MEDICINE OBJECTIVES

1. For a patient with pulmonary edema, the nurse must reduce cardiac overload by:
a. Elevating the legs when in bed.
b. Putting the patient in supine position
c. Serving a seasoned beef to him
d. Using bedside commode for stools

2. A client is experiencing respiratory distress but unchanged blood pressure. The

immediate nursing action is:
a. suction of the patient vigorously
b. put the patient in high-Fowler’s position
c. give all the prescribed medications
d. call the respiratory therapy department for an assistance

3. Interstitial and intravascular fluids compartments are separated by:

a. Protein pumps
b. capillary wall
c. ionic gates
d. fatty substances

4. Which of the following is an initial sign of hyperkalaemia?

a. pancytopenia anaemia
b. haemorrhagic anaemia
c. Addison’s pernicious anemia
d. Aplastic anaemia

5. Extra-cellular fluids are found in the following compartments except:

a. blood vessels
b. interstitial space
c. spinal cord
d. cytoplasm

6. Which of the following occurs in cardiogenic shock?

a. flushed, dry skin with bounding pedal pulses
b. warm, moist skin with irregular pedal pulses
c. cool, dry skin with alternating weak and strong pedal pulses
d. cool, clammy skin with weak or thready pedal pulses

7. A client complains of intermittent episodes in which the fingers of both hands become
pale, cold and numb. They become reddened and swollen with throbbing pain. The client
is suffering from:
a. Hodgkin’s disease
b. Parkinson’s disease
c. Raynauld’s disease
 d. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome

8. Vitamins are needed ………………. to sustain growth and health

a. periodically in smaller quantities
b. daily in smaller quantities
c. annually in greater quantities
d. periodically in greater quantities

9. Which of the following often causes haemorrhagic anaemia?

a. physical injury to either external or internal structures with severe blood loss
b. decreased absorption of nutrients in the gastro-interstinal tract
c. endocrine changes in the body
d. lack of micro-nutrients in the diet

10. In pericarditis, which of the following clinical features differentiates it from other
cardiopulmonary disease?
a. chest pain that worsens on inspiration
b. pericardial friction rub
c. anterior chest pain
d. weakness and irritability

11. Which of the following foods can worsen the pain of a client suffersing from Raynaud’s
disease?
a. ingestion of coffee or chocolate
b. ingestion of an offal
c. ingestion of cereals and pulses
d. ingestion of fruits and vegetables

12. Potassium excess can result in:

a. tongue fissure
b. muscle cramps
c. sunken eyes
d. increased sweating

13. In haemorrhagic anaemia, injection…………is given to client to allay anxiety.

a. pethidine
b. coumadin
c. heparin
d. morphine

14. The by products of all foods oxidized in the body are;

a. amino acids, oxygen and glycerol
 b. fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide
c. glucose, amino acids and water
d. carbon dioxide, energy and water

15. The priority nursing diagnosis of the acute phase of myocardial infarction is:
a. alteration in comfort (pain)
b. anxiety
c. ineffective coping
d. impaired tissue integrity

16. An agent of a disease is referred to:

a. the affected person
b. the causative organism
c. the method of spread of the disease
d. the environmental condition

17. The major function of sodium in the body is to:

a. promote wound healing
b. to form ATP
c. balance body fluid
d. process extracellular fluid

18. In preparation of home-made oral rehydration salt, the following are needed except:
a. 8 heaped teaspoonfuls of sugar
b. 1 level teaspoonful of salt
c. 1000mls of wholesome water
d. a clean container and its cover

19. The predominant cation in the intracellular compartment is:

a. chloride
b. calcium
c. magnesium
d. potassium

20. A positively charged ion in the body is called:

a. cation
b. anion
c. buffer
 d. hydrolysis

21. A negatively charged ion in the body is called:

a. hydrolysis
b. buffer
c. anion
d. cation

22. Which of the following vitamins cannot be found from a plant source?
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin B12
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin B1

23. A client suffering from coronary artery disease should be encouraged to take:
a. rice and grilled chicken
b. fruits, vegetables and baked fish
c. grilled pork, fatty mutton with buttered rice
d. eggs, buttered rice with fried chicken

24. A client with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while getting out of bed.
The nurse must first:
a. get an order for pain medication
b. report the complaint to the physician
c. advise the client to continue to get out of bed
d. stop the client and encourage him to lie down in bed

25. A client was brought to an emergency department with angina pectoris, the priority of the
nursing
care is to:
a. assemble oxygen apparatus at the bedside
b. put in place a bed table
c. make ECG machine ready
d. put the client on a low bed

26. Which of the following common signs or symptoms indicate that the patient is suffering
from
myocardial infarction?
a. the client experiencing nausea and vomiting
 b. the client complains of pain while walking
c. client’s pain is not relieved by rest and nitroglycerin
d. client’s pain is described as sub-sternal and radiates to the left arm

