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LET Reviewer Part 2 - CBE 3 (Social Studies Specialization)

Bachelor of Secondary Education Social Studies I (Pangasinan State University)

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BUILDING BRIDGES ACROSS THE SOCIAL SCIENCE DISCIPLINE

Discussion/Lecture for Building Bridges

A. Directions: Multiple Choice. Choose the correct letter of the best and correct answer.

1. Mrs.Banaag an Economics teacher of grade 9-Silver class. She Discuss the different
determinants that affecting the supply and demand curve, her students listen to her
attentively. What type of approach did Mrs. Banaag used?
A. Inductive Approach C. Discovery Approach
B. Deductive Approach D. Inquiry Approach

2. Every Friday, the students of Grade 8 will have an activity regarding World War 2.
Teacher Esplana will guide them when there’s something vague in their presentation.
The students carefully classify and identify the similarities and differences towards
important details that they have gathered. What type of approach did Ms. Esplana used?
A. Inductive Approach C. Discovery Approach
B. Deductive Approach D. Inquiry Approach

3. The Grade 7 SSC of Mrs.Cablayan is excellent mostly in oral recitation. They make
advance reading therefore they answered correctly every questions of their teacher,
what type of Mrs. Cablayan used?
A. Inductive Approach C. Discovery Approach
B. Deductive Approach D. Inquiry Approach

4. Teacher Kim a clever law teacher gives set of examples of cases to his students
according to the lesson that they have tackled last week. He let his students to identify
what rules and concepts are being used base on the giving scenario. What type of
approach describes the class of Mr. Kim?
A. Inductive Approach C. Discovery Approach
B. Deductive Approach D. Inquiry Approach

5. It is a process of comprehensive school reform and basic education for all students. It
challenges and rejects racism and other forms of discrimination in school and society
and accepts and affirms the pluralism that student their communities and teacher
represent.
A. Multicultural Education C. Globalization
B. Education for all D. Citizenship Education

6. It seeks to develop in the learner not only a planetary perspective but also the survival
skills needed to ensure the continuous existence of human species.
A. Multicultural Education C. Globalization
B. Education for all D. Citizenship Education

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7. The process of interaction and integration among the people, companies, and
government of different nations, a process driven by international trade and investment
and aided by information and technology.
A. Multicultural Education C. Citizenship Education
B. Globalization D. None of the choices

8. It can be defined as educating children from early childhood to become clear thinking
and enlighten citizens who participate in decisions concerning society.
A. Education for all C. Multicultural Education
B. Globalization D. None of the choices

9. The general approaches in teaching history and civics?

A. Inductive Approach C. Deductive and Inquiry Approach
B. Discovery Approach only D. All of the above

10. The movement was launched at the World Conference on Education for All in 1990 by
UNESCO, UNDO, UNICEF, and the World Bank that “no one will left behind”.
A. Globalization C. Multicultural Education
B. Education for all D. Citizenship Education

11. Teacher Isabel uses criteria and showed the result with shortfalls on her students’
performance over a period of time.
A. Formative Assessment C. Summative assessment
B. Standard Criteria D. none of the above

12. This is a process of gathering information whether the instruction, services, and
activities that the program provides are producing desired student learning outcomes.
A. Assessment C. Assessment tools
B. Evaluation D. Measurement

13. The overall goal of this is to improve student learning and provide students, parents,
and teachers with reliable information regarding student’s progress.
A. Summative Assessment C. Assessment
B. Formative Evaluation D. Evaluation

14. Evaluation is best described as a;

a. Result that shows more permanent and clear picture of learning.
b. Broad range of activities and task including observation, work sheet and performance.
c. Way for the teacher to determine students skills than understanding attainment .
d. A process gathering evidences of students performance using tools.

15. The following are characteristics of assessments except.

A. It provides feedback.

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B. Reflective
C. Product oriented
D. Diagnostic
16. It is a method of judging the worth of a program while the program activities are in
progress.
A. Formative evaluation.
B. Summative evaluation.
C. Formative assessment
D. Standard assessment

17. Which of the following is true about evaluation?

A. The measurements standards for evaluation are absolute.
B. The criteria for evaluation are set by both the parties jointly, teacher and student.
C. The standards of measurement for evaluation are comparative.
D. none of the above

18. Assessment and evaluation differs in many ways except in

A. Both of them are reflective process that is continues until the end goal is met.
B. Diagnosing the performance of the student over period of time.
C. The evidences and the data about the quantity and quality of students performance
are gathered.
D. Assessment and evaluation both impose standards externally.

19. Which of the following described assessment of learning.

A. Assessment is diagnostic on-going and prescriptive.
B. Assessment uses criteria tools and is a product oriented
C. Assessment is a process oriented and judgmental in nature
D. Assessment is on-going and reflective.

20. It is a method of judging the worth of a program at the end of program activities.
A. Assessment
B. Summative evaluation.
C. Formative evaluation
D. Summative assessment

21. Geography came from the Greek words “geo” and “graphy” in which we can lexically
define geography as:
A. A study of human interaction
B. A discipline concerned with analysis and prediction
C. The art of making and studying maps
D. None of the above

22. This is an approach in geography which focused on fixing the location of places on the
earth’s surface.

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A. Mathematical Approach
B. Descriptive Approach
C. Analytical Approach
D. Predictive Approach
23. Natural phenomena like mountains, rivers, lakes, etc. change slowly while the cultural
elements like buildings, roads, etc. change fast. What nature of geography best
describes this situation?
A. Geography as a study of human interaction
B. Geography as the art of making and studying maps
C. Geography as the product of human interaction between the environment in which
we live and the way we use it
D. Geography as a discipline concerned with analysis
24. Entice after her 10 years staying in New York finally came back to her town province
Alegria. She noticed big changes in Alegria—from agricultural to industrial.
A. Geography as a product of human interaction
B. Geography as a product of human intervention
C. Geography as a product of human settlement
D. All of the above
25. Geographic information can be gathered through the following EXCEPT:
A. Travel diaries and gazetteers
B. Reports and field works
C. Gossips and rumours
D. Geographic Information System (GIS)
26. . The following statements were the three key reform themes of the 2002 Basic
Education Curriculum EXCEPT one:
a. The articulation of more complex and higher level learning goals.
b. The integration of several subjects with the goal of helping each Filipino
student to develop a healthy personal and national identity.
c. The streamlining and integration of learning areas in the curriculum.
d. The use of creative and innovative teaching approaches to improve student
learning.

27. Basic Education Curriculum of 2002 is the touchstone for integrative teaching
and learning, what learning area does promote nationalism?
a. Science
b. Makabayan
c. . English
d. . Values Education

28. Teacher Shel uses different methods in teaching her subjects. Like, in history-
oriented disciplines, she applies the approach of thematic/chronological and
thematic/topical for Economics. What component of MAKABAYAN does the
approaches Teacher Shel applied in teaching?
a. TLE

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b. Social Studies
c. MAPEH
d. Values Education

29. Teacher Rode is a high school teacher, who handles a subject which is
according to 2002 BEC, seeks to guide the youth in developing their values,
increase their capacity for reflection and critical analysis and achieve integration
of personhood. What subject did Rode teach?

a. Values Education
b. Social Studies
c. TLE
d. MAPEH

30. This component of MAKABAYAN comprises home economics, agriculture and

fisheries, industrial arts, computer education and entrepreneurship.

a. MAPEH
b. Social Studies
c. Economics
d. TLE

31. Mr. Paul, adviser of Grade 8, he is assigned to teach Values Education in his
class. What approach Mr. Paul can use in teaching Values Education?

a. thematic/chronological approach
b. thematic/topical approach
c. experiential learning approach
d. thematic approach

32. Mr. Monde, Supervising Instructor, shared to his student teachers for their
upcoming demo teaching, “Discussion must be in order which things happen
or should happen”.

a. Profession
b. Sequence
c. Scope
d. Topic

33. What is the most sequencing principle in teaching?

a. Inquiry
b. Inductive

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c. Deductive
d. Spiral Progression

34. He was the first proponent of constructivism and described the spiral
progression.

a. Jerome Bruner
b. Abraham Maslow
c. Jean Piaget
d. Lev Vygotsky

35. Primary grades focuses on the topics that have _______ and familiar focus for
children.

a. Remote in space and time

b. Inexistent
c. Concrete
d. Broad

36. Ideas are first presented in a form of _________ (that) can be grasped by the child.

a. Movement
b. Language
c. Sound
d. Signs

37. This approach builds intellectual strength and conceptual power and broadens
students’ horizons.

a. Constructivist
b. Discovery
c. Inquiry
d. Compare and contrast

38. Bruner stressed that teaching should always lead to boosting _______
development.

a. Affective
b. Cognitive
c. Psychomotor

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d. Emotional

39. What is the use of spiral progression in teaching and learning process?

a. It helps you get a clearer understanding.

b. Understand the fundamental concept of a subject.
c. Determine the content of a subject.
d. To ensure mastery of knowledge and skills after each level.

40. In the spiral progression, concepts are revisited as you go up the grades. This
supports ________ of concepts.

a. Basic
b. Fundamental
c. Mastery
d. Knowledge

41. Teacher Jeje asked questions prior to the discussion and introduce the topic by
asking what ideas come to their when they hear certain familiar and unfamiliar
words, so that, instruction must be structured so that it can be easily grasped by
the student.

a. Readiness
b. Spiral Organization
c. Reinforcement
d. Going beyond the information given.

42. Teacher Bell suggested a good strategy on how they will present their report
in their Araling Panlipunan subject. He suggested role-playing as their
strategy just like what their teacher in high school used which is effective for
them. What expectations of Makabayan he shows?

a. Magkaroon ng malinaw na kaisipan tungkol sa nilalaman ng asignaturang

tinalakay
b. Makapagbigay halimbawa ng mabubuting karanasan tungkol sa aralin
c. Makapagmungkahi ng nararapat na estratehiya sa nababagay na aralin
d. Makapagpamalas ng makatuwiran at bukas na pag iisip sa pagbabago at sa
pagpapasya

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43. John never gives up being an SK Chairman and to their program which is
Feeding Program for malnourished children to their barangay. Even he’s busy,
he never forgets to go to their church to serve God. What competency of
Makabayan does it refers?

a. Naipapamalas ang damdaming makabansa at ang pagmamalaki bilang pilipino

at bilang mamamayan ng daigdig
b. Naipapakita nag tunay na diwa ng pagpapahalaga sa sariling pagkatao at sa
karapatan at karangalan ng tao
c. Naipapakita nag optimistikong gawi , dakilang pag-ibig at paglilingkod sa kapwa
at sa Diyos
d. Nagagampanan ang pananagutan bilang kaanib ng pamilya, pamayanan, bansa,
rehiyon at daigdig

44. The following are program competencies of Technology and Livelihood Education
except one :

a. Develop safety working habits

b. Enhance individual self-reliance and productivity in meeting human needs
c. Develop desirable attitudes and work ethics which will contribute to
effective personal, family and community living
d. None of the given option

45. Harvey forgot to say “po” and “opo” to his elders as sign of respect and forgot
our own language since he arrived from USA. As a teacher, what competency of
Araling Panlipunan needs to be integrated in our discussion if Harvey is our
student?

a. Nalilinang,naitatangi at napapangalagaan ang kanais-nais na pagpapahalaga at

kaugaliang Pilipino
b. Naipapamalas ang paggalang sa mga pagpapahalaga at kaugalian ng ibang
bansa
c. Naipapakita ang tunay na diwa ng pagpapahalaga sa sariling pagkatao at sa
karapatan at karangalan ng tao
d. Nagagampanan ang pananagutan bilang kaanib ng pamilya, pamayanan, bansa,
rehiyon at daigdig

46. Ariel is a teacher having his own happy family. As father, he provides the needs
of his child and wife. Although he’s busy with he’s own family and work he
always find a way to help to their barangay like clean-up drive. He always

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participates to the projects of their barangay. Ariel is accompanied with what

goal of Araling Panlipunan?

a. Naipapamalas ang matalinong pagpapasya sa suliraning pampamilya ,

pampamayanan, pambansa, panrehiyon, at pandaigdig
b. Nagagampanan ang pananagutan bilang kaanib ng pamilya, pamayanan, bansa,
rehiyon at daigdig
c. Naipapakita nag optimistikong gawi , dakilang pag-ibig at paglilingkod sa kapwa
at sa Diyos
d. Naipapakita nag tunay na diwa ng pagpapahalaga sa sariling pagkatao at sa
karapatan at karangalan ng tao

47. The following are program competencies of Values Education except one:

a. Naipapamalas ang mataas na antas na kasanayan ng pag-iisip

b. Naipapakita nag optimistikong gawi , dakilang pag-ibig at paglilingkod sa kapwa
at sa Diyos
c. Naipapakita nag tunay na diwa ng pagpapahalaga sa sariling pagkatao at sa
karapatan at karangalan ng tao
d. None of the above

48. Elena, nursing student at Arawi State Universty, help the young boy who is
injured from playing football and apply first aid, the program competency of
Mapeh that she acquired is:

a. Naipapamalas ang mga pangunahing kaisipan sa kalusugan

b. Naipapamalas ang mga batayang kasanayan sa kalusugan
c. Naipapakita ang kanais-nais na kaasalang pangkalusugan
d. All of the above

49. The following are goals of Araling panlipunan except one:

a. Mapanuri
b. Makapagmuni
c. Makabansa
d. None of the above

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50. Leslie uses bicycle instead of tricycle going to the market and never try to burn
her garbage especially plastics. What goal of Araling Panlipunan does Leslie
acquired?

a. Mapanuri
b. Makabansa
c. Makakalikasan
d. Mapanagutan

REVIEW QUESTIONS (HERE) TEACHING MAKABAYAN

1. Which of the following is not an inquiry form of collecting data?

a. observation
b. questionnaire
c. sociometry
d. attitude scale

2. An interview is best defined as __________.

a. A data collection tool.

b. A data collection tool which involves a face to face encounter.
c. A data gathering tool wherein respondents are verbally asked regarding a series of questions.
d. Similar to questionnaire.

3. Which of the following is a good trait to possess when conducting an interview?

a. A friendly personality.
b. An argumentative personality.
c. An appearance of being learned and knowledgeable.
d. Talkative

4. A questionnaire is best defined as _________.

a. A data gathering tool.

b. A data gathering tool made up of written questions with spaces provided for the respondents
answer.
c. A data gathering tool made up of written interview questions.
d. A data gathering tool similar to that of an interview.

