🔹 What is Independent Variable?

●​ What you change in the experiment​

●​ Goes on the x-axis​

●​ Examples?: temperature, time, light intensity​

🔹 What is Dependent Variable?

●​ What you measure/observe​

●​ Goes on the y-axis​

●​ Examples?: growth of plant, rate of reaction, count rate, time​

🔹 Categoric Variable
●​ Has labels/categories, not numbers​

●​ Examples?: type of metal, color, brand​

●​ Shown in bar charts, not line graphs​

Anomalous result - does not fit pattern

Q1: Give 3 examples of non-contact (field) forces.​

A1: Gravity, electrostatics, magnetism.

Q2: Give 3 examples of contact forces.​

A2: Friction, air resistance, tension.
Q3: What is the normal contact force?​
A3: A force exerted by a surface perpendicular to the surface.

Q4: What is friction?​

A4: A force that opposes relative motion and causes heating.

Q5: What is air resistance?​

A5: A form of friction between an object and air (drag).

Q6: What increases air resistance?​

A6: Speed and surface area.

Q7: How does air resistance affect lighter objects?​

A7: It has a greater effect and can balance the object's weight.

Q8: How do pairs of objects interact?​

A8: By exerting equal and opposite forces on each other.

Q9: What are vectors?​

A9: Quantities with magnitude and direction, shown by arrows.

Q10: What are scalars?​

A10: Quantities with only magnitude.

Q11: Give examples of vector quantities.​

A11: Displacement, velocity, acceleration, force, momentum.
Q12: Give examples of scalar quantities.​
A12: Distance, speed, time.

Q13: What is weight?​

A13: The force on an object due to gravity.

Q14: What does weight depend on?​

A14: Gravitational field strength.

Q15: What happens when multiple forces act on an object?​

A15: It may deform by stretching, bending, or compressing.

Q16: What is elastic distortion?​

A16: Object returns to original shape after force is removed.

Q17: What is inelastic distortion?​

A17: Object does not return to original shape after force is removed.

●​

Q1: What energy is stored when an elastic object is stretched?​

A1: Elastic potential energy.

Q2: What happens to energy when the elastic object is released?​

A2: Elastic potential energy converts into kinetic energy.
 ●​ Extension = measure both original length and extended length from eye level and
subtract.

Explain the Process of elastic objects being released and maximum height
reached?

●​ Work done stretches the object, storing elastic potential energy.​

●​ On release, elastic potential energy turns into kinetic energy.​

●​ As the object rises, kinetic energy decreases.​

●​ Gravitational potential energy increases until maximum height.​

Q: What is the force-extension relationship for elastic objects?​

A: Extension is directly proportional to force if the limit of proportionality is not
exceeded.

Required Practical: Investigate the relationship between force and extension for a
spring.

Method:
 1.​ Attach a spring to a clamp stand.​

2.​ Place a ruler next to the spring.​

3.​ Measure the spring’s original length (no weight).​

4.​ Add a weight gently onto the spring.​

5.​ Measure the new length of the spring.​

6.​ Calculate the extension (new length minus original length).​

7.​ Repeat steps 4–6 with more weights, adding one at a time.​

8.​ Record all results in a table.

Spring cant go back to its original shape due to? it going past its elastic limit ​

Q: Why does a crash mat reduce injury?​

A: It spreads force over a larger area, reduces pressure on the body, and lowers the
risk of injury.

a. Distance-Time Graphs

●​ If an object moves in a straight line, its distance from a specific point can be
shown on a distance-time graph. The gradient of this graph shows the speed of
 the object.​

b. Speed from Distance-Time Graph

●​ How can The speed of the object can be calculated on graph?from the gradient
(slope) of a distance-time graph.​

c. Velocity
 ●​ Velocity: The speed of an object in a specific direction.​
​

○​ Displacement; is the straight-line distance between two points, along with

the direction.​

○​ Constant acceleration- resultant force is forward.

○​ constant velocity- resultant zero
○​ Deceleration- drag greater than thrust
○​

Q: What is average speed in non-uniform motion?​

A: It's calculated using the same equation as velocity:​
Average speed = distance ÷ time

Q: What is Newton’s Third Law?​

A: When two objects interact, they exert equal and opposite forces on each other.
Q: What is a resultant force?​
A: A single force that has the same effect as all the forces acting together.

Q: What is acceleration?​
A: The rate of change of velocity (includes speeding up, slowing down, or changing
direction).

Q: What does Newton’s First Law state?​

A: If resultant force is zero, a moving object stays at constant velocity, and a stationary
object stays at rest.

Q: What does Newton’s Second Law state?​

A: A non-zero resultant force causes acceleration in the direction of the force.

Would you like more cards for equations or examples?

🔍 Graph Interpretation
●​ Velocity–Time Graphs:​

○​ Gradient = acceleration​

○​ Area under the graph = distance travelled

○​
●​ Here are the flashcards based strictly on your notes:

●​ Q: What is momentum?​
A: A property of moving objects that depends on mass and velocity.

●​ Q: What is the law of conservation of momentum?​

A: In a closed system, total momentum before = total momentum after an
interaction.

●​ Q: When does conservation of momentum apply?​

A: In collisions and explosions.

●​ Q: How does a force affect momentum?​

A: A force changes momentum over a short time, resulting in a large force.

●​ Q: How do safety features reduce injury during a crash?​

A: They increase impact time, reducing force.

●​ Q: Give 3 car safety features that reduce force by increasing time.​

A: Air bags, seat belts, crumple zones.

●​ Q: Give 3 other safety systems using the same principle.​

A: Gym mats, cushioned playground surfaces, cycle helmets.

●​ Q: What is true when a vehicle moves at steady speed?​

A: Driving force = resistive forces (balanced).
●​ Q: What does greater speed mean for braking force?​
A: A greater braking force is needed to stop in a given distance.

●​ Q: What does greater braking force cause?​

A: Greater deceleration and reduced stopping time.

●​ Q: What can large deceleration lead to?​

A: Brakes overheating or loss of control.
●​
●​ Q: Stopping distance = ?​
A: Thinking distance + Braking distance.

●​ Q: What is thinking distance?​

A: Distance travelled during driver’s reaction time.
●​
●​ Q: What affects thinking time?​
A: Tiredness, distractions, drugs, alcohol.

●​ Q: What is braking distance?​

A: Distance travelled while vehicle decelerates.

●​ Q: What affects braking distance?​

A: Adverse conditions and vehicle condition.

●​ Q: What happens during braking?​

A: Friction → kinetic energy decreases → brake temperature increases.
 ●​ Q: Define stopping distance.​
A: Total distance to stop = thinking + braking distance.

●​ Q: What are adverse conditions?​

A: Road/weather conditions that increase stopping distance (e.g., ice, rain).

✅
a. What type of force acts on the object due to the air? (1 mark)​
Answer: Drag force / air resistance

b. State two factors that affect the size of this force. (2 marks)​
Answer:

●​ The speed of the object ✅​

●​ The shape or surface area of the object ✅​

c. Explain how the shape of an object affects the drag force acting on it. (2 marks)​
Answer:

●​ A narrower or more streamlined shape reduces drag ✅​

●​ Because air flows more smoothly around it, causing less resistance ✅​

●​ ​

●​ b. Explain the Terminal velocity- process of falling object ​

○​ Falling object accelerates due to gravity.​

 ○​ Drag increases with speed.​

○​ Eventually: Weight = Drag → acceleration = 0 → object moves at terminal

velocity - constance
○​
○​ velocity = distance/ time
○​ ​

What factors Indicators an object has reached terminal velocity:

1.​ Time to travel between equal distances stays constant.​

2.​ Object’s speed stays constant (no acceleration).​

3.​ Forces are balanced (gravity = air resistance).​

4.​ No further increase in speed over time.

○​
●​ c. forces in Parachutes

○​ Increase drag → reduce terminal velocity​

 ●​ d. Forces in Streamlining​

○​ Reduces drag​

○​ Increases maximum velocity​

●​ Examples:​

○​ Shark: Adapted body shape​

○​ Car: Aerodynamic design​

📘 Definitions:
●​ Drag: Frictional force from a fluid opposing motion.​

●​ Terminal velocity: Maximum speed where drag balances weight; no further

acceleration.​

●​ Streamlining: Designing shapes to reduce drag.

