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2025 Mokasa 1 Examination-1

The document is an examination paper for the 2025 MOKASA 1 Joint Examination in Agriculture, consisting of two papers with multiple sections and questions. It includes instructions for candidates, sections A, B, and C with various questions related to agricultural practices, livestock management, and crop production. Marking schemes are not provided for free due to associated costs.

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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
1K views250 pages

2025 Mokasa 1 Examination-1

The document is an examination paper for the 2025 MOKASA 1 Joint Examination in Agriculture, consisting of two papers with multiple sections and questions. It includes instructions for candidates, sections A, B, and C with various questions related to agricultural practices, livestock management, and crop production. Marking schemes are not provided for free due to associated costs.

Uploaded by

mmutemi04
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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2025 MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATION

N/B:DUE TO HIGH COSTS INCURRED


WHILE COMING UP WITH THIS AND OTHER SIMILAR RESOURSES,
MARKING SCHEMES ARE NOT FREE OF
CHARGE.
QUESTIONS ARE FREE
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

443/1
AGRICULTURE
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 Hours

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
• Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
• This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
• Answer all the questions in section A and B.
• Answer any two questions in section C.
• All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
• This paper consists of 11 printed pages.
• Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
• Candidates should answer all the questions in English.
For Examiner’s Use Only:

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

A 1-19 30

B 20-23 20

C 20

20

TOTAL SCORE 90
SECTION A (30 MARKS)
1. Give two factors which characterize small scale farming. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. State four farming practices which help to improve soil structure. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Give four steps followed in land adjudication. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Name the vegetative part of each of the following crops which is propagated. (1mk)
a) Sweet potatoes.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Sugarcane.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Name two viral diseases which attack citrus plants. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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3
𝟏
6. State three advantages of single stem pruning over multiple stem pruning. (𝟏 𝟐 𝒎𝒌𝒔)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Give two methods of applying nitrogenous fertilizers to crops. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. State four factors one should consider when siting a nursery for kales. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. State four reasons why staking as a field management practice should be carried out in
tomatoes. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Give four problems associated with the use of herbicides in crop production. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. State four factors that influence spacing when planting a pure stand of maize. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Give four activities that may be undertaken in organic farming. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. State four reasons for ridging in potato production. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. State four characteristics that make a crop suitable for green manuring. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
𝟏
15. State three factors to consider when grading tomatoes for fresh market. (𝟏 𝟐 𝒎𝒌𝒔)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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16. Give four advantages of using grafting and budding as methods of improving the production
of citrus fruits. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
𝟏
17. State three advantages of using metal pipes to convey water on a farm. (𝟏 𝟐 𝒎𝒌𝒔)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
𝟏
18. Why is it not advisable to use manure in carrot production? (𝟐 𝒎𝒌)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. Give two conditions in agricultural production under which opportunity cost is zero. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B (20 MARKS)
20. The diagram below illustrates a method of irrigation. Observe it carefully and answer the
questions that follow.

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a) Identify the method of irrigation. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Give four disadvantages of using the above method of irrigation. (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. A member of the young farmers’ club was advised to apply a complete compound fertilizer
30-20-10 in a tomato plot measuring 10m long by 5m wide at the rate of 300kg per hectare.
a) State the percentage of 𝑃2 𝑂5 in the complete compound fertilizer. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) What does 𝑃2 𝑂5 refer to. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Calculate the amount of fertilizer the member would require for the plot. (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. The photograph below shows a method of forage conservation.

a) Identify the method. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b)Give four factors that determine the quality of the above forage. (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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23. The diagram below illustrates a vegetative propagation unit. Study it carefully and answer the
questions that follow.

a) What is the function of the polythene sheet? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Give four management practices carried out on the above structure. (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION C (40 MARKS)
24. a) Describe the production of dry beans (Phaseolus vulgaris) under the following sub
headings.
i)Varieties common in Kenya. (2mks)
ii)Selection and preparation of planting materials. (3mks)
iii)Planting and weeding. (5mks)
b) Give five entries that can be made on a cattle breeding record. (5mks)
c) State five reasons for pruning coffee. (5mks)

25. a) Explain the precautions that should be observed during harvesting of pyrethrum. (5mks)
b) State six effects of fragmentation and sub division of land. (6mks)
c) List four effects of high temperature on crops. (4mks)
d) Explain five cultural methods of soil and water conservation. (5mks)

26. a) State and explain five factors influencing soil erosion. (5mks)
b) Describe ten cultural measures of controlling pests. (10mks)
c) Explain five ways in which plant morphology and anatomy influence the selectivity and
effectiveness of herbicides. (5mks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

443/2
AGRICULTURE
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1. Write your name and index number in the space provided above.
2. Sign and write date of examination in spaces provided.
3. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
4. Answer all questions in section A and B and any other two questions in section C.
5. All answers should be written in spaces provided.
6. Candidates MUST answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER`S ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

A 1 – 18 30

B 19 – 22 20

C 23 – 25 20

20

TOTAL 90

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10
SECTION A (30 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. State four factors that determine the amount of water required by a livestock. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Name a breed of goat kept for hair production. (1/2mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. State three factors that would determine the effectiveness of an acaricide. (11/2mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Give two reasons for flushing in sheep management. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. State four reasons for castrating a breeding boar. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. State two functions of the crop in poultry digestive system. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Name four parts of a farm building that can be reinforced using concrete. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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11
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. State two advantages of housing calves singly in cattle management. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Give four signs which indicate that a sow is about to farrow. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. State four causes of stress on poultry. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. State two conditions that may inhibit milk let-down in dairy cattle management. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Give four ways of stimulating milk let-down in a dairy cow. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. What is dry cow therapy? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. List four categories of livestock diseases. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. State four disadvantages of using plunge dips in tick control. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. Give four reasons for controlling livestock diseases. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. State four characteristics of the Duroc Jersy Pig breed. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. (a) Give three reasons for candling eggs in poultry production. (11/2mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State three disadvantages of free range system in poultry rearing. (11/2mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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13
SECTION B (20 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.
19. Use the farm structures below to answer the questions that follow.

(a) Name the type of wire fence illustrated in A above. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name a correct material and tool for fastening the wire into the wooden posts when
constructing the type of fence in A. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) State three advantages that fence B may have over fence A (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. The diagram below shows an attachment of a workshop tool.

(a) Identify the attachment. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) What workshop tool is attached to when being used. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) State three safety measures which should be taken when using workshop tools in order to
prevent injury. (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. The illustration below shows a dairy cow suffering from a diseases. Three days after calving
the cow went down with its head, turned back and was unable to stand.

(a) Which diseases was the cow most likely to be suffering from. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give the cause of the disease (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) State three ways of preventing the disease you have identified in (a) above. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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22. Below is an illustration showing a birds view of a cow.

(a) With a reason identify, the type of cattle shown above. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State three other ideal features of the above animal not seen from the illustration. (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION C (40 MARKS)
Answer any two questions in this section in the spaces provided.
23. (a) Describe foot-rot disease under the following sub-headings.
i)Causal organism (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)Signs of infection (5mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)Control measures (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) Name any three parts of a pigpens and give their functions in a piggery (6mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Outline four reasons for dehorning in cattle production. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
24. (a) Describe seven control measures of cannibalism in a flock of layers. (7mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give five reasons for keeping dairy cows health. (5mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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17
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Describe the symptoms of round worm infestation in livestock (8mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
25. (a) Describe the management of a dairy calf using artificial rearing method from birth to
(b)Describe upgrading as a method of improving indigenous cattle for milk production.
(8mks)
(c) Give four characteristics of a good site for a fish pond. (4mks)
(d) State three reasons for supplementing the bees with sugar syrup. (3mks)

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18
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

443/1
BIOLOGY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
 Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
 Answer all questions in the spaces provided on the question paper.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:


QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1- 24 80

1. State how aerenchyma tissue is adapted to gaseous exchange (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. To estimate the population size of crabs in a certain lagoon, traps were laid at random.
400 crabs were caught, marked and released back into the lagoon. Four days later traps
were laid again and 374 crabs were caught. Out of the 374 crabs, 80 were found to
have been marked.
a.) Calculate the population size of the crabs in the lagoon using the formula
below.
N=nXM

m
Where: N = Total population of crabs in the
lagoon n = Total number of crabs in the

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19
second catch M = Number of marked crabs
during the first catch
m = Number of marked crabs in the second catch (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b.) State one assumption that were made during the investigation (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) What is the name given to this method of estimating the population size? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Apart from respiration state other two fates of glucose as an end product of
photosynthesis (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. The cells shown below were removed from different parts of a young root tip

Give the name of the zone from which each cell were obtained.

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20
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. The diagram below shows an experiment performed on oat coleoptiles. Three potted
seedlings labelled R, S and T were treated as following
R – tip was covered with aluminium foil cap
S – tip of the coleoptiles was decapitated
T – tip was left intact
The seedlings were covered with a box, which had a hole on one side and painted black
on the inside. The set up was left for 2 days.

(a) Explain the observations made in each coleoptile (3mks)

R.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
S

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
T.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State two advantages of having two eyes in a human being (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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21
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Outline three structural differences between an artery and a vein (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Name a characteristic of living things that deals with;
a.) Irreversible increase in mass (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b.) Ability to detect and respond to changes in the environment (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Table 9.2 below gives a comparison between the quantities of various substances in the
blood plasma and urine.
Substance Plasma Urine
Water 90% 97%
Sodium ions (Na+) 600 gm 6gm
Urea 0.03% 2%
Glucose 200g Nil
Proteins 7% Nil
(a) Explain why both glucose and proteins are absent in urine (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) What would be the effect on the composition of urine after a high protein diet?

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22
Effect (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Reason (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9.The figures 1 and 2 below represents reproductive organs of a plant and animal respectively.

(a) Which letters in figures 1 and 2 represent the organs that produce female gametes
(2mks)
- Figure 1
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
- Figure 2
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) What is the function of the structures labeled S? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Which letters in figure 1 and 2 represents the structures where fertilization takes place
(2mks)
Figure 1 –

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Figure 2 – (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Figures 3.6 illustrates an experiment on germinating respiration.

(a) (i) What changes are observable at the end of the experiment? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Explain the change in (a) (i) above. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) What chemical process is taking place in the germinating peas? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. (a) Treating a cell undergoing interphase stage of a cell division with a metabolic
poison stops cell division. Explain. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)What is the significance of meosis to living organisms? (2mks)

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24
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. (a) State one factor which favour oxygen loading in the red blood cells (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give a reason for more carbon (IV)oxide being transported by the red blood cells
(1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Define the following terms as used in evolution
(a) Analogous structures (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Vestigial structures (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) State the theory of continental drift (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. Name part of the human alimentary canal where each of the following takes place:
(i) Emulsification of fats (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Extensive absorption of water (1mks)

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25
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. The diagram below is that of certain cell organelle. Use it to answer the questions that
follow.

(a) Identify the above cell organelle (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State the function of the above cell organelle (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Name one cell with large numbers of the above organelle in man (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. (a) Name the disease of the blood characterized by:
(i) Abnormal production of large number of white blood cells (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Crescent – shaped haemoglobin instead of the normal biconcave disc shape
(1mk)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)The diagram below shows a certain defect of the human eye

(i) Identify the above defect (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) State the two possible causes of the above defect (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) How can the above defect be corrected? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. (a) When the red flower plants are crossed with their counterparts bearing white
flowers, all the resulting F1 plants bear pink flowers. Account for this phenomenon.
(1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)Work out the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of the F2 plants when F1 plants are
selfed (take R for
Red flower) (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. The diagram below represents a certain type of vertebra found in mammals.

(a) With reasons, identify the type of vertebra represented by the above diagram
Identity (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Reason (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name the type of vertebra which articulate with the group of vertebrae represented above
posteriorly
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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19. A certain tissue was found to be rich in glycogen. Name the kingdom of the organism
from which the tissue obtained belongs. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)Give a reason for each of the following biological phenomenon:
(i) A mature plant cell doesn’t lose its shape even after losing water maximumly.
(1mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Amoeba doesn’t burst when placed in a solution which is hypotonic to its
cytoplasmic contents.
(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. The diagram below represents a mature bread mould (rhizopus).

(a) Name the kingdom to which bread mould belongs (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) Name the structures A and B (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) State the role of the part labelled C (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. Explain:
(i)When transplanting a seedling, it is advisable to remove some of the tea leaves
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)There are generally fewer stomata on the upper surface of a terrestrial leaf than on
the lower surface. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. State two roles of osmosis to plants (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
23. The diagram below represents the lower jaw of a mammal

R
S T S
S S

(a) Name the mode of nutrition of the mammal whose jaw is drawn above (1mk)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) (i) Name the tooth labelled S (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) State how the tooth named in (c) (i) above is adapted to its function. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
24. Name a carbohydrate found in xylem (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

443/2
BIOLOGY
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and Index Number in the spaces provided above.
 This paper consists of two sections; A and B.
 Answer ALL the questions in section A in the spaces provided.
 In section B, answer questions 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces
provided after question 8.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.

section question maximum score candidates score

1 8

2 8
a 3 8

4 8

5 8

6 20
b 7 20

8 20

total score 80

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SECTION A:(40MARKS)
1.(a) Name two disorders in humans caused by gene mutations (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)What is meant by the term allele? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c)In a particular species of tropical beetle, the wings had either red or orange marks. A
cross between a red marked beetle with orange marked beetle produces offsprings with
yellow marks
only. When F1 offsprings were selfed, they produced F2 generation in the ratio of
1 red : 2 yellow : 1 orange
i)Explain the absence of red and orange marks in F1 offspring’s (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Using a punnet square, show how the F2 generation was crossed. (Use letters R for red
marks and W for Orange marks) (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow

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(a)Identify the structure and state its functions (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)(i)Name the parts labelled P and Q (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)State the role of the part labelled R (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c)How is the structure stated in (a) above adapted to its function (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d)What is the role of enzyme enterokinase in digestion? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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34
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. The photograph below shows an organism undergoing a certain process. Examine the
external features of the organism and answer the following questions.

(a) i. Identify the class to which the organism above belongs (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Give two reasons for your answer in (a)i. above (2 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)i. Identify the type of metamorphosis illustrated above. (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Give a reason for your answer in {d}i. above. (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c)Name the stages P and Q. (2Mark)
P:

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Q:
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. The diagram below represents a mature fruit of a certain plant.

[a] State the agent for dispersal for the fruit. [1 mark]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
[b] Give a reason for your answer in [a] above. [2 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
[c] State two characteristics of fruits and seeds dispersed by the agent you named in [a] above.
[2 marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
[d] What are the advantages of fruit and seed dispersal? [2 marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
[e] State one importance of fruits in the survival of plants. [1 mark]

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5 a) Define the term field of view as used in microscopy. [1mark]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Using a microscope, a student counted 55 cells across a field of view whose diameter was
6000 micrometers. Calculate the average length of the cells. Show your working.
[2marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) State three functions of Golgi apparatus. [3marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) State the adaptation of mitochondrion to it’s function. [2marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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37
SECTION B
Answer questions 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided
after question 8.
6. The table below shows the population of a housefly musca domestica which is predated on by
wasps of species Nasonia spp. The investigation of their population growth pattern was carried out
for 70 weeks. In this experiment, space and physical factors were assumed to be limiting.

a)Using the readings in the table, plot graphs on the same axis of population growth of organisms
against time. (8 marks)

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a)Account for the growth of
i)Musca domestica between 10th week — 25th week. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)Nasonia species between 40th week –50th week. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b)What is the population of?
i)Nasonia spp. on the 62nd week? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)Musca doniestica on the 4th week? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c)Bemex, another parasite of housefly was introduced into the ecosystem. Giving a reason; what
will be the effect on the population of
i)Housefly Musca domestica. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)Nasonia Spp. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d)In estimating the population of Musca domestica in the experiment above. Capture-
mark release recapture method was used. Describe the procedure which was followed
(4 marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. a) i. What is the role of blood clotting process? (2mks)
ii. Describe the process of blood clotting in human beings. (6mks)
b) Explain how the mammalian skin is adapted to its function. (12mks)
8. a) Describe the causes of water pollution and their effects on living organisms. (12mks)
b) Describe the role of the following hormones in plant growth and development. (8mks)
i. Indole acetic acid.
ii. Gibberellins.
iii. Ethylene.

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

443/3
BIOLOGY(PRACTICAL)
PAPER 3
TIME: 1 HR 45 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS
• Write your name, Index Number in the spaces provided above.
• Write the date of examination in the space provided above.
• Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided below each question in the question paper.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1 19

2 10

3 14

TOTAL 40

1. (a) You are provided with the following:

• 20% glucose solution


• 2 Visking tubings
• 30ML of cold distilled water

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41
• 30 ml warm distilled water
• 2 beakers
• thread
• Means of labeling.

PROCEDURE I
i. Tie one end of each of the visking tubings tightly using a piece of thread. Half fill one of the
visking tubing with 20% glucose solution and then tie the top tightly.

ii. Immerse the visking tubing into a beaker containing warm water and label the beaker as A.

iii. Into the second visking tubing, pour 20% glucose solution and tie tightly at the top. Immerse the
visking tubing in the breaker containing ice cold water and label the beaker as B.

iv. Leave the set ups undisturbed for 10 minutes, remove the visking tubings and observe.

(a)(i) State the observation made in Visking tubing from the beaker labeled A (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Account for the observation made. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) (i) State the observations made in visking tubing from the beaker labeled B (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

PROCEDURE II
(b) You are provided with solution J and K.
(i) Carry out Benedict’s and iodine tests on solution J. (3mks)
Tests Procedure Observation Conclusion

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42
(ii) Label two test tubes as test tube 1 and test 2.In test tube 1 put equal volumes of about 2ml of each
of solutions J and K .In test tube 2 put solutions J and an equal amount of K which has been boiled for
10 minutes. Place the two test tubes in a water bath maintained at between 35-390c for 30 minutes.
After 30 minutes, take a small amount of contents from each of the two test tubes and carry out
Benedict’s and iodine test. (4mks)
Tests Observations Conclusion

Test tube 1 Benedict’s

Iodine

Test tube 2 Benedict’s

Iodine

C (i) Explain the observation made in: (2mks)

Test tube 1

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Test tube 2

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Name the process that took place in test tube 1 (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) How else could the process which took place in test tube A be made to take place without the
presence of solution K. (1mk)

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43
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Identify solution K. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Below is a diagram of part of the excretory system in a certain animal. Examine them and answer the
questions that follow.