5. Which of the following is not a good characteristic of a questionnaire?

a. It deals with a significant topic.

b. It is short as possible and attractive in appearance.
c. Directions are clear and complete.

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d. Questions are leading in order to influence the respondents.

6. The research data can be presented in what manner?

a. Tabular
b. Graphic
c. Textual
d. All of the above

7. Which of the following is not an advisable manner of presenting tables in research output?

a. It should be simple, focusing on limited ideas.

b. A small table may occupy a single page together with its textual presentation.
c. Text references should identify tables by numbers not by phrases like “the table in page…”
d. Tables may exceed the page size of the manuscript.

8. This part under the preliminary section is optional.

a. Table of Contents
b. List of Tables
c. Acknowledgment
d. Title Page

9. The subjects for a research study taken from the population.

a. Variable
b. Sample
c. Respondents
d. Interviewees

10. The respondents’ gender, age or educational attainment is also called _________.

a. Psychographic characteristics
b. Demographic characteristics
c. Independent variables
d. Dependent variables

11. Dummy tables are best defined as __________.

a. The tables presented in the research paper.

b. Tables without any entries.
c. Empty tables created to prepare for the data to be gathered.
d. Tables which are irrelevant to the study.

12. In creating the Bibliography part of the study, the first page of the bibliography should
_______

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a. Have the word “Bibliography” on the left side and in capital letters.
b. Have the word “Bibliography” on the right side and in capital letters.
c. Have the word “Bibliography” in the center and in bold letters.
d. Have the word “Bibliography” in the center and in capital letters.
13. The following are the main parts of a bibliographic entry.

a. Author’s name and title.

b. Title and facts about publication.
c. Author’s name, title and facts about publication.
d. Author’s name, title, and publisher’s name.

14. A bibliography is placed in what part of the research?

a. After the chapter on summary and conclusions.

b. Before the Introduction chapter.
c. After the Acknowledgment part.
d. Before the title page.

15. One of the data gathering tools mentioned below is self-administered.

a. Observation
b. Questionnaire
c. Interview
d. Participatory observation

16. A research abstract is defined as _________.

a. A summary of the research presented at the end of the research text.

b. A brief statement of the essential content of the research presented at the start of the research
text.
c. Similar to a thesis paper.
d. None of the above.

17. A good research according to Wilkinson should be characterized by the following except:

a. Does not include unnecessary words.

b. It must include the focus of the study.
c. It should not be longer than 12 words.
d. It should show the research methodology.

18. The language of research for the qualitative approach is ________.

a. Formal
b. Informal
c. English
d. Filipino

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19. The following are the objectives of writing the Introduction of the research of the study
except:

a. Make the readers be interested in the research.

b. Establish the background of the research.
c. Establish the problem of the research.
d. Establish the possible findings of the research.

20. A variable is best defined as ________.

a. The cause which influences the outcome of the research.

b. They are the outcome of the study.
c. These are those which are statistically controlled in the study.
d. A phenomenon that can be measured or observed in two or more categories.

21. Terms used in the study which are defined operationally are written in _________ of the
study.

a. General
b. Specific and detailed
c. Abstract
d. Vague

22. In identifying the potential weakness of the study, it should be contained in the _________ of
the study.

a. Assumptions
b. Hypothesis
c. Delimitation
d. Limitation

23. In narrowing the scope of the study, _________ of the study is used.

a. Assumptions
b. Hypothesis
c. Delimitation
d. Limitation

24. The research paradigm illustrates the _________.

a. Relationship of the variables of the study.

b. Theoretical framework of the study.
c. Hypotheses of the study.
d. Problems of the study.

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25. A survey research design enables the researcher to _________.

a. Generalize findings from the whole population.

b. Generalize for the whole population based on a sample population.
c. Generalize for the sample population based on the whole population.
d. Conduct a qualitative and non-numerical research.

26. One of the following is a disadvantage of a survey research design.

a. The design saves time and effort.

b. The design produces enough data in a short period of time.
c. The design enables the research to identify attributes of a population based on a small number
of respondents.
d. The design enables the researcher to manipulate the variables of the study.

27. Interviews are conducted in any of the following except:

a. Face-to-face
b. Telephone
c. Group
d. Anonymous

28. The assumptions of the study are presented in the

a. Introduction
b. Review of Literature
c. Results and Discussion
d. Summary, Findings and Conclusion

29. Historical method aim to objectively reconstruct the past while descriptive method aims to
__________.

a. Investigate patterns and sequences.

b. Intensively study the background and current status of a given social unit.
c. Systematically describe a situation or an area of interest.
d. Investigate

30. Quantitative study uses statistical procedures while qualitative study uses _________.

a. Testing of theories
b. Narrative presentation
c. Statistical procedure
d. Survey method

31. The problem statement is first presented under what part of the research?

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a. Summary, Findings and Conclusions

b. Introduction
c. Review of Literature
d. Results and Discussion

32. The research hypothesis is answered under what part of the research?

a. Summary, Findings and Conclusions

b. Introduction
c. Review of Literature
d. Results and Discussion

33. A review of literature should include ___________.

a. Scholarly literature about the study’s independent variable.

b. Scholarly literature about the study’s dependent variable.
c. Scholarly literature about the relationship of the independent variable and dependent variable.
d. All of the above.

34. Reliability is best defined as __________.

a. The consistency of a measuring tool.

b. The validity of a measuring tool.
c. The correctness of a measuring tool.
d. The degree of a measuring tool.

35. A research which aims to develop new skills or approaches or solution to a problem.

a. Case Study
b. Survey
c. Base Line Research
d. Action Research

36. Under the survey research a questionnaire is _________.

a. The only data gathering tool.

b. A data gathering tool which can be combined with interview.
c. A data gathering tool that can be substituted by observation.
d. An effective quantitative data gathering tool.

37. Research involves all the following except

a. Synthesizing books and earlier studies.

b. It is directed towards a solution of a problem.
c. It is based on observable evidence.
d. It involves the gathering of new data.

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38. The research’s raw data should be placed in the _________.

a. Bibliography
b. Results and Discussion
c. Appendices
d. Table of Contents

39. The comparison between prior studies and the current research is presented in the _________

a. Introduction
b. Review of Literature
c. Results and Discussion
d. Summary, Findings and Conclusion

40. A definition of the terms used in the study is presented in the __________.

a. Introduction
b. Review of Literature
c. Results and Discussion
d. Summary, Findings and Conclusion

41. A discussion of the rationale of the study is presented in the _________.

a. Introduction
b. Review of Literature
c. Results and Discussion
d. Summary, Findings and Conclusion

42. The use of the theory to discuss the results of the research is presented in _________.

a. Introduction
b. Review of Literature
c. Results and Discussion
d. Summary, Findings and Conclusion

43. One of the following is a characteristic of a research recommendation.

a. Should be something that can be done.

b. Should be based on results which the study was not able to produce.
c. Should be directed to organizations that have no control over the variables of the study.
d. Should be presented before the conclusions.

44. The conclusion of the study _________.

a. Suggests actions for organizations involved in the research.

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b. Presents the result of the study.

c. Answers the problem statements of the study.
d. None of the above.

45. If a study aims to understand the success or failure of a government policy, the proper
research design is __________.

a. Case Study
b. Experiment
c. Historical Method
d. Observation Method

46. These are the statements that the research believes to be facts, but cannot verify.

a. Conclusions
b. Recommendations
c. Findings
d. Assumptions

47. Operational definitions are written in a ________.

a. General language
b. Specific, detailed language
c. Dictionary language
d. Complex language

48. That section of the research which enumerates reasons why the study would improve a
practice or a policy.

a. Recommendation
b. Significance of the Study
c. Hypothesis
d. Findings

49. A research instrument refers to the __________ of the research.

a. Data gathering method

b. Data gathering tool
c. Data analysis
d. Data collection

50. In case the reference is an unpublished material, the bibliography entry should contain the
following except:

a. Author
b. Title of the dissertation

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c. Year of completion of the dissertation

d. Name of the adviser of the author

SOCIO- CULTURAL ANTHROPOLOGY (SSt 102)

Direction: Choose the letter of the correct answer.

1. A concept that states that no culture is superior over other cultures is known as ____.
A. acculturation B. amalgamation C. cultural relativism D.
ethnocentrism
2. A subsistence technology involving the raising of large herds of animals.
A. horticulture B. intensive agriculture C. pastoralism D. slash
and burn
3. It refers to the view that the supernatural being has the form of a man.
A. androgynous B. anthropogeny C. anthropoid D.
anthropomorphic
4. It is generally defined as subsistence technology in which food-getting is dependent on naturally
occurring resources such as wild plants and animals.
A. food sourcing B. food production C. food cultivation D. food
collection
5. The family wherein a person is raised and bred.
A. adopted family B. extended family C. family of orientation D.
family of procreation
6. It is a socially approved sexual and economic union usually between a man and a woman that is
presumed to be more or less permanent.
A. alliance B. arrangement C. contract D.
marriage

7. Sororate is a marriage practice wherein a woman marries her deceased _____,

A. aunt’s husband B. father’s brother C. mother’s husband D.
sister’s husband

8. Avuncolocal residence pattern refers to:

A. the couple lives with or near the husband’s parents or wife’s parents
B. the son and his wife settles with or near his mother’s brother
C. the son and his wife settles with or near his father’s brother
D. the couple lives with or near the husband’s parents

9. This marriage practice refers to the marriage of a woman to several husbands at the same time.
A. polygyny B. polyandry C. monogamy D.
endogamy
10. It is a political unit composed of many communities and having a centralized government with the
authority to make and enforce laws, collect taxes and draft men for military service.
A. band B. chiefdom C. kingdom D. state

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11. It is the system of growing all kinds of crops with relatively simple tools and methods in the absence
of permanently cultivated fields.
A. agronomy B. crop specialization C. horticulture D.
intensive agriculture
12. Which of the following is a general feature of food collectors?
A. nomadic C. low population density
B. limited personal possessions D. dependent on naturally occurring sources

13. This field of anthropology seeks to reconstruct the daily life and customs of prehistoric peoples and
also traces the cultural changes and also offers possible explanations for those changes.
A. archaeology B. ethnography C. ethnology D.
human variation
14. It is the material wealth given to the bride and her family before marriage.
A. bridewealth B. fosterage fee C. gift D.
inheritance
15. It is the study of how different rock formations are laid down in successive layers or strata.
A. geochronometry B. geography C. geology D.
stratigraphy
16. It is defined as the study of the origin, development and nature of human species.
A. anthropology B. ethnography C. genetics D.
human variation
17. The dominance of one state over another is-
A. colonialism B. extension C. globalization D.
hegemony

18. The branch of anthropology which seeks to reconstruct the daily life and customs of prehistoric
peoples through their material remains.
A. archaeology B. ethnography C. ethnohistory D.
ethnology
19. It is the collection of attributes said to be associated with one’s sex. It is a cultural matter as compared
with sex which is a biological matter.
A. status B. gender C. traits D.
indicators
20. It is telling the unknown or foretelling the fortunes by omens or prophecy.
A. divination B. magic C. oracle D.
sorcery

21. The process by which organisms cope with environmental stresses is-
A. acculturation B. adaptation C. amalgamation D.
enculturation
22. The life cycle crisis like birth, puberty, marriage and death are called-
A. ceremony B. evolution C. myth D. rites
of passage

23. The period in pre-history also known as New Stone Age.

A. Mesolithic B. Neo-evolution C. Neolithic D.
Paleolithic

24. Another term for horticulture is-

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A. agriculture B. mixed farming C. slash and burn D.

swidden farming
25. It is characterized by the use of plow and the domestication of plants.
A. agriculture B. foraging C. gathering D.
horticulture

26. The belief that things in nature such as trees and mountains have souls or consciousness.
A. Taoism B. animation C. animatism D.
animism

27. The religious specialist, a healer or medium is called-

A. witch B. sorcerer C. shaman D.
prophet

28. The tools and related techniques of culture is known as-

A. totem B. technology C. icons D.
culture

29. A system of relationships among the members in a society is known as-

A. lineage B. kinship C. genealogy D.
descent

30. The prohibition that is derived from the Polynesian tapu which implies sacredness is-
A. veto B. totem C. sanction D.
taboo

31. Which of the following societies were the first to have permanent residents?
A. feudal B. horticultural C. hunter-gatherer D.
industrial

32. Organic solidarity is most likely to exist in which of the following types of societies?
A. agricultural B. feudal C. hunter-gatherer D.
industrial

33. Maria works full-time at an office downtown while her young children stay at a neighbor's house.
She's just learned that the childcare provider is leaving the country. Maria has succumbed to pressure
to volunteer at her church, plus her ailing mother-in-law will be moving in with her next month.
Which of the following is likely to occur as Maria tries to balance her existing and new
responsibilities?
A. role strain B. self-fulfilling prophecy C. status conflict D.
status strain

34. What role do secondary groups play in society?

A. the members give and receive emotional support
B. they allow individuals to challenge their beliefs and prejudice
C. they are transactional, task-based, and short-term, filing practical needs
D. they provide a social network that allows people to compare themselves to others.

35. Which type of group leadership has a communication pattern that flows from the top down?
A. authoritarian B. democratic C. laissez-faire D. expressive

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36. What is the one defining feature of a minority group?

