Physics Part-I

Question Bank For Board Exam

Important MCQs of Chapter # 2

1. The number of base units in SI are
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) Seven
2. Which of the following of base quantity of SI system has two units?
(a) Temperature (b) Amount of substance
(c) Light intensity (d) Electric current
3. The base quantity among the following is:
(a) Torque (b) Force (c) Mass (d) Velocity
4. Which of the following is the derived quantity?
(a) Time (b) Area (c) Length (d) Mass
5. Which of the following is a supplementary unit?
(a) Ampere (b) Candela (c) Kelvin (d) Radian
6. The SI unit for measuring plane angle is:
(a) Radian (b) Steradian (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
7. In scientific notation, the number 0.012 may be written as:
(a) 1 .2 x 10−2 (b) 1 .2 x 10−4 (c) 1.2  104 (d) 1.2  10−3
1 mm
8. What is the ratio 1 Gm ?

(a) 10−3 (b) 10−9 (c) 10−12 (d) 10−15

9. The error in a certain measurement occurs due to:
(a) Negligence of a person (b) Inappropriate technique
(c) Faulty apparatus (d) All of the above
10. The number of significant figure in 8.80  106 kg is:
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 6
11. A precise measurement is the one which has:
(a) Less absolute uncertainty (b) Less percentage uncertainty
(c) Large fractional uncertainty (d) Large absolute uncertainty
12. The length of a line was measured with a meter rod of least count 1 mm by four students. The
correct reading will be:
(a) 0.5426 m (b) 0.542 m (c) 0.54 m (d) 0.5 m
13. The error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 1%. The error in the calculated value of
its volume is:
(a) 1% (b) 3% (c) 5% (d) 7%
14. The errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. The percentage
error in the kinetic energy of the object is
(a) 11% (b) 8% (c) 5% (d) 1%
15. If X = m c2 ,the dimensions of X are:
(a) M LT−1 (b) M LT−2 (c) M L2T−1 (d) M L2T−2
16. If F = 6 π η r v, then the dimensions of coefficient of viscosity η:
(a) [ML−1T−1] (b) [MLT−1] (c) [ML−2T−1] (d) [ML]
17. Which of the following in not a unit of time?
(a) Leap year (b) Light year (c) Lunar month (d) Micro-second
18. Light year is the unit of:
(a) Intensity of Light (b) Time (c) Velocity (d) Distance
19. Time taken by the light to reach the earth from the sun is:
(a) 30 sec (b) 5 min and 20 seconds
(c) 8 min and 20 seconds (d) None of these
Ch # 1
Definitions Base and derived quantities, supplementary units, error and uncertainty Significant
figures, precision and accuracy
Short Questions 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 1.6, 1.7, 1.8
Problems 1.1, 1.2, 1.6, 1.7, 1.9
Examples 1.4, 1.5, 1.6

Important MCQs of Chapter # 2

1. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
(a) Energy (b) Time (c) Pressure (d) Force
2. The maximum resultant of two forces of 10 and 8 N is:
(a) 2N (b) 12 N (c) 18 N (d) 36 N
3. The minimum resultant of two forces of 10 N and 7 N is:
(a) 0N (b) 10 N (c) 7N (d) 3N
4. The resultant of 3N and 4N forces acting at right angle to each other is
(a) 90 N (b) 5N (c) 7N (d) 1N
5. The minimum number of vectors of equal magnitude whose resultant is zero is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) more than 4
6. The minimum number of vectors of unequal magnitude whose resultant is zero is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) Infinite
7. Two forces of 6 N and 8 N can produce a resultant of:
(a) 0N (b) 1N (c) 10 N (d) 18 N
8. The reverse process of addition of vectors is:
(a) Subtraction of vectors (b) Resolution of vectors
(c) Composition of vectors (d) None of them
9. A vector is equal to the product of its magnitude and
(a) Position vector (b) null vector (c) Dimension (d) Unit vector
10. The angle between rectangular components of a vector is:
(a) 45 (b) 90 (c) 135 (d) Zero
11. If a force of 10 N acts along x-axis, its y-component is given by:
(a) 10 N (b) 5N (c) 8.66 N (d) Zero
→ →
12. If A = 3i + 4 j, the angle which the vector A makes with X-axis is
(a) 30o (b) 60o (c) 53o (d) 63o
 