V W

(a) (i) Name the parts labeled A, B, C and D in figure. (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)(a) Identify the process that takes place in the structure labeled V in figure II (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)State two sources of the condition that bring about the process named in (ii) (a) above. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) State three adaptations of the structure labeled W to its functions (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. You are provided with specimens R and S which are reproductive structures found in some organisms.
Use it to answer the questions below.
(i)(a)Name the sub division of the plants from which the specimens were obtained from. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name the classes of the plants from which the specimen R and S were obtained and give a reason
for each. (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Reason

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
S

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Reason

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)(a) What is the likely agent for specimen labeled R? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give two reasons for your answer in (ii) (a) above (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Remove the gynoecium from specimen R, observe using the magnifying lens provided and
draw. (4mks)

(iv)Give two adaptations of flower in specimen S to its agent of pollination. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS
 This paper consists of 25 structured questions.
 Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
 All your working should be shown clearly.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14

Marks

Question 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

Marks

Total percentage

1. Outline four ways through which the internal business environment can positively affect
business . (4marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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2. State four business considerations to make when evaluating a business opportunity (4marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Outline four features of a private limited company (4marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Identify the line of communication described by the following statements (4marks)
a) Principal of moi high school Kabarak communicating with the principal moi girls
high school Eldoret

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) The accounts clerk briefing the financial manager on his assignment

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) The sales manager communicating with a junior staff in the ICT department

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) The president giving orders to the cabinet secretary in charge of education

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Outline four advantages of using social media platforms to market a product (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow
Do
Price

D1

Quantity
a) Identify the market structure associated with the diagram above. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Name the part labelled A (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) State the reason as to why the part ADo is fairly gentle (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Describe the following concepts as used in population (4 marks)
a) Birth rate

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Population structure

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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49
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Optimum population

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Mortality rate…

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Identify the ledger in which the following accounts are maintained (4marks)

ACCOUNT LEDGER

a) Otieno (Debtor)
b) Capital
c) Kamau (Creditor)
d) Electricity bill

9. Outline four functions of money (4marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Highlight four challenges faced in the satisfaction of human wants (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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11. Outline four differences between open and enclosed office layouts (4 marks)
Open office layout Enclosed office layout

12. The government of Kenya regulates business activities around the country. Outline four
ways in which the government uses to perform this function (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. State four requirements that must be fulfilled by a public warehouse in order for it to
function effectively and efficiently (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. State four effects of an increase in demand for a commodity while supply remains constant
(4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Outline four circumstances under which a producer will distribute goods directly to the
consumers (4 marks)

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51
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. In the course of preparing his balance sheet as at 30th June 2024, Waweru found that he had
capital amounting to Sh. 1,250,000 in his business. During the year, his additional
investments totalled Sh. 123,000while the drawings amounted to Sh. 152,000. The business
made a profit of Sh. 105,000. Calculate his initial capital as at 1st July 2023 (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. Study the following two column cash book.
Fadhili Entreprises
Two Column Cash book
Dr For the month of May 2024 Cr
Date Details L.F Cash Bank Date Details L.F Cash Bank
2024 2024
May. May
1 Capital 70,000 3. Bank c 20,000
3 Cash c 20,000 4 Purchases 15,000
6 Rent 10,000

State the transactions that took place on: (4 marks)


a) 1st May 2024

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) 3rd May 2024

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) 4th May 2024

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) 6th May 2024

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18 State four features of indirect production. (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
19 Below is a table showing description of documents used in home trade. Identify the
documents described by each statement
(4 marks)
Description Document
a) A document used as a reply to a
specific letter of inquiry
b) A document that alerts the buyer
that the goods have been dispatched.
c) A document showing a summary of
transactions between the buyer and
seller for a particular period of time
d) Document that is used to demand
for payment for goods delivered on
credit

20 Outline four benefits that the Kenyan government derives from the construction of the
Standard Gauge Railway line (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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21 Ochieng insured his house worth sh. 5,000,000 for sh. 3,500,000 against fire. Fire occurred
and destroyed the house to a tune of sh. 2,000,000.
a) Determine compensation Ochieng will receive (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) State the reason for your answer above (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
22 Lately, the Kenyan government is advocating for the concentration of similar firms in one
region. Outline four benefits associated with this move (4marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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23 Outline four challenges associated with expenditure approach as a measure of national
income. (4marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

24 State the effects of the transactions below on the balance sheet items (assets, capital and
liabilities) and the balance sheets totals as either increase ,decrease or no effect (4marks)
Transaction Assets Capital Liabilities Totals

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a) Received a cheque
for sh. 150,000 being
amount borrowed
from a lending
institution.
b)Paid creditors sh.
10,000 cash
c) Owner took cash sh.
50,000 for personal
use.
d) Deposited cash sh.
80,000 into the
business bank account.

25 The following sales journal was extracted from the books of Amanda traders during the
month of June 2023.
Sales journal
Date Details Invoice Ledger folio Amount (sh)
number
2/6/2023 Wako retailers 012 SL13 8,000
8/6/2023 Mwenda 013 SL24 12,000
18/6/2023 Wako retailers 014 SL13 5,300
18/6/2023 Total posted to GL01 25,300
the sales
account in the
GL
Required:
Post the above information in the relevant ledger accounts (4marks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper consists of six questions
b) Answer any five questions
c) Write your answers in the answer booklet
d) All questions carry equal marks

FOR EXAMINERS` USE ONLY


1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL
QUESTION

MARKS SCORE

1. a) Riziki, a college graduate, intends to start a poultry keeping business. Explain five reasons
why you will advise her to prepare a business plan. (10 marks)
b) The level of the national income of country X has been increasing over years. Explain five
factors that are contributing to the increase in the level of the income of this country.
(10 marks)

2. a) Mutai is a dairy farmer in Nyandarua county. He wishes to transport the milk to his
consumers in Nairobi. Explain five factors to consider when choosing a means of transport.
(10 marks)
b) Explain five factors that may lead to the increase in the supply of a commodity (10 marks)

3. a) Describe five types of large scale retailers (10 marks)

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b) On 1st January 2022, Twende Traders had shs. 50,000 cash in hand and a bank overdraft of
shs. 30,000.
During the month, the following transactions took place;
2nd January. Made cash sales of shs. 400,000
5th January. Received a cheque of shs. 450,000 from Juma Traders in full settlement of
their debt after allowing a 10% cash discount
7th January. Paid rent in cash shs. 20,000
12th January. Took cash shs. 40,000 to pay son`s school fees
14th January. Deposited shs.20, 000 from the cash till in the business bank account
17th January. Bought goods on credit from Pendo traders worth shs, 50,000
20th January. The cheque received on 5th January was dishonoured
23rd January. Sold goods in cash shs. 50,000
25th January. Settled kiptoo`s account of shs. 200,000 by cash less 3% cash discount
28th January. Cash sales directly banked shs. 39,000
30th January. Paid charity traders shs. 124,000 in cash after deducting a cash discount of
shs. 6,000
st
31 January. Deposited all cash into the bank account except shs. 2,000
Required:
Prepare a three-column cashbook (10 marks)

4. a) Explain five roles of the Nairobi Stock Exchange Market. (10 marks)
b) The population growth rate of China has been declining over the years. Explain five benefits
of such occurrence to the country (10 marks)

5. a) Explain five government initiated methods of consumer protection (10 marks)

b) Explain five differences between perfect competition market structure and monopoly market
structure (10 marks)

6. a) Mr. Kibet intends to take a life assurance policy with Britam Insurance Company. Explain
four life assurance policies that he is likely to take. (8 marks)
b) The trial balance below was extracted from the books of XYZ Traders as at 31st December
2024
XYZ TRADERS
TRIAL BALANCE
AS AT 31ST DEC 2024
Details Dr Cr.
Ksh. Ksh.
Stock on 1/1/2024 180,000

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57
Debtors & creditors 195,000 120,000
Discounts 75,000 96,000
Purchases & Sales 1,200,000 1,740,000
Premises 1,630,000
Carriage outwards 24,000
Returns 60,000 150,000
Fixtures & Fittings 300,000
Carriage inwards 100,000
Machinery 600,000
Commissions 48,000 42,000
Capital 2,454,000
KCB Loan 210,000
Wages & Salaries 90,000
Cash in Bank 420,000
Rent 110,000
4,922,000 4,922,000

Stock 31st December 2024 ksh. 210,000


Required
a. Prepare a trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 31/12/2024 (8 marks)
b. Prepare XYZ Balance sheet as at 31/12/2024. (4 marks)

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58
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

233/1
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HRS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name, admission number, date and school in the spaces provided.
 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
 All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
 Scientific calculators may be used.
FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY
Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 – 29 80

1.a.State two examples of commercial indicators used in a high school laboratory. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b.Define the term Neutralisation reaction [1mark]
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2.(a)Give one reason some of the laboratory apparatus are made of Glass (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)Name two apparatus that can be used to measure approximately 100cm3 of dilute Hydrochloric
acid. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3.Draw awell labeled set-up that can be used to separate a mixture of iodine and sodium
chloride. (3 marks)

4.The table below shows pH values of solutions ABC and D


Solution A B C D

pH value 1 7 10 13

a) Give solution that is;


i) Acidic (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Weak base (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Neutral (1mk)

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60
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Give the test of the gas formed when solution A react with a carbonate salt (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Define Amphoteric oxides and give an example . [2marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5.
Copper (II) oxide Combustion tube

Dry
CO The table below shows pH values of solutions ABC and D

Heat
Boiling tube

Distilled water +
universal indicator

The above set-up was used to determine the chemical properties of carbon (II) oxide.

(a)Write the chemical equation for the reaction taking place in the combustion tube (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)State and explain the PH of the solution in boiling Tube (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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61
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6.A student placed some hydrogen peroxide in a test tube then added a small amount of
manganese (IV) oxide. A glowing splint was then brought near the mouth of the tube.

(a)State the observation made on the glowing splint. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)What is the role of the manganese (IV) oxide? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c)Give one use of the gas produced. (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7.a Define Isomerism
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b.An organic compound with formular 𝐶4 𝐻8 , has isomers. Draw and name two possible
structural isomers of the compound. (3 marks)

8.Explain how the compound 𝐶4 𝐻8 and 𝐶4 𝐻10 can be distinguished using burning (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9.(a)Chlorine can be prepared in the laboratory by using the following reagents and

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chemicals.Concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid, water, manganese (IV) oxide, concentrated
hydrochloric acid.
(i)State the role of concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Write the equation for formation of chlorine. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii)What is the role of manganese (IV) oxide? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10.(a)State Boyle’s law. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)A gas occupies 270cm3 at a pressure of 660mmHg at 370C. What is the new
volume if pressure is changed to 810 mmHg at 630 C? (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11.An organic compound contains 24.24% carbon, 4.04% hydrogen and the rest chlorine. If its
relative molecular mass is 99, what is its molecular formula? (3 marks)
(C = 12, H = 1, Cl = 35.5)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12.Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.

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63
Molten Magnesium Chloride

Heat

(a)Define electrolysis. (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)On the diagram, label the Anode and Cathode. (1mark)
(c)Write the equation at the anode. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13.In order to find the proportion by volume of gases in air, a sample of air was passed through
two wash bottles, the first containing sodium hydroxide solution and the second
containing concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid. The remaining gas was then collected in a
syringe.

(a)Why was the air passed through;


(i)sodium hydroxide solution? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)Name the major gas collected in the syringe. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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64
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14.(a)Complete the diagram below to show how dry sample of hydrogen gas is
prepared in the laboratory using O.5M Sulphuric vi Acid. (2 marks)

Dilute H2SO4
SSH2SO4

Zinc granules

(b)Name the catalyst which could be used to increase the reaction rate of production
of hydrogen gas in the set up drawn above. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c).apart from the catalyst,state two other ways of increasing the above reaction
[2marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15.An element consists of two isotopes with atomic masses 59 and 61 in the ratio of
3 : 2 respectively.

(a)What are isotopes? (1 mark)


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(b)Calculate the relative atomic mass of the element. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. An element: 39
19Q

(a)To which chemical family does it belong? (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)Write the electron arrangement of the atom. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c)Draw the structure of its ion. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17.A given mass of sodium nitrate was heated completely and 320 cm3 of the gas was produced
at s.t.p. Determine the mass of the sodium nitrate heated.
(Na = 23. N = 14, O = 16, molar gas volume = 22.4L) (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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18. The diagram below shows the radiations emitted by a radioactive sample.
postive
Lead block

P
negative
Radioactive sample
Name the radiations; (3 marks)

P -
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
M -
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
N -
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
19.Calculate the enthalpy of formation of ethanol given the enthalpies of;
combustion of ethanol = -1369 kJ/mole
combustion of carbon = -394kJ/mole
combustion of hydrogen = -286kJ/mole
(3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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20.(a)State what is observed when sodium hydroxide pellets are left in air overnight.
(1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)What name is given the process shown by the salt in (a) above? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
21.Given;
Step 2
Black solid K Blue solution J
Add
residue
𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4

Heat
Solid F
Step 1
Colourless gas which forms
white precipitate with lime
water.

(a) Identify the cation and anion in Solid F 2marks


Cation
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Anion
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Write equation for step 1. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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22.[a]Name two allotropes of sulphur [2mks]

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68
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
[b]In an experiment to investigate a certain property of sulphur, Wanjare added few drops of
conc HNO3 to sulphur in a test tube and warmed the mixture

[i]State one observation made [1mk]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
[ii]Write a chemical equation of the reaction that occurred [2 mk]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
23.Use dot () and cross (X) to show the bonding in Sodium Chloride (2 marks)

24.a.Excess magnesium ribbon was burnt in air to form a white solid mixture. Write two
equations to show the formation of the white solid mixture. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b]Give two effects of continued exposure of nitrogen 1V oxide in the
atmosphere [2marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

233/2
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 2(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HRS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS
 Write your name, Index number and class in the spaces provided above.
 Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
 Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
 All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


Question Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
1 10

2 12

3 12

4 10

5 12

6 12

7 12

Total 80

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70
1. (a) Study the set up below and use it to answer the questions that follow.

(i)What is the aim of the experiment? (1 mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Identify one mistake in the set up above. (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii)After the experiment, the student calculated the volume of air used and found to be
19.2%. Comment on the results. (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)Another student carried out the same experiment using phosphorous. Instead of
burning candle:
(i)State one modification the student should carry out on the above set up to suit
the experiment. (1 mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Describe the above experiment to show how results were obtained. (3 mks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) After the experiment the student added three drops of methyl orange
indicator in the trough. State and explain the observation made. (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. (a) The grid below represents part of the periodic table. Study it and answer the
questions that follow. The letters do not represent the actual symbols of elements.

A B C

D E F G J

(i)Using an ionic equation explain the observation made when a solution of potassium
bromide is reacted with G. (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Both F and G are period 3 elements. Compare with a reason, their
electronegativities. (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Element A combines with chlorine to form a chloride of A. State the most likely
pH value of a solution of a chloride of A. Explain. (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(iv)Write a chemical equation for the reaction between an oxide of E and sodium
hydroxide. (1 mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) (i) Explain why molten calcium chloride and magnesium chloride conducts
electricity while carbon tetrachloride and silicon tetrachloride do not. (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Under the same conditions gaseous neon was found to diffuse faster than gaseous
fluorine. Explain the observation. (F = 19.0, Ne = 20.0) (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Give one use of element J (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. I. Study Table below and answer the questions that follow
Eθ(V)
+ -
Ag (aq) + e Ag (s) + 0.80
2+ -
Cu (aq) +2e Cu(s) + 0.34
+ -
2H (ag) + 2e H2(g) 0.00
3+ -
Cr (aq) + 3e Cr(s) -0.74
Na+(aq) + e- Na (s) -2.17

a) Identify the strongest reducing agent. Explain. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Give two half cells which will produce the highest Eθ value when connected.

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(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Why is it not practical to make the cell you have given in (b) above. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. A certain celebrity wanted to electroplate a certain ornament with Copper to a surface
of 0.25 cm2. How long will to take to pass a current of 0.5A through a solution of
copper (II) Sulphate in order to electroplate 2 cm of the ornament. (Density of copper
= 8.92 g/cm3, IF = 96500, Cu = 63.5) (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
III. A student set up the cell shown in the figure below

The student recorded an initial voltage of +0.16 V at 250C


(a) Explain how the salt bridge provides an electrical connection between the two
solutions. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) The standard electrode potential for the Cu2+(aq)/Cu(s) electrode is

Cu2+(aq) + 2e– → Cu(s) Eϴ= + 0.34 V

(c) Calculate the electrode potential of the left-hand electrode in the Figure [1mark]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Both electrodes contain a strip of copper metal in a solution of aqueous Cu2+ ions.
State why the left-hand electrode does not have an electrode potential of +0.34 V
[1mk]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) Give the conventional representation for the cell in the figure above. [1mk]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(f) When the voltmeter is replaced by a bulb, the emf of the cell in the Figure decreases
over time to 0V, Suggest how the concentration of copper (II) ions in the left-hand
electrode changes when the bulb is alight. Give one reason why the emf of the cell
decreases to 0V [1mk]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. I. One of the factors which determine the reaction rate of solids is particle size.
(a) A mixture of finely powdered aluminium and air may explode when ignited. This
causes a large and sudden increase in temperature. Explain each of the following in
terms of collisions between reacting particles.

(i) Why is the reaction between finely powdered aluminium and air very fast?
(1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Explain why for most reactions the rate of reaction decreases with time.(1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Suggest an explanation why the rate of reaction in an explosion could increase
rather than decrease with time. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) A student compared the rates of reaction of three metal Hydrogen carbonates. She
measured the volume of gas released using the apparatus shown.

State one thing that must be kept constant if the rates of the three reactions are to be
compared in a fair way. (1 mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) The graph shows the volume of carbon (IV) oxide released when the three metal
Hydrogen carbonates were heated.

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(i)Which carbonate produced carbon (IV) oxide at the highest rate? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)What volume of carbon (IV) oxide was produced by Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate in
twelve minutes? (1 mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Carbon (II) oxide and hydrogen are used in the manufacture of methanol (CH3OH).
The reaction is reversible and can reach a position of dynamic equilibrium.

CO(g) + 2H2 (g) ⇌ CH3 OH(g) ΔH = –91 kJ/mol

The reaction is carried out at a pressure of about 100 atmospheres and a temperature of
2500C.
(a) State one feature of a reaction that is in dynamic equilibrium. (1mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)(i)How would a decrease in temperature at constant pressure affect the amount of
methanol in the equilibrium mixture? Explain your answer (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)How would an increase in pressure at constant temperature affect the amount of
methanol in the equilibrium mixture? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Study the flow charts below and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify process B. (1 mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give two optimum conditions required in the process named above. (2 mks)

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78
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Explain why the ore is crushed. (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Which process occurs in the mixing chamber?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) Explain use of the following: (2 mks)
(i) Water
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) oil
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(f) Write the equation for the formation of slag (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(g) Identify the cations present where the metal is being purified (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(h) Give a reason for the following use of the above metal.
I. Making electrical wires (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Making soldering wires (1 mk)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(i) Give two environment effects of the above process. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. a) Phosphorus trichloride reacts with water to form two acids.
(i) One of the acid is H3PO3, Calculate the oxidation state of Phosphorus in the acid and
hence give the IUPAC name for the acid [2marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Describe how you could show that the other acid is a weaker acid than hydrochloric
acid. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Two salts of phosphoric acid are its sodium salt, which is soluble in water, and its
calcium salt which is insoluble in water. Suggest a method of preparation for each of
these salts from aqueous phosphoric acid. (2mks)

sodium salt
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Calcium salt
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) The formulae of insoluble compounds can be found by precipitation reactions. To 12.0
cm3 of an aqueous solution of the nitrate of metal T was added 2.0 cm3 of aqueous sodium
phosphate, Na3PO4. The concentration of both solutions was 1M. When the precipitate had
settled, its height was measured.

The experiment was repeated using different volumes of the phosphate solution. The
results are shown on the following graph.

(i)What is the formula of the phosphate of metal T? Give your reasoning. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) The following apparatus was set up to investigate the electrical conductivity of dilute
acids

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If it was replaced by a weak acid, what two differences in the observations would you
expect to make (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Explain the following observation. A certain Chloride dissolves in water to form an
electrolyte while the same chloride dissolves in methylbenzene to form a non-
electrolyte. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. (a) Name the following compounds (2mks)

(i) CH3OHCH2
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.

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(i) State the conditions necessary for fermentation of glucose to take place. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)State one reagent that can be used to carry out process S. (1 mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Identify the substances (2 mks)
P
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
T.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Write an equation for the reaction resulting to formation of substance M.
(1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(v) How sodium hydroxide is kept dry during the reaction. (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(vi) Give one commercial use of process R. (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c)Describe a chemical test to distinguish between the compounds represented by
formula CnH2n+2 and CnH2n (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) State one use of ethanol other than as an alcoholic drink. (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

233/3
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 3(PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2 HRS 15 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
 Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided.
 Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper
 You are NOT allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of
the 2¼ hours allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you to read the question paper and
make sure you have all the chemicals and apparatus required.
 ALL working MUST be clearly shown where necessary
 Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
 Write your answers in ENGLISH

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.