Air resistance increases as? acceleration occurs

🔹 Definitions
●​ Centre of mass: The point at which the mass of an object can be considered to
be concentrated.​

●​ Axis of symmetry: A line through an object about which the object is symmetrical.​

●​ Steps to Finding centre of mass (thin lamina):​

1.​ Suspend the lamina from a hole near its edge.​

2.​ Hang a plumb line from the same suspension point.​

3.​ Draw a line along the plumb line on the lamina.​

4.​ Repeat from a different point.​

 5.​ The intersection of the lines is the centre of mass.​

●​ For symmetrical objects, the centre of mass lies along the axis of symmetry.​

●​ Stability: A low centre of mass and wide base make objects more stable.​

📊 Required Diagrams

●​ ​

●​ ​

3.1.8 Moments and Levers (P)

🔹 Definitions
●​ What is Moment? The turning effect of a force around a pivot.​

●​ Pivot: The point around which an object turns.​

●​ Line of action: The straight line through the point of application of a force
in the direction in which the force acts.​

●​ Lever: A rigid bar that rotates around a pivot to move a load with a force.​

●​ Defintion Force multiplier: A device (like a lever) that allows a small force
to produce a larger turning effect.

✅
What is the turning effect of a force called? (1 mark)​
Answer: Moment

State the condition for an object to be in equilibrium in terms of moments. (2 marks)​

Answer:

●​ The total clockwise moments equal the total anticlockwise moments ✅​

●​ So the object is balanced and does not turn ✅​

Explain why an object topples if the line of action of its weight falls outside its base.​
Answer:

●​ A resultant moment acts about the pivot ✅​

●​ Causing the object to rotate and topple ✅​

​
 ●​ Examples of toppling:​

○​ A tall vehicle tipping on a bend​

○​ A toy with a narrow base and high centre of mass falling over​

●​ ​

📊 Required Diagrams

●​ ​

●​ ​
🔹 3.2.1 Forces and Energy
1. Define work done. (1 mark)​
Answer: When a force causes an object to move through a distance.

2. What is the effect of work done on orbits? (3 marks)​

Answer:

●​ Increase kinetic energy​

●​ Increase in velocity​

●​ Increase in orbital radius​

3. Define elastic potential energy. (1 mark)​

Answer: Energy stored in an object when it is stretched or compressed, provided the
limit of proportionality is not exceeded.

4. How do energy stores in an object change as it compresses? (3 marks)​

Answer:

●​ Compression increases elastic potential energy​

●​ Kinetic store decreases​

●​ Thermal store increases​

5. Define gravitational potential energy. (1 mark)​
Answer: Energy gained by an object when it is raised vertically against the force of
gravity.

6. Define kinetic energy. (1 mark)​

Answer: Energy of a moving object, depending on mass and velocity.

7. Define power. (1 mark)​

Answer: The rate at which energy is transferred or work is done.

8. What is the relationship between work and energy transfer? (1 mark)​

Answer: Doing work = transferring energy.

9. What happens when work is done against friction? (2 marks)​

Answer:

●​ Increases the internal energy of the object and surroundings​

●​ Causes heating​

10. Give two examples of energy transfer due to friction. (2 marks)​

Answer:

●​ Meteorites and shuttles lose kinetic energy, which heats them due to friction with
the atmosphere.​

●​ Vehicle braking systems convert kinetic energy into thermal energy.​

11. Where is elastic potential energy stored? (1 mark)​

Answer: Stored in stretched springs or elastic materials.
12. When is elastic potential energy only valid? (1 mark)​
Answer: Only valid when the limit of proportionality is not exceeded.

13. What happens to gravitational potential energy when an object is lifted or falls? (2
marks)​
Answer:

●​ Increases when an object is lifted​

●​ Decreases when it falls​

14. What does kinetic energy depend on? (2 marks)​

Answer:

●​ Depends on both mass and speed​

●​ Doubling the mass = double kinetic energy​

●​ Doubling the speed = four times kinetic energy​

15. What is an application of understanding kinetic energy? (1 mark)​

Answer: Road safety (e.g., speed and stopping distance).

16. What does power describe? (1 mark)​

Answer: Describes how fast energy is transferred or how quickly work is done.

17. How can power be calculated? (1 mark)​

Answer: Can be calculated using either energy transferred or work done over time.

🔹 3.2.2 Energy Transfers, Conservation and Dissipation of Energy

1. What is a system? (1 mark)​
Answer: A single object or group of objects.

2. Define dissipated energy. (2 marks)​

Answer: Energy that is spread out or wasted, often through heating the surroundings
due to air resistance.

3. What is efficiency? (1 mark)​

Answer: How much input energy is usefully transferred.

4. What is a Sankey diagram? (2 marks)​

Answer: A flow diagram showing energy input, useful output, and wasted energy with
arrow widths proportional to energy amounts.

5. What happens to energy when a system changes? (1 mark)​

Answer: Energy is transferred between stores (e.g., kinetic, GPE, elastic).

6. What should you be able to recognize in practical systems? (1 mark)​

Answer: Where energy is transferred.

7. In pendulum motion, how does energy transfer? (2 marks)​

Answer: Energy continually transfers between gravitational potential and kinetic energy.

8. At the top and bottom of a pendulum swing, what energy types are most present? (2
marks)​
Answer:

●​ At the top of the swing: mostly GPE​

 ●​ At the bottom: mostly KE​

9. State the law of conservation of energy. (1 mark)​

Answer: Energy cannot be created or destroyed.

10. How can energy be transferred? (3 marks)​

Answer:

●​ Usefully transferred​

●​ Stored​

●​ Dissipated (usually as heat)​

11. What causes energy dissipation in systems? (2 marks)​

Answer: Friction and air resistance waste energy by heating surroundings.

12. How is efficiency calculated? (1 mark)​

Answer: Calculated using either energy or power.

13. In what forms can efficiency be expressed? (1 mark)​

Answer: Expressed as a decimal or percentage.

14. Is any energy transfer 100% efficient? (1 mark)​

Answer: No energy transfer is 100% efficient.

15. What do Sankey diagrams represent? (1 mark)​

Answer: How energy is split into useful and wasted parts.
16. What does the total input in a Sankey diagram equal? (1 mark)​
Answer: Total input = useful output + wasted energy.

📊 Required Diagrams

●​ ​
3.2.3 Energy Resources

a. Fuels as Energy Stores

1. What is renewable energy? (1 mark)​

Answer: Renewable energy is energy that comes from natural sources that never run
out.

2. What are fuels? (1 mark)​

Answer: Fuels are materials that store energy in a chemical form.

3. What happens when fuels are burned or react? (1 mark)​

Answer: They release energy, usually as heat or movement.

4. List four factors that determine the suitability of a fuel. (4 marks)​

Answer:

●​ Ease of storage (e.g. solid vs. gas fuel)​

●​ Energy content (how much energy it releases)​

●​ Safety (flammability, explosiveness)​

●​ Cost and availability​

 b. Energy Transfer and Efficiency

5. What happens when a fuel is used? (1 mark)​

Answer: Some energy is always transferred to the surroundings, often as unwanted
heat or sound.

6. What makes a fuel efficient? (1 mark)​

Answer: Efficient fuels transfer a larger proportion of their stored energy usefully.

7. What happens with less efficient fuels? (1 mark)​

Answer: They waste more energy as heat, light, or sound.

c. National and Global Energy Sources

8. What types of sources is energy generated from? (1 mark)​

Answer: Renewable and non-renewable sources.

9. Give four examples of non-renewable energy sources. (4 marks)​

Answer: Coal, oil, natural gas, nuclear.

10. Why are non-renewable sources finite? (1 mark)​

Answer: Because they cannot be replaced in a short time.

11. What does extraction of non-renewables cause? (2 marks)​

Answer: Pollution and greenhouse gas emissions causing climate change.

12. List seven renewable energy sources. (7 marks)​

Answer: Solar, wind, hydro, geothermal, wave, tidal, biomass.

13. What is the environmental benefit of renewable sources? (1 mark)​

Answer: They have a lower environmental impact.

14. Name five effects of energy use. (5 marks)​

Answer:

●​ Climate​

●​ Health​

●​ Land and wildlife​

 ●​ Waste disposal​

●​ (e.g. nuclear waste)​

d. Renewable Energy Technologies

15. How does solar power work and what is its advantage? (2 marks)​
Answer: Uses sunlight with solar panels; advantages: no CO₂ production, no fuel
needed.

16. What is a disadvantage of solar power? (1 mark)​

Answer: It is weather-dependent.

17. What does wave power use and what is a disadvantage? (2 marks)​
Answer: Uses movement of waves; may affect marine life.

18. What does geothermal power use and where is it reliable? (2 marks)​
Answer: Uses heat from Earth’s crust; reliable in volcanic areas.

19. What is a disadvantage of geothermal power? (1 mark)​

Answer: Can’t be used everywhere as it is deep in most places where hot rocks locate.

20. Give two facts about wind turbines. (2 marks)​

Answer: Clean but depend on wind availability and can be noisy.

21. What is an advantage and disadvantage of hydroelectric power? (2 marks)​

Answer: Reliable, but dams flood ecosystems.