13. The magnitude of position vector 3 j + 4 k is
(a) 1 units (b) 7 units (c) 5 units (d) 25 units
→ →
14. The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors A and B is:
(a) Maximum (b) Zero (c) Null Vector (d) A B sin θ
→
15. The self dot product of A is given by:
(a) Null vector (b) Zero (c) A2 (d) A
→ → → →
16. If A . B = AB, then angle between A and B is:
(a) 0o (b) 90o (c) 45o (d) 90o
→ → → →
17. If A x B = 0, when the vectors A and B are
(a) Parallel (b) Anti-parallel (c) Equal (d) All of them
→
18. The self-cross product of A is:
(a) Zero (b) Null vector (c) A2 (d) A
→ → → →
19. The angle between A x B and B x A is:
(a) 0o (b) 45o (c) 90o (d) 180o
→ → → →  → →
20. If A . B =  A  B , then angle between vectors A and B is:
(a) 0o (b) 45o (c) 90o (d) 180o
21. (i  k)  j =
(a) Zero (b) One (c) Null vector (d) i
22. The torque acting on the rigid body is:
(a) r F cos θ (b) rF (c) r F tan θ (d) r F sin θ
23. In rotational motion the analogue of force is:
(a) Rotational K.E (b) Moment of inertia
(c) Torque (d) Rotational Inertia
24. A body will be in transnational equilibrium, if:
(a) τ =0 (b) P =0 (c) F =0 (d) L =0
25. A body will be in rotational equilibrium, if:
(a) τ =0 (b) P =0 (c) F =0 (d) L =0

CH # 2
 Definitions Unit Vector, Null Vector, Equal Vector, Position Vector, Equilibrium
Topics Addition of vectors by Rectangular Components, Scalar product, Vector Product,
Torque
Short Questions 2.2, 2.4, 2.5, 2.6, 2.8, 2.9,2.10, 2.11, 2.15, 2.18, 2.19, 2.21
Problems 2.3, 2.5, 2.7, 2.8, 2.9, 2.10, 2.14, 2.15
Examples 2.3, 2.4, 2.5,

Important MCQs of Chapter # 3

1. The acceleration of a body moving with uniform velocity is
(a) Zero (b) Not zero (c) Uniform (d) Variable
2. The gradient of the velocity time graph represents:
(a) Speed (b) Acceleration (c) Distance (d) Velocity
3. The area under velocity-time graph represents
(a) Distance (b) Time (c) Velocity (d) Momentum
4. A body dropped from a tower. Its velocity after 4 seconds is
(a) 80 m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 60 m/s (d) 40 m/s
5. The distance covered by a body in time ‘t’ starting from rest is:
at2 a2t
(a) (b) (c) vt (d) at2
2 2
6. Pull of earth on mass of 20kg on the surface of earth is
(a) 20N (b) 196N (c) 19.6N (d) 1960N
→ →
7. Two bodies A and B exert forces F1 and F2 upon each other, then
→ → → →
(a) F1 = F2 (b) F1 = - F2 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of them
8. A fighter plane is chasing another plane, when it opens fire its speed.
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains same (d) It stops
9. The product of force and time is called
(a) Power (b) Energy (c) Linear momentum (d) Impulse
10. The rate of change of momentum of a body is called:
(a) Impulse (b) Force (c) Torque (d) Work
11. The change in momentum of a body is called:
(a) Impulse Force (b) Pressure (c) Impulse (d) Tension
12. Whenever two balls collide, which one of the following is conserved?
(a) Velocity (b) Kinetic energy (c) Momentum (d) Force
13. A collision in which momentum and energy remain constant is
(a) Elastic (b) Inelastic (c) Both elastic and inelastic (d) None
14. When there is no loss of K.E, the collision is called:
(a) Elastic collision (b) In-elastic collision (c) Inertial collision (d) None of these
15. The launch mass of rocket consists of more than:
(a) 20 % of fuel (b) 50 % of fuel (c) 80 % of fuel (d) 100 % of fuel
 16. A typical rocket consumes fuel at the rate of
(a) 4000 kg / s (b) 10000 kg / s (c) 80 kg / s (d) 500 kg / s
17. A rocket engine expels the burnt gases at speed of
(a) 4000 m / s (b) 10000 m / s (c) 80 m / s (d) 500 m / s
18. Motion of a projectile is
(a) One dimension (b) Two dimension (c) Three dimension (d) Four dimension
19. In the absence of air friction, the horizontal component of velocity of projectile
(a) Remains zero (b) Remains constant (c) Increases (d) Decreases
20. At the highest point, the vertical velocity of projectile is
(a) maximum (b) minimum (c) zero (d) None of above
21. The acceleration of projectile at the highest point is:
(a) Zero (b) Less than g (c) Greater than g (d) Equal to g
22. A projectile is projected with initial velocity of 200 m/s at an angle of 60  to x-axis, its velocity
at maximum height is:
(a) 100 m/s (b) 250 m/s (c) 50 m/s (d) 200 m/s
23. The vertical height of projectile is maximum when it is projected at an angle of
(a) 30 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 70
24. The maximum range of a projectile is
(a) Rmax= vi2 / g (b) Rmax= vi2 /2g (c) Rmax= vi / g (d) Rmax=vi / 2g
25. The horizontal range and maximum range of a projectile are related as
(a) R = Rmax sin2  (b) R = Rmax sin  (c) R = Rmax cos2 (d) R = Rmax sin2 
26. Range of a projectile is the same for which of the following pair of angles?
(a) 30 and 60 (b) 35 and 45 (c) 15 and 60 (d) 30 and 75
CH # 3
Definitions Inst. Velocity, average velocity, Newton’s Laws, Momentum
Topics Law of conservation of Momentum, Elastic Collision in One Dimension, Projectile
motion (complete)
Short Questions 3.2,3.3, 3.6, 3.7,3.9, 3.12, 3.13
Problems 3.3, 3.4, 3.6, 3.8, 3.10, 3.11, 3.13, 3.14
Examples 3.2, 3.5,3.7