Question Maximum Score Score
1 21
2 12
3 07
Total Score 40

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1. You are provided with:
 4.5g of solid A in a boiling tube.
 Solution B, 0.06M acidified potassium manganate (VII).
You are required to determine:
1.The solubility of solid A at different temperature.
2.The number of moles of water of crystallization in solid A.
Procedure
(a)Using a burette, add 4cm3 of distilled water to solid A in the boiling tube.
Heat the mixture while stirring with the thermometer to about 700C. When
all the solid has dissolved, allow the solution to cool while stirring with the
thermometer. Note the temperature at which crystals of solid A first appear.
Record this temperature in table 1.
(b)Using the burette, add 2cm3 of distilled water to the contents of the boiling
tube. Warm the mixture while stirring with the thermometer until all the
solid dissolves. Allow the mixture to cool while stirring. Note and record the
temperature at which crystals of solid A first appear.
(c)Repeat the procedure (b) two more times and record the temperature in
table 1. Retain the contents of the boiling tube for use in procedure (e).
(d)(i)Complete table 1 by calculating the solubility of solid A at the different
temperatures. The solubility of a substance is the mass of that
substance that dissolves in 100cm3 (100g) of water at a particular
temperature.
Table 1

Volume of water in the Temperature at which Solubility of solid A


boiling tube (cm3) crystals of solid A first (g/100g water)
appear (0C)
4

10

(6 marks)

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(ii)On the grid provided, plot a graph of the solubility of solid A (vertical
axis) against temperature. (3 marks)

(iii).Using your graph, determine the temperature at which 100g of solid A


would dissolve in 100cm3 of water. (1 mark)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e)(i)Transfer the contents of the boiling tube into a 250ml volumetric
flask. Rinse both the boiling tube and the thermometer with distilled
water and add to the volumetric flask. Add more distilled water to
make up to the mark. Label this solution A. Fill a burette with
solution B. Using a pipette and a pipette filter, place 25.0cm3 of
solution A into a conical flask. Warm the mixture to about 600C.
Titrate the hot solution A with solution B until a permanent pink
colour persists. Record your readings in table 2. Repeat the titration
two more times and complete the table 2.
(Retain the remaining solution B for use in question b(i).
Table 2
I II II

Final burette reading (cm3)


Initial burette reading (cm3)
Volume of solution A used (cm3)

(4 marks)
(ii)Calculate the:
I. the average volume of solution B used. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Number of moles of potassium manganite (VII) used. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
III.Number of moles of A in 25cm3 of solution A given that 2 moles
of potassium manganite (VII) react completely with 5 moles of
A. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
IV.Relative formula mass of A. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii)The formula of A has the form D.xH2O. Determine the value of x in the
formula given that the relative formula mass of D is 90.0 and atomic
masses of oxygen and hydrogen are 16.0 and 1.0 respectively.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2.You are provided with solid P. Carry out the following tests and write your observations and
inferences in the spaces provided.
(a)Place about one-half of solid P in a clean dry test-tube. Heat it strongly and
test any gas produced using the litmus papers provided.

Observations Inferences.

(1 mark) (1 mark)

b)Place the rest of solid P into a clean boiling tube and add about 10cm3 of
distilled water. Shake thoroughly. Divide the solution into 5 portions for use
in the tests below.
(i)To about 2cm3 of the solution, add sodium hydroxide dropwise until
in excess.

Observations Inferences.

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(1 mark) (1 mark)

(ii)To the next 2cm3 of the solution, add few drops of hydrochloric acid.

Observations Inferences.

(1 mark) (1 mark)

(iii)Dip a clean glass rod into the solution and put the wet rod on non-
luminous flame

Observations Inferences.

(1 mark) (1 mark)

(iv)To the 3rd portion add three drops of barium nitrate solution, followed
by 2cm3 of 2M nitric acid solution.
Observations Inferences.

(1 mark) (1 mark)

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(v)To the 4th portion add three drops of acidified potassium dichromate
(VI) solution

Observations Inferences.

(1 mark) (1 mark)

3. You are provided with solid J. Carry out the tests below. Record your observations
and inferences in the spaces provided.

(a)Place a half of solid J in a clean metallic spatula and ignite it on Bunsen


burner flame.

Observation Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)
(b)To the remaining portion of J, add about 8cm³ of water and divide into three
portions.

Observation Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

(c)To a 2cm³ portion of solution J in a test-tube add 2 drops of acidified potassium


dichromate (VI) warm the solution gently and allow it to stand for one minute.

Observation Inferences

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(1 mark) (1 mark)

(d)To a 2cm³ portion of solution J in a test-tube add a spatula end full of sodium
hydrogen carbonate.

Observation Inferences

(½ mark) (½ mark)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

451/1
COMPUTER
PAPER 1(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. This paper consists of TWO sections; A and B
2. Answer all questions in sections A.
3. Answer question 16 and any other THREE questions from section B.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY


SECTION QUESTION ACTUAL SCORE

A 1 – 15

16

B
17

18

19

20

TOTAL MARKS
100

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SECTION A (40 MARKS)
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

1. State One technological difference between third generation and fifth generation of
computers. (1 Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. When buying computer software, one can buy either single purpose or integrated software,
state Two advantages of using integrated software. (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. a) Describe interrupt handling as used in operating system. (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Differentiate between single user and multiuser operating system. (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. a) List four examples of word processor software (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) List Two types of files in mail-merging (1Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Describe the following as used in windows operating system (4 Marks)
i. Disk formatting

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Disk partitioning

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Differentiate between workbook and worksheet (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. The worksheet below contains information on student’s shopping list. Use it to answer the
questions that follows.

A B C D
1 Item description No. of items Cost per item Total cost

2 Books 10 50 500

3 Calculators 2 500 1000

4 Soap 3 200 600

5 Sugar 2 180 360

6 Pens 5 40 200

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i. Write a formula to get the number of items bought which are greater or equal to 5.
(2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Based on the cost of the items bought, write a formula that can be used to output the
comments based on the following details. (2 Marks)

Cost of item comment


>=500 Most expensive
>=400 Expensive
<400 Moderate

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Application software includes programs like word processor, spreadsheet, desktop
publishing and database. Each of the packages has unique features. List Two database
objects used when manipulating a database. (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. Differentiate between One to One and One to Many relationships as used in databases(2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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10. a) List Four types of publications that can be designed using desktop publishing program.
(2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Distinguish between tracking and kerning (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Apart from internet service provider, state any other Two internet connectivity requirements
needed by form four students to enable them do online assessment examination. (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Distinguish between Cc and Bcc as used in e-mail (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. State Two disadvantages of using an e-mail (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. Distinguish between insert mode and type over mode as used in data entry. (2 Marks)

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15. Explain the following types of computer crimes: (4 Marks)
i. Piracy

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ii. Fraud

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SECTION B (60 MARKS)
Answer question 16 and any other THREE questions from this section B
16. (a) Differentiate between source code and object code as used in programming.
(2 Marks)

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(b) Define the following types of errors. (2 Marks)
i. Syntax errors

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ii. Logical errors

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c) To qualify for a national ID, an applicant must be 18 yrs or above. 50 citizens applied
for the ID. Draw a flowchart that would read the name and age of an applicant and
display the names of those who qualify for the ID. An applicant who will not qualify
should display the comment “under age “. (9 Marks)

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d) List Two control structures used in your flowchart (2 Marks)

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17. a)Using four- bit two’s complement notation,perform the following arithmetic:(3 Marks)
i) 1012 - 1112

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ii) Convert the following decimal fraction to binary giving your answer in using 8-bit
notation.
43.12510 (3 Marks)

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b) i. State Three roles of a network administrator. (3 Marks)

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ii. When constructing a computer laboratory, it is advisable to ensure it meets all the
requirements for safety of users and the computers. State the effect of the following on
computers: (2 Marks)
a) Unstable power supply

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b) Rain water leaking through the roof (2 Mark)

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c) Victory school intends to buy a printer for producing school fees payment receipts for
parents in triplicates using carbon papers.
i. Which printer would one advice the school to buy? (1 Mark)

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ii. Give a reason for your answer. (1 Mark)

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18. a) Describe the following guides as used in desktop publishing (4 Marks)
i. Ruler guides

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ii. Margin guides

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b) State Four advantages of using a word processor over manual typewriter when
creating documents for use in a big organization. (4 Marks)

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c) State Four operations that may be performed on a file by an operating system.
(2 Marks)

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d) Describe the following types of cell referencing as used in spreadsheet: (4 Marks)
i. Absolute cell referencing

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ii. Relative cell referencing

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iii. Write the following acronyms in full: (1 Mark)
CMOS

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ASCII

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19. a) Explain three modes of data communication (3 Marks)
i. Simplex

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ii. Half duplex

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iii. Full duplex

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b) Describe the following terminologies used in data communication: (4 Marks)
i. Attenuation

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ii. Modulation

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c) State two advantages of star topology. (2 Marks)

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d) Files in storage devices can be organized serially, sequentially or randomly for ease of
access. State Three disadvantages of sequential file organization. (3 Marks)

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e) Explain the following terms as used in internet and e-mail: (3Marks)
i. Login

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ii. Sign up

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iii. Surf

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20. i) Differentiate between private and confidential data used in data security and control.
(4 Marks)

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ii) State Three signs of a computer infected with a virus. (3 Marks)

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iii)State Two functions of networking operating system other than providing network
security. (2 Marks)

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b) Explain the following internet services: (4 Marks)
i. E-commerce

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ii. E- learning

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c) Jane was printing a document but the printer did not produce any printout. Give Two
possible reasons for this. (2 Marks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

451/2
COMPUTER
PAPER 2(PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1. Write your Name, Admission Number, and Class in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided
3. Write your name and index number on the flash disk
4. Write the name and version of the software used for each question attempted in the
answer sheet
5. Passwords should not be used while saving your work
6. Answer all the questions
MARKING RUBRIC
SECTION MAXIMUM MARKS MARKS SCORED

Question 1 50

Question 2 50

TOTAL 100

Question 1
a)(i)Create a Folder and name it Mokasa2025 (1 Mark)
(ii)Using a word processor create the document below as it appears and save it MKS file. (13 Marks)

Electronic Data Management System

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lectronic files are used to store and organize data for ease of access and retrieval using a computer
E program. The two main types of electronic filing methods used are flat file and database systems.
Flat file system
Data is arranged in records and fields and there is no relationship between the records. Each line of text
holds one record, with fields being determined by the columns. A good exemple of flat file is the
type of database created in spreadsheets.
Database systems
A shared collection of logically related data designed to meet the information needs of an organization.
This is made possible by special programs called Database Managment Systems (DBMS). DBMS are
applications programs designed to create and manage databases on computers such as Ms Access,
SQL server, Oracle, FoxPro, Dbase IV, MySQL.
Main functions of DBMS software
✓ Allowing authorized users to add or delete records.
✓ Allowing users to update or modify existing records.
✓ Organizing files and records for ease of access, retrieval and sharing.
✓ Creating an interface between database files and other application programs.
✓ Ensuring security and integrity of data by safeguarding it against unauthorized access and
modification.
iii) Apply the following modifications and page settings to the document above.
Set the page as follows: (4 Marks)
• Paper size: A4
• Measurements: centimeters.
• Margins: 1.5 cm all round
• Font type: Segoe UI
(b)Spell check the document. (2 Marks)
(c)Apply the following formats in the newly created document.
(i) Apply hanging Indent to the second paragraph starting with “Data is arranged in record “by 0.6
cm”. (2 Marks)
(ii) Convert the text from the third paragraph starting with “A shared collection” into four columns of
the same width and height and a line between. (3 Marks)
(iii) Change the line spacing in paragraph four under the title Main functions to 3.5. (1 Mark)
(d) Format the subtitle “Flat file system” as follows: (2 Marks)
➢ Apply word art gradient fill-blue accent 1, reflection
➢ Apply pattern fill 25% to the word art shape

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(e) Apply the following format to the entire document;
i. Insert watermark with your first name, font size 26, running horizontally from left to right.
Apply orange accent 2, 50% darker color. (4 Marks)
ii. Insert page numbering at the bottom left , use format type triangle 1. (1 Mark)
iii. Insert the name of your school as the header aligned to the center. (2 Marks)
iv. Replace the word SQL with the word Standard Query Language (1 Mark)
v. Insert an endnote to state what the initials DBMS stands for in the document. (2 Marks)
vi. Insert a page border with the following specifications to the first page only. (2 Marks)
➢ Setting – Box
➢ Style – Dotted
➢ Colour – Red
3
➢ Width – points
2

(f) Insert a page break at the end of the document created such that the new section below starts on a new
page. (1 Mark)
(g) The table below shows various trends in Market dominance for the products listed A, B, C, D and E
between the year 2023 and 2025 in percentage. Create the table below in the new section and answer the
questions below.

PRODUCT Year 2023 Year 2024 Year 2025


A 60.48 90.90 92.67
B 18.49 89.00 87.00
C 6.70 17.89 33.00
D 5.00 11.09 65.00
E 10.20 18.90 47.89
i. Insert a clustered column chart in the new section to represent the information shown in the
table. Rename the title of the chart as “Market Dominance”. (3 Marks)
ii. Indent the table by 3.2” to the left-hand side (1 Mark)
iii. Apply a grey background of type Grid Table 4 style to the area created in (I) above. (1 Mark)
iv. Insert the caption “trends in Market dominance 2023-2025”. (1 Mark)
v. Save the document as MKSChart (1 Mark)
vi. Print MKSchart on both sides (1 Mark)

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Question 2
2. Table1 and table 2 are extracts of records kept by a MOKASA school of students joining
form one on a scholarship programme in MOKASA County.
(a) (i) Using a database application package, create a database file named BURSARY.
(1 mark)
(ii) Create three tables: STUDENT and FEE PAYMENT table in the database file
created above using the given data types and field properties in the respective tables.
(12 marks)
STUDENTS TABLE
Field name Data types and properties

Student Number Text (Size = 8, Required = Yes )

Student Names Text (Size = 25)

Gender Text (Look up values, Male, Female)

Date Of Birth Date and time, Format = Short Date)

Class Text (Size = 2) Look up values, 1N, 1S, 1W,1R

Primary School Name Text (Size = 30)

FEE PAYMENT TABLE

Field name Data types and properties

Payment ID Text (Size = 8, Required = Yes )

Payment Date Date and time, Format = Medium Date)

Student Number Text (Size = 8

Sponsor ID Text (Size = 8)

Scholarship Type Text (Size = 15, Required = Yes)

Sponsor Name Text (Size = 25

(iii) Set the primary key for each table. (2 marks)


(b) Create the relationships among the tables and enforce referential integrity. (2 marks)
(c) Enter the data in their respective tables below. (12 marks)

STUDENT TABLE
Student Number Student Name Gender Date of Birth Class Primary School

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St-120 John Mulika Female 14/08/2002 1N Mema

St-121 Silas Maru Male 04/03/2003 IS Lawina

St-122 James Wasike Male 24/08/2005 1W Freetown

St-123 Lena Abdi Female 19/05/2004 1R Township

FEE PAYMENT TABLE


Payment ID Payment Dates Student Number Scholarship Type Sponsor Name

100 7th March 2024 St-120 Full CDF


200 18th March 2024 St-123 Quarter COUNTY
rd
300 23 March 2024 St-121 Partial CDF
400 7th March 2024 St-120 Full NGAAF
th
500 17 March 2024 St-121 Partial COUNTY
600 7th March 2024 St-122 Full KCB
th
700 7 March 2024 St-123 Quarter NGAAF
800 27th March 2024 St-121 Partial COUNTY
th
900 7 March 2024 St-122 Full KCB
st
1000 21 March 2024 St-123 Partial NGAAF
(d)Modify the Fee Payment Table so as to capture the amount of money received by the school
from respective sponsors on different dates for each student. (4 marks)

Sponsor Name Amount Per Sponsor

KCB 38000.00

COUNTY 30000.00

CDF 25500.00

NGAAF 20300.00

(e) Create a query to display each of the following:


(i) Student Number, Student name, class, primary school, gender, sponsorand Date of
Birth. (2 marks)
I. compute the students age. (1 mark)

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II. Save query as STD AGE (1 mark)
(ii) Student name, primary school, gender, amount paid per sponsor, Payment Dates,
sponsor Name and scholarship type. (2 marks)
I. Compute total amount of money the school received . (1 mark)
II. Save query as SPONSOR AMT. (1 mark)
(iii) Student name, primary school, gender, sponsor, amount per sponsor, Payment Dates
and scholarship type. (2 marks)
I. Show list of students sponsored by NGAAF only. (1 mark)
II. Save query as NGAAF. (1 mark)
(f) Using SPONSOR AMT query, in (d)(ii) above. (2 marks)
(i) Group records per sponsor. (1 mark)
(ii) Title the report as “BURSARY 2024 REPORT”. (1 mark)
(iii)Save the report as SPONSOR REPORT. (1 mark)
(g) Print the following: (3 marks)
 Table: STUDENT TABLE and FEE PAYMENT TABLE
 Query: STD AGE and NGAAF
 Report: SPONSOR REPORT.

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

313/1
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 1(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 This paper consists of six questions
 Answer any five questions in the answer sheets provided
 Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are
printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY


QUESTIONS 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

SCORE

1a.)Give eight reasons why the Bible is considered as the word of God. (8 marks)
b.)State six causes of evil in Traditional African Communities. (6marks)
c.) Explain how the learning of Christian Religious Education in secondary schools promotes the
goal of national development. (6 marks)

2 a) Describe the covenant ceremony between God and Abraham in Genesis 15:1-19. (8 marks)
b) Outline how the early life of Moses prepared him for his future task (6 marks)
c) List six examples of covenants made in Kenya today. (6marks)

3 a) State seven roles of Samuel as judge in Israel. (7marks)


b) Outline seven ways in which Jeroboam promoted idolatry in Israel. (7 marks)

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c) Mention six reasons why Christians build churches today. (6marks)

4a.) State six categories of true prophets in the Old Testament. (6marks)
b.) Identify seven ways in which the rich oppressed the poor during the time of Amos. (7marks)
c.) How is the church promoting social justice today? (7marks)

5a) State six symbolic acts related to judgement and punishment by Jeremiah. (6 marks)
b) Identify seven occasions when Nehemiah prayed. (7 marks)
c) Outline seven ways in which religious leaders communicate God’s message to the people today.
(7 marks)
6a) State seven attributes of God according to Traditional African communities. (7marks).
b) Outline seven rituals performed during death in Traditional African Communities. (7marks).
c) State the changes related to land ownership in Kenya today. (6 marks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 2(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HRS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Answer ANY FIVE questions
2. Answers should be in the spaces provided
3. Each student must verify that all the pages and questions are present before beginning the
examination
4. Write your name, class and admission number

MARKS

X/100
MARKS

1. (a)Outline Nathan’s prophecy in relation to Messiah (Samuel 7:3-17) (7 marks)


(b)Describe the temptation of Jesus in the wilderness Luke 4:1-13 (7 marks)
(c)Give six ways in which Christians should respond to childlessness in Kenya today
(6marks)

2. (a)Relate the healing of paralytic man (Luke 5:18-26) (8marks)


(b)State six reasons why Jesus used parables in his teachings (6 marks)
(c)Give six ways through which the church continues with the healing ministry of Jesus
Christ. (6marks)

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3. (a)Describe the parable of the widow and the unjust judge.(Luke 18:1-8) (7 marks)
(b)Outline lessons that Christians learn from the incident when Jesus went to pray with
his disciples on the Mount of Olives. (6 marks)
(c)Give reasons why the resurrection of Jesus is important to Christians. (7 marks)

4. (a)State the teachings of St Paul on the proper use of the gifts of the Holy Spirit in the
church (7 marks)
(b)Describe the unity of believers based on the body of Christ. (7 marks)
(c)How are the gifts of the Holy Spirit misused in the church today? (6 marks)

5. (a)Outline seven Christian teachings on marriage (7marks).


(b)State the challenges that children from single parent families face (6marks).
(c)Identify seven factors leading to intermarriages in Kenya today (7marks).

