm. with dampness.
25. Articulate 35. It questions the ________ nations of truth and
(a) Express (b) Destroy ________.
(c) Reduce (d) Minimize (a) aircraft, most (b) dairy, modern
Ans. (a) : Synonym of 'Articulate' is 'Express', means (c) ship, bow (d) usual, knowledge
able to express thoughts and feelings easily and clearly. Ans. (d) : It questions the usual nations of truth and
Choose the most suitable antonyms in the knowledge.
questions given below : (Q. 26-30) Direction (36-40): Choose the most suitable
26. Ebony idiom to be filled in each of the blanks given below:
(a) Black (b) Ruddy 36. This man always _______.
(c) White (d) Cream (a) is a red herring
Ans. (c) : Antonym-A word that means the opposite of (b) blows his own trumpet
another word. (c) is a spoke in the wheel
• Antonym of 'Ebony' (a hard black wood) is 'White.' (d) was out and out
27. Erudite Ans. (b) : This man always blows his own trumpet.
(a) Wise (b) Pathetic • ‘Blows his own trumpet’ means that to tell everyone
(c) Foolish (d) Mute proudly about your achievements.
Ans. (c) : Antonym of 'Erudite' (having knowledge that 37. He cannot get the solution because he _______.
is gained by studying) is 'Foolish' (silly). (a) is barking up the wrong tree
28. Common (b) is a dime a dozen
(a) General (b) Exclusive (c) has best of both the worlds
(c) Normal (d) Rich (d) is burning the midnight oil
Ans. (b) : Antonym of 'Common' (shared by two or Ans. (a) : He cannot get the solution because he is
more individual) is 'Exclusive' (only to be used by one barking up the wrong tree, which means waste one’s
person). efforts by pursuing the wrong thing or path.
29. Bold 38. What was done was done, it was no use ______.
(a) Strong (b) Brave (a) costing an arm and a leg
(c) Meek (d) Simple (b) curiosity killing the cat
Ans. (c) : Antonym of 'Bold' (daring and confident) is (c) crying over spilt milk
'Meek' (quit). (d) hitting the nail on its head
30. Clumsy Ans. (c) : What was done was done, it was no use
(a) Graceful (b) Miserly crying over split milk.
(c) Sentimental (d) Idiotic • ‘Crying over split milk’ means that to feel sorry or
Ans. (a) : Antonym of 'Clumsy' (careless) is 'Graceful'. sad about something that has already happened.
291
39. If you want a good government, you must not 48. You can fire your guns ________.
_______. (a) at war (b) at sea
(a) take it with a grain of salt (c) at will (d) at odds with
(b) speak of the devil Ans. (c) : You can fire your guns at will. ‘Fire at will’
(c) be a bitter pill means fire when ready.
(d) sit on the fence 49. The officer came into the room _______.
Ans. (d) : If you want a good government, you must not (a) on leave (b) on guard
sit on the fence. (c) on hand (d) on purpose
• ‘Sit on the fence’ means to avoid saying which side of
an argument you support. Ans. (d) : The officer came into the room ‘on purpose’,
which means intentionally.
40. To tackle difficulties in life, one should not
________. 50. Susan tried to start the car but
(a) put all his eggs in one basket (a) in touch (b) in dark
(b) be a blessing in disguise (c) in return (d) in vain
(c) cross the bridge when he comes to it Ans. (d) : Susan tried to start the car but ‘in vain’,
(d) feel a bit under the weather which means success or result.
Ans. (a) : To tackle difficulties in life, one should not 51. What is the maximum number of people who
put all his eggs in one basket. can share a Nobel Prize?
• ‘Put all his eggs in one basket’ means put all their (a) 4 (b) 2
effort or resources into doing one thing. (c) 3 (d) 6
Direction (41-45): Choose one word for the Ans. (c) : The Noble Prize is an international award
expressions given below : administered by the Nobel Foundation in Stockholm,
41. A person who eats human flesh Sweden and based on the fortune of Alfred Nobel,
(a) Omnivorous (b) Carcinogenic Swedish inventor and entrepreneur.
(c) Cannibal (d) Eunuch • A Nobel Prize can be shared by up to three
Ans. (c) : A person who eats human flesh called individuals, or it can also be awarded to an organisation.
'Cannibal.' It is also called anthropophagy. • The United States has won the highest number of
42. A person who hates women Nobel Prizes with 400 from 1901 to 2021.
(a) Misogynist (b) Apostate 52. When is the 'World Wildlife Day 2020'
(c) Chauvinist (d) Connoisseur celebrated across the world?
Ans. (a) : A person who hates women called (a) March 1 (b) March 2
'Misogynist.' (c) March 3 (d) March 4
43. A person who leaves his own country and Ans. (c) : World Wildlife Day is observed on 3rd March
settles in another country every year to celebrate and raise awareness about
(a) Immigrant (b) Native world’s wild fauna and flora. It is celebrated to mark the
(c) Foreigner (d) Alien signing of the Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
Ans. (a) : A person who leaves his own country and on this day in 1973.
settles in another country called 'Immigrant.' • World Wildlife Day celebrated in 2022 under the
44. A person who can speak many languages theme "Recovering key species for ecosystem
(a) Linguist (b) Virtuoso restoration."
(c) Narcissist (d) Polyglot • The 2020 observation is on the theme of ''Sustaining
Ans. (d) : A person who can speak many languages all life on earth".
called 'Polyglot. ' It is also called multilingual. 53. ''Akshay Urja Portal' is an initiative of which
45. A person who sells flowers Union Ministry?
(a) Florist (b) Horticulturist (a) Ministry of Power
(c) Orchard (d) Bibliophile (b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Ans. (a) : A person who sells flowers called 'Florist. ' (c) Ministry of New & Renewable Energy
Direction (46-50): Choose the correct (d) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public
prepositional phrase to be filled in each of the Enterprises
blanks given below: Ans. (c) : The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy
46. The patient expired ________ genuine has recently launched its new website to make
medicines. information about new schemes and projects presented
(a) for want of (b) in lieu of in a better manner to the stakeholders. The newly
(c) instead of (d) for instance launched website includes optimized user interface and
Ans. (a) : The appropriate prepositional phrase that will facilitates better access from various devices including
fill in the blank should be ‘for want of’. The patient mobile phones.
expired for want of genuine medicines. The website has additional portals such as 'Akshay Urja
47. This memo is being issued ________ your Portal' and 'India Renewable Idea Exchange' (IRIX).
absence from the meeting. 54. Which is the world's most polluted city, as per
(a) in regard to (b) with regard to the US Air Quality Index 2020?
(c) in regard of (d) with regard of (a) Delhi (b) Lahore
Ans. (b) : The appropriate prepositional phrase that will (c) New York (d) Beijing
fill in the blank should be ‘with regard to’. This memo Ans. (b) : Lahore is on the top of the list of the most
is being issued with regard to your absence from the polluted cities in the world, according to air pollution
meeting. data released by the US Air Quality Index.

292
• Lahore reported a particulate matter (PM) rating of 59. Jacinda Arden is in the news who is the Prime
423. Ministers of
• New Delhi stood second with a PM of 229, while (a) Germany (b) Hungry
Nepal's capital Kathmandu ranked the third worst city (c) New Zealand (d) Norway
with a PM of 178. Ans. (c) : Jacinda Ardern, New Zealand politician who
in August 2017 became leader of the New Zealand
55. Indian Prime Minister and Chinese President Labour Party and then in October 2017, at age 37,
met for an informal summit in which Indian became country's youngest Prime Minister in more than
town in October 2019? 150 years.
(a) Guwahati (b) Delhi 60. Name the crypto currency which is launched
(c) Mamallapuram (d) Manglore by the Facebook.
Ans. (c) : Prime Minister Narendra Modi met Chinese (a) Ripple (b) Petro
President Xi Jinping in the coastal town of (c) Libra (d) Monero
Mamallapuram of the scenic East Coast Road in Tamil Ans. (c) : Libra was a crypto currency created by
Nadu in an ''informal summit." This was the second Facebook, renamed into Diem at the end of December
informal summit between Prime Minister Narendra 2020 and wound down in January 2022.
Modi and President Xi Jinping, held from October 11- • The Libra crypto currency was intended to be used as
13. a simple, low-fee global block chain-based digital
• The first informal summit between Prime Minister currency.