A. self-definition B. numerical minority C. lack of power D. strong
cultural identity

37. As symbols shape the way we think, rituals shape our ___.
A. actions B. emotions C. feelings D. perceptions

38. A postindustrial society is the type of society that has developed over the past few decades that
features an economy based on services and technology, not production. Which is not a major
characteristic of a postindustrial society?
A. focus on ideas C. need for higher education
B. large areas of land are cultivated D. shift in workplace from cities to homes

39. The belief that one’s ethnic or cultural back group is centrally important and all others are measured in
relation to one’s own.
A. egotistical B. ethnocentrism C. symbolism D. racism

40. Process when a person leans the requirements of culture by which he or she is surrounded, and
acquires values and behaviors that are appropriate or necessary of that culture.
A. culture shock B. enculturation C. exposure D. participant
observation

41. A first-hand, detailed description of a living culture, based on personal observation.

A. enculturation B. ethnocentrism C. ethnography D. ethnology

42. The study of a particular topic in more than one culture using ethnographic material is known as ___.
A. enculturation B. ethnocentrism C. ethnography D. ethnology

43. This is the study or investigation of ancestry and family histories.

A. family tree research B. genealogical data C. history D. life history

44. The cultural-dynamic process in which some old aspect of culture ceases to be used or practiced is
called
A. culture loss B. diffusion C. innovation D. secondary innovation

45. Ben has feelings of uneasiness, loneliness, and anxiety that occur when he has shifted from one
Filipino culture to Japanese culture. He experiences ___.
A. culture B. cultural relativism C. culture shock D. fear of
culture

46. Mode of production that includes the gathering of food that is available in nature, by gathering,
fishing, or hunting.
A. agriculture B. foraging C. horticulture D. pastoralism

47. Mode of production that involves growing crops with the use of plowing, irrigation, and fertilizer.
A. agriculture B. foraging C. horticulture D. pastoralism

48. Egalitarian is composed of __.

A. government C. social systems (bands, tribes, chiefs)
B. groups of communities D. social system (chiefdoms, social ranks, or
stratified societies)

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49. Planned, coordinated, and sustained efforts to alter part or all of a culture, whether by members or
outsiders, are called
A. directed change B. genocide C. innovation D. new
traditions

50. The destruction of the people of another group or society, by killing them or preventing their births, is
called
A. acculturation B. ethnocide C. ethnogenesis D. genocide

TEST QUESTIONS
IN COMPARATIVE GOVERNMENTS AND POLITICS

I. Multiple Choices. Encircle the letter of the best answer.

1. Comparative government and politics introduces students to fundamental
concepts used by political scientist to study the processes and outcomes of politics
in diverse country settings
A. The statement is correct. C. The statement is
wrong.
B. The statement is both correct and wrong. D. None of the
above.
2. These are the persons who enjoys the protection of the state and have the right
to participate in its political affairs
A. Aliens B. Citizens C. Pirates D.
Convicts
3. It is the essential instruments or agency through which the will of the state is
formulated, expressed and carried out.
A. Government B. People C. Territory D.
Sovereignty
4. It referred to political organization that typically seeks to influence government
policy, usually nominating their own candidates and trying to seat them in political
office
A. Political Organizations C. Quasi-Judicial Courts
B. Court of Appeals D. Party List Groups
5. The President of the Philippines shall exercise general supervision over local
governments.
A. The statement is correct. C. The statement is
wrong.
B. The statement is both correct and wrong. D. None of the above.
6. The members of the COA shall be appointed by the Supreme Court, with the
consent of the Commission on Appointments.
A. The statement is correct. C. The statement is
wrong.

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B. The statement is both correct and wrong. D. None of the above.

7. The following are Filipino citizens EXCEPT

A. Those who are married to a Filipino;
B. Those who are naturalized in accordance with law;
C. Those who are citizens of the Philippines at the time of adoption of
Constitution;
D. Those whose fathers or mothers are citizens of the Philippines
8. Is any office or employment in the government or any subdivision, agency, or
instrumentality thereof, including government owned and controlled corporation or
their subsidiaries held by a member of Congress during his incumbency
A. Incompatible Office C. Franking Privileges
B. Forbidden Office D. Freedom of Speech
9. It is a principle in which blood relationship is the basis for the acquisition of
citizenship
A. blood compact B. jus soli C. jus sanguinis D. naturalization
10. Is usually a “Man without a country” who has lost their original citizenship and
has not required another one.
A. Aliens B. Immigrants C. Subjects D. Stateless Person
11. The following are powers of the President EXCEPT one
A. Pardoning Power B. Law Making C. Treaty Making D. Budgetary
Powers
12. It means that the acts of his subordinates shall be deemed the act of the
President.
A. Separation of Powers C. Alter Ego Doctrine
B. Checks and Balances D. Power of Supervision

13. It is the term generally used to describe manmade laws and it command the
state enforced by its political authority
A. Positive Law B. Negative Law C. Neo classical Law D.
International Law
14. He is the father of Utilitarianism in England who stressed that all laws should be
examined to promote the greatest happiness of the people
A. Jeremy Bentham C. John Austin
B. Oliver Wendell Holmes, Jr. D. King Patrick
15. The school of legal philosophy that associated with the culmination of attack on
the Orthodox claim of late nineteenth century Classical legal thought
A. Legal Realism B. Positivism C. Negativism D.
Classical Thought
16. It refers to the rule that if a similar dispute has been resolved in the past, the
court is bound to follow the previous decision
A. JuraB. Dura Lex Sed Lex C. Stare DecisisD. Precedents
17. Is the term used when the court finds that the current disputes is fundamentally
distinct from all previous cases

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A. Matter of First Impression C. Appellate Cases

B. Concurrent Disputes D. Original Cases
18. It refers to the official London residence of the British sovereign located at
Westminster.
A. Westminster Abbey C. Buckingham Palace
B. Canterbury Palace D. The Wales
19. She ruled England from 1558 to 1603 which was considered in history as a time
of prosperity and achievement, and her court was a center for poets, writers,
musicians and scholars.
A. Queen Victoria C. Queen Elizabeth
B. Joan of Arc D. Queen Anne
20. Is called the “Mother of Parliaments”
A. England or Britain C. Canada
B. Switzerland D. Cambodia
21. It refers to a loose of independent states having its own government for certain
purposes
A. Unions B. League of Nations C. Confederates D. States
22. The type of government of India.
A. Federal Republic C. Constitutional Monarchy
B. Parliamentary D. Presidential
23. The upper house of legislature in India is called the Rajya Sabha while its lower
house is called___________________.
A. RajyaLobha B. LokRajha C. LokSabha D. SabhaLok
24. It serves as the buffer zone between North Korea and South Korea
A. Korean Demilitarized Zone C. Korean Assembly Area
B. Korean Standing Place D. Korean Coup Palace
25. The form of government exercised in Brunei
A. Constitutional Monarchy C. Oligarchy
B. Constitutional Sultanate D. Oligarchy

26. A special court which deals mainly on matters involving the Muslims
A. Shariah Court C. Court of Appeals
B. Supreme Court D. Common Law Court
27. The Head of the Kuwait’s government
A. Emir B. Sultan C. Juche D.
Procuratorate
28. In Japan, the _____________ is a ceremonial figurehead. He is defined by the
Constitution as the symbol of the state and the unity of the people
A. Vice President B. Emperor C. Prime Minister D. King
29. Communist China and Red China were two common names for People’s Republic
of China (PRC)
A. The statement is correct C. The statement is false
B. The statement is both correct and false D. None of the above
30. The People’s Republic of China (PRC) was established when this last dynasty
ended

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A. Yuan dynasty B. Tang dynasty C. Tang dynasty D. Qing dynasty

31. The former Qing general of China who had entrusted the defection of the entire
Beijing Army from the Qing empire to the revolution
A. Jiang Zemin B. Zhu Rongji C. Yuan Shikai D.
HuaGuofeng
32. He wanted to program China for transforming it into modern, democratic state
A. Chiang KiaShek B. Mao Zedong C. Hu Jintao D. Sun Yat-sen
33. This is a program outlined by Sun Yat-sen where he wanted to change China into
a modern and democratic state
A. political tutelage C. Red China mileage
B. Millennium development goal D. China Powers

34. Is the most controversial province of China when it comes to political status
A. Hong Kong B. Taiwan C. Macao D. Sichuan
35. Is the head of government of China
A. Premier B. Vice Premier C. President D. Chairman
36. This refers to every administrative district in Kuwait and is also called the Courts
of First Instance
A. Summary Court B. Family Court C. Regional Trial Court
D.Municipal Court
37. The founder of Kuwait and only his male descendants may become emir
A. Majilis al- Umma C. Mubarak al-Sabah
B. Kim Jong il D. Yuan Shikai
38. The kind of government exercised in Japan
A. Monarchy C. Communist
B. Absolute Monarchy D. Constitutional Monarchy
39. Japan’s legislative branch is also known as _______________________
A. National People’s Congress C. Diet
B. Kantei D. House of Councilors
40. Japan’s legislature is bicameral in structure. Though the Lower House and Upper
House seems to perform equal important role, the _____________________ is
considered more powerful
A. Lower House or House of Representatives
B. The statement is not true, the two houses has equal role
C. Upper House or House of Councilors
D. None of the above
41. The form of government of Kuwait
A. Parliamentary Constitutional Monarchy C. Limited Constitutional
Monarchy
B. Presidential D. Democracy
42. The ruling family in Kuwait
A. Sultan B. Emir C. Al Sabah D. Mohammed
family

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43. In Kuwait, it plays a real role in decision making, with powers to initiate
legislation, question government ministers, and express lack of confidence in
individual ministers
A. Meiji B. National Assembly C. Presidium D. Prefectures

44. Is a branch of idealism characterized by lack of private property

A. Communism B. Capitalism C. Mercantilism
D. Songun
45. It is described as “a blend of Malay language, culture, and Malay customs, the
teaching of Islamic laws and values and the monarchy system
A. Melayu Islam Beraja C. Shariah Law
B. Brunei Islamic Religious Council D. English Common Law

46. Is the head of state and head of government in Brunei

A. Prime Minister B. Sultan C. Council of Ministers D. Prince
47. He established the Korean People’s Army (KPA)
A. Kim II-sung C. Douglas Tan
B. Kim Yong Nam D. Jeremias Elliot
48. Is an ideology adopted by Kim Jong-II in order to strengthen the country and its
government
A. Communism C. Songun
B. Socialism D. Mercantilism
49. Is an ideology of self -reliance developed by Kim II-sung of Korea
A. Songun C. Communism
B. Juche D. Capitalism
50. Brunei has a legal system based on English common law, although Islamic
Shariah law supersedes this in some cases
A. The statement is correct C. The statement is
false
B. The statement is both correct and false D. None of the
above

Prepared by
CHERYL L. CALIMLIM-MENDOZA, Ph.D.

TEST QUESTIONS IN LAW RELATED STUDIES

Multiple Choices. Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

1. The line ”Ignoratia legis neminem non excusal” means
A. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from knowing
B. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith
C. Ignorance of the legislative branch is not excuse
D. Ignorance will kill you
2. The formal requisites of marriage are the following except one:

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A. Consent freely given in the presence of solemnizing officer C. A

marriage ceremony
B. Authority of the solemnizing officer D. A valid
marriage license
3. The grounds of annulment are the following except one
A. Sterility C. Unsoundness of mind
B. Sexually-transmitted disease (if incurable) D. Force,
Intimidation or Undue influence
4. It refers to the status of the child in relation to the father or the mother.
Sometimes, it is used to indicate paternity (or maternity) as well
A. Paternity B. Maternity C. Filiation D.
Legitimacy
5. Marriage by proxy is one where the other party is merely represented
by a delegate or friend. Which of the following statement is false?
A. If performed here in the Philippines, the marriage is void.
B. If performed abroad, and is valid there, the marriage is valid.
C. The rule on lex loci celebrationis applies
D. A law on marriage by proxy is recognized under Philippine law
6. All of the following are exempt from the issuance of valid marriage
license except
A. In remote places where mode of transportations is available
B. In articulo mortis
C. Marriage of people who have previously cohabited for at least 5
years
D. Marriages between pagans or Mohammedans, who are married in
accordance to their customs
7. The rule in “lex loci celebrationis” means
A. If valid where the marriage is celebrated, it is also valid here in the
Philippines
B. The law that is found in its location shall be celebrated anywhere
C. All marriages solemnized outside the Philippines shall be
celebrated here
D. A marriage though void still needs judicial declaration
8. Psychological incapacity is the condition of a person who does not have
the mind, will, and heart for the performance of marriage and obligations.
Which of the following examples fall short with the above stated
conditions?
A. adamant refusal to give support C. unbearable jealousy on
the part of one party
B. wrong concept of marital vows and marital infidelity D. sporadic
gambling
9. The scientifically defined pattern where a woman is repeatedly
subjected to any forceful or psychological behavior by a man in order to

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coerce her to do something he wants her to do without concern for her

rights
A. Physically abused women syndrome C. Battered
woman syndrome
B. The acute battering incident D. Cycle of
violence
10. The following are qualifying circumstances of which will make a killing
into a murder EXCEPT one
A. In consideration of a price, reward or promise C. By accident
B. With evident premeditation D. By means of inundation,
fire, poison, explosion
11. The following are crimes against person except one
A. Parricide B. Rape C. Infanticide D. Malicious
Mischief
12. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to gain,
by means of force and intimidation
A. Qualified Theft B. Robbery C. Theft D. Malicious
Mischief

13. Teacher Miguel gave a failing grade to one of his students, Benjie.
When the two met the following day, Benjie slapped Teacher Miguel on the
face. What was the crime committed by Benjie?
A. Corruption of Public Officials C. Slight Physical Injuries
B. Grave Coercion D. Direct Assault
14. An offense committed by a married woman having carnal knowledge
with a man not her husband who knows her to be married, although the
marriage can be later declared void
A. Concubinage B. Bigamy C. Adultery D. Violence Against
Women and Children
15. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in
the commission of a crime
A. Terrorism B. Gang C. Conspiracy D.
Band
16. One of the following is an alternative circumstance
A. Insanity B. Intoxication C. Passion or obfuscation
D. Evident Premeditation
17. The seduction of a virgin over twelve (12) years and under eighteen
(18) years of age committed by any person in public authority, priest,
homeservant, domestic, guardian, teacher, or any person who, in any
capacity, shall be entrusted with the education or custody of the woman
seduced
A. Simple Seduction B. Corruption of Minors C. Qualified Seduction
D. Forcible Abduction

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18. Offended party is incapacitated for labor for 10 days