Important MCQs of Chapter # 4

1. The scalar product of force and displacement is equal to:
(a) Work (b) Energy (c) Power (d) Torque
2. The maximum work will be done, when angle between force and displacement is:
(a) 180 (b) 90 (c) 60 (d) 0
3. The area under force displacement graph gives:
(a) Energy (b) Work (c) Momentum (d) Torque
4. The force of gravity does no work when the body moves :
(a) Up ward (b) Down ward (c) Horizontally (d) All of them
5. The force whose total work done in moving a body along a closed path is zero is
 (a) Frictional force (b) Electric Force (c) Normal force (d) Viscous force
6. Which of the following is non conservative force?
(a) Gravitational force (b) Elastic force (c) Viscous force (d) Electrostatic force
7. The scalar product of force and velocity is equal to:
(a) Work (b) Energy (c) Power (d) Torque
8. If a force F is applied on a body moving with velocity v, the power applied will be:
F F
(a) Fv (b) (c) (d) F × v2
v v2
9. Kilo watt hour is the unit of:
(a) Power (b) Work (c) Force (d) Momentum
10. The K.E of a particle of mass 2 kg having momentum 4 N s will be:
(a) 2J (b) 4J (c) 8J (d) 16 J
11. When the mass and speed of the body are doubled, the Kinetic energy becomes:
(a) 4 times (b) 8 times (c) 16 times (d) 2 times
12. When an arrow is release form its bow, its energy is transformed from:
(a) P.E to K.E (b) Elastic PE to K.E (c) K.E to elastic P.E (d) K.E to elastic P.E
13. When the velocity of a body is doubled.
(a) Its K.E is doubled (b) Its P.E is doubled
(c) Its momentum is doubled (d) Its acceleration is doubled
14. The velocity with which a body goes out of the earth’s gravitational field is called:
(a) Average velocity (b) Escape velocity
(c) Instantaneous velocity (d) Maximum velocity
15. The expression for escape velocity is:
(a) gR (b) 2G M (c) 2gR (d) Both (b) and (c)
R

16. The escape velocity for earth gravitational field is:

(a) 1.1 km/s (b) 11 km/s (c) 11 km/h (d) 1.1 km/h
17. The escape velocity of the body does not depend upon:
(a) The mass of the body (b) The mass of the planet
(c) Density of the planet (d) Volume of the planet
18. The original source of hydroelectric energy is
(a) Sun (b) Moon (c) Earth (d) Mars
19. The value of solar constant is about
(a) 1.4 k W m-2 (b) 1.0 k W m-2 (c) 1.4 W m-2 (d) 10.0 W m-2