27. Dermatitis, diarrhea, and dermatitis are characteristic of......................................

a. pellagra
b. rickets
c. osteomyelitis
d. mumps

28. Guinea worm disease is described as.............................................

a. air borne only
b. vector borne
c. food borne
d. air and vector borne

29. Laboratory criteria for diagnosis of rabies is.........................................

a. leukocyte antigen
b. immunofluorescent assay
c. direct fluorescent antibody test
d. immunofluorescence skin test

30. Which of the following does not exacerbate the condition of a patient suffering from
heart failure?
a. recent upper respiratory infection
b. nutritional anaemia
c. peptic ulcer disease
d. atrial fibrillation

31. A nurse reviews the physician’s prescription for a client with heart failure. The nurse
expects to
note which of the following?
a. Cardizem
b. Digoxin
c. Propranolol
d. Metronidazole

32. A client diagnosed of thrombophlebitis 24 hours ago suddenly complains of chest pain,
shortness
of breath and visible anxiousness. The nurse must check the client for other signs and
symptoms
 of ……………..
a. myocardial infarction
b. pneumonia
c. pulmonary embolism
d. pulmonary oedema

33. A client is seeking treatment for varicosity, and sclerotherapy is recommended. What is
sclerotherapy?
a. surgical removal of the varicosity
b. tying off veins
c. oral intake of anticoagulant
d. injecting an agent into a vein to damage the vein wall and close the vein off

34. A client complaining of claudication in the arch of the left foot is likely to suffer from
---------------
a. Raynaud’s disease
b. Buerger’s disease
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Paget’s disease

35. In mumps, there is self-limited swelling of the --------------------------

a. adrenalins
b. pyloric sphincter
c. parotid gland
d. thymus gland

36. The nurse is preparing to instill an otic solution in an adult client’s ear. The nurse should
avoid
which of the following in the procedure?
a. pulling the auricle backward and upward
b. touching the tip of the dropper to the edge of the canal
c. warming the solution to room temperature
d. placing the client in the sitting-up position

37. In acute urethritis, the commonest symptom is....................................

a. pelvic pain
b. urethral discharge
c. increased temperature
d. dysuria

38. In nursing, which of the following treatments will be of priority in the treatment of otitis
media?
 a. bed rest
b. mastoidectomy
c. dyphenhydramine
d. myringotomy

39. In the nursing care of a client with Meniere’s disease the nurse must teach the client -----
a. about current drugs
b. to avoid tobacco
c. about safety measures
d. about self-care measures

40. Which of the following findings does the nurse expect to note if a client is suffering from
mastoiditis?
a. swelling behind the ear
b. a clear tympanic membrane
c. a mobile tympanic membrane
d. a transparent tympanic membrane

41. Physiological mechanisms of adaptation work together through complex relationships in

the.............
a. respiratory and nervous systems
b. nervous and endocrine systems
c. digestive and nervous systems
d. digestive and endocrine systems

42. Which of the following otoscopic findings indicates perforated eardrum?

a. a colony of black dots in the ear drum
b. dense white patches on the ear drum
c. a red, bulging eardrum
d. a round darkened area on the eardrum

43. A client diagnosed of Maniere’s disease should avoid --------------------

a. cereal products
b. salty foods
c. citrus foods
d. green vegetables

44. To facilitate communication with an 80 year old client diagnosed of presbycusis, the
nurse should
a. lower the voice pitch and face the client when speaking
b. use sign language
c. speak loudly
 d. put the mouth closely to one ear when speaking

45. There are two types of particles involved in airborne transmission of diseases. They are
dust and --.
a. water
b. saliva
c. air
d. droplet nuclei

46. A nurse who is caring for a client that has a hearing impaired will adopt which of the
following
approaches?
a. speak frequently
b. speak loudly
c. speak directly into the unaffected ear
d. speak in a normal tone

47. A client arrives at the emergency unit with as foreign body in the left ear that has been
found to be
an insect?
a. irrigate the ear
b. instill diluted alcohol
c. instill antibiotic ear drop
d. instill corticorsteroid ointment

48. A nurse understands that presbycusis is accurately described as ------------------

a. A sensori-neural loss that occurs with aging
b. a conductive hearing loss that occurs with aging
c. Tinnitus that occurs with aging
d. Nystagmus that occurs with aging

49. The best drug to prescribe for a client with Maniere’s disease is ------------------
a. Low cholesterol diet
b. Low sodium diet
c. Low carbohydrate diet
d. Low fat diet

50. Cranial nerve I is also called -----------------------------------------

a. Olfactory nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
 c. Trochlear nerve
d. Facial nerve

51. Maniere’s disease is a disorder of the -------------------------------------------

a. external ear
b. tympanic membrane
c. middle ear
d. inner ear

52. A patient with otoslerosis will show which of the following as an early symptom?
a. ringing in the ears
b. blurred vision
c. headache
d. vertigo

53. A nurse should advise a client with Maniere’s disease and experiencing severe vertigo to
--….
a. increase fluid intake to 3L a day
b. avoid sudden head movements
c. lie still in bed and watch television
d. decrease sodium intake

