AUGUST2023 FINAL COACHING ON

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

Prepared by: Prof. Thad Kendrick Toliao, 5th placer, DEC. 2022 CLE

FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION WITH INTELLIGENCE

1. The art which deals with the identity , location and arrest of a person who committed a particular crime
and concurrently includes identification, collection, preservation, and evaluation of evidence for the
purpose of bringing criminal offender to the bar of justice.
a) investigation
b) criminal investigation
c) probe
d) investigative process

PHASE I- IDENTIFICATION/ RECOGNITION:

• BY CONFESSION OR ADMISSION
• BY ACCOUNTS OR TESTIMONIES OF WITNESSES (EYE WITNESS)
• BY CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE
• BY ASSOCIATIVE EVIDENCE

CONFESSION, as distinguished from an admission, is a declaration made at any time by a person, voluntarily and
without compulsion or inducement, stating or acknowledging that he had committed or participated in the
commission of a crime.

ADMISSION, on the other hand, is usually applied in criminal cases to statements of fact by the accused which
do not directly involve an acknowledgment of the guilt of the accused or of criminal intent to commit the offense
with which he is charged.

TYPES OF CONFESSION

1. Judicial Confession – made by the suspect/accused in open court.

Ex. The plea of guilt during arraignment

2. Extra-Judicial Confession – made by the suspect during custodial investigation or those confessions that
are made outside of the court

Sec. 3 Rule 133, Rules of court stated that:

Extra judicial confession is not sufficient ground for conviction: an extrajudicial confession made
by an accused shall not be sufficient ground for conviction, unless corroborated by evidence of
corpus delicti – body of the crime.

KINDS OF EXTRA-JUDICIAL CONFESSION

VOLUNTARY EXTRA-JUDICIAL CONFESSION - The confession is voluntary when the accused speaks of
his free will and accord, without inducement of any kind, with a full and complete knowledge of the
nature and the consequence of the confession.

RULES TO BE OBSERVED
• Must be taken preferably in writing and under oath
• It must be written in the language known and understood by the accused , if not it must be clearly
translated
• It must be freely and voluntary given by the accused
• Under the Constitution, it must be taken in the presence of competent and independent counsel
chosen by the accused
• Signed by the confessant or thumb marked

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 INVOLUNTARY EXTRA-JUDICIAL CONFESSION - Confessions obtained through force, threat,
intimidation, duress or anything influencing the voluntary act of the confessor

PROCEDURES OF IDENTIFICATION BY EYEWITNESSES:

A. PHYSICAL LINE-UP/POLICE LINE-UP - Is a means of selecting a suspect mixed with a group of innocent
persons usually composed of seven to ten persons. The purpose of line-up is to eliminate the power of
suggestion.

B. PHYSICAL SHOW-UP - Only one person is shown to the witness usually at the scene of the crime
and made immediately after the arrest of the suspect.

CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE – the proof of fact or facts from which taken either singly or collectively,
the existence of a particular fact in dispute may be inferred as a necessary or probably consequence .

a. There is more than one circumstance

b. The facts from which the inferences are derived are proven
c. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction beyond reasonable doubt

ASSOCIATIVE EVIDENCE – pieces of physical evidence which link a person to a crime. The offender may leave some
clues at the scene, such as weapons, tools, garments, fingerprints, foot impressions etc.

PHASE II – LOCATE THE SUSPECT

SURVEILLANCE - Is the secret/discreet/clandestine observation of persons, places, and vehicles for the purpose
of obtaining information concerning the identities or activities of the subject.

TYPES OF SURVEILLANCE

1. TAILING/SHADOWING

2. CASING/RECONNAISSANCE

3. UNDERCOVER OPERATION/ROPING

SURVEILLANT – is the person who maintains the surveillance or performs the observation.

SUBJECT – the person or place being watched or surveyed.

TAILING OR SHADOWING - Observation of person and movement

• LOOSE TAIL- this is used when the shadower would like to know the general impression of the subject’s
habit and associates
• ROUGH TAIL- this could be done even without special precaution since the subject is aware that he is
being followed.
• CLOSED TAIL- this is done with so much precaution from losing the subject where constant
observation is necessary.

METHODS OF SHADOWING

a. ONE-MAN SHADOW –extremely difficult and should be avoided, if unavoidable keep subject in view at all
times.

b. TWO-MAN SHADOW – two agents are employed to follow the subject.

c. THREE-MAN SURVEILLANCE OR ABC METHOD – reduces the risk of losing the subject, affords greater security
agents detection.

d. PROGRESSIVE/LEAPFROG METHOD – This is used in attempting to locate the hideout of a subject from a
vantage-point without moving after the subject. The following day the shadower/agent takes up a watch from the
point at which the subject was last seen. Poor chances of obtaining good results, agents are at a fixed point
assuming that subject followed the same general route each day.

e. COMBINED FOOT-AUTO SURVEILLANCE – employment of surveillants on foot and agents in an automobile.

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CASING OR RECONNAISSANCE

Is the surveillance of building, place or area to determine its suitability and vulnerability in operations.

Casing- police term

Reconnaissance-military term

UNDERCOVER OPERATION/ROPING - Is a form of investigation in which the investigator assumes a different and
unofficial identity in order to obtain information

a. COVER – the means by which an individual group of organization conceals the true nature of its acts and
or existence from the observer.
b. COVER STORY – a biographical data through fictional; that will portray personality of the agent he
assumed, a scenario to cover up the operation.
c. COVER SUPPORT – an agent assigned in target areas with the primary mission of supporting the cover
story.

PHASE III - GATHER AND PROVIDE EVIDENCE TO ESTABLISH THE GUILT OF THE ACCUSED

Physical Evidence - Any object found at the CS

Testimonial Evidence - Testimony from victim or witness

Documentary Evidence – Records

PHYSICAL EVIDENCE TO IDENTIFY CRIMINALS

CORPUS DELICTI– is the body of the crime or fact of specific loss or injury sustained. It constitutes the essential
parts or elements in the commission of the crime .

ASSOCIATIVE EVIDENCE – these are the pieces of evidence that will link the suspect to the crime scene. Such
as fingerprints, foot or shoe impressions are examples.

TRACING EVIDENCE – articles which assist the investigator in locating the criminal.

Golden Rule in Criminal Investigation – Never touch, alter, move, or transfer any object at the crime
scene unless it is properly marked, measured, sketched, and or photographed.

What is the purpose of GI? To avoide MAC of the pieces of physical evidence

Preservation of Evidence:
Physical Integrity – identify, label, and seal the evidence.
Legal Integrity – maintain the chain of custody (proper handling of evidence)

2. The following questions are part of the cardinal points of criminal investigation, EXCEPT:
a) How was the crime committed?
b) Why was the crime committed?
c) What is the offender’s marital status?
d) Where was the crime committed?

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 3. Identification of criminals as the initial phase of criminal investigation can be done in any/combination of the
subsequent means, except: (CECA)
1. By confession or admission by the criminal
2. by circumstantial evidence and associative evidence
3. by presentation of corpus delicti
4. by description of eyewitness
a) 1,2and 3
b) 1only
c) 1,2 and 4
d) 3 only

4. What are the minimum requirements needed for such extrajudicial confession be admissible as evidence in
court?
1. It must be taken under oath in the presence of his counsel
2. Confession be reduced into writing, in a particular dialect known to the confessant himself
3. Such confession must be given voluntarily
4. The same must be signed by the confessant or otherwise thumb marked*

a) 1,2and 3
b) 1and3
c) 1,2,3and 4
d) 1,3and 4

5. A crime may generate evidence in the form of physical objects, to make effective use of articles found at the
scene the investigator must _.
a) Preserve its physical and legal integrity
b) All of them
c) Recognize and collect them
d) Evaluate its worth in the investigation at hand

6. As a criminal investigator, your primary duty is to establish the following facts, EXCEPT
a) Corpus delicti or facts that the crime was committed
b) Method of operation of the perpetrator
c) Identity of the accused by the guilty party
d) Damages to the victim caused to the victim or his/her family

7. The investigation technique is effective, but also risky because the operative conceals his true identity, adopts
and assumes a role to obtain information, is _ .
a) Undercover
b) Acting assignment
c) Room assignment
d) Work assignment

8. Which of the following is physical evidence which helps in locating the suspect?
a) Corpus delicti
b) Trace evidence

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 c) Associative evidence
d) Documentary evidence

9. It refers to a process of identifying unknown fugitive commonly done in a headquarters who is mixed with
innocent person lined before the witness.
a) Police Lineup
b) A or C
c) Physical Showup
d) Police Identity

10. It refers to police files of photograph of known criminals, their modus operandi, hiding places and names
of associate criminals.
a) Verbal description
b) General Photograph
c) Artist Sketch
d) Rogues Gallery
Methods of Identification by witness

a. Portrait Parle (Verbal description) - French word of “speaking likeness”, depends on the ability of the witness
to observe, describe and compare.

b. Rogues Gallery - the use of photographic files, successful if there is an existing photograph of the suspect on
police files.

c. General Photograph - variety of facial types showing different features of the face is presented to the
witness by the investigator.

d. Artist/Cartographic sketch- the witness and prober develop a picture of the criminal with the help of skilled
cartographer. (Composite Criminal Illustration)

11. Which of the following is the best illustration of “eaves dropping the crime scene”?
a) Playing the role of curious spectator and mixed with the crowd to listen their conversation
a) Search physical evidence at the scene
b) None of these
c) Estimate the extent of the scene

BUGGING → BUG → USE RECORDER/INSTRUMENT → RECORD CONVERSATION

Conceal a miniature microphone in (a room or device) in order to monitor or record someone's

conversations.

WIRETAPPING → TAP → INTERCEPT TELEPHONE CALLS

Act of recording communications between parties, often without their consent.

12. Which part of the Constitution mandates the protection of the citizen from unreasonable search and seizure?
a) The Bill of Rights
b) National Security of the state
c) Preamble
d) Territorial Integrity of the State

13. What is the process by which observation of a person, place or things by human or technical means to
acquire information is being conducted?
a) Intelligence
b) Surveillance
c) Instrumentation
d) Shadowing

14. The process in surveillance wherein the subject or suspect is being guarded against by one who usually stays
at the rear of the subject is_.
a) two-man shadow
b) one-man shadow
c) convoy
d) envoy

15. For the purpose of applying the law regarding custodial investigation, mere invitation is considered as?
a) Arrest

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 b) Detention
c) Habeas corpus
d) Custody

The practice of issuing an invitation to a person who is investigated in connection with an offense he is suspected
to have committed is part of custodial investigation, as such, the rights of a person under Section 12, Article III
attach.

It is only when the police investigation is no longer a general inquiry into an unsolved crime but has begun to
focus on the particular suspect who had been taken into custody. It begins when accusatory questions are
initiated when a person is taken into custody and deprived of his freedom of action.

16. Considering the highly technical knowledge of forensic science, it is also the duty of the forensic scientist to
provide _ .
a) Moral supports of investigators
b) Suggestions as to the motive of suspects
c) Expert testimonials in court
d) Training of non-criminologist-lawyer

Ordinary witness – based on personal knowledge

Expert witness – based on his/ her training or experience

17. How can chain of custody of evidence be proven in court proceedings?

a) Any change in the condition of evidence can be explained.
b) The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
c) There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
d) All of these

18. The following are some of the elements of investigative process EXCEPT:
a) collection
b) recognition
c) preservation
d) presentation

19. Which of the following is part of the Golden Rules in homicide investigation?
a) Be careful with the processing of the evidence at the crime scene.
b) The investigator is the heart and soul of investigation.
c) Every crime leaves evidence that point to the suspect.
d) Never touch, alter, and change the position of anything until measured and photographed.

20. What kind of evidence that can be associated with the group?
a) Individual characteristics
b) Class characteristics
c) Testimonial evidence
d) Physical evidence

21. The evidence that can be associated with a single unique source is?
a) Class characteristics
b) Testimonial
c) Physical
d) Individual characteristics

22. What is this process where in confession is used to describe the events of the crime?
a) Re-enactment of crime
b) Reconstruction of crime scene
c) Mental reconstruction of crime
d) Physical reconstruction of crime

Crime Reenactment – written confession of the accused is used as a script in describing the events of the
crime

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 Crime Scene Reconstruction – assessment made by the investigator after the crime scene investigation of
how the crime is committed

Physical Reconstruction – physical appearance – from the description of the witnesses and the
indication of physical evidence

Mental Reconstruction – after physical reconstruction, conclusions are made about the consistency of
the accounts of the various witnesses.

23. In what order would the steps be done by the investigator upon the finding of an evidential cigarette butt?
1. Making sketch;
2. Photographing;
3. Note Taking*

a) 2,1and 3
b) 3,2and 1
c) 2,3and 1
d) 1,2and 3

CRIME SCENE PHOTOGRAPHY:

It is conducted to create an accurate, objective, visual and permanent record of the crime scene before any item is
moved or removed as possible physical evidence. It is recommended to take as many photographs as you can be giving
emphasis to possible physical evidence.

THREE MAJOR TYPES OF PICTORIAL VIEWS

1. General View or Long-Range – photograph of the over-all scene. It will depict the location of the crime.
Distance: From the doorway to the room and other corners of the room

2. Mid-Range View – shows the nature of the crime.

Distance: 8 or 10 ft. from the victim

3. Close-up View – shows the details of the crime.

Distance: 5 ft. or less from the subject/object

4. Extreme close up view – extent of wound

CRIME SCENE SKETCH

It is the graphic representation of the scene of the crime with complete measurements of the relative distances
of relevant object and conditions obtaining therein.

GENERAL KINDS OF SKETCH:

1. ROUGH SKETCH

It is made by the investigator at the crime scene which is full of important details but without scale of proportion.
Basis for the finished sketch. It is the first pencil-drawn outline of the scene and the location of objects and evidence
within its outline.

2. FINISHED SKETCH

Is often drawn by a draftsman to show proper relationships and scales. The finished sketch is more presentable
for court room presentations.

SPECIFIC KINDS OF SKETCHES:

1. Sketch of Locality/Neighborhood Sketch- give picture of the scene, the crime and its environs, including neighboring
buildings, roads, etc.

2. Sketch of the Ground/Floor Plan/Overview- picture of the scene of the crime with its nearest physical surrounding.

3. Sketch in Details – the immediate scene only.

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4. Exploded/Cross Projection – gives the clear impression of the scene in cases where blood stains or bullet holes are
found.

TYPES OF MEASUREMENT

1. Rectangular Method – this method uses two walls in a room as fixed points, from which distances are
measured at right angle to the object.

2. Triangulation Method – an object is located by drawing two straight lines from two fixed points creating

a triangle; the object is in an angle formed by the line. This sketching method requires measuring the
distance of an object along a straight line from two widely separated fixed reference points.

3. Baseline Method– a sketching method that makes measurements along from a single reference line,
called a baseline, which can be established by using a length of string, chalk line, or some other convenient
means.

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 4. Compass Point Method– a sketching method that requires a protractor or some method of measuring
angles between two lines. One point is selected as the origin and a line extending from the origin becomes
an axis from which the angles can be measured.

5. Cross projection method – a sketching method in which the ceiling appears to open up like a lid of a
hinged box, with the four walls opening outward. Measurements are then indicated from a point on the floor
to the wall.

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 6. Azimuth/Polar Coordinates – this method requires two people; one hold each end of a tape measure. This
is best suited for large pen areas where there might not be any reference points by using a handheld
GPS (Global Positioning System)

24. What would be the best camera position in taking photographs showing a view of what a witness might have
seen?
a) At 6feet distance from the cameraman
b) Overhead
c) Parallel to the subject or witness
d) At the eye level

25. The search method or pattern that breaks the area into smaller ones is __________.
a) grid
b) strip
c) spiral
d) quadrant

METHODS OF SEARCH

a. Strip or Line Search Method – the searchers will proceed at the same pace along the path parallel to
one side of the rectangle.
b. Double Strip or Grid Method – is a combination of the strip search and is useful for large crime
scene.
c. Spiral or Circular Method – the searchers will follow each other in the path of a spiral, beginning in
the outside and spiraling towards the center or vice versa in a clockwise or counter clock-wise direction.
d. Quadrant of Zone Method – the area to be searched is divided into four quadrants and each searcher
is assigned to one quadrant.
e. Wheel, Radial or Spoke Method – is applicable for area which is considered to be approximately
circular or oval. The area is then divided into six quadrants in a pie-like fashion.

26. The measurement method that uses straight line measures from two fixed objects to the evidence to create
a triangle with the evidence in the angle formed by the two straight lines is __.
a) Compass point
b) Baseline
c) Triangulation
d) Rectangulation

27. With all the talent of an investigator, the value of physical evidence is greatly reduced by human failure to
________it.
a) Appreciate
b) Understand
c) Study
d) Find

28. The following are considered as an “Elusive” object in crime scene investigation, EXCEPT:
a) associative evidence
b) testimonial evidence
c) documentary evidence
d) physical evidence

29. The most unusual style of interrogation:

a) Jolting
b) Hypnotism
c) Mutt and Jeff
d) Bluff on a split pair

BLUFF ON A SPLIT PAIR - This is applicable when there is more than one suspect. The suspects are separated and
one is informed that other has talked.

JOLTING – The investigator selects the right moment to shout a pertinent question in an apparent righteous outrage.

THE TECHNIQUES OF INTERROGATION

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A. EMOTIONAL APPEAL - This is a technique where the investigator, combining his skills of an actor and a
psychologist, addresses the suspect with an emotional appeal to confess. Devotees of a religion may belong to this
type.

B. SYMPATHETIC APPROACH - The investigator, in his preliminary or probing questions must dig deep into the past
troubles, plight and unfortunate events in the life of the suspect. An offer of help, kindness, friendliness, may win his
cooperation.

C. FRIENDLINESS - A friendly approach coupled with a posture of sincerity may induce the suspect to confess.

D. KINDNESS - The simplest technique is to assume that the suspect will confess if he is treated in a kind and friendly
manner.

E. EXTENUATION -The investigator indicates he does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a grave offense

F. SHIFTING THE BLAME - The interrogator makes clear his belief that the subject is obviously not the sort of person
who usually gets mixed up in a crime like this. The interrogator could tell from the start that he was not dealing with
a fellow who is a criminal by nature and choice.

G. BLUFF ON A SPLIT PAIR - This is applicable when there is more than one suspect. The suspects are separated
and one is informed that other has talked.

H. TRICKS AND BLUFF TECHNIQUES

(1) THE PRETENSE OF SOLID EVIDENCE AGAINST THE ACCUSED- The investigator bluffs the suspect that even
if he would not confess, there is enough evidence to send him to jail. If he will confess, the investigator will see to it
that his prison term would be within range of probation.

(2) THE WEAKEST LINK - Among the suspects, there must be a careful selection of who among them is the “weakest
link” where the interrogation will begin. By tricks and bluffs, this weakest link will be told that his companions had
already confessed, and that this weakest link had dealt the fatal blow or that he received the “lion’s share of the loot”
in order to intrigue him.

(3) DRAMA - The weakest link may be used to fake pain and agony by ordering him/her to shout, accompanied by
banging a chair on the wall to make it appear that a commotion is going on. The other suspects in separate rooms
must hear the drama before telling them that their partner had confessed.

(4) FEIGNING CONTACT WITH FAMILY MEMBERS The suspect could be tricked that the investigator had gone
to the residence and the family members has supplied facts against the suspect. The suspect’s family will be dragged
into the investigation if the suspect will not confess.

5) THE LINE UP METHOD (Accused is lined-up among suspects)

The complainant, witness or victim is requested to point the suspect positively who is among the persons in the police
line-up. It consists of 7 to 10 persons in the line-up.

(6) REVERSE LINE UP (Accused is alone and coached witnesses and victims are piled to make accusations against
the accused) The suspect is placed among other persons in a line-up, and he/she is identified by several complainants
and witnesses who will associate the suspect in other several crimes.

I. STERN APPROACH - The investigator displays a stern (demands immediate response) personality towards the
suspect by using the following methods:

(1) PRETENSE OF PHYSICAL EVIDENCE – It is the pretense of laboratory or scientific findings pointing to the
suspect.

(2) JOLTING – The investigator selects the right moment to shout a pertinent question in an apparent righteous
outrage.

(3) INDIFFERENCE – The investigators will discuss and debate about how strong evidence of the case that will result
to a conviction of maximum penalty. Their aim is to induce the suspect to confess by conditioning his mind that he is
finally cornered with no other recourse but to confess.

(4) FEIGNING PROTECTION AND CONSIDERATION – These questions are asked as matters of considerations of
rights, protection and advantage of the suspect.

(5) OPPORTUNITY TO LIE – The suspect is given all opportunities to lie.

J. THE MUTT AND JEFF/ SWEET AND SOUR METHOD Two (2) Agents are employed. Mutt, the relentless
investigator, who is not going to waste any time because he knows that the subject is guilty. Jeff, on the other hand,
is obviously a kind-hearted man.

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K. REMOVING THE ETHNIC OR CULTURAL BARRIER OR CULTURAL BARRIER

If the suspect is of Ilocano descent, he should be interrogated by an Ilocano investigator, and the same with other
ethnic or cultural groups.

L. SEARCHING FOR THE SOFT SPOT - In every man’s heart, there is always the softest spot. The heart may have
hardened to steel by poverty, destitution, hopelessness, despair, apathy, indifference, injustice, hatred or other factors,
yet there is always that spot which could be discovered by the investigator through his knowledge of human behavior.

M. MINIMIZATION - Minimizing the culpability of the suspect. The investigator convinces the suspect that a
confession will reduce the offense and the penalty.

30. When is the labeling of evidence done:

a) In the crime scene upon collection
b) After tagging the evidence
c) Upon taking photographs
d) None of these

31. What specific offense has been committed? Who committed it? When it was committed? Where it was
committed? Why it was committed? And how it was committed? These are called of criminal investigation.
a) Cardinal Points
b) Three I’s
c) Golden Rule
d) Bridges burn

INFORMATION

It is the knowledge of facts which the investigator had gathered from persons or documents, which are pertinent
relevant concerning the commission of criminal activities.

TWO GENERAL CLASSIFICATIONS OF SOURCES OF INFORMATION:

1. OPEN SOURCES – 99% (OVERT)

2. CLOSE SOURCES – 1% (COVERT)

INFORMATION CLASSIFIED AS TO SOURCES:

REGULAR SOURCES

• records, files from government and non-government agencies, news items

• The bulk of information of this nature is news items.

CULTIVATED SOURCES

- information furnished by INFORMANTS OR INFORMERS

• information gathered upon initiative of the investigator from informants, vendors, taxicab driver, GRO, and
others.

GRAPEVINE SOURCES
• these are information coming from the underworld characters such as prisoners and ex-convicts.

FORMS OF INFORMATION

1. SENSORY FORM– 5 senses

2. WRITTEN FORM – Affidavits

3. PHYSICAL FORM – Physical Evidence

DISTINCTION BETWEEN INTERVIEW AND INTERROGATION

INTERVIEW INTERROGATION
It is a simple questioning of a person who It is questioning somebody closely, often in an
cooperates with the investigator aggressive manner

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 Witnesses voluntarily give their accounts about the It involves skillful questioning of hostile witnesses and
commission of a crime suspects
Interrogation applies to an uncooperative or
reluctant witnesses
The purpose is to obtain admission or confession

I.R.O.N.I.C. FORMAT

IDENTITY – prior to the commencement of an interview, the investigator should identify himself to the subject by
name, rank and agency. Except, when there is no need to know the officer’s identity.

RAPPORT – it is good to get the positive feeling of the subject towards the investigators, such friendly atmosphere is
a vital for both the subject and the investigator t have a better interaction.

OPENING STATEMENT – the investigator must have to indicate why the subject is being contracted.

NARRATION – the witness should be allowed to tell all he knows with little interruptions from the investigator.

INQUIRY – after all information have been given by the subject, that is the time for the investigator to ask question
to clarify him about the case under investigation.

CONCLUSIONS – after the interview, it is but proper to close the interview with outmost courtesy and thanking the
subject for his cooperation.

INSTRUMENTATION

Scientific examination of real evidence, application of instruments and methods of physical sciences in
detecting crime. It is the sum total of the application of all sciences in investigation known as “Criminalistics”.

It is the application of instruments and methods of physical science to the detection of crimes. In cases where there
are no significant physical evidence to be found, then the use of instrumentation is relatively unimportant.

32. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical integrity of evidence?
a) Evidence must be photographed and packaged
b) Evidence must be properly documented
c) Maintain its chain of custody
d) Identify tag and seal the evidence

33. Person who by social or professional position possesses or has access to information of continuing interest,
and who willingly provides information to the police either in response to a specific request or his own initiative.
a) Incidental informant
b) Automatic informant
c) Casual informant
d) Recruited informant

TYPES OF INFORMANTS

Anonymous Informant – one who provides information to law enforcement while refusing to identify himself or
herself.

Rival-Elimination Informant – gives information to eliminate the rival person or gang due to competition or other
motives such as revenge.

False Informant – reveals information of no consequence or no value.

Frightened Informant – motivated by anxiety; he may be one of the lesser gang members who runs to the police
when his gang mates are about to be involved in dangerous situation or when the gang he belongs is hot on the police
trail. They are considered as the weakest link in the composition of the criminal chain.

Self-Aggrandizing Informant – this kind of informant moves around the center of criminals, group or syndicate and
delight in surprising the police about bits of information.

Mercenary Informant – Sells information. He/she could be one of the members of the syndicate.

Double-Crosser Informant – confesses information as an excuse to talk to the police in order to get more
information from them more than he gives.

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Woman Informant – she could be an associate of the syndicate. She uses her body, charm & beauty to obtain more
information.

Incidental Informant – individuals who furnish information with no intention of repeating his services of furnishing
information on continuing basis.

34. This functional classification intelligence relates to the knowledge essential to ensure the protection of lives
and properties.
a) Internal Security Intelligence – maintenance of peace and order
b) Public Safety Intelligence
c) Criminal Intelligence – prevention of crimes, investigation, arrest and prosecution of criminal
d) None of them

INTELLIGENCE

It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, integration and interpretation of all
available information which should be known in advance to initiate a particular course of action.

BROAD CATEGORIES OF INTELLIGENCE

NATIONAL INTELLIGENCE - Knowledge formed from the integration of the intelligence developed by all
government departments, which provide the valuable inputs or the formulation of national policy and the promotion
and enhancement of national security.

DEPARTMENTAL INTELLIGENCE - Knowledge required by an agency or department of the government in

order to execute its mission.

MILITARY INTELLIGENCE - It is the intelligence used in the preparation of military policies, plans and
programs.

POLICE INTELLIGENCE - It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and
interpretation of all available information which concerns one or more aspect of the criminal environment which is
immediately or potentially significant to police planning.

35. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement, either oral or written, made by a person charged with
the commission of a crime which he admits participation in, or commission of, the criminal act. It cannot be
implied; it should be direct and positive acknowledgment of guilt.

Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused regarding facts pertinent to the crime. It tends, in
connection with the proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s guilt. It can be implied.

a) Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false

b) Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c) Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true
d) Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false

36. The type of intelligence which deals with the gathering of information regarding people, weather, enemy and
terrain, which is essential in counter insurgency operations refers to:
a) Strategic intelligence
b) Counter intelligence
c) Line intelligence
d) Armed forces intelligence

GENERAL ACTIVITIES IN POLICE INTELLIGENCE

1. Strategic Intelligence – it is an intelligence activity which is primarily long range in nature with little practical
immediate operation value.

2. Line Intelligence – it is an intelligence activity that has the immediate nature and value necessary for more
effective police planning and operation.

3. National Intelligence - it is the integrated product of intelligence developed by all the governmental branches,
departments concerning the broad aspect of national security and policy. It is concerned to more than one department
or agency and it is not produced by single entity. It is used to coordinate all the activities of the government in
developing and executing integrated and national policies and plans.

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4. Counter-Intelligence – phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in destroying the effectiveness of hostile
foreign activities and to the protection of info against espionage, subversion and sabotage.

5. Undercover Work – is an investigative process in which disguises and pretext cover and deception are used to
gain the confidence of criminal suspects for the purpose of determining the nature and extent of any criminal activities
that maybe contemplating or perpetuating.

37. An item of information of the characteristics of the area of operations and the enemy which the commander
feels he needs before he can reasonably arrive at a decision.
a) Essential Element of Information
b) Priorities
c) Line Intelligence
d) Strategic

PHASE 1 - Planning the Collection Effort - It is concerned with identifying the so called Priority Intelligence
Requirement (PIR) or formerly Essential Element of Information (EEI)

PHASE 2 - Collection of information

PHASE 3 - Processing the Collected Information - examination and collation of all collected information. THIS IS
WHERE INFORMATION BECOMES INTELLIGENCE

ADMIRALTY SCALE

PHASE 4 - Dissemination and Use of Information

38. You are a police officer responding to a crime which there is a dying person. You will obtain dying declaration
from him. Which of the following is not one of your duties in regard to dying declaration?
a) Attempt to save the life of the victim
b) Avoid leading questions and produce the statement.
c) Observe the victim as to whether he is manifesting a feeling of his impending death
d) Carefully Observe the mental condition of the victim and jot down immediately his statements

39. In a crime scene, upon arrival of the first responders, they saw that the victim can still be saved. What is the
next thing a first responder must do?
a) Cordon the crime scene and summon a physician as soon as possible
b) Immediately call for ambulance and fire truck
c) Try to save the life of the victim while waiting for the ambulance to arrive
d) Leave the victim and go after the suspect to arrest him

40. Before the dead body is removed from the crime scene, the investigator must be sure that the following had
already been performed.
1. Crime scene search, sketch and photograph taken.