A. Less serious physical injuries C. Slight Physical injuries
B. Serious Physical injuries D. Tumultuous Affray
19. The Anti- Sexual Harassment can be committed in a work, training or
education environment only
A. if a person demands sexual favors C. both is in favor of the
sexual acts
B. if a person demand sexual favors and if there is moral ascendancy D.
accepts the sexual favor
20. The Anti-Bouncing Check Law is
A. RA 6425 B. RA 8353 C. BP 22 D. RA 5122
21. The Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999 is
A. Republic Act 8749 B. BP 3434 C. RA 676
D. E.O. 88
22. The following are the state declaration of RA 7394 (Consumer Act of
the Philippines. Which is not among them?
A. to promote hazards to health and safety;
B. protection against deceptive, unfair and unconscionable sales acts and
practices;
C. provision of information and education to facilitate sound choice and
the proper exercise of rights by the consumer;
D. provision of adequate rights and means of redress
23. Human rights in the Philippines had its humble beginnings when, on
10 December 1948 it was one of the first countries that voted in favor of
the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR). The Philippines is also
signatory to a number of United Nations human rights treaties, including
the following EXCEPT
A. Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)
B. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)
C. United Nations Convention Against Torture
D. Promotion of Terrorism and Piracy
24. The following are impeachable offices except one
A. Members of Senate B. Members of the Supreme Court C.
President D. Ombudsman
25. It refers to that special court that shall have jurisdiction over civil and
criminal cases involving graft and corrupt practices and such other
offenses committed by public officers and employees in relation to their
offices as may be determined by law
A. Presidential Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Commission
C. Ombudsman
B. Sandiganbayan D. Judicial and
Bar Council
26. The following conditions should be observed with regards to the
employment of minors EXCEPT

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A. No child below 15 years old shall be employed except when under the
sole responsibility of parents
B. No person below eighteen (18) years in age be employed in an
undertaking which is hazardous or deleterious in nature
C. Person between fifteen (15) and (18) years in age may be employed for
such limited number of time provided under the labor code
D. No need for permit if the child is a TV superstar and is making millions
in his earnings
27. All are prohibited acts against women employment EXCEPT
A. To determine appropriate minimum age and other standards for
retirement or termination in special occupation
B. A requirement by the employer that a woman employee shall not
get married
C. To discharge such woman on account of her pregnancy, or while on
leave or in confinement due to her pregnancy
D. Payment of lesser compensation to a female employee as against
a male employee for work of equal value.
28. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father.
What was the crime committed?
A. Murder B. Parricide C. Homicide D.
Qualified Homicide
29. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months. They live
together with the children of Lea from her first husband. Charlie had
sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of Lea. Jane loves
Charlie very much. What was the crime committed by Charlie?
A. Simple Seduction B. Rape C. Qualified Seduction D. Consented
Abduction
30. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his
parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him, Fred gave him 1 million
pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Fred. What was
the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
A. Direct Bribery B. Extortion C. Corruption of Public
Officials D. Malversation
31. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the
confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized
into groups and the parties responsible cannot be ascertained.
A. alarm and scandal B. mysterious homicide
B. death under exceptional circumstances D. tumultuous affray
32. It refers to any act of canvassing, enlisting, contracting, transporting,
utilizing, hiring or procuring workers, and includes referrals, contract
services, promising or advertising for employment, locally or abroad.
A. Illegal recruitment B. Recruitment and placement C. Economic
Sabotage D. Seafearing
33. R.A. 8042 as approved on June 7, 1995 is otherwise known as

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A. Migrant Workers and Overseas Filipinos Act

B. 13th Month Pay Law
C. Tax Exemptions for Minimum Wage Earners and Increased Tax
Exemptions
D. Home Mutual Development Fund

34. RA 9504 which was signed into law by Pres. Arroyo on June 17, 2008 is
otherwise known as
A. Retirement Law Pay C. Anti Sexual Harassment Act
B. Paternity Leave Act D. Parental/Solo Parent Leave
35. The employee shall be paid by ten (10%) percent of his regular wage
for each hour of work performed between ten o’clock in the evening and
six o’clock in the morning
A. Night Shift Differential B. Double Holiday C. Waiting Time Pay
D. Special Holiday Pay
36. All are prohibited acts against women employment EXCEPT
A. To determine appropriate minimum age and other standards for
retirement or termination in special occupation
B. A requirement by the employer that a woman employee shall not get
married
C. To discharge such woman on account of her pregnancy, or while on
leave or in confinement due to her pregnancy
D. Payment of lesser compensation to a female employee as against a
male employee for work of equal value.
37. The following are deductions to the employees’ wages that are
allowed under existing laws EXCEPT
A. For field trips and out of town gatherings C. In cases where the
employee is indebted to the employer
B. In cases where the employee is insured with his consent by the
employer D. Withholding tax
38. Labor Code is applicable to
A. Employees of non-stock, non-profit organizations C.
Employees of labor organizations
B. Agricultural Workers D. All of
the above
39. A “labor dispute” under the Labor Code is defined as:
A. any controversy or matter concerning terms or conditions of
employment or the association or representation of persons in
negotiating, fixing and maintaining, changing or arranging the terms and
conditions of employment
B. any controversy or matter concerning conditions of employment
or the representation of persons in negotiating, fixing, maintaining,
changing or arranging the terms and conditions of employment

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C. any controversy or matter concerning terms or conditions of

employment
D. any controversy or matter concerning a conflict between management
and labor, including union representation or affiliation
40. Can an employer dismiss a sickly employee on the ground that the
same constitutes analogous causes under Article 282 of the Labor Code?
A. Yes, it is within management’s prerogative to discipline its
workers
B. No, to terminate requires a willful act of the employee
C. Yes, otherwise the principle of no-work, no-pay becomes
meaningless
D. No, as dismissals for health reasons require that illness of the
employee be incurable and prejudicial to his co-employees
41. The employee shall be paid by at least twenty-five (25%) percent of
his regular wage for work performed beyond eight (8) hours a day on top
regular wage
A. Meal Period Pay B. Overtime pay C. Holiday pay
D. Service Incentive Leave
42. Reinstatement as a relief in illegal dismissal cases cannot be granted
under the following conditions when:
A. The employee does not want to be reinstated C. The company
has ceased to operate
B. The position of the employee has been abolished D. The
doctrine of strained relations applies
43. Government employees cannot strike because of this reason
A. It is against the law C. It is a civil
service offense
B. It is a violation of the principle of state sovereignty D. All
of the above
44. Can a pregnant woman avail of maternity benefits on her fifth delivery
if she was not able to avail the maternity benefits for the first 4 prior
deliveries?
A. Yes, because she did not avail of the 4 deliveries
B. No, she is not entitled because the benefits accrue only for 4
deliveries
C. She is not entitled because the fifth delivery is not within the four
deliveries as contemplated under the law
D. Not entitled because she did not avail the benefits in the first four
deliveries
45. Which among the following is a just causes that shall serve as a
ground for the termination of employment of the employee
A. Insubordination B. Repeated Absenteeism and Tardiness C.
Loss of Trust D. Retrenchment

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46. Alvin Nahilig, a widower for the past 10 years, felt that his retirement
at the age of 70 give him the opportunity to engage in his favorite
pastime- voyeurism. If not using his high-powered binoculars to peep at
his neighbor’s homes and domestic activities, his second choice was to
follow sweet young girls. One day, he trailed a teenage girl up to the LRC
station at EDSA-Buendia. While ascending the stairs, he stayed one step
behind her and in a moment of bravado, placed his hand on her left hip
and gently massaged it. She screamed and shouted for help. What is the
crime committed?
A. Acts of Lasciviousness B. Slight Physical Injuries C. Rape
D. Unjust Vexation
47. BJ, a security guard, arrived home late one night after rendering
overtime. He was shocked to see Kyrie, his wife, and Reginald, his best
friend, completely naked having sexual intercourse. BJ pulled out his
service gun and shot and killed Reginald. What is the crime committed?
A. Death under Exceptional Circumstances C. Homicide
B. Murder D. Tumultuous Affray
48. On February 14, 2013, Benigno Matulis, a pedophile, gave P1,000 to
Janet, an orphan and a prostitute and brought her to a motel. He inserted
a rusty and oversized vibrator into her vagina with such force that she
bled profusely. Benigno panicked and fled. Janet was brought to the
hospital and died a few days later because of shock caused by
hemorrhage. What is the crime committed?
A. Murder B. Homicide C. Rape D. Serious
Physical Injuries
49. Mark Tanders, a 59 year old man had sexual intercourse with his 11
year old girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was the
crime committed?
A. Qualified Seduction B. Forcible Abduction C.
Statutory Rape D. Simple Seduction
50. Henry with the use of a kitchen knife stabbed Charles to death. The
offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffers slowly and
gradually, causing him unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of
the criminal act. What was the crime committed?
A. Homicide C. Murder
B. Serious Physical Injuries D. Death under Exceptional
Circumstances

Prepared by:
CHERYL L. CALIMLIM- MENDOZA, Ph.D.

ECONOMIC PLANNING AND STRATEGIES

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ANALYZING TEST ITEMS

Multiple Choice.

Direction: Choose the best answer from the given options by writing the letter

corresponding to your choice in the space provided.

_____1. A tool in economics where the application to economic analysis are found in the

field of arithmetic and geometry which are useful tools in explaining

phenomena:

a. Statistical b. Mathematical c. Graphical d. none in the given options

_____2. Which among the following is a non-economic factor that affects economic

development?

a. Market b. religion c. technology d. capital

_____3. The process of transforming the rural areas into productive centers by providing

the essential support in agriculture, trade and industry is known as:

a. economic development

b. countryside development

c. agrarian reform

d. all of the given options

_____4. The core values of development which represent common goals sought by all

individuals and societies include all EXCEPT:

a. self-esteem b. freedom from servitude

c. self-reliance d. life sustenance

_____5. The more the Lorenz line curves away from the diagonal, the _____ the degree

of inequality represented.

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a. lesser b. greater c. more static d. none in the given options

_____6. Labor productivity depends on the amount of __________ an economy has.

a. machines

b. buildings (or factories)

c. technology

d. all of the given options

_____7. Those basic goods and services like food, clothing and shelter that are

necessary to sustain an average human being at the bare minimal level of

living:

a. minimum wage b. economic goods

c. life sustenance d. all of the given

_____8. Climate and bodies of water are elements of what type of environment?

a. Cultural b. physical c. social d. all of the given options

_____9. Refers to the extent to which a person, family or group of people can satisfy

their material and spiritual wants:

a. Levels of living

b. dependency burden

c. malnourishment

d. all of the given options

_____10 . According to the Traditional view on Economics, the following are the factors

in every economic activity EXCEPT:

a. availability of supply

b. demand

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c. price

d. none in the given options

_____11. Refers to the time period that an individual is expected to live after he has been

born alive:

a. Life-sustenance b. Life expectancy

c. Fertility d. Morbidity

_____12. Refer to a nation’s supply of factors of production normally supplied by nature:

a. Territories b. Bodies of water

c. Resource endowments d. Human resources

_____13. The additional output produced by an extra worker when all other inputs are

held constant is referred to as:

a. total product of labor c. marginal product of labor

b. labor force d. none in the given options

_____14. Resources devoted to expanding future income and consumption are known

as:

a. savings b. investments c. wealth d. economic goods

_____15. The expenditure on goods and services that satisfy short-term wants is known

as:

a. production cost c. present consumption

b. future consumption d. rent

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_____16. A small group of countries (Argentina, Hongkong, South Korea, Spain,

Singapore, Taiwan, Yugoslavia) at a relatively advanced level of economic

development with a substantial and dynamic industrial sector and with close

links to the international trade, finance and investment system is known as the:

a. G–7

b. G–77

c. 1st World Countries

d. Newly Industrializing Countries

_____17. It is the name of the seven leading industrialized First World nations which

convene at annual economic summits to discuss global economic issues:

a. G–7

b. G–77

c. Newly Industrializing Countries

d. 1st World

_____18. High rates of population growth are problems in less developed countries

because of their effects on:

a. diminishing returns in agriculture

b. unemployment

c. inequality in the distribution of income

d. all of the given options

_____19. Walt W. Rostow’s “take-off” stage of economic development is the period of an

economy’s:

a. decline in the role of the government

b. preconditions prior to sustained economic growth

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c. launching on a path of continuous economic growth

d. complete economic maturity

_____20. It is a theory of economic development which states that the

underdevelopment of Third World countries is not because of the predatory

activities of the First World and the international agencies that it controls, but

rather because of the heavy hand of the state and the corruption, inefficiency

and lack of economic incentives that permeates the economies of developing

nations.

a. Dependency Theory

b. Growth Stage Theories

c. Dual Economy Model

d. Neoclassical Counter Revolution Theory

_____21. The main thesis in this theory is that human societies developed from the

simple to more complex or civilized forms and passed through certain stages

in the process:

a. Structural Functionalism

b. Evolutionary

c. Conflict

d. New Growth

_____22. This theory conceives of society as a social system which has a structure and

within the social system is a complex, integrated, mutually interrelated and

functionally interdependent parts:

a. Structural Functionalism

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b. Evolutionary

c. Conflict

d. New Growth

_____23. The proponent of this theory contend that social change is the consequence of

the continuous struggle in society among different status groups for wealth,

power and prestige:

a. Structural Functionalism

b. Evolutionary

c. Conflict

d. New Growth

_____24. This theory maintains that the development of nature is a result of the struggle

between contradictions within nature itself:

a. Structural Functionalism

b. Evolutionary

c. Conflict

d. New Growth

_____25. This model essentially views Third World countries as being beset by a variety

of institutional and structural economic rigidities and caught up in a

dependence and dominance relationship to rich countries:

a. False Paradigm

b. International Dependence Revolution

c. Linear Stages

d. Neo Classical Counter Revolution

_____26. This model attributes Third World underdevelopment tp primarily faulty and

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inappropriate advice provided by well-meaning but often uninformed

international “expert” advisers:

a. False Paradigm

b. International Dependence Revolution

c. linear Stages

d. Neo Classical Counter Revolution

_____27. How is the term “planning” described by the UN Department of Economic

Affairs?

a. It refers to the making of a program of public expenditure, extending over

from one to say, ten years

b. It refers to the setting of production targets, whether for private or for public

enterprises in terms of the input of manpower, of capital or of other scarce

resources, or use in terms of output

c. It is use to describe a statement which sets targets for the economy as a whole,

purporting to allocate all scarce resources among the various branches of the

economy

d. all of the above

_____28. As stipulated in the Phil. Constitution, the direction of economic planning

should be oriented to the mission to:

a. reduce poverty and expand employment

b. redistribute wealth and improve the quality of life

c. develop the countryside

d. all of the above

_____29. Which is NOT a component of a plan strategy?

a. identify the critical resources

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b. identify the growth sectors

c. prioritize the areas of growth

d. none in the given options

_____30. Which among the following are principles in planning economic growth which

should be observed by economic planners?