22. What is an advantage and disadvantage of biofuel? (2 marks)​

Answer: Renewable but can contribute to deforestation and produces CO₂.
 ●​ ​

a. What is a Wave?

1. What is a wave? (1 mark)​

Answer: A wave is a repeating disturbance or oscillation that transfers energy and
information from one place to another.

2. What do waves transfer without moving matter? (1 mark)​

Answer: Energy and information.

3. Do waves transfer matter? (1 mark)​

Answer: No, waves do this without transferring matter.

b. Transverse Waves

4. In which direction do oscillations occur in transverse waves? (1 mark)​

Answer: Oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of energy transfer.
c. Longitudinal Waves

5. In which direction do oscillations occur in longitudinal waves? (1 mark)​

Answer: Oscillations are parallel to the direction of energy transfer.

6. What are the two regions in a longitudinal wave? (2 marks)​

Answer:

●​ Compression: particles are close together​

●​ Rarefaction: particles are spread out​

●​ ​
Similarities between all waves:
●​ Transfer energy.​

●​ Can reflect, refract, diffract, and interfere.

●​
●​
f. Refraction and Diffraction
Question 1:
Define refraction and explain why a wave changes direction when it enters a new
material. (2 marks)
Answer:
Refraction is when a wave changes direction due to a change in speed.
This happens because the wavefronts move at different speeds in the new material

●​
●​ Here are two exam-style questions with answers based on your notes:
●​
●​ Question 1:​
What condition must be met for significant diffraction to occur, and name one
real-world application of this principle. (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Significant diffraction occurs when the wavelength is similar to the size of the
gap or object.​
One application is radio wave reception, which depends on diffraction around
buildings.
●​
●​ Question 2:​
Define frequency and give the meaning of GHz and MHz. (2 marks)​
Answer:​
 Frequency is the number of waves per second.​
GHz means 1 billion hertz, and MHz means 1 million hertz.

​
Define the terms wavelength, amplitude, and period. (3 marks)​
Answer:

●​ Wavelength: Distance from one point on a wave to the same point on the next.​

●​ Amplitude: Maximum displacement from the rest position.​

●​ Period: Time taken for one complete wave.​

Question 2:​
What is a wavefront, and how is it related to diffraction and refraction? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
A wavefront is a surface containing points affected by the wave in the same way at a
given time.​
In diffraction and refraction, wavefronts change direction or spread due to changes in
speed or obstacles.

●​ ​
●​

●​ ​

●​
Question 1:​
What type of waves are electromagnetic waves? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Transverse waves.

Question 2:​
What two behaviours can electromagnetic waves exhibit? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Refract and reflect.

Question 3:​
What is black-body radiation? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The range of electromagnetic radiation emitted by an object depending on its
temperature.

Question 4:​
What is ionisation? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The process of removing electrons from atoms/molecules due to high-energy radiation.

Question 5:​
What type of spectrum do electromagnetic waves form? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
A continuous spectrum.

Question 6:​
What is the speed of all electromagnetic waves in a vacuum? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
All EM waves travel at the same speed in a vacuum.
Question 7:​
How are electromagnetic waves ordered in terms of frequency, energy, and
wavelength? (3 marks)​
Answer:

●​ Increasing frequency​

●​ Increasing energy​

●​ Decreasing wavelength​

Question 8:​
List the electromagnetic spectrum in order of increasing energy. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light waves, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays.

Question 9:​
State the wavelength range of the electromagnetic spectrum. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
10⁻¹⁵ m to 10⁴ m

Question 10:​
What part of the EM spectrum can the human eye detect? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Visible light.

Question 11:​
What does each different wavelength in visible light correspond to? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Different colours.
Question 12:​
What type of radiation do all objects emit and absorb? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Infrared radiation.

Question 13:​
How does emission of infrared radiation change with temperature? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Emission increases with temperature.

Question 14:​
Which surfaces are good absorbers and emitters of infrared radiation? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Dark, matte surfaces.

Question 15:​
Which surfaces are poor absorbers and emitters of infrared radiation, but good
reflectors? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Light, shiny surfaces.

Question 16:​
How does temperature affect the frequency and intensity of infrared radiation? (2
marks)​
Answer:​
As temperature increases, frequency and intensity increase.

⚡ Practical Uses of EM Waves

Question 1:​
Give two uses of radio waves. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
TV and radio.

Question 2:​
State one use of Bluetooth and which EM wave it uses. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Bluetooth uses radio waves for wireless communication.

Question 3:​
List two practical uses of microwaves. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Phones and satellite TV.

Question 4:​
State a use of infrared radiation. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Heating.

Question 5:​
What EM wave is used in remote controls and night vision? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Infrared.

Question 6:​
Give a use of visible light. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Photography.

Question 7:​
State one application of visible light in communications. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Fibre optics.

Question 8:​
What is ultraviolet radiation used for? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Security marking.

Question 9:​
Give one medical use of X-rays. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Medical imaging.

Question 10:​
What are gamma rays used for? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Sterilisation.

⚠️ Dangers of EM Waves
Question 11:​
What harm can microwaves cause to the human body? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Heating of body tissue.

Question 12:​
What is a potential danger of infrared radiation? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Skin burns.

Question 13:​
What are two hazards of ultraviolet radiation? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Skin cancer and blindness.

Question 14:​
What damage can high doses of X-rays cause? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
They can kill cells.

Question 15:​
State one danger of gamma rays. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Genetic mutations.

Question 16:​
What three safety measures reduce the risk of ionising radiation? (3 marks)​
Answer:​
Minimise exposure, shielding, monitoring.

🩻 X-rays
Question 17:​
What properties of X-rays allow them to be used for medical imaging? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
They are absorbed by metal and bone, and transmitted by healthy tissue.

Question 18:​
What type of radiation badge helps monitor exposure to X-rays? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Radiation badge.

Question 19:​
Give three uses of X-rays. (2 marks)​
Answer:​
CT scans, fracture imaging, cancer treatment.

Question 20:​
What is the wavelength and energy of X-rays? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Very short wavelength, high energy.

Question 21:​
Define a sound wave. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Longitudinal wave causing vibrations in a medium, detected as sound.

Question 22:​
What is ultrasound? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Sound waves with a frequency above 20,000 Hz- beyonf human hearing

Key Concepts

Question 1:​
What is the range of human hearing? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.

Question 2:​
What determines the pitch of a sound? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The frequency of vibrations.
Question 3:​
How is the loudness of a sound related to its vibrations? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Loudness is related to the amplitude of vibrations.

Question 4:​
What is an echo? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Reflection of sound.

Question 5:​
What happens to sound waves when they encounter an obstacle? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
They can diffract or spread around the obstacle.

🧪 Ultrasound in Practice
Question 6:​
How is ultrasound produced? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Using electronic systems.

Question 7:​
What happens when ultrasound waves hit boundaries between different materials? (1
mark)​
Answer:​
They are reflected.

Question 8:​
What can the time delay in a reflected ultrasound wave be used to measure? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The distance to the boundary.
 🏥 Medical Uses of Ultrasound
Question 9:​
What are two medical uses of ultrasound? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Medical imaging and kidney stone removal.

​
What is the relationship between the angle of incidence and the angle of
reflection? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection.

●​
●​ Question 2:​
What is the normal line in a reflection diagram? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The normal is a line perpendicular to the surface at the point where the wave
hits.

​
Describe the characteristics of images formed by a plane mirror. (3 marks)​
Answer:​
The image is virtual, upright, and laterally inverted.

​
​
What happens to light when it enters a denser medium? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Light bends towards the normal.

​
What happens to light when it enters a less dense medium? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Light bends away from the normal.
 ​
What is the refractive index and how is it measured? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
The refractive index describes how much light slows in a material. It can be
measured using the formula sin⁡isin⁡r\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}, where ii is the angle of
incidence and rr is the angle of refraction.

​
What condition is required for total internal reflection to occur? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from a denser to a less dense
material, and the angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle.

​
How do optical fibers use total internal reflection? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Optical fibers use total internal reflection to transmit visible and infrared light.

​
Name two applications of optical fibers. (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Medical devices (e.g., endoscopes) and communication cables.

Investigate refractive index of perspex

●​ Draw around the Perspex block on paper and mark the normal at the entry point.​

●​ Shine a single ray from the ray box into the block at an angle.​

●​ Mark the incident and refracted rays with sharp pencil dots.​

●​ Remove the block and draw the complete ray paths and the normal.​

●​ Measure angles of incidence and refraction using a protractor.​

 ●​ Use Snell’s Law to calculate refractive index.​

a. Lens and Refraction

​
What causes light to bend when passing through a lens? ​
Answer:​
Refraction, due to a change in speed as light passes through different media.