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2. Possible witnesses are identified, leads taken into considerations and relative position of the body was determined.

3. Notes are properly taken cared, evidence are identified, collected and preserved.

4. Close coordination between the medico-legal officer, the prosecutor and the homicide investigator was established.

a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

41. This approach in the investigation is contrary to the former as this starts from general to specific such that
investigators will first start looking at the body of the crime (corpus delicti) before proceeding with the
individual evidence as to how the crime was committed.
a) Deductive approach
b) Inductive approach – specific to general
c) Inside approach
d) Downward approach

42. This pertains to the dimension and the distance of the relative object to one another
a) Measurement
b) Legend – words and numbers to represent an item
c) Compass Direction - North
d) Scale of Proportion – Actual size of the crime scene

43. Includes the basic information regarding the case as the nature of the crime, the time and date of crime
incident, and the location of the crime.
a) legend
b) compass direction
c) title
d) essential items

44. A type of sketch wherein the ceiling and/or walls are flattened all out in the ground.
a) Floor plan or bird’s eyeview
b) Elevation sketch
c) Exploded view sketch
d) Cross-projection sketch

45. It refers to the knowledge formed from the interpretation of the intelligence developed by all the government
departments which provides the valuable inputs or the formulation of national policy and the promotion and
enhancement of national security.
a) Departmental intelligence
b) Military intelligence
c) collective intelligence
d) National intelligence

46. Knowledge essential to the maintenance of peace and order.

a) Criminal Intelligence
b) Internal Security Intelligence
c) Public Safety Intelligence
d) Peace and order intelligence

47. Involves measures which seek to actively block the enemy’s efforts to gain info or engage in espionage,
subversion, or sabotage. It covers reconnaissance, patrolling, sabotage, espionage, interior guard duty and
fortification of vital facilities.
a) Passive Counter-Intelligence
b) Active Counter-Intelligence
c) Counter-intelligence
d) Intelligence

48. Disloyalty to one’s own country by giving away or selling its secret to the enemy or by trying to overthrow
it.
a) Espionage
b) Treason

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 c) Sedition
d) Sabotage

49. The act or practice of spying. The use of spy by a government in order to discover the military or political
secret of other nations.
a) Treason
b) Espionage
c) Subversion
d) Sabotage

50. Is any action promoting or inciting discontent or rebellion against a government.

a) Sabotage
b) Treason
c) Sedition
d) Espionage

51. It is a system or plan whereby information of intelligence value is obtained through the process of direct
intercommunication in which one or more of the parties are unaware of the specific purpose of
the conversation.
a) Elicitation
b) Eavesdropping
c) Bugging
d) Wiretapping

52. The subject is place in a pedestal having some specialized quality then flatter him/her by showing enough
concern for his/her welfare to pay special attention to his enjoyment.
a) Good Samaritan approach – offers help
b) Teacher - pupil approach – asks for opinion
c) kindred soul approach
d) partial-disagreement approach

53. Seek to produce talking by the word “I’m not sure if I’Il fully agree.”
a) teacher-pupil approach
b) kindred soul approach
c) good Samaritan approach
d) partial -disagreement approach

54. It serves to point out contradictions in what the subject has said
a) completion probe
b) clarity probe
c) high pressure probe
d) hypothetical probe

Completion probe - by inserting bits of factual information on a particular topic, the source may be
influenced to confirm and further expand on the topic.

Clarity probe - a request for additional information where the source`s response is unclear. Like “what do
you mean by….”

High pressure probe - it serves to pin down a subject in a specific area or it may be used to point out
contradictions in what the subject has said.

Hypothetical probe - can be associated with a thought or idea expressed by the source. Many people who
might not make a comment concerning an actual event may express an opinion on a hypothetical situation.

55. Used to elicit additional information in an area which the response is unclear
a) hypothetical probe
b) competition probe
c) clarity probe
d) high pressure probe

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 56. Agent who leaks false information to the enemy
a) agent of influence
b) agent in place
c) expendable agent
d) double agent

PROCURING AGENT

1. AGENT IN PLACE – has been recruited by an intelligence service within highly sensitive target. An individual
who is working covertly or secretly within an organization, community, or nation on behalf of another
organization

2. DOUBLE AGENT – an enemy agent, who has been captured, turned around and sent back where he came
from as an agent of his captors.

3. EXPENDABLE AGENT – an agent through whom false information is leaked in the enemy

4. PENETRATION AGENT – an agent who has reached the enemy gets information and would manage to
get back alive

5. AGENT OF INFLUENCE – an agent who uses influence to gain information

6. AGENT PROVOCATION - agent provocateur is a person who is employed by the government or

the police to encourage certain groups of people to break the law, so they can arrest them

57. Agent who has been recruited within a highly sensitive target
a) agent of influence
b) agent in place
c) expendable agent
d) double agent

58. An enemy agent who has been taken into custody, turned around and sent back where he came from as an
agent of his captors
a) penetration agent
b) agent of influence
c) double agent
d) expendable

59. Agent who have reached to the enemy, gather information and able to get back without being caught
a) penetration agent
b) expendable agent
c) agent of influence
d) double agent

PENETRATION → RECRUITMENT
INFILTRATION → INSERTION

60. An electronic device placed in the premise that transmits conversation to a receiver or recorder
a) Bug
b) Scrambler – scrambles the voice of the messenger
c) Recorder
d) Receiver

61. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly the conversations of other people
a) Wire Tapping
b) Scrambler
c) Bugging
d) Eavesdropping

62. A device attached to the telephone that scrambles the speaker’s voice to everyone except those who have a
similar device set to prearranged code.
a) Pen Register – records all the numbers dialed
b) Bug Detector
c) Sweep – examination done to determine if there is a presence of bug
d) Scrambler

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 63. An electronic device that produces a tone that can pick up any form of electronic transmission.
a) Bug
b) Bug Detector
c) Pen Register
d) Scrambler

64. A device that will pick up sound from a distance away. Also known as “bionic ear.”
a) Tap
b) Tap and Trace
c) Voice Amplifier
d) White Noise Amplifier

65. A device that records numbers dialed to a telephone and provides the name of the subscriber of the phone
from which the call is made
a) Sweep
b) Tap and Trace
c) Tap
d) Jammer

66. The agent will gain access to the subject by going to the different hang out places of the subject and gather
information
a) Subversive Assignment – join the organization
b) Work Assignment – in the workplace of the subject
c) Social Assignment
d) Residential Assignment – near subject’s residence

67. This is the most dangerous of all the undercover assignment. The agent will join the organization of
the subject itself he must know the ideologies of the group.
a) Residential Assignment
b) Work Assignment
c) Social Assignment
d) Subversive Assignment

68. It is establishing the meaning and significance of the information.

a) Interpretation
b) Recording
c) Evaluation
d) Integration

69. Combination of the elements stated in assessment.

a) Analysis
b) Integration
c) Deduction
d) Dissemination

70. Information and material whose unauthorized disclosure would cause exceptionally grave damage to the
Country.
a) Confidential
b) Top Secret
c) Secret
d) Restricted

1. TOP SECRET – any information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause
exceptionally grave damage to the nation, politically, economically or militarily;
2. SECRET- any information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which would endanger national
security, cause serious injury to the interest or prestige of the nation or any governmental activity.
3. CONFIDENTIAL – any information and materials, the unauthorized disclosure of which would be prejudicial
to the interest or prestige of the nation or governmental activity or would cause administrative
embarrassment or unwarranted injury.
4. RESTRICTED – any information and material which requires special protection other than those determined
to be Confidential, Secret, and Top Secret matters.

71. The term which denotes granting of access to classified document or information only to properly cleared
persons when such classified document or info is required in the performance of their official duties

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 a) Classified Clearance
b) Compartmentalization
c) Need-to-know – nature of the work
d) Security Audit

72. An art or science of making, devising, and protecting codes and ciphers.
a) Cryptography
b) Cryptanalysis
c) Codes
d) Ciphers

73. Refers to the science of breaking codes and ciphers.

a) Cryptography
b) Cryptanalysis
c) Codes
d) Ciphers

74. Methods of transposing the letters of plain text message or to methods involving the substitution of the letters
or symbols for the original letters of a message, and to various combinations of such methods, all according
to prearranged system.
a) Codes
b) Ciphers
c) Jargons
d) Coded text

75. If there is only one searcher, what pattern is advisable to be used?

a) Zone
b) Spiral
c) Strip
d) Grid

76. What is the physical evidence that links a suspect to the scene of the crime?
a) Associative evidence
b) Object evidence
c) Circumstantial evidence
d) Physical evidence

77. The accomplice or associate of the subject used to elude surveillance refers to:
a) Convoy
b) Contact
c) Decoy
d) Made

DECOY → ELUDE / ESCAPE → SURVEILLANCE

CONVOY → DETECT SURVEILLANCE - Surveillant

78. A place, building or enclosed area where police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting purposes
refers to:
a) Safe house
b) Convoy
c) Drop
d) Made

79. Refers to a place where agents or informants leave their messages to the other Agents.
a) Live drop
b) Precinct
c) Safe house
d) None of the above

80. In conducting an interrogation, what are the legal matters that you should inform the suspect before the
interrogation?
a) All of these
b) That he has the right to remain silent and anything he says can be used against him in court
c) That he has the right not to answer questions that may be incriminatory to him

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 d) That he has the right to have a competent and independent counsel of his own choice, present during
questioning

81. Conducting field operations, what is this function that the individual performs and serves as the fuel that
propels the agency to operate properly?*
a) Conduct of investigation
b) Police report writing
c) Patrolling functions
d) Traffic functions

82. In conducting interrogation, which of the following should NOT be adopted as questioning technique?
a) General to specific
b) Going downward
c) Chronological
d) Going upward

83. What is the most important consideration in search no matter what method is used?*
a) That the search must be geometric
b) That the search must be meticulous and redundant
c) That the search must be trigonometric
d) That the search must be systematic

84. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things may be used to detect crimes, identify the criminals,
facilitate, and assist the investigator in its task in achieving the objectives of criminal investigation.
a) Information
b) Criminalistics
c) Instrumentation
d) Interview/Interrogation

85. SPO IV Romeo Tan evaluated the information gathered as “completely reliable, source probably true”. What
is the information’s evaluation rating?
a) A 5
b) A 1
c) A 4
d) A 2

86. The corpus delicti in the crime of theft is the?

a) fact the crime was committed
b) value of the property taken
c) consummation of the crime
d) property taken regardless of the value.

87. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical representation must indicate the _________ direction
for proper orientation of the scene.
a) North
b) West
c) East
d) South

88. These the possible sources of physical evidence, EXCEPT:

a) crime scene
b) victim
c) court
d) offender

89. A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the subject’s habits and associates is required.
a) loose tail
b) casing
c) pony tail
d) close tail

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 90. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a same character to the same point.
a) Corroborative evidence- different kind and character but tend to prove the same proposition
b) Circumstantial evidence
c) Direct evidence
d) Cumulative

91. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker during the execution
of a criminal act.
a) Instigation
b) Inducement
c) Buy bust operation
d) Entrapment

INSTIGATION is the means by which the accused is lured into the commission of the offense charged in order to
prosecute him. On the other hand, ENTRAPMENT is the employment of such ways and means for the purpose of
trapping or capturing a lawbreaker.

Thus, in instigation, officers of the law or their agents incite, induce, instigate or lure an accused into committing an
offense which he or she would otherwise not commit and has no intention of committing. But in
entrapment, the criminal intent or design to commit the offense charged originates in the mind of the accused,
and law enforcement officials merely facilitate the apprehension of the criminal by employing ruses and schemes; thus,
the accused cannot justify his or her conduct.

92. PO III Juan dela Cruz submitted an intelligence report evaluated as B-5. What is the interpretation of this
evaluated intelligence report?
a) Information is usually from a reliable source and is possible true.
b) Information is usually from a reliable source and is improbable.
c) Information is usually from a reliable source and is probably true.
d) Information is usually from a reliable source and is doubtfully true.

93. Which of the following need not be present in order to prove the guilt of the accused by means of confession
or admission?
a) Confession must be supported by corroborative evidence
b) Corpus delicti must be established separately
c) Confession must be voluntarily and freely given
d) Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal

94. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a murder case perpetrated by an unknown suspect. A
person in the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he is willing to identify the suspect. Which
of the following methods will you not utilize to establish the identity of the suspect?
a) Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and Rogue’s Gallery (Photographic Files)
b) General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch
c) Police Line-up
d) Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals

95. It is an area where you could stay in which there is no possible evidence that may accidentally be
disturbed or altered.
a) Crime scene
b) headquarters
c) command post
d) police station

96. This is considered a hesitant and reluctant type of witness.

a) suspicious type
b) drunken type
c) talkative type
d) know-nothing type

97. The question HOW in the Cardinal Points of investigation can answer...
a) Character
b) Intent
c) Modus Operandi – Thomas byrnes
d) Setting

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 98. It is an area which is ideally located adjacent to the crime scene where the CSI Evidence Custodian stays and
receives the pieces of evidence turned over to him for safekeeping by the other evidence collectors.
a) crime scene
b) command post
c) receiving post
d) evidence receiving area

99. Information gathered upon initiative of the investigator from informants, vendors, taxicab driver, GRO,
and others.
a) Grapevine Sources
b) Cultivated Sources
c) Regular Sources
d) Cognitive interview

SPECIAL CRIME INVESITGATION WITH LEGAL MEDICINE AND SIMULATION ON INTERVIEW AND
INTERROGATION

1. What of the foregoing statement refer to "corpus delicti"?

i. corpus delicti is the body or substance of the crime.

ii. corpus delicti is the fact that a crime has actually been committed.

iii. corpus delicti is the body of the person who is a victim of the homicide or murder.

a) II, III
b) I, II
c) I,III
d) I, II, III

2. What is the crime committed If the offender killed a person whose age is LESS than 12 years of age?

a) Homicide, in the absence of any qualifying circumstance under Article 248.

b) Murder, if not attended by circumstance under article 246.
c) Murder, even if the offender is any of the parent.
d) Parricide, regardless of relationship by consanguinity.

3. As a general rule, what does the constitution provide in so far as search and seizure is concern?

a) Search must be done by the police only.

b) Search must be upon order of the court
c) Search must be conduct when where is a warrant
d) Search must not deprive the person of this property

Search warrant defined. – A search warrant is an order

in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a
peace officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before
the court.

WHAT ARE THE REQUISITES OF A VALID SEARCH WARRANT?

1. There must be probable cause—facts and circumstances that would engender a well-founded belief in a

reasonable prudent and discreet man that a crime has been committed and the things and objects to be seized can be

found in the place to be searched

2. Which must be determined by the judge personally through searching and probing questions—

questions not merely answerable by yes or no but could be answered by the applicant and the witnesses on facts

personally known to them

3. (Upon whom?) The complainant and the witnesses he may

produce are personally examined by the judge, in writing and under oath and affirmation

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4. (Based on what?) The applicant and the witnesses testify on facts personally known to them

5. The probable cause must be in connection with the specific offense

6. The warrant specified describes the person and place to be searched and the things to be seized

7. The sworn statement together with the affidavits of the witnesses must be attached to the record

WHEN SHOULD THE SEARCH WARRANT BE EXECUTED?

• If possible, it should be executed during the daytime

• But in certain cases, such as when the things seized are mobile or are in the person of the accused, it can

be served during nighttime

Validity of search warrant. – A search warrant shall be valid for ten (10) days from its date.

Thereafter, it shall be void.

WHAT IS A SCATTER SHOT WARRANT?

It is a warrant of arrest that is issued for more than one offense

It is void for the law requires that a warrant of arrest should only be issued in connection with one specific offense

Instances of Warrantless Searches

SEARCH INCIDENTAL TO LAWFUL ARREST - In searches incident to a lawful arrest, the arrest must precede the
search; generally, the process cannot be reversed.

SEIZURE OF EVIDENCE IN “PLAIN VIEW” - Under the plain view doctrine, objects falling in the plain view of an
officer who has a right to be in the position to have that view are subject to seizure and may be presented as evidence.

For the plain view doctrine to apply for discoveries, The Three-prong Horton Test requires that:

a. The officer to be lawfully present at the place where the evidence can be plainly viewed
b. The officer to have a lawful right of access to the object; and
c. The incriminating character of the object to be “immediately apparent”

SEARCH OF A MOVING VEHICLE – popularly called checkpoints. warrantless search and seizure of moving vehicles
is limited to visual inspection only; an extensive search of a vehicle is permissible only if the “officers made it upon
probable cause,” or upon personal knowledge of the seizing officer that the vehicle contains an item that is subject to
seizure or destruction.

CONSENTED WARRANTLESS SEARCH – person submitted himself/herself voluntarily to a search, it is valid because
he consented to the search

CUSTOMS SEARCH - It has been traditionally understood that persons exercising police authority under the customs
law may effect search and seizure without a search warrant in the enforcement of customs laws.

STOP AND FRISK - A “stop and frisk” situation, also known as the Terry search, refers to a case in which a police
officer approaches a person who is acting suspiciously for the purpose of investigating possible criminal behavior, in
line with the general interest of effective crime prevention and detection.

EXIGENT AND EMERGENCY CIRCUMSTANCES - The doctrine of “exigent circumstance” was applied in People v.
De Gracia which was decided during a time of general chaos and disorder brought about by the coup d’etat attempts
of certain rightist elements. Appellant was convicted of illegal possession of firearms in furtherance of rebellion. He
was arrested during a warrantless raid conducted by the military operatives inside the Eurocar building, wherein they
were able to find and confiscate high-powered bombs, firearms, and other ammunition.

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4. The form of evidence that is subject to the sense of the court is ____________ evidence.

a) Physical
b) Object
c) All of these
d) Real

5. The crime committed when a person killed his/her illegitimate daughter who is a minor under the circumstances
provided by Article 247 is______________.

a) Infanticide
b) Murder
c) Homicide
d) Parricide

6. The ability to go down to the level of the minor, the prostitute or slum dwellers, or the level of the other professionals
or the members of the elite.

a) Endurance
b) Courage
c) Acting Ability
d) Endurance

7. A clinical type of death where the person gives up or surrenders accepting death

a) Physiological Death
b) Psychic Death
c) Biological Death
d) Sociological Death

CLINICAL TYPES OF DEATH

1. Sociologic death – experience by patient who are abandoned and let alone to die. The sense of isolation or
abandonment.

2. Psychic death – the patient regresses, gives up or surrenders accepting death prematurely.

3. Biologic death – characterized by the absence of cognitive functions or awareness despite of the artificial life
support.

4. Physiologic death – a death when all vital organs cease to function.

8. It is the condition in which the cardiac activity, breathing and functioning of the nervous system may reach a low
level of activity that a homicide investigator may be deceived into an assumption of death.

a) Suspended Animation
b) Coma
c) Somatic Death
d) Molecular death

SOMATIC/CLINICAL DEATH

This is the state of the body in which there is complete, persistent and continuous cessation of the vital
functions of the brain, heart and lungs which maintain life and health.

MOLECULAR OR CELLULAR DEATH

After cessation of the vital functions of the body there is still animal life among individual cells. About three to six
hours later, there is death of individual cells. This is known as molecular or cellular death.

APPARENT DEATH" OR "STATE OF SUSPENDED ANIMATION":

This condition is not really death but merely a transient loss of consciousness or temporary cessation of the
vital functions of the body on account of disease, external stimulus or other forms of influence.

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9. A wound produced by sharp-edged instrument like bolo, broken glass, etc.

a) Punctured Wound
b) Stab Wound
c) Incised Wound
d) Lacerated Wound

10. It is an injury characterized by removal of the specific epithelial layer of the skin brought about by friction against
a hard or rough surface.

a) Contusion - bruise
b) Abrasion
c) Hematoma – lump( bukol)
d) Lacerated Wound

Ecchymosis (kiss-mark) – continuous vacuum force or negative pressure exerted on the surface of the skin

11. A wound produced by a sharp pointed instrument.

a) Stab Wound
b) Lacerated Wound
c) Incised Wound
d) Punctured Wound

Hack wound – a deep break in the skin, caused by a sudden, forceful strike of a heavy and sharp-edged object

12. This determine deals with the legal implications superimposed on biological cause and mechanism of
death

a) Manner of Death – suicide, natural, accidental, homicidal

b) Cause of Death
c) Natural Death
d) Accidental Death

13. The initial injury that led to a sequence of events, which caused the death of the victim.

a) Immediate Cause of Death

b) Proximate Cause of Death
c) Cause of death
d) Manner of Death

CAUSES OF DEATH

1. Immediate ( Primary ) Cause of Death – this applies to cares when trauma or disease kill quickly that there is
no opportunity for sequelae or complications to develop.

2. The Proximate ( Secondary ) Cause of Death – The injury or disease was survived for a sufficiently prolonged
interval which permitted the development of serious sequelae which actually cause the death.

14. Some degree of human negligence may be involved in this manner of death, but the magnitude of the
negligence falls short of that reasonably expected in negligent homicide.

a) Suicide
b) Natural
c) Accidental
d) None of the above

15. It is the instant stiffening of a certain group of muscles which occurs immediately at the moment of
death, although its cause is unknown, it is associated with violent death due to extreme nervous tension, and injury
to the central nervous system.

a) Algor Mortis

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 b) Rigor Mortis
c) Livor Mortis
d) Pallor Mortis – Paleness of the body after death

COOLING OF THE BODY - (ALGOR MORTIS) - The fall of temperature of 15 to 20 degrees Fahrenheit is
considered as a certain sign of death.

• POST-MORTEM CALORICITY- Is the rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early
putrefactive changes or some internal changes.

• As a general rule the body attains the temperature of the surrounding air from 12 to 15 hours after
death in tropical countries

THE ENTIRE MUSCULAR TISSUE PASSES THREE STAGES AFTER DEATH:

STAGE OF PRIMARY FLACCIDITY (POST-MORTEM MUSCULAR IRRITABILITY)

STAGE OF POST-MORTEM RIGIDITY (CADAVERIC RIGIDITY, OR DEATH STRUGGLE OF MUSCLES OR

RIGOR MORTIS):

The whole body becomes rigid due to the contraction of the muscles. This develops three to six hours after
death and may last from twenty-four to thirty-six hours.

Three to six hours after death the muscles gradually stiffen. It usually starts at the muscles of the neck and lower
jaw and spreads downwards to the chest, arms, and lower limbs. Usually the whole body becomes stiff after
twelve hours.

In the medico-legal view point, post-mortem rigidity may be utilized to approximate the length of time the body
has been dead.

HEAT STIFFENING:

If the dead body is exposed to temperatures above 75°C it will coagulate the muscle proteins and cause the
muscles to be rigid.

COLD STIFFENING:

The cold stiffening is due to the solidification of fat when the body is exposed to freezing temperature

CADAVERIC SPASM OR INSTANTANEOUS RIGOR:

This is the instantaneous rigidity of the muscles which occurs at the moment of death due to extreme nervous
tension, exhaustion and injury to the nervous system or injury to the chest.

RIGOR MORTIS CADAVERIC SPASM

ALL MUSCLES ARE CERTAIN MUSCLES
INVOLVED (STARTS FROM
THE LOWER JAW OR NECK)
3-6HRS AFTER DEATH IMMEDIATELY AFTER

DEATH
NATURAL OCCURRENCE MAY OR MAY NOT APPEAR
(APPEARS → INJURY IN THE
NERVOUS TENSION →
VIOLENT DEATH)
Approximate time of death Manner or nature of death

STAGE OF SECONDARY FLACCIDITY OR SECONDARY RELAXATION:

Post-mortem lividity or cadaveric lividity, or post-mortem suggillation or post-mortem hypostasis or livor

mortis:

• The lividity usually appears three to six hours after death and the condition increases until the blood
coagulates.

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 • Twelve hours after death, the post-mortem lividity is already fully developed. It also involved internal
organs.

KINDS OF POST-MORTEM (CADAVERIC) LIVIDITY:

HYPOSTATIC LIVIDITY:

The blood merely gravitates into the most dependent portions of the body but still inside the blood vessels and
still fluid in form. Any change of position of the body leads to the formation of the lividity in another place. This
occurs during the early stage of its formation.

DIFFUSION LIVIDITY

This appears during the later stage of its formation when the blood has coagulated inside the blood vessels or has
diffused into the tissues of the body. Any change of position will not change the location of the lividity.

• It may determine whether the position of the body has been changed after its appearance in the body.
• The color of the lividity may indicate the cause of death.
Example:

In asphyxia, the lividity is dark.

In carbon monoxide poisoning, the lividity is bright pink.

Hemorrhage, anemia — less marked.

Hydrocyanic acid — bright red.

16. This occurs most prominently on the mucous membranes, which during life are kept moist (by blinking, lip licking,
etc.) and are no longer protected from drying upon death. The membrane may look “burned”, and the conjunctiva
may actually be black.

a) Desiccation - the process of removing or extracting water content thoroughly resulting in extreme
dryness
b) Putrefaction - complex proteins into simpler components associated with the evolution of foul smelling
gases
c) Decomposition
d) Autolysis - after death, the cell membranes breakdown and release enzymes that start self-
digestion.

17. Refers to the action of digestive enzymes or ferments that break down the complex protein and carbohydrate
molecules in the body to simpler compounds

a) Desiccation
b) Putrefaction
c) Decomposition
d) Autolysis

18. As the body begins to transform into a liquid state and gases build within the body, the gases force the fluid from
the body. This fluid ranges from dark red and dark brown to black, and has a very unpleasant odor.

a) Purge
b) Defensive wounds
c) Adipocere - waxy material, rancid or moldy in odor, floats in water, and dissolves in ether and
alcohol.
d) Saponification - formation of adipocere in the body

19. The failure to procreate or produce offspring.

a) Impotency – inability to get and keep an erection – male organ

b) Sterility
c) Sodomy – anal sex/buggery
d) None of the above

20. When hymen is enraptured, elastic and distensible and admits 1 or 2 examining fingers with least resistance.

a) Defloration
b) Pendulous Breast

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 c) False Physical Virginity
d) True Physical Virginity

Virginity - is a condition of a female who has not experienced sexual intercourse and whose genital organs
have not been altered by carnal connection.

TYPES OF VIRGINITY

MORAL VIRGINITY — The state of not knowing the nature of sexual life and not having experienced sexual relation.

PHYSICAL VIRGINITY — A condition whereby a woman is conscious of the nature of the sexual life but has not
experienced sexual intercourse.

TRUE PHYSICAL VIRGINITY — A condition wherein the hymen is intact with the edges distinct and regular and the
opening small to barely admit the tip of the smallest finger of the examiner if the thighs are separated.

FALSE PHYSICAL VIRGINITY — A condition wherein the hymen is unruptured but the orifice is wide and elastic to
admit two or more fingers of the examiner with a lesser degree of resistance.

DEMI-VIRGINITY - This term refers to a condition of a woman who permits any form of sexual liberties as
long as they abstain from rupturing the hymen by sexual act.

"VIRGO INTACTA" - liberal authorities extend the connotation of the term to include women who have had previous
sexual act or even habitually but had not given birth.

21. The Female Blowfly which typically lay its eggs at the (December 2018 Board Exam Question)

a) drainage
b) canals
c) water
d) rotten flesh

22. Vincent killed his adaptor after the rendition of judgment of the petition for adoption. What was the crime committed
by Vincent?

a) Parricide
b) Murder
c) Homicide
d) None of the above

Article 255. INFANTICIDE

Committed by any person who shall kill any child less than three days of age (less than 72 hours).

When the offender is the father, mother or legitimate ascendant, he shall suffer the penalty prescribed for
parricide. If the offender is any other person, the penalty is that for murder. In either case, the proper qualification
for the offense is infanticide.

• It is violent expulsion of human fetus from the maternal womb which result in death.
a. Infanticide
b. Abortion
c. Murder
d. Parricide

Under the Article 40 of the Civil Code, birth determines personality. A person is considered born at the time when the
umbilical cord is cut. He then acquires a personality separate from the mother.

A mother delivered an offspring which had an intra-uterine life of seven months. after the umbilical cord is cut,
immediately the child was killed by the mother. What was the crime committed by the mother?

a. Infanticide
b. Abortion
c. Parricide
d. No crime

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But even though the umbilical cord has been cut, Article 41 of the Civil Code provides that if the fetus had an intra-
uterine life of less than seven months, it must survive at least 24 hours after the umbilical cord is cut for it to be
considered born.

