multiple choice reading explanation
multiple choice reading explanation
identify specific information within a passage and select the correct answer from a list of options.
These questions come in two primary formats:
1. Question-Based Format: You are presented with a direct question followed by three possible
answers (A, B, or C). Your task is to locate the relevant information in the passage and choose
the correct option. It's important to note that your answer must be the corresponding letter
(e.g., A); writing out the full answer will be marked incorrect.
2. Sentence Completion Format: You are given an incomplete sentence and must select the
option that best completes it. Similar to the question-based format, you should identify the
correct answer in the passage and respond with the appropriate letter.
To effectively tackle these questions, consider the following strategies:
Sequential Order: Answers typically appear in the same order as the questions within the
passage.
Comprehensive Reading: All options may be mentioned in the passage, but only one is
correct. Avoid selecting an answer based solely on keyword matching; instead, focus on
understanding the context and meaning.
Thorough Analysis: Before searching the passage, carefully analyze the question and answer
choices. This helps in identifying synonyms and paraphrased information.
Keyword Identification: Highlight keywords in both the question and answer options to
guide your search in the passage.
Attention to Detail: Be aware of subtle differences between answer choices, as these can
significantly impact the correct answer.
Contextual Reading: Read the sentences surrounding the potential answer in the passage to
ensure a comprehensive understanding
Australian Agricultural Innovations:
1850 – 1900
During this period, there was a wide spread expansion of agriculture in Australia. The
selection system was begun, whereby small sections of land were parceled out by lot.
Particularly in New South Wales, this led to conflicts between small holders and the emerging
squatter class, whose abuse of the system often allowed them to take vast tracts of fertile land.
There were also many positive advances in farming technology as the farmers adapted
agricultural methods to the harsh Australian conditions. One of the most important was “dry
farming”. This was the discovery that repeated ploughing of fallow, unproductive land could
preserve nitrates and moisture, allowing the land to eventually be cultivated. This, along with
the extension of the railways allowed the development of what are now great inland wheat
lands.
The inland areas of Australia are less fertile than most other wheat producing countries and
yields per acre are lower. This slowed their development, but also led to the development of
several labour saving devices. In 1843 John Ridley, a South Australian farmer, invented “the
stripper”, a basic harvesting machine. By the 1860s its use was widespread. H. V. McKay,
then only nineteen, modified the machine so that it was a complete harvester: cutting,
collecting and sorting. McKay developed this early innovation into a large harvester
manufacturing industry centred near Melbourne and exporting worldwide. Robert Bowyer
Smith invented the “stump jump plough”, which let a farmer plough land which still had tree
stumps on it. It did this by replacing the traditional plough shear with a set of wheels that
could go over stumps, if necessary.
The developments in farm machinery were supported by scientific research. During the late
19th century, South Australian wheat yields were going down. An agricultural scientist at the
colony’s agricultural college, John Custance, found that this was due to a lack of phosphates
and advised the use of soluble superphosphate fertilizer. The implementation of this scheme
revitalised the industry.
From early days it had been obvious that English and European sheep breeds had to be
adapted to Australian conditions, but only near the end of the century was the same applied to
crops. Prior to this, English and South African strains had been use, with varying degrees of
success. William Farrer, from Cambridge University, was the first to develop new wheat
varieties that were better able to withstand dry Australian conditions. By 1914, Australia was
no longer thought of as a land suitable only for sheep, but as a wheat growing nation.
Questions 27-31
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.
27 In the first paragraph, the writer says that most managers
A fail to spot the key consumer trends of the moment.
B make the mistake of focusing only on the principal consumer trends.
C misinterpret market research data relating to current consumer trends.
28 According to the third paragraph, Coach was anxious to
A follow what some of its competitors were doing.
B maintain its prices throughout its range.
C safeguard its reputation as a manufacturer of luxury goods.
D modify the entire look of its brand to suit the economic climate.
29 What point is made about Tesco’s Greener Living programme?
A It did not require Tesco to modify its core business activities.
B It succeeded in attracting a more eco-conscious slientele.
C Its main aim was to raise consumers’ awareness of environmental issues.
D It was not the first time that Tesco had implemented such an initiative.
30 What does the writer suggest about Nike’s strategy?
A It was an extremely risky strategy at the time.
B It was a strategy that only a major company could afford to follow.