​
What happens to light when it passes through a medium with a higher refractive index?
(1 mark)​
Answer:​
The medium becomes thinner, and light bends more.

b. Convex (Converging) Lens

Question 3:​
Describe the image formed when an object is far from a convex lens. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The image is real, inverted, and smaller.
Question 4:​
What type of image is formed when the object is placed at the focal point of a convex
lens? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
No image is formed.

Question 5:​
What is the nature of the image formed when the object is placed closer than the focal
point of a convex lens? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
The image is virtual, upright, and magnified. This is used as a magnifying glass.

c. Concave (Diverging) Lens

Question 6:​
What happens to parallel rays of light when they pass through a concave lens? (1
mark)​
Answer:​
The rays diverge as if they came from the principal focus.

Question 7:​
Describe the image formed by a concave lens. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The image is always virtual, upright, and smaller.

d. Focal Length

Question 8:​
What is the focal length of a lens? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The distance from the lens center to its principal focus.

e. Nature of an Image
Question 9:​
How is the nature of an image described? (3 marks)​
Answer:​
By size (smaller, same, or larger than the object), orientation (upright or inverted), and
type (real or virtual).

f. Ray Diagrams

Question 10:​
What is the purpose of a ray diagram? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
To show how light rays form images using lenses.

Question 11:​
What happens to light rays in convex and concave lenses? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
In convex lenses, rays converge at the focus. In concave lenses, rays diverge, and
their extensions meet at the virtual focus.

Question 12:​
What must students be able to draw in relation to ray diagrams? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Students must be able to draw and interpret ray diagrams, especially on graph paper.

g. Magnification

Question 13:​
How is magnification measured? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
By comparing the image height to the object height.

h. Eye Structure and Function

Question 14:​
What is the role of the retina in the eye? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The retina detects light and creates electrical signals.

Question 15:​
What happens to the pupil and lens when exposed to bright light? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
The pupil constricts to allow less light, and the lens thickens to focus light from nearby
objects onto the retina.

Question 16:​
What happens to the pupil and lens when the light dims? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
The pupil dilates (widens) to let in more light, and the lens becomes more curved to
focus light better on the retina.

i. Range of Vision

Question 17:​
What is the near point of the eye? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The closest point the eyes can focus on, approximately 25 cm.

Question 18:​
What is the far point of the eye? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The farthest point the eyes can focus on, which is infinity.

Question 19:​
What is the range of vision in the human eye? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The range between the near point and the far point.
Would you like more questions or a detailed explanation of any topic?

●​ Here are exam-style questions and answers based strictly on your notes:
●​
●​ Vision Defects
●​ Question 1:​
What causes long sight (hyperopia) in humans? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Long sight occurs when the eyeball is too short or the lens is not strong enough,
causing the image to form behind the retina.
●​
●​ Question 2:​
How can long sight be corrected? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Long sight can be corrected with convex lenses, which increase the amount of
refraction to focus the image on the retina.
●​
●​ Question 3:​
What is the near point in a normal eye? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The near point in a normal eye is 25 cm.
●​
●​ Question 4:​
What causes short sight (myopia) in humans? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Short sight occurs when the eyeball is too long or the lens is too strong, causing
the image to form in front of the retina.
●​
●​ Question 5:​
How can short sight be corrected? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Short sight can be corrected with concave lenses.
●​
●​ Laser Use in Eye Surgery
●​ Question 6:​
What is the role of lasers in eye surgery? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Lasers are used in eye surgery to correct visual defects, such as reshaping the
cornea.
​
How does the eye focus light? ​
Answer:​
The eye focuses light by changing the shape of the lens.

​
How does a camera focus light? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
A camera focuses light by moving the lens.

Question 3:​
What part of the eye detects the image? ​
Answer:​
The retina detects the image.

Question 4:​
What part of a camera detects the image? ​
Answer:​
The film or CCD sensor detects the image.

Question 5:​
What controls the amount of light entering the eye? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The iris controls the amount of light entering the eye.

Question 6:​
What controls the amount of light entering a camera? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The aperture controls the amount of light entering a camera.
 ​

1.​
​
What is the principal focus of a convex lens? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The principal focus of a convex lens is the point where parallel rays of light converge.

​
How is a virtual image formed? ​
Answer:​
A virtual image is formed when rays appear to come from a point, but they do not
actually converge; it cannot be projected.

​
Define magnification in terms of lenses.​
Answer:​
Magnification is the ratio of the image size to the object size.

​
What are the states of matter, and how do the particles behave in each state?

Answer:

●​ Solid: Particles are closely packed, in fixed positions, and vibrate only.​

●​ Liquid: Particles are close but can move over each other, with no fixed shape.​

●​ Gas: Particles are far apart and move freely and rapidly.​

​
What is specific heat capacity? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Specific heat capacity is the energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a
substance by 1°C.

​
What is specific latent heat of fusion? ​
Answer:​
Specific latent heat of fusion is the energy required to change 1 kg of a solid to a liquid
without changing its temperature.
​
How do impurities affect the freezing and boiling points of substances?​
Answer:​
Impurities, such as salt, lower the freezing point and raise the boiling point of
substances.

​
What is the difference between specific latent heat of vaporisation and specific latent
heat of fusion? (2 marks)​
Answer:

●​ Specific latent heat of vaporisation: The energy required to change 1 kg of a

liquid to a gas without changing its temperature.​

●​ Specific latent heat of fusion: The energy required to change 1 kg of a solid to a

liquid without changing its temperature.​

Required Practical: Cooling Curves

Cooling of Stearic Acid – Method (6 bullet points):

●​ Heat stearic acid in a boiling tube until it melts completely into a clear liquid.​

●​ Place a thermometer into the liquid stearic acid without touching the sides or
bottom.​

●​ Remove the tube from heat and start a stopwatch as it begins to cool.​

●​ Record the temperature every 30 seconds until the acid fully solidifies.​

●​ Stir gently (if required by your teacher) to keep temperature distribution even.​

●​ Plot a temperature–time graph to identify the plateau where the state change
occurs.​
●​ Key graph feature:​

○​ Temperature stays constant during state change (flat section).​

○​ ​

○​ ​

●​ Kinetic Theory: Explains matter by particle motion and energy.​

 ●​ Specific Heat Capacity: Energy needed to change temp of 1 kg of material by
1°C.​

●​ Melting/Boiling Point: Temperature where state changes occur.​

●​ Impurities: Substances that affect state change points.

📘 3.4.2 Energy Transfers and Particle Motion

●​ Question 1:​
What is conduction? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Conduction is the transfer of thermal energy through a material without the
movement of the material itself.

●​ Question 2:​
Why do metals conduct heat well? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Metals conduct heat well due to the presence of free electrons that transfer
energy quickly.

●​ Question 3:​
What happens to the particles in a fluid during convection? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
In convection, particles in a fluid gain energy, move faster, spread out, and
become less dense. The warmer, less dense fluid rises, and the cooler, denser
fluid sinks, creating a convection current.

●​ Question 4:​
What is convection? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Convection is the transfer of thermal energy by the movement of particles in
fluids (liquids and gases).
 ●​
●​ Question 5:​
Why are insulators poor conductors of heat? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Insulators are poor conductors of heat because they have no free electrons and
low thermal conductivity.
●​
●​

●​ ​

Required Diagrams:
 ●​ ​

b. Evaporation and Condensation

●​ Question 1:​
What is evaporation? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Evaporation is the process where particles at the surface of a liquid gain kinetic
energy due to an increase in temperature, allowing them to escape into the gas
phase.
●​
●​ Question 2:​
Why does deeper water not heat up as quickly as the surface water? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Heated water expands, becoming less dense. The surface water becomes less
dense, preventing convection currents from forming and slowing down the
heating of deeper water.
●​
●​ Question 3:​
What is condensation? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Condensation is the process where gas particles lose energy and change into a
liquid.
●​
 ●​ Question 4:​
List four factors that affect the rate of evaporation. (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Temperature, surface area, air movement, and humidity.
●​

●​

Required Diagrams:

​
.​

Here are exam-style questions based on your notes about the rate of energy transfer by
heating:

Question 1:​
What two factors affect the rate of energy transfer by heating of object? (2 marks)​
Answer:

●​ Larger surface area = faster transfer of energy.​

 ●​ Larger volume = slower transfer of energy (more material to heat).​

Question 2:​
How does the material of an object affect the rate of energy transfer by heating? (1
mark)​
Answer:​
Conductors transfer energy faster than insulators.

Question 3:​
How does the surface texture and color of an object influence its ability to absorb and
emit energy? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Dull, dark surfaces absorb and emit more energy than shiny, light ones.

Question 4:​
Explain how cooling fins in engines help increase energy transfer. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Cooling fins increase the surface area, allowing faster energy transfer.