6. (a)Mention seven ways in which wealth is acquired in Traditional African communities


(7marks)
(b)Outline six teachings of Jesus on wealth . (6marks).
(c) State seven reasons why Christians condemn bribery and corruption in society today
(7marks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

ENGLISH
PAPER 1(FUNCTIONAL SKILLS)
TIME: 2 HRS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTION:
 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE

Question Maximum Score Candidates Score

1. Functional Writing 20

2. Cloze Test 10

3. Oral Skills 30

Total score

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116
QUESTION 1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20MKS)
The drama club in your school is organizing to stage The Samaritan by John Lara. The Principal
has allowed you to go ahead with the event as a Club’s Income Generating Activity. As the
Secretary of Drama Club:
a) Write an internal memo to club officials inviting them to a meeting to plan for the event.
(8marks)

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Write a synopsis of the play The Samaritan for the sake of those who have not read it for t(b)
hem to familiarize with it before the presentation. (8marks)

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QUESTION 2. CLOZE TEST (10MKS)


Fill each of the blank spaces in the passage below with the MOST appropriate word.
Honesty (1) …………………an important role in everyone’s life and it is a character which is
visible with open eyes (2) …………………… an open book. Being considered a
(3) ………………………
person by society is one of the best compliment one can dream (4)…………….……… in their
entire life. It is the real character a person earns in life by (5)……………………… sincere and
dedicated towards it. Honesty is a practice (6) …………………is built slowly and patiently,
firstly at (7) ……………………… and then school. For this reason, home and school are the
best places for a child to develop honesty. Thus, the (8) _________________system should

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ensure the child is kept close to morality. The future of any country in the world (9)
………………………on youth, so (10) ………………………be given better opportunities to
develop moral character and lead their country in a better way.

QUESTION 3. ORAL SKILLS (3OMARKS)


a) Read the poem below and respond to the questions that follow.
SHE WALKS IN BEAUTY

She walks in beauty, like the night


Of cloudless climes and starry skies;
And all that’s best of dark and bright
Meet in her aspect and her eyes;
Thus mellowed to that tender light
Which heaven to gaudy day denies.

One shade the more, one ray the less,


Had half impaired the nameless grace
Which waves in every raven tress,
Or softly lightens o’er her face;
Where thoughts serenely sweet express,
How pure, how dear their dwelling place.

And on that cheek, and o’er that brow,


So soft, so calm, yet eloquent
The smiles that win, the tints that glow.
But tell of days in goodness spent,
A mind of peace with all below,
A heart whose love is innocent!

(i) Describe the rhyme scheme of the poem. (2marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)Identify and illustrate any two devices that make the poem musical. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(ii) How would you effectively recite line 1 stanza 3 of this poem? (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Pick any four pairs of words that are pronounced the same. (3marks)
plain mourn plane mad berry
mud burrow cat bred cut
bury you pool ewe pull
father fool farther bread moan
full sea further see
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) The words in bold indicate the stressed words in the sentences below. Briefly explain what
each sentence means. (3marks)
i) The lady in a red dress lost her purse.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) The lady in a red dress lost her purse.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) The lady in a red dress lost her purse.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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d) Read the following conversation between Jane and a trader and answer the questions that
follow;
Jane : (Looking at phones on display) Good morning.
Trader: What do you want?
Jane : (Surprised) Er, I would like to buy a nice phone.
Trader: All phones on display here are fantastic. Which one of them do you want?
Jane : (Pointing) This one looks great; how much is it?
Trader: Twenty thousand shillings only.
Jane : Goodness, you can’t be serious! You are extremely expensive.
Trader: Then find another shop.
Jane : Um, what about a discount, please I am serious about buying a phone.
Trader: (Uninterested) Really?
Jane : (Exiting) I am sorry to have bothered you.
Trader: (Cursing) Get out of here before I shout that you are a thief!
(i) Give two illustrations to show that Jane is polite. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Outline any two poor conversational skills evident the dialogue above. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) In your own words, rewrite any three responses by the Trader to demonstrate good
negotiation skills. (3marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Assume you are preparing to attend a job interview.
(i) How would you groom properly so as to create an impression? (4marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) After the interview, you get feedback that you have not been successful. Mention some of
the reasons that may have contributed to your failure. (4marks)

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f) Consider the riddling session below and answer the questions that follow:
Challenger: I have a riddle. Are you ready for it?
Audience: Yes, give us the challenge.
Challenger: I have a wife who never returns to where she came from
Audience: The leaf of a tree.
Describe the riddling process as brought out in the genre above. (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

ENGLISH
PAPER 2
(COMPREHENSION, LITERARY APPRECIATION AND GRAMMAR)
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
i) Write your name, school, and admission number in the spaces provided.
ii) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided in this paper.
iii) This paper has 10 printed pages. Ensure all the pages are there before you answer any
question.
iv) Answer all questions in English
v) Use BLUE ink to answer your questions.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S SCORE
SCORE

1 20

2 25

3 20

4 15

TOTAL 80

1. Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow(20 marks)
The United Nations (UN) defines youth as those between age 15 and 24 per the African Youth
charter the bracket stretches to age 35. Estimates place upwards of 70 percent of Africa’s

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population at age thirty per cent of Africa’s population at age of thirty under. These figures are
often ban died about. But even a cursory reflection on the implications is pretty sobering.
As a child of the mid 70s and an idealist, when I reflect on the unhopeful state of the world and
society I am struck by just how much grimmer the prospects are for the youth –especially in our
part of the world. Inevitably worse for those that do not belong to the privileged minority classes.
In a world with plentiful such reality is discomfiting to say the least.
Yet discomfiture is not something that a society and peoples that are mostly numbered and soulless
care to feel. Too many hitherto abnormal things are now normalized and condoned even celebrated.
Such are the times we live in. For most life’s essence to experience a dignified human existence
is elusive, constantly threatened, devalued and denied.
First, we have endured being ruled by mostly visionless predominantly older generations of
patriarchs that did not get into public life to serve but to reign. After the initial ‘windfall’ of
development strides in the immediate post-independence period the hallmark of our childhood was
living through the worst of austerity programs of the 1980s/90s – which coincided with a pivotal
life phase requiring essential investments to secure quality of life. Austerity translated for the
majority into, low quality education, lack or limited access to living and sanitary conditions, grim
employment prospects and so on. The imprint of austerity is a lifelong legacy of deprivation and
inequities, lives prematurely nipped in the bud and unimaginable foregone possibilities. We bore
the brunt of the HIV pandemic (before lifesaving antiretrovirals arrived on scene courtesy of
determined struggles calling out greedy multinational pharmaceuticals and uncaring governments
to shame.)
Secondly, for about half of the populace who are female, the pervasiveness of patriarchy means
that no matter how much you defy odds in a quest to excel, you remain effectively relegated and
suppressed into the lesser human. This manifests in both the public and private spheres of life.
Thirdly, if you invested your youth in the struggles for human dignity and a better society, it is
humbling to watch the fruits of those struggles constantly reneged upon and undermined.
Seems to me that seizing control of agenda setting and governance (plus leadership) is non-
negotiable. Youth must take this on as a fight to secure needs, interests and survival. They have to
essentially seize their destiny in their own hands – no matter the counter forces. They have no
choice because their actual lives and semblance of survival depend on it. It cannot be normalized
that those living on borrowed time are allowed to essentially rob the youth of their lives and future.
I say this based on my active footprint (during my youth no less) on the costly (in terms of lives
lost in that struggle) but totally worthwhile journey that delivered Kenya’s revolutionary and
dignity affirming constitution. It is no wonder this governance road map remains under-
implemented and much fought.
In exercising the right to active citizenship, youth must leverage all they can – available tech in its
many facets and possibilities; out of the box thinking, tapping into the disposition of being
unshackled by properness, conformity or shame – to forge broad and formidable alliances across
class, gender and other identities – to speak and act truth to power. It is to be unbowed and fearless
for they have nothing to lose. Without a doubt. Passively waiting for saviours is not an option. For
there are none but yourselves.

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Questions
i) What does the writer’s use of the expression “bandied about” reveal about his/her attitude
towards the statistics on youth population? (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Comment on the irony revealed in paragraph 3. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Why is the word ‘windfall’ put in quotation marks? (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) What were the consequences of the austerity advocated for in the 1980s/90s for the
majority? (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

v) In about 50 words, summarize the three challenges that face our society today.(3 marks)

Rough draft

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Fine copy

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vi) According to the writer, what do the youth need to do to secure their future? (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

vii) Describe the tone of the writer as revealed in the passage? (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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viii) Rewrite the sentence below as instructed (1 mark)
“It is no wonder this governance road map remains under-implemented and much fought.”
(Rewrite beginning: Is it….)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

ix) What do the following words and expressions mean as used in the passage? (3 marks)
a) implications

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) manifests

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) out of the box thinking

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Read the excerpt below and then answer the questions that follow (25marks)
Bembe: (Interrupting Nicole) The matter of The Samaritan is weighty. It can destroy lives.it is
threatening the lives of many powerful people. They are fighting back and they will destroy
your life. I am giving you a chance to secure your life. I am an officer whose duty is to
protect lives. Just do what the Mayor told you. You should never fight a losing battle.
Nicole: (Firmly) I have made a choice to do what is right. That is not negotiable. And besides, I
have no control over the App. The National Information and Communications Technology
Corporation is now in charge of that App.
Bembe: (Interrupting Nicole)I understand that to mean you are ready for a fight. And to get us
started, are you aware that the signal of your phone was at one time located at the scene of
murder?
Nicole: (In horror and rising to her feet) That`s preposterous! (Moves towards the door) I need
to see the Principal now!
Bembe: (Blocking the way) And what about last night?

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Nicole: What?
Bembe: The school generator.
Nicole: School generator? What about it?
Bembe: Who sold it?
Nicole: That is ridiculous!
Bembe: I thought so, too.
Nicole: (Trying to find a way past Inspector Bembe) I have nothing to do with the school
generator!
Bembe: (Blocking her every move) The generator has been stolen, and you and I know who
stole it!
Nicole: Listen, Mr. Officer, do not try to fabricate anything against me. It will get you nowhere.
And if you insist, this will become the darkest day in your career!
Bembe: What? Are you threatening a police officer?
Nicole: (With a sharp and firm voice) You must not break the law by accusing me of crimes I
have not committed!
Bembe: You`re just confirming some of the other accusations that have been made against you.
Nicole: Which allegations?
Bembe: You have a reputation for being too strong-willed to be suitable for a school teacher.
You`re as stubborn as a mule.
Nicole: What crime is that?
Bembe: Well, it is not a crime as such; but don`t you think it is a bad influence to the students?
(Bangs the table violently and shouts an order. Two police officers enter.) Handcuff her! (There is
a commotion as the officers reach out to Nicole. She resists but is overpowered. There is
an interval of silence as Bembe begins to rummage through papers on Nicole`s table.
Nicole refuses to move and sits down on the floor. The officers drag her on the floor) Stop.
(The officers stop. There is silence Then Bembe moves behind Nicole`s table and starts
pulling the drawers open, one after the other, removing and throwing papers all over the
floor.) Where have you hidden it?
Nicole: Hidden What?
Bembe: The Samaritan! (Nicole is visibly surprised at the answer but remains silent.) I will tell
you this, whenever you see me personally involved in an arrest, you must know it`s a serious
matter, as serious as death. And you should be afraid. Very afraid!
Nicole: I am not guilty of anything, and I refuse to be intimidated!
Bembe: (Inspector Bembe bangs the table violently with his gun. Nicole recoils with a start.)
Woman! Show some seriousness! This is no laughing matter. Are you willing to talk?
Nicole: About what? (There is silence as Inspector Bembe wears his beret and places his
scepter under his armpit.)

1. Briefly explain what Nicole was told to do by the Mayor. (3marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Summarize the circumstances that makes Bembe interrupt Nicole at the beginning of the
excerpt (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Describe the following characters as seen in the excerpt (4marks)


i) Bembe
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Nicole
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Describe the mood portrayed in the excerpt. (3 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. From your knowledge of the text, explain how the Samaritan works (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6. Identify and state the effectiveness of two styles used in the excerpt. (4 marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. Identify and illustrate one theme from the excerpt. (2 marks)


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8. You cannot fabricate crimes against me! (Begin: Crimes …) (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Explain the meaning as used in the excerpt. (2 marks)


i) a losing battle
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) prepositions
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Read the narrative below and then answer the questions that follow (20 marks )
An aging king realized that if he died he had no one to take over his throne. He decided to
adopt a son. He launched a competition and ten boys made it to the top. The king said to them, “I
have one last test and whoever comes top will become my adopted son and heir to my throne.”
He gave each boy a maize seed and told them to take the seed home, plant and nature it for
three weeks. Then ten boys took their seeds and ran home to plant. In one home, the boy and his
parents were sad when the seed failed to sprout. The boy had done everything but in vain. His

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friends advised him to buy another maize seed and plant but since his parents had taught him good
morals and honesty, he refused. The day came and the ten boys went to the palace. Nine of the
boys were successful.
The king went round to each boy asking, “Is that what came out of the seed I gave you?”
And each boy said, “Yes your majesty.” The king would nod and move down the line until the last
boy in the line who was shaking with fear. The king asked him, “What did you do with the seed I
gave you?” the boy said, “I planted and cared for it but it failed to sprout.”
The king went to the throne with the boy and said, “I gave these boys boiled seeds and a boiled
seed cannot sprout. If a king must have one quality, it must be honesty and only this boy has passed
the test.”

1. Identify and illustrate any two themes brought out in this narrative. (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Discuss two roles of the king in this narrative. (4 marks)


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3. Discuss one moral lesson we learn from this narrative. (2 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Identify any three social- economic or political organization of the people from which this
narrative is taken. (3 marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. Discuss two instances of irony in this narrative. (4marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6. Describe the character trait of the king. (2marks)


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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. a) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given. Do not change the
meaning. (4 marks)
a) You should not feed wild animals at the game park. (Rewrite beginning: Under….)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) If they had not paid my school fees, I would have gone home yesterday. (Rewrite beginning:
If my school fees….)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) “We cannot wait any longer because the patient needs immediate treatment.” the doctor said.
(Rewrite in reported speech.)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) The topic on verbs follows the one on nouns. (Begin: After….)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate linking words from those provided below.
4 marks.
immediately finally further
at first meanwhile secondly

We sat in the sitting room waiting. We were (i) …………………… scared because we did not
know what kind of person our mother’s friend would be. (ii) ……………… we looked at the
beautiful photographs on the wall without saying a word to each other. (iii)…………..…she
arrived and her warm motherly smile (iv) ………………………dissipated our fears.
c) Fill in the blanks with the correct word to complete the sentences below. 2 marks.

i) Neither the children nor their mother …………………at the wedding ceremony. (was/were)
ii) Of the two brands of perfume on offer, this one smells ……………………… (better/ best)
d) Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in brackets. (3 marks)

i) The ………………………………. (spectacle) man looked very disturbed.

ii) Pouring water on steel nails is likely to ……………………………… (active) rusting.

iii) Your ……………………………… (hostile) will take you nowhere.

e) Punctuate the following sentences. (2marks)


i) Only one problem was yet to be solved transport to the stadium
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) His brother john was finally going to graduate that week
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

ENGLISH
PAPER 3
(CREATIVE COMPOSITION AND ESSAYS BASED ON SET TEXTS)
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS
 Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided
 Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided
 Question 1 and 2 are compulsory
 In question 3 choose the set text you have prepared on.
 None of your composition should exceed 450 words.
 Candidates must answer all questions in English
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
Question Maximum Student’s Examiner’s initials
Score Score

1 20

2 20

3 20

Total 60

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Answer three questions only
1. Imaginative composition. (Compulsory) (20 marks)
Either
a) Write a composition beginning with the following words:
“I was extremely nervous as I stood before the crowd who had come to witness
everything…”
Or
b) Technology has brought about positive effects among the youth. Write a
composition in support of the above statement

2. Compulsory set text. (20 marks)


Paul B. Vitta: Fathers of Nations
Individuals’ tribulations in a country are usually caused by inept leadership. With clear
illustrations from Paul B. Vitta’s Fathers of Nations, write a composition to validate this
statement.
3. Optional Set Text. (20 marks)
a) ‘‘People with disabilities often face significant challenges in their daily lives.’’
Validate this statement drawing illustrations from A Silent Song by Leonard
Kibera. (20 Marks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HRS 45 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTION TO STUDENTS.
a. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.
b. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
c. This paper has two sections A and B.
d. Answer ALL the questions in section A.
e. Answer question 6 and any other TWO questions from section B.
f. Answers must be written in the spaces provided at the end of question 10.
g. This paper consists of 9 printed pages.
h. Candidates should ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated.
i. Candidates should answer the questions in English.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.
QUESTION MARKS STUDENTS SCORE

1-5 25

6 25

7 25

8 25

9 25

10 25

TOTAL SCORE

SECTION A

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Answer All Questions In This Section.
1. (a) Name two branches of geography. (2 marks)
(b) State three reasons why it is important to study geography. (3 marks)
2. Study the diagram of the internal structure of the earth provided and answer the questions that
follow.

(i) Identify the layers marked X and Y. (2 marks)


(ii) State three characteristics of the crust. (3 marks)
3. (a) Name two earthquake zones in the world. (2 marks)
(b) State three natural causes of earthquakes. (3 marks)
4. The diagram below shows the vegetation zones on a mountain slope.
(i) Identify the zone marked X. (1 marks)

(ii) State four characteristics of tropical rain forest. (4 marks)

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5. (a) Give two types of coastal deltas. (2 marks)
(b) State three conditions necessary for the formation of a delta. (3 marks)

SECTION B
Answer Questions 6 And Any Other Two Questions.
6.(a) Study the map of Tambach 1:50 000 (sheet 90/3) provided and answer the Following
questions.
(i) Name three human features found in grid square 8260. (3 marks)
(ii) Measure the length of all-weather road loose surface C 51from the junction
near the mining camp to the southern edge of the map. Give your answer in
Kilometers. (2 marks)
(iii) Convert the map scale into a statement scale? (2 marks)
(iv) Give two ways through which relief has been represented in the area covered by
the map. (2 marks)
(b) Draw a square 15cm by 10cm to represent the area enclosed by easting 78
and 95 and northing 60 and 70. (1 mark)
On it mark and label the following features.
(i) River Kerio. (1 mark)
(ii) Lake Kamnorok. (1 mark)
(iii) Seasonal swamp. (1 mark)
(iv)Tambach Municipality (1 mark)
(c) (i) Describe the drainage of the area covered by the map. (6 marks)
(ii) Citing evidence from the map, state five functions of Tambach town. (5 marks)

7. (a).Differentiate between minerals and rocks. (2 Marks)


(b)(i). A part from igneous rocks, give two other types of rocks according to mode of
formation. (3 Marks)
(ii). Describe how extrusive igneous rocks are formed. (4 Marks)
(iii). State three characteristics of igneous rocks. (3 Marks)
(c)Explain three significance of rocks. (6 Marks)
(d).Form four students of Highland High school conducted a field study on rocks within their
school vicinity.
(i) State four ways on how they prepared for the field study. (4 Marks)
(ii) State three methods they used to collect statistical data. (3 Marks)
8. (a) (i) What is crustal earth movements? (2 marks)
(ii) Name two boundaries which occur on tectonic plate margins. (2 marks)
(b)(i) State three importance of studying the plate tectonics theory. (3 marks)
(ii) The map below shows global distribution of Fold Mountains. Name the
Fold Mountains marked P, Q, R and S. (4 marks)

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(c) Using well labelled diagrams, describe how Fold Mountains were formed (8 marks)
(d) Explain three effects of Fold Mountains on human activities. (6 marks)
9. (a) What is climate? (2 marks)
(b) Study the map of climatic regions of Kenya provided and answer the questions that
follow.