Narendra Modi and Xi Jinping took place in Wuhan, • It was envisioned to be digital money on your phone,
China on April 27-28, 2018. which can be used to pay for any purchase where the
crypto currency is supported.
56. Who is the 47th and current Chief Justice of
India? 61. By which Amendment of the Constitution 10%
reservation for economically weaker section
(a) Justice Ranjan Gogoi was granted?
(b) Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde (a) 89th (b) 100th
(c) Justice J.S. Khehar (c) 103rd (d) 104th
(d) Justice Vinod Rai rd
Ans. (c) : The 103 Amendment of the Constitution of
Ans. (b) : There are a total of 50 Chief Justices of India India known as the Constitution Act 2019, introduces 10%
who have served since the establishment of the Supreme reservation for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) of
Court of India in 1950, which superseded the Federal society for admission to Central Government-run
Court of India. educational institutions and private educational institutions
• The 47th Chief Justice of India was Justice Sharad and for employment in Central Government jobs.
Arvind Bobde and he would have a tenure of nearly 18 62. 'United in Diversity' is the motto of which
months. The current and 50th Chief Justice is Justice world organisation?
Dhananjaya Y. Chandrachud, who entered office on 9 (a) UNO (b) NATO
November 2022. (c) SAARC (d) EU
57. Which day is celebrated as National Voters Ans. (d) : "United in Diversity' is the motto of the
Day? European Union, first came into use in 2000. It signifies
how Europeans have come together, in the form of the
(a) January 1 (b) March 1 EU, to work for peace and prosperity, while at the same
(c) April 14 (d) January 25 time being enriched by the continent's many different
Ans. (d) : In order to encourage more young voters to cultures, traditions and languages.
take part in the political process, Government of India 63. The parliament of which country is called
has decided to celebrate January 25 every year as 'Storting'?
'National Voters Day'. It has been started from 25 (a) Denmark (b) Japan
January 2011 to mark the foundation day of the Election (c) Norway (d) Romania
Commission of India in 1950. Ans. (c) : The Storting is the Norwegian Parliament. It
Note- The commission has made available common is the supreme arena for political debate and decision-
marks to all, not accepting any answer as correct. making in the kingdom of Norway.
58. Indian shuttler P.V. Sindhu has become World • The Storting represents is the ultimate expression of
Champion in 2019 in badminton by defeating - the sovereignty of the Norwegian people.
(a) Mayu Matsumoto (b) Nozomi Okuhara • These are 169 elected Members of the Storting.
Parliamentary elections take place every four years.
(c) Akane Yamaguchi (d) Tai Tzo Ying There are no by-elections, nor is there any constitutional
Ans. (b) : PV Sindhu became the first Indian to win provision to dissolve the Storting between elections.
Badminton World Championships gold by beating 64. Who win in Men's Single Western and
familiar rival Nozomi Okuhara of Japan in a lop-sided Southern Open 2019 Tennis Competition?
final Basel. (a) Ivan Dodig (b) Rafael Nadal
• PV Sindhu has also won Olympic silver in the year (c) Roger Federer (d) Daniil Medvedev
2016 Rio Game, a silver at Gold Coast Commonwealth Ans. (d) : Daniil Medvedev defeated David Goffin in
Games 2018, a silver medal at Asian Games 2018 in the Men's Single Western and Southern Open 2019,
Jakarta. Tennis Competition finals to win the men's singles
293
tennis title at the 2019 Cincinnati Masters. It was his • He thinks after abandoned the knighthood that it was
first ATP Tour Master's 1000 title. the right time to ignite Indians, he considered returning
• Novak Djokovic was the defending champion, but lost the award as means not to protest Britisher's but also to
in the semifinals to Medvedev. awaken the country people against this brutal incident
65. According to Forbe's list 2019, the World's of the East India Company.
highest paid actresses is - 71. Which of the following commission was not
(a) Angelina Jolie (b) Scrallet Johansson associated with education?
(c) Jennifer Anisten (d) Mila Kunis (a) Sadler Commission
(b) Hunter Education Commission
Ans. (b) : Hollywood star Scarlett Johansson has
become tops Forbes list of the highest paid actresses, (c) Hartog Commission
earning $56 million. That includes a lot of Marvel (d) Strachy Commission
money, like an eight-figure check for her upcoming Ans. (d) : Strachey Commission was the famine
‘Black Widow' Film and an impressive back end commission. It was set up in 1878 under the
payment of about $35 million for the $2.8 billion- Chairmanship of Sir Richard Strachey.
grossing ‘Avengers : Infinity War’. • Hunter Commission, Hartog Commission, Sadler
66. Satyamev Jayate is taken from Commission are related to Educational Reforms.
(a) Chhandogya Upanishad 72. Who was the Secretary of the Swaraj Party?
(b) Aiteraya Upanishad (a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Syed Mumtaz Ali
(c) Mundakopanishad (c) Motilal Nehru (d) C.R. Das
(d) Kathopanishad Ans. (c) : The Swaraj Party was a political party formed
Ans. (c) : The Mundaka Upanishad is the source of the in India in January 1923 after the Gaya annual
phrase 'Satyameva Jayate,' which is the national motto conference in December 1922 of the Indian National
of India. It appears in its national emblem with four Congress. It was formed by Chittaranjan Das, was its
lions. This motto means ‘Truth Alone Triumphs’. It is President and Motilal Nehru was its secretary. Both the
written in Devanagari script. leaders decided to contest elections to enter the
67. What was original of Mumtaz Mahal? legislative council. Their purpose was to obstruct a
(a) Ruqaiya Sultan Begum foreign government.
(b) Dilras Bano Begum 73. The first Indian state annexed under Dalhousie
(c) Lal Kunwar Doctrine of Lapse was -
(d) Arjumand Bano Begum (a) Satara (b) Jaitpur
(c) Nagpur (d) Jhansi
Ans. (d) : Arjumand Bano Begum, popularly known as
Mumtaz Mahal meaning "beloved ornament of the Ans. (a) : The first Indian State to be annexed under
palace" was an Empress of India during the Mughal Doctrine of Lapse was Satara (1848) followed by Jaipur
Dynasty. Her father was the brother of Empress Nur and Sambalpur (1849), Bhagat (1850), Udaipur (1852),
Jahan (who subsequently became the wife of the Jhansi (1853), Nagpur (1854). The Doctrine of Lapse
emperor Jahangir). She was religiously a Shi'a Muslim. was introduced by Lord Dalhousie in the year 1848.
68. Tukaram is known as great poet of which 74. "Zawabit-e-Alamgiri" was a book on -
language? (a) Music
(a) Hindi (b) Punjabi (b) Painting
(c) Marathi (d) Gujarati (c) Government rules and regulations
Ans. (c) : Tukaram was a 17th-century Marathi poet, (d) None of the above
Hindu Saint, popularly known in Maharashtra as Tuka, Ans. (c) : Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb issued secular
Tuko Baraya and Tukoba. In Maharashtra, India, He decrees, called ‘Zawabit’. A collection of his decrees
was a Saint of the Varkari sampradaya that venerates had been collected in a work known as ‘Zawabit-i-
Lord Shri Vitthal. Alamgiri’. They aided their administration along with
69. Who was the first Muslim President of the the religious law provided by Sharia and Hadis
Indian National Congress? 75. 'Hundi' was a -
(a) Nawab Salimullah (b) Abul Kalam Azad (a) Bill of exchange
(c) Mazharul Haque (d) Badruddin Tayyabji (b) Land revenue settlement
Ans. (d) : Badruddin Tayyabji was a prominent lawyer, (c) Unit of measurement
Indian independence movement activist and politician (d) Pass
during the times of British India. Ans. (a) : Hundi can be defined as a financial
• He was the first Indian to practice as a barrister of the instrument or negotiable bill of exchange, which was
High Court of Bombay and served as the 3rd President used for carrying out trade and credit transactions
of the Indian National Congress. during the Medieval period in India. A Hundi is
70. Rabindra Nath Tagore renounced his primarily an unconditional contract or order which
knighthood as a protest against: warranties a monetary payment which can be
(a) Rowlatt Act transferred by valid negotiation.