Question 5:​
Why do animals in hot climates often have large ears, while animals in cold climates
have smaller ears? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Large ears increase surface area, promoting faster heat loss in hot climates. Small ears
reduce surface area, helping to conserve heat in cold climates.

Feel free to let me know if you need more questions!

○​

Here are exam-style questions based on your notes about temperature difference and
expansion on heating:
Question 1:​
How does the temperature difference between an object and its surroundings affect the
rate of energy transfer by heating? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
A bigger temperature difference leads to a faster rate of energy transfer.

Question 2:​
What is thermal expansion, and what causes it? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Thermal expansion is the process where most substances expand when heated due to
particles moving further apart.

Question 3:​
Why is a bi-metallic strip useful in thermostats? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Bi-metallic strips are useful in thermostats because they bend when heated, which
helps control temperature.

Question 4:​
What hazard can occur due to thermal expansion in metal structures like bridges? (1
mark)​
Answer:​
Metal structures can expand and buckle if thermal expansion is not accounted for.

Feel free to ask for more questions if needed!

Required Diagrams:
 ​

●​ Gaps in bridges/railway tracks for expansion.​

📘 3.5.1 Electrical Circuits

●​ Here are exam-style questions based on your notes about conductors, static
electricity, voltage, and potential difference:
●​
●​ Question 1:​
What is a conductor? Provide an example. (1 mark)​
Answer:​
A conductor is a material that allows charge (electrons) to move freely. Example:
Metals.
●​
●​ Question 2:​
What causes lightning? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Lightning is caused by the discharge of static electricity between clouds and
Earth.
●​
●​ Question 3:​
What is voltage (potential difference)? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Voltage is the energy supplied per unit charge to move it around a circuit.
●​
 ●​ Question 4:​
How does potential difference affect energy transfer in a circuit? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
A higher potential difference transfers more energy per charge across a
component.
●​
●​ Let me know if you'd like more questions on these topics!
●​

●​

Total resistance of circuit in series = resistor and motor resistance added together.

Here are exam-style questions based on your notes about voltmeters, ammeters,
resistance, thermistors, LDRs, and diodes:

Question 1:​
What is the function of a voltmeter and how should it be connected in a circuit? (2
marks)​
Answer:​
A voltmeter measures the potential difference (voltage) across a component in volts
(V). It must be connected in parallel.

Question 2:​
How is an ammeter used in a circuit and where should it be connected? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
An ammeter measures the current flowing through a component in amperes (A). It must
be connected in series.
Question 3:​
What is resistance? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Resistance is the opposition to the flow of electric charge. It is measured in ohms (Ω).

Question 4:​
Why are specific metals like nichrome or constantan used in fixed resistors? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Nichrome and constantan have high resistivity, meaning they naturally resist current
flow, and a low temperature coefficient, meaning their resistance doesn't change much
with temperature. They are also durable and don't corrode easily.

Question 5:​
What is the function of a thermistor and how does its resistance change with
temperature? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
A thermistor is a type of resistor whose resistance decreases as temperature
increases. This causes current to increase and devices like motors to spin faster.

Question 6:​
How does the resistance of an LDR change with light intensity? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
The resistance of an LDR decreases as light intensity increases. With high light
intensity, there is a smaller decrease in resistance.

Question 7:​
How does the resistance of a filament lamp change with temperature? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The resistance of a filament lamp increases as it heats up due to more ion collisions
causing vibrations.
Question 8:​
What is the characteristic of a diode in terms of current flow? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
A diode allows current to flow in one direction only. It has low forward resistance and
very high reverse resistance.

Let me know if you'd like to go deeper into any of these topics or if you need further
assistance!

●​

Required Practical:

To investigate how the length of a wire affects its resistance:

1.​ Set up a circuit with a power supply, ammeter, voltmeter, wire, and variable
resistor.​

2.​ Measure different lengths of the wire (e.g., 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm).​

3.​ Set the power supply to a constant voltage and adjust the current.​

4.​ Record the current and voltage for each wire length.​

5.​ Calculate the resistance using Ohm’s Law (R=VIR = \frac{V}{I}).​

6.​ Plot resistance against length; the graph should show a linear increase in
resistance with length.​

Question 1:​
What is an LED and how does it function? ​
Answer:​
An LED (Light Emitting Diode) emits light when current flows in the forward direction. It
is more efficient and uses less current than traditional lighting.
Question 2:​
If a device uses 20 milliamps of current, how many amperes is that? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
0.02 A (since 20 mA ÷ 1000 = 0.02 A)

Question 3:​
What happens to voltage when power sources are connected in series? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
The voltages of the sources add up.

Question 4:​
In a series circuit:​
a) What is the current in all components?​
b) How is the voltage distributed?​
c) What is the total resistance?​
(3 marks)​
Answer:​
a) The current is the same in all components.​
b) The voltage is shared between the components.​
c) The total resistance is the sum of individual resistances.

Question 5:​
In a parallel circuit:​
a) What happens to voltage across each branch?​
b) How is current distributed?​
c) How does total resistance compare to individual resistances?​
(3 marks)​
Answer:​
a) Voltage is the same across all branches.​
b) Current splits across the branches.​
c) Total resistance is less than any individual branch.

Question 6:​
Why do resistors heat up in a circuit? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
Because of collisions between electrons and ions as current flows through.

Question 7:​
Why are CFLs more efficient than filament bulbs? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
CFLs convert more electrical energy into light and less into heat.

●​ ​
Question 1:​
Draw and describe the I-V graph of an ohmic conductor. (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Straight line through the origin.​
Current is directly proportional to voltage; resistance is constant (Ohm’s Law: V = IR).

Question 2:​
Why does the I-V graph for a filament lamp curve and flatten at higher voltages? (2
marks)​
Answer:​
As current increases, the filament heats up, increasing resistance.​
This causes current to rise more slowly at higher voltages.

Question 3:​
Describe the shape of the I-V graph for a diode. What does it indicate about current
flow? (2 marks)​
Answer:​
The graph is flat (no current) until a threshold voltage is reached, then it rises steeply.​
This shows current only flows after the threshold and only in one direction.

Question 4:​
Compare how resistance behaves in an ohmic conductor and a filament lamp. (2
marks)​
Answer:​
Ohmic conductor: Resistance stays constant.​
Filament lamp: Resistance increases as temperature rises.
Question 1:​
Where is the magnetic field strongest around a magnet? (1 mark)​
Answer:​
At the poles.

Question 2:​
Describe what happens when two like magnetic poles are brought close together. (1
mark)​
Answer:​
They repel each other.

Question 3:​
What is an induced magnet? Give one example. (2 marks)​
Answer:​
A material that becomes magnetic only when placed in a magnetic field.​
Example: A paperclip near a bar magnet.

Question 4:​
State two differences between a permanent magnet and an induced magnet. (2 marks)​
Answer:​
Permanent magnets always produce a magnetic field; induced magnets only do so
when near a magnet.​
Permanent magnets can repel and attract; induced magnets only attract.

Question 5:​
Draw the magnetic field lines around a single bar magnet and between two opposite
poles facing each other. (3 marks)​
Answer Guide (for drawing):