(i) Identify the climatic zone marked Y. (1 marks)


(ii) State four climatic characteristics of the zone marked Z. (5 marks)
(c) Explain two human factors that influence climate. (4 marks)
(i) Name three greenhouse gases. (3 marks)
(ii) Explain three measures of curbing climate change. (6 marks)
(iii) State four effects of climate change. (4 marks)

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10. (a)(i) Define the term Karst landscape. (2 Marks)
(ii). Name three surface features in limestone region. (3 Marks)
(b). The diagram below show underground features in a limestone area.

(i). Name the features marked X and W. (2 Marks)


(ii) Describe how the feature marked V is formed. (7 Marks)
(c). Give three reasons why there are few settlement in karst landscape. (3 Marks)
(d). Students of Sacho High school conducted a field study on karst landscape.
(i). State three activities they were involved in during the study. (3 Marks)
(iii) Prepare a working schedule for one day field study they would have used during the
study. (5 Marks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 2(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HRS 45 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS
 This paper has two sections A and B
 Answer ALL the questions in section A. In section B answer questions 6 and any other
TWO questions.

SECTION A: 25 MARKS
Answer ALL questions in this section
1.(a)What is human and economic Geography? (2 Marks)
(b) Name three areas studied under practical Geography. (3 Marks)
2.State five reasons why the government is encouraging Afforestation program. (5 Marks)
3.(a)Name two renewable sources of energy. (2 Marks)
(b)State three factors that limit the use of uranium as a source of energy. (3 Marks)
4.The diagram below shows the Rhur region of Germany.

Y
Y

(a)Name
(i)The river marked Y. (1 Mark )
(ii)The town marked W. (1 Mark)

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(b)State three factors that lead to the development of the Rhur region of Germany
in the 19TH century. (3 Marks)
5.State five reasons why the Government is encouraging domestic tourism. (5 Marks)

SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other TWO questions from this section.
6.The table below shows land use in country Y in 2022. Use it to answer questions (a).

Land use Area in ‘000 km2

Settlement 110
Grassland 30
Horticulture 50
Forest 10
Total 200

(a)(i)Draw a divided rectangle 10cm long graph to represent land use in


country Y. (6 marks)
(ii)State two disadvantages of presenting data using divided rectangle. (2 marks)
(b)(i)Define dairy farming. (2 marks)
(ii)Name two breeds of dairy cattle reared in Denmark. (2 marks)
(iii)Give two physical conditions that favour dairy farming in Denmark. (2 marks)
(c)Explain the measures being taken by the government of Kenya to promote dairy
farming. (6 marks)
(d)Give five ways in which dairy farming in Kenya is different from dairy farming in
Denmark. (5 marks)
7. (a) What is mining? (2 marks)
(b) The map bellow shows mineral distribution in east Africa. Study and use it to
answer the question that follow.
(i) Identify the minerals mined in the areas marked X, Y and Z. (3 marks)
(c)(i) Describe how the deep shaft mining method is carried out. (6 marks)
(ii) Explain three problems associated with deep shaft mining method. (6 marks)
(d) Explain four ways in which mining contributes to the economy of Kenya. (8 marks)
8. (a)(i)Name two counties to the east of Rift valley where coffee is grown on
large scale. (2 Marks)

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(ii) State four physical conditions favoring coffee farming in Kenya.
(4 Marks)
(b) (i)Describe coffee farming from harvesting to marketing. (7 Marks)
(ii)Explain three measures taken by the Kenyan Government to improve
coffee farming in Kenya. (6 Marks)
(c) (i)Name two areas in Brazil where coffee is grown. (2 Marks)
(ii)State four differences between coffee farming in Kenya and Brazil. (4 Marks)
9. (a)Differentiate between land reclamation and land rehabilitation. (2 marks)
(b)Apart from irrigation, give three other methods being used to reclaim land in
Kenya. (3 marks)
(c)(i)Name two crops grown in Perkerra irrigation scheme. (2 marks)
(ii)State four physical conditions that influenced the location of Perkerra
irrigation scheme. (4 marks)
(iii)Explain three problems facing Perkerra irrigation scheme. (6 marks)
(d)Describe the stages through which land is reclaimed from the sea in
Netherlands. (8 marks)
10. (a)(i) Define the term fisheries. (2 marks)
(ii) Name three types of fishing. (3 marks)
(iii) Describe how basket method of fishing is carried out. (6 marks)
(b) Explain four challenges facing fishing in Kenya. (8 marks)
(e) State six differences between fishing in Kenya and japan. (6 marks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

HISTORY
PAPER 1(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
FOR EXAMINERS USE
SECTION QN MAX SCORE

A 1-17 25
(25 Marks)

18 15

B 19 15

(45 Marks)
20 15

21 15

22 15

C
23 15
(30 Marks)

24 15

GRAND TOTAL 100%

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section
1. Give two ways in which archeologists obtain information on the history of Kenya.
(2 marks)
2. Identify the main reason why the Eastern Bantu were dispersed from Shungwaya.
(1 marks)
3. Who was the head of moieties among the Borana during the pre-colonial period?
(1 marks)
4. State two ways in which monsoon winds led to the development of trade between the
Kenyan coast and the outside world. (2 marks)
5. Highlight two ways in which the translation of the Bible into vernacular languages
facilitated the spread of Christianity in Kenya. (2 marks)
6. Give one limitation of the right to privacy. (1 mark)
7. State one way in which national integration promotes economic development in Kenya.
(1 mark)
8. Give one way in which the constitution of Kenya can be amended. (1 mark)
9. Mention two characteristics of indirect democracy. (2 marks)
10. State two reasons why the British used Imperial British East Africa Company to
administer Kenya during the colonial period. (2 marks)
11. Identify one way in which the Maasai benefited from their collaboration with the British.
(1 mark)
12. Highlight two ways in which the colonial government acquired land for European settlers
in Kenya. (2 marks)
13. Name two political organizations that Ronald Ngala worked with during his political
career. (2 marks)
14. Give two sources of Nyayo philosophy. (2 marks)
15. State two challenges facing culture and sports in Kenya today. (2 marks)
16. Highlight two principles of devolved government. (2 marks)
17. Give the main function of Commission on Revenue Allocation. (1 mark)

SECTION B (45 MARKS)


Answer any three questions from this section
18.(a)Name five sub-groups of the Ameru community in Kenya. (5 marks)
(b)Describe the political organization of the Somali during the pre-colonial period
(10 marks)
19.(a)Identify five items of trade from the interior of Kenya during the long distance
trade. (5 marks)
Explain five results of plantation agriculture at the Kenyan Coast during the pre-
(b)colonial period. (10 marks)
20.(a)Give five reasons why settler farming was encouraged in Kenya during the
colonial period. (5 marks)

(b)Explain five roles played by trade unions in improving the lives of the people of Kenya
during the colonial period. (10 marks)

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21. (a)State five features of African Socialism in Kenya. (5 marks)
(b)Explain five ways in which the harambee philosophy has promoted development of
education in Kenya since independence. (10 marks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)


Answer any two questions from this section
22. (a) Give three reasons why the constitution is important in Kenya. (3 marks)
(b) Explain six rights of an arrested person in Kenya. (12 marks)
23. (a) Outline the composition of the Parliamentary Service Commission in Kenya
(3 marks)
(b) Discuss six functions of the Cabinet in Kenya. (12 marks)
24. (a) State three principles of public finance in Kenya. (3 marks)
(b)Explain six challenges faced by the County Governments in Kenya. (12 marks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

HISTORY
PAPER 2(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


The Kenya Certificate OfFOR
Secondary Education
EXAMINERS USE (K.C.S.E)
SECTION QN MAX SCORE

A 1-17 25
(25 Marks)

18 15

B 19 15
(45 Marks)

20 15

21 15

22 15
C
(30 Marks) 23 15

24 15

SECTION A (25 MARKS)

GRAND TOTAL 100%


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Answer all questions in this section

1. Identify one period in history. (1 mark)


2. Identify the type of government in which people from the highest social class rule over
the others. (1 mark)
3. Give one characteristic of Homo Erectus. (1 mark)
4. Identify the method used to plant cereal crops when agriculture begun. (1 mark)
5. Give two inventions that led to Agrarian Revolution in Britain. (2 marks)
6. Highlight one early form of communication. (1 mark)
7. State two negative effects of the development of motor vehicle transport. (2 marks)
8. Give two contributions of the invention of the steam engine to industry in the 18th century
in Europe. (2 marks)
9. Give the main item of trade from West Africa during the Trans-Saharan trade.
(1 mark)
10. Name two groups of people who were involved in the Trans-Atlantic trade.
(2 marks)
11. State two functions of Saza chiefs in the Baganda kingdom. (2 marks)
12. Identify two functions of Athens as an early urban centre in Europe. (2 marks)
13. Give the main factor that contributed to the emergence of Johannesburg as a
modern urban centre. (1 mark)

14. Name one country in West Africa that was colonized by the Germans. (1 mark)
15. State one way in which African collaboration with the Europeans hastened colonization
in Africa. (1 mark)
16. Outline two reasons why the British used indirect rule in Northern Nigeria.
(2 marks)
17. Identify two political reforms introduced by President Fredrik de Klerk that led to the
achievement of black majority rule in South Africa. (2 marks)

SECTION B (45 MARKS)


Answer any three questions from this section
18. (a)Mention five adaptations that distinguish man from other primates. (5 marks)
(b)Describe the cultural and economic practices of early man during the Middle Stone
Age period. (10 marks)
19. (a)State five disadvantages of using air transport. (5 marks)
(b)Explain five positive effects of telecommunication in society. (10 marks)
20. (a)State five uses of coal as a source of energy. (5 marks)

(b)Explain five solutions to the challenges facing industrialization in third world


countries. (10 marks)

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21. (a)Highlight five causes of the Mandinka resistance against the French invasion in
the late 19th century. (5 marks)
(b)Explain five effects of the partition of Africa on the Africans. (10 marks)
SECTION C (30 MARKS)
Answer any two questions from this section
22. (a) State three factors which led to the rise of the Shona Kingdom during the pre-
colonial period. (3 marks)
(b) Describe the political organization of the Asante during the pre-colonial period.
(12 marks)
23. (a)Name three communes which were established by the French in Senegal
during the colonial period. (3 marks)
(b) Explain six effects of direct rule in Zimbabwe. (12 marks)

24. (a) State three ways used by the nationalists in Ghana to fight for independence.
(3 marks)
(b) Explain six challenges experienced by the nationalists during the liberation
struggle in Mozambique. (12 marks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

HOMESCIENCE
PAPER 1(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and admission no in the spaces provided.
b) Answer all the questions in section A and B and any two from section C.
c) Answers to all questions must be written in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.


Section Question Maximum score Candidates score

A 1-40 40

B 41 20

C 42-44 40

Total score 100

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SECTION A :40(MARKS)
Attempt ALL questions in this section. Write answers in the spaces provided.

1. Outline two causes of obesity in a person (1mk)

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2. Outline two ways of storing leftover foods . (1mk)

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3. State how corruption is a cause of malnutrition in Kenya. (1mk)

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4. Give two categories of garnishes in food. (1mk)

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5. Name two styles of meal service at home (1mk)
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6. You are at home and your mother receives unexpected guests, she asks you to purchase some
food that can provide a quick snack or meal. Name two examples of such foods. (1mk)
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7. List the two types of batters. (1mk)

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8. Mention two reasons for defrosting frozen foods before cooking. (1mk)
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9. Define the term boiling as used in cookery. (1mk)

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10. Mention two sources of light. (1mk)

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List two examples of soft furnishings (1mk)
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11. Mention two basic shapes of flower arrangement. (1mk)

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12. Name two ways windows are used for ventilation (1mk)

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13. Mention two types of vacuum cleaners. (1mk)

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14. Highlight two uses of wood ash at home. (1mk)

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15. Highlight two kitchen plans that are common in homes. (1mk)

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16. State two ways of preventing bites and stings (1mk)

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17. Define the term light. (1mk)

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18. Name two categories / groups hard furnishings fall under. (1mk)

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19. Highlight two dangers of poor ventilation in a room. (1mk)

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20. Give two factors that may cause the baby to be underweight during birth. (1mk)

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21. While the baby is in the mother’s womb it is nourished through. (1mk)

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22. Give two reasons as to why babies refuse to breastfeed. (1mk)

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23. State two disadvantages of supplementary feeding. (1mk)

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24. Define the term antenatal care. (1mk)

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25. Mention two activities at the postnatal clinic for the baby (1mk)

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26. Mention two types of advertisements. (1mk)

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27. Highlight two positive effects of advertisements on consumer. (1mk)
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28. Consumer rights must be safeguarded always. Name two such rights. (1mk)
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29. Give the meaning of available cash income in the steps in preparing a budget. (1mk)

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30. State two disadvantages of simple-non instalment credit. (1mk)

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31. List two types of fasteners used in garment construction. (1mk)

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32. List two types of pleats used in control of fullness. (1mk)

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33. Highlight two uses of a seam ripper. (1mk)

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34. Mention the two examples of rayons under regenerated fibres. (1mk)

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35. State two cases when an overlaid seam is preferred over the other seams (1mk)

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36. Give two other names of a seam line (1mk)

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37. Name a measurement taken around the fullest part of the body. (1mk)

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38. Name and draw
a) A solid line that helps to position pattern on the straight thread of fabrics. (1mk)

b) A line with bent arrows turned towards the edge of a pattern which will be placed on
the fold of fabric. (1mk)

39. List two examples of temporary stitches. (1mk)

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SECTION B (20 MARKS)
Compulsory- Answer question 41 in the spaces provided
40. You are expecting guests this coming weekend and your mother has asked you to do the
following clean ups on household items that will be used:
Thoroughly clean;
i. The plain wooden dining table (7marks)
ii. The fast colored woven cotton table cloth with a milk stain (8marks)
iii. The plastic laundry bucket (5marks)
SECTION C (40 MARKS) ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION.

41.
a) State four reasons why foods are fortified (4mks)
b) State four reasons for cleaning a house. (4mks)
c) State four precautions to be taken when using firewood. (4mks)
d) Describe briefly the care of a lactating mother. (4mks)
e) Explain four principles of wise buying. (4mks)

42.
a) Outline four functions of ascorbic acid. (4mks)
b) Describe the threading of a sewing machine with the use of arrows. (4mks)
c) Give four points on the choice of a weaning dish. (4mks)
d) Mention four roles of advertisement to consumers. (4mks)
e) Outline four reasons for the control of fullness. (4mks)

43.
a) Mention four ways of ascertaining readiness of a cooked cake. (4mks)
b) State four roles to observe in stain removal. (4mk)
c) State four reasons for special care on a child stipulated in a child health card. (4mks)
d) Mention four factors that may affect a budget. (4mks)
e) Outline four points to observe when taking measurements. (4mks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

441/2
HOMESCIENCE
PAPER 2(PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


A pattern of a short is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, instructions and the
layout carefully before you begin the test.
MATERIALS PROVIDED
1. Pattern pieces
A - FRONT SHORT
B -BACK SHORT
C - FRILL
D -WAISTBAND
E -POCKET
2. Plain light weight cotton fabric 55 cm by 90 cm.
3. Sewing thread to match the fabric
4. 1 large envelope.
THE TEST

Using the materials provided, cut out and make up the LEFT HALF of the short to show the
following;
1. Cutting out. (13mks)
2. Working a single pointed dart at the back short (5mks)
3. Preparation and attachment of the patch pocket (17mks)
4. Working the inner leg seam using double stitched seam. (8mks)
5, Control of fullness at the frill (3mks)
6. Joining the frill to the short using overlaid seam (10mks)
7. Joining the front short to back short at the side using open seam. (6mks)
8. Preparation and attachment of the waistband and hold it using hemming stitches. (15mks)
9. Management of the hem and hold usimg machine stitches (7mks)
10. Presentation. (6mks)
NOTE: At the end of the test, firmly sew on to your work on a single fabric a label
bearing your name and admission number. Remove needles and pins from work. Then
fold your work carefully and place it in the envelope. DO NOT PUT SCRAPS OF
MATERIALS IN THE ENVELOPE AND DO NOT SEAL THE ENVELOPE.

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LAYOUT – NOT DRAWN TO SCALE

E CB CB

D
B A
Selvedge 55 cm

Selvedge
Folded edge
C
of fabric
90 cm
VIEWS

FRONT BACK

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JINA………………………………………………………………………..……………….

SHULE………………………………………… NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………..

SAHIHI…………………………………………….TAREHE…………………..………

102/1
KISWAHILI
KARTASI YA 1
INSHA
MUDA :SAA 1 DAKIKA 45
TATHMINI YA PAMOJA YA MOKASA I– 2025
Hati ya kuhitimu Elimu ya Sekondari Nchini Kenya

MAAGIZO:
a) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima
b) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya hizo tatu zilizobakia
c) Kila insha isipungue maneno mia nne
d) Kila insha ina alama 20

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE:


Swali Alama

JUMLA

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1. Kwa muda mrefu, shughuli za binadamu zimechangia uharibifu mkubwa wa mazingira.
Wewe ni katibu wa Chama cha Wanamazingira Wasio na Mipaka shuleni mwako.
Andika ripoti kuhusu visababishi vya uharibifu wa mazingira kufuatia utafiti mlioufanya.
2. (a) Umealikwa kuwahutubia wanafunzi wa Shule ya Upili ya Jionee kuhusu namna mitandao ya
kijamii imechangia pakubwa mabadiliko chanya na hasi katika jamii. Andika hotuba yako.
Au
(b) Andika kisa kitakachodhihirisha maana ya methali: Tamaa mbele mauti nyuma.
Au
(c) Andika insha itakayoanza kwa:
Imani ilimtuma kwenda kuungama mbele ya aila yake nzima. Kumbe alikuwa
anaingia kwenye mtego wa panya unaowanasa waliomo na wasiokuwemo …

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JINA………………………………………………………………………..……………….

SHULE………………………………………… NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………..

SAHIHI…………………………………………….TAREHE…………………..………

102/2
KISWAHILI
KARTASI YA 2
LUGHA
MUDA :SAA 1 DAKIKA 45
TATHMINI YA PAMOJA YA MOKASA I– 2025
Hati ya kuhitimu Elimu ya Sekondari Nchini Kenya

MAAGIZO
(a) Andika jina lako na namba yako ya usajili shuleni katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(c) Jibu maswali yote.
(d) Majibu yote yaandikwe kwenye nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
(e) Majibu yote ni lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
(f) Usitoe ukurasa wowote kutoka kwenye kijitabu hiki.
(g) Karatasi hii ina kurasa 10 zilizopigwa chapa.
(h) Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE


SWALI UPEO ALAMA MTAHINI

1. UFAHAMU 15

2. MUHTASARI 15

3. SARUFI 40

4. ISIMUJAMII 10

JUMLA 80

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UFAHAMU - ALAMA 15
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha uyajibu maswali yanayofuata.
"Mosi alikuwa kikwazo kikubwa kwangu. Leo anaondoka shuleni hapa, anang'atuka toka kwenye
kazi ya ualimu. Nimefurahi furaha ya mwendawazimu, furaha isiyo na kizuizi. Nafurahi maana
najua hakuna mtoto mwingine wa mtu atakayekatishwa tamaa na Mwalimu Mosi. Anaondoka hapa
shule hii ipumzike. Wanafunzi wasioelewa mambo vizuri kama mimi wapate kunawiri. Wakija
kusoma hapa wajaribu kuunga moja na moja washindwe kupata jawabu watajiendea zao
kuzumbua riziki kwa njia nyingine badala ya kupoteza muda wao hapa kwa matumaini ya uongo
ya Mwalimu Mosi. Waende wawe ombaomba waombe, wawe matapeli watapeli, wawe
wakwapuzi wakwapue, wawe wevi waibe, wawe waporaji wapore, wawe wauaji uaue. Huu ndio
ujumbe wangu."