Article 246. PARRICIDE

Parricide is based on the relationship of the offender and the offended

• Legitimate except in case of parent and child where relationship may either be legitimate
or illegitimate.
• In the Direct line or between ascendants and descendants. There is no parricide in the killing
of brothers and sisters because the relationship is collateral.
• By Blood except for spouse. Thus, there is no parricide in the killing between adopter and adopted,
or between step-parent and step child because the relationship is not by blood.

May is the parent of Diane (illegitimate daughter). Diane married Charlie and they begot a legitimate child Rose. If
Rose, (daughter of Diane and Charlie), would kill May (grandmother), what crime is committed by Rose?

A. Parricide

B. Murder

C. Homicide

D. Infanticide

ARTICLE 248 - MURDER

Murder is the killing of another attended by a qualifying circumstances

A.) That the killing was attended by any of the following qualifying circumstances

1. with treachery, taking advantage of superior strength, with the aid of armed men, or employing means to weaken
the defense or of means or persons to insure or afford impunity

2. In consideration of price, reward or promise

3. by means of inundation, fire, poison, explosion, shipwreck, stranding of vessel, derailment or assault upon a street
car or locomotive, fall of airship, by means of motor vehicles or with the use of any other means involving great waste
or ruin.

4.on occasion of any of the calamities enumerated in the preceding paragraph, or of an earthquake, eruption of a
volcano, destructive cyclone, epidemic or any other public calamity.

5. with evident premeditation.

6. with cruelty, by deliberately and inhumanely augmenting the suffering of the victim or outraging or scoffing at his
person or corpse

ARTICLE 249 - HOMICIDE

Homicide is the killing of any person which does not constitute parricide, murder or infanticide and is not attended by
any justifying circumstance

23. Principles in homicide investigation that should be born in mind are, mistakes of the homicide investigator cannot
be corrected and the homicide investigator should not cross the three bridges which he burns behind him. Which of
the following is not one of this so called “Burned bridge”?

a) When the dead person has been moved

b) When the dead body has been embalmed
c) When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not properly accounted
d) When the body is burned or cremated

Three Bridges (MEC RULE)

The dead person has been moved

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 The cadaver is embalmed

The body is burned or cremated

24. Identification of a dead body through examination of the teeth: (Nov- Dec 2019 Board Exam Question)

a) Forensic pathology
b) Forensic chemistry
c) Forensic odontology – burned body
d) Forensic medicine

25. What is the liability of the offender who, on the occasion of the crime of robbery, killed his cohort while trying to
flee from the scene?

a) robbery with homicide

b) robbery and homicide
c) robbery with murder
d) none of the above

26. Aldus snatched the bag of a lady walking along Hidalgo Street committed what crime?

a) Theft
b) Estafa
c) Robbery
d) Malicious mischief

Robbery and Theft, compared.

1. Both robbery and theft involve unlawful taking or asportation as an element;

2. Both involve personal property belonging to another;

3. In both crimes, the taking is done with intent to gain;

4. In robbery, the taking is done either with the use of violence or intimidation of person or the employment of force
upon things; whereas in theft, the taking is done simply without the knowledge and consent of the owner.

ARTICLE 293 ROBBERY

WHO ARE GUILTY OF ROBBERY?

Any person who, with intent to gain, shall take any personal property belonging to another, by means of
violence against, or intimidation of any person, or by using force upon anything, shall be guilty of robbery.

TWO TYPES OF ROBBERY

1. Force upon things; and

2. Intimidation against or violence upon persons

FORCE UPON THINGS

(a) The malefactors shall enter the house or building in which the robbery was committed, by any of the
following means:
1. through an opening not intended for entrance or egress.
2. by breaking any wall, roof, or floor or breaking any door or window.
3. By using false keys, picklocks or similar tools.
4. By using any fictitious name or pretending the exercise of public authority.

The term force upon things has a legal meaning. It means the employment of force to effect entrance into
the house or building by destroying the door, window, roof, wall or floor of the aforesaid house or building.
In other words, the force upon things has no reference to personal property but to a house or
building which is ordinarily classified as real property.

* Entrance is necessary – mere insertion of hand is not enough (whole body); not to get out but to enter –
therefore, evidence to such effect is necessary

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 *False key – used in opening house and not furniture inside, otherwise, theft (for latter to be robbery., must
be broken and not just opened).

FALSE KEYS – genuine keys stolen from the owner or any keys other than those intended by the owner for
use in the lock

E.g. pretending to be police to be able to enter

(b) The robbery be committed under any of the following circumstances:

1. By the breaking of doors, wardrobes, chests, or any other kind of locked or sealed furniture or receptacle;
2. By taking such furniture or objects to be broken or forced open outside the place of the robbery.

VIOLENCE OR INTIMIDATION UPON PERSON

A. Hold – ups are included in this category.

B. Snatching of handbags or jewelries are considered under this category. If the victim puts resistance and
violence is applied by the robber.
C. The violence or intimidation is directed against the person who is the owner of the property
D. Poking a gun or other deadly weapon on the victim to rob his personal property are some forms of
intimidation.

General rule: violence or intimidation must be present before the “taking” is complete.

Except: when violence results in – homicide, rape, intentional mutilation or any of the serious physical injuries
in par 1 and 2 of art 263, the taking of the property is robbery complexed with any of these crimes under art
294, even if taking is already complete when violence was used by the offender.

NOTES:

ROBBERY WITH HOMICIDE – If original design is robbery and homicide is committed – robbery with
homicide even though homicide precedes the robbery by an appreciable time.

If original design is not robbery but robbery was committed after homicide as an afterthought – 2 separate
offenses. e.

Still robbery with homicide – if the person killed was an innocent bystander and not the person robbed and if
death supervened by mere accident.

* If death results or even accompanies a robbery, the crime will be robbery with homicide provided that the
robbery is consummated.

* As long as the criminal objective or plan is to rob, whether the killing committed by reason or on occasion
thereof is intentional or accidental, the crime is Robbery with Homicide.(Pp vs. Pecato, 151 scra 14 ) As long
as there was killing when Robbery was taking place, Robbery with Homicide was committed, the killing
occurring on the occasion thereof.

27. The cracks produced in glass originated on the opposite surface of the glass and subjected to stretching are
known as:

a) Concentric
b) radial
c) A and B
d) None of the above

3Rs Rule – “Stress lines on a radial crack will be at right angle to the rear side of the glass.”
• Radial Fracture – primary fracture resembles the spokes of a wheel radiating outward from
the point of impact.

RFC Rule – “Stress lines on a concentric crack will be at right angle to the front side” that is the side
from which the blow came, rather than the rear side.
• Concentric Fracture – secondary fracture having the appearance of circles around the point of
impact connecting one radiating crack to the other, thus forming triangular pieces of glass.

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28. A controlled group of people who work through the direction of the agent handler

a) Informant Group
b) Informant Net
c) Informants
d) Special informer

29. One who provides information without intention of providing subsequent information is regarded as:

a) Incidental informant
b) Ordinary run of the mill informant
c) Special informant
d) Anonymous informant

30. Which of the following is NOT a common element of robbery and theft?

a) The personal property is taken with intent to gain.

b) The offense can be committed by a band. – more than three armed malefactors –intimidation
c) The personal property belongs to another.
d) The unlawful taking of that property.

31 Which of the following is a genderless act which involves unconventional sexual acts of violence and aggression
committed on the genital, oral or anal orifices of another person?

a) Defloration - laceration or rupture of the hymen as a result of sexual intercourse.

b) Sexual assault
c) Rape
d) Sexual harassment

Article 266-A. Rape: When And How Committed.

- Rape is committed:

1) By a man who shall have carnal knowledge of a woman under any of the following circumstances:

• Through force, threat, or intimidation;

• When the offended party is deprived of reason or otherwise unconscious;
• By means of fraudulent machination or grave abuse of authority; and
• When the offended party is under twelve (12) years of age or is demented, even though none of the
circumstances mentioned above be present.

2) By any person who, under any of the circumstances mentioned in paragraph 1 hereof, shall commit an act of sexual
assault by inserting his penis into another person's mouth or anal orifice, or any instrument or object, into the genital
or anal orifice of another person.

Take note:

"rape is consummated by the slightest penile penetration of the labia majora or pudendum of the female
organ."

RA 11648

When the offended party is under sixteen (16) years of age or is demented, even though none of the circumstances
mentioned above be present:

Provided, That there shall be no criminal liability on the part of a person having carnal knowledge of another person
under sixteen (16) years of age when the age difference between the parties is not more than three (3) years, and
the sexual act in question is proven to be consensual, non-abusive, and non-exploitative: Provided, further, That
if the victim is under thirteen (13) years of age, this exception shall not apply.

32. This is the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed the crime.

a) Motive
b) Opportunity
c) Intent
d) Intelligence

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33. A public officials, law enforcement officers or anybody whoare not a member of the organization who can helps
the organization

a) Enforcer - MAKESARRANGEMENT FOR THE KILLING

b) Capo
c) Corrupter - Bribes
d) Corruptee

34. What type of OCG which is manned by semi-organized individual with the end view of attaining psychological
gratification such as adolescent gangs.

a) In-Group Oriented Organized Crime

b) Political Graft – political gains
c) Predatory Organized Crime – personal gains
d) Syndicated Organized Crime - structured

35. A continuing illegal activity of group of person, which is primarily concerned with the generation of profits,
irrespective of national boundaries as a result of globalization.

a) Transnational Organized Crime

b) Transnational Crime – borderless crime
c) Organized Criminal Group
d) NONE

36. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy code of silence that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their comrades to
the authorities:

a) Capo
b) Omerta
c) Jihad – holy war
d) Ideology

37. This refers to an attribute of organized crime that their memberships have limitations based on kinship,
criminal record, or similar considerations:

a) No Political Goals
b) Hierarchical
c) Constitutes a Unique Subculture
d) Limited or Exclusive Membership

38. In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means:

a) Swords bearer
b) Father of the Swordsman
c) Islamic Congregation - Jemaah Islamiyah (JI) is an Islamist extremist organization based in
Indonesia
d) The Base – al qaeda

39. These are the most frequent terrorist acts, accounting for as much as 80% of terrorist related violence:

a) Bombings
b) Assassinations – oldest form of terrorist act
c) Kidnapping
d) Prostitution

41. An Asian organized crime that represents mystical symbol in the form of an equilateral triangle representing the
heaven, earth and man:

a) Yakuza
b) Triad
c) Tongs
d) Born to Kill of Vietnam

42. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful activity are transacted or attempted to be transacted, to make
them appear to have originated from legitimate sources:

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 a) Estafa
b) Money Laundering
c) Anti-Money Laundering
d) Swindling

43. An Asian organized crime group which is derived from card game 8-9-3

a) Yakuza
b) Triads
c) Tongs
d) Asian gangs

Irezumi – tattoo - mythical beasts

44. Considered to be the oldest and the biggest criminal organization in the world.

a) Al Qaeda – the base

b) Jihad – holy war
c) Chinese Mafia
d) Nuestra Costra

45. The Yakuza is organized into families which adopts a relationship known as:

a) Oyabun-Kobun
b) Yubitsume
c) Kabuki-mono
d) Bakuto

46. Same level as underboss but operating in a staff capacity, who is a counselor or adviser.

a) Boss
b) Consigliere
c) Caporegime
d) Soldati

47. It has the characteristics of traditional societies that centers on families, patrons, and their clients, and other
personalities networks.

a) Bureaucratic model
b) Corporate model
c) Patrimonial model
d) Both a and b

48. The methodology involving the systematic searching, handling, distribution and accountability of all
evidence found at the crime scene, including the documentation of every article of evidence from the point of
initial discovery at the scene, to its collection and transport to the point of examination, its temporary storage and its
final disposal is referred to us.

a) Corpus delicti
b) Body of the crime

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 c) Blotter
d) Chain of custody

49. Involves the use of oxygen and acetylene tank to punch a hole and expose the locking mechanism or setting up a
small and calculated explosive charge to blow open the safe.

a) Rip Attack
b) Burning Torch or Explosive Charge Attack
c) Punch Attack
d) Peel Job

50. Where arrest is made only after the investigators believed they have identified the maximum number of suspect
and gathered the necessary evidence to sustain successful prosecutions.

a) sting operation
b) clandestine operation
c) arrest operation
d) special operation

51. An innovative proactive operation, with investigators posing as sellers of stolen property to recover stolen property
in the possession of fencing targets, and deter future dealings between thieves and their fences.

a) Rop tide
b) Riptide
c) Fencing
d) None of the above

52. A type of rapist who, in association with the commission of an initial felony, commits rape as a secondary offense

a) Sadistic - This perpetrator wants his victim to be hurt

b) Power-Assertive - type who will claim to have a weapon but will only use it to ensure the victim's cooperation.
c) Opportunistic
d) Power-Reassurance

53. Suspects rape to assert their masculinity and dominance over victims. He does not doubt his masculinity but uses
rape as a form of symbolic power over women.

a) Sadistic
b) Anger-Retaliatory - motivated by power and aggression
c) Power-Reassurance - characterized by feelings of inadequacy and poor social skills and does not inflict injury
upon his victims
d) Power-Assertive

54. A test where a ligature is applied around the base of a finger with moderate tightness.

a) Icard’s Test
b) Magnus’ Test
c) Diaphanous Test
d) None of the above

EXAMINATION OF THE PERIPHERAL CIRCULATION:

Magnus'Test - A ligature is applied around the base of a finger with moderate tightness.

Icard's Test - This consists of the injection of a solution of fluorescein subcutaneously. If circulation is still present,
the dye will spread all over the body and the whole skin will have a greenish-yellow discoloration due to
flourescein. In a dead man, the solution will just remain at the site of the injection.

Diaphanous Test - The fingers are spread wide and the finger webs are viewed through a strong light. In the living,
the finger webs appear red but yellow in the dead.

55. Time of death where rigor mortis is absent all over. Green discoloration over whole abdomen and spreading
to chest. Abdomen distended with gases.

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 a) 12 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 48 hours
d) 72 hours
CHRONOLOGICAL SEQUENCE TROPICAL REGION

56. Time of death where only more resistant viscera is distinguishable and soft tissues are largely gone.

a) 1 week
b) 2 weeks
c) 3 weeks
d) 4 weeks

57. When the wounding agent produces communication between the inner and outer portion of the hollow
organs. It may also mean piercing or traversing completely a particular part of the body causing communication
between the points of entry and exit of the instrument or substance producing it.

a) Deep Wound
b) Superficial Wound
c) Penetrating Wound - wounding agent enters the body but did not come out or the mere piercing of
a solid organ or tissue of the body.
d) Perforating Wound

SPECIAL TYPES OF WOUNDS:

DEFENSE WOUND — Wound which is the result of a person's instinctive reaction of self-protection. Injuries suffered
by a person to avoid or repel potential injury contemplated by the aggressor.

PATTERNED WOUND — Wound in the nature and shape of an object or instrument and which infers the object or
instrument causing it.

SELF-INFLICTED WOUND—Self-inflicted wound is a wound produced on oneself. As distinguished from suicide, the
person has no intention to end his life.

58. Physical injury found opposite at the site of the application of the force

a) Coup Injury
b) Contre-Coup Injury
c) Coup Contre-Coup Injury
d) Locus Minoris Resistencia

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AS REGARDS TO THE RELATION OF THE SITE OF THE APPLICATION OF FORCE AND THE LOCATION OF
INJURY:

COUP INJURY — Physical injury which is located at the site of the application of force,

CONTRE-COUP INJURY — Physical injury found opposite the site of the application force.

COUP CONTRE-COUP INJURY — Physical injury located at the site and also opposite the site of application of force.

"LOCUS MINORIS RESISTENCIA" — Physical injury located not at the site nor opposite the site of the application
of force but in some areas offering the least resistance to the force applied. A blow on the forehead may cause
contusion at the region of the eyeball because of the fracture on the papyraceous bone forming the roof of the orbit.

EXTENSIVE INJURY — Physical injury involving a greater area of the body beyond the site of the application of force.
It has not only the wide area of injury but also the varied types of injury.

VITAL REACTION – sum total of all reactions of tissue or organ to trauma

a. Rubor – Redness/Congestion of the area

b. Calor – Sensation of heat/ increase in temperature
c. Dolor – Pain on account of the involvement
d. Loss of function - the tissue may not be able to function normally

59. Partial or complete disruption in the continuity of a muscular or ligamentous support of a joint. It is usually caused
by a blow, kick or torsion force.

a) Mutilation
b) Mayhem
c) Sprain
d) Dislocation

MUSCULO-SKELETAL INJURIES

SPRAIN - Partial or complete disruption in the continuity of a muscular or ligamentous support of a joint. It is usually
caused by a blow, kick or torsion force.

DISLOCATION - Displacement of the articular surface of bones entering into the formation of a joint.

FRACTURE — Solution of continuity of bone resulting from violence or some existing pathology.

STRAIN - The over-stretching, instead of an actual tearing or the rupture of a muscle or ligament which may not be
associated with the joint.

SUBLUXATION — Incomplete dislocation.

DECAPITATION – total detachment of head

AVULSION – forceful, sudden, or gradual detachment of a part of the body

60. The following are evidence of suicidal gunshot wound, EXCEPT:

a) The fire is not in contact nor near as shown by the absence of burning, singeing and tattooing of the area
around the gunshot wound.
b) The presence of usually but one gunshot wound. In most cases, after a shot, especially at the head, the victim
can no longer voluntarily act to inflict another shot.
c) Portions of the body involved are those accessible to the hand of the victim utilized in committing suicide, he
will not think of the difficult way of ending his life unless he has the intention of deceiving the investigators.
d) History of despondency, family problem which may cause him to commit suicide.

CHARACTERISTIC PATTERNS OF SURFACE HIT BY FIREARM

SINGEING - frying of skin due to hot gases from the muzzle of a gun fired at close range

SMUDGING - blackening of the area surrounding the bullet hole

TATTOOING - individual specks of nitrates and nitrites around the bullet hole visible to the naked eye

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61. The following are evidence of accident, EXCEPT:

a) Testimony of the witness

b) Usually there is but one shot
c) A special area of the body is involved
d) There is no special area involved

62. The following are evidence that shows that the wound is homicidal, except one:

a) The fire is made when the victim is usually some distance away from the assailant
b) Signs of struggle/ defense wound maybe present in the victim
c) The site or sites of the wound of entrance has a point of election
d) There may be disturbance of the surrounding on the account of the previous struggle

"Sites of election" (suicide) - Common places where people shoot themselves:

• Mouth.
• Temple.
• Left chest.
• Below the chin.

63. If there is the slightest penetration of the male’s sexual organ in the female’s sexual organ. It is not necessity that
the vagina be entered or hymen be ruptured

a) Carnal Knowledge
b) Sexual assault
c) Sexual activity
d) any of the above

64. Sex offenders of this category use the same approach or pretext all the time.

a) Fetishism - a form of sexual behavior in which gratification is strongly linked to a particular object or
activity or a part of the body other than the sexual organs.
b) Symbolism
c) Sex Fantasy
d) Ritualism

65. Sexual satisfaction is gained by being humiliated, hurt or beaten before the sexual act.

a) Sadism – active algolagnia

b) Masochism – passive algolagnia
c) Sado-masochism
d) Voyeurism - sexual pleasure from watching others when they are naked or engaged in sexual activity.

66. Sexual gratification where the victims are children.

a) Satyrism - uncontrollable or excessive sexual desire in a man.

b) Nymphomania - uncontrollable or excessive sexual desire in a woman.
c) Necromania - sexual attraction for or sexual intercourse with dead bodies
d) ePdophilia

67. Voluntary intercourse by a married person with someone other than his/her spouse.

a) Adultery
b) Analingus
c) Anthropagy – eating human flesh
d) Bestiality

The Elements of Adultery

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1. The woman is married;
2. The woman had sexual intercourse with a man not her husband;
3. The man she had sexual intercourse is aware that she is married.

Concubinage

Art.334

ELEMENTS:
1. The man must be married;
2. That he committed any of the following acts:

a. Keeping a mistress in the conjugal dwelling,

b. Having sexual intercourse under scandalous circumstances with a woman who is not his wife,
c. Cohabiting with her in any other place;

3. That as regards the woman, she must know him to be married.

CONJUGAL DWELLING means the home of the husband and wife even if the wife happens to be temporarily absent
on any account.

SCANDAL consists of any reprehensible word/deed that offends public conscience, redounds to the detriment of the
feelings of honest persons, and gives occasion to the neighbors’ spiritual damage and ruin.

COHABIT means to dwell together, in the manner of husband and wife, for some period of time, as distinguished
from occasional, transient interviews for unlawful intercourse.

• That woman must be taken into the conjugal dwelling as a concubine

• People in the vicinity are the best witnesses to prove scandalous circumstances
• Adultery is more severely punished than concubinage.
• The woman becomes liable only when she knew him to be married prior to the commission of the crime.

68. Commonly known as indecent exposure, is an exposure of a sex organ for sexual gratification.

a) Buggery -
b) Exhibitionism
c) Cunnilingus
d) Coprophagy – eating feces

69. Sexual intercourse between unmarried persons.

a) Fornication – pre marital sex

b) Adultery
c) Frottage - touching or rubbing against the clothed body of another person in a crowd as a means of obtaining
sexual gratification.
d) Flagellation - flogging or whipping is the act of beating the human body

70. Sexual perversion where gratification is through mouth.

a) Anulingus
b) Oral Sex
c) Cunnilingus
d) Frottage

71. It is an inductive approach where each individual suspect is evaluated with respect to specific observations
relating to the crime.

a) Behavior Analysis Interview – question and answer session – non accusatory in nature
b) Factual Analysis - each individual suspect is evaluated with respect to specific observations relating to the
crime.
c) Interrogation – 9 steps
d) Reid Method

Interrogation

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1. The positive confrontation. The investigator tells the suspect that the evidence demonstrates the person's guilt.
If the person's guilt seems clear to the investigator, the statement should be unequivocal.

2. Theme development. The investigator then presents a moral justification (theme) for the offense, such as placing
the moral blame on someone else or outside circumstances. The investigator presents the theme in a monologue and
in sympathetic manner.

3. Handling denials. When the suspect asks for permission to speak at this stage (likely to deny the accusations),
the investigator should discourage allowing the suspect to do so. The Reid website asserts that innocent suspects are
less likely to ask for permission and more likely to “promptly and unequivocally” deny the accusation. The website
states that “it is very rare for an innocent suspect to move past this denial state.”

4. Overcoming objections. When attempts at denial do not succeed, a guilty suspect often makes objections to
support a claim of innocence (e.g., I would never do that because I love my job.) The investigator should generally
accept these objections as if they were truthful, rather than arguing with the suspect, and use the objections to further
develop the theme.

5. Procurement and retention of suspect's attention. The investigator must procure the suspect's attention so
that the suspect focuses on the investigator's theme rather than on punishment. One way the investigator can do this
is to close the physical distance between himself or herself and the suspect. The investigator should also “channel the
theme down to the probable alternative components.”

6. Handling the suspect's passive mood. The investigator “should intensify the theme presentation and
concentrate on the central reasons he [or she] is offering as psychological justification . . . [and] continue to display
an understanding and sympathetic demeanor in urging the suspect to tell the truth.”

7. Presenting an alternative question. The investigator should present two choices, assuming the suspect's guilt
and developed as a “logical extension from the theme,” with one alternative offering a better justification for the crime
(e.g., “Did you plan this thing out or did it just happen on the spur of the moment?”). The investigator may follow the
question with a supporting statement “which encourages the suspect to choose the more understandable side of the
alternative.”

8. Having the suspect orally relate various details of the offense. After the suspect accepts one side of the
alternative (thus admitting guilt), the investigator should immediately respond with a statement of reinforcement
acknowledging that admission. The investigator then seeks to obtain a brief oral review of the basic events, before
asking more detailed questions.

9. Converting an oral confession to a written confession. The investigator must convert the oral confession into
a written or recorded confession. The website provides some guidelines, such as repeating Miranda warnings, avoiding
leading questions, and using the suspect's own language.

72. A step in interrogation when the suspect asks for permission to speak at this stage, likely to deny the
accusations, the investigator should discourage allowing the suspect to do so

a) Theme Development
b) Handling Denials
c) Overcoming Objections
d) Handling the Suspect’s Passive Mood

73. This is where the investigator tells the suspect that the evidence demonstrates the person's guilt. If the person's
guilt seems clear to the investigator, the statement should be unequivocal.

a) direct, positive confrontation

b) overcoming objections
c) presenting an alternative question
d) converting an oral confession to a written confession

74. It is one of the most important steps in investigative interviewing; without it, interviews may fail before they even
begin.

a) Account
b) Closure
c) Engage and Explain
d) Planning and Preparation

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PEACE METHOD EVALUATION

1. Preparation and Planning. Interviewers should create a written interview plan, focusing on issues such as the
objectives of the interview and the order of interviews. Among other things, the plan should include the time a suspect
has been in custody, the topics to be covered, and points necessary to prove the offense or provide a defense.
Interviewers should consider characteristics of the interviewee that could be relevant to the plan (e.g., cultural
background could affect how someone prefers to be addressed). Interviewers may need to consider practical
arrangements, such as visiting the scene or the location of the interview.

2. Engage and Explain. The interviewers should engage the individual, including using active listening to establish a
rapport with him or her. The interviewers should explain the reasons for the interview and its objectives. They should
also explain routines and expectations of the process (e.g., explaining that the interviewers will take notes).
Interviewers should encourage the individual to state anything they believe is relevant.

3. Account. The interviewers should use appropriate questions and active listening to obtain the interviewee's account
of events. Questions should be short and free of jargon, and can help to clarify and expand the account. Multi-part
questions should generally be avoided due to possible confusion, and leading questions should be used only as a last
resort.

4. Closure. This stage should be planned to avoid an abrupt end to the interview. Among other things, the interviewers
should summarize the person's account of events, allowing the person to make clarifications and ask questions.

5. Evaluate. The interviewers should evaluate the interview to (a) assess how the interviewee's account fits with the
investigation as a whole, (b) determine if further action is needed, and (c) reflect on their performance.

75. A step that verify that all aspects have been sufficiently covered by checking that interviewees have given all the
information they are able and willing to provide

a) Planning and Preparation

b) Engage and Explain
c) Closure
d) Evaluation

76. Refers to the questions that greatly restrict the possible answers to those that you have determined.

a) Open-ended questions – longer and detailed responses

b) Closed questions – more definite answer
c) Forced-choice questions
d) Multiple questions – more than one question at a time

77. Refers to the questions that induce a particular reply and may be judged to have manipulated the interviewee.

a) Closed questions
b) Forced-choice questions
c) Multiple questions
d) Leading questions

78. Also known as the new Principles on Effective Interviewing for Investigations and Information
Gathering. It is a concrete alternative to interrogation methods that rely on coercion to extract confessions.

a) Mendez Method
b) Miranda Doctrine
c) Reid Method
d) Mendoza method

79. Involves analyzing a person's behavior to assess deception. This study is focused on the observable outward
physical behavior of the body in order to ascertain the person's current emotional state and the role the body plays in
communicating the information.

a) Reid Method
b) Kinesic Interview Method
c) PEACE method
d) mendez method

80. Techniques available to the interviewer to take control and command of the interview environment. From proxemics
to mirroring or the use of enhanced information gathering skills.

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 a) Verbal Cues
b) Body Language Cues
c) Kinesic Subject Control
d) Confession Behaviors

81. It also helps the interviewer in determining if the subject is suffering from personality disorder or psychosis.

a) Practical Kinesic Interrogation Phase

b) reid method
c) mendez method
d) PEACE method

82. Offenders that easily feel remorse over what they have done.

a) Non-emotional offenders – factual analysis approach

b) Emotional offenders - respond well to a "sympathetic approach."
c) Sensitive offenders
d) None of the above

Factual analysis approach that is, by reasoning with the subject and letting him know that his guilt has
already been, or will soon be, established.

83. The skillful questioning of a person suspected of having committed an offense or of a person who is reluctant
to make a full disclosure of information in his possession which is pertinent to the investigation.

a) Interview
b) Interrogation
c) Questioning
d) Survey

84. Asphyxia death due to the failure of the cellular oxidative process, although the oxygen is delivered to the tissues,
it cannot be utilized properly.

a) Anoxic Death - failure of the arterial blood to become normally saturated with oxygen
b) Anemic Anoxic Death – decreased capacity of the blood to carry oxygen
c) Stagnant Anoxic Death – failure of circulation
d) Histotoxic Anoxic Death

Asphyxia – lack of oxygen in the body or from an obstructing mechanism to respiration

Types of Mechanical Asphyxia

Strangulation (Throttling) – use of hand or ligature (such as rope)

Smothering or Suffocation – entrance of air through the nose and mouth is blocked or severely restricted

Hanging – the neck is tied while the body is suspended

Choking – blocking of the internal airway by a foreign object

Crush / traumatic asphyxia – mechanical compression of chest by heavy object

Drowning – submersion or immersion of the mouth and nose in the liquid

Mugging – compressing the throat with elbow or forearm from behind

85. A stage of asphyxia death where due to lack of oxygen and retention of carbon dioxide, breathing becomes rapid
and deep. Blood pressure is elevated and pulse rate increased.

a) Dyspneic stage - sensation of difficult or uncomfortable breathing.

b) Convulsive stage - rapid, involuntary muscle contractions that cause uncontrollable shaking and limb
movement.
c) Apneic stage – stopped breathing or paralysis
d) None of the above

86. An autopsy which after a meticulous examination with the aid of other examination does not yield any definite
cause of death.