54. Oculomotor nerve is also called -------------------------------

a. cranial nerve I
b. cranial nerve IV
c. cranial nerve III
d. cranial nerve VII

55. A client diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear usually complains of
---------------------
a. hearing loss
b. pruitus
c. tinnitus
d. burning in the ear

56. An open-angle glaucoma occurs when ----------------------------------------

a. the pressure increases within the eye from excess fluid or blocking the
drainage
b. the lens of the eye becomes opaque
c. the blood vessels in the back of the eye ruptures
d. there is a reduction in the amount of aqueous humour produced

57. A client with refractive error in both eyes should be advised to ----------------------
a. use eye drops
b. use rigid contact lenses
c. use corrective lenses
 d. undergo keratoplasty

58. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of retinal detachment. Which of the following will
the nurse
include in the plan of care?
a. out of bed to ambulate with assistance
b. place an eye patch over the affected eye
c. maintain high-Fowler’s position
d. restrict visitors

59. In preparing a client for accommodation test, initially the nurse asks the client to
--------------------
a. focus on a distant object
b. close one eye and read letters on a chart
c. raise one finger when the sound is heard
d. focus on a close object

60. A boy, 14 is admitted to the hospital with acute myelogenous leukemia and presented
bruises and
petechiae over his legs. Which of the following nursing measure would best prevent
additional
bruises?
a. brushing the teeth only once per day
b. trimming his nails short
c. handling him well with the palms of the hand
d. gripping him in an arm chair

61. It is important for the nurse to prevent infection in sickle cell patient because --------
a. infection kills instantly
b. infection can cause sickling
c. infection causes clubbing of the fingers
d. infection causes further blood loss

62. Haemophilia, a coagulation disorder results from deficiency of ----------------------

a. factor IV only
b. factor IV and factor VIII
c. factor VIII and IX
d. factor VIII and factor IV

63. Immature red blood cells are called ------------------------------------------------------

a. megakaryocytes
b. haemoglobins
c. reticulocytes
 d. monocytes

64. The red blood cells that have a relatively low haemoglobin F also have -------------
a. more haemoglobin S
b. less haemoglobin S
c. greater life span
d. lesser life span

65. A client’s vision is tested with Snellen chart. The result of the least is documented as
20/60. The
nurse interprets this as
a. The Client can read at a distance of 60 feet what a client with normal vision can
read at 20 feet.
b. The client is legally blind
c. The client ;s vision is normal
d. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can
read at 60 feet.

66. A nurse is assigned to administer the prescribed eye drops for a client preparing for
cataract
Surgery. Which of the following types of eye drops will the nurse expect to be
prescribed?
a. An osmotic diuretic
b. A miotic agent
c. A mydriatic medication
d. A thisazide diuretic

67. A myotic agent would always

a. Improve the sight
b. Induce diereses
c. Constrict the pupil
d. Dilate the pupil

68. A mydriatic agent would always

a. Assist the sight of the client
b. Assist to overcome
c. Constrict the pupil
d. Dilate the pupil

69. A client is diagnosed with glaucoma. Which of these indicate a risk factor associated with
glaucoma?
a. A history of migraine headaches
 b. Frequent urinary tract infection
c. A cardio vascular disease
d. Frequent upper respiratory infection

70. To minimize the systemic effects that eye drops can produce, the nurse plans to instruct the
client to:
a. Eat before instilling the drops
b. Swallow several times after instilling the drops.
c. Blink vigorously to encourage tearing after instilling drops.
d. occlude the nasolacriminal duct with the finger for several minutes after instilling
the drops

71. Which of the following data collected by the nurse is least associated with
Peptic ulcer
a. History of tarry black stools
b. History of alcohol abuse
c History of gastric pain 2 to 4 hours after meals
d History of the use of acetaminophen

72. During administration of nasogastric feeding, the nurse places the patient in which position?
a. Striping
b. Fowler’s
c. Sim’s
d. Tredelenburg

73. After feeding a patient through a nasogastric tube, the nurse places the patient in which
position?
a. Supine
b. Fowler’s
c. Sim’s
d. Tredelenburg
74. A nurse is collecting data on a hepatitis patient, which of the following suggest a severe
damage to the liver?
a. Dark stools, yellow sclera, and dark urine
b. Clay stools, yellow sclera, and blood tinged urine
c. Clay stools, pruritus and dark urine
d. Dark stools, pruritus, and amber urine

75. A nurse planning care for a client with hepatitis, plans to meet the client’s safety needs by:
a. monitoring prothrombin and partial thromboplastin values
b. bathing with tepid water
c. assisting with meals
d. weighing and recording a weight daily
76. Which of the following finding is commonly found with a client with hepatitis?
a. Blurred vision or diplopic
b. Urinary frequency or urgency
c. Confusion or drowsiness
d. Diarrhoea or constipation

77. A nurse should include which of the following non pharmacological treatment plan for a
client who has peptic ulcer.
a. Continue to eat the same diet as before diagnosis
b. Smoke only at bedtime
c. Learn to use stress reduction techniques
d. Take non- steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for pain relief.

