Section A
1. Which testing is generally used for software maintenance?
a. Integration testing
b. Unit testing
c. System testing
d. Regression testing
2. Code is checked in which type of testing?
a. White box testing
b. Black box testing
c. Green box testing
d. Red box testing
3. What is waterfall model?
a. An iterative development model
b. A linear and sequential software development model
c. A model emphasizing rapid prototyping
d. A model focused on user involvement throughout development
4. What is the primary characteristic of the Iterative model?
a. Sequential development
b. Emphasis on risk management
c. Minimal documentation
d. Continuous feedback and refinement
5. What is the main advantage of the Incremental model?
a. Low initial cost
b. High flexibility for changes
c. Quick project completion
d. Emphasis on documentation
6. Which model involves breaking the development process into small parts called iterations?
a. Waterfall model
b. Spiral Model
c. Agile model
d. V model
7. What does RAD stand for in the context of software development?
a. Rapid Application Development
b. Requirement Analysis & Design
c. Random Application Deployment
d. Resource Allocation and Development
8. What is the main principle behind the Spiral model?
a. Iterative and incremental development
b. Linear and sequential development
c. Rapid prototyping
d. Risk-driven development
9. Which phase of SDLC involves gathering and understanding the requirements for the
software project?
a. Requirement Analysis
b. Design
c. Testing
d. Implementation
10. What is the purpose of the Feasibility Study in SDLC?
a. To design the system architecture
b. To determine whether the project is viable
c. To write code for the software
d.To identify and fix defects
11. What is the purpose of a Design Pattern in software engineering?
a. To create visually appealing user interfaces
b. To standardize and document solutions to common design problems
c. To optimize database performance
d. To automate the testing process
12. In the context of software reliability, what is meant by "Fault Tolerance"?
a. The ability of the software to handle errors gracefully and continue functioning
b. The capability of the software to prevent all types of faults
c. The measure of the software's resistance to defects
d. The process of identifying and fixing software defects
13. Requirement Analysis does not deal with which of the following diagrams?
a. ER Diagram
b. Use case Diagram
c. Activity Diagram
d. State Transition Diagram
14. Select the correct option which refers to internal software quality?
a. Reusability
b. Usability
c. Reliability
d. Scalability
15. The construction of a simpler version of a problem by ignoring details is known as
a. Encapsulation
b. Decomposition
c. Composition
d. Abstraction
16. The SRS document is also known as _____________ specification.
a. Black box
b. White box
c. Grey box
d. None
17. Identify the worst type of coupling.
a. Content Coupling
b. Data coupling
c. Control coupling
d. Stamp coupling
18. State true or false: All uses coverage criterion subsumes edge coverage criterion.
a. True
b. False
19. When can white-box testing be started?
a. After SRS creation
b. After installation
c. After programming
d. After designing
20. When is the ‘risk analysis’ in the spiral model performed?
a. In the first loop
b. Before using the spiral model.
c. Every loop
d. The first & second loop.
21. Which of the following is not included in the efficiency of a software product.
a. Processing time
b. Licensing
c. Responsiveness
d. Memory utilization
22. Which of the following terms is used often for the principle of abstraction
a. Modelling
b. Data Binding
c. Propelling
d. Manipulating
23. Identify the correct option among the following which is not included in SRS?
a. Functionality
b. Performance
c. External interfaces
d. Design solutions
24. The software consists of?
a. Program +documentation operating procedures
b. Program +hardware manuals
c. Instruction+ hardware manuals
d. Set of programs
25. COCOMO model stand for
a. Complete Cost estimation Model
b. Constructive Cost Model
c. Common Cost estimation model
d. Comprehensive Cost estimation model
Section B
26. For which of the following reasons is the waterfall model not suitable
a. Small Projects
b. Complex Projects
c. Maintenance Projects
d. Accommodating changes
27. Identify among the following which is not recommended for software processes in
software engineering?
a. Software verification
b. Software testing & validation
c. Software designing
d. Software evolution
28. Identify the correct functional requirement.
a. Robustness
b. Portability
c. Maintainability
d. None
29. By whom is unit testing done?
a. Users
b. Developers
c. Customers
d. None
30. Identify the correct software metrics?
a. Complexity metrics
b. Process metrics
c. Quality metrics
d. All.
31. Identify the fault-based testing technique.
a. Beta testing
b. Unit testing
c. Mutation testing
d. Regression testing
32. Identify the incorrect phase of the prototype model.
a. Prototype refinement
b. Design
c. Engineer product
d. Coding
33. Identify the incorrect software layers.
a. Process
b. Manufacturing
c. Tools
d. Method
34. Identify the incorrect testing technique.
a. Integration testing
b. Collaboration testing
c. System testing
d. Unit testing
35. Identify the major drawback of the Spiral Model?
a. Does not work efficiently with small projects.
b. High amount of risk analysis
c. Documentation control
d. Additional functionalities added later on
Section C
36. Identify the model which is also known as Verification and Validation Model?
a. Waterfall model
b. Prototype model
c. Evolutionary model
d. V model
37. Identify the term which is not related to testing?
a. Test bot
b. Test case
c. error
d. Failure
38. Identify the two dimensions of the spiral model.
a. Radial, angular
b. Diagonal , angular
c. Diagonal, perpendicular
d. None
39. Model selection is based on
a. Requirements
b. Development team & users
c. Associated risks
d. All
40. The word which describes the importance of software design is
a. Complexity
b. Quality
c. Efficiency
d. Accuracy
Answer Key
QNo Correct Option
1 d
2 a
3 b
4 b
5 d
6 a
7 d
8 a
9 b
10 b
11 a
12 c
13 a
14 d
15 a
16 a
17 a
18 c
19 c
20 b
21 a
22 d
23 a
24 b
25 a
26 d
27 a
28 d
29 b
30 d
31 c
32 d
33 b
34 b
35 d
36 d
37 a
38 a
39 d
40 b