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 a) Embalming – artificial mummification - process of preserving a body by delaying the natural
effects of death.
b) Negative autopsy
c) Negligent autopsy – no cause of death is found on account of imprudence or negligence
d) Exhumation – disinterment – at least 3 years if died by non-communicable disease – at least 5 years if
communicable disease

Autopsy – comprehensive internal examination of a dead body

Post Mortem Examination - external examination of dead body without incision being made

87. Berto entered through the window of Albert’s house and took the latter’s cash savings inside the cabinet. While he
is about to exit through the window, he stepped on a 2 day old child and eventually died. On what crime can Berto be
charged?

a) Robbery
b) Robbery with Homicide
c) Robbery with Infanticide
d) Robbery and Murder

88. A car crashed at the side of Kim’s house resulting to a big hole. One night, albert entered through that hole and
took Kim’s devices such as cellphone, laptop, and camera. When he was about to leave, Kim saw him and tried to stop
him. But Albert was resistant and stabbed Kim in the chest which immediately killed Kim. Kim’s wife, Athena, was
awaken of the incident at immediately rushed towards Kim. Albert saw Athena and raped her. Albert will be liable of
what crime?

a) Robbery, Homicide, and Rape

b) Robbery with Homicide (rape as aggravating)
c) Robbery with Homicide and rape
d) Robbery with Murder

89. General rule in robbery with violence or intimidation upon person: violence or intimidation must be present
_______.

a) before the “taking” is complete

b) during the “taking”
c) before and after the “taking”
d) after the “taking”

90. The body of a person cools following death at approximately _______ under normal conditions and assuming that
temperature at death is 37 degrees Celsius.

a) 1.5 degrees/hour
b) 2.5 degrees/hr
c) 1.5 degrees/half hour
d) 2.5 degrees/half hour

91. It is the law that rose the age of sexual consent.

a) RA 8353
b) RA 9262
c) RA 11648
d) RA 11479

92. It means that the offender was not given opportunity to make a defense.

a) Evident premeditation
b) Treachery
c) Abuse of superior strength
d) none of the above

93. How many hours does blood remains fluid inside the blood vessel?

a) 3-4 hours
b) 5-7 hors
c) 6-8 hours

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 d) 10-12 hours

94. To be admissible as evidence, a dying declaration must have these several conditions, except one:

a) The victim’s declaration must identify the person responsible for his or her condition and state the
circumstances and manner by which the slight injuries were inflicted.
b) the victim must die from the injuries received
c) the victim must believe he or she is about to die
d) the victim must be rational and competent

95. Physical evidence is generally given weight the courts because -

a) it speaks for its self

b) it cannot lie
c) not affected by emotion
d) all of the forgoing

"physical evidence is of the highest order. It speaks more eloquently than a hundred witnesses.”

96. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have the intent to kill the victim. If there is no intent to kill,
the offender is liable for –

a) Physical Injury
b) Serious physical injury
c) Homicide
d) Consummated physical injury

97. Rape is committed either by sexual intercourse or by sexual assault. Which of the following is not a rape by
sexual assault?

a) Inserting penis into another person's anal orifice

b) Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping
c) Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital or anal orifice of another person
d) Inserting penis into another person's mouth

98. In investigating sex crimes, consider everyone as ______.

a) Victim
b) Suspect
c) Witness
d) All of the above

99. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s womb:

a) Infanticide
b) Parricide
c) Abortion
d) Murder

100. Gerald and Mateo, while having a drinking spree, had an argument on who among them is more handsome.
Mateo, in order to terminate the quarrel, stood up and went home. Without Mateo’s knowledge, Gerald followed him
to his house. When Mateo was already inside his house, Gerald took it as an opportunity to kill him by burning his
house which he did successfully. What is the crime committed by Gerald?

a) Murder only
b) Arson with Homicide
c) Arson and Murder
d) Arson only

101. X a male, takes Y another male, to a motel and there, through threat and intimidation succeeds in inserting his
penis into the anus of Y. What crime, if any does X commit?

a) Sexual assault
b) Acts of lasciviousness

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 c) Rape
d) None

102. This is produced by forcible contact on the body by sharp edged instrument like bolos, knives, and broken
glasses:

a) Incised wound
b) Stab wound
c) Punctured wound
d) Lacerated wound

103. It is the chemical process of restoring erased or tampered engine and chassis numbers.

a) micro etching
b) macro etching
c) etching
d) chemical etching

104. Kian killed his illegitimate grandson who is only 2 days old. Kian is liable for what crime?

a) murder
b) parricide
c) infanticide
d) homicide

105. Suppose that the child is Kian’s legitimate grandson, what crime will he be liable for killing the 2-day old child?

a) murder
b) parricide
c) infanticide
d) homicide

106. What refers to the cutting of a body part of another person to weaken his defense?

a) Castration – reproductive organ

b) Mayhem
c) Mutilation
d) Amputation

107. A type of thief-catcher whose motivations were just for the benefit of monetary considerations or mercenary in
nature.

a) Mercenary Informant
b) Informer
c) Hirelings
d) Social Climbers

Two classes of thief catchers were identified:

(1) HIRELINGS, whose motivations were mercenary in nature; and

(2) SOCIAL CLIMBERS, who would implicate their accomplices in order to move up the social ladder.

108. The most superficial second degree burns totally affects the epidermis as well as the upper third of the
dermis.

a) First degree burn - affects the first or outer layer of your skin/ superficial burn
b) Second degree burn - partial thickness burn
c) Third degree burn – full thickness burn
d) Fourth degree burn – charred

109. Produced by moist heat or steam, or any hot liquid such as water, oil. Or even molten rubber or metal.
The scalded area appears erythematous (abnormal redness of the skin resulting from dilation of blood vessels) with
desquamation (loss of bits of outer skin) and blistering of the usually sharply demarcated area of injury.

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 a) radiant burns – does not need direct contact – sun burn
b) dry burns – iron, muffler, oven
c) wet burns
d) scalds

110. Forensic Specialists have the duty to train investigators and crime searchers in the _______ of evidence

a) Analysis
b) Recognition
c) Cataloguing
d) Interpretation

111. The process wherein the police deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person for the purpose of brining
criminal offender to justice is ______.

a) Investigative process
b) Investigation
c) Criminal investigation
d) Inquest proceedings

112. The systematic process involved in the search, handling, transfer or transmittal and accountability of the evidence
recovered from the crime scene, the documentation involved up to its presentation in court, is ________.

a) Crime scene preservation

b) Corpus delicti
c) Crime scene re-construction
d) Chain of custody

113. What should be established first before or during the conduct of interview or interrogation?

a) Motive that impels the offender

b) Intent in commission of the crime
c) Rapport with the subject
d) Guilt of the subject

114. Which is recommended to be performed when taking a statement from witnesses at the scene of an accident?

a) A different investigator should interview each witness separately and in private.

b) Each witness should be interviewed alone and in private.
c) All witnesses should be interviewed by the same officer.
d) Witnesses who agree about what took place should be interviewed as a group to avoid unnecessary
duplication.

115. In conducting interrogation of the suspect, what is the principal psychological factor that will help you to a
successful interrogation?

a) Interrogation laced with threats.

b) Interrogation in the convenience of hotel setting.
c) Public interrogation of the suspect.
d) Interrogation conducted in privacy.

114. You observed in the suspect the following: sweating, color change, dry mouth, pulse and breathing. In your
analysis, what does this manifest?

a) It can be an expression of embarrassment.

b) Considered as circumstantial evidence of guilt.
c) It manifests physiological symptoms of guilt.
d) It manifests sufficient, strong and convincing evidence of guilt.

115. The search warrant that the police officer needs must be obtained from the ________.

a) Chief of police
b) Court/judge
c) Prosecutor’s office
d) Any of these

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116. Before the police officer may be allowed to search the person's home, he/she is required to secure a ________.

a) Good reason
b) Search warrant
c) Good suspicion
d) Good rate of experience

117. What is the MOST essential requisite of admission and confession?

a) It must be voluntarily and freely given.

b) No violence was used against the suspect.
c) Their suspect was not tortured.
d) The offender fully understands his confession.

118. Which statement is true when an investigators look for signs of death by LIVOR MORTIS?

a) The body gradually cools.

b) The first sign is a greenish skin discoloration appearing on the right lower abdomen about the second or third
day after death.
c) All of the body muscles are affected.
d) The skin, no longer under muscular control, succumbs to gravity and forming new shapes, among others.

119. A crime-scene sketch should include all of the following EXCEPT _______.

a) A north heading on the diagram.

b) A scale of distance.
c) Type of search pattern.
d) Date and location of the crime scene

120. The place where the suspect either commits an illegal act or leaves physical evidence of such an act is _______.

a) Crime scene
b) Body of evidence
c) Body of the crime
d) Victim

121. Which of the following are the two methods of reasoning that assist critical thinking and which are peculiar to the
investigative process?

a) Conductive and conducive

b) Assumption and presumption
c) Deductive and inductive
d) Conclusion and analysis

122. The purpose of search of the Crime scene is to determine the presence of physical evidence, which is not one
of them?

a) Corpus delicti
b) Circumstantial evidence
c) Tracing evidence
d) Associative evidence

123. The measurement method that establishes a straight line from one fixed point to another, from which
measurements are taken at right angle, is ________.

a) Rectangular
b) Compass point
c) Baseline
d) Triangulation

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124. When a witness describes to the investigator what he or she sees, smells, hears, taste and touches at this
considered as _______ evidence.

a) Documentary
b) Parol
c) Testimonial
d) Real

125. The investigation technique is effective but also risky. Science operative conceals his true identity, adopts
and assumes a role to obtain information is ______.

a) Acting
b) Undercover
c) Replacement
d) Work and social

126. What is the sudden rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early putrefactive or some
internal changes?

a) Post-mortem placidity
b) Post-mortem caloricity
c) Rigor mortis
d) Stupor

127. What will be the findings in gunshot wound examination when the powder has produced gray or yellow marks
around the wound?

a) The person died immediately after shooting

b) Someone shot him at the back
c) The victim was dead before shooting
d) The person shot himself

128. How long the deaths of individual cells of the body start to occur?

a) Three to six hours

b) Twenty-four hours
c) Immediately after death
d) Twelve hours

129. What is the surgical procedure with thorough examination of a cadaver by dissection to know the cause of
death and the manner the person dies?

a) Post-mortem probe
b) Autopsy
c) Post-mortem operation
d) Exhumation

130. What stage of DEATH is when the respiration and metabolism of the body tissues caused and death of cells
happen?

a) Algor mortis
b) Rigor mortis
c) Regur mortes
d) Molecular

TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION WITH DRIVING

1. They are self-centered and not learned how to be unselfish.

a. Egotist
b. Over-emotional – takes slightest criticism as personal offense
c. Thwarted – absurd action or illogical actions
d. Top Notch – Motor skill and good social attitude

2. Wheel is believed to be originated in-

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 a. Western Asia
b. America
c. Africa
d. Europe

3. If the plate number is DXP 8213, when should it be registered?

a. 3rd week of January

b. 1st week of March
c. 2nd week of February
d. 3rd week of March

4. It is a driver’s condition wherein a driver must wear corrective lenses.

a. a
b. b
c. 1
d. 2

5. Refers to the collective code representing the vehicle category/ies that a licensed person is allowed to operate.

a. Restriction Code
b. Driver’s License Code
c. Driver’s Restriction Code
d. License Code

6. A state or condition of severe road congestion arising when continuous queues of vehicles block an entire network
of intersecting streets bringing traffic in all directions to a complete standstill.

a. Accident
b. Collision
c. Gridlock
d. Traffic Congestions

7. International Driver’s License is issued by the _______

a. Automobile Association of the Philippines

b. Land Transportation Office
c. Department of Foreign Affairs
d. LTFRB

8. On a highway, a traffic sign reads 80 kph as the maximum speed. While the area is very foggy, a man drives at 80
kph. If you are a traffic patrol officer assigned at the area, you may apprehend the driver for-

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 a. Underspeeding
b. Failure to slow down
c. Reckless driving
d. Overspeeding

9. The three major pillars of traffic management:

a. Engineering, education, enforcement

b. Engineering, education, environment
c. Engineering, education, economics
d. Engineering, economics, environment

10. An elevated structure built for the safety of the pedestrians in crossing busy highways:

a. Flyover
b. Skyway
c. Underpass
d. Overpass

11. It mandates the LTO to conduct an examination on both applicants of new driver’s licenses and on those who are
renewing expired ones.

a. RA 4136
b. RA 10930
c. RA 8750
d. RA 10883

12. For foreigner applicants for Non-Professional Driver’s License, he must be at least ______ years old.

a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 20

13. Can an expired Student License be used for purpose of practical driving course?

a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. Sometimes

14. Can an expired Student License be used to apply for NPDL if the practical driving course has been completed within
the one year validity period?

a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. Sometimes

15. The conveying of persons, goods and things from one place to another is referred to as-

a. Traffic - the movement of persons, goods, or vehicles, either powered by combustion system or animal drawn
from one place to another for the purpose of safe travel.
b. transportation
c. traffic management
d. any of these

16. What are the marks left on the roadway because of a strong application of brake wherein the wheels are locked
and not free to rotate?

a. street
b. skid - sudden application of brakes results in the locked wheel
c. road
d. scuff - left on the road by tires that are sliding or scrubbing while the wheel is still turning

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17. The traffic congestions or "build-up" happening in a narrow portion of the road is

a. bumper to bumper
b. Traffic jam - traffic users (MVS and pedestrians) is very slow or stationary.
c. Gridlock - continuous queues of vehicles block an entire network of intersecting streets bringing traffic in
all directions to a complete standstill.
d. bottleneck

Traffic Build-up - It is characterized by the gradual increasing of traffic users in a given portion of the
highway or traffic way.
Traffic Congestions - These are conditions on road networks that occurs as use increases, and is characterized
by slower speeds, longer trip times and increased vehicular queueing.

18. Which of the following is not true about the proper use of a vehicles headlight?

a. It should be switched on one hour after the sunset and should be switched one- half hour before the sun rise
b. It should be dimmed when meeting with another motor vehicle
c. It should be dimmed when traversing through a well-lighted thoroughfare
d. any of these

Headlights. - Every motor vehicle of more than one meter of projected width, while in use on any public highway
shall bear two headlights, one on each side, with white or yellowish light visible from the front, which, not later than
one- half hour after sunset and until at least one-half hour before sunrise and whenever weather
conditions so require, shall both be lighted.

19. In a large majority of the vehicular accidents, the most important defect in human element is attributed ____

a. educational
b. perceptual
c. Intellectual
d. Attitudinal – reckless driving

20. Bona fide tourist and transients who are duly licensed to operate motor vehicles in their respective countries may
be allowed to operate motor vehicles during their stay but not beyond?

a. 12 months
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 3 years

21. What are these paintings made on the pavement along intersections and other places to provide pedestrians with
safety zone when crossing?

a. A Cross walk
b. Cross Lane
c. Cross lines
d. Center Lane

22. This license is issued to a driver hired or paid for driving or operating a motor vehicle whether private use
or for hire to the public.

a. Student permit
b. Non-pro DL
c. Pro DL
d. Military DL

An LTO Student Permit must first be acquired by any individual who wishes to apply for a driver’s license. The
student permit, sometimes called a student driver permit or a student license, authorizes the
holder to drive a vehicle while accompanied by a Professional or Non-Professional Driver’s
License holder.

23. The FIRST and MOST important step in enforcing traffic rules is ___

a. organizing
b. enforcement
c. planning

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 d. planning and enforcement

24. What is the entire width between boundary lines of every way or place of which any part is open to the use of the
public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of right or custom?

a. Street
b. Road way
c. Traffic way
d. Subway

25. When a driver’s license is confiscated for violations of RA 4136 the traffic enforcer must issue a receipt of
Temporary Operators Permit which is good for within which the driver may continue to operate his vehicle.

a. 15 days
b. 24 hours
c. 5 days
d. 72 hours

26. The portion of the traffic way which is the edge of the road or highway is

a. shoulder
b. sidewalk
c. pedestrian
d. curb
Shoulder – it refers to either side of the roadway, especially along highways.

Sidewalk - it refers to the paved walkway along the side of a street.

27. Choose the motor vehicle accident occurring entirely at a place other than on a highway.

a. A Non-motor vehicle traffic accident

b. Motor vehicle traffic accident
c. Motor vehicle accident
d. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident

KINDS OF TRAFFIC ACCIDENTS

NON-MOTOR VEHICLE TRAFFIC ACCIDENT - refers to any accident occurring on a traffic way involving persons
using the traffic way or travel or transportation, but not involving a motor vehicle in motion (ex. Pedestrian and a cyclist
in a traffic way)

MOTOR VEHICLE NON-TRAFFIC ACCIDENT - any motor vehicle accident which occurs entirely in any place other
than a traffic way (ex. Accident on a private driveway)

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MOTOR VEHICLE TRAFFIC ACCIDENT - any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way (ex. Collision between
automobiles on a highway)

NON- MOTOR VEHICLE NON-TRAFFIC ACCIDENT - is any accident occurring in a private traffic way involving
persons using vehicle or transportation but not involving a motor vehicle in motion. (ex. Pedestrian and cyclist in a
private road.)

28. What series of test is used to determine whether a driver is under the influence of alcoholic beverages or not?

a. walking thru straight-line

b. counting
c. field sobriety test
d. balance

RA 10586 → ANTI DRUNK AND DRUGGED DRIVING ACT

Field Sobriety Test (FST)

The Eye Test (“horizontal gaze nystagmus”) refers to horizontal or lateral jerking of the driver’s eyes as
he or she gazes sideways following a moving object such as a pen or the tip of a penlight held by the LEO
from a distance of about one (1) foot away from the face of the driver.

The Walk-and-Turn requires the driver to walk heel-to-toe along a straight line for nine (9) steps, turn at
the end and return to the point of origin without any difficulty.

The One-Leg Stand requires the driver to stand on either right or left leg with both arms on the side. The
driver is instructed to keep the foot raised about six (6) inches off the ground for thirty (30) seconds.

Alcohol Breath Analyzer Test (ABA test)

Breathalyzer
0.05% or less – not intoxicated for private cars
0% - motorcycle, bus, puv
.15% - intoxicated

29. Select the first action to be taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision course or otherwise avoid hazard,

a. Final position
b. Point of possible perception
c. Point of no escape
d. State of evasive action

CHAIN OF EVENTS IN A VEHICULAR ACCIDENT

1. PERCEPTION OF HAZARD – it is seeing, feeling or hearing and understanding the usual or unexpected movement
or condition that could be taken as a sign of an accident about to happen

2. START OF EVASIVE ACTION – it is the first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or
otherwise avoid a hazard

3. INITIAL CONTACT – the first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoids a hazard

4. MAXIMUM ENGAGEMENT – it is the greatest collapse or overlap in a collision; the force between the traffic unit
and the object collided with are greatest at maximum engagement

5. DISENGAGEMENT – it is the separation of a traffic unit in motion from an object with which it has collided; the
force between the object ceases at this time

6. STOPPING – this is when the traffic units involved come to rest; it usually stabilizes the accident situation

7. INJURY – it is receiving bodily harm; this event does not necessarily occur after the accident but within any of the
chain of events; it may also happen right after the evasive action taken by the drivers involved or during the initial
contact

30. The taillight of the motor vehicle should be lighted and visible at least.

a. 50 meters from the rear of the vehicle

b. 100 meters from the rear of the vehicle
c. 30 meters from the rear of the vehicle
d. 60 meters from the rear of the vehicle

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31. These signs are also known as “guide signs” or “direction signs”. It is rectangular in shape and white white-colored
on blue background.

a. regulatory signs
b. danger warning signs
c. informative signs
d. any of these

DANGER WARNING SIGNS (CAUTION SIGNS) - These signs are intended to warn road users of a danger that
lies ahead and of its nature. These signs have an equilateral triangular shape with one sided horizontal and
having red borders.

REGULATORY SIGNS - These are round shape signs (except Stop and Yield sign) intended to warn road
users of special obligations, restrictions or prohibitions with which they must comply.

• Priority Signs - Signs intended to regulate priority over a particular road section.
• Prohibitory or Restrictive Sign - Used on specified road section to indicate prohibition or restriction.
• Mandatory Sign - Used to notify road users of special rules to comply.

INFORMATIVE SIGNS (GUIDE OR DIRECTION SIGNS) - These rectangular shape signs (white-colored
on blue background for informative and green background for route markers and destination signs) are
intended to guide road users while traveling.

32. The act of a person exhibiting dangerous conduct and attitude, and indication of lack of concern for injurious
consequences is

a. reckless imprudence
b. reckless drinking
c. reckless negligence
d. reckless driving

33. The BEST thing that a cautions driver should do when approaching an intersection is to ____.

a. be at the right of way

b. be at the full stop
c. give a signal
d. overtake other vehicle

34. Select the term used referring to the first action to be taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or
avoid a hazard.

a. State of no escape
b. State of evasive action
c. Point of possible
d. Point of no escape

35. Refers to any device mounted on portable support whereby a message is conveyed by means of words or symbols
officially installed for the purpose of regulating, warning or guiding traffic.

a. traffic signal light

b. traffic lights
c. traffic signs
d. any of these

36. Upon investigation conducted, it was revealed that the driver hurriedly left the scene of the accident. Which of the
following circumstances does NOT justify fleeing the accident area?

a. When he leaves the area to seek assistance for a physician or a nurse to give aid to the victim.
b. If his intention is to hide from the police on pretext of justifiable cause.
c. If his intention for leaving is to surrender to the proper authority.
d. When he is under the imminent danger of being harmed by other persons by reason of the accident

37. The first objective in motor vehicle accident investigation involving the flight of one of the participants are (1) to
determine who is responsible for the collision, and (2) to ___________.

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 a. A file necessary charges against the fleeing driver
b. identify the victim if any
c. identify the driver who fled the scene
d. apprehend the drivers involved

38. Single continuous line on a Four-lane indicates all of the following EXCEPT

a. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming possible

b. when there are slow and fast lanes, NEVER overtake by passing over the solid white line
c. Lanes 1 and 4 ( outer lanes ) for slow moving vehicles. Vehicles on this lane should not be BELOW the
minimum speed limit
d. Lanes 2 and 3 ( inner lanes ) are usually for faster moving vehicles
SINGLE WHITE DOTTED LINE

SINGLE WHITE CONTINUOUS LINE IN TWO-LANE TRAFFIC

SINGLE CONTINUOUS LINE ON A FOUR-LANE ROAD

DOUBLE YELLOW LINE OR DOUBLE WHITE LINES

38. A traffic accident happened where two motor vehicles approached the intersection almost at the same time, one is
travelling along the national road and the other is in the secondary road. Who has the right of way?

a. Vehicle on the secondary road

b. Vehicle on the left

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 c. Vehicle on the national rose
d. Vehicle on the right

Right of Way - Refers to the legal or customary precedence (priority in place or time) which allows one
vehicle to cross or pass in front of another.

1. Rules on Right of Way (sec 42-44 of RA 4136)

a. In case of two vehicles approaching or entering an intersection at the same time, the driver of the
vehicle on the left shall yield the right of way; however, the driver of any vehicle traveling at an unlawful
speed forfeits this right (sect. 42.a)

b. In case of a vehicle approaching but has not yet entered the intersection, its driver shall yield the right of way to
vehicles already within such intersection or turning therein to the left across the line of travel of the first
mentioned vehicle. (sec. 42 b)

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c. When vehicle on a highway within a business or residential district, its driver shall yield the right of way to pedestrian
crossing the highway within a crosswalk. (Sec. 42, c)

d. When vehicle traversing a “thru-highway”’, its driver should bring to full stop before crossing. (Sec. 42, d)

2. Exceptions to the Right of Way Rule

a. Right of Way to vehicles utilizing the highway than vehicles from private road or drive. (Sec. 43)

b. Right of Way to police or fire department vehicles and ambulance.

c. Right of Way to vehicles approaching either direction on “through highway” than vehicle entering.

39. What term refers to the distance traveled before applying the brakes?

a. braking distance
b. reaction distance
c. reaction time
d. braking reaction

40. What term is used to describe the frontal collision of vehicles?

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 a. Collision
b. Full impact collision
c. Head on collision
d. Frontal collision

41. Under the Land Transportation Code, it is NOT parking prohibition if you park

a. within 4 meters of the driveway of a Fire Station

b. within the intersection
c. in front of private driveway
d. on a sidewalk

No driver shall park a vehicle, whether attended or unattended upon a highway in these following places:

• Within an intersection
• On a crosswalk
• Within six meters of the intersection of curb lines
• Within four meters of the driveway entrance to any fire station
• Within four meters of a fire hydrant
• In front of private driveway
• On the roadway side of any vehicle stopped or packed at the curb or edge of the highway
• At any place where official signs have been erected prohibiting parking

42. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes were applied strongly, hence the wheels locked, and not free
to rotate

a. skid marks
b. key event
c. scuff marks
d. debris

43. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period of not less thancan apply for non-professional driver’s license.

a. 150 Days
b. 60 Days
c. 180 Days
d. 30 Days

44. A double solid white line ____.

a. doesn’t allow lane changing.

b. allows overtaking
c. allows lane changing
d. allows parking

45. Any person using a traffic way for travel, parking or other purposes as a pedestrian or driver, including any vehicle,
or animal.

a. Traffic unit
b. Road ways
c. Road users
d. Road obstruction

46. The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.

a. primary contact
b. secondary contact
c. disengagement
d. initial contact

47. He perfected the Macadamized road system in England:

a. John road
b. John Palmer
c. John Mc Adam

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 d. John Negroponte

48. It is an object or vehicle on the road that hinders or prevent the smooth flow of traffic:

a. Obstruction
b. Hindrance
c. Hazard
d. Debris

49. It means one of the longitudinal strips from which the carriageway can be divided, whether or not defined by
longitudinal road markings

a. traffic
b. intersection
c. lane
d. traffic way

50. This traffic warning is usually used when you have observed a minor violation but are more importantly occupied
at a moment.

a. visual warning
b. written warning
c. verbal warning
d. oral warning

51. Serves as main artery that caters on big volumes of vehicular traffic on national roadway.

a. Traffic way
b. Skyway
c. Major Highway
d. Feeder Roads

Roadway - It refers to that part of the traffic way over which motor vehicles pass.
Traffic Way - Refers to the entire width between boundary lines of every way or place of which any part is
open to use of the public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of right or custom.

52. These are conditions on road networks that occurs as use increases, and is characterized by slower speeds,
longer trip times and increased vehicular queueing.

a. Accident - may cause unintentional damage to property, loss of limbs, or death

b. Collision- moving traffic unit or person striking violently against another
c. Gridlock – bringing traffic into complete standstill
d. Traffic Congestions

53. When approaching in an intersection where the flashing yellow is on, the motorist should _____.

a. Stop and proceed with caution

b. Slow down and proceed with caution
c. Reduce speed
d. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite direction

Flashing red - stop proceed when clear

54. When traversing on a solid yellow or white line with a dotted yellow or white line, you can overtake only:

a. the solid line is in your lane.

b. the dotted line is in your lane.
c. Oncoming traffic from the opposite direction is free from any hazard.
d. the oncoming traffic is visible that no vehicle or whatsoever is coming from the opposite direction.