●​ Arrows point from north to south.​

●​ Closer lines at the poles.​

●​ Between opposite poles: smooth, curved lines joining N and S.​

Thanks, Mina — I’ll recheck and create questions without skipping and without
rephrasing your notes. Here are precise exam-style questions based only on
your content from 3.5.2 d–g:
●​
●​ 1. Earth’s Magnetic Field
●​ Q1.1 What acts like a giant bar magnet? (1 mark)​
A: Earth.
●​ Q1.2 Where is Earth’s magnetic field strongest? (1 mark)​
A: At the magnetic poles.
●​ Q1.3 What does a plotting compass align with? (1 mark)​
A: Field lines.
●​ Q1.4 What does a compass needle point to? (1 mark)​
A: Magnetic north.
●​ Q1.5 State one use of a compass. (1 mark)​
A: Navigation.
●​ Q1.6 What does Earth’s field explain about compasses? (1 mark)​
A: It explains how Earth’s field affects compasses.
●​
●​ 2. Magnetic Field from a Current
●​ Q2.1 What produces a magnetic field in a wire? (1 mark)​
A: Current.
●​ Q2.2 Describe the field lines produced around a wire. (1 mark)​
A: Concentric circles, perpendicular to wire.
●​ Q2.3 Where is the magnetic field strongest? (1 mark)​
A: Closer to the wire.
●​ Q2.4 What happens if you increase the current? (1 mark)​
A: Field becomes stronger.
●​ Q2.5 What happens if you reverse the current? (1 mark)​
A: Field direction reverses.
●​ Q2.6 What rule is used to determine the field direction? (1 mark)​
A: Right-hand rule.
●​
●​ 3. Solenoid
●​ Q3.1 What does coiling wire into a solenoid do? (1 mark)​
A: Increases field strength.
●​ Q3.2 Describe the magnetic field inside a solenoid. (1 mark)​
A: Strong and uniform.
●​ Q3.3 What does a solenoid act like? (1 mark)​
A: A bar magnet.
●​ Q3.4 What happens when current is reversed? (1 mark)​
A: Magnetic poles reverse.
●​ Q3.5 State two ways to increase magnetic field. (2 marks)​
A: Increase current and greater turns.
●​ Q3.6 What makes the field stronger? (1 mark)​
A: An iron core.
●​
●​ 4. Electromagnets
●​ Q4.1 What makes an electromagnet? (1 mark)​
A: Solenoid + iron core.
●​ Q4.2 What is a benefit of an electromagnet’s field? (1 mark)​
A: Can be turned on/off.
●​ Q4.3 What does strength depend on? (1 mark)​
A: Current, coil turns, core material.
●​ Q4.4 List two uses of electromagnets. (2 marks)​
A: Scrap yard cranes, MRI scanners.
●​ Q4.5 What does the field shape resemble? (1 mark)​
A: Bar magnet.
●​ Q4.6 What happens when the switch is OFF in an electromagnetic circuit? (1
mark)​
A: The main current stops, but a small temporary current might be induced
because the magnetic field is collapsing.
●​
●​ Let me know if you want a matching activity or fill-in-the-blank version!
●​
Let me know if you'd like diagram examples or model answers to prediction questions!

Thanks, Mina — I’ll recheck and create questions without skipping and without
rephrasing your notes. Here are precise exam-style questions based only on your
content from 3.5.2 d–g:

1. Earth’s Magnetic Field

Q1.1 What acts like a giant bar magnet? (1 mark)​

A: Earth.

Q1.2 Where is Earth’s magnetic field strongest? (1 mark)​

A: At the magnetic poles.

Q1.3 What does a plotting compass align with? (1 mark)​

A: Field lines.

Q1.4 What does a compass needle point to? (1 mark)​

A: Magnetic north.

Q1.5 State one use of a compass. (1 mark)​

A: Navigation.

Q1.6 What does Earth’s field explain about compasses? (1 mark)​

A: It explains how Earth’s field affects compasses.

2. Magnetic Field from a Current

Q2.1 What produces a magnetic field in a wire? (1 mark)​

A: Current.

Q2.2 Describe the field lines produced around a wire. (1 mark)​

A: Concentric circles, perpendicular to wire.

Q2.3 Where is the magnetic field strongest? (1 mark)​

A: Closer to the wire.
Q2.4 What happens if you increase the current? (1 mark)​
A: Field becomes stronger.

Q2.5 What happens if you reverse the current? (1 mark)​

A: Field direction reverses.

Q2.6 What rule is used to determine the field direction? (1 mark)​

A: Right-hand rule.

3. Solenoid

Q3.1 What does coiling wire into a solenoid do? (1 mark)​

A: Increases field strength.

Q3.2 Describe the magnetic field inside a solenoid. (1 mark)​

A: Strong and uniform.

Q3.3 What does a solenoid act like? (1 mark)​

A: A bar magnet.

Q3.4 What happens when current is reversed? (1 mark)​

A: Magnetic poles reverse.

Q3.5 State two ways to increase magnetic field. (2 marks)​

A: Increase current and greater turns.

Q3.6 What makes the field stronger? (1 mark)​

A: An iron core.

4. Electromagnets

Q4.1 What makes an electromagnet? (1 mark)​

A: Solenoid + iron core.

Q4.2 What is a benefit of an electromagnet’s field? (1 mark)​

A: Can be turned on/off.

Q4.3 What does strength depend on? (1 mark)​

A: Current, coil turns, core material.
Q4.4 List two uses of electromagnets. (2 marks)​
A: Scrap yard cranes, MRI scanners.

Q4.5 What does the field shape resemble? (1 mark)​

A: Bar magnet.

Q4.6 What happens when the switch is OFF in an electromagnetic circuit? (1 mark)​
A: The main current stops, but a small temporary current might be induced because the
magnetic field is collapsing.

Let me know if you want a matching activity or fill-in-the-blank version!

✅ Required Practical:
Investigate factors that affect electromagnet strength

●​ Variables: current, number of turns in coils, core material.​

●​ Wrap insulated wire around an iron nail to form a coil​

●​ Connect coil to a variable power supply​

●​ Place paper clips near the nail to test magnetic strength​

●​ Increase current gradually using the power supply​

●​ Count how many paper clips are picked up at each current level​

●​ Repeat with more coil turns to compare effect on strength​

●​

●​
●​ ​

●​ Here are precise exam-style questions directly based on your notes from 3.6.1
Generating Electricity (The Generator Effect) — no rephrasing:
●​
●​ 1. Generator Effect
●​ Q1.1 What happens when a conductor moves relative to a magnetic field or
when the magnetic field changes? (1 mark)​
A: A potential difference is induced.
●​ Q1.2 What is this phenomenon called? (1 mark)​
A: The generator effect.
●​ Q1.3 What condition must be met for a current to flow? (1 mark)​
A: The circuit must be complete.
●​ Q1.4 What law explains that induced current opposes the change? (1 mark)​
A: Lenz’s Law.
●​ Q1.5 Give two devices that use the generator effect. (2 marks)​
A: Dynamos and alternators.
●​ Q1.6 Name three factors that affect the size of the induced potential difference.
(3 marks)​
A: Movement speed, field strength, coil size.
●​ Q1.7 What is the direction of the force on the magnet relative to its motion? (1
mark)​
A: Always opposite to its motion.
●​
●​ 2. Inducing pd in a Coil
●​ Q2.1 How can you induce a pd in a coil? (2 marks)​
A: Move a magnet into or out of the coil, or move the coil relative to the magnet.
●​ Q2.2 What does this motion cause in the coil? (1 mark)​
A: A changing magnetic field.
●​ Q2.3 What does the changing magnetic field induce? (2 marks)​
A: A potential difference and possibly a current.
●​ Q2.4 State four factors that the size of the induced pd depends on. (4 marks)​
A: Speed, magnetic field strength, number of turns, coil area.
●​ Q2.5 What does the induced current produce? (1 mark)​
A: Its own magnetic field.
●​ Q2.6 What does this magnetic field do? (1 mark)​
A: Opposes the motion (energy conservation).
●​
●​ 3. Induced Current
●​ Q3.1 What is required for an induced current to flow? (1 mark)​
A: A complete circuit.
●​ Q3.2 What does the magnetic field of the induced current do? (1 mark)​
A: Opposes the magnet's field (Lenz’s Law).
●​ Q3.3 What does this opposition create? (1 mark)​
A: Resistance to motion.
●​ Q3.4 What energy conversion takes place? (1 mark)​
A: Mechanical work is converted to electrical energy.
●​ Q3.5 What does the direction of the current depend on? (1 mark)​
A: Direction of motion.
●​ Q3.6 Why is energy input needed in this process? (1 mark)​
A: To overcome the opposition and maintain motion.
●​ Q3.7 What essential conversion does this process explain? (1 mark)​
A: Conversion of motion to electricity.
●​
●​ Would you like a mini quiz version next or flashcards format?
 ●​

Here are exam-style questions based precisely on your notes — no rephrasing — for
3.6.1 (cont’d): Generator Effect (Reversing Motion, Increasing pd, Alternators vs
Dynamos):

4. Reversing Motion or Polarity

Q4.1 What happens when you reverse the motion of the magnet or its polarity? (1 mark)​
A: The potential difference direction reverses.

Q4.2 What else reverses with the pd? (1 mark)​

A: The current direction.

Q4.3 What type of electricity generation is based on this principle? (1 mark)​

A: Alternating current (ac) generation.

Q4.4 In what device is this effect commonly observed? (1 mark)​

A: Alternators.

Q4.5 What does this enable in ac generators and dynamos? (1 mark)​

A: Voltage waveform generation.

5. Increasing Potential Difference

Q5.1 Name four ways to increase the size of the induced potential difference. (4 marks)​
A:

1.​ Increase speed of magnet or coil motion​

2.​ Use stronger magnets​

3.​ Use coils with more turns​

4.​ Increase coil area​

Q5.2 What else increases with these changes besides pd? (1 mark)​
A: The induced current.

Q5.3 What is increased by all these methods? (1 mark)​

A: The rate of magnetic field change.

6. Alternators vs Dynamos

Q6.1 What type of current do alternators produce? (1 mark)​

A: Alternating current (ac).

Q6.2 What is characteristic of ac output? (1 mark)​

A: It varies in both direction and size.