(b) Simon Commission 76. The capital of Gaikward Dynasty was:
(c) Montague Mission (a) Gwalior (b) Nagpur
(d) Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy (c) Baroda (d) Indore
Ans. (d) : The famous poet and freedom fighter Ans. (c) : Gaekwar dynasty, Gaekwar also spelled
Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood ('Sir' Gaikwar or Gaekwad, Indian ruling family whose
title) given by the British government because of his capital was at Baroda in Gujarat state. The state became
protest against the Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy or a leading power in the 18th century Maratha
Jallianwala Massacre in 1919. confederacy.

294
• The founder of the dynasty was Damaji I who had The Amarkantak Mountain is a good example of radial
risen to power by 1740. The last Gaekwar, Sayaji Rao drainage pattern. Rivers like Narmada, Son and
III, died in 1939. Mahanadi arising from Amarkantak Hills flow in several
77. The Calcutta Madrasa was founded by: directions and are good examples of radial pattern.
(a) Warren Hastings 82. Doldrums are located between following
(b) William Jones latitudes:
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (a) 5ºN to 10ºN (b) 5ºS to 15ºS
N S
(d) T.B. Macawlay (c) 20º to 20º (d) 5ºS to 5ºN
Ans. (a) : Calcutta Madrasa is the first Education Ans. (d) : Doldrums are pressure belt which are parts of
Institution in British India, was set up in October, 1780 the Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean affected by low-
A.D. by Warren Hastings of the first Governor General pressure around the equator which extends around 5oN to
of East India Company at the request of a considerable 5oS. The air is warmer and rises over equatorial region.
number of credited learner Musalman of Culcutta. 83. The Disaster Management Act was passed by
78. In which language Raja Rammohan Roy the Parliament in the year:
Published Mirat-ul-Akhbar? (a) 2001 (b) 2003
(a) Arabic (b) Urdu (c) 2005 (d) 2009
(c) Persian (d) English Ans. (c) : The Disaster Management Act was passed by
Ans. (c) : Mirat-ul-Akhbar (1823) was the first Persian the Parliament in 2005 to manage disasters, including
journal published by Raja Rammohan Roy. the preparation of mitigation strategies, capacity
• He was one of the pioneers of the Indian renaissance building and related matters. It puts National Disaster
movement in the late 18th and early 19th century CE. Management Authority (NDMA) which lays down
• He was proficient in Sanskrit, Persian, English and disaster management policies and ensuring timely and
knew Arabic, Latin and Greek. effective response mechanism.
• He started a Bengali weekly newspaper 'Sambad 84. In which of the following states the rain during
Kaumudi' in 1819 and established two organizations-the hot and dry summer is called as 'Cherry
Atmiya Sabha (1815) and the Brahmo Samaj (1828). Blossoms'?
79. Tenali Ramakrishna was associated with the (a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Himachal Pradesh
court of : (c) Karnataka (d) Kerala
(a) Vijayanagara (b) Chola Ans. (c&d) : The pre-monsoon rainfall caused by
(c) Pallava (d) Bahmani thunderstorms during hot and dry summer days in
Ans. (a) : Tenali Ramakrishna was an Indian poet, Karnataka and Kerala are called Cherry Blossoms.
scholar, thinker and a special advisor in the court of the These helps in plantation of coffee and are also known
Vijayanagar king Krishnadevaraya, who ruled from as 'Coffee Showers'. There rains normally occur from
C.E. 1509 to 1529. March to April.
• He was a Telugu poet who hailed from a village called 85. Who of the following postulated the Evolution
Tenali, now located at Andhra Pradesh region, generally of Species by Process of Natural Selection?
known for the folk tales which focus on his wit. (a) C.C. Park (b) Charles Darwin
• He was one of the Ashtadiggajas or the eight poets at (c) J.G. Nelson (d) P.W. Richards
the court of Krishnadevaraya. Ans. (b) : Natural selection is the process through
80. Which of the following have researched on which populations of living organisms adopt and
tribal studies? change. Charles Darwin postulated the evolution of
(a) Verrier Elvin (b) K. Suresh Singh species by process of natural relation. Individuals with
(c) Ram Dayal Munda (d) All of these adaptive traits give them advantage to cursive and
Ans. (d) : The tribal study is a new discipline in the reproduce there individuals then pass the adaptive traits
realm of social science. onto their offspring.
Verrier Elwin made the forests in India his home and 86. Bansagar hydroelectric plant is located in
treated tribal communities of those habitats like his (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
own kin. (c) Maharashtra (d) Jharkhand
Kumar Suresh Singh had responsibility for the Ans. (a) : Bansagar Dam is the multipurpose river
organization, compilation and oversight the People of valley project on Son river situated in the Madhya
India survey, which was intended to be an Pradesh state with both irrigation and hydroelectric
anthropological study of the differences and linkages power generation with 435 MW.
between all of the communities in India.
The Science which deals with the study of tribal 87. Which one of the following is not an area of
culture and society is known as Anthropology. high rainfall?
(a) Ganga - Brahamputra Delta
81. Radial Pattern of drainage is found in (b) Western Slopes of Western Ghats
(a) Indravati Basin (c) Coromandel Coast
(b) Narmada Basin (d) North-Eastern hilly states
(c) Tapi Basi
(d) Ratnagiri Coastal Plain Ans. (c) : Area of high rainfall are
(i) Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta
Ans. (b) : The flow of water through well-defined
channels is known as drainage and network of such (ii) Western Slopes of Western Ghats
channels is called a drainage system. Radial drainage (iii) North-Eastern hilly states
pattern develops around a central elevated point and is Mawsynram place (town in Meghalaya) has the highest
common to conically shaped features such as volcanoes. recorded average rainfall.

295
 88. Manas Biosphere Reserve is located in 95. International Day of Rural Women is observed
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Assam on which day?
(c) Uttrakhand (d) West Bengal (a) 1st May (b) 1st July
Ans. (b) : Manas Wildlife Sanctuary and Manas (c) 5th September (d) 15th October
Biosphere Reverse is located in the state of Assam in Ans. (d) : International Day of Rural Women is
North-East India a biodiversity hotspot. It is an UNESCO celebrated on 15 October every year. These day
World Heritage Site. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is famous celebrates the contributions of millions of women living
for tiger and one-hundred rhino, swamp deer. in remotes and rural places towards rural development
89. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing is located at and agriculture.
(a) Hyderabad (b) Shillong 96. The new `20 bank notes issued by Reserve
(c) Bhopal (d) Dehradun Bank of India in 2019 bears the image of which
Ans. (d) : The Indian Institute of Remote Sensing is a Indian heritage site?
premier institute for research, higher education and (a) Ajanta Caves (b) Eliphanta Caves
training in the field of remote sensing, geoinformatics (c) Ellora Caves (d) Barabar Caves
and GPS technology for natural resources, Ans. (c) : The new Rs. 20 bank notes issued by Reserve
environmental and disaster management under the Bank of India in 2019 bears the image Ellora caves, on
Indian Department of space, established in 1966. It is Indian heritage site.
located in the city of Dehradun, Uttarakhand. Rs. 10 note has image of Konark Sun temple of Odisha.
90. The Tropical cyclone in Philippines is known as Rs. 50 note has image of Hampi, Karnataka.
(a) Taifu (b) Bagyo Rs. 100 note has image of Rani ki Vav, Gujarat.
(c) Willy Willy (d) Hurricanes Rs. 200 notes has image of Sanchi Stupa.
Ans. (b) : Cyclone is the rapid inward circulation of air Rs. 500 note has image of Red fort.
masses about a low-pressure centre that is circling Rs. 2000 note has image of Motif of the Mangalyaan.
counter-clockwise in the Northern hemisphere and 97. Penicillin, which is used an antibiotic, is
clockwise in Southern. Bagyo is a local term for a obtained from,
tropical cyclone in the Philippines. (a) Bacteria (b) Fungi
91. NaOH is a strong base because (c) Algae (d) Lichen
(a) it is corrosive Ans. (b) : Penicillin is an antibiotic obtained the fungus
(b) it easily releases H+ ions Penicillin notation or penicillin chrysogenum. Fungi can
(c) it easily releases OH– ions be single celled multicellular organisms found in any
(d) it reacts with other alkalies habitat but majority reside on land. Ex. yeasts, molds
Ans. (c) : NaOH dissociates completely in water to give and mushrooms.