55. When wheeled carts were invented, the next problem by man when travelling was?

a. Wider pathways which will accommodate the much wider wheeled cart
b. An engine which will power the wheeled carriages
c. how to propel the vehicles

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 d. how to get rid the domesticated animals

56. Considered as emergency vehicle, except:

a. Police car on call

b. Fire truck on call
c. Ambulance on call
d. Physician’s car

57. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion engine shall be equipped with a ____ as said motor vehicle
passes through a street of any city, municipality or thickly populated district or barrio.

a. Wiper
b. Light
c. Muffler – reducing the noise emitted by the exhaust
d. Windshield

58. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?

a. “Watch out”
b. “Keep to the right”
c. “Keep to the left”
d. “Full stop”

59. What is the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines?

a. road condition
b. pedestrian
c. whether condition
d. reckless driving

60. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade has been ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross
the route. While the parade is in progress, an ambulance driver on an emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance
across the route while the parade is passing. Under these circumstances the traffic police officer should.

a. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact his superior and obtains decisions
b. stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to cross the street
c. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior's order
d. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which will add at least ten minutes to run

61. This pertains to all lines, patterns, words, colors officially placed for the purpose of regulating, warning or
guiding traffic.

a. traffic sign
b. traffic lights
c. pavement markings
d. any of these

62. Single white dotted line indicates the all of the following EXCEPT

a. on two-lane road, it separates traffic moving in the opposite directions

b. on a one-way street, separates traffic moving in one direction
c. absolutely no overtaking
d. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming vehicle

63. How do you call a person, with a valid driver’s license, on board a motor vehicle?

a. Driver
b. Passenger
c. Motorist – other term of driver
d. Pedestrian

64. The main reason why both traffic officers and signal lights are used on some intersection is that:

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 a. motorist are discourage from "jumping signals"
b. traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate
c. greater safety to pedestrians and motorist is effected
d. an officer can stop and start the traffic as necessity demands

65. The chronological arrangement of the color of the traffic lights from the top.

a) Yellow, red, green

b) Red, yellow, green
c) Green, red, yellow
d) Green, yellow, red

66. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic accidents than any other part in the area. The Police
unit assignment to the area should:

a. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators.
b. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution motorist
c. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
d. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the intersection

67. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program is best measured by which of the following.

a. Decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement actions

b. Reduction of traffic accidents and delay
c. Increase in traffic enforcement actions
d. None of the foregoing

68. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces in contract is known as:

a. coefficient of friction
b. traffic jam
c. attribute
d. contract damage

69. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the flow of traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by
keeping in full view of traffic:

a. Stationary
b. Visible
c. Conspicuous
d. Inconspicuous

Conspicuous Traffic Observation – it is a stationary observation in which the observer tries to attract attention by
keeping in full view of traffic.

Visible Traffic Observation – it is a stationary in which the observer is in full view but located, for example, on a
side street, as to require effort on the part of traffic to discover the observer.

Conceal Traffic Observation – it is a stationary observation in which the observer is not visible to persons using
ordinary

70. Licensed person allowing limited number of passengers, freight or cargo in public utility truck or buses

a. Operator
b. Driver
c. Conductor
d. Pedestrian

71. The place and time after or beyond which accident cannot be prevented by a particular traffic unit.

a. point of no escape
b. point of Possible Perception
c. Perception Delay
d. Any of the above

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72. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to traffic violation, the following procedures are
followed except:

a. bring the suspended person before the court

b. detention of the arrested person may take place
c. arrest can be effected even without a warrant
d. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed

73. This is usually characterized by a motor vehicle falling on the road side or cliff along mountainous roads

a. Non-collision on the road

b. Running off road
c. Collision on the road
d. Hazardous condition of the road

74. It was them who brought road building to its highest point of perfection in ancient times:

a. Romans
b. Arabs
c. Chinese
d. Greeks

75. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking for defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian,
vehicles and roadway condition.

a. Apprehension
b. Adjudication
c. Detection
d. Prosecution

76. A general principle of traffic accident, investigation is to:

a. Look for the key event that caused the accident

b. Regard any unfavorable factor, existing immediately prior to the accident, as a cause
c. Consider violations as primary causes and any factors as secondary causes
d. Consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather as causes

77. It is intended for farm-to-market roads.

a. Expressway - a through traffic for free-flow of vehicular movement

b. Subway - an underground conduit running entirely under the ground for fast travel route of commuters
c. Skyway - roadway above street level for free-flow traffic
d. Feeder Road

78. It is intended to inform road user of special obligation, instruction nor prohibitions which they must comply.

a. Traffic Signs
b. Informative Signs
c. Regulatory Signs
d. Danger/warning signs

79. A kind of road according to political subdivision within town proper Right of Way not less than 10 meters.

a. National Road
b. Municipal Road
c. Barangay Road
d. City Road

NATIONAL ROADS – the main road as a conduit system with a right of way from 20 meters to 120 meters.

PROVINCIAL ROADS – the linkages between to municipalities with the right of way from 15 meters to 60 meters

CITY ROADS – the inter-link between municipalities and within city proper with right of way of 15 meters

MUNICIPAL ROADS – all roads within the town proper with the right of way of not less than 10 meters

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80. Benjo is a holder of a driver’s license that has been expired for 10 years. Is he allowed to drive and renew his
license?

a. He is no longer allowed to drive and are required by the LTO to apply for a student permit again.
b. He is still allowed to drive provided he will renew his license.
c. He is not allowed to drive but he can renew his license.
d. He is still allowed if he pays for the penalties and fine.

81. Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is best characterized by, EXCEPT:

a. Poor legislation activities

b. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
c. Effective and efficient traffic officers
d. Slow drivers or bad driving habit

82. It refers to traffic enforcement actions which consist of taking a person into custody for the purpose of holding or
detaining him to answer a charge of law violation before a court.

a. Arrest
b. Traffic Arrest
c. Traffic Citation
d. Traffic Warning

83. Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury other than serious to one or more persons:

a. Property damage
b. Less Serious Injury
c. Fatal Accident
d. Non-fatal Accident

84. It is responsible regulation of transport routes, granting, denying, suspending or canceling land transport
franchises.

a. Department of Transportation & Communication

b. LTFRB
c. Land Transportation Office
d. Traffic Management Bureau

86. Which of the following law created the Metropolitan Manila Development Authority (MMDA)?

a. RA 8750
b. RA 7924
c. RA 8749
d. PD 96

87. On traffic enforcement, what do you call on the act of bringing a motor vehicle as a consequence of traffic
law violation?

a. Confiscation
b. impounding
c. Encumbrance
d. Seizure

88. What is the Protocol Plate number of a Congressman?

a. A.4
b. B. 6
c. C. 8
d. D. 14

PROTOCOL PLATE NUMBERS

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 1 - President
2 – Vice
3 – Senate Pres.
4 – Speaker of the House of Reps
5 – Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
6 – Cabinet Secretaries
7 - Senators
8 – Representatives (Congressmen)
9 –Associate Justices of the SC

10 – Presiding Justice and other Justices of

the Court of Appeals, SOLGEN
11 – Chairman of the Commission on
Elections
12 – Cabinet Secretaries
13 - None
14 – Chief of Staff of the AFP and Chief PNP
16 – RTC judges
17 – First level court

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89. For open country roads with no blind corners the maximum allowable speed is___ km/h for passenger vehicles and
motorcycles, 50 km/h for trucks and buses; for through streets clear of traffic 40 km/h and 20 km/h respectively; for
city and municipal streets 30 km/h and for through crowded streets approaching intersections at blind corners passing
school zones the maximum allowable speed is 20 km/h for both passenger cars, motorcycles as well as trucks and
buses.

a. 60
b. 70
c. 80
d. 200

90. New Anti-Carnapping Act of 2016

a. Republic Act No. 10883

b. Republic Act No. 7924
c. Republic Act No. 6539
d. Republic Act No. 10586

91. A classification of films which offers visual realism. *

a. Analytical film – analysis presented to the student – analysis presented to the student – analysis presented
to the student
b. Didactic film – show good driving behavior
c. Simulation film
d. Movie film

92. This type of driving instruction method which depends on instructor-student communication is referred to as: *

a. Traditional
b. Comprehensive
c. Commentary
d. Simulated

93. For professional drivers or drivers of trucks, buses, motorcycles and public utility vehicles, the allowable BAC is?

a. 1 percent
b. 2 percent
c. 0 percent
d. 0.05 percent

94. Whenever the load of vehicle extends more than one meter beyond body, this should be attached.

a. Red lights
b. Tail lights
c. Red flags
d. Mufflers

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95. What was the oldest wheel found?

a. Ljubljana Marshes Wooden Wheel

b. Pneumatic Wheel
c. Western Wheel
d. Eteinne Lenoir Wooden Wheel

96. It is the most common type which involved crossings of two roadways

a. 3-way intersection
b. 4-way intersection
c. 5-way intersection
d. 6-way intersection

97. Motor vehicle registered for more than nine passengers

a. Passenger automobile
b. Passenger truck
c. Passenger jeepney
d. Truck

98. It has no traffic signals or traffic signs.

a. Uncontrolled Intersection
b. Box Junction
c. Yield-sign intersection
d. Cloverleaf

99. It is strictly prohibited, except for conductors collecting passenger fare.

a. Cargo Carrying Devices

b. Riding on running board
c. Riding on top of the MV
d. Hitching

100. Which of the following traffic concept instruct drivers and pedestrians when, how pedestrian move, not to
move or stand steady at a particular time?

a. Traffic direction
b. Traffic supervision
c. Traffic control
d. Traffic management

FIRE PROTECTION AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

1. A fire that starts from “spontaneous combustion”?

a. Starts without any outside source of ignition

b. Common in cases of arson
c. Can be quickly extinguished
d. Is impossible

2. The integrated network of hydraulically designed piping installed in a building structure or area with outlets arranged
in systematic pattern which automatically discharged water when activated by heat is?

a. Smoke detector - activate the alarm when little amount of products of combustion go into their sensors.
b. Fire alarm – warn occupants of a building of the presence or danger of fire
c. Sprinkler system
d. Fire hose

3. A building must have this design which is used as a continuous passageway for the transmission of air?

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 a. Duct system
b. Fire exit
c. Exhaust system
d. Duct

4. What is the category of fire setting that is consequence of a simultaneous criminal act in order to hide the primary
criminal activity?

a. Pyromania – irresistible impulse to set fires

b. Vandalism
c. Crime concealment
d. Intentional fire

5. If the burning of one’s property results from fault and the same leads to damage of property of another. This
is a crime of _____.

a. Malicious mischief - willful damaging of another’s property for the sake of causing damage due to
hate, revenge or other evil motive
b. Negligence resulting to damage to property
c. Arson through reckless imprudence
d. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage to property

6. What is the irresistible impulse on compulsion to start a fire that gives the experience of gratification and
satisfaction to the fire setter?

a. Pyrophobia
b. Pyrotechnic
c. None of these
d. Pyromania

7. What is the suspension activity wherein the concern is on depriving the fire with any of the elements of fire?

a. Fire education
b. Fire law enforcement
c. Fire safety
d. Fire control

FIRE SUPPRESSION – Slowing down the rate of burning

FIRE CONTROL – Keeping the fire from spreading/holding the fire to one area
FIRE EXTINGUISHMENT – putting the fire completely out.

FIRE TRIANGLE
OXYGEN
FUEL
HEAT

FIRE TETRAHEDRON
OXYGEN
FUEL
HEAT
SELF-SUSTAINED CHEMICAL REACTION

FUEL (REDUCING AGENT) - Is anything that will burn when heated with sufficient oxygen. It is the most
important part of the triangle, for fuel is what burns.

HEAT - The energy component of the fire tetrahedron when heat comes into contact with a fuel, the energy
supports the combustion reaction . Source of ignition or any device to start a fire. It can be a safety
match, a lighted candle, or of more sophisticated forms such as a chemical, mechanical or
electrical contrivance designed to start a blaze.

OXYGEN (OXIDIZING AGENT) - A colorless, odorless gas and one of the compositions of air which is
approximately 21% percent by volume

AIR COMPOSITION:
21% of normal oxygen
1 % other gases

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 78% nitrogen

Uninhibited Chain Reaction – reaction between the fuel, heat, and oxygen, which refers to the self-
perpetuating capability of combustion

8. What is this fire suppression activity that is meant to combat fire or extinguishing fire?

a. Fire fighting
b. Fire law enforcement
c. Fire education
d. Fire suppression

9. The rapid oxidation of substances by the generation of heat and light is referred to as

a. radiation
b. combustion – burning
c. Convection
d. Ignition

HEAT TRANSFER

CONDUCTION
It is the transfer of heats by molecular activity within a material or medium, usually a solid.
Direct contact is the underlying factor in conduction.

CONVECTION
It is the transfer of heat through a circulating medium, usually air or liquid. Heat transfer by
convection is chiefly responsible for the spread of fire in structures.

RADIATION
Radiated heat moves in wave and rays much like sunlight. Radiated heat travels the speed, as does
visible light: 186,000 miles per second. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through
materials and space as waves.

10. The liquid which causes fire when in contact with organic matter or with certain chemicals is

a. Fuel - anything that will burn when heated with sufficient oxygen.
b. incendiary
c. combustible liquid
d.
e. corrosive liquid

Flammable liquids – they are liquids having a flash point of 37.8 ° C (100°F) and a vapor pressure
not exceeding 40 psia (2068.6 um) at 37.8 °C.

Combustible Liquids – these liquids have flash point at or above 37.8 °C (100°F).

Flash point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid can gives off vapor to form an ignitable
mixture in air near the surface of the liquid. The lower the flash point, the easier it is to ignite the
material.

11. The malicious and intentional, or reckless starting of a fire or causing an explosion is

a. Fire
b. Arson
c. conflagration
d. fire ball

12. This class of fire that can extinguish by smothering because it is made up of flammable liquid is

a. Class "B"
b. Class "D"
c. Class "A"
d. Class "C"

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13. The class of fire caused by electricity or equipment is

a. Class "D"
b. Class "B"
c. Class "A"
d. Class "C"

14. At a major fire in a factory, a number of compressed gas cylinders containing carbon dioxide (CO2) are
threatened by the flames. Which is CORRECT to say about this situation?

a. If the safety valves let go, the CO2 will intensify the fire.
b. The gas is toxic and will make fighting the fire very hazardous
c. The cylinders may explode and injure the firefighters.
d. Since CO2 is a non-flammable gas, there is no hazard and no problem.

15. Colorless, odorless gas and one of the compositions of air which is approximately 21% by volume.

a. Fuel
b. oxygen
c. heat
d. self-sustained chemical reaction

AIR COMPOSITION:
21% of normal oxygen
1 % other gases
78% nitrogen

Take note : At least 16 percent oxygen must be in the air for a fire to start.

16. Complete and detailed checked of the structures and materials involved in the fire to make sure that every
spark and ember has been extinguished and to have assurance against rekindling.

a. Salvage
b. rescue
c. Overhaul
d. None

SALVAGE

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The activity of protecting the properties from preventable damage other than the fire. The steps are : a)
remove the material outside the burning area, and

b. protecting or cover the materials by using tarpaulins (cotton canvass treated with water proofing).

RESCUE - This is the operation of removing (extricating), thus saving, people and other livestock from the burning
building and other involved properties, conveying them to a secure place. (INSIDE THE BURNING BUILDING)

EVACUATION – This is the activity of transferring people, livestock, and property away from the burning area to
minimize damage or destruction that the fire might incur in case it propagates to other adjacent buildings.

17. A sudden introduction of air into a closed space containing an oxygen-starved superheated product of
incomplete combustion or oxygen-deficient free radicals, may result to an explosion, which is called:

a. Flashover
b. Flash Fire
c. Backdraft
d. Spontaneous Ignition

Flashover – it is the sudden ignition of accumulated radical gases produced when there is incomplete combustion
of fuels. It is the sudden burning of free radicals, which is initiated by a spark or flash produced when temperature
rises until flash point is reached.

18. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer is:

a. conduction
b. radiation
c. combustion
d. convection

19. Upon arrival at the fire scene, the fire fighters noted based that the building contains large quantities of superheated
fuel under pressure but little oxygen. The stage of fire is on –

a. Initial stage
b. Smoldering phase – final phase of burning
c. A and B
d. Incipient stage – initial stage of fire
e. Free-burning phase - burning of material with adequate oxygen

20. Strong oxidizing organic compound which releases oxygen readily. It causes fire when in contact with
combustible materials especially under conditions of high temperature.

a. Hypergolic Fuel
b. Organic Peroxide
c. Halon
d. Fulminate

A rocket or liquid propellant which consist of combinations of fuels and oxidizers which ignite spontaneously on
contact with each other.

21. William already placed gasoline-soaked rags beside the wall of Happy Ending Spa but was caught by Kurt before
he could strike the match to burn the building. William committed arson at what stage?

a. Frustrated
b. Attempted
c. Belated
d. Consummated

The crime committed is attempted arson, because the offender begins the commission of the crime directly by
overacts (placing the rags soaked in gasoline beside the wooden wall of the building and lighting a match) but he does
not perform all the acts of execution (the setting of the fire to the rags) due to the timely intervention of another who
chases away) the offender.

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22. Out of anger, because his younger brother was mauled by the neighbor Munding, Juswa burned the house of
Munding who unknown to him was sleeping in the said house during that time. As an Arson Investigator you will charge
Juswa with

a. Arson with Murder

b. Murder only
c. Arson and Murder
d. Arson only

23. They are ordinary combustible materials that are usually made of organic substances such as wood and wood-
based products. It includes some synthetic or inorganic materials like rubber, leather, and plastic products.

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

24. The increase or rising of amperage while electric current is flowing in a transmission line resulting to the
damage or destruction of insulating materials, maybe gradual or rapid, internal or external.

a. Overheating
b. Arcing
c. Sparking
d. Induced Current

25. A method of reducing heat below the ignition temperature

a. Cooling
b. Blanketing
c. Smothering – removal or expelling oxygen
d. Starving – eliminate fuel supply

26. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008

a. RA 9514
b. PD 1185
c. RA 9165
d. RA 10883

27. A rocket or liquid propellant which consists of combinations of fuels and oxidizers which ignite spontaneously
on contact with each other.

a. Cryogenic
b. Hypergolic fuel
c. Corrosive
d. Combustible

28. A process where impurities and/or deleterious materials are removed from a mixture in order to produce
a pure element of compound. It shall also refer to partial distillation and electrolysis.

a. Refining
b. Smelting – separate impurities from pure metals
c. Oxidizing
d. Fermentation

29. A passage hall or antechamber between the outer doors and the interior parts of a house or building.

a. Vestibule
b. Vertical shaft - An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as from the base
to the top of the building.
c. Standpipe system - A system of vertical pipes in a building to which fire hoses can be attached on each floor
d. Sprinkler system

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30. An integrated network of hydraulically designed piping installed in a building, structure or area with outlets arranged
in a systematic pattern which automatically discharges water when activated by heat or combustion products
from a fire.

a. Vestibule
b. Vertical shaft
c. Standpipe system
d. Sprinkler system

31. Refers to the cracking of glass into smaller segments of subdivision in an irregular pattern

a. Alligatoring – large scales commonly found in the wood

b. Crazing
c. Charring
d. Spalling - concrete

32. These are borders defining the differences in certain heat and smoke effects of the fire upon various
materials.

a. Surface effect
b. Lines or areas of demarcation
c. Fusion
d. Charring

33. Fire stage that has the highest rate of intensity.

a. Incipient
b. Free burning
c. Smoldering
d. Initial

34. It refers to the size of fire which is determined by the size of flame and the area of fuel that is burning.

a. Temperature
b. Heat
c. Intensity
d. Magnitude

35. The burnt pattern in woods indicating the spontaneous and intensive burning has occurred.

a. Alligatoring
b. Discoloration
c. Collapse
d. Charring

36. Most arson cases are proved by evidence rather than that direct evidence.

a. Circumstantial
b. Documentary
c. Testimonial
d. Physical

37. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist to hide the odor of flammable liquids.

a. Sulfides
b. Nitrates
c. Sulfur
d. Ammonia

38. AFFF means?

a. Aqueous Film Forming Foam

b. Aqueous filter Forming Foam

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 c. Aqueous Filter Foam Forming
d. Aqueous Film Forming Forming

94% - water

6% - foam

39. Those extinguishers that contain Carbon Monoxide Gas use to fight class A, B, and C fires are the –

a. Water fire extinguishers

b. B and C
c. Liquefied fire extinguishers
d. Dry chemical fire extinguishers

40. It refers to any condition or act that increases or may cause increase in the probability that fire will occur
or which may obstruct, delay, hinder or interfere with fire fighting operations and the safeguarding of life and property.

a. Fire trap – lacks adequate exits or fire escapes

b. Clogged fire way
c. Fire hazard
d. Hazardous fire area

41. The heat energy derived from nuclear energy by the splitting of atoms is known as:

a. Fission
b. Radiation
c. Ignition
d. Fusion – merging or combine

42. The technique used in clearing a building of smoke and with the use of smoke ejector is called as what?

a. smoke ejector
b. forced ventilation
c. horizontal ventilation
d. vertical

43. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over the entire surface?

a. oxidation
b. flash over
c. back draft
d. combustion

44. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as from the base to the top of
the building.

a. sprinkler system
b. vertical shaft
c. flash point
d. standpipe system

45. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to _______

a. interview witnesses
b. view the site of the crime
c. preserves the fire/crime scene
d. photo opportunity in the fire/crime scene

46. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly, it is either set for revenge or self-aggrandizing; or set by
psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.

a. group fire setter

b. arson for profit
c. fire starter

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 d. solitary fire setter

47. Government’s office mandated by RA 6975 to suppress destructive fires, implements the fire code and investigates
all fires cases in the Philippines

a. BFP
b. PNP
c. BJMP
d. Bureau of Fire in the Philippines

48. Means employed to avoid the occurrence of fire.

a. Fire Suppression
b. Fire Control
c. Fire Inspection
d. Fire prevention

49. As the product of combustion rises in a building or flows out of an opening an equal volume of air replaces them.
If during extinguishments, water is distributed in such a manner as to upset the thermal balance, a condition will
appear known as:

a. Explosion of steam
b. Thermostat
c. Thermal imbalance
d. Sudden burst of fire

50. Decomposition of matter in reaction to heat.

a. Thermal balance
b. Oxidation
c. Burning
d. Pyrolysis - decomposition causes a change from a solid state to vapour state.

51. Which of the following best illustrate arson?

a. simultaneous fire
b. faulty electric wiring
c. thick reddish smoke
d. unexplained explosion

52. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is connected so that water
with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.

a. fire hose box

b. fire truck
c. hose reel
d. fire hydrant

53. The fact of having set fire to some rags and jute sacks, soaked in kerosene oil, and placing them near the wooden
partition of the house, should be?

a. Frustrated Arson
b. Consummated Arson
c. Attempted Arson
d. Malicious Mischief

Frustrated Arson

• The fact of having set fire to some rags and soaked in kerosene oil and placed near the partition of
the entire soil of an inhabited house, should not be qualified as a consummated arson, in as much
as no part of the house had begun to burn, although fire would have started in the said partition had
it not been extinguished on time. The crime committed was frustrated arson.
• The tools used alone are on fire, or a furniture or thing not attached to the building is on fire (U.S.
v. Valdez, G.R. No. L-14128, December 10, 1918)

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54. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the roof is referred to as:

a. vertical ventilation
b. cross ventilation
c. forced ventilation
d. horizontal ventilation

55. What is the percentage of water and foam in AFFF??

a. 96% water and 4% foam

b. 96%foam and 4%water
c. 60%water and 40% foam
d. 50% water and 50% foam

56. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that you have to file is:

a. murder with arson

b. arson with murder
c. murder
d. arson

57. What color of smoke is present when the materials burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay?

a. Black
b. White
c. Yellow
d. Blue

When white smoke appears before the water from the fire hose comes in contact with the fire, it indicates
humid material burning. E.g. – burning hay, vegetable materials.

Biting smoke, irritating the nose and throat and causing coughing indicates presence of chlorine.

White smoke with yellow flame – indicates burning of humid materials. Example: burning hay, vegetable
matter.

Black Smoke accompanied by large flame - indicates use of petroleum products or rubber and plastics

Reddish brown smoke – presence of nitrocellulose sulfur, sulfuric acid, nitric acid, hydrochloric acid.

58. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been declared, what is the first thing that a fire prober must
determine?

a. look for survivors

b. search for debris
c. locate the point of origin
d. established corpus delicti

59. This is the process of knowing the emergency situation.

a. Evaluation size-up
b. Pre-fire planning
c. Fire plan
d. Pre fire conference

60. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however examination of lungs and blood showed no abnormal
quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be your interpretation under such circumstance?

a. The person died because of asphyxia

b. The person died because of the burning
c. The person was killed before it was burned
d. The person died not of fire but because of suffocation

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61. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate flame propagation.

a. Plant
b. Trailer
c. Accelerant
d. Gasoline

Accelerant – highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate flame propagation.

Plant – the preparation and or gathering of combustible materials needed to start a fire.

Trailer – the preparation of flammable substances in order to spread the fire.

62. What is the upper section of an extension ladder?

a. top
b. fly
c. pole
d. extension

63. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system which automatically closes to restrict the
passage of smoke or fire?

a. fire exit
b. fire trap
c. damper
d. fire alarm

64. What is a vertical panel of non- combustible or fire resistant materials attached to and extending below the bottom
chord of roof trusses to divide the underside of the roof into separate compartments so that heat and smoke
will be directed upwards to a roof vent?

a. fire door
b. fire trap
c. electric arc
d. curtain board

65. Considered as the first firefighters in the Philippines.

a. Police officer
b. Streetsweepers
c. Men
d. Fire brigade

66. They are the so-called “Eyes and Ears” of the police before, during and after the fire has been placed under
control.

a. Firemen
b. Eyewitness
c. Suspects
d. Arson Investigator

67. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric
pressure?

a. vapor density
b. fire point
c. boiling point
d. vapor pressure

68. What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot at the bottom or a vessel being heated due to incomplete
combustion and has a low temperature.

a. Luminous
b. Non-luminous – blue, complete combustion of fuel

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 c. Laminar – smooth path through a gaseous flame
d. Turbulent – unsteady, irregular flows

69. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, usually air or liquid the method is called ____.

a. radiation
b. oxidation
c. convection
d. conduction

70. The following are the special aggravating circumstances in arson, except:

a. if committed with intent to gain;

b. If committed for the benefit of another;
c. If the offender is motivated by spite or hatred towards the owner or occupant of the property burned;
d. If committed by 2 persons

71. Means employed to pacify a fire.

a. Fire protection
b. Fire control
c. Fire suppression
d. Fire inspection

72. It is performed to assess the safety of an installation from destructive fires.

a. Fire protection
b. Fire control
c. Fire suppression
d. Fire inspection

73. These are installed to separate areas of hazardous occupancies from areas of ordinary or light hazard
occupancies that resist the passage of fire from one area to another.

a. Firewall
b. Fire partitions
c. Fire building
d. Fireproof wall

74. It is a hot piece or lump that remains after a material has partially burned and is still oxidizing without
the manifestation of flames.

a. Arc
b. Ember
c. Damper
d. Duct

75. The primary course of action in case of a fire.

a. pack up and flee

b. run for your life
c. call an ambulance
d. raise the alarm

76. The following are some of the factors that may affect the extent of burning except:

a. Wind velocity
b. Relative humidity
c. Air temperature
d. Numbers of incendiary

77. How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion?

a. 20

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 b. 30
c. 10
d. 15

78. It is any substance that ignites spontaneously when exposed to air.

a. Cryogenic
b. Hypergolic
c. Pyrophoric
d. Flammable

79. The form of heat transfer that takes place within solids when one portion of an object is heated.

a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Heat transfer

80. Known as the 4th element of fire. (June 2018 Board Exam Question)

a. Fuel
b. Heat
c. Uninhibited chemical reaction
d. Oxygen

81. A kind of fire extinguisher which contains the most effective in cooling the burning material below its ignition
temperature. It is the most commonly used agent in firefighting.

a. Water fire extinguisher

b. Carbon Dioxide fire extinguisher
c. Dry powder fire extinguisher
d. Dry Chemical fire extinguisher

82. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is
characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and flames.

a. Flashover
b. Backdraft
c. Thermal balance
d. Thermal imbalance

83. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen.

a. Flashover
b. Backdraft
c. Thermal balance
d. Thermal imbalance

84. Is exemplified by a Bunsen-type laboratory burner where hydrocarbon (any substance containing primarily carbon
and hydrogen) is thoroughly mixed with air before reaching the flame zone.

a. Pre-mixed flame
b. Diffusion flame – dispersed or spreads in the surrounding atmosphere
c. Laminar flame
d. Turbulent flame

85. The cause of the majority of fire death is __________.

a. Infection
b. Shock
c. Burns
d. Asphyxiation

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86. What substance is burned when there is a bright reddish yellow flame?

a. Rubber – black smoke and red flame

b. Calcium
c. Manganese – greenish yellow
d. Nitrogen products – heavy brown – bright red flame

87. This is the activity of restricting the fire at the place (room) where it started : the process of preventing
fire from extending from another section or form one section to another section of the involved building.

a. Fire control
b. Containment
c. Ventilation
d. Exposure

88. This is the activity of securing other buildings near the burning structure in order to prevent the fire from
the extending to another building.

a. Fire control
b. Containment
c. Ventilation – displace toxic gases
d. Exposure

89. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor as a result of combustion.

a. Fire
b. Flame
c. Heat
d. Smoke

90. Which among the following is commonly used in fire resistant materials?

a. Asbestos
b. Diamond
c. Asphalt
d. Cotton

91. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes place.

a. Endothermic reactions
b. Exothermic reactions – gives off heat or energy
c. Oxidation
d. Combustion

92. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room or throughout the structure.

a. Accelerant
b. Plants
c. Trailer
d. Wick

93. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to support continuous
combustion.

a. Ignition temperature
b. Kindling temperature
c. Fire point – the fire will keep burning after the ignition source has been removed
d. Flash point

94. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a vapor-air mixture that ignites.

a. Ignition temperature
b. Kindling temperature
c. Fire point

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 d. Flash point – lowest temperature for ignition, but the ignition may not be sustained

95. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause a self- contained
combustion without the addition of heat from outside sources.

a. Boiling point
b. Ignition temperature
c. Fire point
d. Flash point

96. This is the normal/common behavior of fire in a building:

a. It moves vertically
b. It has a circular movement
c. It only moves horizontally
d. It has a circular movement while moving horizontally

97. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid
drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings.

a. Dust
b. Oxidizing material
c. Pyrolysis
d. Cryogenic

98. A building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or because it lacks adequate exits or fire escapes.

a. Fire Hazard
b. Fire Trap
c. Fire Wall
d. Fire Lane

99. It is the activity of protecting the properties from preventable damage other than the fire. The steps are a)
remove the material outside the burning area, and b) protecting or cover the materials by using tarpaulins (cotton
canvass treated with water proofing).

a. Salvage
b. Confinement
c. Rescue
d. Retrieval Operations

100. It is the operation of removing (extricating), thus saving people and other livestock from the burning building
and other involved properties, conveying them to a secure place.

a. rescue
b. salvage
c. evacuation
d. overhauling
VICE AND DRUG EDUCATION AND CONTROL

1. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent cannabis sativa.

a. Hashish
b. Opium
c. Morphine
d. Marijuana

2. It refers to any act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the body of any person, with or without his
knowledge by injecting, ingestion or other means or of committing any act of indispensable assistance to a person in
taking a dangerous drug to himself or herself.

a. administer
b. taking
c. using

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 d. introducing

Use – Any act of injecting, intravenously or intramuscularly, of consuming, either by chewing, smoking,
sniffing, eating, swallowing, drinking or otherwise introducing into the physiological system of the body, and
of the dangerous drugs.