78. In providing instructions to a client with peptic ulcer disease, the nurse tells the client to
a. Eat foods that will increase gastrointestinal motility.
b. Eat at least six small meals per day
c. Eat everything that does not aggravate or cause pain.
d. Consume a bland diet only

79. Which of the following drugs will be prescribed for a patient with too little intrinsic factor?
a. Vitamin B12 injections
b. Vitamin B3 injections
c. Vitamin B6 injections
d. Antacid use

80. A client is diagnosed with chronic ulcerative colitis and is anaemic. What caused the
anaemia?
a. Decreased intake of dietary iron
b. Blood loss
c. Intestinal malabsorption
d. Lack of appetite.

81. Which of the following is likely to cause pernicious anaemia?

a. Decreased dietary intake of iron
b. Hemi-gastrectomy
c. Excessive consumption of iron
d. Reduced level of thyroxine
82. Pernicious anaemia is associated with
a. Decreased absorption of vitamin B12
b. Decreased consumption of iron
c. Excessive consumption of iron
d. Excessive loss of gastric juices

83. A client will undergo a barium swallow to determine whether a hiatal hernia is present. The
nurse instructs the client to:
a. Avoid eating or drinking after midnight before the test.
b. Have a clear liquid breakfast only on the morning of the test
c. Take all routine medications on the morning of the test.
d. Limit self to two cigarettes only in the nursing of test.

84. A client with an ileostomy is at risk of developing ………………..

a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Respirations
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis

85. A client with tuberculosis who is co-infected with HIV requires that anti-tubercular therapy
lasts for ……….
a. 6 total months and at least I month after culture converts to negative
b 6 total month and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
c. 9 total month and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
d. 9 total months and at least 6months after culture converts to negative.

86. A Mantoux test that results positive has indurations greater than …….
a. 10mm
b. 5mm
c. 3mm
d. 7mm

87. A client with HIV has positive results on Mantoux’s skin test with an area of induration of
about
……………….
a. 7mm
b. 5mm
c. 10mm
d. 3mm
88. A client with AIDS who is taking zidovudine (Retrovir) 2000mg PO may present with
which of the
following as severe effects.
a. Bacteraemia
b. Polycythemia
c. Neutropenia
d. Natraemia

89. A common reaction from taking zovirax (acyclovir) is

a. Elevation in WBCs
b. Elevation in blood urea and nitrogen
c. Elevation in platelet count
d. Elevation in hemoglobin

90. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with rheumatoid arthritis reveals which of the
following
Findings?
a. cloudy synovial fluid
b. presence of organisms
c. bloody synovial fluid
d. presence of urate crystals

91. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with gout reveals which of these findings?
a. cloudy synovial fluid
b. presence of organisms
c. bloody synovial fluid
d. presence of urate crystals

92. Which of the following findings is suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus

a. Two haeinoglobin s genes
b. Ascites
c. Emboli
d. Butterfly rash on cheeks and bridges of nose

93. Which of the following findings is indicative of sickle cell disease?

a. Raised level of genes
b. A single abnormal beta haemoglobin
c. Two haemoglobin s genes
d. A single haemoglobin s genes
94. After 2 ELISA tests are positive, which of the following test will be done to confirm an HIV
positive
status?
a. A CD4 cell count
b. A Western blot
c. A bone marrow biopsy
d. A third ELISA test

95. Which of the following is an early sign of pneumocytis carinii infection

a. cough
b. dyspnoea on exertion
c. dyspnoea at rest
d. fever

96. A client exposed to HIV infection approximately 3 months ago will present
a. oral lesions
b. purplish skin lesions
c. chronic cough
d. no signs and symptoms

97. Which of the following is a sign of Kaposi’s sarcoma?

a. A raised, dark purplish–coloured lesions on the thrunk
b. erythromatous nodosa
c. dyspnoea on slight exertion
d. numerous boils on the body

98. In making dietary changes for a client experiencing nausea and vomiting, the nurse must ….
a. A void diary products and red meat
b. Plan large, nutritious meals
c. Add spices to food for added flavour
d. Serve foods while they are very warm.

99. In herpes zooster, the common feature is …..

a. The presence of red, raised papules and large plagues covered by silvery scales
b. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
c. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by virus.
d. Presence of tiny red resides.

100. A client diagnosed with psoriasis presents…………………………

a. The presence of tiny red vesicles
 b. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales.
c. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis.
d. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by the virus

101. A client diagnosed with eczema presents………………………………

a. The presence of tiny red vesicles
b. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
c. The presence of red, raised papules and large plagues covered by silvery scales
d. The nerve caused by a virus.