Na+ and OH–. It is a strong base because all the 98. Whose aqueous solution is acidic?
available [OH] in NaOH is present in solution as (OH–) (a) NaCl (b) K2CO3
and available to accept protons. (c) NH4Cl (d) NH4OH
92. Gaganyan Mission is aimed at Ans. (c) : NH4C1 (Ammonium Chloride) is a salt of
(a) taking Indian astronauts to space strong acid like hydrochloric acid (HCl) and a weak
(b) development of supersonic passenger aircraft base ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH), so NH4Cl
(c) development of indigenous GPS system aqueous solution is acidic in nature which turns blue
(d) development of aircraft for Navy litmus paper to red.
Ans. (a) : Gaganyan is a mission by the ISRO to send a 99. Product of force and velocity is called
three member crew to space for a period of five to seven (a) Work (b) Power
days by 2022. This spacecraft is placed in lower earth (c) Energy (d) Momentum
orbit of 300-400 kilometers. It is the first Indian Ans. (b) : P = F.V
astronauts to space.
Power is the amount of energy transferred per unit time
93. Radioactivity is a expressed as product of force and velocity.
(a) Chemical process (b) Physical process Momentum = P = m.v
(c) Nuclear process (d) None of these Energy= F × d
Ans. (c) : The radioactivity is the spontaneous possess 100. Mobile application "Meghdoot" provide
through which an unstable nucleus disintegrates, by way (a) location, crop and livestock specific weather
of the emission of particles or photons. Radioactivity is based agro advisories to farmers in local
categorized as a nuclear reaction, since the result is a languages
completely different nuclear arrangement.
(b) availability of water in a canal system
94. Which of the following gates inverts or reverses (c) availability of groundwater in a river basin
its input? (d) weather forecast
(a) OR gate (b) AND gate
(c) NOR gate (d) NOT gate Ans. (a) : Meghdoot is a joint initiative of Indian
Meteorological Department (IMD), Indian Institute of
Ans. (d) : NOT gate- Tropical Meterology (IITM) and Indian Council of
Agriculture Research (ICAR). It is a simple and easy to
Truth table use mobile application which provides crop advisories
A A to formers about specific weather report in local
0 1 languages. Apart from current weather information, part
and forecasted weather information of five day is
1 0 provided.
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Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)

 Jharkhand Public Service Commission
Combined Assistant Engineer (Regular) Mains Exam
General Ability Test (Paper-I)
Solved Paper
Time Allowed: 2 Hrs Exam. Date: 22 October, 2021

1. Which of the following is grammatical? 7. Pick out the word with incorrect spelling.
(a) One of my sister lives in Delhi (a) excess (b) access (c) acess (d) axes
(b) One of my sisters live in Delhi Ans. (c) : Here, acess is spelled wrong.
(c) One of my sisters lives in Delhi • Excess means too much of something.
(d) One of my sister live in Delhi • Access means permission, liberty, ability to enter etc
Ans. (c) : When we use the one of construction in English, • Axes means A tool with a wooden handle and a heavy
a plural noun always follows- we have more than one metal head with a sharp edge, used for cutting wood etc.
sister, and we are choosing to talk about One of them. Thus
we have "One of my sisters" . But the subject is just one 8. The whole event was _____ one man show.
(sister) this only the singular verb from can, follow. Hence, (a) a (b) an
one of my sisters lives in Delhi is grammatically correct. (c) the (d) no article
2. A person who loves mankind and tries to Ans. (a) : The whole event was a one man show.
undertake activities for their welfare is a _____. Use "an" before a vowel sound not before a vowel letter.
(a) misogynist (b) anthropologist "One" has an initial "w" sound and thus uses "a" its article.
(c) philanthropist (d) socialist Because "w" is a consonant.
Ans. (c) : A person who seeks to promote the welfare of 9. One millennium covers a period of _____.
others, especially by the generous donation of money to (a) 100 years (b) 1000 years
good causes. (c) 10000 years (d) 100000 years
• Phil is a root word that means 'to love', 'Anthrop' is a root Ans. (b) : A millennium is a period of one thousand
word that means 'human' and 'its' is a suffix that denotes a years (1000 years), sometimes called a kiloannum, or
person who practices or is concerned about something. kiloyear .
• So, the meaning of the word 'Philanthropist', "A person 10. Add a suitable question tag to : "They cannot go
who loves mankind". there at night."
3. Identify the error in the sentence– "The Vice (a) isn't it? (b) can't they?
Chancellor / has called / an emergency meeting / (c) can they? (d) are they?
of the principles.
Ans. (c) : Question tag is a short phrase such as 'isn't it ?
(a) The Vice Chancellor (b) has called or did you? At the end of a sentence that changes it in to a
(c) an emergency meeting (d) of the principles question and is often used to ask somebody to agree with
Ans. (d) : In the given sentence, error is in the (d) part of you.
the sentence, in the spelling of principles. Here 'Principal' Example- "They cannot go there at night", can they?
will be used in place of 'principles'.
11. Identify the correct English proverb.
4. The word orthography means a method of _____. (a) Charity begins at home
(a) speaking a language (b) Charity began at home
(b) writing a language using symbols (letters) (c) Charity will begin at home
(c) writing beautifully (d) Charity never begins at home
(d) writing a language using Roman letters
Ans. (a) : 'Charity begins at home' means that people
Ans. (b) : An orthography is a set of conventions for should deal with the need of people close to them before
writing a language, including norms of spelling, they think about helping others.
hyphenation capitalization, word breaks, emphasis and
punctuation. 12. Substitute the following by a word :
• In other words, the art of writing words with the proper 'Who eats everything.'
letters, according to accepted usage correct spelling with (a) carnivorous (b) omnivorous
proper symbols. (c) multivorous (d) polyvorous
5. Add a suitable prefix in the word 'legal'. Ans. (b) : Carnivorous - Who eats non-vegetarian.
(a) in ____ (b) ir ____ • Omnivorous - Who eats everything.
(c) il ____ (d) un ____ • Herbivorous - Who eats vegetarian.
Ans. (c) : A prefix is a word part added to the beginning of 13. He did not come to the class yesterday ____ it was
word or base word. raining heavily.
Example-If the prefix 'il' is added to legal, the word (a) therefore (b) because of
become illegal. (c) because (d) in spite of
6. _____ London is situated on the Thames. Ans. (c) : He did not come to the class yesterday because
(a) The (b) A it was raining heavily.
(c) An (d) no article • Here we use because to connect both the sentences.
Ans. (d) : No article is used in the given sentence because "Because" is a conjunction.
names of holidays, countries, companies, languages etc are • A conjunction is a word that is used to connect words,
all proper nouns. In these words, don't need to use an phrases and clauses. Example and, or, but, because, for, if,
article with a proper noun. when.
297
14. She is too ____ to pass the examination. 22. A synonym of the word interpolate is _____.
(a) weak (b) polite (a) enquire (b) delete
(c) keen (d) intelligent (c) insert (d) assemble
Ans. (a) : She is too weak to pass the examination. Ans. (c) : A synonym of the word interpolate is insert.
• The words 'too', to have a negative meaning. It means, • Interpolate and insert are same meaning. It means- to add
'more than is necessary or desirable.' or put something to a piece of writing.
15. He informed me that he _____ his computer 23. Identify the error in the sentence : "The Finance
classes. Committee of the collage / granted freeship / to
(a) completed (b) has completed twenty students / for the year 2019-20."
(c) had completed (d) was completed (a) The Finance Committee of the collage
Ans. (c) : He informed me that he had completed his (b) granted freeship
computer classes. (c) to twenty students
• If the subject of the sentence completed the action in the (d) for the year 2019-20
past before doing another action, used "had completed". Ans. (b) : In the given sentence, error is in the (b) part of
• You should also "had completed" if you are being the sentence, is granted. Here, 'grant' will be used in place
specific about when something was completed. of 'granted'.
16. The police is looking _____ the cause of the 24. The synonym of the word anonymous in the
murder. sentence – "Frequent anonymous mobile calls are
(a) after (b) into highly irritating" is ______.
(c) forward (d) none of these (a) certain (b) unknown
(c) well known (d) talkative
Ans. (b) : The police is looking into the cause of the
murder. Ans. (b) : The synonym of the word anonymous in the
sentence is "unknown".
• Preposition is used in this sentence.