3. It is the sale, distribution, supply or transport of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or procured
controlled precursor and essential chemicals.

a. cultivate - any act of knowingly planting, growing, raising, or permitting the planting, growing or raising of
any plant which is the source of a dangerous drug.
b. culture
c. chemical diversion
d. all of the above

4. Are commercially produced drugs that may be purchased legally without prescription?

a. over-the-counter drug
b. prescription drug
c. unrecognized drug
d. herbal drug

5. Morphine addiction from among the veterans of war came to be known as:

a. merchants of death
b. casualties of war
c. soldier’s disease
d. addiction of veteran

Depressants – downers – depresses the central nervous system

Narcotics – Opium – derived from oriental poppy plant papaver somniferum

Morphine – most common opium derivative – 6 times stronger than opium

Friedrich Serturner, isolated morphine from opium

Heroin- most commonly abused narcotic in the world - Alder Wright - aka miracle drug – most powerful
opium derivative – 3-5 times stronger than morphine

Codeine – school boys – cough preparations

METHADONE - A synthetic narcotic used as treatment of heroin dependence but also fallen to abused.

BARBITURATES - are drugs used for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress, and
insomnia.

SECONAL - commonly used among hospitality girls - Sudden withdrawal from these drugs is even more
dangerous than opiate withdrawal.

TRANQUILIZERS - Are drugs that calm and relax and diminish anxiety - the treatment of nervous states and
some mental disorders without producing sleep.

VOLATILE SOLVENTS - Gaseous substances popularly known to abusers as “gas”, “teardrops”.

ALCOHOL - The king of all drugs with potential for abuse - Most widely used, socially accepted and most
extensively legalized drug throughout the world.

PAREGORIC - Commonly used as a household remedy for diarrhea and abdominal pain.

DEMEROL - is widely used as a painkiller in childbirth

6. Which of the following does not carry a capital punishment?

a. possession of 20 grams morphine

b. possession of 100 grams of marijuana

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 c. possession of 15 grams of MDMA
d. possession of 60 grams of shabu

PENALTY - Life imprisonment to death and fine ranging from Php 500k to 10m

50 grams or more of SHABU

500 grams or more of MARIJUANA
10 grams or more for ANY DANGEROUS DRUGS

PENALTY- Imprisonment of 20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment and fine ranging from Php
400k to 500k

10 grams but not more than 50 grams of SHABU

300 grams or more but less than 500 grams of MARIJUANA
5 grams or more but less than 10 grams of ANY DANGEROUS DRUGS

PENALTY- imprisonment of 12 years and 1 day to 20 years and a fine ranging from Php 300K
to 400K

Less than 10 grams of SHABU

Less than 300 grams of MARIJUANA
Less than 5 grams of ANY DANGEROUS DRUGS

7. The modern-day form of slavery is _____.

a. White slavery
b. Human trafficking
c. Prostitution
d. Sex tourism

8. Which of the following is not a core element of trafficking?

a. Entry of the victims in the country of destination.

b. Exploitation of the victim.
c. Recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring or receipt of trafficked person
d. Threat of or the use of force. Deception, coercion, abuse of power.

9. Which does NOT describe BEST why a person takes drugs?

a. Personal, family and social problems

b. Friends and peer pressure
c. High self esteemed and ego
d. Accessibility of sources of illegal drugs

10. Is plea bargaining now allowed in drug cases?

a. yes
b. no
c. maybe
d. it depends

Is plea bargaining allowed in drug cases? Yes, in the landmark case of Salvador Estipona vs. Judge
Lobrigo (En Banc), G.R. No. 226679, August 15, 2017, the Supreme Court declared Sec. 23 of RA
9165 prohibiting plea bargaining in drug cases to be unconstitutional.

Plea bargaining allows the accused and the prosecution to arrive at a mutually satisfactory
disposition of the case, where the defendant pleads guilty to a lesser offense

11. The withdrawal symptoms produced by a drug are manifested by ___________.

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 a. Withdrawal symptoms that are usually severe and incapacitating
b. A person who is always seen with alcohol, but never with heroin
c. Symptoms which are usually opposite to the effects of the drug itself
d. Withdrawal symptoms which are psychological in nature

12. The powerful stimulant, in a form of a white powdery substance extracted from coca leaves is ______.

a. Marijuana – assasins of the youth

b. Cocaine – king’s habit
c. Shabu – poor man’s cocaine
d. Opium

Stimulants - uppers - induce alertness, wakefulness, elevated mood, and decreased appetite

COCAINE - from the coca bush plant Ertyroxylon coca - strongest short acting stimulant

AMPHETAMINES - Usually prescribed to reduce appetite and to relieve minor cases of mental depression – pep
pills

SHABU/ “POOR MAN’S COCAINE” - chemically known as methamphetamine hydrochloride - most abused
stimulants in the Philippines.

METHYLENEDIOXYMETHAMPHETAMINE - (MDMA) - “ECSTASY” – designer drugs – molly – party drugs

HALLUCINOGENS (PSYCHEDELIC) - mind-altering drugs, which distort reality, thinking and perceptions of time,
sound, space and sensation.

LYSERGIC ACID DIETHYLAMIDE (LSD) - Derived from the fungus claviceps purpurea - Known on the street as
“acid”, it is the best known and most powerful hallucinogens.

MESCALINE - Aka STP which stands for serenity- tranquility- peace- a drug derived from the dried tops of the peyote
cactus

PSILOCYBIN - hallucinogenic compound obtained in mushroom, psilocybe Mexicana - Street Name: MAGIC
MUSHROOM

KETAMINE - is an anesthetic that is abused for its hallucinogenic properties. Its predominant legitimate use is as a
veterinary anesthetic.

MARIJUANA - most commonly abused hallucinogen in the Philippines – Cannabis Sativa L. - tetrahydrocannabinol
(THC).

13. It is a machine for registering and indicating the number and nature of bets made on horse races.

a. Wager
b. Totalizer
c. Prize
d. Topada

14. A Drug Syndicate is any organized group of ______ or more persons forming or joining together with the intention
of committing any offense prescribed under this Act.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

15. The facility used for the illegal manufacturer of dangerous drugs is ___________.

a. Clandestine laboratory
b. Drug laboratory
c. Laboratory equipment
d. Drug den

16. The legal drug, also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotic
substance is ________.

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 a. Codeine
b. Opium poppy
c. Heroin
d. Morphine

17. The operation utilized by drug syndicates to conceal their activities is _________ Operation.

a. Hide out
b. Clandestine
c. Disguised
d. Confidential

18. Act or practice of providing sexual services to another person in return for payment.

a. White slavery
b. Prostitution
c. Philandering
d. Any of the above

19. This school believes that prostitution is both a crime and vice and should be repressed and prohibited

a. The School of Regulatory Control – French model – we cannot remove prostitution

b. The School of Total Repression – American model
c. Classical School
d. Positivist School

20. It is considered the least attractive, lowest paid, most vulnerable men and women in the profession.

a. Bar girls
b. Skeezers – sex in return for drugs
c. pick-up girl
d. call girl

21. Removing vagrancy from the country's list of crimes amid concerns it only targets the poor and the
disadvantaged.

a. Republic Act No. 10158

b. RA 8353
c. RA 10175
d. RA 10173

22. Ideally, which court should hear and try drug cases?

a. Sandiganbayan
b. Heinous crime court designated by the SC among the existing RTC.
c. Special court designated by the SC.
d. Special court designated by the SC among the existing RTC.

23. Which is NOT a condition precedent before an arrested person may be required to undergo a laboratory examination
within 24?

a. The person is showing physical signs of drug abuse.

b. The person is showing psychological drug addiction.
c. The person is manifestly showing symptoms of drug abuse.
d. There is a clear showing that the suspect was under the influence of drugs.

24. The BEST example of a drug-related offense wherein the commission of the offense is motivated by the need
to support drug use is _____.

a. Stealing to have money

b. Dealing or selling illegal drugs
c. Violence against rival drug dealers
d. Illegal possession of shabu

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25. Preliminary investigation of drug case shall be terminated within the period of _________.

a. 20
b. 30
c. 15
d. 35

26. What is the appropriate term in determining the drugs and crime relationship especially when drug use and
crimes are common aspects of deviant behavior and lifestyle or increases exposure to situations that encourage
crime?

a. Drug induced circumstances

b. Drug defined offenses
c. Inter fractional circumstances
d. Drug related offenses

27. Describe the following statements: (1) An act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the body of any person with
or without his/her knowledge either by injection (hypodermically/intravenously), inhalation (nose), ingestion
(mouth) or other means is called use

(2) Illegal trafficking of dangerous drugs through text messages is called trading.

a. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no 2 is true

b. Statement no. 1 and 2 are both false.
c. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true.

Trading. – Transactions involving the illegal trafficking of dangerous drugs and/or controlled precursors and
essential chemicals using electronic devices such as, but not limited to, text messages, email,
mobile or landlines, two-way radios, internet, instant messengers and chat rooms or acting as a broker
in any of such transactions whether for money or any other consideration in violation of this Act.

28. The effect of illegal drugs use that gives a feeling of a need for a more and more of illegal drugs to achieve the
same level of effect is ____.

a. Toxicity
b. Psychological dependency – relies on drug to achieve a feeling of well- being – habituation – continuous desire
for drug – it is needed to function at work and home
c. Tolerance
d. Physical dependency - addiction- severe craving for drug – interfere with normal functioning – will also result
to tolerance

29. A person who is known as a drug addict and by his own volition ceased from taking illegal drugs is referred to
as ____.

a. Into wellness
b. In self-healing
c. In self medication
d. In abstinence

30. The BEST reason why marijuana has been one of the most bused hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control
becomes difficult according to some authorities because it

_________.

a. Is highly in demand for all classes of users

b. Can easily be cultivated even in one’s backyard
c. Can be easily and secretly be smoked
d. Is sellable in any place, in any market

31. The type of drug in which according to pharmacological classification can relieve pain and induce sleep is
____.

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 a. Narcotics
b. Sedatives
c. Stimulants
d. Depressants

32. The Dangerous Drug Board is headed by.

a. Director General
b. Chairman
c. Executive Director
d. CEO

DDB composed of 17 members wherein 3 of which are permanent members, the other 12 members are ex- officio
capacity and 2 regular members.

Three permanent members – appointed by the president – Chairman with the rank of secretary (4 years term) –
and 2 other permanent members as undersecretary (2 years)

TWELVE (12) EX- OFFICIO MEMBERS - Secretary or representative of the following Department: - DOJ, DOH,
DND, DOF, DOLE, DILG, DSWD, DFA, DepEd,

- Chairman CHED, NYC

- Director General – PDEA

TWO (2) REGULAR MEMBERS - President of Integrated Bar of the Philippines (IBP). - Chairman or President of a
non- government organization involved in dangerous drug campaign to be appointed by the President.

33. Preliminary Investigation of cases involving dangerous drugs shall be terminated within a period of:

a. 15 days
b. 45 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days

34. The PDEA Academy shall be headed by a Superintendent with the rank of Director and who shall be appointed
by:

a. The President
b. Chairman of DDB
c. Chief, PNP
d. PDEA Director General

PHILIPPINE DRUG ENFORCEMENT AGENCY (PDEA) COMPOSITION

Headed by Director General with the rank of Undersecretary, appointed by the President.

The head of the PDEA is assisted by 2 deputies Director General, with the rank of Assistant Secretary, 1 for
Operations and 1 for Administration, also appointed by the President.

35. One who provides gratification for the lust of others? A male procurer of clients for a prostitute.

a. Pimps
b. Brothels
c. Bugaw
d. Madam

36. It shall be the institution responsible in the recruitment and training of all PDEA agents and personnel.

a. PDEA Academy
b. NCRTC
c. Phil. Public Safety College
d. NBI Academy

37. There is a reddening of the face. There is no sign of mental impairment, in coordination and difficulty of speech.

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 a. Slight inebriation
b. moderate inebriation
c. Drunk
d. Coma

DEGREE OF INTOXICATION

SLIGHT INEBRIATION - Degree of intoxication where there is a reddening of the face. There is no sign of mental
impairment and difficulty of speech.

MODERATE INEBRIATION - The person is argumentative and overconfident. There is a slight impairment of
mental difficulties, difficulty of articulation, and lesser coordination of fine movements.

DRUNK - The mind is confused, behavior is irregular and the movement is uncontrolled. The speech is thick and
the behavior is uncontrollable

VERY DRUNK - Degree of intoxication where the mind is confused and disoriented.

COMA - The subject is stupor or in comatose condition. Sometimes it is difficult to differentiate this condition with
other conditions having comma.

38. The drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina and/or energy is
________.

a. Ecstasy
b. Marijuana
c. Anabolic steroid
d. Shabu

39. One of the significant drug education programs is one hinges on the belief that even if there is an over-supply of
drugs if there is no demand, there will be no drug addiction. The BEST approach to curb drug addiction under
this belief is to

a. conduct seminars to all sectors of society – educate and awareness

b. control the supply of illegal drugs
c. implements legislation and imposition of severe penalty
d. Jail all users without benefit of probation or parole

40. Which of the following form of physical dependence that a person's severe craving for the drug extends up to
the point of interfering with his/her ability to function normally?

a. Habituation
b. Psychological Dependence
c. Addiction
d. Tolerance

41. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu originated from:

a. Japan
b. China - "épedra" plant is cultivated - source of the drug ephedrine- the principal chemical for producing the
drug shabu.
c. Mexico – number one producer of marijuana
d. India - center of the world's drug map

Golden Triangle

BURMA/MYANMAR

LAOS

THAILAND

In Southeast Asia the “Golden Triangle” approximately produced 60% of opium in the world, 90% of opium in the
eastern part of Asia. It is also the officially acknowledged source of Southeast Asian Heroin.

Golden Crescent

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 AFGHANISTAN

PAKISTAN

IRAN

INDIA

In Southwest Asia the “Golden Crescent is the major supplier of Opium poppy, Marijuana and Heroin products in the
western part of Asia. It produces at least 85% to 90% of all illicit heroin channeled in the drug underworld market.

42. Pedro cannot function without drugs in his system and if he does not take drugs, he develops withdrawal signs
such as restlessness, pain, or convulsions. Pedro is:

a. physically dependent on drugs

b. mentally dependent on drugs
c. psychologically dependent on drugs
d. socially dependent on drugs

PHYSICAL DEPENDENCE - Can only be visible when drug intake is decreased or stopped and an involuntary
illness called the withdrawal syndrome occurs.

43. Transshipment point of all forms of heroin in the world.

a. Japan
b. Hong Kong
c. Philippines - second in Mexico as to the production of Marijuana – drug paradise of drug abusers in asia
d. Malaysia

44. The placing of any dangerous substances in the person, house, effects, or in the immediate vicinity of an innocent
individual for the purpose of implicating, incriminating or imputing the commission of any violation of Comprehensive
Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 is ____.

a. incriminating an innocent person

b. fabrication of evidence
c. planting of evidence
d. Incriminatory machination
COMPARISON OF RA 6425 AND RA 9165

45. Which of the following statements is correct:

(1) drug addicts can be detected by means of observation of the person suspected to be addicted of drugs

(2) drug addicts can be detected through laboratory examination,

(3) drug addiction can be detected through psychological and psychiatric examinations.

a. 1,3 are correct

b. 2, 3 are correct

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 c. 1,2,3 are correct
d. 1,2 are correct

46. The Golden Crescent is located in the South West Asia composed of Which Countries?

a. Iran, Persia, India and Pakistan

b. Afghanistan, Iran, India and Pakistan
c. Pakistan, Afghanistan, Persia and Iraq
d. Iraq, Iran, Lebanon and Turkey

47. Which of the following country in the Middle East is the biggest producer of cannabis sativa? (April 2016
BEQ)

a. Lebanon
b. Iraq
c. Kuwait
d. Afghanistan

48. Who shall handle the prosecution of drug related cases?

a. Public Attorney’s Office

b. Ombudsman
c. National Prosecution Service
d. Special Prosecutor designated by the DOJ

49. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT.

a. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.

b. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms outside residence.
c. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law enforcement agencies.
d. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of not
less than six (6) years and one (1) days.

RANDOM DRUG TESTING

A. Students of secondary and tertiary schools

B. Officers and employees of public & private offices

50. Removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing drugs:

a. Cleansing process
b. Aversion treatment
c. Abstinence
d. Detoxification

METHODS OF THERAPY ON ALCOHOLISM

THE AVERSION TREATMENT - administration of a Nauseating drug to be followed by a drink of liquor.

THE PSYCHOTHERAPY METHOD – eliminate emotional tensions

THE PROGRAM OF ALCOHOLICS ANONYMOUS – fellowship and spiritual in nature

51. They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug Board:

a. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice

b. NBI Director and PNP Director General
c. PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
d. PNP Director and PDEA Director

52. Which of the following drug trafficking organization which furnishes drugs to the users?

a. Core organization
b. Secondary organization
c. Cartel

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 d. Local organization

53. Known as the Guzmán-Loera Organization called La Alianza de Sangre ("Blood Alliance"), which considered by
the United States Intelligence Community as the "the most powerful drug trafficking organization in the world“.

a. The Gulf Cartel

b. Tijuana Cartel
c. The Juarez Cartel
d. Sinaloa Cartel

54. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various techniques
were made by its operator in concealing their activities.

a. Hide–out operation
b. Disguised operation
c. Clandestine Operation
d. Confidential

55. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive Drug Act of 2002, except:

a. Cultivation, culture and delivery,

b. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading,
c. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
d. Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession

56. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden Triangle where 80% of illicit
drugs of the world originate. This lies on the borders of:

a. Thailand –Laos –Burma

b. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar
c. Iran –Afghanistan – Pakistan
d. Peru- Columbia- Bolivia

57. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is considered as the world’s
Oldest cultivated plant which is the source of dangerous drug

a. Papaver Somniferum
b. Cannabis Sativa
c. Coca Plant
d. Ephedrine

58. Hashish is 8 to 10 times stronger than the commercial trade marijuana, it is:

a. Concentrated resin extracted from marijuana

b. Dried flower of marijuana
c. Fruiting top of the plant cannabis sativa
d. Finest and high grade leaves of marijuana plant

59. What is called the “poor man’s cocaine”?

a. Codeine
b. Cocaine
c. Marijuana
d. Methamphetamine hydrochloride

60. Which of the following causes the withdrawal sickness?*

a. Psychological dependency
b. Exhaustion
c. Tolerance
d. Physical dependency

61. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?

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 a. Heroin
b. cocaine
c. marijuana
d. shabu

62. also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics substance:

a. Codeine
b. Heroine
c. Opium Poppy
d. Morphine

63. Agency of the government that will take charge and have the custody of all dangerous drugs confiscated:

a. Dangerous Drug Board

b. PDEA
c. PNP Anti-Narcotics Task Force
d. PNP, AIDSOTF

64. Cases involving violation of the Comprehensive Dangerous Drug act shall be terminated after how many days?

a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 180 days
d. 60 days

65. Which of the following are symptoms of the use of amphetamines?

a. False perceptions of objects and experiences.

b. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
c. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color.
d. Excitement alertness and wakefulness.

66. Samples of seized dangerous drugs shall be destroyed _____ after promulgation of judgment

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours - after filling of criminal case, court shall conduct ocular inspection
d. 12 hours

67. Principal source of all forms of cocaine.

a. Southeast Asia
b. South America
c. Middle East
d. Southwest Asia

68. Sources of dangerous drugs particularly opium poppy is cultivated and harvested mostly in the areas of which part
of the globe?

a. Southeast Asia
b. South America
c. Middle East
d. Southwest Asia

69. The inadvertent or deliberate consumption of much larger doses that the habitually used by the individual in
question and resulting in serious toxic reaction or death.

a. Tolerance
b. Overdose
c. Dependence
d. Addiction

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A DOSE of a drug is the amount taken at one time.

1. MINIMAL DOSE – amount needed to treat or heal, that is, the smallest amount of a drug that will produce a
therapeutic effect.

2. MAXIMAL DOSE – largest amount of a drug that will produce a desired therapeutic effect, without any
accompanying symptoms of toxicity.

3. TOXIC DOSE – amount of d rug that produces untoward effects or symptoms of poisoning

4. ABUSIVE DOSE– amount needed to produce the side effects and action desired by an individual who improperly
uses it

5. LETHAL DOSE – amount of drug that will cause death

70. The hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small Mexican mushroom used by Mexican Indians to induce nausea and
muscular relaxation is called:

a. Psilocybin
b. STP
c. DMT
d. Ibogaine

71. The presence of the symptom of alcohol intoxication without smell of alcoholic breath is a sign that the
suspected person is under the influence of:

a. Amphetamine drug
b. Barbiturates
c. Hallucinogens
d. Narcotics

72. Methylene dioxymethamphetamine is commonly known as:

a. ecstasy
b. morphine
c. ketamine
d. amphetamine

73. Also known as “pep pills”

a. ecstasy
b. morphine
c. ketamine
d. amphetamine

74. Strongest of all Marijuana.

a. Staminate
b. Pistillate
c. THC – active compononent of marijuana - Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)
d. Panama Red

75. It is most commonly abused narcotic in the world:

a. cocaine
b. shabu
c. opium
d. heroin

76. Typical effect of BAC having 0.6-0.11%

a. Buzz Zone
b. Drunk Zone
c. Elevated Risk Zone
d. High Risk Zone

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77. This is the first test that is typically administered in Field Sobriety Test. The officer stands about one foot away
from the driver and looks for involuntary jerking of the eyes as they gaze toward from side to side with a moving
object.

a. Eye Test
b. Walk Test
c. One leg stand
d. Blood Alcohol Test

78. The person who manages houses of ill-refute where the business of prostitution is conducted.

a. Pimp
b. prostitute
c. Knocker
d. Maintainer

79. Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more as a cough reliever?

a. morphine
b. cocaine
c. opium
d. codeine

80. Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as

a. cocaine
b. marijuana
c. opium
d. shabu

81. The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed of how many Ex-officio Members?

a. 2
b. 2
c. 12
d. 17

82. Police Corporal Dela Cruz planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their suspect and Police Staff Sergeant Kobe planted 1
gram of shabu. Is their penalty the same?

a. No
b. Yes
c. False
d. True

83. The Summerians called it “Hul Gil” which means, “plant of joy” due to its joyful effect when administered.

a. Opium
b. MJ
c. Peyote
d. Psilocybin

84. In acute cases withdrawal of drugs causes serious physical illness also called abstinence syndrome. It is also
otherwise known as:

a. Psychological dependence
b. Physical dependence
c. Drug Addiction
d. “Cold Turkey”

85. Intoxication when considered under the law is considered

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 a. Alternative Circumstance
b. Exempting circumstance
c. Delinquent act
d. aggravating Circumstance

86. It refers to the “the paradise of drug users in Europe”.

a. Philippines
b. Mexico
c. Spain
d. Lebanon

87. It refers to the individual reaction to a drug, food, etc. for unexplained reasons

a. Idiosyncrasy
b. Allergy
c. Side Effects
d. Overdose

88. Drug and vice control where was the first raid of marijuana happened in the Philippines?

a. Malabon
b. Paranaque
c. Manila
d. Pasay

89. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking drug, it was brought to the Philippines by a Japanese tourist.

a. Marijuana
b. Cocaine
c. Shabu
d. Opium

90. One who uses drug to keep wakefulness or additional energy in performing an important work is a:

a. Habitual drug user

b. Situational drug abuser
c. Spree user – use drugs for fun
d. None of these
Hard core addicts – activities revolve entirely around drug experience
Hippies - addicted to drugs believing that drug is an internal part of life

91. What drug is known as the “king of all drugs” for being the most abused drug in the world?

a. Hallucinogen
b. Solvent
c. Amphetamine
d. Alcohol

92. A country where consumption and manufacture of alcohol is prohibited.

a. Singapore
b. South Africa
c. Saudi Arabia
d. Italy

93. What color reaction test is used to identify a substance as cocaine?

a. Cobalt Thiocyanate
b. Marquis Test
c. Nitric Acid Test
d. Dilli Koppanyi Test

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94. For the tentative identification of the opium, the ______ test is used:

a. Marquis test
b. Zwikker’s Test
c. KN Test
d. Nitric Acid Test

95. Duquenois-Levine test is for marijuana; Symone’s test is for:

b. Cocaine
c. Barbiturates
d. Opium derivatives
e. Shabu

96. The amount of drug that produces untoward effect or symptoms of poisoning.

a. Toxic Dose
b. Minimal Dose – smallest amount – give therapeutic effect
c. Maximal Dose – largest amount – give therapeutic effects – no side effect
d. Lethal Dose – produce death

97. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing about it and using
it to meet his problems and to escape from reality, he is .

a. socially dependent on drugs

b. mentally dependent on drugs
c. psychologically dependent on drugs
d. physically dependent on drugs

98. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the
minds and body. (June 2019 board Exam question)

a. Prostitution oldest profession

b. Gambling
c. Drug addiction
d. Vice

99. What is referred to as the “Green Triangle Area”?

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 a. Mindoro- Palawan- Masbate
b. Benguet- Kaling, Apayao- Mt Province
c. Ilocos Sur- Benguet- Mt Province
d. Zamboanga- Cotabato- Davao

100. What National Anti-Drug Campaign strategy is carried out by preventive education and information drive?

a. Supply Reduction Strategy

b. Demand Reduction Strategy
c. International Coordination
d. All of these

TECHNICAL ENGLISH 1&2 FINAL COACHING

1. A quality of good report where it should be a true representation of facts to the best of the investigator’s ability.

a. Accuracy

b. Completeness – 5W and 1H

c. Clarity - clear and logical organization of information

d. Brevity – brief and concise but include all relevant information

2. It is the part of the investigation report that gives a brief summary of the major investigation steps
accomplished –

a. Abstract

b. Synopsis

c. Summary

d. 5Ws and 1H

3. These are the prototypes of any documents or forms used in legal transaction or judicial proceedings,
these contain important matters conveyed in technical terminologies and presented in a suitable and systematic order
in accordance with the circumstances of any case.

a. Technical report
b. Report
c. Legal forms
d. Affidavit

4. It is a written statement of facts voluntarily made by an affiant under an oath or affirmation administered
by a person authorized to do so by law.

a. Technical report
b. Report
c. Legal forms
d. Affidavit

5. It is the recognition of particular facts by either direct observation or experience.

a. Personal Knowledge
b. Information and belief
c. Self-knowledge
d. Any of the above

6. Any person having the intellectual capacity to take an oath or make an affirmation and who has knowledge of the
facts that are in dispute may make an affidavit.

a. taker of the affidavit

b. respondent
c. plaintiff
d. affiant

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7. A public officer authorized by law to administer oaths and affirmations.

a. taker of the affidavit

b. respondent
c. plaintiff
d. affiant

8. The essential elements must be satisfied to constitute a complete affidavit. They are the following, except;

a. A written oath representing the facts as sworn to by the affiant;

b. The signature of the affiant; and
c. The attestation by an officer authorized to administer the oath that the affidavit was actually sworn by the
affiant in the presence of that officer.
d. Date and time where the affidavit was taken

9. It is a part of an affidavit in which the officer certifies that the instrument was sworn to before him.

a. Attestation
b. Jurat
c. Sworn statement
d. None of the above

An affidavit is composed of:

Commencement – this identifies the affiant
Individual averments – separate claims that are numbered as mandated by law
Statement of truth – statement verifying that what is stated is true under oath
Attestation – a clause certifying the oath and the date made by the affiant
Signature – signature of the affiant and the notary public

10. It is the willful and corrupt assertion of a falsehood under oath or affirmation administered by authority of law on
a material matter.

a. False Testimony
b. Judicial lie
c. Perjury
d. Malicious lie

FALSE TESTIMONY is given in the course of a judicial proceeding, whereas PERJURY is any willful and corrupt
assertion of falsehood on a material matter under oath and not given in judicial proceedings.