a. real wage rates determine capital intensity in industry

b. infant industries require protection

c. economic growth rate must exceed population growth rate

d. all of the above

_____31. Which among the following economic factors could affect plan

implementation?

a. tax collection shortfall

b. changed foreign market conditions

c. failure to obtain foreign loans and to attract foreign investors

d. all of the above

_____32 The following are principles of plan execution EXCEPT:

a. various authorities or offices should evaluate and monitor the implementation

b. flexibility but not deviation shall govern the actuation of the plan

c. there must be data-banking on plan execution

d. evaluation and monitoring of plan implementation should be done by single authority or office

_____33. The following are indicators of effective plan implementation EXCEPT:

a. reduction of unemployment and underemployment

b. increase of real income of wage earners

c. maximization of monetary rewards in favor of plan implementors

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d. reduction of the poverty group

_____34. A type of economic plan which sets its targets to cover all major aspects of the

national economy is the:

a. partial plan

b. comprehensive plan

c. industrial plan

d. none in the given options

_____35. A type of economic plan which covers only a part of the national economy:

a. partial plan

b. comprehensive plan

c. industrial plan

d. none in the given options

_____36. Which is true of planning in command economies?

a. Resources, both material and financial are allocated in accordance with the material, labor and
capital requirements of the over-all plan

b. Resources, both material and financial are allocated in accordance with market prices and
conditions of supply and demand

c. Both a and b

d. None in the given options

_____37. Which is true of economic planning?

a. It refers to “planning the future financial state of the country for the government”

b. It is an activity that attempts to organize the different economic resources in the best possible
way to maintain business stability

c. It means control and direction of economic activity by a central public authority

d. All of the above

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_____38. Which type of planning model deals with the entire economy in terms of such

macro-economic variables as consumption, production, investment, savings

and the like?

a. aggregate growth model

b. sectoral projection model

c. comprehensive inter-industry model

d. all of the given options

_____39. This is a contractual arrangement between a contractor and a national

government or a Local Government Unit (LGU) whereby the former undertakes

the financing and construction of a specific project, and after operating it for a

fixed period of time turns it over to the latter:

a. Build-operate-transfer scheme

b. Privatization

c. Import liberalization

d. None in the given options

_____40. Which among the following is a manifestation of economic development?

a. growth of GNP accompanied by redistribution of wealth among people

b. rise of investment, production and income that brings about a better quality of life for the
population

c. movement of a country from tool-based to machine-based production with the effect of better
income for the people and the provision of improved facilities for the society

d. all of the above

_____41. In mixed developing economies, government economic policy includes:

a. taxation

b. licensing

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c. wage and price policy

d. all of the given options

_____42. Factors contributory to planning failures include:

a. deficiencies in plans and their implementation

b. insufficient and unreliable data

c. institutional weaknesses

d. all of the above

e. none in the given options

_____43. The following are basic principles in planning except:

a. Planning must be based on existing available resources

b. Planning must be left to the private sector with minimal government intervention

c. Planning must be flexible

d. None in the given options

_____44. In the Philippines, which functions as the independent planning agency of the

government?

a. NEDA b. DOLE c. DBP d. all of the given options

_____45. Planning can involve the use of direct controls - such as:

a. rationing and price

b. fiscal policy

c. monetary policy

d. all of the given options

_____46. It is concerned with the relationship between politics and economics with

emphasis on the role of power in economic decision-making:

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a. political economy

b. positive economics

c. normative economics

d. economic analysis

_____47. It consists of courses of action by the government or other private institutions

to manipulate the results of economic activity:

a. political economy

b. economic policy

c. economic theory

d. economic analysis

_____48. It refers to the coexistence of two situations or phenomena (one desirable and

the other not) which are mutually exclusive to different groups of society:

a. economies of scale

b. economic dualism

c. economic nationalism

d. none in the given options

_____49. These are the present 144 or so developing countries of Asia, Africa, the

Middle East and Latin America characterized by general economic and

technological dependence on developed countries:

a. 1st World Countries

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b. 2nd World Countries

c. 3rd World Countries

d. None in the given options

_____50. This name is a loose coalition of over 100 countries, predominantly developing

ones, originally formed by 77 countries in 1964, to express and further their

collective interests in the world economic system:

a. Big-77

b. Newly Industrializing Countries

c. G-77

d. 1st World Countries

Prepared by: HILARIO B. TABORDA, Ed. D.

Hbt12072018ssdpsu

MICRO AND MACROECONOMICS

Direction: Choose the best answer from the given options by writing the letter corresponding to your
choice in the space provided.

_____1. Macroeconomics is best described by which of the following statements?

a. Macroeconomics is the study of why some products are better in quality than others
b. Macroeconomics is the study of the economy as a whole
c. Macroeconomics is the study of how firms maximize their profits
d. Macroeconomics is the study of the demand for goods and services by households and the
supply of goods and services by firms

_____2. Microeconomics best describes the study of the:

a. rate of growth of the GNP

b. level of national unemployment
c. behavior of individual economic units
d. level of national unemployment

_____3. When we study the income expenditure of Rural Bank of Pangasinan, we are dealing with:

a. Normative economics b. Positive economics

c. Microeconomics d. Macroeconomics

_____4. The following explains the presence of economies of scale EXCEPT:

a. As a firm gets larger, output (product) specialization is better realized

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b. As a firm gets larger, it can use better and more efficient capital equipment
c. As a firm gets larger, management becomes too bureaucratic
d. As a firm gets larger, it can spread its fixed factors of production over more units of output

_____5. Economies of scale are associated with _______ average total cost.

a. constant b. increasing c. growing d. falling

_____6. Which of the following statements is positive economics?

a. The government should implement wage hike to lessen the brain drain phenomenon
b. Last year, 20% of the national budget was allocated to social services
c. Government fund earmarked for poverty alleviation program need to be increased
d. All the given options

_____7. It is the term which argues that the unbridled pursuit of individual self interest automatically
contributes to the maximization of the social interest:

a. Iron Hand b. Invisible Hand c. Guiding Hand d. none in the given

_____8. The following are major barriers to economic development in a country EXCEPT:

a. insufficient capital per worker

b. uncontrollable rapid growth of population
c. innovation and introduction of new technology
d. unstable political systems

_____9. Which one of the following will NOT shift a country’s production possibilities frontier outward?

a. an increase in the capital stock

b. a reduction in unemployment
c. a technological breakthrough
d. an increase in productive labor force

_____10 . The following are characteristics of a pure monopolist EXCEPT:

a. The product being sold is a unique one

b. Entry into the market is relatively easy
c. There is only one seller in the market
d. Monopoly price is greater than its marginal cost of production

_____11. The Philippines experiences favorable balance of trade when:

a. its merchandise imports equal its merchandise exports

b. its merchandise imports are greater than its merchandise exports
c. its merchandise imports are lesser than its merchandise exports
d. it refrains from importing merchandise

_____12. The labor force of the Philippines is composed of what age bracket?

a. 18 – 60 b. 15 – 65 c. 18 – 65 d. 20 – 60

_____13. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

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a. The term “full employment” means that 100% of the labor force should be employed.
b. Retirees are not included as part of the labor force.
c. Harry, who has an M.S. in Economics but working, as a bus driver is an underemployed person.
d. A person who is interested to work and looking for work but is temporarily or permanently out of
work is an unemployed person

_____14. When laborers are thrown out of employment due to the invention of new and better machines,
under which type of unemployment does this situation fall?

a. seasonal unemployment b. disguised unemployment

c. export unemployment d. technological unemployment

_____15. The benefit forgone by a resource-owner in the best alternative use of a resource is called:

a. production cost b. opportunity cost

c. variable cost d. fixed cost

_____16. A business organization which is a creature of the state where management is delegated to a
board of directors is called:

a. Sole Proprietorship b. Partnership

c. Stock company d. Corporation

_____17. The principal legal forms of business organization are:

a. Single proprietorship, partnership, corporation

b. Partnership, charter, sole proprietorship
c. Corporation, charter, stock company
d. Open shop, union shop, closed shop

_____18. Which is an example of a protectionist trade policy?

a. ban on imports b. voluntary export restraint

c. tariff d. all the given options

_____19. One of the present economic policies of the government which provides for the removal of
quantitative restrictions on imported goods is known as:

a. import substitution b. privatization

c. import liberalization d. debt-to-equity swap

_____20. The U.S. imports a lot of cars from Japan. Suppose that the price of steel that Japan uses in
making cars declines, what effect might this have in the U.S. market for cars?

a. The supply of Japanese-made cars to the U.S. will decrease.

b. The price of Japanese-made cars sold in the U.S. will decrease.
c. The price of Japanese-made cars sold in the U.S. will increase.
d. The quantity of Japanese-made cars sold in the U.S. will decrease.

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_____21. The term used when the foreign exchange market is subject to the law of supply and demand in
determining the price of the dollar is called:

a. exchange rate b. floating rate

c. devaluation d. trade deficit

_____22. The lowering of the official exchange rate between one country’s currency and those of the rest
of the world is referred to as:

a. devaluation b. inflation

c. deflation d. point of equilibrium

_____23. Fiscal deficit often occurs when:

a. government spends less than it has collected in taxes

b. government spends more than it has collected in taxes
c. government spends equal to what it has collected in taxes
d. none in the given options

_____24. That part of the economy which specializes in the production of agricultural products and the
extraction of raw materials which includes mining, agriculture, forestry, and fishing is the:

a. primary industrial sector

b. secondary industrial sector
c. tertiary industrial sector
d. none in the given options

_____25. This refers to the emigration of highly educated and skilled professional and technical
manpower from the developing to the developed countries:

a. foreign aid b. urbanization

c. brain drain d. labor productivity

_____26. It is concerned with the utilization of public expenditure, taxation, and public debt to achieve
desired economic objectives:

a. Monetary policy b. Fiscal policy

c. Debt moratorium d. None in the given options

_____27. Which is NOT true of economic development?

a. A progressive process of improving human conditions such as the reduction of poverty, illiteracy
and inequality.
b. The rise of investment, production and income that brings about a better quality of life
c. The sustained capital formation in the country resulting in higher productivity and the
improvement of social institutions for efficiency in resource utilization.
d. None in the given options.

Use the following data to answer the question below:

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No. Of Workers Output

1 5

2 15

3 30

4 37

5 42

_____28. Diminishing returns occur:

a. between the first and second worker

b. between the second and third worker
c. between the third and fourth worker
d. none in the given options

_____29. The statistics most frequently used by economists to measure economic growth is the change in:

a. individual life expectancy b. inflation

c. Real per capita GDP d. underemployment rate

_____30. Supposed that Indonesia has a comparative disadvantage in the production of rice, Indonesia
should:

a. import rice
b. produce rice for domestic consumption only
c. produce rice for export only
d. specialize in the production of rice in an attempt to increase productive efficiency

_____31. According to the “paradox of thrift”, if people expect massive unemployment and try to save
more, this will:

a. result to shortage of goods and services

b. stimulate investment and inhibit actual saving
c. increase the unemployment rate and reduce actual saving
d. eliminate a recessionary GDP gap

_____32. Leftward shifts in both the demand curve and supply curve would result in:

a. lower equilibrium quantity b. higher equilibrium quantity

c. lower equilibrium price d. higher equilibrium price

_____33. If demand curve is shifted, undoubtedly, we know that:

a. the price has changed

b. there is an increase in the quantity of product demanded
c. the supply has decreased
d. the income has increased

_____34. Which one of the following would NOT be included in current Gross Domestic Product?

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a. services rendered by a financial planner

b. the purchase of a two-year old used pair of shoes at the “ukay-ukay”
c. the purchase of flour by a househusband or housewife
d. none in the given options

_____35. Per Capita GNP is obtained by:

a. dividing the nation’s total Gross National Product by the average Filipino income
b. dividing the nation’s total Gross National Product by the number of its citizens aged 18 years old
and above
c. by dividing the nation’s total Gross National Product by the aggregate amount of capital goods
d. by dividing the nation’s total Gross National Product by its entire population

_____36. Which is true of Gross National Product?

a. GNP shows the allocation of goods and services among the members of the society
b. The evils of economic growth like pollution, congestion and dirty environment are reflected in
the GNP
c. GNP only measures the quantity of goods and services but not their quality
d. GNP includes incomes or products from illegal sources

_____37. The _______ involves calculating the sum of all expenditures on final goods.

a. Income Approach b. Product Approach

c. Industrial Origin Approach d. Real GNP

_____38. “Society uses the monetary unit as a yardstick for measuring the relative worth of
heterogeneous goods and services.” – Which function of money is being referred to by the statement?

a. medium of exchange b. standard of value

c. standard for deferred payments d. store of value

_____39. What does the statement “the peso today is worth about fifty centavos” refer to?

a. devaluation b. inflation

c. deflation d. recession

_____40. When few company controls the supply of oil, which term applies?

a. Oligopoly b. Pure competition

c. Monopolistic competition d. Monopoly

_____41. It is a common practice among Oligopolists where an agreement is reached among them to
engage into non-price competition and to manipulate their output for their own business interest:

a. price war b. collusion

c. embargo d. profit sharing

_____42. What can be said of the Philippine peso if the exchange rate of a dollar to a peso has gone
down from ₱50 to a dollar to ₱48.75?

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a. The peso is stable b. The peso has weakened

c. The value of peso is fluctuating d. The peso has strengthened

_____43. The Philippine government decided to enter to an agreement that spells out set of rules
governing the conduct of trade among its member countries. This is known as:

a. GATT b. VAT c. WB d. IMF/WB

_____44. This refers to a type of inflation where there is a continued increase in some cost of production
which in turn results to an increase in prices and a reduction in output.

a. structural b. demand-pull

c. cost-push d. none in the given options

_____45. When prices are determined by buyers and sellers in a market, the economy is using the
_______to allocate resources.

a. socialist system b. communist system

c. capitalist system d. None in the given options

_____46. ”How to raise the standard of living of people” is synonymous to:

a. how goods and services are distributed to the people.

b. how to increase workers’ wage
c. how to democratize access to education.
d. how to raise our ability to produce goods and services.