102. A nurse administering immunizations at health care clinic understands that an

immunization will
provide.
a. Natural immunity form the disease
b. Acquired immunity form the disease
c. Innate immunity form the disease
d. Protection from all diseases

103. A client with a diagnosis of gout will show which of the following in the blood.
a. uric acid level of 8.0mg/dl
b. calcium level of 9.0 mg/dl
c. phosphorus level of 3.0mg/dl
d. uric acid level of 5.0mg/dl

104. Which is the following is a clinical manifestation associated with osteoarthritis.

a. Pain that is most severe later in the day
b. An elevated platelet
c. Elevated antinuclear antibody levels
d. Dull aching pain in the affected joint

105. Which of the following is abnormal if it is found in the CSF?

a. White blood cells
b. Proteins
c. Red blood cells
d. Glucose

106. Which of the following postures indicates deterioration in the dysfunction of the brain stem
area?
a. Decerebrate posturing
b. Fowler’s positing
c. Sim’s position
d. Flexion and pronation of the arms
107. Which of the following data indicates a potential late complication associated with Bell’s
palsy?
a. Partial facial paralysis
b. Excessive tearing
c. Negative electromyography
d. Degenerated taste buds

108. The common feature in a client with Alzheimer’s disease is:

a. Difficulty in performing new tasks
b. Problems with concrete thinking
c. Recent memory loss
d. Problems with leaning

109. The following are forms of liver tests except

a. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
b. Serum glutamic–oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
c. Serum glutamiate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT)
d. Serum metabolic rate (SMR)

110. A client with Bell’s palsy initially presents:

a. tingling sensations of the eyelids
b. burning pain in the nose and intermittent facial paralysis
c. speech or chewing difficulties accompanied by facial drop.
d. Stabbing facial pain with tingling sensations in the eye.

111. What will the nurse do when testing the plantar reflex of a client recovering from stroke?
a. Tap the Achilles’ tendon using the reflex hammer.
b. Gently prick the client’s skin in the dorsum of the foot
c. Firmly strike the lateral sole of the foot and under the toe with a blunt instrument
d. Hold the sides of the client’s great toe, while moving it, ask what position it is in.

112. Which of the following techniques will the nurse perform to adequately assess
proprioception.
a. Tap the Achille’s tendon using the reflex harmer
b. Gently prick the client’s skin in the dorsum of the foot.
c. Firmly strike lateral sole of the foot and the under the toe with a blunt instruments
d. Hold the sides of the client’s are at toe, while moving it, ask what position it is in.

113. Slow movement is described as:

a. Hypokenetics
b. Hypokenesia
 c. Bradykenesia
d. Brady kinetics

114. In the body iron is more available in the form of. ……...........
a. myofils
b. haemosiderin
c. ferrous
d. ferritin

115. A boy, age 14 is admitted to the hospital with acute myelogenous leukemia and presented
bruises
and petechiae over his legs. Which nursing measure would best prevent additional
bruising?
a. Brushing his teeth only once per day
b. Trimming his nails short
c. Handling him well with the palms of the hands
d. Gripping him in an arm-chair.

116. It is important for the nurse to prevent infection in sickle cell patient because:
a. Infection kills instantly
b. Infection can cause sickling
c. Infection causes clubbing of the fingers
d. Infection causes further blood loss

117. Haemophilia, a coagulation disorder that results from deficiency of:

a. Factor IV only
b. Both factor IV and factor VIII
c. Factor VIII & IX
d. Both fact VIII and factor IV

118. Immature red blood cells are called:

a. Megakaryocytic
b. Foetal heamoglobin’s
c. Recticulocytes
d. Monocydtes

119. The red blood cells that have a relatively low haemoglobin F have:
a. More haemoglobin S
b. Less normal haemoglobin
 c. Greater life span
d. Less life span

120. Anaemia in sickle cell disease becomes evident and severe when:
a. More cells are produced
b. Erythropoiesis is suppressed
c. Hyperplasia persists
d. Less cells are produced.

121. During sickle cell crisis, there is a severe pain in the:

a. Chest, abdomen and joints.
b. Fingers, tongue and abdomen
c. Abdomen, breath and kidneys
d. Ear, throat and legs

122. The failure to inherit factor VIII leads to a deficient formation of:
a. Thromboplastin
b. Recticulocytes
c. Embolus
d. Rennin

123. In leukemia, there is:

a. Excessive and controllable production of recticulocytes
b. Less excessive and controllable production of leucocytes
c. Excessive and ineffective production of enzymes
d. Excessive and uncontrollable production of leucocytes

124. Leukemia cells have been identified in patient suffering from…………..

a. Hypertension
b. Down’s syndrome
c. Paterson Brown’s Kelly syndrome
d. Nephritic syndrome

125. Pernicious anaemia is also called:

a. Avitaminosis
b. Koilonychias
c. Addison’s anaemia
d. Hanson’s disease
126. The normal intake of Vit. B12 is about:
a. 10 – 14ug
b. over 20 ug
c. 50 – 70ug
d. 3 – 4 ug

127. In haemophilia type B, there is deficiency of:

a. Factor IV
b. Factor IX
c. Factor VII
d. Factor VIII

128. An attack of an acute rheumatic fever is related to an

antecedent ............................occurring.
a. streptococcal throat infection
b. viral infection
c. tuberculosis infection
d. gonococci infection

129. Acute myeloid leukemia is more common in children under 4 years.

True or False

130. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is more common in children under 10 years.