20. The intensity of solar energy reaching the Earth’s surface on a clear day at noon is about
(a) 1.4 k W m-2 (b) 1.0 k W m-2 (c) 1.4 W m-2 (d) 10.0 W m-2
21. The tidal energy is due to the gravitational pull of:
(a) Sun (b) Moon (c) Mars (d) Earth
CH # 4
 Definitions Work and its types, Power, law of conservation of energy, geyser system
Topics Work done in Gravitational Field, Work-Energy Principle, Absolute Potential Energy,
Escape Velocity
Short Questions 4.2, 4.3, 4.4, 4.5, 4.7, 4.8, 4.9, 4.10
Problems 4.1, 4.2, 4.3, 4.4, 4.6, 4.7, 4.8, 4.9
Examples 4.2, 4.3

Important MCQs of Chapter # 5

1. The angular velocity of body moving in a circle is
(a) Along the axis of rotation (b) Along the tangent
(c) Directed towards the center (d) Directed away from the center
2. One radian is equal to:
(a) 47.3 (b) 57.3 (c) 67.3 (d) 59.3
3. One radian is equal to:
1 1
(a) rev (b) rev (c) 2 π rev (d) 3 π rev
π 2π
4. The dimensions of angular acceleration are:
(a) T-1 (b) T-2 (c) T-3 (d) LT-2
5. Angular speed of the second hand of the watch is:
π rad s-1 π π π
(a) (b) rad s-1 (c) rad s-1 (d) rad s-1
30 6 12 2
6. Angular speed of the minute hand in radian per hour is:
π rad s-1 π π
(a) (b) 2 π rad s-1 (c) rad s-1 (d) rad s-1
30 12 2
7. A body is moving in a circle of radius r with constant angular velocity ω, its linear velocity is:
ω
(a) (b) ωr (c) ω2 r (d) ω r2
r
8. The period of circular motion is given by:
(a) T=rv (b) T = 2/ (c) T = v (d) T = 2
9. Angular acceleration is produced by
(a) Power (b) Pressure (c) Torque (d) Force
10. Centripetal force performs:
(a) Maximum work (b) No work (c) Positive work (d) None of these
11. When a body is whirled in a vertical circle, the tension in the string is maximum at
(a) At the top (b) At the bottom
(c) At the horizontal level (d) At the center of the circle
12. The moment of inertia is the rotational analogue of
(a) Mass (b) Acceleration (c) Force (d) All of them
13. The ratio of moment of inertia of a disc to hoop of same mass and same radius is:
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 2:5 (d) 3:5
14. The vector product of linear momentum and position vector is called:
 (a) Work (b) Power (c) Torque (d)Angular momentum
15. The moment of linear momentum is called:
(a) Work (b) Power (c) Torque (d)Angular momentum
16. The angular momentum is defined as:
→ → → → → → → → → → →
(a) L =mv (b) L = r  F (c) L = r  P (d) L = P  r
17. Angular momentum of a rigid body is equal to:
1 1 2
(a) Iω (b) I ω2 (c) 2Iω (d) 2I ω
18. For the circular motion of satellite, the centripetal force is provided by
(a) Air friction (b) Gravity of the Earth
(c) Gravity of the moon (d) Electric motor fitted in satellite
19. The minimum velocity necessary to put a satellite into the orbit around the Earth is:
(a) 9.7 km/sec. (b) 7.9 km/sec. (c) 7.9 m/sec. (d) 9.7 m/sec.
20. The number of satellites included in the global positioning system is:
(a) 24 (b) 48 (c) 30 (d) 28
21. The minimum time taken by a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth is
(a) 80 min (b) 84 min (c) 86 min (d) 5060 min
22. The apparent weight of a man in a space ship moving upward with acceleration ‘a’ is
(a) mg (b) mg –ma (c) mg +ma (d) Zero
23. A 10 kg mass is falling freely, the force of gravity acting on its will be:
(a) 98 N (b) 9.8 N (c) 19.6 N (d) Zero
24. The apparent weight of a body of mass 10 kg falling freely is:
(a) 10 N (b) 9.8 N (c) 98 N (d) Zero
25. The period of geostationary satellite is
(a) 365 days (b) 84 minutes (c) 12 hours (d) 24 hours
26. Radius of the geo-stationary orbit from the Earths center is:
(a) 4.24  104 km (b) 3.23  104 km (c) 4.23  104 km (d) None of these
27. Height of geo-stationary satellite above the equator is:
(a) 40,000 km (b) 24,000 km (c) 30,000 km (d) 36,000 km