_____47. When a manufacturer engages the production of pirated CD’s, he violates other people’s right
to:

a. Copyright b. Intellectual property

c. Lawful Income d. Engage in business

_____48. This refers to that volume or level of production at which total revenues and total costs are
equal, or the point at which there are neither profits nor losses:

a. point of equilibrium c. economies of scale

b. break-even point d. none in the given

_____49. Suppose that your supervisor informed you that you would be granted a salary raise of 8% for
this coming year. Suppose further that you have heard economic forecasts that the inflation rate for this
coming year will be 9%. Based on this information, you might think to yourself:

a. “I need to celebrate – I’m effectively getting a 17% pay raise!”

b. “The raise isn’t actually a raise at all since my real income will decline by 1%.”

c. “This isn’t much of a raise, but at least my real income will increase by 1%.”

d. “This isn’t really a raise – my real income is going to decline by 0.72%.”

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_____50. Which one of the following is a fixed cost?

a. electricity b. raw materials c. rent d. supplies

Prepared by: HILARIO B. TABORDA, Ed. D.

Licensure Examination for Teachers (LET) Review

Research in Social Sciences

1. Which of the following is not an inquiry form of collecting data?

a. observation
b. questionnaire
c. sociometry
d. attitude scale

2. An interview is best defined as __________.

a. A data collection tool.

b. A data collection tool which involves a face to face encounter.
c. A data gathering tool wherein respondents are verbally asked regarding a series of questions.
d. Similar to questionnaire.

3. Which of the following is a good trait to possess when conducting an interview?

a. A friendly personality.
b. An argumentative personality.
c. An appearance of being learned and knowledgeable.
d. Talkative

4. A questionnaire is best defined as _________.

a. A data gathering tool.

b. A data gathering tool made up of written questions with spaces provided for the respondents
answer.
c. A data gathering tool made up of written interview questions.
d. A data gathering tool similar to that of an interview.

5. Which of the following is not a good characteristic of a questionnaire?

a. It deals with a significant topic.

b. It is short as possible and attractive in appearance.
c. Directions are clear and complete.
d. Questions are leading in order to influence the respondents.

6. The research data can be presented in what manner?

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a. Tabular
b. Graphic
c. Textual
d. All of the above

7. Which of the following is not an advisable manner of presenting tables in research output?

a. It should be simple, focusing on limited ideas.

b. A small table may occupy a single page together with its textual presentation.
c. Text references should identify tables by numbers not by phrases like “the table in page…”
d. Tables may exceed the page size of the manuscript.

8. This part under the preliminary section is optional.

a. Table of Contents
b. List of Tables
c. Acknowledgment
d. Title Page

9. The subjects for a research study taken from the population.

a. Variable
b. Sample
c. Respondents
d. Interviewees

10. The respondents’ gender, age or educational attainment is also called _________.

a. Psychographic characteristics
b. Demographic characteristics
c. Independent variables
d. Dependent variables

11. Dummy tables are best defined as __________.

a. The tables presented in the research paper.

b. Tables without any entries.
c. Empty tables created to prepare for the data to be gathered.
d. Tables which are irrelevant to the study.

12. In creating the Bibliography part of the study, the first page of the bibliography should
_________.

a. Have the word “Bibliography” on the left side and in capital letters.
b. Have the word “Bibliography” on the right side and in capital letters.

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c. Have the word “Bibliography” in the center and in bold letters.

d. Have the word “Bibliography” in the center and in capital letters.

13. The following are the main parts of a bibliographic entry.

a. Author’s name and title.

b. Title and facts about publication.
c. Author’s name, title and facts about publication.
d. Author’s name, title and publisher’s name.

14. A bibliography is placed in what part of the research?

a. After the chapter on summary and conclusions.

b. Before the Introduction chapter.
c. After the Acknowledgment part.
d. Before the title page.

15. One of the data gathering tools mentioned below is self-administered.

a. Observation
b. Questionnaire
c. Interview
d. Participatory observation

16. A research abstract is defined as _________.

a. A summary of the research presented at the end of the research text.

b. A brief statement of the essential content of the research presented at the start of the research
text.
c. Similar to a thesis paper.
d. None of the above.

17. A good research according to Wilkinson should be characterized by the following except:

a. Does not include unnecessary words.

b. It must include the focus of the study.
c. It should not be longer than 12 words.
d. It should show the research methodology.

18. The language of research for the qualitative approach is ________.

a. Formal
b. Informal
c. English
d. Filipino

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19. The following are the objectives of writing the Introduction of the research of the study
except:

a. Make the readers be interested in the research.

b. Establish the background of the research.
c. Establish the problem of the research.
d. Establish the possible findings of the research.

20. A variable is best defined as ________.

a. The cause which influences the outcome of the research.

b. They are the outcome of the study.
c. These are those which are statistically controlled in the study.
d. A phenomenon that can be measured or observed in two or more categories.

21. Terms used in the study which are defined operationally are written in _________ of the
study.

a. General
b. Specific and detailed
c. Abstract
d. Vague

22. In identifying the potential weakness of the study, it should be contained in the _________ of
the study.

a. Assumptions
b. Hypothesis
c. Delimitation
d. Limitation

23. In narrowing the scope of the study, _________ of the study is used.

a. Assumptions
b. Hypothesis
c. Delimitation
d. Limitation

24. The research paradigm illustrates the _________.

a. Relationship of the variables of the study.

b. Theoretical framework of the study.
c. Hypotheses of the study.
d. Problems of the study.

25. A survey research design enables the researcher to _________.

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a. Generalize findings from the whole population.

b. Generalize for the whole population based on a sample population.
c. Generalize for the sample population based on the whole population.
d. Conduct a qualitative and non-numerical research.

26. One of the following is a disadvantage of a survey research design.

a. The design saves time and effort.

b. The design produces enough data in a short period of time.
c. The design enables the research to identify attributes of a population based on a small number
of respondents.
d. The design enables the researcher to manipulate the variables of the study.

27. Interviews are conducted in any of the following except:

a. Face-to-face
b. Telephone
c. Group
d. Anonymous

28. The assumptions of the study are presented in the

a. Introduction
b. Review of Literature
c. Results and Discussion
d. Summary, Findings and Conclusion

29. Historical method aim to objectively reconstruct the past while descriptive method aims to
__________.

a. Investigate patterns and sequences.

b. Intensively study the background and current status of a given social unit.
c. Systematically describe a situation or an area of interest.
d. Investigate

30. Quantitative study uses statistical procedures while qualitative study uses _________.

a. Testing of theories
b. Narrative presentation
c. Statistical procedure
d. Survey method

31. The problem statement is first presented under what part of the research?

a. Summary, Findings and Conclusions

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b. Introduction
c. Review of Literature
d. Results and Discussion

32. The research hypothesis is answered under what part of the research?

a. Summary, Findings and Conclusions

b. Introduction
c. Review of Literature
d. Results and Discussion

33. A review of literature should include ___________.

a. Scholarly literature about the study’s independent variable.

b. Scholarly literature about the study’s dependent variable.
c. Scholarly literature about the relationship of the independent variable and dependent variable.
d. All of the above.

34. Reliability is best defined as __________.

a. The consistency of a measuring tool.

b. The validity of a measuring tool.
c. The correctness of a measuring tool.
d. The degree of a measuring tool.

35. A research which aims to develop new skills or approaches or solution to a problem.

a. Case Study
b. Survey
c. Base Line Research
d. Action Research

36. Under the survey research a questionnaire is _________.

a. The only data gathering tool.

b. A data gathering tool which can be combined with interview.
c. A data gathering tool that can be substituted by observation.
d. An effective quantitative data gathering tool.

37. Research involves all the following except

a. Synthesizing books and earlier studies.

b. It is directed towards a solution of a problem.
c. It is based on observable evidence.
d. It involves the gathering of new data.

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38. The research’s raw data should be placed in the _________.

a. Bibliography
b. Results and Discussion
c. Appendices
d. Table of Contents

39. The comparison between prior studies and the current research is presented in the
_________.

a. Introduction
b. Review of Literature
c. Results and Discussion
d. Summary, Findings and Conclusion

40. A definition of the terms used in the study is presented in the __________.

a. Introduction
b. Review of Literature
c. Results and Discussion
d. Summary, Findings and Conclusion

41. A discussion of the rationale of the study is presented in the _________.

a. Introduction
b. Review of Literature
c. Results and Discussion
d. Summary, Findings and Conclusion

42. The use of the theory to discuss the results of the research is presented in _________.

a. Introduction
b. Review of Literature
c. Results and Discussion
d. Summary, Findings and Conclusion

43. One of the following is a characteristic of a research recommendation.

a. Should be something that can be done.

b. Should be based on results which the study was not able to produce.
c. Should be directed to organizations that have no control over the variables of the study.
d. Should be presented before the conclusions.

44. The conclusion of the study _________.

a. Suggests actions for organizations involved in the research.

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b. Presents the result of the study.

c. Answers the problem statements of the study.
d. None of the above.

45. If a study aims to understand the success or failure of a government policy, the proper
research design is __________.

a. Case Study
b. Experiment
c. Historical Method
d. Observation Method

46. These are the statements that the research believes to be facts, but cannot verify.

a. Conclusions
b. Recommendations
c. Findings
d. Assumptions

47. Operational definitions are written in a ________.

a. General language
b. Specific, detailed language
c. Dictionary language
d. Complex language

48. That section of the research which enumerates reasons why the study would improve a
practice or a policy.

a. Recommendation
b. Significance of the Study
c. Hypothesis
d. Findings

49. A research instrument refers to the __________ of the research.

a. Data gathering method

b. Data gathering tool
c. Data analysis
d. Data collection

50. In case the reference is an unpublished material, the bibliography entry should contain the
following except:

a. Author
b. Title of the dissertation

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c. Year of completion of the dissertation

d. Name of the adviser of the author

Prepared by:

CLARENCE D. VERCELES, Ph. D.

Chair, Social Sciences Department

Asian Studies
Context Based-Enhancement

1. Most of the bases of the Chinese state for all subsequent periods including the
present was built out of disunity. What is the name of the Chinese emperor who use
Legalism in order to establish and unify an empire by the use of his harsh methods?
A. Ch’in Shih Huang Ti B. Lord Shang C. Mao Tse-tung
D. Chiang Kai-shek

2. The Four Noble Truths formed the basis of the new faith in the Ganges Valley. One
of these truths accepts that life is filled with pain, sorrow, frustration,
impermanence, and dissatisfaction and all this is caused by desire. What do we call
this new faith?
A. Shinto B. Legalism C. Buddhism D.
Confucianism

3. Buddhism was born about 563 B.C. in the Himalayan foothill region of Nepal.
Though, later on, Buddhism was reabsorbed into Hinduism as their distinction
became gradually blurred as time passed by. Who was the founder of Buddhism?
A. Siddartha Gautama B. Confucius C. Ch’in Shih Huang Ti
D. Lord Shang

4. The following statements about Ch’in authoritarianism are true except one.
A. Ch’in Huang Ti persecuted intellectuals, buried several hundred scholars alive for
questioning his policies and burned all the books that could promote undesirable
thoughts.
B. During the said period, there should be no admiration of the past, no criticism of
the present, and no recommendations for the future, except the state’s.
C. The chief target of the Ch’in system was intellectuals, people who ask questions,
consider alternatives, or point out deficiencies
D. The policy of the Ch’in system profoundly endorsed the Chinese reverence for the
written word and the preservation of records.

5. Shinto attributes divinity not only to the forces of nature but to its manifestations
such as mountains, big trees, waterfalls, or unusual rocks, all of which are said to
contain kami, or a divine spirit. In what country does Shinto originate?

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A. China B. Japan C. India

D. Nepal

6. In China, there was a time of the Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution which
stimulated a peasant and proletarian theme in art and literature. What was the
intension of the said Cultural Revolution?
A. The intension was to promote China as the new world power in the Asian region
through various arts
B. The intension was that “art must serve politics” and “art must serve the masses”
C. The intension was to “neutralize” the artists by giving them something seemingly
significant to do for the state
D. The intension was to use arts as a political propaganda

7. Hellenistic art was a departure from the Greek art which centered its interest
chiefly in the gods. The Hellenistic artists became more interested in humanity. Who
was the ruler responsible for the intermixture of the East and West cultures which
eventually shaped Hellenistic art?
A. Philip the One-eyed King B. Alexander the Great C. Julius
Caesar D. Aristotle

8. If you wish to visit India and enmesh yourself with their way of living and belief
systems, you will inevitably encounter Hinduism along the way. Which of the
following statements is true about Hinduism?
A. Hinduism caught the attention of the world when Mahatma Gandhi revolutionized
its practice
B. Hinduism has, like in Christianity, has a firmly established ordination or clergy
C. Hinduism believes the concept of dharma that means selfless execution of one’s
earthly duties
D. Hinduism is an alternative platform that strongly criticizes the caste system

9. There is an ancient Chinese philosophy that believes people are born naturally
good and naturally inclined to virtue but need education and the virtuous example
of superiors to stay that way. The said philosophy postulates that people must want
to do right and that can be achieved only by internalizing morality. What is the
name of the said religious philosophy?
A. Buddhism B. Shintoism C. Legalism D.
Confucianism

10. In 1914, Mahatma Gandhi had returned from South Africa to build the political
strategy that was ultimately to prove successful. What is the said political strategy?
A. Gandhi developed the techniques of passive resistance and non-violent protest
against injustice
B. Gandhi wrote numerous novels and articles which ignited the citizens’ love for
India
C. Gandhi mentored several students who later became the key players in liberating
India

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D. Gandhi laid the foundation of India according to the British model where he came
from

11. In the Prehistoric Japan, they conceived of the worship of sun goddess and the
forces of nature. What is the name of the said “nature worship”?
A. Buddhism B. Shintoism C. Legalism D.
Confucianism

12. Buddhism became the major platform for Chinese culture and it also gave a new
opportunity for the expression of artistic genius. Although a great deal of Buddhist
art were created during ancient times, a great deal of this said Buddhist art also still
exists to this day. What is the reason behind this incredible preservation?
A. Because Buddhism is the major platform for the Chinese culture, the emperors
made sure that the centerpiece of their regimes was to preserve this sacred images.
B. It is simply because the Chinese, Koreans and Japanese, treated these ancient
images as the most sacred things.
C. It mainly because of the Japanese faithfulness in preservation and partly because
most images were in roofed temples.
D. The reason is purely scientific: there was no major catastrophe which supposedly
devastated China, Korea and Japan during the ancient period.