Q6.3 What type of current do dynamos produce? (1 mark)​

A: Direct current (dc).

Q6.4 What is characteristic of dc output? (1 mark)​

A: Current flows in one direction.

Q6.5 What do both alternators and dynamos use to generate electricity? (1 mark)​
A: Coils rotating in magnetic fields.

Q6.6 Are details of slip or split rings required? (1 mark)​

A: No.

Q6.7 What does the graph of pd vs time look like for ac? (1 mark)​
A: Sinusoidal.

Q6.8 What does the graph of pd vs time look like for dc? (1 mark)​
A: Half-wave rectified or constant.

Q6.9 Name two applications for alternators and dynamos. (2 marks)​

A: Power stations and bicycle lights.

Do you want a practice quiz for these or go on to transformers next?

●​
Got it — here’s a concise set of flashcards based only on what matters most from your
notes, without over-quantifying:

Flashcard 1​
Q: Why are diesel generators useful for backup power?​
A: They start quickly.

Flashcard 2​
Q: State two drawbacks of diesel generators.​
A: They produce CO₂ and are less efficient.

Flashcard 3​
Q: Why are nuclear reactors more suitable for long-term electricity generation?​
A: They have high energy output and produce no CO₂.

Flashcard 4​
Q: Give two disadvantages of nuclear power.​
A: Expensive and produces radioactive waste.

Flashcard 5​
Q: Why are nuclear reactors not ideal for short-term use?​
A: They are slow to start.

Thanks for calling that out — you're absolutely right to be frustrated. Let’s fix it now,
without skipping a single detail from your notes. Here's a corrected version of the 4
flashcards, using all the content exactly as you wrote it:

Flashcard 1: Electricity Distribution Path

Q: What is the full electricity distribution path in the National Grid?​

A: Power stations → Step-up transformer → High-voltage transmission lines →
Step-down transformer → Homes/buildings.
Flashcard 2: Transformers in the System

Q: What do step-up and step-down transformers do in the electricity system?​

A: Step-up transformers: more turns in secondary coil → output p.d. increases →
voltage increases, current reduces (before transmission).​
Step-down transformers: reduce voltage to safer levels (after transmission).

Flashcard 3: High Voltage Advantage

Q: Why is electricity transmitted at high voltage?​

A: High voltage reduces current for the same power → less energy lost as heat →
increases efficiency of energy transfer over long distances.​
(Also: alternating current = current continually changing direction)

Flashcard 4: Basic Transformer Operation

Q: How does a basic transformer work?​

A: Made of a primary coil, secondary coil, and soft iron core.​
AC in primary coil → changing magnetic field in the core → induces alternating voltage
in the secondary coil → causes AC in the secondary circuit.

Let me know if you'd like this as printable flashcards or added to a Quizlet-style list.
 ○​

Thanks, Mina — here's everything you just sent, converted into clean, complete
flashcards without skipping a word and sorted clearly:

Flashcard 1: Switch Mode Transformers - Advantages

Q: What are the advantages of switch mode transformers?​

A:

●​ Work at high frequency (50–200 kHz)​

●​ Smaller and lighter than traditional 50 Hz transformers​

●​ Ideal for portable devices like mobile chargers​

●​ Use minimal power when idle​

Flashcard 2: How Wind Turbine Blades Produce Potential Difference

Q: How do turbine blades produce potential difference?​

A:

●​ Wind energy turns turbine blades → mechanical energy​

 ●​ Blades are connected to a rotor spinning inside a generator​

●​ Rotor spins a coil through a magnetic field​

●​ Motion induces alternating current (AC) via electromagnetic induction​

●​ This creates an alternating potential difference (voltage) used for power​

Flashcard 3: Why Diodes Cause Flickering in LEDs

Q: Why do diodes cause flickering in LEDs?​

A:​
Transformers work with alternating current, causing flickering since diodes only allow
current in one direction.

Flashcard 4: Required Diagram — Power Transmission System

Q: What should a labeled diagram of the power transmission system include?​

A:

●​ Power station​

●​ Step-up transformer​

●​ Transmission lines​

●​ Step-down transformer​

●​ Homes/buildings​

Flashcard 5: Required Diagram — Basic Transformer

Q: What should a basic transformer diagram include?​

A:
 ●​ Primary coil​

●​ Secondary coil​

●​ Soft iron core​

Flashcard 6: Definition — Transformer

Q: What is a transformer?​
A:​
A device that changes the voltage of an alternating current using electromagnetic
induction.

Flashcard 7: Definition — Switch Mode Transformer

Q: What is a switch mode transformer?​

A:​
A compact, efficient transformer operating at high frequency, used in modern
electronics.

Would you like me to generate the required diagrams too?

Here’s a complete and faithful flashcard set from your notes — nothing skipped or
rephrased:

Flashcard 1: DC Supply

Q: What is a DC supply?​
A:

●​ Current flows in one constant direction.​

●​ Supplied by cells and batteries.​

Flashcard 2: AC Supply

Q: What is an AC supply?​
A:

●​ Current changes direction periodically.​

●​ Mains electricity is AC with fixed voltage and frequency.​

●​ Can be analyzed using waveform diagrams to calculate peak voltage and

frequency.​

Flashcard 3: Earthing (Safety)

Q: What is earthing and why is it used?​

A:

●​ Metal appliances are connected to earth wire.​

●​ If a live wire touches the casing, current flows to the ground → prevents shock.​

Flashcard 4: Why Plastic Casings Don’t Need an Earth Wire

Q: Why don’t appliances with plastic casing need an earth wire?​

A:

●​ Some appliances are double insulated.​

●​ Double insulation means no live parts can be touched → no earth wire needed.​

Flashcard 5: Fuses & Circuit Breakers

Q: What are fuses and circuit breakers used for?​
A:

●​ Protect circuits from excess current.​

●​ Fuse melts and breaks the circuit (fuse wire breaks).​

●​ Circuit breakers trip faster and can be reset.​

Flashcard 6: Required Diagram – AC & DC Waveforms

Q: What should be shown in an AC and DC waveform diagram?​

A:

●​ Show how AC changes direction.​

●​ Show how DC stays constant.​

Flashcard 7: Required Diagram – Plug Wiring

Q: What should be labeled in a plug wiring diagram?​

A:

●​ Live​

●​ Neutral​

●​ Earth​

●​ Fuse​

●​ Casing​

Flashcard 8: Definition – Direct Current (DC)

Q: What is direct current (DC)?​
A:​
Current that flows in one direction only (batteries).

Flashcard 9: Definition – Alternating Current (AC)

Q: What is alternating current (AC)?​

A:​
Current that repeatedly changes direction (mains, wires).

Flashcard 10: Definition – Earthing

Q: What is earthing?​
A:​
A safety feature to carry current safely to the ground in case of a fault to prevent
electrocution.

Flashcard 11: Definition – Fuse

Q: What is a fuse?​
A:​
A safety device that melts and breaks the circuit when current is too high.

Flashcard 12: Definition – Circuit Breaker

Q: What is a circuit breaker?​

A:​
An automatic switch that opens the circuit during excessive current flow.

Flashcard 13: Definition – Double Insulation

Q: What is double insulation?​

A:​
Appliance design that prevents live parts from being touched, eliminating the need for
earthing.

Would you like me to generate the waveform and plug diagrams now?

1.​ ​

Here are concise, specification-aligned notes for Oxford AQA IGCSE Physics on topics
3.6.4–3.7.1:

Here are minimal, non-repetitive flashcards directly from your notes:

🔁 3.6.4 The Motor Effect

1. What is the motor effect?​
A force acts on a current-carrying conductor placed perpendicular to a magnetic field.

2. When is no force produced in the motor effect?​

When the conductor is parallel to the magnetic field lines.

3. What factors increase the force in the motor effect?​

Stronger magnetic field, higher current, longer wire in field.
4. Why does a coil rotate in a motor?​
Each side of the current-carrying coil experiences opposite forces, causing rotation.

5. What does the split ring do in an electric motor?​

It reverses current every half-turn to keep rotation in one direction.

⚡ 3.6.5 Transferring Electrical Energy

6. How do appliances transfer energy?​
By converting electrical energy into other forms (e.g., heaters: thermal).

⚛️ 3.7.1 Atomic Structure

7. How big is an atom?​
Around 10−1010^{-10} m in radius.

8. Why are atoms neutral?​

Equal protons and electrons cancel each other’s charge.

9. What is in an atom’s nucleus?​

Protons (+) and neutrons (0), with electrons (–) orbiting outside.

10. What did alpha particle scattering show?​

That mass is concentrated in a small, dense nucleus.