CH # 5
Definitions Prove that S = r θ, 1rad.=57.30 , v = r w
Topics Centripetal Force, Rotational K.E, Real & Apparent Weight, geo-stationary satellites
Short Questions 5.1,5.5,5.6, 5.7, 5.9, 5.10, 5.11, 5.13
Problems 5.2, 5.3, 5.5,5.7, 5.10
Examples 5.2, 5.6, 5.7

Important MCQs of Chapter # 6

1. The frictional effect between different layers of a flowing fluid is called:
(a) Viscosity of the fluid (b) Velocity of the fluid
 (c) Displacement of the fluid (d) Acceleration of the fluid
2. The SI unit of viscosity is:
(a) Kg m−1s−1 (b) Nm2s2 (c) Kg m2s−2 (d) kg ms−2
3. The dimensions of viscosity are:
(a) M2L−1T−2 (b) M−1L−1T−1 (c) M−1L−1T (d) ML−1T−1
4. Stoke’s law holds for:
(a) Cylindrical bodies (b) Cubical bodies (c) Spherical bodies (d) None of these
5. The drag force on a sphere of radius ‘r’ moving slowly with speed ‘v’ through the fluid of
viscosity η is given by:
(a) 4πηrv (b) 6πηrv (c) 2πηrv (d) 3πηrv
6. The maximum constant velocity of a freely falling object is called:
(a) Critical velocity (b) Terminal velocity (c) Tangential velocity (d) All of them
7. When a droplet falls with terminal velocity, the net force acting on the droplet:
(a) Minimum (b) Zero (c) Maximum (d) None
8. A sphere of mass 10 kg is falling with maximum velocity, the drag force on it is:
(a) 1N (b) 98 N (c) 0N (d) 4.9 N
9. A fog droplet falls vertically through air with an acceleration:
(a) Equal to g (b) Less than g (c) Greater than g (d) Equal to zero
10. A fog droplet falls vertically with terminal velocity through air, it acceleration:
(a) Equal to g (b) Less than g (c) Greater than g (d) Equal to zero
11. If the radius of droplet is doubled, its terminal velocity becomes:
(a) Double (b) Four times (c) Half (d) one fourth
12. An incompressible fluid having no viscosity is called:
(a) An ideal fluid (b) Viscous fluid (c) Non-ideal fluid (d) None of these
13. Equation of continuity is the basis of law of conservation of:
(a) Mass (b) Momentum (c) Energy (d) None
14. The product of cross sectional area of the pipe and the fluid speed at any point along the pipe
gives:
(a) Flow rate (b) Speed of influx (c) Speed of efflux (d) Viscosity
15. Bernoulli’s equation is the basis of law of conservation of:
(a) Energy (b) Mass (c) Charge (d) Momentum
16. The equation that relates pressure to fluid speed and height is:
(a) Bernoulli’s equation (b) Equation of continuity
(c) Venturi relation (d) Torricelli’s theorem
17. The velocity of efflux is measured by the relation:
1
(a) 2g h (b) 2 gh (c) gh (d) gh
2
18. The pressure will be low where the speed of the fluid is:
(a) Low (b) High (c) Constant (d) Zero
19. Where the stream lines are closer together, speed of flow is:
 (a) Smaller (b) Greater (c) Remain same (d) Zero
20. A device used to measure speed of liquid flow:
(a) Venturi-meter (b) Speed-meter (c) Sphygmomanometer (d) None
21. The diastolic pressure is about:
(a) 80 torr (b) 120 torr (c) 115 torr (d) 130 torr
22. The systolic pressure is about:
(a) 120 torr (b) 125 torr (c) 115 torr (d) 130 torr
23. 1 torr is equal to:
(a) 1 N m-2 (b) 13.3 N m-2 (c) 133.3 N m-2 (d) 130 N m-2
CH # 6
Definitions Stoke’s Law, Ideal fluid, Flow rate
Topics Terminal Velocity, Equation of Continuity, Bernoulli’s Equation
Short Question 6.1, 6.2, 6.3, 6.4, 6.5, 6.6, 6.8, 6.9, 6.10, 6.12
Problems 6.1, 6.2, 6.3, 6.4, 6.5, 6.7, 6.9
Examples 6.1, 6.2