"Kwani mwalimu alikukosea nini?" Aliuliza mwanafunzi mmoja."Alipoteza muda wangu bure
shuleni kwa kuniambia kila uchao kwamba nitainmarika. Nitaimarika vipi na mwenyewe
zumbukuku sijui ngoma ipo wapi? Anakuweka shuleni tu, anajipa subira, stahamala, hekima,
upole, uungwana, na ucheshi ili mtu asiyefaa kuwa shuleni aendelee kung'ang'ania shuleni ilhali
hamna unachofaidi. Ningejua mapema kwamba sijaambulia chochote ningeondoka shuleni
mapema niende niibe au niue ili niwe mtu wa maana. Hata mimi ningekuwa mtu wa maana.
Ningekuwa na magari mazito kuliko wakora wote hawa. Ningekuwa mtu. Ningekuwa
mheshimiwa. Ningekuwa bingwa. Kwa nini? Kwa nini kupotezea watu nafasi shuleni ilhali
wengine wetu hatukuumbiwa shule? Kwa hiyo, mimi nimekuwa maskini kwa sababu ya Mwalimu
Mosi kunipa matumaini yasiyokuwa na msingi kwamba uzuzu wangu utakwisha ,kwamba sufuri
zangu masomoni zitazipisha mia kwa mia, kwamba kuwashia pofu taa si kuharibifu mafuta ..."

Almuradi Jairo alimlaumu mwalimu wake tena na tena. Alimlaumu kwa kumshauri asinywe
tembo, ati tembo kitu kibaya ilhali siku hizi kwa kunywa sana, Jairo anaona raha ya kuishi.
Akinywa akalewa hata anapotembea bila viatu na kujikwaa au kudungwa na miiba, hahisi kitu.
Anamlaumu mwalimu kwa kumnasihi kuepukana na ufuska, kusubiri hadi ndoa ndipo kuchuna
ngozi, kuwa mwadilifu... Kwa nini kutoa nasaha zote hizi ilhali kinyume chake ndio utamu na
uhondo wa maisha? Mwalimu gani huyu asiyejua fika kwamba haramu ni tamu na maisha ni
mafupi? Nani amekuwa tajiri, akafaidi raha na buraha kwa kuwa mwadilifu? Maisha ni mazuri
bila nasaha za mwalimu huyu.

Jairo alipotoka jukwaani watu hawakujua kama walipaswa kupiga makofi au la. Mwalimu Mosi
ndiye aliyewakumbusha kupiga makofi, wakapiga shingo upande. Isitoshe, alimtaka "hatibu
mstahiki" Jairo kama alivyomwita, aketi kwenye jukwaa la wageni mashuhuri. Hilo kabisa
halikutarajiwa lakini kwa waliomjua fika Mwalimu Mosi, hawakuajabia sana uamuzi wake huo.
Tangu hapo, aliwashangaza watu kwa kauli na vitendo.

Karibu na mwisho wa sherehe zawadi zilitolewa kwa mwalimu, zawadi za kila nui; si motorolii,
si vijiko vikubwa vya kuzolea mchanga, si makubadhi, si meza na samani aina aina, si fedha na
sarafu ndogondogo na noti kubwakubwa. Baada ya dakika chache kulikuwa na rundo la zawadi.
Zawadi kutoka kwa wanafunzi na wazazi wa sasa na wa zamani wa Mwalimu Mosi, au sahihi sana

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Mwalimu Mstaafu Mosi. Ilikuwa vigumu kwa mwalimu kuzibeba zawadi zote hizo. Mwanafunzi
wake mmoja wa zamani mwenye gari aina ya pick-up akajitolea kubeba zawadi nyumbani kwenye
gari lake. Mke wa mwalimu; Sera alimwona mwalimu ananong'onezana na mwanafunzi huyo wa
zamani huku zawadi zikipakiwa kwenye gari.
Wahudhuriaji wa hafla walifumukana huku hotuba ya Jairo aliyekuwa pahala au katika hali fulani
kati ya ulevi na wendawazimu, ikivuta nadhari zao. Hotuba ya Jairo ikawa mada kuu ya
mazungumzo yao walipokuwa wakitembea barabarani, wakisafiri magarini na kufika majumbani
mwao. Mpaka leo watu wa kwetu bado wanapokezana hotuba hiyo kama hirizi kutoka kizazi
kimoja hadi kingine. Ungekuwa ndio mwisho wa masimulizi ya watu wa huku iwapo Jairo na
Mwalimu Mosi hawangefanya mengine ya kustaajabisha.
Maswali
a) Kwa nini Jairo anamlaumu Mwalimu Mosi? ( alama 4)
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b) Mbaazi usipozaa, husingizia jua. Tetea ukweli wa methali hii kwa mujibu wa kifungu hiki.
(alama 2)
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c) Eleza jinsi utamaushi unavyojitokeza katika makala haya. (alama 3)
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d) Fafanua namna mitindo ifuatayo ilivyotumika katika kifungu hiki. ( alama 2)
i)tabaini
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ii)tashbihi
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e) Thibitisha kuwa Mwalimu Mosi ni mwenye bidii. (alama 1)
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f) Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika kifunguni. (alama 3)


i)ufuska
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ii)zumbukuku
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iii)nui
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UFUPISHO - ALAMA 15
Magonjwa yatokanayo na maji, yanayosababishwa na vijidudu hatari na vichafuzi katika maji,
huleta changamoto kubwa na ya dharura ya afya ya umma duniani. Kila mwaka, mamilioni ya
maisha huathiriwa na magonjwa haya, ikisisitiza hitaji muhimu la kuelewa sababu zao, dalili, na
mikakati ya kuzuia. Hasa katika mataifa yanayoendelea, magonjwa yatokanayo na maji
yanaonekana kuwa tishio kubwa, yakichangia asilimia 80 ya magonjwa yote na theluthi moja ya
vifo vyote, kama inavyokadiriwa na Shirika la Afya Ulimwenguni (WHO) na UNICEF.

WHO inafichua zaidi kwamba asilimia 88 ya magonjwa yote yanayosababishwa na maji yanaweza
kuhusishwa na desturi mbovu za usafi, uhaba wa vifaa vya vyoo na maji yasiyo salama. Kwa
kuzama katika magonjwa ya kawaida yanayosambazwa na maji na kuchunguza hatua madhubuti
za kuzuia, tunaweza kujitahidi kulinda afya ya kimataifa na kuhakikisha upatikanaji mkubwa wa
maji safi na salama.

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Ili kuzuia magonjwa ya majini,binadamu anastahili kuwa na Kinga mwilini.Kinga ina jukumu
muhimu katika kupunguza athari za magonjwa yatokanayo na maji.Binadamu huweza kupata
Kinga mwilini kwa kula lishe bora yenye mboga na matunda kwa wingi.

Vile vile,tunapaswa kuhakikisha maji ni salama kwa matumizi. Kila anayeyatumia achukue hatua
za kuhakikisha kuwa Kuna upatikanaji wa maji safi na yasiyochafuliwa, kwa kutumia mbinu kama
vile kuchemsha, kuchuja, au kuua viini kwa kemikali.

Kuimarisha usafi wa mazingira pia ni njia bora ya kuzuia magonjwa ya majini. Tunapaswa
Kuboresha huduma za usafi wa mazingira ili kuzuia uchafuzi wa vyanzo vya maji na kinyesi cha
binadamu na wanyama.Tukizingatia usafi wa mazingira,maji yananyotiririka mitoni itakuwa safi.

Ni muhimu kukuza mazoea ya usafi kila mara tunapokuwa nyumbani.Unawaji sahihi wa mikono
kwa sabuni na maji safi, hasa kabla ya kushika chakula na baada ya kutoka chooni uhimizwe Ili
kujiepusha na magonjwa.
Kwa kupata habari kuhusu chanjo zinazopendekezwa kwa magonjwa mahususi, tunaweza kuzuia
magonjwa yanayotokana na maji,na ambayo hupunguza hatari ya kuambukizwa.chanjo hizi ni
salama na hupatikana kwenye hospitali za umma.

Njia nyingine ya kujikinga dhidi ya magonjwa haya ni kuongeza ufahamu kuhusu sababu, dalili,
na mikakati ya kuzuia magonjwa yatokanayo na maji. Kuelimisha jamii juu ya umuhimu wa maji
safi, usafi wa mazingira, na kufuata mazoea bora ya usafi kutachangia pakubwa kumaliza kabisa
magonjwa haya ya maji.

Watumizi wa maji wanapaswa kuzingatia kanuni zinazofaa za usalama wa chakula, ikiwa ni


pamoja na kupika kwa uangalifu, kuhifadhi salama, na kuepuka ulaji wa vyakula vibichi au
ambavyo havijaiva vizuri, hasa katika maeneo yenye vifaa vichache vya vyoo.

Tunahimizwa pia kuwa waangalifu tunaposafiri kwenda katika mikoa yenye maambukizi
makubwa ya magonjwa yanayotokana na maji. Tuepuke kutumia maji ya bomba, vipande vya
barafu, na vyakula vibichi au visivyopikwa. Tuchague maji ya chupa au maji yaliyotibiwa
ipasavyo kama njia salama zaidi.

Hatimaye, ni muhimu kwamba tujiandae na maarifa kuhusu maambukizo yanayoenea zaidi kwa
njia ya maji, ikiwa ni pamoja na visababishi vyake, dalili, na mikakati ya kujikinga. Kwa
kutekeleza hatua madhubuti za kuzuia kama vile kuhakikisha upatikanaji sawa wa maji safi,
kuimarisha vifaa vya usafi wa mazingira, kukuza kanuni bora za usafi, kutumia mbinu salama za
utunzaji wa chakula, na kuongeza ufahamu kuhusu magonjwa haya, tuna uwezo wa kuleta athari
kubwa kwa afya ya umma. Hebu tukutane pamoja na kujitahidi kuelekea siku za usoni ambapo maji safi
na salama si matarajio tu bali ni ukweli unaoonekana kwa kila mtu. Tunaweza kuunda jamii ambayo afya
ya watu inalindwa na isiyo na tishio la mara kwa mara la magonjwa yatokanayo na maji kwa kusisitiza
uzuiaji, elimu, na hatua za haraka.

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a) Fupisha aya mbili za kwanza kwa maneno kati ya 50-60. ( Alama 6)
Matayarisho
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Jibu
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b) Kwa maneno kwa 80, eleza njia mbalimbali unazoweza kutumia Ili kuepukana na magonjwa
yanayosababishwa na maji. (Alama 9)

Matayarisho
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Jibu
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SARUFI NA MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)


a).Andika neno lenye muundo ufuatao wa sauti : (alama 1)
kizuiwa cha midomo, irabu ya mbele wastani, irabu ya chini.
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b).Onyesha silabi inayotamkwa kwa mkazo katika neno: uliopandwa. (alama 1)
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c). Bainisha mofimu katika fungutenzi : Awiwa (alama 2)
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d). Unganisha sentensi zifuatazo kuunda sentensi ya masharti yanayowezekana. (alama 2)
Nilirauka leo. Nilifanya kazi nyingi.
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e). Akifisha sentensi ifuatayo ili ibainishe maana mbili tofauti. (alama 2)
Swale Mdoe mwanawe Bakari na Aisha waliondoka jana.
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f). Ainisha viambishi kiuamilifu. (alama 1)
kujidhiki
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g).Andika sentensi hii katika ukubwa . (alama 2)
Sahani iliyokanyagwa na ng’ombe yule ni mpya.
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h). Fafanua maana mbili ya sentensi hii. (alama 2)
Aliwaita wale mapema.
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i).Huku ukitolea mifano onyesha miundo ya nomino katika ngeli ya LI-YA. (alama 2)
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j).Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika umoja. (alama 2)
Matapeli waliwaibia nyuzi hizo wakawatengenezea tepe.
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k).Choma ni kwa chomoa ……………ni kwa fyatua nayo fukia ni kwa …………… (alama 1)

l). Andika sentensi zifuatzo kulingana na maagizo:


i). Mwalimu alimwita Fatuma na kutaka kujua namna alivyofaulu katika mtihani huo.
(Andika sentensi hii katika usemi halisi) (alama 2)
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ii).Wachezaji hawakucheza mpira kwa sababu ya mvua iliyonyesha. (Andika sentensi upya
ukianza kwa : Mpira…) (alama 2)
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iii).Wanafunzi wanafurahia alichosema kiongozi yule. (Andika sentensi upya ukibadilisha neno
lililokolezwa rangi kuwa nomino.) (alama 2)
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Mzee Pumu ni mraibu wa vileo. Baada ya muda watoto wake watatu wanakuwa watumiaji s
iv). ugu wa vileo. (Andika methali inayoweza kutumiwa kueleza hali hii.). (alama 1)
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m). Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa kielelezo cha mstari. (alama 2)
Zilizala imepoa sasa na manusura wametoka mlipokuwa na janga.
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n). Onyesha shamirisho kitondo,kipozi na ala katika sentensi ifuatayo : (alama 2)
Cheserut alimbebea mwalimu wake mzigo mkubwa kwa gari.
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o). Ainisha vishazi katika sentensi ifuatayo: (alama 3)
Ingawa hakupita mtihani hajafa moyo anasoma kwa bidii ajabu.
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p).Ainisha virai vilivyopigiwa kistari. (alama 2)
Vitabu hivi vinasomwa na wanafunzi wenye ustadi mkubwa.
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r). Tunga sentensi yenye muundo ufuatao . (alama 2)
Nomino, kishazi tegemezi, kitenzi, nomino, kivumishi, kielezi.
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s). Tunga sentensi sahihi ukitumia kitenzi -la katika kauli ya kutendeana. (alama2)
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t). Badilisha amba rejeshi iwe o-rejeshi yenye maana ya wakati. (alama 2)
Mahali ambapo pamehamwa ni hapa.
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ISIMUJAMII-ALAMA 10
Soma makala yafuatayo kisha uyajibu maswali yanayofuata.
Mswada huu umewasilishwa na Mheshimiwa Shupavu Jasiri. Jukumu langu kama spika ni kuwapa
nafasi kutoa maoni yenu. Ni vyema mtoe mchango wenu kwa lugha inayoonyesha ukomavu.
Ninawashauri kuweka kando tofauti zenu za kisiasa na kuzingatia mahitaji ya wananchi
mnaowawakilisha hapa. Kumbukeni kuwa mswada huu utawapa nyinyi waheshimiwa nafasi ya
kutimiza ahadi zenu mlizowapa wapiga kura wakati wa kampeni.

Maswali
a) Tambua sajili hii. (alama 2)
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b) Eleza sifa za sajili hii zinazojitokeza katika kifungu. (alama 5)
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c) Eleza sifa ambazo zingetumika katika kifungu hiki. (alama 3)
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JINA………………………………………………………………………..……………….

SHULE………………………………………… NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………..

SAHIHI…………………………………………….TAREHE…………………..………

102/3
KISWAHILI
KARTASI YA 3
FASIHI
MUDA :SAA 1 DAKIKA 30
TATHMINI YA PAMOJA YA MOKASA I– 2025
Hati ya kuhitimu Elimu ya Sekondari Nchini Kenya
MTIHANI WA PAMOJA WA MOKASA I – 2025

MAAGIZO
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
c) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
d) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
e) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki; yaani:
Tamthilia, Riwaya, Ushairi na Hadithi Fupi.
f) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
g) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
h) Majibu yote sharti yaandikwe kwenye kijitabu cha maswali.
i) Karatasi hii ina kurasa 6 zilizopigwa chapa.
j) Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa
chapa sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.
KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE
Swali Upeo Alama

1. 20

20

20

20

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SEHEMU YA A: FASIHI SIMULIZI
1. LAZIMA
Soma makala yafuatayo kisha ujibu maswali.
(Wazee wanne wa umri wa makamo wameketi kuunda mduara. Katikati ya mduara huo, kuna
babu aliyempakata mtoto mdogo. Mtoto aliyepakatwa ni mdogo na ambaye hajafika umri wa
kuzungumza. Babu ameshika ugoro mkononi)

Babu: (Kwa mtoto) Unaitwa nani? (Mtoto ananyamaza tu. Anaonekana kutoelewa
yanayofanyika katika mazingira yake) Unaitwa nani? Je, Wewe ni Kipkech?
Wazee: (Kwa pamoja) Huyu siye Kipkech. Amekataa kabisa.
Babu: (Akimpaka mtoto ugoro puani.) Unaitwa nani? Tuambie jina lako. Wazee wamechelewa
kupeleka mifugo malishoni. Unaitwa Kipsimam? ... Maritim? Je, unaitwa Nusu?
Mzee I: Ni kama huyu mzee amejificha. Ama alikuwa mwoga alipokuwa hai? Ama
amekasirika? Mwongezee ugoro. Huenda anataka zawadi ili ajitambulishe.
Babu: (Akimpaka mtoto ugoro puani.) Je, Unaitwa Chepkiyeng? (Mtoto anaenda chafya) Oyee!
Karibu Chepkiyeng. Karibu nduguye Nusu. Karibu mzee wetu wa bidii.
Wazee: (Wakishangilia) Karibu Chepkiyeng. Mzee mwanzilishi wa maduka tunayotumia hadi
sasa. Karibu babu yetu! (Wote wanaanza kunywa buzaa iliyo mtungini kwa mrija huku
wakizungumza kwa furaha.)
MASWALI
(a) Ainisha kipera hiki cha fasihi simulizi. (alama 2)
(b) Bainisha sifa za utanzu ambapo kipera hiki kimetolewa. (alama 4)
(c) Umepewa nafasi ya kuwasilisha utanzu huu mbele ya hadhira. Eleza sifa nne unazofaa kuwa
nazo. (alama 4)
(d) Bainisha shughuli mbili za kiuchumi katika jamii inayorejelewa katika kifungu hiki.(alama 2)
(e) Umeamua kutumia kalamu na karatasi (maandishi) kukusanya na kuhifadhi data ya fasihi
simulizi. Eleza udhaifu wa mbinu hiyo. (alama 4)
(f) Fafanua changamoto nne zinazoweza kukukabili nyanjani, unapoenda kukusanya data kuhusu
kipera hiki. (alama 4)

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SEHEMU YA B: TAMTHILIA
T.M. Arege: Bembea ya Maisha
Jibu swali la 2 au 3
2. “Japo nilipungukiwa na mengi niliyoyatamani, nilitaka nyinyi muote mbawa mpae juu angani
na kuitazama dunia kutoka kule juu kwa niaba yangu.”
a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)
b) Bainisha aina mbili za taswira zinazojitokeza kwenye dondoo. (alama 4)
c) Onyesha toni inayopatikana kwenye dondoo hili. (alama 2)
d) Eleza umuhimu wa mandhari ya dondoo hili. (alama 4)
e) Fafanua sifa za msemewa katika dondoo hili. (alama 6)
3. a) Onyesha jinsi mwandishi alivyotumia mbinu ya kinaya kujenga hadithi ya Bembea ya
Maisha. (alama 10)
b) Bembea ya Maisha ni tamthilia ya mabadiliko. Thibitisha. (Alama 10)

SEHEMU YA C: RIWAYA
C. Momanyi: Nguu za Jadi
Jibu swali la 4 au la 5
4. Kamwe hangekubali kuwa mtu wa kuomba omba misaada na ufadhili kutoka kwa wale walio
navyo. Aliumbwa mkamilifu, akili timamu na siha mwilini. Kwa nini basi aombe wale
waliokirimiwa vitu kama yeye? Ni ada ya binadamu kufanya kazi ili aweze kulisukuma
gurudumu la maisha.
a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)
b) Bainisha toni katika dondoo hili. (alama 2)
c) Fafanua maudhui katika dondoo hili. (alama 3)
d) Eleza sifa tatu za anayerejelewa kwa kurejelea riwaya ya Nguu za Jadi. (alama 8)
e) Fafanua jinsi wahusika mbalimbali kwenye riwaya ya Nguu za Jadi wanavyofanikisha
kauli iliyopigiwa mstari. (alama 8)
5. (a) Changanua mtindo katika dondoo lifuatalo. (alama 6)
Kuna waliookota chupa za plastiki kwenda kuchuuza. Kuna waliobobea katika kuchakura taka ili
kupata mikebe iliyotupwa. Kisha waliichuuza mjini. Ukifika majaani,kitu cha kwanza
kinachokukaribisha ni harufu kali ya uvundo uliosambaa kila mahali. Kila dakika magari
yaliyosaki taka kutoka katika mitaa ya mji yalifika hapa kutupa taka. Mafalahi waliochoka na
maisha waliishi mahali hapa. Walisitiriwa na makombo ya vyakula kutoka katika jaa hili kuu.
Walinyanganyana chakula na kunguru waliojaa mahali hapa.
b) Bainisha toni inayojitokeza katika dondoo hili. (Alama 2)
c) Jadili mbinu walizotumia raia wa Matuo kujikomboa kutokana na uongozi dhalimu wa
Mtemi Lesulia. (Alama12)
SEHEMU YA D: USHAIRI

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Jibu swali la 6 au 7
5. Soma shairi hili kisha ujibu maswali.
Pindi ilipomjia, habari za binti kazaliwa
Uso ulimsawijika, kwa soni akachanganyikiwa
“Hii ni nakhusi?
Aka, na nakama!
La, ni neema!
Bali si beluwa?”