C It was the type of strategy that would not have been possible in the past.
D It was the kind of strategy which might appear to have few obvious benefits.
31 What was original about the ME2?
A It contained technology that had been developed for the sports industry.
B It appealed to young people who were keen to improve their physical fitness.
C It took advantage of a current trend for video games with colourful 3D graphic.
D It was a handheld game that addressed people’s concerns about unhealthy lifestyles.
Cambridge IELTS 19 listening test 4
Questions 1–6
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Questions 7–10
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Responsibilities
Bak
ery Check sell-by Change price Use 7……………
sect dates labels …… labels
ion
Sus
hi Re-stock
take with 8……… Wipe preparation
Do not clean any
awa ………… area and clean
knives
y boxes if the sink
cou needed
nter
Me
at Clean the
Collect 9………
and serving area, Must wear
………… for the
fish including the special 10………
fish from the
cou weighing …………
cold-room
nter scales
s
Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters, A–E.
Which TWO problems with some training programmes for new runners does Liz mention?
A There is a risk of serious injury.
B They are unsuitable for certain age groups.
C They are unsuitable for people with health issues.
D It is difficult to stay motivated.
E There is a lack of individual support.
Questions 13 and 14
Choose TWO letters, A–E.
Which TWO tips does Liz recommend for new runners?
A doing two runs a week
B running in the evening
C going on runs with a friend
D listening to music during runs
E running very slowly
Questions 15–18
What reason prevented each of the following members of the Compton Park Runners Club
from joining until recently?
Write the correct answer, A, B, or C next to Questions 15–18.
Reasons
A a lack of confidence
B a dislike of running
C a lack of time
Club members
15 Ceri ……………
16 James ……………
17 Leo ……………
18 Mark ……………
Questions 19 and 20
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
19 What does Liz say about running her first marathon?
A It had always been her ambition.
B Her husband persuaded her to do it.
C She nearly gave up before the end.
20 Liz says new runners should sign up for a race
A every six months.
B within a few weeks of taking up running.
C after completing several practice runs.
PART 3
Questions 21–25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21 Kieran thinks the packing advice given by Jane’s grandfather is
A common sense.
B hard to follow.
C over-protective.
22 How does Jane feel about the books her grandfather has given her?
A They are not worth keeping.
B They should go to a collector.
C They have sentimental value for her.
23 Jane and Kieran agree that hardback books should be
A put out on display.
B given as gifts to visitors.
C more attractively designed.
24 While talking about taking a book from a shelf, Jane
A describes the mistakes other people make doing it.
B reflects on a significant childhood experience.
C explains why some books are easier to remove than others.
25 What do Jane and Kieran suggest about new books?
A Their parents liked buying them as presents.
B They would like to buy more of them.
C Not everyone can afford them.
Questions 26–30
Where does Jane’s grandfather keep each of the following types of books in his shop?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A–G, next to Questions 26–
30.
Location of books
A near the entrance
B in the attic
C at the back of the shop
D on a high shelf
E near the stairs
F in a specially designed space
G within the café
Types of books
26 rare books …………
27 children’s books …………
28 unwanted books …………
29 requested books …………
30 coursebooks …………
PART 4
Questions 31–40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Tree planting
Reforestation projects should:
● include a range of tree species
● not include invasive species because of possible 31………………. with native
species.
● aim to capture carbon, protect the environment and provide sustainable sources
of 32………………. for local people
● use tree seeds with a high genetic diversity to increase resistance
to 33………………. and climate change
● plant trees on previously forested land which is in a bad condition, not select land
which is being used for 34……………….
Large-scale reforestation projects
● Base planning decisions on information from accurate 35………………. .
● Drones are useful for identifying areas in Brazil which are endangered by
keeping 36………………. and illegal logging.
Lampang Province, Northern Thailand
● A forest was restored in an area damaged by mining.
● A variety of native fig trees were planted, which are important for
– supporting many wildlife species
– increasing the 37………………. of recovery by attracting animals and birds,
e.g., 38………………. were soon attracted to the area.
Involving local communities
● Destruction of mangrove forests in Madagascar made it difficult for people to
make a living from 39………………. .
● The mangrove reforestation project:
– provided employment for local people
– restored a healthy ecosystem
– protects against the higher risk of 40……………….