True or False

131. During acute severe blood loss the body will:

a. inhibit erythropoiesis
b. reduce blood flow to the peripheral structures
c. substitute plasma with blood cells
d. increase haemolytic process

132. Iron absorption in the body is enhanced by the presence of..................................

a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin B6
d. Vitamin D

133. Antimetabolites include:

a. Sulphonamides and methrotrexate
b. Aminoglycocides and vinblastine deconoate
c. Methrotrexate and thioguanine
d. Vinblastine deconoate and ferritin
134. In the care of a patient with leukemia, the nurse must observe the patient
for..........................
a. Eating of non-nutritious substances
b. Signs of dehydration and mental alertness
c. Signs of overhydration and pharyngitis
d. Bleeding tendencies and signs of infection

135. The presence of dysphagia and glossitis is referred to as.................................................

a. Stevenson Johnson’s Syndrome
b. Plumber Vincent Syndrome
c. Browns Williams Syndrome
d. Paterson George Syndrome

136. In pancytopinia a combination of the following occurs:

i. Thrombocytopenia, anoxmia, hopoxia
ii. Thrombocytopenia, gluconaemia
iii. Both anaemia and thrombocytopemia
iv. Leukopenia, anaemia and thrombocytopemia
a. I, II III
b. II only
c. IV only
d. II, III and IV

137. The following are examples of haemolytic anaemias except.................................

a. Haemophilia
b. G6 P D
c. Sickle cell anaemia
d. Thalassaemia

138. In haemophiliacs, the swelling of the joints result from.........................

a. Infection
b. Bleeding
c. Bruising
d. Cholestremia

139. Acute leukemias show.......................................................

a. Mature and smaller than normal cells
b. Mature and larger than normal cells
c. Immature and smaller than normal cells
d. Immature and larger than normal cells

140. Sources of Vitamin B12 include.....................................................

a. Plant sources and animal sources
b. Plant sources only
 c. Animal sources only
d. None of the above
141. In Schilling test, urine is collected for:
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 1 hour

142. In haemophilia there is a:

a. Fast clotting time
b. Delay clotting time
c. Absence of clotting
d. All of the above.

143. In all forms of leukemia, there is a

a. Weight gain
b. Weight loss
c. Decreased leucocytosis
d. Increased appetite

144. A patient with pernicious anaemia may be given:

a. Antimetabolites
b. Aminoglycoides
c. Sulphonamides
d. Tranquilizers.

145. The Schilling test is definitive test for:

a. Iron deficiency anaemia
b. Pernicious anaemia
c. Haemorrhagic anaemia
d. Haemolytic anaemia

146. Haemophilia B is also called:

a. Addision’s disease
b. Crohn’s disease
c. Christmas disease
d. Von Kelly’s disease

147. The ataxia that occurs in pernicious anaemia results from a disturbance in the:
a. Skeletal tissue
b. Nervous tissue
c. Glandular tissue
d. Connective tissue
148. Dimentia often occurs in which of the following disease:
a. Pernicious anaemia
b. Addison’s syndrome
c. Aplastic anaemia
d. Haemorrhagic anaemia

149. Leucopenia in a patient makes him prone to the following except.........................................

a. Anaemia
b. Infection
c. Bleeding
d. Somnolence

150. Thromobocytopenia in a patient makes him or her prone to.................................

a. Infection
b. Somenolence
c. Anaemia
d. Bleeding

151. Sickle cell anaemia occurs commonly in males than females..................................

True or False

152. In haemoglobin S patients, the amino acid, valine is substituted with..........................

a. Monosodium glutamate
b. Ferrous sulphate
c. Glutamic acid
d. Hydrochloric acid

153. Haemolysis of abnormal haemoglobin is enhanced by:

a. Absence of oxygen
b. Flexibility of red ells
c. Presence of molecules
d. Solubility of red cells.

154. Normal haemoglobin is:

a. More flexible than abnormal ones
b. Less flexible than abnormal ones
c. Rigid and easily damaged
d. Flexible and easily damaged
155. The emergency care of a patient with aplastic anaemia include the following except:
a. Admission of the patient
b. Control of bleeding
c. Taking of blood specimen
d. Monitoring of oxygen replacement

156. Erythrodermia (homme rouge) occurs in:

a. Lymphocytic leukemia
b. Haemophilia
c. Pernicious anaemia
d. aplastic anaemia

157. The following factors enhanced the absorption of iron from the gut except:
a. Vitamin C
b. Gastric acidity
c. Moderate alcohol consumption
d. Achorhydria

158. Another name for hypercapnia is ………………

a. Hypernopxia
b. Hypercarbin
c. Hyperdypsia
d. Hyperdyspnoea

159. In severe hyperthyroidism, the increased utilization of oxygen is due to

…………..
a. Rapid rate of absorption
b. Rapid rate of metabolism
c. Decrease rate of utilization of carbon dioxide
d. Severe break down of blood cells.