Important MCQs of Chapter # 7

1. Vibratory motion is always under:
(a) An applied force (b) An elastic restoring force and inertia
(c) Periodic force (d) Frictional force
2. The wave form of SHM is:
(a) Pulse wave (b) Sine wave (c) Square wave (d) Cosine wave
3. The maximum distance of vibrating body from the mean position is:
(a) Displacement (b) Time period (c) Frequency (d) Amplitude
4. Distance covered during one vibration of an oscillating body in terms of amplitude A is:
(a) A (b) 2A (c) 3A (d) 4A
5. The displacement covered by a body executes SHM with amplitude A during one vibration is:
(a) A (b) 2A (c) Zero (d) 4A
6. Frequency of the vibratory motion is:
(a) Multiplication of time period (b) Reciprocal of time period
(c) Equal to time period (d) Less than time period
7. The product of frequency and time period T is:
(a) 1 (b) 2π (c) 1 / 2π (d) π
8. The relation between linear frequency and angular frequency is:
(a) f = 1/T (b) f = 2π ω (c) f = T/2π (d) ω = 2π f
9. If a body completes 20 vibrations in one minute, its time period will be:
(a) 0.05 sec (b) 1.5 sec (c) 3.0 sec (d) 20 sec
10. A body is executing S.H.M completes one vibration in 2 s, its angular frequency will be:
(a) 2π rad s-1 (b) 2 rad s-1 (c) π rad s-1 (d) 1 rad s-1
11. A body is executing S.H.M with angular frequency 2 rad s -1. Its time period will be:
(a) 3.14 s (b) 6.28 s (c) 1. 57 s (d) 1 s
12. A particle executing S.H.M. while passing through the mean position has:
(a) Maximum K.E (b) Maximum P.E
(c) Maximum K.E and maximum P.E (d) Zero K.E
13. The acceleration of a particle executing SHM is proportional to
(a) Amplitude (b) Displacement (c) Velocity (d) Angular
frequency
14. In SHM, when acceleration is maximum, then velocity is:
(a) Also maximum (b) Increases (c) Is constant (d) Zero
15. The phase of vibrating body at mean position is:
3  3
(a) Zero or  (b) Zero or /2 (c) π or (d) or
2 2 2
16. The equation of displacement of a body executing S.H.M is x = xo cos t. What is initial phase?
(a) 0 (b) 90 (c) 180 (d) 270
17. If the mass attached to spring increases by four times, its period becomes:
(a) Half (b) Double (c) One forth (d) Four times
18. The tension in the string of the simple pendulum at mean position is
(a) mg cos θ (b) mg sin θ (c) mg (d) Zero
19. The tension in the string of the simple pendulum at extreme position is
(a) mg cos θ (b) mg sin θ (c) mg (d) Zero
20. The time period of a simple pendulum depends upon:
(a) Length of the pendulum (b) Acceleration due to gravity
(c) Mass of the pendulum (d) Both (a) and (b)
21. If the amplitude of the bob of pendulum is doubled, its time period becomes:
(a) Four times (b) One forth (c) Double (d) Remains
constant
22. If length of pendulum becomes four times, then its time period will become:
(a) Remains constant (b) Two times (c) Three times (d) Four times
23. The period of second pendulum at moon is:
(a) 1 sec (b) 2 sec (c) 3 sec (d) 4 sec
24. The frequency of the second pendulum is
(a) 1 Hertz (b) 0.5 Hertz (c) 1.5 Hertz (d) 2 Hertz
25. The length of second pendulum is approximately:
(a) 99.2 cm (b) 90 cm (c) 95 cm (d) 98 cm
26. Total energy of a particle executing S.H.M of amplitude A is proportional to:
(a) A2 (b) A−2 (c) A (d) A−1
27. A particle executes S.H.M with frequency ‘f’, the frequency with which its K.E or P.E oscillates is:
(a) f (b) 2f (c) 3f (d) 4f
28. A physical system oscillating in the presence of external force executes
(a) Forced vibration (b) Free vibrations
(c) Mixed vibrations (d) Damped oscillation
29. The resonance takes place under the action of:
(a) Restoring force (b) Internal force
(c) External periodic force (d) Damping force
30. At resonance, the amplitude of a vibrating body situated in the air becomes:
(a) Infinite (b) Zero (c) Maximum (d) Minimum
31. The resonance is produced due to
(a) Free vibration (b) Forced vibration
(c) Damped vibration (d) All of them
32. The oscillation of a swing is the best example of:
(a) Mechanical resonance (b) Elastic resonance
(c) Magnetic resonance (d) Electric resonance
33. The frequency of waves produced in microwave oven is:
(a) 1435 MHz (b) 2450 MHz (c) 1860 MHz (d) 2850 MHz
34. The wavelength of the waves produced in microwave oven is
(a) 2450 m (b) 12 m (c) 12 cm (d) 1400 m
35. A phenomenon by which energy is dissipated from the oscillating system is called
(a) Resonance (b) Damping (c) Doping (d) Natural vibration
36. A heavily damped system has a fairly
(a) Large resonance curve (b) Moderate resonance curve
(c) Flat resonance curve (d) None of them
CH # 7
Definitions Simple Harmonic Motion, Damped Oscillation, free and forced oscillation
Topics Equation for displacement, velocity and acceleration of SHM , A Horizontal Mass-
Spring System, Simple Pendulum, Energy Conservation in SHM
Short Questions 7.1, 7.2, 7.3, 7.4, 7.5, 7.6, 7.8, 7.9, 7.13
Problems 7.1, 7.2, 7.3, 7.4, 7.5, 7.7
Examples 7.2, 7.3