• A synonym is a word that means exactly nearly the same
• A preposition is a word or group of worlds used before a as another word.
noun, pronoun or noun phrase to show direction, time,
place, location, spatial relationships or to introduce an 25. This is _____ cheapest cloth store in the city.
objects. Examples- above, across, at, before, behind below (a) the (b) a
in, into near, of, off, on, to under, upon, with etc. (c) an (d) no article
17. ____ lions are wild animal. Ans. (a) : This is the cheapest cloth store in the city.
(a) The (b) A • Article 'the' is the definite article, is used before a noun to
(c) An (d) no article indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the
Ans. (d) : No article is used in this sentence. reader.
• In general, no article is used with proper nouns, mass 26. Identify the error in the sentence. "He/told to me/
nouns where the reference is indefinite or plural count that I must participate / in the seminar."
where the reference is indefinite. (a) He (b) told to me
18. Mohan and Meera saw _____ on the way. (c) that I must participate (d) in the seminar
(a) himself (b) herself Ans. (b) : In the given sentence, error is in the (b) part of
(c) each other (d) oneself the sentence. Here 'told me' will be used in place of 'told to
me'.
Ans. (c) : Mohan and Meera saw each other on the way.
27. In which of the words a letter is silent in
• Here we use ' each other ' to complete the sentence pronunciation?
because 'Each other' should only be used to describe two (a) Direct (b) Milton (c) Bomb (d) Bulk
individuals.
Ans. (c) : There are plenty of words in the English
19. He is an amiable person. In this sentence amiable language that smuggle in a 'b' where its not needed
means _____. supposedly.
(a) indifferent (b) friendly
• The silent 'b' usually coming after an, m, is not
(c) unwanted (d) detestable pronounced 'b' as it would normally be at the front of a
Ans. (b) : He is an amiable person. In this sentence word.
amiable means friendly. • So, the correct answer is 'Bomb'.
• The other meaning of amiable is pleasant. 28. The term 'homographs' refers to ____.
20. The word the most opposite in meaning of evolve (a) words with the same spellings
is _____. (b) words with the same pronunciation
(a) produce (b) begin (c) words with the same spellings but different
(c) initiate (d) stagnate meanings
Ans. (d) : Opposite word of evolve is stagnate. (d) words with different spellings but the same
• Here evolve means 'to develop' and Stagnate means stop pronunciation
developing. Hence evolve and stagnate are opposite to Ans. (c) : Homographs- A word that is spelled like
each other. another word but has different meaning and may have a
21. People go for higher studies to ______ university. different pronunciation is called Homographs.
(a) an (b) a Example- Park-a public play area or to bring a vehicle to a
(c) the (d) no article stop and leave it temporarily.
Ans. (b) : People go for higher studies to a university. 29. Identify the error in the sentence : "Ahmad / told
• The word 'university' starts with the vowel 'u' but the first his friends / that they will meet / on Monday."
letter pronounced like a 'y'. Therefore, article 'a' is used (a) Ahmad (b) told his friends
before University. (c) that they will meet (d) on Monday
298
Ans. (c) : In the given sentence, error is in the (c) part of Ans. (b) : "He loves detective movies, Doesn't he" ?
the sentence, is that they will meet . Here 'that they would • A question tag is a very short clause at the end of a
meet' will be used in place of 'that they will meet'. statement which change the statement into a question.
30. Practice is better ____ precept. 39. One million is equal to _____.
(a) to (b) than (a) 10000 (b) 100000
(c) from (d) of (c) 1000000 (d) 10000000
Ans. (b) : Practice is better than precept. Ans. (c) : One million is equal to 10,00,000 in the Indian
• Than is used to make comparisons in the sentence place value system.
between two things. 40. The _____ of the new university campus is about
31. Add a suffix in the word 'imagine'. 10 km away from the town.
(a) ___ ative (b) ___ous (a) cite (b) side (c) site (d) sight
(c) ___ic (d) ___ful Ans. (c) : The site of the new university campus is about
Ans. (a) : A suffix is a word ending. It is a group of letters 10 km away from the town.
you can add to end of the given word and make a new • Here, we talk about a particular place that we called site.
word. Site means a piece of land where a building was, is or will
• In the given word 'imagine', we use suffix 'ative' to make be situated.
a new a word imaginative. It is a adjective. 41. Pick out the correct from the verb for the
32. I shall discuss the problem with the delegates sentence : "My mother ____ when I came home."
______ 04.00 pm. (a) cooks (b) was cooking
(a) in (b) on (c) at (d) during (c) had cook (d) will cook
Ans. (c) : I shall discuss the problem with the delegates at Ans. (b) : "My mother was cooking when I came home".
04.00 pm.
• Past Continuous tense is used in this sentence.
• The preposition 'at' can be used in multiply contexts,
such as telling time or location. 42. I _____ the Taj Mahal before a decade.
33. They are planning to leave the house ____ a (a) visited (b) had visited
month. (c) have visited (d) have been visiting
(a) within (b) next (c) with (d) at Ans. (a) : I visited the Taj Mahal before a decade.
Ans. (a) : They are planning to leave the house within a 43. This is _____ cheapest cloth store in this locality.
month. (a) the (b) a
• 'Within' is used as a preposition in this sentence. (c) an (d) no article
34. Martha kept on _____ her stories to the young Ans. (a) : This is the cheapest cloth store in this locality.
children • Article 'the' is the definite article, is used before a noun to
(a) tell (b) tells indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the
(c) telling (d) to telling reader.
Ans. (c) : Martha kept on telling her stories to the young 44. Which of the following years falls in the 18th
children. Century?
35. Drinking is strictly prohibited in public places. (a) 1818 (b) 1718 (c) 1618 (d) 1918
Here the word prohibited means Ans. (b) : The 18th century lasted from January 1701 to
(a) allowed December 31, 1800. So from the option, '1718' is falls in
(b) not allowed the 18th century.
(c) allowed occasionally 45. The abbreviation "RSVP" in an invitation card
(d) partially allowed means ______.
Ans. (b) : Prohibited means Something is not allowed. (a) please respond
36. Which of the following is a correct proverb in (b) waiting for your arrival
English ? (c) expecting your gracious presence
(a) All that glitter are not gold (d) your presence is essential
(b) All that glitters is not gold Ans. (a) : The abbreviation "RSVP" in an invitation card
(c) All that sparkle are not gold means please respond.
(d) All that sparkle is not gold • Please respond - used on invitations to ask the invited
Ans. (b) : The correct proverb is "all that glitters is not guests to indicate whither they will be able to attend.
gold" means the attractive external appearance of 46. Identify the appropriate expression
something is not a reliable indication of its true nature. (a) your faithfully (b) yours faithfully
37. Which of the following is NOT a formal method (c) your's faithfully (d) your's faithfully
of writing a date in English? Ans. (b) : 'Yours faithfully' is the appropriate expression.
(a) 25.12.1969 (b) 25 December 1969
• It is used when writing to an unknown recipient.
(c) December 25, 1969 (d) 25.12.69
Ans. (d) : When writing the date in a formed letter, we 47. Select the odd one out :
should write it in full with no abbreviations like (a) Shrewd (b) Cunning
"December 25, 1969" and 25 December 1969 and using (c) Crafty (d) Humble
the numerical format like 25.12.1969. Ans. (d) : Shrewd means clever.
38. Add a suitable question tag to "He loves detective • Cunning means clever.
movies, _____"? • Crafty means clever.
(a) Isn't he (b) Doesn't he • Humble means arrogant
(c) Aren't he (d) Won't he So, the word 'humble' is different from others.

299
48. Nephrologists treat the diseases related to ____. 55. Which one of the following areas receives rain by
(a) Kidney (b) gall bladder retreating monsoon?
(c) brain (d) pancreas (a) Konkan coast
Ans. (a) : Nephrologists treat the diseases related kidney. (b) Coromandel coast
• A nephrologists diagnoses and treats kidney conditions (c) Ganga-Brahmputra Delta
and kidney failure. (d) Kathiawar coast
49. The policeman died _____ an accident. Ans. (b) : The Coromandel Coast, known as the eastern
Ghats, adjoins the States of Tamil Nadu and the southern
(a) of (b) in (c) by (d) from parts of Andhra Pradesh, some of Kerala and Karnataka's
Ans. (b) : The policeman died in an accident. eastern parts.
• Here preposition 'in' is used to complete the sentence. It • The Coromandel coast receives rainfall from the
is used to show direction, location or time, or the introduce retreating monsoon during the winter season. This coast
an object. falls on the leeward side during the southwest monsoon
50. Find the correct spelling and gets scant rains that are adequate for winter season
(a) accommodation (b) accomodation rains.