160. What is the initial action the nurse should take after realizing that the peripheral
intravenous site dressing is wet?
a. stop infusion immediately and notify the physician
b. check that the tubing is securely attached
c. increase the intravenous flow rate to assess for further leaking
d. remove the plaster and discontinue the infusion
161. A clinical syndrome characterized by choking and suffocating chest pain is
described as……………………..
a. Nocturnal dysponea
b. Angina pectoris
c. Cardiac asthma
d. Myocardial infarction
162. Among male patients receiving antihypertensive drugs the commonest side
effect the nurse
Should discuss with the client and his wife is ……….
a. Nausea and dizziness
b. Sudden fall in blood pressure
c. Impotence
d. Dizziness

163. Which of the following is a beta-blocker?

a. Glyceryl trinitrate
b. Propranolol
cl. Nifedipine
d. Heparin

164. The action of aspirin is to ……………

a. Decrease platelet aggregation
b. Dilate coronary and peripheral vessels
c. Resists the conduction of neurons activities
d. Decrease heart rate with increase formation of thrombosis.

165. In a patient with a stone lodged in the cystic duct, the nurse observes
for..............................
a. A colicky pain after a fatty meal
b. A painful defaecation
c. A frequent passage of watery stools
d. A prolonged constipation

166. After serving a sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse must ensure that client has
which of the following most important items within easy reach..............................
a. vomit bowl
b. tissue
c. call bell
d. moist cloth

167. Calcium channel blockers act on blood vessels to …….

a. Decrease the preload
b. Dilate coronary and peripheral vessels
c. Increase thrombosis formation
d. Decrease the force of contraction
168. Prior to abdominal paracentesis for a client with ascites, the first action of the
nurse is …….
a. Take the client’s temperature every quarter hourly.
b. Make sure the bladder is empty
 c. Measure the weight of the client
d. Put the client in a fowler’s position

169. In nursing a client who has a potential for haemorrhage, the nurses’ goal include the
following
except ………..
a. Absence of all subjective and objective signs of gastrointestinal, vascular and soft
tissue haemorrhage
b. Early detection of bleeding
c. Observing client’s vital signs at frequent interval.
d. Serving client’s with iron-rich foods.

170. In a client with a diabetic coma, the nurse must observe patient for…………………
a. The presence of sugar content in the urine
b. abnormal increase blood glucose
c. Polydypsia
d. Polyphagia

171. Which of the following drugs is often prescribed to relief pain of leukemic patient
….............
a. Metformin
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Morphine
d. Doxorubicn

172. In a patient diagnosed with leukemia, the leucocyte count usually……

a. Rises above normal range
b. Is within normal range
c. Is below normal range
d. Is difficult to be determined

173. Before a nurse serves digoxin to a client, she should …

a. Check the pulse rate
b. Cheek the blood pressure
c. Cheek the urine output
d. Cheek the respiratory rate

174. In teaching a patient and family to administer insulin at home, the nurse …..
a. Demonstrate the action of insulin to only the patient
b. Demonstrate how to take other prescribed drugs
c. Demonstrate the ability to prepare a syringe with insulin solution
d. Demonstrate the action of oral drugs
 175. When cold compress is applied to the skin the superficial blood
vessels constrict and this may …….
a. Help to check capillary flow and relieve anxiety
b. Help to increase blood flow and relieve anxiety
c. Help to check capillary bleeding and relieve pain
d. Help to increase blood supply and relieve pain

176. When a heat compress is applied to the skin, it causes ……….

a. Dilatation of the blood vessels and increase circulation
b. Constriction of the veins and increase circulation
c. Constriction of the blood vessels and decrease circulation
d. Constriction of the arteries and reduce circulation

177. Nurses do not have the responsibility for determining drug dosage for
their patients but they ……..
a. Do so in the absence of the physician
b. Do need to be aware of the normal doses of drugs
c. Prescribe emergency drugs
d. Only serve drugs.

178. The most widely used method of administering drugs is ……..

a. Rectal administration
b. Parenteral administration
c. Oral administration
d. Nasal inhalation

179. The reasons of intramuscularly injection include the following except....

a. When quicker absorption is required than from subcutaneous route
b. When the drug would be irritating to superficial tissues
c. When the volume is so large as to preclude the use of other route
d. When administering antibiotics

180. Before nurses lift a patient, there should be ………

a. The presence a relative
b. Adequate space around the bed
c. Two chairs placed back-to-back
d.. A scale for weighing the patient

181. When a patient complains of fear, the nurse must understand that ……
a. The patient’s mental anguish works against a physical recovery.
b. One day the patient will accept his condition
c. The patient will identify himself with others suffering from similar condition
d. It is unusual to experience fear
182. Breast milk production requires sufficient output of the ……….
a. Pituitary hormone
b. Thyroid hormone
c. Adrenal glands
d. Alveolar cell around the ripples

183. Chronic bronchitis co-exists with emphysema when there is …….

a. Decrease number of alveoli with increase demand of oxygen
b. Enlargement of alveoli with destruction of their walls
c. Over-secretion of mucus and increase expectoration of mucus.
d. Is dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles.