Wapi uso aufiche?


Au mchangani auzike?
Izara hii asiipate!
Ya kuzaliwa mke.

Nitawatolea kisa…
Nawatangulizia sasa,
Kisa kilichoanza.,
Hakijawahi kukoma,
Kote kimeenea,
Namna wanavvomtesa,
Kiumbe dhalili wamemfanya,
Lini atathaminiwa?

Kisa chenyewe kitendawili,


Mwenyewe busara atoe tawili,
Ya haya mambo mawili,
Maisha bila mke ni awali,
Kisa kingeendelea?
Lulu iliyohifadhiwa ni ya pili,
Kisa kingeendelea?
MASWALI

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a) Thibitisha kuwa shairi hili ni huru. (alama 3)
b) Eleza maudhui yanayojitokeza katika shairi hili. (alama 2)
c) Andika ubeti wa tatu katika lugha nathari. (alama 4)
d) Tambua matumizi ya mishata katika shairi hili. (alama 2)
e) Taja na ueleze mbinu za lugha zilizotumika. (alama 2)
f) Eleza umuhimu wa mke katika shairi. (alama 2)
g) Eleza jinsi mtunzi alivyotumia uhuru wake. (alama 2)
h) Eleza jinsi maneno haya yalivyotumika katika shairi. (alama 3)
i. Nakama
ii. Awali
iii. izara

6. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali.


Lau kama ingakuwa, madhali tuna uhuru,
Watu kodi kutotowa, na kuifanya kufuru,
Vije nchi ingakuwa, taifa bila kufuru,
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru.

Hivi taifa kumea, na kuendelea mbele,


Kwamba lajitegemea, haliwatege’i wale,
Yataka kujitolea, ushuru bila kelele,
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru.

Wafanyikazi wa umma, mfano mwema walimu,


Wauguzi mahashuma, daktari wahadimu,
Bila hizi darahima, vipi wangalihudumu?
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru.

Si vyema kuombaomba, kwa wageni kila mara,


Huwa twajifunga kamba, na kujitia izara,
Adha zinazotukumba, kujitegemea bora,
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru.

Miradi ya maendeleo, yahitaji darahima,


Ndo tufikie upeo, ulio dunia nzima,
Wadogo na wenye vyeo, bila kodi tutakwama,
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru.

Ushuru si kwa wanyonge, wasokuwa na uwezo,


Watozwe hata wabunge, na wengine wenye nazo,

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Yeyote asijitenge, kodi akalipa bezo,
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru.

Kwetu kutoa ushuru, ndiko kujitegemea,


Pasiwepo na udhuru, usio wa kuelea,
Huwa ni kama kiguru, asenao kutembea,
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru.
(Joseph Kiponda)
Maswali:
a) Chambua maudhui katika shairi hili. (alama 4)
b) Eleza muundo wa shairi hili. (alama 4)
c) Bainisha aina tatu za urudiaji katika shairi hili. (alama 3)
d) Bainisha bahari zinazojitokeza katika shairi hili kwa kuzingatia vigezo vifuatavyo(alama 2)
i. Mpangilio wa vina
ii. Idadi ya vipande katika kila mshororo
e) Fafanua aina tatu za uhuru wa kishairi katika shairi hili. (alama 3)
f) Andika ubeti wa sita kwa lugha nathari. (alama 4)

SEHEMU YA E: HADITHI FUPI


Clara Momanyi: Mapambazuko ya Machweo
8. Utumwa mamboleo ndio huu. Ubedui uliogubikwa ndani ya ukawaida wa maisha ya kisasa
ndio huu.
a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)
b) Huku ukitoa mifano kutoka hadithi zifuatazo, thibitisha kuwa: ‘Ubedui umegubikwa
ndani ya ukawaida wa maisha.’
(i) Mapambazuko ya Machweo (alama 5)
(ii) Msiba wa Kujitakia (alama 5)
W. N. Ogenche: Sabina
(c) “Samahani mwalimu, nina majukumu mengi ya kutekeleza nyumbani kabla ya kuja shuleni
kila asubuhi.” Eleza jinsi msemaji alivyotumika kuwakuza wahusika wengine hadithini.
(alama 6)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

121/1
MATHEMATICS
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper consists of two sections: Section I and Section II.
(c)Answer ALL questions in section I and ANY five questions in section II.
(d) All answers and workings must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided
below each question.
(e)Show all the steps in your calculation, giving your answer at each stage in the spaces below
each question.
(f) Non – Programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be
used, except where stated otherwise.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

Section II

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL

Grand Total

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SECTION I (50 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions in this section
1.Without using a calculator, evaluate; (3 marks)
1 1 1 1 2
𝑜𝑓 3 + 1 (2 − )
2 2 2 2 3
3 1 1
𝑜𝑓 2 ÷
4 2 2

2.Solve for x in the equation. (3 marks)


2(2x – 1) x 16(2x – 1) = 1

3.A metallic solid cone has a base radius of 6.4 cm and slant height 15.8 cm. If the density
22
of the metal is 7.9 g⁄cm3 , calculate its mass in kg.(Take π= ) (3 marks)
7

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4.Members of a group decided to raise K£100 towards a charity by contributing equal
amount. Five of them were unable to contribute. The rest had, therefore, to pay K£1
more each to raise the same amount. How many members were in the group originally?
(3 marks)

5.The LCM of three numbers is 1512 and their GCD IS 6. If two of the numbers are 54 and 72,
find the least third possible number. (3 marks)

6.The exterior angle of a regular polygon is equal to one-third of interior angle. Calculate the
number of sides of the polygon. (3 marks)

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5 3
7. Find the reciprocal of 2.234.Hence use tables to evaluate(2.234) to 4 significant figures

(3 marks)

8.The image of A (-2,5) under a transformation T is A’ (2,2) B’ (9, -5) is the image of B under
the same translation T determine the coordinates of B. (3 marks)

9.Six men take 28 days working for 10 hours a day to pack 4480 parcels. How many more
men working 8 hours a day will be required to pack 2560 parcels in 4 days. (3 marks)

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10.From a point A, the student observed the angle of elevation to the top of the building to
be 300, after walking from point A to point B 20m towards the foot of the building in an
horizontal ground, he observed the angle of depression from the top of the building to
be 720, find the height of the building correct to 2 decimal places. (4 marks)

11.A windscreen wiper of a car sweeps through an angle of 1200. The shaded region in the
figure below represents the area swept clean by the blade of the wiper AB. If OA =
22
14cm and OB = 21cm. Taking л = , find the area of the glass swept clean to 1d.p
7

(3 marks)
C B

D A

1200

4x − 5y = 13
12.Use matrix method to solve the equation; (4 marks)
−2y + 3x = 8

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13.Simplify completely. (3 marks)
3𝑥 2 −48
3𝑥 2 −24𝑥+ 48

14.Use a ruler and a pair of compasses only to construct a triangle ABC in which AB = 4.3cm,
BC = 3.9cm and angle ABC is 1350. Measure AC. (3 marks)

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187
15.A Kenyan bank bought and sold foreign currencies on two different days as shown below.
𝐁𝐮𝐲𝐢𝐧𝐠 𝐒𝐞𝐥𝐥𝐢𝐧𝐠
(𝐈𝐧 𝐊𝐬𝐡) (𝐈𝐧 𝐊𝐬𝐡)
12/28/2024 1 Sterling pound (£) 130.10 130.54
12/29/2024 South African Rand 9.52 9.58

A businessman arrived in Kenya on 12/28/2024 with £ 50000 Sterling pound. He


changed the whole amount to Kenya shillings. While in Kenya, he spent 80% of the
money and changed the balance to South African Rand before leaving for South Africa
on 12/29/2024. Determine, to the nearest Rand, the amount he obtained. (3 marks)

16. The figure below shows a solid square based pyramid, draw a net of the solid (3 marks)

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SECTION II: (50 MARKS)
Answer any FIVE questions from this section
17.A solid Q is made up of a hemi spherical bottom, cylindrical middle and conical top. The
height of the cylinder is 14m and the height of the cone is 5m, the common radius of
22
both figures is 2.1m. (Take π= 7 )
(a) Find the slant height of the cone correct to 2 decimal places. (2 marks)

(b) Find the total surface area of the solid Q correct to 4 significant figures
(4 marks)

(c)Find the volume of solid Q to the nearest metres. (4 marks)

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189
18. (a) The equation of a straight line L1 is given by 6x + 3y − 12 = 0. Another line L2 is
perpendicular to L1 at (m, 13) . Line L2 also passes through point K(3,5) .
(i)Find the value of m. (3 marks)

(ii)Find the equation of L2 in the form of ax + by + c = 0, where a, b and c are integers.


(2 marks)

(b)The equation of the base AB of an isosceles triangle ABC is y = −2 and the equation of
side BC is y + 2x = 6 . If points A and C are (−6 , −2) and (−1 , 6) respectively, Find;

(i)The coordinates of B (2 marks)

(ii)The equation of side AC. (3 marks)

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190
1
19.A curve is represented by the function y = 3 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 2

(a)Find the gradient function of the curve (1 mark)

(b)Determine the turning points on the curve (4 marks)

(c)Determine the nature of the turning points of the curve (3 marks)

1
(d)Sketch the curve of y = 3 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 2 (2 marks)

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191
20. (a) A triangle has vertices A (1,2), B (7,2) and C (5,4). Draw triangle ABC on the
Cartesian place (1 mark)
(b) A’ (2, -1), B’ (2, -7) and C’ (4, -5) is the image of ABC under a transformation T.
Draw triangle A’B’C’ on the same grid and describe T fully. (3 marks).
(c) Draw triangle A” B”C” the image of triangle A’B’C; under a reflection in the line
Y=X. State the coordinates of the vertices. (3 marks)

(d) Triangle A’’’B’’’C’’’ is the image of triangle A’’B’’C’’ under an enlargement centre
(-5,0) and linear scale factor of -1, and hence draw triangle A’’’B’’’C’’’ and state
its coordinates. (3 marks)

21. The figure below represents two neighboring plots with QR as their common boundary.

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192
Find to 2 decimal places,

(a)The length of boundary PQ. (3 marks)

(b)The angle RQS. (1 mark)

(c)The length of boundary RS. (3 marks)

(d)Area of triangle QRS. (3 marks)

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22.(a)The graph shows the speed of a car during an interval of 12 seconds.

Speed (m/s)

0 2 6 8 10 12
Time (s)

The Distance travelled in the first 4 seconds is 40m.


Find:
(i)the maximum speed reached. (2 marks)

(ii)the average speed for the whole journey. (2 marks)

(b)Wafula left Webuye at 8.00 am towards Mumias at an average speed of


90km/hr. Nekesa also left Webuye at 8.21 am towards Mumias along the same
road of an average speed of 97km/hr.
Determine:
(i)the time Nekesa caught up with Wafula. (3 marks)

(ii)the distance from Webuye when Nekesa caught up with Wafula. (3 marks)

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23.The table below show marks obtained by 60 students in mathematics exam.

MARKS 30- 34 35-39 40 -44 45 -49 50 -54 55 -59 60-64

NO. OF 3 6 5 12 8 Y 7
STUDENTS

(a)Find the value of Y in the above table. (2 marks)

(b) State the modal class. (1 mark)

(c) Calculate the mean mark of the students (3 marks)

(d) On the grid provided draw a histogram and a frequency polygon on the same axes to
represent the above data. (4 marks)

24.(a) Complete the table below for the function y = x 2 − 3x − 4 (2 marks)

x −1 0 1 2 3 4

Use the trapezium rule with 5 strips to estimate the area bounded by the curve
y = x 2 − 3x − 4, x – axis and the lines x = −1 and x = 4. (3 marks)

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(b)Use integration method to calculate the exact area in (b) above (3 marks)

(c)Determine the percentage error in estimating the area by trapezium rule. (2 marks)

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196
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

121/2
MATHEMATICS
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided.
(c) This paper consists of two sections: Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer all questions in section I and Any five questions from section II.
(e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving the answers at each stage in the spaces provided below
each question.
(f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used, except where
stated otherwise.
(h) This paper consists of 18 printed pages.
(i) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and
that no questions are missing.
(j) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


SECTION I
𝟏 𝟐 𝟑 𝟒 𝟓 𝟔 𝟕 𝟖 𝟗 𝟏𝟎 𝟏𝟏 𝟏𝟐 𝟏𝟑 𝟏𝟒 𝟏𝟓 𝟏𝟔 𝐓𝐨𝐭𝐚𝐥

SECTION II
𝟏𝟕 𝟏𝟖 𝟏𝟗 𝟐𝟎 𝟐𝟏 𝟐𝟐 𝟐𝟑 𝟐𝟒 𝐓𝐨𝐭𝐚𝐥

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SECTION I (50MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

1. Solve for x in the equation; (3 marks)

1 𝑥
log 2 81 + log 2 (𝑥 2 − ) = 1
2 3

2. H varies directly as V and inversely as the square of R. Find the percentage change in H if V
is increased by 20% and R by 50%. ( 3 marks)

3. David bought a piece of land for Ksh.40,000 which appreciated by 12% p.a in the first year
and 18% p.a for the subsequent years. If he sold the land after three years, how much did he
get? (3 marks)

1 5
4. Expand (𝑥 + 1) up to the fourth term, hence use the expansion to estimate (1.04)5 correct to
4 decimal places. (4 marks)

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3 5
5. Rationalize and simply the surd below completely; - (3 marks)
3+√7 3 − √7

6. The figure below shows a circle centre O and a point R which is outside the circle.

O R

Using a ruler and a pair of compass only locate a point S on the circle such that angle
OSR = 900. (3 marks)

7. In a G.P, the sum of the second and the third terms is 12, and the sum of the third and the
fourth terms is −24. Find the first term and the common ratio. (4 marks)

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8. A shopkeeper mixes sugar costing Sh. 40 per Kg with another type which costs Sh. 60 per
kg. Find the ratio in which the two types should be mixed so that if a kilogram of the mixture
is sold at Sh. 55, a profit of 10% is realized. (3 marks)

9. Given that m = 𝐢 − 3𝐣 + 4𝐤, n = 6𝐢 + 3𝐣 − 5𝐤 and q = 2m + 5n. Find the magnitude of Q


to 3 significant figures. (3 marks)

10. The following figure shows a circle centre O.

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(a) Determine the equation of the circle. (2 marks)

(b) Use the equation in part (a) to determine the x-intercept of the circle correct to 4
significant figures. (2 marks)

11. The following data represents the marks scored by 10 Kisii high school students during a
mathematics contest which was held at Sacho high school.

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18, 22, 12, 16, 24, 25, 29, 15, 13, 19.
Find the variance from the data above. (3 marks)

12. The radius of a cylindrical solid is exactly 7cm while its height is given correct to one
22
decimal place as 10.0cm. Taking л to be , calculate the percentage error in the volume of
7
the solid. (3 marks)

13. Solve for x in the equation; ( 3marks)

Cos (2x- 10) = 0.5 for 00 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 360°

14. In an experiment involving two variables t and r, the results were obtained.

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T 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5

R 1.50 1.45 1.30 1.25 1.05 1.00

On the grid provided below, Draw the line of best fit for the data. (3 marks)

15. A triangle T, has vertices A(-3, 0), B(3, 0) and C(1, -4). A transformation matrix
2 4
( ) makes T1 on to triangle T2. Calculate the area of triangle T2. (3 marks)
3 −1

3
16. Find the value of a if ∫a (2x + 4) dx = 25. (3 marks)

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SECTION II (50 MARKS)
17. A quadrilateral ABCD has vertices A(4,-4) , B(2,-4) , C(6,-6) and D(4,-2).
a) On the grid provided, draw the quadrilateral ABCD. (1mark)
0 −1
b) ABCD is mapped onto A’B’C’D’ by a transformation represented by the matrix ( )
1 0
i) On the same grid, draw the image A’B’C’D’. (3 marks)

ii). Describe the transformation that maps ABCD onto A’B’C’D’ (2 marks)

c) The coordinates of A’’B’’C’’D’’, the image of A’B’C’D’ under a transformation given


1 −1
by the matrix ( ) are: A’’( 0 ,4), B’’( 2, 2), C’’( 0, 6), D’’( -2, 4).
0 1

i) Draw A’’ B’’ C’’ D’’ on the grid. (1 mark)

ii) Determine a single matrix that maps ABCD onto A’’B’’C’’D’’. (3 marks)

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18.In a class of 18 boys and 10 girls, two students have been selected to represent the school in a
Mathematics contest.
(a)Draw a tree diagram to represent this information. (2 marks)

(b)Use the tree drawn in (a) above to find the probability that the students who
were picked were:
(i)Both girls (2 marks)

(ii)A boy and a girl. (2 marks)

(iii)All boys (2 marks)

(iv)A boy and a girl in that order. (2 marks)

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19. The following grouped data represents marks of 100 candidates in an examination in a certain school.
Study it and answer the questions that follow.

1 11 21 31 41 51 61 71 91 -
Marks 81 − 90
− 10 − 20 − 30 − 40 − 50 − 60 − 70 − 80 100
No. of
4 9 16 24 18 12 8 5 3 1
Students

a) Draw a Cumulative frequency curve from the above data on the grid provided below
(3marks)

b) Use your graph to find the following:


i) Median mark (1 mark)

ii) The pass mark if 70% of students are to pass. (2 marks)

iii) Quartile deviation. (2 marks)

iv) If 55 marks was set as pass mark during the analysis of the results, estimate how
many candidates passed. (2 marks)

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20. A triangular garden is such that AB = 8cm, angle BAC=450 and angle ABC = 750.

a) Using a ruler and a pair of compasses only, Draw the garden. (3 marks)

b) A water tap P is to be mounted on the garden such that it is equidistant from points A and B
and from lines AB and BC. On the diagram in (a) above, Show the position of P. (3 marks).

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c) Identify by shading a region R in the plot formed under the following conditions:
i) CR ≥ 1.5cm. (1 mark)
ii) R is more than 2cm from line AB. (1 mark)
iii) R in nearer to CB than CA . (2 marks)

21.In a triangle OAB, OA = a, OB = b. Point M and N are such that AM:MB = 1:2 and
ON:NA = 1:2. OM and BN intersect at x.
(a)Express in terms of a and b.
(i)OM (1 mark)

(ii)BN (2 marks)

(b)If OX = k OM and BX = h BN where k and h are constants, express OX in terms of:


(i)k, a and b (1 mark)

(ii)h, a and b (2 marks)

(iii)Find the values of h and k. (3 marks)

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(c)State the ratio in which X divides BN. (1 mark)

22. The velocity of a particle in m/s, moving in a straight line after t seconds is given by
v = 3t² − 3t – 6.
Find:-
i) The acceleration of the particle after 2 seconds. (2 marks)

ii) The distance covered by the particle between t = 1 and t = 4 seconds. (3 marks)

iii) The time when the particle is momentarily at rest. (2 marks)

iv) The minimum velocity attained by the particle. (3 marks)

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23. In a certain year income tax for all the income earned was charged at the rate shown
below.