(c) acomodation (d) acommodation • The with drawing monsoon also known as the southeast
monsoon, brings rain to the coast of Coromandel,
Ans. (a) : Correct spelling is 'Accommodation' means a especially Tamil Nadu.
place your somebody to live or stay.
56. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
51. Dehang Debang Biosphere Reserve is located in: (a) Pongong lake- Manipur
(a) Sikkim (b) Tripura (b) Tso Moriri lake- Uttarakhand
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Meghalaya (c) Lonar lake- Maharashtra
Ans. (c) : Dihang- Dibang or Dehang Debang is a (d) Pulicat lake- West Bengal
biosphere reserve constituted in 1998. Ans. (c) : Lonar lake is a lake of lagoon in Buldhana
• It is in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. district of Maharashtra state.
• The Mauling National Park and the Dibang wildlife • It is also known lonar crater, is formed due to the
sanctuary are located fully or party within this meteorite collision.
biosphere. • It is a notified Geo-heritage monument with saline and
• The reserve spreads over the districts- Dibang valley, alkaline water.
Upper Siang and west Siang. • It has been declared as wildlife sanctuary for the
52. Which one of the following is located on Eastern conservation and conservation of Lonar lake.
Ghats? 57. "Hinyana" and "Mahayana" are the sects
(a) Ponmudi (b) Palghat belonging to which religion?
(c) Anamalai (d) Velikonda (a) Buddhism (b) Jainism
Ans. (d) : The Velikonda Range or Velikonda Hills is a (c) Judaism (d) Shaivism
low mountain range, that from part of the Eastern Ghats Ans. (a) : "Hinyana" and "Mahayana" are the sects
mountain range system in eastern India. belonging to Buddhism. Buddhism split up in to the
• It is in Atlur Cuddapah District, Andhra Pradesh, India. Hinyana and Mahayana sects at the Buddhist council held
• The Eastern Ghats comprise a series of discontinuous during the reign of Kanisha in AD 72.
low lying hills which include – Velikonda hills, Odisha • The Mahayana sect, which means 'Great Vehicle' in
hills (Maliya hills), Nallamala hills, Palakonda hills, Sanskrit, believed in the divinity of the Buddha. The
Javadi hills and Shevaroy hills. sect encouraged idol warship in Buddhism.
• The Easter Ghats run almost parallel to the east coast of • The Hinayana sect, meaning 'Small Vehicle' in Sanskrit,
India leaving broad plains between their base and the did not believe in the divinity of the Buddha. It stressed
coast. individual salvation through self - discipline and
mediation.
53. The 'horse-latitudes' are found between : 58. Who wrote Muntkhab-ut-Tawarikh?
(a) 25º–35º latitudes (b) 20º–25º latitudes (a) Abul Fazi (b) Badauni
(c) 35º–40º latitudes (d) None of the above (c) Faizi (d) Dara Shikoh
Ans. (a) : The horse latitudes are the latitudes about 30º Ans. (b) : Muntakhab-ut-Tawarikh a general history of the
north and south of the equator. They are characterized by Muslim world written by Abdul Qadir Badauni count
sunny skies, calm winds and very little precipitation. They historian of Emperor Akbar.
are also known as subtropical ridges or highs. It is a high- • It covers the history of the Muslim rule in India from the
pressure area at the divergence of trades winds and the Ghaznavids to the 40th year of the reign of Akbar.
westerlies.
• The Muntakhab-ut-Tawarikh gives solitary information
54. Which state is the largest producer of diamond in about the, development of Akbar's opinion on religions.
India? 59. Dastak was a _____.
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (a) Name of the place (b) Firman
(c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan (c) Currency (d) Pass
Ans. (a) : National Mineral Development Corporation Ltd Ans. (d) : In Mughal emperor Farrukh Siyar Farman
(NMDC) has its diamond mine at Panna Madhya Pradesh, granted Dastak in 1717 and allows the East India Company
which is the only state in India that accounts for 90% of to enter the Kingdom.
the total diamond resource for our country. • In the mid-18th century, the British East India Company
• NMDC presence in the state with a production capacity enjoyed and misused the benefit of dastak (free duty free
of 84000 carats per year shows its commitment to the passes).
country's growing economy. • These passes are preventing the East India Company
• India remains the only Asian country that mines from paying taxes during the trade, it harmed the local
diamonds. traders of Bengali.

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60. The nationalist who called the British rule in • He is considered as National Teacher of India and the
India as ''Un–British". spiritual successor of Mahatma Gandhi. He was an
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji eminent philosopher.
(b) R.C. Dutt • The Gita has been translated into Marathi language by
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhle him with the title Geetai (meaning 'Mother Gita' in
(d) S.N. Banerjee Marathi)
Ans. (a) : Dadabhai Naoroji wrote the book called 65. The first rural session of Indian National
"Poverty and Un-British Rule in India" where he criticized Congress was held in
the economic impact of the British rule. (a) Tripura (b) Haripura
(c) Belgaum (d) Faizpur
• Dadabhai Naoroji, also known as the "Grand old Man of
India" and the "Unofficial Ambassador of India", was an Ans. (d) : The 51th Session of the Indian National
India scholar, trader and politician who served as a Congress was held on 27 and 28 December 1937 at
Liberal Party Member of Parliament (MP) in the United Faizpur a village on the outskirts of Yawal Taluka of
Jalgaon District of Bombay Presidency (Maharashtra). It
Kingdom House of commons from 1892 to 1895. was here for the first time that Congress held its Annual
• He was the first Asian to be a British MP other than Session in a backward rural setting.
Anglo - Indian MP David Ochterlony Dyce Somber, 66. Asiatic Society was founded by
who was disenfranchised for corruption.
(a) Jonathan Dancan (b) William Carey
61. "Black Hole" tragedy took place at (c) William Jones (d) David Hare
(a) Calcutta (b) Bombay Ans. (c) : Asiatic Society of Bengal, scholarly society
(c) Madras (d) Pondicherry founded on January 15, 1784 by Sir William Jones, a
Ans. (a) : The incident of ''Black Hole'' Tragedy or Kaal British lawyer and orientalist, to encourage oriental
Kothari is one of the major events of Indian history. studies. At its founding, Jones delivered the first of a
• The Block Hole Tragedy is one such incident which famous series of discourses.
depicts the dark side of Indian histroy. • Headquarter by Asiatic society is in Kolkata. The society
•The incident of ''Black Hole'' Tragedy took place in owns an art collection that includes paintings by peter
Calcutta in 20 June, 1756 Paul Rubens and Joshua Reynolds.
62. Who among the following had established Home 67. Which European envoy visited India during
Rule League? Jahangir's reign ?
(a) Sarojini Naidu (a) Sir Thomas Roe (b) Watson
(c) Buchanan (d) Outram
(b) Aruna Asaf Ali
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal Ans. (a) : Sir Thomas Roe visited Indian during Jahangir's
reign. He is the Ambassador who arrived at "Jahangir's
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Court" in 1615.
Ans. (d) : Lokmanya Bal Gangdhar Tilak first started the • He represented England in the Mughal Empire.
Home Rule movement. He was against the discriminative • He arrived at Surat on 18 September 1615 was the first
attitude of the British Government. He was of the opinion step towards the establishment of the British East India
that the Britishers were responsible for the degrading Company.
condition of the Indians.
68. The Indian ruler who celebrated, the French
• He said that they made the Indians economically weak. Revolution by planting liberty tree?
In order to uplift the Indians from their degrading (a) Haider Ali (b) Balaji Baji Rao
condition and make them strong enough to fight the war (c) Tipu Sultan (d) Nizam-ul Mulk
of independence.
• He establishes the Home Rule League in India in 1916 Ans. (c) : Tipu Sultan got at the helm of Mysore state in
1782 and he is considered as one of the ablest native Indian
along with Mrs. Annie Besant. rulers during the British period. He was very much
63. The battle of Tarain (1191) was fought between: inspired by the ideas of the French Revolution and thus
(a) Bairam Khan and Hemu planted a tree of liberty in his capital Srirangapatna and
(b) Shershah and Humayun also became a member of the Jacobin club. He was one of
(c) Muhammad Ghori and Prithiviraj Chauhan the few Indian rulers who foresee the British Threat and
(d) None of the above took steps to modernize his armed forces.