13. The year 1958 is the Great Leap Forward in China. The intension is to overtake
Britain in industrial output by the united efforts of a galvanized people. Why was
this so-called Great Leap a dismal failure according to historians?
A. Nearly all of the iron and steel from the backyard furnaces was unusable quality
and had to be thrown out
B. Peasants had been driven to exhaustion in pursuit of unrealistic goals and
inefficient combinations of tasks and resources
C. For at least three years there were massive food shortages and widespread
famine and, probably, at least 30 million people died of starvation or malnutrition
D. All of the options given

14. There was a strongman of China who masterminded the Great Leap Forward and
Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution. What is the name of the said strongman?
A. Mao Tse-tung B. Chiang Kai-shek C. Deng Xiaoping
D. Hua Guofeng

15. British declared war against China in 1839. What did the British use as a pretext
to wage war that will last for three years?
A. Westerners were inspired by their sense of mission to use force to bring China
into the modern world
B. Britain saw that China as rigidly out of the step with modern world and that was
enough to declare war against the Chinese
C. Britain could no longer tolerate being looked down and excluded so they tried
everything to find means to do something about it
D. destruction of the British property - which happened to be stocks of the drug
called opium – in the Chinese soil

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16. What was the name of the war which took place in China in the years between
1839 and 1842?
A. Anglo-Chinese Trade War B. Opium War C. Chinese
War D. British War

17. What was the theme of the Great Leap Forward and Great Proletarian Cultural
Revolution starting from 1958 to 1966 in China?
A. Boost the potential of small-scale companies by providing these companies the
state-of-the-art technology which would maximize their production of food for the
China’s ever-growing population
B. Boost the major cities, nearly all of which were foreign-dominated treaty ports,
and recruit the best educators, artist, and other “experts” in eliminating the Chinese
citizens who had counter-revolutionary tendencies.
C. Boost the countryside – each commune was designed to be as self-sufficient as
possible – and put the peasants in charge and concentrate efforts at the
development in the rural areas
D. All of the given options

18. In 1949, the Kuomintang government which originally controlled China retreated
to the island of Formosa (Taiwan). Who was the leader of the Kuomintang?
A. Deng Xiaoping B. Mao Tse-tung C. Chiang Kai-shek
D. Hua Guofeng

19. On the night of June 4, 1989, the Chinese army and its tanks moved in to crush
the student demonstrators, killing, perhaps, as many as 1,000 unarmed students.
This cold-blooded carnage was enacted in front of world’s television cameras. What
this brutal incident came to be called?
A. The Peking Massacre C. The Peking News
Misencounter
B. Tien An Men Square Civil Disobedience D. Critics’
Slaughter in 1989

20. After the moderate leadership of Hua Guofeng (who replaced Mao Tse-tung in
1978), China somehow moved away from the madness of the period from 1957 to
1976. Who was the next leader of China after Hua Guofeng?
A. Deng Xiaoping B. Chiang Kai-shek C. Chang Chih-min
D. Sun Yat-sen

21. When the Republic of India was liberated, one of the major changes executed by
India’s first prime minister was to make a concession to preside over the creation of
16 new language-based states within a federal structure after several years of
debate. Who is the said prime minister?
A. Mahatma Gandhi B. Jawalharlal Nehru C. Indira Gandhi
D. Salman Rushdie

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22. In 1962, brief hostilities between India and China ensued. What was the
unfortunate incident which ignited the said confrontation?
A. border dispute B. an attempted invasion C. ideological
differences D. political conflicts

23. During the leadership of Indira Gandhi, India’s plagued by numerous social
concerns. Which of the following is not Indira Gandhi’s pretext/concern in
proclaiming a state of national emergency in 1975?
A. inflation B. hoarding C. tax evasion
D. foreign invasion

24. Who was the so-called greatest teacher of China whose one of the most famous
quotation is “Do not do to others what you yourself would not like.”?
A. Mencius B. Confucius C. Lao Tzu D.
Siddartha Gautama

25. What is the principal text of Islam that is most probably completed after the
death of Islam’s founder/messenger in 632 A.D.?
A. Bible B. Koran C. Tao te Ching
D. none of the given options

26. Muslims are enjoined to worship Allah and His word may also reach the faithful
through both divine and human messengers. Which of the following names is not
considered one of the divine and human messengers?
A. Adam B. Moses C. Jesus
D. Simon Peter

27. There was a period when Japanese used Chinese characters for all their writing
and produced extensive literature in Chinese especially so since the Japanese
people in their early years adopted Chinese-style civilization. What did the Japanese
do to achieve such feat?
A. they put a premium on education C. they imported all the
students of Confucius to Japan as teachers
B. they bought thousands of Chinese books D. they used Buddhism to
accelerate the absorption of Chinese Characters

28. What is considered the highest form of art and also serves as a mark of an
educated person in both China and Japan?
A. politics B. painting C. calligraphy
D. poetry

29. There was this seemingly “rebirth” of Japan in 1868 and 1869. It was a
characterized as nonviolent revolution powered by a new government bent on
radical and rapid change. What is the name of the said period in Japan’s history?
A. The Last Samurai B. Meiji Restoration C. Daimyo Resurgence
D. Japanese Renaissance

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30. China pioneered the merit-based system of promotion which was founded on
examinations. However, unlike China, India had its own system which evolved as a
sociocultural rather than religious practice. What do historians call the social order
in India which is decreed by birth and not by merit?
A. Caste B. Family C. Clan
D. purdah

31. In 1959, there was the so-called Sino-Soviet Split which revived the territorial
disputes and armed border clashes between two former allies for the next 15 years.
What was the reason behind this?
A. Russians did not think Mao was even faithful to communism.
B. Chinese people were annoyed by the constant assertion of their Russian
counterparts that their version of socialism was far more superior to theirs.
C. Russians withdrew their aid and advisers and moved toward a more antagonistic
relationship with China.
D. All of the options given

32. The best one-line statement of the mood of a certain period of Japan is “We
have no history. Our history begins today!”. What particular Japanese period the
one-liner is referring to?
A. Daimyo Resurgence B. Boxer Rebellion C. Meiji Restoration
D. Tokugawa Rule

33. Britain was the original home of industrialization, railways, and many modern
political and commercial institutions was the greatest power in the world in the mid-
eighteenth century to the early twentieth. Why was it that Britons wanted to annex
India to their empire?
A. It is because the British saw themselves as the bringers of order and “civilization”
to India, a role that many of them likened to that of the Romans 2000 years earlier
in Europe.
B. It is because the British were making a point to the world that they were capable
of annexing India, or whatever country they wanted, to their empire.
C. It is because the British wanted to be as powerful as possible so they began by
colonizing India
D. all of the options given

34. There was a belief that while a person lives, he must do righteous deeds which
will enable him to skip the cycle of birth and rebirth. What belief system does the
statement above reflect?
A. Shintoism B. Buddhism C. Legalism D.
Confucianism

35. What was the meaning of Mesopotamia, the former name of the present-day
Iraq?
A. first world empire B. land between rivers C. Promised land
D. cradle of civilization

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Prepared by Julius B. Cayabyab

TEST QUESTIONS IN WORLD HISTORY AND

CIVILIZATIONS 1

Choose the letter of the correct answer.

_____1. What war was fought by Rome with Cathage, a north African Mediterranean power, that
occurred three times from 264-241 B.C., 218-201 B.C. and 201-146 B.C.?
a. Parthian War c. Punic Wars
b. Mediterranean War d. Gallian Wars
_____2. The genius Carthaginian general who terrorized Italy for 15 years that started in 218
B.C. until his death in 182 B.C. was ______.
a. Hannibal c. Pontius
b. Pergamum d. Attila
_____3. The most successful of Rome’s First Triumvirate and was killed in the tragic “Ide of
March” by his two friends, Brutus and Cassius?
a. Nero c. Octavius
b. Mark Anthony d. Julius Caesar
_____4. Which battle on September 2, 31 B.C. between Octavian and the combined fleets of
Mark Anthony and Cleopatra ended the Roman Republic that gave way to the
establishment of the Roman Empire?
a. Battle of Actium c. Punic Wars
b. Battle of Rubicon d. Carthagenian War
_____5. What was the epic written by a poet named Virgil upon the request of the Emperor
Augustus that glorified the Roman talent in governing an empire?
a. Epic of Gilgamesh c. Beowulf
b. Aeneid d. Song of Roland
_____6. Who was the Greco-Roman scientist who proposed a model of the universe wherein the
earth stood in the center of the universe while the sun, moon and stars moved about in
circles or combination of circles?
a. Ptolemy c. Galileo
b. Galen d. Copernicus
_____7. What philosophy which originated in Rome during the Pax Romana stated that the
people should live simple lives, control their emotions and be self-sufficient?
a. Stoicism c. Aristotelian Philosophy
b. Hellenism d. Romanism
_____8. What were the great landed estates of ancient Roman called?
a. feudum c. hacienda
b. latifundia d. encomienda
_____9. The word Christos or Christ which means anointed one came from what language or
people?
a. Aramaic c. Roman

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b. Hebrew d. Greek
_____10. Who was the Roman emperor when Christ was born in Bethlehem?
a. Pontius Pilate c. Augustus
b. Nero d. Caligula

_____11. The Greek term for country is _____.

a. aegean c. polis
b. hellas d. civitas
_____12. The Greek civilization was called___________.
a. Hellenic c. Doric
b. Aegean d. Mycenaean
_____13. The modern Olympic Games which were held every four years started in _____.
a. 1898 c. 1890
b. 1901 d. 1896
_____14. Who were the two heroes in the epic Iliad?
a. Demeter and Hades c. Apollo and Aphrodite
b. Achilles and Hector d. Zeus and Hera
_____15. The Greeks called their city-states ________.
a. plaza c. colosseum
b. civitas d. polis
_____16. The farm-workers in the city-state of Sparta were called ________.
a. feudal lords c. peasants
b. helots d. slaves
_____17. Cyrus, Darius and Xerxes were rulers of which ancient kingdom in West Asia?
a. Akkadia c. Assyria
b. Babylonia d. Persia
_____18. What kind of civilization occurred during the Middle Ages which was a combination of
Christian influences, Germanic traditions, and Greco-Roman heritage?
a. Greco-Christian c. Frankish
b. Byzantine d. Medieval
_____19. The Pope who started to become the head of the entire Christian or Catholic Church
was originally a bishop of _________.
a. Vatican c. Rome
b. Constantinople d. Jerusalem
_____20. What was the dominant political relationship in Europe during the Middle Ages
wherein a lord granted land (fief) to another noble (vassal) in exchange for his pledge
of loyalty?
a. manorial system c. shogunate
b. latifundia d. feudalism
_____21. In what field did the people during the Medieval Period showed the most significant
advancement?
a. trade and commerce c. medicine
b. technology d. agriculture
_____22. Who was the greatest poet of the Middle Ages and known for his masterpiece “Divine
Comedy”?
a. Geoffrey Chaucer c. Alexander Dumas

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b. Marie de France d. Dante Alighieri

_____23. What was the event called in Catholic Church history wherein two Popes at the same
time ruled from 1378 to 1417, Clement VII at Avignon and Urban VI in Rome?
a. Dark Ages c. Great Schism
b. Babylonian Captivity d. Christian Schism
_____24. Where was the capital city of the Byzantine Empire located?
a. Tyre c. Jerusalem
b. Constantinople d. Alexandria
_____25. How many times must a Muslim pray every day, based on the Five Pillars of Islam?
a. two c. seven
b. five d. three
_____26. How were the desert nomads of Arabia called?
a. Aryans c. Quraish
b. Bedouins d. Semites
_____27. Asia Minor was the old name of ______.
a. Iraq c. Oman
b. Turkey d. Egypt
_____28. What do you call the social stratification based on occupation among the Hindus in
India called?
a. pogrom c. jainism
b. caste system d. vedism
_____29. Who was the successor of Mohammad and was given the title caliph, which literally
means successor?
a. Othman c. Ali
b. Abu Bakr d. Omar
_____30. What is the longest epic in the world that is found in India?
a. Ramayana c. Epic of Gilgamesh
b. Mahabharata d. Code of Manu
_____31. Ahimsa or non-injury to animals and other living beings was a primary belief of ___
a. Aryanism c. Jainism
b. Hinduism d. Buddhism
_____32. Shintoism was an ancient religion of Japan based on the worship of spirits called ____.
a. Taika c. Kami
b. Yayoi d. Shinto
_____33. What was the first Japanese dynasty which was founded by Jimmu Tenno, the first
emperor of Japan?
a. Yayoi c. Tumulus
b. Ashikaga d. Yamato
_____34. Who was the Venetian trader who wrote his travels in China in the 13th century?
a. Marco Polo c. Perri Quinti
b. Roberto Benigni d. Giocomo Marconi
_____35. At what age could a Spartan boy enter into military barracks to train and to become a
full-pledged citizen until he reached the age of thirty years old?
a. seven c. eleven
b. nine d. thirteen

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_____36. Which ancient people in Latin America were the first to cultivate corn (mais), tobacco,
made chocolate from cacao and gave the words like “tomato,” chocolate” and
“tequila”?
a. Aztecs c. Incas
b. Mayas d. Dravidian

_____37. Who was the Polish churchman who believed that the earth was just one of the planets
that revolve around the sun?
a. Lech Walesa c. Nicolaus Copernicus
b. Roman Polanski d. Karol Wojtyla
_____38. What war between Athens and Sparta which lasted 27 years and resulted in the
weakening of the Greek city-states due to wide-spread destruction and loss of lives?
a. Macedonian War c. Peloponnesian War
b. Punic War d. War of the Roses
_____39. How was the Roman Empire of the East called?
a. Roman Empire c. Macedonian Empire
b. Ottoman Empire d. Byzantine Empire
_____40. The term that refers to the people who are excluded in the Indian society.
a. Vaisya c. Aryans
b. Kshatriaya d. Outcaste
_____41. What was the old name of Korea?
a. Pakje c. Samyu
b. Dae-Woo d. Chosun
_____42. How was the illustrated book prepared by monks during the Middle Ages called?
a. Doctrina Cristiana c. Illuminated Manuscripts
b. Sacred Text d. Monk’s Text
_____43. Which ancient people in Latin America were the first to cultivate corn (mais), tobacco,
made chocolate from cacao and gave the words like “tomato,” chocolate’ and
“tequila”?
c. Aztecs c. Incas
d. Mayas d. Dravidian
_____44. In what Greek city-state was democracy born?
a. Mycenae c. Sparta
b. Macedonia d. Athens
_____45. Who was the first bishop of Rome and the first pope?
a. Abraham c. Gregory I
b. Jesus Christ d. Peter
_____46. What was the most stable institution in the Middle Ages that provided unity and
leadership in entire Europe?
a. Roman Empire c. French Monarchy
b. Spanish Monarchy d. Catholic Church
_____47. Zoroastrianism, which was started by the Persians, believed in the struggle between
good and evil. Who represented the forces of darkness?
a. Shiva c. Ikhnaton
b. Satan d. Ahriman

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_____48. Who was the Athenian aristocrat who drew up the first written code of laws for Athens
in 621 B.C.?
a. Minos c. Pisistratus
b. Solon d. Draco
_____49. What was the treaty signed in 1494 by Spain and Portugal that divided the entire non-
Christian world between the two countries?
a. Treaty of Versailles c. Treaty of Tordesillas
b. Treaty of Paris d. Treaty of Seville
_____50. The final end of man based on the teachings of the “Four Ends of Man” by Hinduism
was termed _______.
a. Moksha c. Kama
b. Dharma d. Artha

TEST QUESTIONS IN SST 109 WORLD HISTORY AND CIVILIZATIONS 2

_____1. The Industrial Revolution started in _______.

A. England C. United States

B. Germany D. France

_____2. The Renaissance began in _________.

A. England C. Italy

B. Germany D. France

_____3. What treaty ended the First Opium War in 1842 and resulted in the cession of the island of
Hong Kong to Great Britain?