11. It is a generally filled out by the arresting officer and states the facts and circumstances surrounding an
arrest. The affidavit may state such facts as the information which led to the arrest and the observations made before
and after the arrest occurred.

a. Affidavit of Arresting Officer – Affidavit of arrest

b. Affidavit of Search
c. Complaint affidavit
d. Affidavit of loss

Affidavit of Desistance – when he no longer wishes to pursue a case against an accused or defendant in a court case

Affidavit of Witness – legal and binding document of written testimony of a witness

12. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer,
or other public law officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.

a. Information
b. Complaint
c. Warrant of Arrest
d. Search Warrant

SEARCH WARRANT - is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by
the judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein
and bring it before the court.

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WARRANT OF ARREST - Legal process issued by a competent authority, directing the arrest of a person or
persons upon grounds stated therein

13. It is an affidavit filed by the respondent in reply to a petition.

a. Reply affidavit - to rebut or answer matters raised for the first time in the affidavits to which the replies
are made.
b. Counter affidavit
c. Rejoinder affidavit - the response by the petitioner to the counter affidavit filed by the respondent
d. Petition affidavit

14. The purpose of this affidavit in reply is simply to rebut or answer matters raised for the first time in the affidavits
to which the replies are made.

a. Reply affidavit
b. Counter affidavit
c. Rejoinder affidavit
d. Petition affidavit

15. Statement No.1 - The plaintiff can “save” matters from its initial affidavits and then put those matters in
affidavits in reply.

Statement No. 2 - The affidavits in reply should only rebut or answer new matters raised by the defendants which the
plaintiffs have not already addressed.

a. Both statements are correct

b. Both statements are wrong
c. Statement no. 1 is correct. Statement no. 2 is wrong
d. Statement n 2 o. is wrong. Statement no. 2 is correct

16. It is a written statement under oath by the complainant stating that he‘s no longer interested in pursuing the
complaint or criminal case against another person.

a. Affidavit of Loss
b. Affidavit of Desistance
c. Affidavit of Undertaking
d. Counter Affidavit

17. It is usually required when requesting for a replacement of a lost document or item. This document should
be completed by a person, known as the Affiant, who can attest under oath of their personal knowledge of the
circumstances of the loss of the object.

a. Affidavit of Loss
b. Affidavit of Desistance
c. Affidavit of Undertaking
d. Counter Affidavit

18. The term used by NBI Clearance Centers if the applicant has the same or similar name with another person who
has a pending criminal case.

a. Warning
b. Hit
c. With pending criminal case
d. Hot case

19. Undertakings are a legally binding promise which carries severe consequences if breached.

a. True
b. False
c. Partially true
d. Partially false

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 AFFIDAVIT OF UNDERTAKING

This affidavit is voluntarily executed in order to attest to the truthfulness of the foregoing narration of facts
and undertaking under administrative, criminal, and civil liabilities and for whatever legal purpose it may serve.

20. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a
peace officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein and to bring it before the court

a. Warrant of Arrest
b. Search Warrant
c. Search and Seizure
d. None of the above

21. It refers to concepts or feelings that cannot be experienced concretely or touched physically.

a. Concrete nouns
b. Abstract nouns - noun denoting an idea, quality, or state
c. Proper nouns
d. Collective nouns

Concrete nouns can be perceived by at least one of our five senses. They are nouns that refer to things that
exist physically and can be touched, seen, smelled, felt, or tasted. (Anything described by our senses)

Proper nouns are not general references. Instead, they name specific nouns. For example, the word "state"
is a common noun. However, the names of specific states, such as Nebraska and California are proper nouns
because they are the names of specific states. There are many other examples of proper nouns.

Collective nouns are nouns that refer to a group of something in particular. Often, collective nouns are used
to refer to groups of animals

Common nouns refer to people, places, things, or ideas in general terms. Words like friend, state, shoe, or
freedom are examples of common nouns.

A compound noun contains two or more words that join together to make a single noun. Compound nouns
can be two words written as one (closed form), such as softball and toothpaste.

Countable nouns (also called count nouns) are nouns that can be counted (apple, orange) and can be
therefore be pluralized (apples, oranges).

Uncountable nouns (also known as non-count or mass nouns) are amounts of something, which we cannot
count (gunpowder, rice).

22. In the sentence, “The policeman arrested the kidnapper”, what is the direct object?

a. policeman
b. the
c. arrested
d. kidnapper

Direct object – recipient of the action

23. What is the correct subject-verb agreement in the sentence, “One of the keys ______ not fit the lock.”

a. does
b. do
c. any of the above
d. none of the above

Subject-verb agreement - If the subject is singular, the verb must be singular too. When the subject of the
sentence is composed of two or more nouns or pronouns connected by and, use a plural verb.

24. According to the Philippine National Police investigative manual, these are the types of report writers, except:

a. The writers who think first and write afterwards

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 b. The writers who don’t write at all
c. The writers who write and think at the same time
d. The writers who write without thinking

25. It is a document containing facts related to a legal proceeding. The person who makes the declaration
affixes his or her signature in a separate endorsement paragraph at the end of the document with a statement that
the declaration is made under oath.

a. Oath
b. Affidavit – verified, formal written statement of fact by an affiant or author and witnessed by a notary public
c. Sworn statement
d. Complaint

26. A clause in an affidavit certifying the oath and the date made by the affiant.

a. Commencement
b. Individual averments
c. Attestation
d. Statement of truth

27. These are separate claims that are numbered as mandated by law;

a. Commencement
b. Individual averments
c. Attestation
d. Statement of truth

28. The part of memorandum which contains the date, subject, thru channels and addressee.

a. Letterhead
b. Addressee
c. Heading
d. Attention

PARTS OF A CIVILIAN LETTER

Heading. A type or a printed letterhead may be used. It includes thewriter‟s office and office address. Abbreviations
shall not be made for the city, municipality and province.

File Reference. The use of identifying file reference is optional on the instructions issued by the chief or head of
office. If ever used, it is placed at the left margin two spaces below the letterhead, and in line with, and below, the
current date.

Dateline

Inside Address. The addressee‟s name should be written fully. It should always be preceded by a courtesy title,
except in cases of M.D., Ph.D.,and a few others.

Attention Line. To speed up handling of the letter, the attention line is used when the letter is addressed to a
company or to a particular department of a company or to an individual aside from the addressee

Salutation. The salutation greets the reader and the greeting may be formal or informal, cordial or personal

Subject Line. The subject line is the gist of the message

Body. The body is the message itself. In it, one of the problems that may confront a correspondent is paragraphing.

Complimentary Clause. A complimentary clause is usually followed by a comma and comes immediately after the
last line of the message. The first word starts with a capital letter.

Company Signature. In civilian letter, a company signature may be shown immediately above the writer’s signature,
based on the theory that the company, not the writer, is the legal entity. In other words, the company assumes a
greater responsibility than the individual; otherwise, the company signature is omitted, especially if including it is not
a standard policy of the firm.

Reference Initials. Initials of the writer and his typist or secretary appear at the left of the stationary, about two
spaces below the writer’s identification. These initials are aligned with the left margin of the letter.

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Enclosure Notation. This notation refers to anything sent with the basic communication.

Postscript (P.S.). If a writer has forgotten something in the message, he adds a P.S. it is intended to attract attention.
The postscript may be flushed with the letter margins or may be intended fives spaces from both margins.

Copy Furnished. When one or two copies are furnished, a carbon copy (cc) notation is indicated on the original and
all copies of the letter.

Through Line. This part appears in the letter if the sender is a subordinate who writes to a person higher in position
than his immediate superior.

29. This is written two spaces below the sender and two spaces to the right colon. It contains no more than ten words.

a. Subject
b. Date
c. Body
d. Complimentary ending

30. An affidavit is similar to a deposition in EXCEPT in a sense that ___________.

a. Both legal forms are used in a judicial proceeding.

b. Both legal forms are sworn statements.
c. Both legal forms are written testimonies from a witness.
d. Both legal forms are taken "ex-parte" - "by or for one party."
The term refers to an attorney's communication with: A judge
or arbitrator without notice to, and outside the presence of, the
other parties. Another party outside the presence of that party's
attorney.

31. The purpose of motion for reconsideration is/are __.

a. reversal of decision
b. modification of decision
c. either of these
d. neither of the above

32. The motion for reconsideration shall be filed at __

a. appellate court
b. trial court
c. MTC
d. RTC

33. A mittimus may only be issued by the Court.

a. False. It can also be issued by any authorized Agency.

b. False. it can also be issued by the Senate.
c. True. An order of service of sentence may only be ordered by the court.
d. Tue. Because only the court may order the restriction of liberty of an accused during the pendency of his
case.

34. The commitment order and mittimus are the same in terms of:

a. Both orders are exclusively issued by a competent court

b. Both orders are exclusively for safe keeping.
c. Both orders are exclusively directed the Jail Warden/ Prison Director.
d. All of the above

COMMITMENT ORDER - a written order of the court, or any agency authorized by law to issue, entrusting an inmate
to a jail for the purpose of safekeeping during the pendency of his/her case.

MITTIMUS ORDER – a warrant issued by a court bearing its seal and the signature of the judge, directing the jail or
prison authorities to receive inmates for the service of sentence.

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35. _____ is a writ issued under the authority of a court to compel the appearance of a witness at a judicial
proceeding, and the disobedience of which may be punishable by contempt of court.

a. Subpoena
b. Summons
c. Warrant
d. Order
Summons and Appearance Notice – official notices telling a person that he/she has to appear in court at a
specific time and place to answer a criminal charge

Appearance Notice – given to a person before he/she is charged with an offense

Summons – given to a person who has already been charged with an offense

Subpoena – requires an individual to be somewhere in person at a certain place, date, and time to testify as
a witness in a case

36. A word that names something, such as a person, place, thing, or idea.

a. Adjective
b. Pronoun
c. Noun
d. Verb

37. What is the prepositional phrase in the sentence “I left my bag on the table.”?

a. my bag
b. bag
c. on the table
d. table

A word governing, and usually preceding, a noun or pronoun and expressing a relation to another word or element in
the clause, as in “the man on the platform,” “she arrived after dinner,” “what did you do it for ?”.

38. What is the predicate nominative in the sentence “Mr. Gardoce’s father is a policeman.”

a. Mr. Gardoce
b. Father
c. Policeman
d. None of the above

The predicate nominative (or predicate noun) is the noun or pronoun that comes after a linking verb. It renames the
subject of the sentence.

39. You can use the term ___________ as substitute to the term Initial Report.

a. Advance Report
b. Progress Report

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 c. Final Report
d. None of the above

Initial or Advance Report- this is an advance information on a new or fresh case an investigator; the data
in this report is not yet complete, but it is written and immediately submitted after the preliminary investigation
of the case.

Progress report- this is a written narration of facts developed by the investigator in the course of the follow-
up investigation. This is a report on subsequent details which are very vital to the case but have not been
incorporated in the initial report. This report shall be submitted within three days after the initial report has
been submitted, and consequently a monthly report thereafter.

Final report- a complete written narration of facts based from a thorough investigation of the case. This is
a result of evaluation, summation, and analysis of all facts and circumstances of the case, and the complete
accumulate and collection of data.

40. Suicide shall not be counted as crime.

a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No

41. Infractions involving violations of provincial/city/municipal and barangay ordinances shall not be counted.

a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No

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42. The following are suggested strategies that a writer must adhere in writing a report, except:

a. Check and re-check first whether notes on gathered facts are already complete and organized.
b. If notes on gathered facts are sufficient, go back into the process of gathering more facts related to
the situation.
c. Make an outline of the report basing from the completely gathered facts.
d. Use the chronological order of writing in presenting facts and ideas in the written report.
43. This is the basic numbering system which the entire major files are identified with.

a. Identification number
b. Arrest report number
c. Decimal system
d. Case report number

44. This is the number issued to arrested and booked persons who committed criminal offenses or traffic
violations. However, this is not issued to persons who commit minor offenses, or those who just go to the station to
post bond.

a. Identification number
b. Arrest report number
c. Decimal system
d. Case report number

45. This is the control number assigned by the dispatchers for all police reports like traffic accidents, crimes,
and non-criminal situations.

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 a. Identification number
b. Arrest report number
c. Decimal system
d. Case report number

46. This is the number issued by those assigned in the arrest and personal identification service detail. This number
is given once to an arrested person when he is fingerprinted and photographed.

a. Identification number
b. Arrest report number
c. Decimal system
d. Case report number

47. These are records consisting of complaints or assignment sheets which are considered as document source for
analyzing crimes. These are the foundation record of any police department, and written by the desk officer who
makes the complaint or assignment sheet.

a. Case records
b. Arrest record
c. Identification records
d. Miscellaneous records

48. These are records that are not necessarily related to any complaints

a. Case record
b. Arrest record
c. Identification records
d. Miscellaneous records

49. These are records of fingerprint identification which is done in two (2) copies. The first copy is filed in the
central record of the police station, and the second copy is forwarded to the headquarters of the National Bureau of
Investigation.

a. Case record
b. Arrest record
c. Identification records
d. Miscellaneous records

50. Also termed as MC in government offices, these have subjects that explain or classify rules for subordinates to
comply.

a. Office orders
b. Office circular
c. Memorandum circular
d. Circulars

Memorandum – inter-office communication dealing with official matters in the police organization, it is for application,
requiring compliance or dissemination of information for the offices and members of organization

Memorandum Circulars – have subjects explain or classify rules and regulations for subordinates to comply

Circulars – generally, these are coming from DILG to the PNP, these are administrative instructions that are directive,
advisory, and informative.

Office Circulars – administrative instructions requiring compliance from personnel or office dealing with subjects like
delegation of authority, appointment, or assignment of personnel

Office Orders – administrative instructions that are regulatory and mandatory. Mainly for the regulation of
administrative matters in NHQ, Regional, Provincial and District offices

Special Orders – directives signed by the Chief Directorial Staff for the appointment transfer, promotion, reduction,
relief from duty, separation and leave of absence of personnel

Standard Operating Procedure – instructions to be followed on a routinary basis concerning regular procedures.

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51. The part where the words “MEMORANDUM FOR” or “MEMORANDUM TO” can be found.

a. Letterhead
b. Addressee
c. Heading
d. Attention

The words “Memorandum For” is used to send to a superior office and “Memorandum To” if sent to a
subordinate

PARTS OF MEMORANDUM

I.Heading. All the materials above the first line of the body comprise the heading. These are office origin, address,
file reference, identifying initials, date, subject, channels through which the letter will pass, and addressee to whom
the letter is being written.

a)Letter head

Example: Republic of the Philippines National Police Commission PHILIPPINE NATIONAL POLICE SANTA ROSA POLICE
STATION Santa Rosa, Nueva Ecija

b)File Reference. It is called the office symbol. A file reference is placed on the first margin, usually two spaces below
the letter head. It varies according to the individual item of correspondence. Each part of the reference is also used as
identifying information on the second and subsequent pages.

Example: CCPS- IN

c)Identifying Initials. Some offices place the surname or the initials of theoriginator and typist of the letter.

Example: MLVFRJR/ogs/600-3752

d)Addressee. The addressee preceded by “MEMORANDUM FOR” or “MEMORANDUM TO” is written in block style,
with open punctuation, and is normally placed before the file reference.

Example: MEMORANDUM FOR: Provincial Director, NEPPO Example: MEMORANDUM FOR: SP04 Juan Santos Crus
031740 PN

e)In Turn Addressee. When letters are routed to several addressees, the entire address of each office is placed on
a single line as much as possible.

Example: MEMORANDUM TO: Chief, PPHRDB/PIIB/POPB/PCRB/PFLB

Example: MEMORANDUM TO: Provincial Directors, BPPO/NEPPO

f)Attention Line. For faster routing, correspondence maybe addressed to the individual or the head of a subdivision
or by the use of an office symbol. The name is used only when there is a special reason for calling the attention of the
individual known to handle the type of correspondence concerned, and when it is known that he will be at the address.

52. These are types of verified, formal sworn statement of fact signed by an affiant or author, and witnessed by a
notary public. This can be used as evidence in court proceedings.

a. Oath
b. Affidavit
c. Sworn statement
d. Complaint

53. Using chronological order, all the gathered facts, and evidences, related to the case should be sequentially
presented.

a. Initial preparation
b. Final organization of the collected data
c. Preparation of the first draft
d. Rewriting and polishing the report

54. This is the step where the investigator will recheck, edit, and review the rough draft to check the errors, and goes
on rewriting to improve the whole report.

a. Initial preparation
b. Final organization of the collected data
c. Preparation of the first draft

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 d. Rewriting and polishing the report

Steps in Writing an Investigative Report

• Initial Preparation- this is the first step of writing the investigation report where the investigator
determines his purposes and objectives in writing the report. He the gathers the facts and
circumstances related to the case.
• Final Organization of the collected data- using chronological order, all the gathered facts, and
evidence, related to the case should be sequentially presented.
• Preparation of the first draft- just like the second step, the first draft should also follow the
chronological order or presentation. The draft should be based on the outline and should be
presented in a clear manner with the use of appropriate transitions to maintain the coherent flow of
ideas.
• Rewriting and polishing the report- this is the step where the investigator will recheck, edit, and
review the rough draft to check the errors, and goes on rewriting to improve the whole report.
• Finalize the report- this is the last step where the investigator prepares the final report based from
the rewritten and corrected draft.

55. This part is the coherent presentation of all the important facts supported by evidences involving the whole
investigation.

a. Matters investigated
b. Facts of the case
c. Discussion
d. Conclusion

Parts of an Investigation report

• Authority- this part where the investigator cites the authority for making the report, and he states
briefly the date, the place, and the person by whom the investigation is made.
• Matters investigated- this part where the investigator writes the purpose of his report by generally
stating what the investigation is all about. Included in this part are the complaints, and the allegations
of committed crimes.
• Facts of the case- this part is the coherent presentation of all the important facts supported by
evidence involving the whole investigation.
• Discussion- this is the part indicating all the factual information related to the investigation. The
investigator discusses all the circumstances to give the reader a clear picture of the whole
investigation in order to establish the conclusion and recommendation of the report.
• Conclusion- this is the part indicating the summary of the result of the whole investigation process.
The summary should be supported by facts basing from the order of statement of allegations.
• Recommendation- this is the last part which is consistent with the conclusion. This is where the
investigator writes his judgment and the practical suggestions for appropriate actions to be taken,
for proper disposition of the case, for remedy of unsatisfactory situation, and for a recommendation
that a case be closed.

56. A requisite in writing where the police report must be short, with simple sentences, common words and
easy to understand.

a. Clarity
b. Accuracy
c. Brevity
d. Security

Clarity - The police report must be clear and it should be written directly and easy to understand.

Accuracy - The police report must conform with the established rules of syntax, format, spelling and grammar. The
data presented must be precise and the information given must be factual.

Security - The police report must be considered classified, hence, transmission, handling, and access to these reports
should be limited only to police personnel who are granted by higher authority security clearance. It is a top secret
documents.

57. The police report must know what the receiving office needs to know. Important data must not be omitted or
added to conceal responsibilities, to impute liabilities or to favor parties.

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 a. Completeness
b. Impartiality
c. Timeliness
d. Specificity

Specificity - The police report must be specific by using concrete examples. A good descriptive narration gives life to
the written words through particular terms that project hues, movements, quantities and shapes.

Completeness - The police report must be complete by using the 5W‘s and 1H.

Timeliness -The police report must be submitted on time. As much as possible immediately after the incident has
happened.

58. Is a question that will contain the facts relating to any person who directly or indirectly associated with the
incident.

a. Who
b. What
c. Where
d. Why

59. It is usually a letter or memorandum, or any of one of the many prescribed in day-to-day police operations.

a. Informal Reports
b. Formal reports
c. Spot report
d. After-operation report

FORMAL REPORT This covers an exact and exhaustive narration of facts. It suggests a full-dress treatment,
including cover, title page, letter of transmittal, summary sheet, text, appendixes, and perhaps an index and
bibliography.

60. This is written by a police unit or office based from a directive or instruction from higher police officers.
This type of report follows the memorandum format of correspondence.

a. Spot report
b. Special report
c. Wanted Person report
d. Arrest Report

SPECIAL REPORT is prepared and presented not as a matter of routine. This is prepared on the basis of some inquiry
or investigation either by a single individual or by a body or a committee or a sub-committee or a commission specially
formed and entrusted with the duty

SPOT REPORT- this is a verbal or written report done within twenty-four hours after an important incident.

WANTED PERSON REPORT – Using the notice on wanted person, this report is about those persons who are by the
police.

ARREST REPORT – this is a report that documents all the events in arresting a suspect including personal information,
jail bookings, information about control and release of prisoners, and court proceedings.

CRIME REPORT – these are reports written after the conclusion from preliminary investigation that a crime truly
happened.

MISCELLANEOUS INCIDENT REPORT ALSO KNOWN AS MI REPORT – this is used to document any incident,
situation, or circumstances that are nor crimes, or may not be designated by a particular title

PROGRESS REPORT - It is an accounting of the actions or series of actions undertaken in relation to an ongoing
investigation of a case. Refers to follow-up report submitted by a police officer after conducting further investigation
of a particular incident.

FINAL REPORT - Refers to an accomplishment report written by a police officer after the investigation is completed
and the case has been filed against the suspect/s. In some cases, progress report can also be final report especially if
the investigation has been terminated at that level

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SITUATION REPORT (SITREP) - The SITREP is a form of status reporting that provides decision-makers and readers
a quick understanding of the current situation. It provides a clear, concise understanding of the situation – focusing on
meaning or context, in addition to the facts

61. This is similar to patrol report which is submitted every eight hours but on a need-only basis.

a. Spot report
b. crime report
c. Situation report
d. Miscellaneous incident report

62. This is a written narration of facts developed by the investigator in the course of the follow-up investigation.

a. Initial Report
b. Advance report
c. Progress report
d. Final report

63. This part where the investigator cites the authority for making the report, and he states briefly the date, the
place, and the person by whom the investigation is made.

a. Authority
b. Matters investigated
c. Facts of the case
d. Conclusion

64. This is where the investigator writes his judgment and the practical suggestions for appropriate actions to
be taken, for proper disposition of the case, for remedy of unsatisfactory situation, and for a recommendation that a
case be closed.

a. Discussion
b. Conclusion
c. Recommendation
d. Authority

65. This is the first step of writing the investigation report where the investigator determines his purposes and
objectives in writing the report. He the gathers the facts and circumstances related to the case.

a. Initial preparation
b. Final organization of the collected data
c. Preparation of the first draft
d. Rewriting and polishing the report

66. This part is where the investigator writes the purpose of his report by generally stating what the investigation
is all about. Included in this part are the complaints, and the allegations of committed crimes.

a. Matters investigated
b. Facts of the case
c. Discussion
d. Conclusion

67. A complete written narration of facts based from a thorough investigation of the case. This is a result of
evaluation, summation, and analysis of all facts and circumstances of the case, and the complete accumulate and
collection of data.

a. Progress report
b. Final report
c. Traffic accident report
d. Advance report

68. This is an advance information on a new or fresh case an investigator; the data in this report is not yet complete,
but it is written and immediately submitted after the preliminary investigation of the case.

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 a. Progress report
b. Final report
c. Traffic accident report
d. Advance report

69. These are reports written after the conclusion from preliminary investigation that a crime truly happened.
This report also includes important factors like corpus delicti (elements of the crime), suspect descriptions, properties
taken, evidences collected, property damages, victims’ injuries, and suspects’ modus operandi.

a. Beat Inspection report

b. Arrest report
c. Wanted person report
d. Crime report

70. This report is written by the officer who investigates the accident. This type of report documents all the
facts and information about any vehicular accident whether it is fatal or non-fatal.

a. Progress report
b. Final report
c. Traffic accident report
d. Advance report

71. This is a verbal or written report done within twenty- four hours after an important incident. This report is
written to inform an immediate chief or those in higher position of particular occurrences in his command responsibility

a. Spot report
b. Basic report
c. Special report
d. Formal report

72. Using the notice on wanted person, this report is about those persons who are by the police.

a. Beat Inspection report

b. Arrest report
c. Wanted person report
d. Crime report

73. This is one of the widely practiced written forms of communication in a station. This is a routine report because
the duty beat supervisor submits this report daily.

a. Beat Inspection report

b. Arrest report
c. Wanted person report
d. Crime report

74. These are reports that are mostly related with ordinary, miscellaneous incidents, usually in letter or
memorandum form.

a. Spot report
b. Basic report
c. Special report
d. Formal report

75. These are written reports on the methods of logical gathering and presentation of data. Examples of these
reports about facts and figures of terrorism, Drug trafficking, Human Trafficking, etc.

a. Problem solution reports

b. Fact-finding reports
c. Performance reports
d. Problem determining reports

76. These are written reports referring to information on the status of the activity or operation within a unit or
organization.

a. Problem solution reports

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 b. Fact-finding reports
c. Performance reports
d. Problem determining reports

77. A logbook that contains the daily registry of all crime incident reports, official summaries of arrests, and other
significant events reported in a police station. (PNP Manual Revised 2010)

a. Manual
b. Police Blotter
c. Record
d. Reports

TWO TYPES OF POLICE BLOTTER

1. BLUE BLOTTER - It contains the daily registry of all crime incident reports, official summaries of arrest, and other
significant events reported in a Police station/Unit

2. PINK BLOTTER – It contains the daily registry of all crime incident reports involving VAWC, Trafficking in Person,
and other Gender-Based Violence such as those provided for in PNP policies and Philippine laws.

78. A message which has two or more addressee and is of such nature that the originator considers that no
addressee needs to be informed of the identity of other addressee.

a. Single
b. Book
c. Multiple
d. Dual

There are three types of messages:

1)Single. A message which has only one addressee.

2)Book. A message which has two or more addressee and is of such nature that the originator considers that no
addressee needs to be informed of the identity of other addressee.

3)Multiple. A message which has two or more addressee, and is of such nature that the originator considers that
each addressee must be aware of all the addressee to whom the message is addressed.

79. The person who actually composes a message.

a. Originator
b. Drafter
c. Releasing officer
d. Text

Originator. The originator of a message is the authority of the message sent, or is the police office or unit in
whose name a message is sent or is the police office or unit under the direct control of the authority approving a
message for transmission.

Drafter. A drafter is the person who actually composes a message.

Releasing Officer. A releasing officer is the person who may authorize the transmission of a message.

Text. The text is the part of a message which contains the idea that the originator desires to communicate. It may
also contain internal instructions that are necessary to obtain special handling.

80. This primarily aimed at transmitting papers from office to office within a police unit or station, or from
branch to branch, within an office.

a. Memorandum circulars
b. Routing Slip
c. Formal letter
d. Circulars

81. It is a note, a reminder, or a statement that one wishes to remember or preserve for future use.

a. Circulars

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 b. Memorandum
c. Memorandum Circular
d. Office circulars

82. This is used by a subordinate official in communicating to a superior on matters which are
recommendatory/advisory or informative in nature, briefings, or reports.

a. MEMORANDUM FOR
b. MEMORANDUM TO
c. Memorandum
d. Memorandum Circular

83. In counting of crime incidents, only consummated, and not, statutory rapes shall be included.

a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. No

84. Only consummated carnapping cases are to be recorded.

a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. No

85. Attempted and Frustrated homicide cases which result to injuries to the victim(s) are counted as ___________
cases.

a. Physical injury
b. Frustrated homicide
c. Attempted homicide
d. Homicide

86. It is a written order of the court, or any agency authorized by law to issue, entrusting an inmate to a jail for the
purpose of safekeeping during the pendency of his/her case.

a. Warrant
b. Writ
c. Mittimus
d. Commitment order

87. ____ is a mandate requiring the appearance of the defendant in the action in court under the penalty of
having judgment entered (against him or her) for failure to do so. The object of the summons is to notify the defendant
that he or she has been sued

a. Subpoena
b. Summons
c. Warrant
d. Petition

Subpoena - It is a writ directed to a person and requiring his attendance at a particular time and place, to
testify as a witness. It may also require him to bring with him any books, documents, or other things under his
control, which he is bound by law to produce in evidence, in which case it is called a subpoena duces tecum.