Ans. (c) : The first battles of Tarain was fought between 69. The Pioneer of Ryotwari settlement was
Muhammad Ghori and Prithiviraj Chauhan in 1191. (a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Thomas Munro
• The second battle of Tarain was fought between (c) Halt Mcanzee (d) Warren Hastings
Muhammad Ghori and king Prithvirarj Chauhan. Ans. (b) : The Ryotwari system was a land revenue system
• Prithvirarj had defeated the Ghurids at the first battle of in British India introduced by Thomas Munro, which
allowed the Government to deal directly with cultivator
Tarain in 1191. (ryot) for revenue collection and gave the peasant freedom
• The second battle of Tarain occurred in the same field as to cede or acquire new land for cultivation.
the first one.
70. The Indian Universities Commission, 1902, was
• The second battle of Tarain was a victory for
Muhammad Ghori in the year 1192 in Taraori, Haryana. appointed on the instruction of
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Minto
64. Who launched the 'Bhoodan Movement' ? (c) Lord Dalhousie (d) Lord Ripon
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Vinoba Bhave Ans. (a) : The Indian Universities Commission, was a
(c) Pandit Bhaskar (d) Ramdas body appointed in 1902 on the instruction of Viceroy of
Ans. (b) : Vinayak Narahari also known as Vinoba Bhave India Lord Curzon intended to make recommendations for
was an Indian advocate of non-violence and human rights. reforms in university education in India.
Often called Acharya, he is best known for the Bhoodan • Thomas Raleigh, Syed Husain Belgrami and Gurdas
Movement. Banerjee were its members.

301
71. At which place Gautam Buddha died? 76. Who is the current Deputy Chief Minister of
(a) Kushinagar (b) Sarnath Haryana?
(c) Bodh Gaya (d) Varanasi (a) Dushyant Chautala
Ans. (a) : Kushinagar is the place where Gautam Buddha (b) Om Prakash Chautala
passed away. It is an important Buddhist pilgrimage site, (c) Chaudhary Devi Singh
where Buddhists believe Gautam Budha attained (d) Bhupinder Singh Hooda
Parinirvana after his death. Ans. (a) : Dushyant Singh Chautala is a Jannayak Janta
• He was born in Lumbini, Nepal, obtained his Party politician and current Deputy Chief Minister of
enlightenment in Bodh Gaya, gave his first sermon in Haryana.
Sarnath. • He is the president and co-founder of the Nannayak
• He is the founder of the world religion of Buddhism. Janta Party.
72. Who won the Nobel Prize 2020 in Literature? • He represents Uchana Kalan constituency in Maryana
Legislative Assembly and was sworn-in as Deputy Chief
(a) Bob Dylan (b) Kazuo Ishiguro Minister of Haryana after making an alliance with
(c) Peter Handke (d) Louise Gluck Bhartiya Janta Party in this 2019 Haryana Legislative
Ans. (d) : The Nobel Prize in Literature 2020 was Assembly election.
awarded to Louise Gluck "for her unmistakable poetic 77. Who became the first lieutenant Governor of
voice that with austere beauty makes individual existence union territory of Ladakh?
universal". (a) Satya Pal Mallick (b) R.K. Mathur
• She is the 13th Nobel laureate in Literature from the (c) P.S. Sridharan Pillai (d) G.C. Murmu
United States after 2016 laureate Bob Dylan and 1993 Ans. (b) : The First Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh is
laureate Toni Morrison. R.K. Mathur. He is a retired 1977 batch Indian
• The winner was announced on October 8,2020 by Mats Administrative Service officer of Tripura cadre. He retired
Malm, permanent secretary of the Swedish Academy. as the Chief Information Commissioner in November
73. PRAGYAN CONCLAVE 2020 is an international 2018.
seminar organized by which Armed Force of • Satya Pal Malik was appointed as the Governor of Goa
India? on 2019.
(a) Indian Air Force (b) Indian Navy • G.C. Murmu is the current Lieutenant Governor of
(c) Indian Army (d) Indian Coast Guard Jammu & Kashmir.
Ans. (c) : " PRAGYAN CONCLAVE 2020", as two-day • P.S. Sreedharan Pillai has been appointed the new
Indinan Army international seminar being organized by Governor of Mizoram.
centre for Land warfare studies (CLAWS), commenced on 78. Who amongst the following was not a part of 5
04 March 2020 at Manekshaw centre, New Delhi. Judge bench that gave judgment on Ayodhya
• The event bring together a cross-domain national and case?
international experts to deliberate on the complex (a) Justice D.Y. Chandrachuda
subject of changing characteristics of Land warfare and (b) Justice S.A. Bobde
its Impact on the military. (c) Justice J.S. Khehar
74. Which Trade Association of India has launched (d) Justice Ranjan Gogoi
"Future Business Group"? Ans. (c) : The five Judge constitution bench of the
(a) ASSOCHAM (b) CII Supreme Court is headed by the Chief Justice Ranjan
(c) CDAC (d) NASSCOM Gogoi.
Ans. (b) : Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) has • The other judges on the bench are Justice S.A. Bobde,
launched "Future Business Group" initiative to support Justice D.Y. Chandrachuda, Justice Ashok Bhushan and
new businesses launched during the past few years. Justice S. Abdual Nazeer.
• This initiative aims at creating a 'National Strategy for • Jagdish Singh Khehar is a senior advocate who was the
Future businesses', together with Department for 44th Chief Justice of India (CJI). He is the first CJI from
Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). the Sikh community. He has been a Judge in Supreme
Court of India from September 2011 to Aug 2017 upon
• The initiative will also identify new growth options and Superannuation.
help to establish international relations.
79. Who has been named PETA, 'India's Person of
75. What is the rank of India in the 2019 Democracy the Year', 2019?
Index, released by the Economist Intelligence (a) Shashi Tharoor (b) Kareena Kapoor
Unit? (c) Hema Malini (d) Virat Kohli
(a) 41 (b) 51 (c) 61 (d) 71
Ans. (d) : Virat Kohli was named by People for the Ethical
Ans. (b) : The Global Democracy Index is based on the Treatment of Animals (PETA) India's Person of the Year
functioning of government, election process and pluralism, 2019.
political participation, political culture and civil liberties. • He is a vocal supporter of animal rights and his efforts to
• 12th Edition of the "Democracy Index 2019" democratic improve conditions for animals include sending a letter
setbacks and popular protest, released by Economist on PETA India's behalf to officials calling for the release
Intelligence Unit (EIU). of malti, an elephant used for rides at Rajasthan's Amer
• The worlds biggest democracy India slipped 10 places fort who was reportedly violently beaten by eight men.
in the 2019 global ranking to 51st place. 80. Which day is celebrated as International Human
• India is included in a flawed democracy, Norway tops Rights Day?
the list with a score of 9.87 while North Korea is at the (a) 1st December (b) 1st January
bottom with 167th place with 1.08 points. th
(c) 10 December (d) 10th January
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Ans. (c) : Human Rights Day is celebrated every 10th Ans. (d) : The 'Fit India Movement' was launched by the
December to create awareness and mobilize political will Honorable Prime Minister in August 2019 with a vision of
to promote respect for the rights and freedoms enshrined in encouraging every Indian Citizen to adopt a physically
the Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted by the active lifestyle.
United Nations General Assembly in 1948. • It is a movement to take the nation on a path of fitness
81. What is the name of the mascot chosen for 2022 and wellness. It provides a unique and exciting
winter Olympics is Beijing? opportunity to work towards a healthier India.
(a) Bing Dwen Dwen (b) Someity • As part of the movement, individuals and organisations
(c) Vinicius (d) Soohrang can under take various efforts for their own health and
well being as well as for the health and well being of
Ans. (a) : Bing Dwen Dwen is the official mascot of the fellow Indians.
2022 Winter Olympics and Shuey Rhon is the official 87. Which of the following solutions has the highest
mascot of the 2022 Winter Proalympics. pH?
• Both events were held in Beijing. The capital of China. (a) 1M H2 SO4 solution
82. Which of the following is India's first (b) 1M KOH solution
indigenously developed vaccine? (c) Chlorine water
(a) BCG (d) Water containing CO2
(b) Rotovac Ans. (b) : Strong bases have a high pH. KOH is an
(c) DPT example of a strong base, which means it dissociated into
(d) Injectible Polio Vaccine its ions in aqueous solution. Although the pH of KOH or
Ans. (b) : India's first indigenously developed vaccine potassium hydroxide is extremely high (usually ranging
Rotovac had been pre-qualified by the World Health from 10 to 13 in typical solutions), the exact value depends
Organization (WHO). on the concentration of this strong base in water. Hence
1M KOH solution has the highest pH.