Monthly taxable pay in KShs Rate of tax % in each KShs


1 -9,680 10%
9,681-18,800 15%
18,801-27,920 20%
27,921-37,040 25%
Excess over KShs 37,040 30%
Mrs. Momanyi earned a basic salary of KShs. 32,000 and a house allowance of KShs. 10,000
and a non-taxable allowance of ksh 8,000 per month. She claimed a tax relief of KSh 1056 per
month.(a) Calculate her total taxable income. (2 marks)

(b) Calculate her PAYE In that month . (5 marks)

c) Other than tax, the following deductions are made:


(i) A service charge of Sh. 100
(ii) Health insurance fund Sh. 320
(iii) A co-operative loan of Sh. 3200
(iv) Burial benevolent fund of KSh. 200

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Calculate her net monthly income from her employment. (3 marks)

24.(a)Complete the table below for y = x3 + 4x2 – 5x – 5 for -5 ≤ x ≤ 2. (2 marks)

x -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2

y 19 -5

(b)On the grid provided, draw the graph of y = x3 + 4x2 – 5x – 5 for -5 ≤ x ≤ 2.


(3 marks)

(c)Use the graph to solve the equations.


(i)x3 + 4x2 – 5x – 5 = 0 (2 marks)
(ii)x3 + 4x2 – x – 4 = 0 (3 marks)
(iii)x3 + 4x – 5x – 5 = 3 (1 mark)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

232/1
PHYSICS
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a)Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b)Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c)This paper consists of two sections; A and B.
(d)Answer all the questions in sections A and B in spaces provided.
(e)All working must be clearly shown in the spaces provided in this booklet.
(f)Non-programmable silent electronic calculators may be used.
(g)This paper consists of 13 printed pages.
(h)Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pagesare printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
(i)Candidates should answer the questions in English.

SECTION A (25MARKS)

1. A salt solution of volume 30cm3 and density 1.1 g/cm3 is mixed with 25cm3 of pure water
of density 1g/cm3. determine
a. Total mass of the mixture (1mark)

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b. Density of the mixture (2 marks)

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2. The figure below shows a section of Vernier callipers to measure the thickness of a
wooden block.

What is the reading of the Vernier callipers (1 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. A rod is made up of copper and wood joined together. Identical thermometers are placed at
points A, B, C and D. The rod is heated at the junction for about a minute

State with a reason the thermometer that will record the lowest reading (1 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. A body is whirled in a horizontal circle at a frequency of 10Hz. Determine its angular
velocity. (2 marks)

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5. State the immediate action that needs to be taken in the laboratory in case of electric fire.
(1mark)
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6. The diagram below shows a mass of 10kg hanged on a set of 6 identical springs.

When a mass of 10g was hanged on spring A, its extension was 5cm. Find the extension of the
combination shown if each spring has mass of 50g. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. In an experiment to determine atmospheric pressure, a plastic bottle is partially filled with hot
water and the bottle is then tightly corked. After some time, the bottle starts to be deformed.
a) State the purpose of the hot water. (1mark)

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b) State the reason why the bottle is deformed. (1 mark)
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8-.The figure shows an object O at the edge of a turntable. Study the diagram and answer the
question that follow

The table spins anticlockwise. State one factor that will increase the force acting on the object
(1 mark)

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9. The figure below shows a uniform bar of weight 5.4N and of length 2.8m is pivoted near one
end. The bar is kept in equilibrium by a string as shown. Use the diagram to answer the
questions 4 and 5

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Determine the tension on the string.
(2 marks)

1O. A turntable of radius 7.5cm is rotating at 35 revolutions per second. Determine the linear
speed of a point on the circumference of the turntable. (2 marks)

11.The graph below was obtained when an experiment to investigate the variation of the
centripetal force, F, with the radius, r of the circle on which a body rotates was performed.
From the graph, determine the angular velocity, ω of the body given that m = 100g and
F = mω2r + c where c is a constant. (2marks)

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12. The figure shows parts of a Bunsen burner. Study it and answer the questions that follow

Explain how air is drawn into the air hole when the gas tap is opened (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13 The figure shows a type of hydrometer that is used to measure relative density of liquids
ranging from 0.79-1.14. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow

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a) The letters A and B are used to label the values of relative density. State the letter which
corresponds to a relative density of 1.14 (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) State the purpose of the lead shots (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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14.) The motion of a body is described by the graph shown in the figure. Study it and answer the
questions that follow

Sketch a velocity-time graph for the motion on the grid provided (1 mark)

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SECTION B (55 MARKS)
Answer All Questions In This Section In The Spaces Provided
15.
a) The figure shows a pulley system being used to raise a load.

Determine the
i. Velocity ration of the system (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii. Mechanical advantage of the system (2 marks)
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iii. The efficiency of the system (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv. Give ONE reasons why the efficiency of such a system is always less than 100% (1 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) A body of mass 40kg is lifted through from a height of 4.0m to 8.2m in one minute.
Determine
i.The potential energy gained by the body (2 marks)
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ii.The average rate of doing work in the one minute (2 marks)
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16.
a)State the law of flotation. (1 mark)
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b) The figure shows a rectangular metal block of density 10800kgm-3 and dimensions 40cm x
15cm x 15cm suspended inside a liquid of density 1180kgm-3 by a string attached to a point
above the liquid. The three forces acting on the block are; the tension, T, on the string, the
weight, W of the block and the up thrust, U, due to the liquid.

i. Write the expression relating to T, W and U when the block is in equilibrium inside the
liquid. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii. Determine the weight, W, of the block (2 marks)
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iii. Determine the weight of the liquid displaced by the fully submerged block.
(2 marks)
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iv. Hence determine the Tension, T, in the string. (2 marks)
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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v. A certain solid of volume 52cm3 displaces 8.5cm3 of kerosene (density 800kgm-3) when
floating. Determine the density of the solid. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c.) The figure shows the same metal block weighed in air and in water. The reading of the level
of water becomes 150cm3 when the metal is fully immersed. Study the diagram and answer the
questions that follow

Determine the volume of the metal block (2 marks)


………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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17.
a) A burn from steam at 100°C is more severe than water at the same temperature. Explain this
observation (1 mark)
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b) The figure shows samples of water at 80°C placed in two identical containers. the volume of
water is the same

The beaker in figure (a) is wrapped with a wet cloth dipped in methylated spirit while figure (b)
is wrapped with a wet cloth dipped in cold water at the same temperature as the spirit. State with
a reason the water that will record a lower temperature after being left in the open for same time
period.
(2 marks)
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c) An electric heat rated 6000W is used to heat 2kg of ice initially at -5°C until all the mass turns
to steam. Given that, the specific Latent heat of fusion of ice = 334000JKgˉ¹ Specific heat
capacity of ice = 2100JKgˉ¹Kˉ¹ Specific heat capacity of water = 4200JKgKˉ¹ Specific latent
heat of vaporization of steam = 226000JKgˉ¹ Calculate:
i. The amount of heat required to convert ice into water at O°C. (2 marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii. The amount of heat required to convert water to steam at 100°C. (2 marks)
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iii. The minimum time required in minutes for activity in (i) and (ii) to take place.(2 marks)
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d) The figure shows a set-up that was used to determine the specific heat capacity of aluminium
block. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow

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i. State the purpose of the variable resistor (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii. Apart from voltage current and temperature, state any other quantity that is required for
the determination of the specific capacity of the aluminium block (2 marks)
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18.
i. A body having uniform motion in a circular path always accelerates and yet the speed
remains constant. Explain this observation (1mark)
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ii. An object is whirled in a horizontal plane at an angular velocity of 40rad/s. given that the
radius of the circular path is 3.0m. Determine the linear velocity of the body (2 marks)
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iii. Figure 17 below shows the path of a body t of mass 400g tied to a string of length 0.4 m and
being whirled in a vertical circle at a linear speed of 10m/s.

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State what provides the centripetal force on the mass m (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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19.
a) State Charles’ law. (1 mark)
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b) The diagram below shows a set up used to verify Charles law.

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i. Give the name of part labeled X. (1 mark)

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ii. Give the function of the part labeled in (i) above. (1 mark)
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b.) Briefly explain how the set up above can be used to verify Charles law. (2 marks)
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c) A weather balloon contains 100m3 of Helium when the atmospheric pressure is 90kPa. If the
atmospheric pressure changes to 100,000Pa, determine the new volume at constant temperature.
(3 marks)
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20.
a) State Newton’s second law of motion. (1 mark)
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b) A striker kicks a ball of mass 250g initially at rest with a force of 75N. If the foot was in
contact with the ball for 0.10sec. Determine the takeoff velocity of the ball. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) A body moving with a velocity of 20m/s decelerates to a stop in 10s. Represent this motion of
a Velocity-time graph. (2 marks)
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d) An object released from a height h attains a velocity of 60m/s just before hitting the ground.
Determine the value of h. (take g = 10m/s2) (3 marks)
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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

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232/2
PHYSICS
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 This paper consists of two sections A and B.
 Answer all the questions in the two sections in the spaces provided after each question
 All working must be clearly shown.
 Electronic calculators, mathematical tables may be used.
 All numerical answers should be expressed in the decimal notations.

FOR EXAMINER`S USE ONLY


SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S
MARKS SCORE
A 1–9 25
B 10 08
11 08
12 08
13 10
14 11
15 10
TOTAL 80

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
1. Figure below shows a ray of light being incident on a mirror.

(a) Complete the diagram by showing the reflected ray (1mark)


(b) What is the angle of reflection? (1mark)

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1 1
2. The graph below shows variation of   (cm-1) with (cm-1) for an object placed in front of
u v
concave mirror.

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From the graph, determine the focal length of the mirror. (3marks)

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3. (a) State the basic law of electrostatic charges (1 mark)
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(b) A positively charged rod is brought near the cap of a lightly charged electroscope. The leaf
divergence first reduces and as the rod comes nearer, it diverges more.
(i) State the charge on the electroscope. (1mark)
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(ii) Explain the observation above (2 marks)
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4. (a) The diagram below shows electromagnetic waves detection and uses. Fill in the blanks below
appropriately (2 marks)

Types of radiation Detector Uses

X- rays X-ray photography

Phototransistor of blackened Warmth sensor


thermometer

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(b) Radio wave signals can be detected behind hills and in lower valleys; but TV waves cannot.
Explain. (2 marks)

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5. An iron rod is positioned facing the north- south direction and is hit several times. It was later
observed that it attracted other smaller iron pieces. Using domain theory, explain this
observation.
(2 marks)

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6. The figure shows a current – carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.

State and explain the observation made. (2 marks)

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7. The Figure below shows a wave profile of moving at a velocity of 200m/s.

6
Displacement (m)

0.02 0.04 0.06 0.08


-3
Time (s)
-6

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Determine its wavelength. (2 marks)

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8. Distinguish between a transverse and a longitudinal wave (2 marks)

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The figure below shows a longitudinal wave.

X Y

(a) Indicate on the diagram, the wave region of;


(i)Low pressure (1mark)
(ii)High pressure (1mark)

9. A student was investigating the brightness of bulbs when setup in electric circuits. She used
identical bulbs and cells. The circuits shown in figure 3(a) and (b) were what she setup.

(a) (b)

Which setup was the bulb brightest? Give a reason for your answer. (2marks)

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SECTION B (55 MARKS)

10. (a) Define interference of waves (1 mark)


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The figure below shows the rays of monochromatic light incident on two adjacent slits S1 and S2

Monochromatic
S1
light source y
S0
d

S2

x
(b) What is the purpose of having slits S1 and S2 (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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a) State and explain the observation made (2 marks)
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b) State what is observed on the screen when the
(i) Slit separation, d, is reduced. (1mark)

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(ii) Distance, x, is increased. (1mark)

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(iii) White light is used. (1mark)
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(iv) Give an expression for the wavelength λ of light. (1mark)
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11. (a) Define critical angle (1mark)
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(b) A student had a research project of making a fiber optic cable as shown.

(i) Compare; with reason the optical densities of the materials A and B (2 marks)
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(ii) On the diagram above, draw the path of a ray of light incident on the cable at point P till it
emerges at side Q (2 marks)
(c) The figure below shows a ray of light passing into a glass prism ABC. Sketch the path of the
ray as it travels from the face AC. (critical angle for glass is 420) (3 marks)

300

12 (a) The figure below represents two parallel plates of a capacitor separated by a distance d. Each plate
has an area of A square units.

A cm2

Suggest two adjustments that can be made on the plates so as to reduce the effective capacitance.
(2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) Figure shows a circuit diagram with three capacitors.

3µF
4µF

2µF

6V

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i)Determine the effective capacitance of the arrangement. (3marks)

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ii)Determine the effective capacitance of the arrangement. (3marks)
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iii)The potential difference across the 2F capacitor. (2 marks)
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c)State one application of capacitors (1 mark)
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13. (a) State Faraday’s law of Electromagnetic induction. (1mark)

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(b) A single coil of wire is held between the poles of a magnet as shown in figure below. The
ends of the coil are connected to a sensitive center-zero galvanometer. When the coil is slightly
rotated clockwise about its axis in between the magnet, the galvanometer deflects momentarily.

(i)On the diagram, indicate the direction of flow of current (1 mark)


(ii)Explain why the galvanometer deflects (2marks)

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(iii)State and explain how the deflection would be made larger with the same apparatus (2marks)

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(c) The diagram below shows an induction coil used to produce sparks in the car ignition.

Explain how the sparking is produced when the switch is closed (3 marks)

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iii) State the purpose of the part labelled B in the circuit. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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14.(a) Electrical energy is distributed in the gid network using thick aluminum cables as alternating
current (a.c) at high voltage. Explain why:
(i) A grid system is important (1 mark)
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(ii) A very high voltage is necessary. (1mark)

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(ii) The power is transmitted as alternating (a.c.) voltage (1mark)

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(iii) A laminated core is used in transformers (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) Fig shows part of a domestic wiring system with a fault.

i)Identify the fault and draw another diagram besides it with the correction. (2 marks)
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ii)State the function of part labelled F (1 mark)
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(c) The following electrical appliances were used as follows in a certain home.

 A 2000W water heater for 2 hours per day,


 A 75W bulb for 10 hours per day.
 An 1500W electric iron for 1 hour per day.
Calculate the cost of using the following appliances in one month (30 days) if the electricity company rate
is Ksh.12.50 per unit; and a standing charge of Ksh.300 while fuel cost levy is at 90 cents per unit.
(4 marks)

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15.(a) Distinguish between a real and a virtual image. (2 marks)
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(b)Figure below shows an object ‘O’ in front of a lens.

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i)By drawing appropriate rays on the same figure; show the position of the image formed
(3marks)
ii)An object is placed 20cm in front of a diverging lens of focal length 10cm. determine the
position of the image (2marks)

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The figure below shows how a distant object is focused in a defective eye.

i)State the nature of the defect. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii)On the same diagram, sketch the appropriate lens to correct the defect and sketch rays to show
the effect of the lens. (2marks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO…………………………………………….ADM NO…………..……………

232/3
PHYSICS
PAPER 3
(PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

MOKASA 1 JOINT EXAMINATAION – 2025


(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
2. Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
3. You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 ½ hours allowed for this paper
reading the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
4. Marks are given for a clear record of the observations actually made, their suitability,
accuracy and the use made of them.
5. Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made.
6. Non-programmable silent calculators and mathematical tables may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


Question 1 a(i) a(ii) a(v) a(vi) a(vii) vii ix x Total
Maximum 1 2 1 5 5 3 2 1
score
Candidate’s
score

Question 2 Part c f g PART b Part C v


A(b) B(a) (ii)
Maximum score 1 3 3 2 1 4 1 5

Candidate’s
score

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Grand
Total

QUESTION ONE
You are provided with the following apparatus
 Two new dry cell
 Cell holder to hold two cells
 Nichrome wire on a mm scale
 Voltmeter
 8 connecting wires with at least five with crocodile clips on one end.
 5 resistors connected together in series labelled R
 A switch
 A micrometer screw gauge
 A resistor labelled P

a)Proceed as follows.
i) Use a micrometer screw gauge to measure the diameter of the wire.
D =…………………………….……………………………………m (1mark)
ii) Calculate the cross sectional area of the wire in SI units. (2marks)
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iii) Connect the circuit below.

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iv)Let length AB = d = 25cm. Keep this length constant throughout the experiment. Set point c
so that the resistance R is 10  .
v)Close the switch S and read the voltmeter reading.
V1 = ………………………………….……………………………….……… (1mark)
vi)Open the switch and set point C so that the value of resistor R is 20  , 30  , 40  , 50  as in
the table below. Read and record the values of the voltage corresponding to the resistance
R. (5marks)

Resistance R  10 20 30 40 50
Voltage V(V)
V
( A)
R
V
vii)Plot a graph of ( A) against V (V). (5marks)
R

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viii)Determine the slope s of the graph at V = 0.65V1 (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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A
ix)Given that Z = , find the value of z in SI units. (2marks)
5d
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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x)What physical quantity does Z represent? (1mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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QUESTION TWO
PART A
 A screen and a candle
 Metre rule
 Beaker (glass) 250ml
 Measuring cylinder
 Water

a)Add a volume of 200ml of water into the beaker.


b)Measure the value h height of water in the beaker.
h = …………………………….…………………………………… cm(1mark)

V
c)Using the formula K = , determine the value of K.
h
i)K = …………………………….………………………….……………..…(2marks)
ii)What does K represents? (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d)Set your apparatus as shown below.

e)Position the candle which acts as an object above the meter rule at a distance u= 8K cm away
from the centre of the water lens, then adjust the screen to obtain a sharp image of the
candle. Record the value of V in the table below.

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f)Repeat the procedure in (e) for u = 10k cm. complete the table below. (3marks)

u u in (cm) V (cm) v
M 
u
8K

10K

V
g)Given that the focal length f of the lens satisfies the equation f . Determine the average
1 M
value of the focal length. (2marks)
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PART B
You are provided with the following.
 Retort stand, clam and bass
 500ml beaker ¾ full of water
 Metre rule
 100g mass
 50g mass
 Three pieces of thread

Proceed as follows
a)Balance the meter rule horizontally by suspending it from the stand and clamp with one of the
threads.
Record the balance point G.
G = …………………………….…………………………………… cm (1mark)
b(i)Suspend the 100g mass from the meter rule at a point X such that X = 10cm from point G.
With 100g mass completely immersed in water in the beaker, hang the 50g mass from the

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247
meter rule and adjust its position until the system is in equilibrium as shown in the
diagram below.

ii)Find the value of y.


y = ……………………….………….…………………………………… (1mark)

iii)Using the information above calculate the upthrust on the 100g mass. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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PART C
You are provided with the following apparatus.

 Prism
 4 optical pins
 Plain paper
 Protractor
 Soft board

i)Set up the apparatus as shown below.

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248
ii)Measure angle A of the prism using a protractor.

A = ……………………………………………………………………..…(1mark)
iii)Place the prism on a plain paper and trace its outline with a pencil. Indicate the prism angle A.
Draw an incident ray to strike the prism at 400. Replace the prism and stick pins P1 and P2
to define the incident ray.
View pins P1 and P2 from the opposite face (MN). Insert pins P3 and P4 so that they
appear to be in line with images of P1 and P2. Remove the prism and join P3 and P4 to
give emergent ray.
Extrapolate the emergent ray into the prism so as to meet the extrapolated incident ray at
Q.

iv)Measure angle D. (2marks)

D = …………………………………………….………………………….……………

b)Calculate the value of  , given that (2marks)

  A  D 
cos 90 0   
  2 

 A
sin  
2

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c)What is the significance of  (1mark)
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