184. Status asthmaticus is defined as ……

a. A chronic asthma that is often treated with drugs
b. A slowly but progressive asthma that is relieved by repositioning of the patient
c. A period when the patient has regain health after an attack
d. A severe asthma that has not responded to patient’s normal

185. The inflammation of the mucosa lining the upper respiratory tract
following respiratory tract infection is called ……
a. Chronic bronchitis
b. Laryngitis
c. Sinusitis
d. Lobar pneumonia

186. The nursing care for a patient suffering from pneumonia does NOT include
a. tepid sponging
b. ensuring a high fluid intake of preferred drinks
c. isolating the bacteria that caused the infection
d. control of pain to ensure comfort.

187. The type of tubercle bacilli that affect man is/are ….

a. Bovine strains only
b. Bovine strains and human strains
c. Human strains only
d. Neither human nor bovine strains

188. The factors that may influence the development of tuberculosis include the following
except …..
a. People living alone on good diet
b. Vagrant alcoholics
c. Immigrants with low natural resistance
d. People who have immune suppression
189. Leukemia is classified according to ……
a. The blood group the individual belongs to
b. The type of cells that proliferate
c. The type of blood group and cells that are easily destroyed
d. The cells that are involved and their inability to multiply

For question 186 to 191, Match column A to Column B

Column A Column B
Disorder Procedure Answers
190. Benign prostatic A. Pyeloplasty ……………..
191. Urethral stricture B. Pyelolithotromy ……………..
192. Renal stones C. Urethral dilatation ……………..
193. Ureteric stones D. Supra-pubic dilatation ……………..
194. Ureter-pelvic stricture E. Trans-vesicle repair …………….
195. Ureter-bladder stricture F. Ureteroplasty ..…………..
G. Ureterolithotomy …………….
H. Uretoplasty …………….
I. Hernioplasty …………….

196. During dietary care of a patient with nephrotic sysndrome, the nurse is expected to
a. restrict the patient from taking protein
b. design a diet to replace the protein lost in the urine.
c. Add more sodium to patient’s meals
d. Allow to take oral fluids liberally.

197. Tetanus bacilli enter the body through………………

a. the oral cavity
b. the oral route
c. the site of the wound
d. were there is a dead tissue

198. Injection of anti-tetanus toxoid produces in the body…..

a. inactive resistance
b. passive resistance
c. active resistance
d. unnatural resistance

199. Snellen’s chart is used to test……..

a. the weight of new born babies
b. the hearing acuity of a person
c. the visual acuity of a person
d. the height of new born babies.

200. A cataract occurs when ……

 a. there is opacity of the lens
b. there is a rise in intra-ocular pressure
c. there is a decrease in intra –ocular pressure
d. the lens in the eye allows light to pass through it.

ANSWERS
1. D
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. A
16. B
17. C
18. A
19. D
20. A
21. C
22. B
23. B
24. D
25. A
26. C
27. A
28. B
29. C
30. C
31. B
32. A
33. D
34. B
35. C
36. D
37. D
38. A
39. C
40. A
41. B
42. B
43. B
44. A
45. D
46. D
47. A
48. A
49. B
50. A
51. D
52. A
53. D
54. C
55. C
56. A
57. C
58. C
59. A
60. C
61. B
62. C
63. C
64. D
65. D
66. C
67. C
68. D
69. C
70. D
71. D
72. B
73. B
74. C
75. A
76. C
77. C
78. C
79. A
80. B
81. B
82. A
83. A
84. C
85. D
86. A
87. B
88. C
89. C
90. A
91. D
92. D
93. C
94. B
95. A
96. D
97. A
98. A
99. C
100 B
101. A
102. B
103. A
104. D
105. C
106. A
107. B
108. C
109. D
110. C
111. C
112. D
113. C
114. B
115. C
116. B
117. C
118. C
119. D
120. B
121. A
122. A
123. D
124. B
125. C
126. D
127. B
128. A
129. FALSE
130. TRUE
131. B
132. A
133. C
134. D
135. B
136. C
137. A
138. B
139. C
140. B
141. A
142. B
143. B
144. D
145. B
146. C
147. B
148. A
149. D
150. D
151. FALSE
152. C
153. A
154. A
155. B
156. C
157. D
158. B
159. B
160. B
161. D
162. C
163. B
164. A
165. A
166. C
167. B
168. B
169. D
170. B
171. C
172. A
173. A
174. C
175. D
176. A
177. B
178. C
179. C
180. B
181. A
182. A
183. B
184. D
185. C
186. B
187. B
188.A
189. B
190. D
191. C
192. B
193. G
194. A
195. F
196. B
197. C
198. C
199. C
200. A