• To be pre-qualified means that the vaccine can be sold
internationally to several countries in Africa and South 88. An asteroid discovered in 2006 has been named
America. after which Indian musician?
(a) Kumar Gandharva (b) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
• The vaccine was developed by the Hyderabad based
Bharat Biotech Limited (BBL) and was included in (c) Pandit Jasraj (d) Pandit Ravishankar
India's National Immunisation Programme. Ans. (c) : NASA and the International Astronomical
• The Rotavac vaccine protects against childhood Union's Space Scientists named a planet discovered 16
years ago after classical singer Pandit Jasraj. The number
diarrhoea caused by the rotavirus. of this planet 2006-VP-32 discovered on 11 November
83. 'Green Muffler' is related to 2006 was also 300128 till now. The number of this planet
(a) Air Pollution (b) Nuclear Pollution is completely opposite to the birth date of Pandit Jasraj. He
(c) Noise Pollution (d) Water Pollution was born on 28 January 1930.
Ans. (c) : 'Green Muffler' is measure adopted to control 89. Which of the following is Mass- Energy
Noise pollution, by planting green plants. Normally 4-5 relationship?
rows of plants are grown near noisy places like roadsides mv 2 mC 2
and industrial areas so that they can obstruct the noise from (a) E = (b) E =
reaching the citizens. 22 2
(c) E = mC (d) E = mgh
84. Which city in India is known as 'Gateway to God'
? Ans. (c) : The equation developed by Albert Einstein
(a) Varanasi (b) Tirupati which is usually given as.
(c) Valankanni (d) None of the above E = mC 2
Ans. (d) : According the Hindu mythology, Haridwar one When the energy of a body changes by an amount E, the
of the seven holy cities of India, which is situated at the mass2 (m) of the body will change by an amount equal to
foothills of the Shivalik range of Himalayas. E/C .
• The word Haridwar, literally means "The Gateway to the • The factor C squared, the speed of light in a vacuum
kingdom of Gods"' as it is believed that the gods left (3×108), May be regarded as the conversion factor
their footprints at this place. relating units of mass and energy.
85. Who is appointed as the first chief of defence • The equation predicted the possibility of releasing
staff? enormous amounts of energy by the conversion of mass
(a) Bipin Rawat (b) B.S. Dhanoa to energy. It is also called the Einstein equation.
(c) Karambir Singh (d) K.Natarajan 90. The rotational effect of a force on a body about an
axis of rotation is described in terms of the,
Ans. (a) : General Bipin Rawat was an Indian military
officer who was a four star general of the Indian Army. (a) Centre of gravity (b) Centripetal force
(c) Centrifugal force (d) Moment of force
• He served as the first Chief of Defense. Staff (CDS) of
the Indian Armed Forces from January 2020 until his Ans. (d) : The rotational effect of a force on a body about
death in a helicopter crash in December 2021. an axis of rotation is described in terms of the moment of
force.
• Prior to taking over as the CDS, he served as the 57th
Chairman of the Chief of Staff Committee of the Indian • The moment of a force depends on the magnitude of the
force and the distance from the axis of rotation.
Armed Forces as well as 26th Chief of the Army staff of
Indian Army. 91. Who is the first Indian to win Badminton World
86. 'Fit India Movement' was launched on Championship gold medal in 2019?
(a) 15th March 2019 (b) 1st May 2019 (a) Saina Nehwal (b) P.V. Sindhu
nd
(c) 2 October 2019 (d) 29th August 2019 (c) Jwala Gutta (d) Ashwini Ponnappa
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 Ans. (b) : P.V. Sindhu wins a Badminton World 96. Which one is the youngest mountain?
Championship gold by beating familiar rival Nozomi (a) Satpura (b) Vindhyachal
Okuhara of Japan in August 2019 and became the first (c) Aravalli (d) Himalaya
Indian to win a Badminton World Championship gold Ans. (d) : Himalaya is one of the youngest mountain.
medel.
• The Himalayas mountain range began to form between
• Saina Nehwal is a former World no.1 Badminton, and 40 and 50 million year ago.
won over 24 international titles.
• The Himalayas is the world's highest mountain range
• Jwala Gutta and Ashwini Ponnappa are an Indian
Badminton player. home to all fourteen peak over 8,000 m including
Everest and K2.
92. Which of the following pair shared Nobel prize • Many of the world's major rivers, the Indus, the Gangas,
for Economics with Abhijit Banerjee? the Brahmaputra and the Yangtze start their journeys in
(a) Esther Duflo and Michael Kremer the Himalayas.
(b) Akira Yoshino and M. Stanley Whittingham
97. Temperature decreases with increasing height at
(c) John B. Goodenough and Michel Mayor
the rate of 6.5 ºC per 1000 m. This rate of
(d) Didier Queloz and James Peebles decrease of temperature is called :
Ans. (a) : Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee is an India-born (a) Insolation
naturalized American economist who is currently the ford (b) Decrease in specific heat
Foundation International Professor of Economics at mass
achusetts Institute of technology. (c) Increase in specific heat
• He shared the 2019 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic (d) Normal lapse rate
Sciences with Esther Duflo and Michael Kremer "for Ans. (d) : Near the Earth's surface, air gets cooler the
their experimental approach to alleviating global higher you climb. As you climb a mountain, you can
poverty." expect the air temperature to decrease by 6.5oC for every
• He and Esther Duflo, who married, are the sixth married 1000 meters you gain. This called standard lapse rate.
couple to Jointly win a Nobel Prize. 98. In India Sal trees are concentrated in :
93. Saffron is obtained from which part of the plant? (a) Rajasthan (b) Assam
(a) Stigma (b) Anther (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Stamen (d) Pollen Ans. (d) : The Sal tree is indigenous to India and roughly
Ans. (a) : The stigma and style of the plant are used to one-eighth of the total forest area of India is covered by Sal
make saffron. It comes from the crimson points of the trees, particularly in the central and northeastern parts of
stigmas and is the most costly spice. the country up into the Himalayan foothills.
94. Baking powder is • The three central Indian states of Orissa, Chhattisgarh
(a) Borax and Madhya Pradesh are particularly important in terms
(b) Sodium Carbonate of Sal tree forestry, with Sal forests covering about 45%
(c) Sodium Sulphate of their total forest area.
(d) Sodium Bicarbonate • The Sal tree is known also as Sakhua in northern India,
including Madhya Pradesh, Odisha and Jharkhand.
Ans. (d) : Baking powder is a popular baking ingredient. It
gives foods like bread, cakes, muffins and cookies a light, 99. The concept of Ecological Pyramid was presented
fluffy tixture. by :
• Baking powder is also known as sodium bicarbonate or (a) Charles Darwin (b) Charles Elton
baking soda. (c) David Harvey (d) D. Robinson
• Sodium bicarbonate is an antacid used to relieve Ans. (b) : The Ecological Pyramids were developed by
heartburn and acid indigestion. Charles Elton, an English, Zoologist and Animal
• Its chemical formula is NaHCO3. ecologist, in 1927. They are also called as Estonian
95. The dimension of magnetic field in M, L, T and C pyramids.
(Coulomb) is given as • An ecological pyramid is a graphical representation
(a) MLT–1C–1 (b) MT2C–2 designed to show the bio mass of bio-productivity at each
(c) MT–1C–1 (d) MT–2C–1 tropic level in a given ecosystem.
Ans. (c) : From the formula of magnetic field-
F
B= ––––(1)
qv
Force (F) = ma =  MLT −2 
q = [ c]
s
velocity (ν) = =  LT −1 
t  100. Parambikulam Hydro Project is located in :
Put all the value in equation (1), we get (a) Karnataka (b) Telangana
 MLT −2  (c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala
B=  Ans. (d) : Parambikulam located in the palakkad district in
[C].  LT −1  the western Ghats of Kerala India, ranks number one in
India as well as in the top ten embankment dams in the
B =  MT −1C−1  world in volume in the year 2000. This Dam was built at
the time of Kamarajar.

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