88. This is an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the prosecutor and filed with the
court

a. Affidavit
b. Complaint
c. Information
d. Admin charge

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89. Defined as a daily record of events within the territories of a police unit, it contains daily material concerning events
for legal and statistical purposes. (PNP Circular No.5)

a. Manual
b. Police Blotter
c. Record
d. Reports

90. PCPL Dela Cruz is an investigator who is investigating a particular case. He shall write an _________________ that
will provide permanent official record of the pertinent information procured during the course of investigation.

a. Investigation report
b. Arrest report
c. Wanted person report
d. Crime report

91. A search warrant shall be issued only upon _________ in connection with one specific offense to be determined
personally by the judge.

a. Reasonable suspicion
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. Probable cause
d. Hearsay

92. The authorization for wiretapping shall be effective for the period specified in the order which shall not exceed
________ days from the date of issuance of the order, unless extended or renewed by the court upon being satisfied
that such extension or renewal is in the public interest.

a. 30
b. 60
c. 10
d. 180

93. The following are Requirements on the Application for the Treatment and Rehabilitation of Drug Dependents,
except;

a. Drug Dependency Examination

b. PNP Clearance
c. Barangay Clearance
d. Certificate of No Pending Case from the Regional Trial Court and/or Municipal Trial Court (MTC).

Requirements on the Application for the Treatment and Rehabilitation of Drug Dependents:

1. Drug Dependency Examination (DDE)

a. Drug dependents may directly set an appointment with a DOH-accredited Physician for DDE.

b. He/she may also secure a referral form for the DDE from the Legal Division of the Dangerous Drugs Board.

c. If a drug dependent resides outside Metro Manila, he/she may coordinate with the nearest Treatment and
Rehabilitation Center or Anti-Drug Abuse Council in his/her place of residence.

2. Philippine National Police (PNP) Clearance

3. Certificate of No Pending Case from the Regional Trial Court and/or Municipal Trial Court (MTC).

a. If a minor drug dependent has a pending case, secure a Certificate of Suspension of Proceedings from the
RTC or MTC where the case was filed.

If an adult drug dependent, secure a certificate of Dismissed Case from the RTC or MTC where the case was
filed or Certificate that the proceeding is suspended

94. If a minor drug dependent has a pending case, secure a ________ from the RTC or MTC where the case was filed.

a. Certificate of Suspension of Proceedings

b. Certificate of Dismissed Case
c. Certificate of Proceedings
d. Court Certificate

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95. If an adult drug dependent, secure a ________ from the RTC or MTC where the case was filed or Certificate that
the proceeding is suspended.

a. Certificate of Suspension of Proceedings

b. Certificate of Dismissed Case
c. Certificate of Proceedings
d. Court Certificate

96. The following are Steps on Treatment and Rehabilitation of Drug Dependent (Voluntary Submission, Voluntary thru
Representation and Compulsory Confinement), except;

a. Secure referral form and other requirements for Drug Dependency Examination (DDE) at the Legal Affairs
Division, PDEA
b. DDE is conducted by a DOH-accredited physician. For voluntary confinement, submit the result of the Drug
Dependency Examination together with the other requirements to the Legal Division of the Dangerous
Drugs Board.
c. The DDB Legal will process the petition for confinement (pre-signed by DDB Authorized Representative)
prior to the release of petition filed by applicant with the RTC.
d. None of the above

97. A search warrant must be served within ______ days from its date thereafter, it shall be void.

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

98. The search must be made at nighttime, unless otherwise stated.

a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No

99. Generally, articles not included in the Search Warrant ________.

a. may be seized
b. may not be seized
c. may or may not be seized
d. None of the above.

100. The facts and information of a blotter entry shall at first be recorded in the _______.

a. Police blotter
b. Incident Record Form
c. Report form
d. Blue book

INTRODUCTION TO CYBERCRIME WITH ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS AND PROTECTION

1. ____________ acts as digital fingerprints since they are unique to the original data they reference.

a. Hash Algorithm
b. Message Digest 5
c. Secure Hash Algorithm
d. Hash Values

2. The first step in the forensic process and is critical to ensure the integrity of the evidence.

a. Identification – explains and documents the origin of evidence – determine its significance
b. Data Acquisition – retrieval – imaging, getting the exact copy – verification – final step – preservation
of digital evidence
c. Examination – interpret and reconstruct the digital crime sccene
d. Reporting – finalization of report for court presentation

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3. it authorized law enforcement officers to carry out any or all of the following activities: listen, record, monitor
surveillance of the content of communications.

A. Warrant to Disclose Computer Data

B. Warrant to Intercept Computer Data
C. Warrant to Search, Seizure, and Examination of Computer Data
D. Warrant to Examine Computer Data

WARRANT TO DISCLOSE COMPUTER DATA - order to disclose and accordingly, require any person or service
provider to disclose or submit subscriber’s information, traffic data, or relevant data in his/her or its possession or
control – within 72 hours from the receipt of order

THE WARRANTS TO INTERCEPT COMPUTER DATA, an order in writing which authorizes the listening, recording,
monitoring, or surveillance of the content of communications through the use of a computer system, electronic
eavesdropping or tapping devices;

WARRANTS TO EXAMINE COMPUTER DATA - which is a requirement by the law enforcement authorities before
searching the computer system of the lawfully arrested person/s in order to gain forensic examination of latter’s
computer data;

HOW LONG ARE CYBERCRIME WARRANTS VALID?

Section 2.5. Effective Period of Warrants. – Any warrant issued under this Rule shall only be effective for the length of
time as determined by the court, which shall not exceed a period of ten (10) days from its issuance. The court
issuing the warrant may, upon motion, extend its effectivity based only on justifiable reasons for a period not exceeding
ten (10) days from the expiration of the original period

4. Requires any person or service provided to disclose subscriber`s information, traffic data, or relevant data in his/her
or its possession or control within 72 hours from receipt of the order.

A. Warrant to Disclose Computer Data

B. Warrant to Intercept Computer Data
C. Warrant to Search, Seizure, and Examination of Computer Data
D. Warrant to Examine Computer Data

5. Who has the power to formulate a national cyber security plan and extend immediate assistance for the suppression
of real-time commission of cybercrime offenses

A. CERT
B. CICC - cybercrime investigation and
C. coordinating center
D. NBI
E. PNP

6. Who shall head the CICC?

A. Director of the NBI

B. Chief of the PNP
C. Executive Director of ICTO-DOST – information and communications technology office
D. Head of the DOJ

7. A representative from the private sector and academe should also be a part of the CICC.

A. True
B. False
C. Partly True
D. Partly False

8. Thereby created an Office of Cybercrime within the ______ designated as the central authority in all matters
related to international mutual assistance and extradition an inter-agency body

A. NBI
B. PNP
C. DOJ
D. Office of the President

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9. Any person who willfully abets or aids in the commission of any of the offenses enumerated in this Act shall
be held liable.

A. Frustrated in the Commission of Cybercrime

B. Attempt in the Commission of Cybercrime
C. Aiding or Abetting in the Commission of Cybercrime
D. None of the Above

10. Any person who willfully attempts to commit any of the offenses enumerated in this Act shall be held liable.

A. Attempt in the Commission of Cybercrime

B. Frustrated in the Commission of Cybercrime
C. Aiding or Abetting in the Commission of Cybercrime
D. None of the Above

11. The transmission of commercial electronic communication with the use of computer system which seek to
advertise, sell or offer for sale products and services are prohibited.

A. Cybersex
B. Virtual sex
C. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
D. Child Pornography

12. It is the willful engagement, maintenance, control, or operation, directly or indirectly of any lascivious exhibition
of sexual organs or sexual activity, with the aid of a computer system, for favor or consideration.

A. Child Pornography
B. Cybersex
C. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
D. Virtual sex

13. The input, alteration, or deletion of any computer data without right resulting in inauthentic data with the intent
that it be considered or acted upon for legal purposes as if it were authentic, regardless whether or not the data is
directly readable and intelligible

A. Computer-Related Forgery
B. Computer-Related Fraud
C. Computer-Related Identity Theft
D. Misuse of Devices

Example:

a. sending of an email to targets with a website link for users to click on, which might either download malware onto
the users’ digital devices.

b. sends users to a malicious website that is designed to steal users’ credentials (phishing).

COMPUTER RELATED FRAUD –The unauthorized “Input, alteration or deletion of computer data or
program, or interference in the functioning of a computer system, causing damage thereby with
fraudulent intent

COMPUTER-RELATED IDENTITY THEFT - the intentional acquisition, use, misuse, transfer, possession,
alteration or deletion of identifying information belonging to another, whether natural or juridical, without
right

14. The acquisition of a domain name over the internet in bad faith to profit, mislead, destroy reputation, and
deprive others from registering the same.

A. Cybersquatting
B. Misuse of Devices
C. Computer-Related Forgery
D. Computer-Related Fraud

15. The intentional alteration on reckless hindering or interference with the functioning of a computer or
computer network by inputting, transmitting, damaging, deleting, deteriorating, altering or suppressing computer

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data or program, electronic document, or electronic data message, without right or authority including the introduction
or transmission of viruses.

A. Cybersquatting
B. Data Interference
C. System Interference
D. Illegal Interference
DATA INTERFERENCE – the intentional or reckless alteration, damaging, deletion or deterioration of
computer data, electronic document, or electronic data message, without right, including the introduction
or transmission of viruses.

16. The use, production, sale, procurement, importation, distribution, or otherwise making available, without right.

A. Illegal Access
B. Cybersquatting
C. Data Interference
D. Misuse of Devices

17. The intentional or reckless alteration, damaging, deletion or deterioration of computer data, electronic document,
or electronic data message, without right, including the introduction or transmission of viruses.

A. Illegal Access
B. Data Interference
C. Data Interception
D. Illegal Access

18. Made by technical means without the right of any non-public transmission of computer data to, from, or
within a computer system including electromagnetic emissions from a computer system carrying such computer.

A. Illegal Interception
B. Illegal Access
C. Data Interference
D. Data Interception

Example:

a. Illicit copying of computer program or data files or wiretapping to obtain data in a network.

ILLEGAL ACCESS – the access to the whole or any part of a computer system without right

Example: a. Hacking

19. Any means of account access that can be used to obtain money, good, services, or any other thing of value or
to initiate a transfer of funds.

A. Access Device
B. Accessible Device
C. Access Gadget
D. Accessible Gadget

20. Designated the DOJ as the central authority in all matters that relates to Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty (MLAT)
and extradition for cybercrime and cybercrime related offenses.

A. RA 4200 – Anti- wiretapping act of 1965

B. RA 8484 - Access devices regulation act of 1998
C. RA 10185
D. RA 10175 – Cybercrime Prevention act of 2012

21. International cooperation and prosecution of cybercrime.

a. Group 8 – Group of 8 – FUCUJIG and Russia

b. Budapest Convention (2001)
c. Budapest Convention (2002)

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 d. Group 7 - Group of 7 – France, US, Canada, UK, Japan, Italy, Germany

22. A type of scam in which criminals attempt to obtain someone's personal information by pretending to be
a legitimate business, neighbor or some other innocent party.

A. Spoofing
B. Scamming
C. Pharming – redirects user to a fake website to steal their credentials
D. Phishing - solicitation of sensitive information through fake websites

23. A type of malware that enables the remote monitoring of a computer user`s activities or information on an
individual’s computer when this software has been installed.

A. Keyloggers - the keylogger software records every keystroke on the victim's device and sends it to the attacker
B. Sniffers
C. Spyware
D. Malicious Software

24. A type of software that is used to monitor and analyze networks, but can also be used to collect individual’s`
usernames and passwords and other personal information.

A. Keyloggers
B. Eavesdroppers
C. Spy
D. Sniffers

25. A malware which is hidden inside what appears to be legitimate software or download.

A. Worm - propagate or self-replicate from one computer to another without human activation after breaching
a system.
B. Bundlers
C. Backdoor – used to get unauthorized access to a website
D. Trojan Horses

26. A type of malware that tricks the computer user into thinking that it is a legitimate software but actually
contains hidden functions.

A. Trojan Horses
B. Dark Horses
C. Backdoor
D. Virus

27. A hacking technique where the attacker can buy advertising spaces on the websites and when a user clicks on the
ad, he might get directed to a page that's infected with malware.

A. Cookie Theft
B. Virus
C. Bait and Switch
D. Click Jacking

28. Illegal Copyright Infringement is referred to as _____________.

A. War
B. Source
C. Fraud
D. Warez

29. In the past decades, groups of individuals have been working together to illegally obtain software and then "crack"
or "rip" its copyright protections before posting it on the internet.

A. Illegal Copyright Infringement

B. Denial of Service Attack
C. Distributing Illegal Sexual Material
D. Internet Securities Fraud

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30. Some internet criminals threaten to or actually flood an internet site with millions of bogus messages
and/or orders so that site services will be tied up and unable to perform as promised.

A. Internet Securities Fraud

B. Illegal Copyright Infringement
C. Distributing Illegal Sexual Material
D. Denial of Service Attack

31. It refers to the technologies that facilitate the transmission of data across the network.

A. Computer
B. Laptop
C. Internet
D. Electronics

32. It is the fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information such as usernames, passwords and credit
card details by disguising oneself as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication.

A. Fishing
B. Spamming
C. Cyberstalking
D. Phishing

33. It is also known as identity fraud, is a crime in which an imposter obtains key pieces of personally identifiable
information, such as Social Security or driver's license numbers, in order to impersonate someone else.

A. Carding
B. Bank fraud
C. Extortion
D. Identity theft

34. In computer related crimes, it is the use of potentially illegal means to obtain money, assets, or other property
owned or held by a financial institution, or to obtain money from depositors by fraudulently posing as a bank or
other financial institution.

A. Bank fraud
B. Financial crimes – act of deception involving financial transactions
C. Computer fraud – uses a computer to conduct illegal activity with the intent to alter, damage, or
disable another party's property.
D. Internet fraud – scam someone else using internet

35. When was the year that the first recorded cybercrime took place?

A. 1866
B. 1890
C. 1843
D. 1820

36. It is the manipulation of telecommunications carriers to gain knowledge telecommunications, and or theft of
applicable service.

A. Hacking
B. Crackers
C. Phreaking
D. Kicking

37. Who developed and demonstrated the television system?

A. Vladimir Zworyki
B. Ben Armstrong
C. Alexander Bell - telephone
D. Emile Bandot

38. He developed the electric telegraph in which letters of the English alphabet are represented by a sequence of
dots and dashes.

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 A. Samuel Morse
B. Alessandro Morse
C. Graham Bell
D. Gugliermo Marconi

39. What are the earliest inventions of great significance to communication by Alessandro Volta?

A. computer and calculator

B. Laptop and telephone
C. Telegraph and camera
D. Telephone and telegraph

40. There are two modes of committing cybercrime, except?

A. Through the means of Digital Devices, ICT Devices, Computer

B. Both A and C
C. The Computer, Network itself is the target of the attack
D. The cords, electrical wires are the target of the attack

41. It is defined as offenses that are committed against individuals or groups of individuals with a criminal motive to
intentionally harm, using modern telecommunication networks.

A. Cyber offense
B. Cyber libel
C. Cybercrime
D. Crime

42. A type of spyware that records every keystroke of the user and report this information back to its source.

A. Spyware
B. Keyloggers
C. sniffers
D. Spoofing

43. Are compromised computers attached to the internet which are often used to remotely perform malicious or
criminal tasks.

A. Bots
B. Botnets
C. Zombies
D. All of the above

Once a cybercriminal (or bot herder) has control of a group of infected devices (composing a botnet) they can remotely
command every device to simultaneously carry out coordinated activities, including malicious and criminal activities

44. It is a group of hackers from around the world who meet on online message boards and social networking forums
encouraging civil disobedience and/or unrest via denial-of-service attacks, publishing victim’s personal
information online, as well as defacing and defaming websites.

A. Anonymous
B. Jonathan James
C. Andrian Lamo
D. Kevin Mitnick

WHITE HAT HACKERS

Also known as ethical hackers, strive to operate in the public’s best interest, rather than to create turmoil. Many
white hat hackers work doing penetration, hired to attempt to break into the company’s networks to find and report
on security vulnerabilities. The security firms then help their customers mitigate security issues before criminal hackers
can exploit them.

BLACK HAT HACKERS

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Intentionally gain unauthorized access to networks and systems with malicious intent, whether to steal
data, spread malware or profit from ransomware, vandalize or otherwise damage systems or for any other reason
including gaining notoriety. Black hat hackers are criminals by definition because they violate laws against accessing
systems without authorization, but they may also engage in other illegal activity, including identity theft and distributed
denial-of-service attacks

GRAY HAT HACKERS

Fall somewhere between white hat hackers and black hat hackers. While their motives may be similar to those
of white hat hackers, gray hats are more likely than white hat hackers to access systems without authorization; at the
same time, they are more likely than black hat hackers to avoid doing unnecessary damage to the systems they hack.
Although they aren’t typically-or only-motivated by money, gray hat hackers nay offer to fix vulnerabilities they have
discovered through their own, unauthorized, activities rather than using their knowledge to exploit vulnerabilities for
illegal profit.

45. Hackers target the most accessed physical location to attack the victim like a coffee shop, a cafeteria, etc. and they
might create a fake Wi-Fi access point and modify your most visited website to redirect them to you to get your
personal information.

A. Eavesdropping (Passive Attacks)

B. Waterhole attacks
C. Virus, Trojan etc.
D. Phishing

46. In this attack, the hacker hides the actual User Interface (UI) where the victim is supposed to click.

A. Bait and switch

B. Cookie theft
C. Fake WAP
D. ClickJacking Attacks

47. A person who gains unauthorized access to computer files or networks in order to further social or political
ends.

A. Cybercriminal
B. Hacker
C. Cracker
D. Hacktivist

48. They have the knowledge of black hats but decided to be on the right side of the law. They work doing penetration,
hired to attempt to break into the company's networks to find and report on security vulnerabilities.

A. Black-hat - malicious
B. Gray-hat – for fun
C. White-hat
D. Green-hat

49. Individuals whose intent is wreaking havoc via internet, this category includes vandalism, destructive
programs, and general mischief for no economic gain.

A. Script Kiddie – novice hackers or lowest form of hackers

B. Cyberpunks
C. Hackers
D. Crackers

50. It is used to refer to the spaces within computers and the spaces between computers (across networks)
where people interact with information and with each other.

A. Cyber security
B. Cyberspace - William Gibson
C. cybercrime
D. computer space

51. It occurs when a person uses the internet to steal someone's identity and/ or impersonate them to open a
new credit card account or conduct some financial transactions.

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 A. Computer forgery
B. Ponzi scheme - investment scam that involves the payment of purported returns to existing investors from
funds contributed by new investors.
C. Identity theft
D. Ponzi scheme

52. This is a global array of computers connected by a high-speed reliable network. it connects millions of
computers, allowing for the rapid exchange of information, education, military, criminal justice system and business
professionals as well as researchers using the system to send and retrieve information.

A. Internet
B. WIFI – wireless fidelity – lasting support
C. Website
D. Cyber security

53. Its focus on intercepting data such as password, usernames, email messages, and even secret data using sniffing
software.

A. Counter-attack
B. Active attack
C. Passive attack
D. Negative attack

54. A practice to protect a subject against cybercrime.

A. Cyber protect
B. Cyber law
C. Anti-virus
D. Cyber security

55. The first ransomware virus created in the year 1989 by Joseph L. Popp.

A. “AIDS Information – Introductory Diskettes”

B. denial of service attack
C. Love Bug
D. Malwares

Malware is any software used to gain unauthorized access to IT systems in order to steal data, disrupt system services
or damage IT networks in any way. Ransomware is a type of malware identified by specified data or systems being
held captive by attackers until a form of payment or ransom is provided.

56. In 1976, first spam email took place when it was sent out over the __________.

A. Internet
B. ARPANET – forerunner of internet – advanced research projects agency network
C. web
D. computer

57. This crime occurs when individuals make securities recommendations and fail to disclose that they are being paid
to disseminate their favorable opinions.

A. Market Manipulation
B. Embezzlement
C. Illegal Touting - advertising, or promoting something or someone, especially in a persistent or annoying way
D. Fraudulent Offering of Securities

58. They have the knowledge of black hats but decided to be on the right side of the law.

A. Black Hats
B. Hackers
C. Gray Hat
D. White Hat

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59. These are malicious software programs which get installed into the victim’s system and keep sending the victims
data to the hacker.

A. Virus, Trojan, etc.

B. Cookie Theft
C. DoS/DDoS
D. Fake WAP

60. He was convicted of a number of criminal computer crimes after evading authorities for two and a half years. Once
one of the FBI's Most Wanted for hacking into networks of 40 high-profile corporation.

A. Anonymous
B. Kevin Mitnick
C. Adrian Lamo – homeless hacker
D. Jonathan James - the first juvenile incarcerated for cybercrime in the United States

61. An advance form of phishing which redirects the connection between an IP Address and its target server.

A. Spoofing
B. Redirectors
C. Pharming
D. Floating Windows

62. The process of making an exact copy of the original drive onto a new digital storage device.

A. WDCD
B. WICD
C. WECD
D. WDCD

63. He was the creator of the “I love you virus.”

A. Onel De Jesus
B. Onel De Guzman
C. Jonel De Jesus
D. Jonel De Guzman

Filipino Onel de Guzman, now 44, says he unleashed the “Love Bug” computer worm to steal passwords so
he could access the internet without paying. The Love Bug outbreak began on 4 May, 2000. Victims were
tricked into opening an email attachment entitled LOVE-LETTER-FOR-YOU. A virus hidden in the attachment
overwrote files, stole passwords, and automatically sent copies of itself to all contacts in the victim’s Microsoft
Outlook address book.

64. Known as “Data Privacy Act of 2012”

A. Republic Act 8792

B. Republic Act 10173
C. Republic Act 9995
D. Republic Act 10175

65. It is a hacking technique using which a hacker replicates the most-accessed sites and traps the victim by
sending that spoofed link.

A. Bait and Switch

B. Cookie Theft
C. Phishing
D. Eavesdropping

66. It is generally used to describe a person with these skills who decides to apply them toward a damaging or
illegal purpose.

A. Hacker
B. Hacking

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 C. Cracking
D. Hacktivist

67. It is the lowest life form of cybercriminal, they are generally not capable of writing their own programs.

A. Script Kiddie
B. Hacker or Crackers
C. Cybercriminal organizations
D. Cyberpunks

68. An approach to prevent any cyber attacks.

A. Computer Incident Response

B. Computer Forensics
C. Cybercrime Prevention Act
D. Computer Security Incident

69. RA 10175

A. Cybercrime Preventative Act of 2011

B. Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012
C. Cybercrime Preventative Act of 2012
D. Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2011

70. An organized approach to addressing and managing the aftermath of a security breach or cyberattack

A. Computer Security Incident

B. Computer Forensics
C. Computer Incident Response
D. Digital Forensic

71. Crime that leaves digital tracks

A. Computer Worm
B. Trojan Horse
C. DoS Attack
D. Embezzlement

72. Large enough in scale and magnitude in which a significant impact can be felt in both regarding cost and
human emotion

A. Cybercrime
B. Cyber Terrorism
C. Cyber Threats
D. Cyber-attacks

73. It is the discipline that combines the elements of law and computer science to collect and analyze data from
computer systems, networks, wireless communications, and storage devices in a way that is admissible as evidence in
a court of law.

a. Computer Forensics
b. Computer Incident Response
c. Digital Forensics
d. Computer Security Incident

74. Known as Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009

A. RA 9262
B. RA 9775
C. RA 9372
D. RA 8792

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75. An example of computer used to commit a crime

A. E-mail Spam
B. DoS Attack
C. Scanning a System
D. Malicious Code

76. The following are definitions of “Forensics” except

A. short term of Forensic Science

B. use of science in administration of justice
C. not a plural of Forensic
D. came from the Latin word “forensis” - FORENSIC

77. Use of gear method that destroys coral reefs, seagrass beds, and other fishery marine life habitat.

A. Illegal fishing
B. Muro-Ami
C. Use of fish mesh net
D. Use of superlights

In muro-ami, the divers who are mostly children make their catch by scaring the fishes and forcing them to go out of
their corals and lead them into a net by pounding the corals which serve as the fish’ abode.

78. It is an act to control toxic substances and hazardous and nuclear wastes, providing penalties for violations
thereof, and for other purposes.

A. RA 4850
B. RA 6969
C. RA 3751
D. RA 7076

79. This decree is known as Marine Pollution Decree of 1976.

A. PD 979
B. PD 1067
C. PD 1151
D. PD 1433

80. It is the rapid loss of trees and vegetation, as well as the underlying habits that make up forests.

A. Illegal logging
B. Deforestation
C. Global warming
D. Illegal cutting

81. It is a dense layer of ozone gas. It protects us form the dangerous ultraviolet rays of the sun.

A. Clouds
B. Ozone layer
C. Biodiversity
D. Solar System

82. It is the law the was enacted that penalized the crime of photo and video voyeurism.

A. RA 4200
B. RA 8484
C. RA 10175
D. RA 9995

The Anti-Photo and Video Voyeurism Act prohibits the following acts:

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1. The unconsented taking of a photo or video of a person or group of persons engaged in a sexual act or any similar
activity, or capturing an image of the private area of a person, under circumstances in which the said person has a
reasonable expectation of privacy;

2. The copying or reproduction of such photo or video recording of the sexual act;

What does the “private area of a person” include?

The “private area of a person” includes naked or undergarment-clad genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or the female
breast.

The persons in the photo knew and consented to the video recording or taking of the photo; can I reproduce, distribute,
or broadcast it?

If the person or persons in the photo or video gave written consent for the reproduction, distribution, or broadcasting
of said material, then one will not be held liable under the Anti-Photo and Video Voyeurism Act.

However, if the person merely consented to the taking of the photo or the video recording and did not give written
consent for its reproduction, distribution, and broadcasting, then anyone committing the said acts shall be held liable
under R.A. 9995.

83. The law the prohibits unlawful listening private conversations.

A. RA 4200
B. RA 8484
C. RA 10175
D. RA 9995

84. An offense committed when the accused have access to the whole or any part of a computer system
without right.

A. Illegal Access
B. Illegal Interception
C. Data Interference
D. System Interference

85. Can be described as a software program that is designed to spread itself to other computers and to damage or
disrupt a computer such as interrupting communications.

A. Virus
B. Backdoor
C. Trojan horses
D. Computer worm

86. A type of malware that enables the remote monitoring of a computer user’s activities or information on an
individual’s computer when this software has been installed

A. Spyware
B. Trojan horses
C. Virus
D. Computer worms

87. The goal of ___ is to determine and uncover evidence that verifies or denies a suspension and support a legal
proceeding

A. Digital Forensics
B. Cybersecurity
C. Cybercrime
D. Digital Security

88. The part of the computer where all other computer components are connected.

A. Motherboard
B. RAM
C. Processor
D. Circuit Board

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89. The ______ is the process of using mathematical algorithm against data to produce a numeric value that is
representative of that data.

A. Imaging
B. Cloning
C. Hashing
D. Computing

90. He is considered as the creator of the 1st internet worm in 1988.

A. Robert Morris Jr.

B. Kevin Poulsen
C. Kevin Mitnick
D. David Smith

91. Immediate physical and social setting in which people live or in which something happens or develops

A. Built Environment
B. Manmade Environment
C. Social Environment
D. Natural Environment

92. Shall refer to waste generated from planting or harvesting of crops, trimming or pruning of plants and
wastes or run-off materials from farms or fields

A. Agricultural Waste
B. Bulky Waste – discarded furniture, large appliances
C. Municipal Waste
D. Consumer Electronics

93. Shall refer to the controlled decomposition of organic matter by micro-organisms, mainly bacteria and fungi,
into a humus-like product

A. Buy-back Center - pay a fee to waste collectors for the delivery of recyclables in the areas which they operate
B. Composting
C. Controlled Dump - It is a method of disposing of all kinds of waste in a designated area of land by
waste collectors and it is usually controlled by the State or City Government.
D. Agricultural Waste

94. Shall refer to solid waste or combination of solid waste which because of its quantity, concentration, or physical,
chemical or infectious characteristics.

A. Hazardous Waste
B. Generation
C. Leachate
D. Controlled Dump

95. Shall refer to household hazardous wastes such as paints, thinners, household batteries, lead-acid
batteries, spray canisters and the like.

A. Solid Waste
B. Special Waste
C. White Goods
D. Yard Waste

96. Shall refer to the liquid produced when waste undergo decomposition, and when water percolate through
solid waste undergoing decomposition.

A. Municipal Waste
B. Post-Consumer Material
C. Leachate
D. Special Wastes

97. Shall refer to a solid waste management practice of separating different materials found in solid waste in order to
promote recycling and re-use of resources and to reduce the volume of waste for collection and disposal.

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 A. Re-use
B. Segregation
C. Composting
D. Recycle

98. Shall refer to a disposal area wherein the solid wastes are indiscriminately thrown or disposed of without
due planning and consideration for environmental and health standards.

A. Open Dump
B. Municipal Waste
C. Materials Recovery Facility
D. Controlled Dump

99. Shall refer to the act or process of producing solid waste.

A. Composting
B. Materials Recovery Facility
C. Segregation
D. Generation

100. Shall refer to a recycling center that purchases or otherwise accepts recyclable materials from the public for the
purpose of recycling such materials.

a. Materials Recovery Facility

b. Municipal Waste
c. Buy-back Center
d. Controlled Dump

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