A. Treaty of Nanking C. Treaty of Peking

B. Treaty of Hong Kong D. Treaty of Beijing

_____4. What country was the first to grant women the right of suffrage?

A. Australia C. England

B. New Zealand D. France

_____5. How was the Japanese economic elite called?

A. Daimyo C. Genro

B. Geisha D. Zaibatsu

_____6. Who was considered the Father of Malaysian Independence?

A. Sukarno C. Hatta

B. Mahathir Mohammad D. Tunku Abdul Rahman

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_____7. Who was regarded as the Father of Communist Russia?

A. Leon Trotsky C. Josef Stalin

B. Vladimir Lenin D. Alexander Kerensky

_____8. What theory that was started in the 17th century by Louis XIV of France that claimed that the
ruler’s power came from God and that no subject must dare question it?

A. mandate of heaven C. despotic monarchy

B. absolute monarchy D. divine right

_____9. Who was regarded as the discoverer of America?

A. Christopher Columbus C. Leif Ericson

B. Amerigo Vespucci D. Vasco de Gama

_____10. What was the foreign policy by the United States Government declared on December 2, 1823
stating that the American Continent or the Western Hemisphere was no longer for European
colonization or influence?

A. Monroe Doctrine C. Lincoln Doctrine

B. Washington Doctrine D. Jefferson Doctrine

_____11. What American state was purchased by the United States from Russia?

A. Texas C. California

B. Michigan D. Alaska

_____12. Who was the great revolutionary hero of northern South America who successfully led the
struggle for the independence of Venezuela, Panama, Colombia, Ecuador and Bolivia?

A. Agustin de Iturbe C. Simon Bolivar

B. Ramon Guevarra D. Pedro Sandejas

_____13. Who was the British philosopher who developed the free capitalist theory called “laissez
faire”?

A. David Hume C. Adam Smith

B. Francis Bacon D. Thomas Turner

_____14. What event was considered as the immediate cause of the First World War?

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A. Bombing of Poland

B. Assassination of Archduke of Francis Ferdinand

C. Colonialist ambitions of Germany

D. Expansion of the United States

_____15. What was the immediate cause of the Second World War?

A. Japan’s bombing of Pearl Harbor

B. Hitler’s invasion of Great Britain

C. Germany’s invasion of Poland

D. Japan’s invasion of Nanking

_____16. What provision of the American Constitution abolished slavery in the United States in 1863
which was also known as the “Emancipation Proclamation”, signed by President Abraham Lincoln?

A. 13th Amendment C. 10th Amendment

B. 14th Amendment D. 15th Amendment

_____17. Which canal was built in 1914 connected the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean?

A. Bering Canal C. Suez Canal

B. Panama Canal D. Bermuda Canal

_____18. Which of the following continent is considered as the land of unfulfilled promise?

A. Asia C. Africa

B. Oceania D. Europe

_____19. Which of the following countries did not join the League of Nations?

A. France C. USA

B. Britain D. Italy

_____20. Who was the Polish churchman who believed that the earth was just one of the planets that
revolve around the sun?

A. Lech Walesa C. Nicolaus Copernicus

B. Roman Polanski D. Karol Wojtyla

_____21. What does “perestroika”mean?

A. restructuring C. re-awakening

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B. rebirth D. open policy

_____22. What rebellion that began in 1900 aimed at expelling the foreigners from China?

A. Boxer Rebellion C. Double Ten Rebellion

B. Taiping Rebellion D. none of the above

_____23. When and where was the United Nations established?

A. October 24, 1945, San Francisco, USA

B. October 7, 1944, Washington D.C., USA

C. February 4, 1945, Paris, France

D. February 7, 1945, New York, USA

_____24. This was considered the first major manifestation of modern Chinese nationalism.

A. First Quarter Storm C. Double 10 Movement

B. May Fourth Movement D. May 1 Movement

_____25. It was under his rule that Portugal made advances in the science of navigation in the 16th
century.

A. Ferdinand I C. Amerigo Vespucci

B. Vasco de Gama D. Prince Henry the Navigator

_____26. What country in South America was the first to be freed from colonial rule in 1804?

A. Argentina C. Mexico

B. Haiti D. Ecuador

_____27. Who invented the telephone in 1876?

A. Samuel Morse C. Alexander Graham Bell

B. Eli Whitney D. Guglielmo Marconi

_____28. When was the American Declaration of Independence proclaimed?

A. July 4, 1776 C. July 4, 1756

B. July 4, 1786 D. July 4, 1796

_____29. Which among the following nations was not a member of the Triple Entente?

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A. Britain C. Hungary

B. France D. Japan

_____30. Which of the following does not constitute Latin America?

A. Namibia C. Dominican Republic

B. Mexico D. Haiti

_____31. Which worldwide political organization was established in Geneva, Switzerland on January 10,
1920 as an offshoot of the First World War?

A. Triple Entente B. United Nations C. NATO D. League of Nations

_____32. The term given to the global battle for supremacy between the United States and democratic
countries on one hand and the former Soviet Union and the Communist countries on the other hand
after World War 1.

A. Cold War C. Cyber War

B. B. Superpower’s War D. Ideological War

_____33. Which was the most powerful organ of the United Nations composed of 15 members of which
5 were permanent members and the other 10 members elected by the General Assembly to two-year
terms?

A. Political Council C. Trusteeship Council

B. Economic Council D. Security Council

_____34. Who was the sixteenth century German monk who challenged teachings of the Catholic
Church through the 95 theses such as the sale of indulgences?

A. John Huss B. John Wycliffe C. Martin Luther D. John Calvin

_____35. Renaissance painter whose celebrated works include “Mona Lisa’ and “The Last Supper”.

A. Raphael B. Leonardo da Vinci C. MichelangeloD. Caravaggio

_____36. It is the lone Southeast Asian country that was not colonized by any Western nation and is
called “Land of the Free”.

A. Thailand B. Vietnam C. Malaysia D. Laos

_____37. Which of the following territories in Canada is predominantly French-speaking?

A. Toronto B. Ottawa C. Quebec D. Manitoba

_____38. What was the old name of Korea?

A. Chosun B. Daegu C. Busan D. Gwangju

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_____39. Treaty that ended World War I and stated that Germany accept the blame for starting the war.

A. Treaty of Paris C. Treaty of Versailles

B. Treaty of Tordesillas D. Treaty of Nanking

_____40. Which of the following countries was NOT ceded by Spain to the United States after the
former’s defeat in the Spanish-American War?

A. Puerto Rico B. Philippines C. Guam D. Argentina

_____41. Russian leader who outlined a Five-Year Plan in 1928 to overhaul the collapsing economy.

A. Josef Stalin C. Vladimir Lenin

B. Leon Trotsky D. Leonid Brezhnev

_____42. He was among the founders of Chinese Communist Party which was responsible in turning the
formerly Imperial China into a strong, modern nation.

A. Chiang Kai-shek C. Sun Yixian

B. Mao Tse-tung D. Sun Yat-sen

_____43. Who was the Father of Vietnamese Independence who led the Vietnamese people to victory
against the French and American imperialists?

A. Bao Dao B. Ho Chi MinhC. Vo Nguyen Giap D. Hoang Thi Loan

_____44. He founded the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia in 1932.

A. Abd a-Aziz Ibn Saud C. Gamal Abdel Nasser

B. Muhamad Bin Nayef D. Sultan Hassanal Bolkiah

_____45. Which of the following reforms were implemented by Mustafa Kemal, the first president of the
Republic Turkey, into transforming it into a modern nation?

A. Granted women’s right to vote

B. Separated the laws of Islam from laws of the nation

C. Abolished religious courts

D. All of the above

_____46. Which of the following was not a former colony of the Dutch East India Company?

A. Malacca B. Java C. Sumatra D. Borneo

_____47. This event marked the end of the Meiji restoration in Japan.

A. Boshin War C. Seven-Years War

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B. Opium War D. War of the Roses

_____48. In the Latin American colonial society, they were the social class which is constituted by the
mixture of European and African ancestry.

A. Peninsulares B. Creoles Mulattos D. Indios

_____49. Who among the following was sent by the British Empire to populate Australia during the
1770’s?

A. Farmers B. Criminals C. Workers D. Herders

_____50. Apartheid means___________.

A. Complete segregation of races

B. Banned contact between blacks and whites

C. Segregation in schools, hospitals and neighborhoods

D. All of the above

Answer Key

Answer Key: Building Bridges

1. B

2. C

3. D

4. A

5. A

6. D

7. B

8. D

9. D

10. B

11. C

12. A

13. C

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14. B

15. C

16. A

17. C

18. C

19. D

20. B

21. D

22. A

23. C

24. B

25. C

26. B

27. B

28. B

29. A

30. D

31. C

32. .B

33. D

34. A

35. C

36. B

37. D

38. B

39. D

40. .C

41. B

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42. C

43. C

44. D

45. A

46. B

47. C

48. D

49. C

50. B

Answer Key Teaching Makabayan (not yet submitted)

Answer key Socio-anthro (not yet submitted)

Answer Key: Comparative Government

1. A

2. B

3. A

4. A

5. A

6. A

7. A

8. A

9. C.

10. D

11. B

12. C

13. A

14. A

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15. A

16. C

17. A

18. C

19. C

20. A

21. C

22. A

23. C

24. A

25. B

26. A

27. A

28. B

29. A

30. D

31. C

32. A

33. A

34. B

35. A

36. A

37. C

38. D

39. C

40. B

41. A

42. C

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43. C

44. A

45. A

46. A

47. A

48. C

49. B

50. A

Answer Key: Law-Related Studies

1. B

2. A

3. A

4. C

5. D

6. A

7. A

8. D

9. C

10. C

11. D

12. B

13. D

14. C

15. D

16. B

17. C

18. A

19. B

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20. C

21. A

22. A

23. D

24. A

25. B

26. D

27. A

28. B

29. C

30. A

31. D

32. B

33. A

34. C

35. A

36. A

37. A

38. D

39. A

40. D

41. B

42. D

43. D

44. A

45. A

46. D

47. A

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48. B

49. C

50. C

Answer Key: Economic Planning

1. b 31.d

2. b 32. a

3. b 33. c

4. c 34.b

5. b 35.a

6. d 36. a

7. c 37. d

8. b 38.a

9. a 39. a

10. d 40. d

11. b 41. d

12. c 42. d

13. c 43. b

14. b 44. a

15. c 45. d

16. d 46. a

17. a 47. b

18. d 48. b

19. c 49. c

20. d 50. c

21. b

22. a

23. c

24. c

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25. b

26. a

27. d

28. d

29. d

30. d
hbt08042018ssdpsu

Answer Key: Macro-Micro Economics

1. b 31. c

2. c 32. a

3. c 33. d

4. c 34. b

5. d 35. d

6. b 36. c

7. b 37. b

8. c 38. b

9. b 39. b

10. b 40. a

11. c 41. b

12. b 42. d

13. a 43. a

14. d 44. c

15. b 45. c

16. d 46. d

17. a 47. b

18. d 48. b

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19. c 49. b

20. b 50. c

21. b

22. a

23. b

24. a

25. c

26. b

27. d

28. c

29. c

30. a

Answer Key: Research in the Social Studies

Answer Key: Asian Studies

1. A
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. A
11. B
12. C
13. D
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. A
20. A

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21. B
22. A
23. D
24. B
25. B
26. D
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. A
31. C
32. C
33. A
34. B
35. B

Answer Key: World History and Civilisation1

1. C

2. A

3. D

4. A

5. B

6. A

7. A

8. B

9. D

10. C

11. B

12. A

13. D

14. B

15. D

16. B

17. D

18. B

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19. C

20. D

21. D

22. D

23. C

24. B

25. B

26. B

27. B

28. B

29. B

30. B

31. C

32. C

33. D

34. A

35. A

36. A

37. C

38. C

39. D

40. D

41. D

42. C

43. A

44. D

45. D

46. D

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47. D

48. D

49. C

50. A

Answer Key: World History and Civilisation2

1. A

2. C

3. A

4. B

5. D

6. D

7. B

8. D

9. A

10. A

11. D

12. C

13. C

14. B

15. C

16. B

17. B

18. C

19. C

20. C

21. A

22. A

23. C

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24. C

25. D

26. B

27. C

28. A

29. C

30. A

31. D

32. A

33. D

34. C

35. B

36. A

37. C

38. A

39. C

40. D

41. A

42. B

43. B

44. A

45. D

46. D

47. A

48. C

49. B

50. D

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