11. What are the relative charges and masses?

●​ Proton: +1, mass 1​

●​ Neutron: 0, mass 1​

●​ Electron: –1, very small mass​

Would you like diagram flashcards too (like motor or atom structure)?
●​
●​ Atoms are neutral: equal protons and electrons.
 ●​ ​
Here are clear flashcards from your new notes (no repetition from earlier):

☢️ Radioactivity & Nuclear Physics

12. What forms ions in atoms?​
Gaining or losing electrons.

13. What are isotopes?​

Atoms with the same number of protons but different neutrons.

14. What is radioactive decay?​

Random process where unstable nuclei emit radiation to become more stable.

15. Why does decay cause element change?​

Because protons change, altering the atomic number.

16. What are the 4 types of nuclear emission?​

Alpha (α), Beta (β), Gamma (γ), Neutrons.

17. What is background radiation?​

Constant low-level radiation from natural and man-made sources.

18. Two human activities increasing atmospheric radiation?​

Nuclear power stations, medical X-rays.

19. How is radioactive decay measured in labs?

●​ Measure background count first.​

●​ Place source at fixed distance.​

●​ Subtract background from total.​

●​ Repeat to observe decay pattern.​

🧪 Radiation Details & Nuclear Equations

20. What is an alpha particle?​
2 protons + 2 neutrons (helium nucleus).

21. What is a beta particle?​

High-speed electron from neutron → proton conversion.

22. What is gamma radiation?​

Electromagnetic wave from the nucleus.

23. What do nuclear equations show?​

How atoms decay, balancing mass and atomic numbers.

Would you like a table comparing alpha, beta, and gamma in terms of charge, mass,
penetration, and ionization?

●​

●​ ​

⚛️ Alpha, Beta, Gamma Radiation Properties

24. Which radiation has the strongest ionising power?​
Alpha.
25. Which radiation has the highest penetration?​
Gamma.

26. What stops each type of radiation?

●​ Alpha: Paper​

●​ Beta: Aluminum​

●​ Gamma: Thick lead​

27. What are the air ranges for each radiation?

●​ Alpha: Few cm​

●​ Beta: ~1 m​

●​ Gamma: Unlimited​

⏳ Half-life & Decay

28. What is half-life?​
Average time for half the nuclei to decay or for count rate to halve.

29. Why are very old samples hard to date?​

Activity is too low to measure due to small changes over time.

30. How does a less stable nucleus show on a graph?​

Higher count rate at the same time (x-axis) after decay starts.

☢️ Contamination vs Irradiation
31. What is contamination?​
Unwanted radioactive material; hazard is from ongoing decay.

32. How to test for contamination?​

Compare count rate before and after exposure — no change = no contamination.
33. What is irradiation?​
Exposure to ionising radiation; does not make object radioactive.

🔒 Radiation Risk & Safety

34. What is the risk of a short half-life isotope?​
High radiation in short time — useful in imaging but dangerous.

35. What is the risk of a long half-life isotope?​

Low radiation over long time — needs more material, hazardous waste.

1.​ ​

2.​ ​

3.​ ​
🔬 Nuclear Fission
36. What is nuclear fission?​
The splitting of a large, unstable nucleus into two smaller nuclei, releasing energy and
neutrons.

37. What is a chain reaction in nuclear fission?​

A self-sustaining series of fission reactions where neutrons from one reaction trigger
others.

38. Why is nuclear fission significant?​

It releases much more energy than chemical reactions.

39. Name two common nuclear fuels.​

Uranium-235 and Plutonium-239.

40. What happens during a fission event?​

A nucleus absorbs a neutron, becomes unstable, and splits into:

●​ 2 or 3 neutrons​

●​ 2 smaller nuclei​

●​ Energy​

●​ 41. What happens in an uncontrolled chain reaction?​

A rapid release of energy, as seen in nuclear bombs.

●​ 42. How is the chain reaction controlled in nuclear reactors?​

Control rods absorb excess neutrons to maintain stability, ensuring only 1
neutron causes further fission.
 ​

○​ ​

○​ ⚠️Nuclear Waste
○​ 50. What does fission produce?​
Fission produces radioactive waste.
○​
○​ 51. How long can nuclear waste remain hazardous?​
The waste can remain hazardous for a long time, depending on the
half-life and radioactivity level of the products.
○​
○​ 52. Why is the disposal of nuclear waste a concern?​
It must be carefully managed, and its safe disposal is a major factor in
debates about nuclear energy.
 🔬
○​
○​ Nuclear Fusion Recap
○​ 53. What is nuclear fusion?​
The joining of two light nuclei to form a heavier nucleus, releasing energy.

○​ 54. Where does nuclear fusion occur?

○​ In the core of stars.

○​ 55. What happens to mass during fusion?​

Some mass is converted into energy.

○​ 56. What conditions are required for fusion?​

Very high temperature and pressure are required to overcome the
repulsion between positively charged nuclei.

○​ 57. Why is high temperature needed for fusion?​

It gives the nuclei enough kinetic energy to overcome their repulsion,
allowing fusion to occur.

○​ 58. What is the benefit of fusion in stars?​

Fusion releases energy and helps sustain the star's energy.

○​ 59. How does fusion compare to fission?​

Fusion produces no radioactive waste and releases more energy per unit
mass than fission but is not yet practical for power plants.

🌟 Life Cycle of a Star

Formation
 1.​ How are stars formed?​
Stars form from dust and gas, mostly hydrogen and helium, pulled together by
gravitational force. When the temperature in the core is high enough, fusion
starts.​

2.​ What forces are involved in star formation?​

Gravitational force pulls the dust and gas together.​

3.​ What can smaller clumps form?​

They may form planets or other stars.​

🔥 Main Sequence Star Process

1.​ What happens in a main sequence star?​
Hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium in the core, releasing energy.​

2.​ Why does a star remain stable?​

The inward force of gravity equals the outward pressure from fusion.​

3.​ Where is the temperature and pressure highest?​

In the core, where fusion takes place.​

💥 Star Evolution Depends on Mass

1.​ Low Mass Stars (like the Sun):​

○​ Main sequence star → Red giant (Helium fusion forms carbon, nitrogen,
and oxygen)​

○​ Ejection of outer layers → White dwarf → Cools → Black dwarf​

2.​ High Mass Stars:​

○​ Main sequence star → Red supergiant (Fuses heavier elements like

oxygen)​
 ○​ Supernova (Explosive end)​

○​ Core becomes:​

■​ Neutron star or​

■​ Black hole (If mass is very large)​

💡 Fusion and Elements

What elements are created by fusion in stars?​
Fusion in stars creates all naturally occurring elements up to iron.​

How are heavier elements formed?​

Heavier elements like gold and uranium are formed in supernovae.​

How are elements distributed across the universe?​

Supernovae distribute elements across the universe.​

●​
🪐 The Solar System
●​ Components of the Solar System:​

○​ The Sun​

○​ 8 planets​

○​ Moons​

○​ Asteroids​

○​ Comets​

○​ Dwarf planets​

●​ Earth's Position:​
Earth is a planet orbiting a medium-sized star, the Sun.​

●​
 ●​ Q1: What is the Universe made of?​
A1: Billions of galaxies, each with billions of stars. Our galaxy is the Milky Way.

●​ Q2: What is in the Solar System?​

A2: The Sun, 8 planets, moons, asteroids, comets, dwarf planets.

●​ Q3: What orbits the Sun?​

A3: Planets orbit the Sun. Moons orbit planets.

●​ Q4: What are the types of artificial satellites?​

A4: Geostationary and Low polar.

●​ Q5: What force causes orbital motion?​

A5: Gravity.

●​ Q6: How does gravity affect velocity?​

A6: It changes the direction of velocity (acceleration) but not speed.

●​ Q7: How does distance affect orbital speed?​

A7: Greater distance = weaker gravity = lower speed.

Q1: What is the Doppler Effect?​

A1: When a wave source moves relative to an observer, the observed wavelength and
frequency change.

Q2: What happens to waves when the source moves away?​

A2: Wavelength increases, frequency decreases.
Q3: What happens to waves when the source moves towards?​
A3: Wavelength decreases, frequency increases.

Q4: What is red shift?​

A4: The observed increase in wavelength of light from distant galaxies.

Q5: What does a large red shift indicate?​

A5: The further the galaxy, the faster it is moving away.

Q6: What theory does red shift support?​

A6: The Big Bang theory.

Q7: What is Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation (CMBR)?​

A7: Radiation from shortly after the Big Bang, now stretched to microwaves as the
universe expanded.

Q8: What does CMBR provide evidence for?​

A8: The Big Bang theory.

Q9: When did the Big Bang occur?​

A9: About 13.7 × 10⁹ years ago.

Q10: 1 MJ = ?​
A10: 1,000,000 joules (J).

Q11: 1 MW = ?​
A11: 1,000,000 watts.
Kn → N = x 1000