Important MCQs of Chapter # 8

1. The example of mechanical wave is
(a) Sound (b) Radio waves (c) TV waves (d) All of these
2. Which of the following wave cannot pass through vacuum?
(a) Sound (b) Radio waves (c) TV waves (d) All of these
3. Speed of sound in vacuum (in m/s) is:
(a) 330 (b) Zero (c) 156 (d) 1000
4. The distance covered by a wave in one second is:
(a) Wave length (b) Frequency (c) Wave number (d) Wave speed
5. The example of longitudinal wave is:
(a) Water waves (b) Sound (c) Light (d) Microwave
6. The longitudinal waves can pass through:
(a) Solid (b) Liquid (c) Gas (d) All of them
7. Which of the following media can transmit both transverse and longitudinal waves:
(a) Solid (b) Liquid (c) Gas (d) Plasma
8. The wavelength of transverse wave travelling with speed ‘v’ having frequency ‘f’ is:
(a) f / v (b) v f (c) v / f (d) f / v2
9. The linear distance between two nearest points of a medium vibrating in phase is:
λ λ
(a) (b) (c) λ (d) 2λ
2 4
10. The linear distance between two consecutive points of a medium vibrating out phase is:
λ λ
(a) (b) (c) λ (d) 2λ
2 4
11. If 30 waves per second pass through a medium in 1 second with a speed of 30 m/s, wavelength of these
waves is:
 (a) 30 m (b) 15 m (c) 1 m (d) 280 m
12. The speed of wave in a medium having elasticity E and density ρ is:
ρ E E
(a) (b) (c) Eρ (d)
E ρ ρ
13. According to Newton, the sound passes through air is under
(a) Isothermal condition (b) Adiabatic condition
(c) Isobaric condition (d) Isochoric condition
14. According to Laplace, the sound passes through air is under
(a) Isothermal condition (b) Adiabatic condition
(c) Isobaric condition (d) Isochoric condition
15. The correct formula for the speed of sound in air is:
ρ P γP P
(a) (b) (c) (d)
E ρ ρ γρ
16. The ratio of speed of sound in hydrogen to the speed of sound in oxygen is:
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 1 : 8
17. The velocity of sound is inversely proportional to the:
(a) Temperature of air (b) Square root of density
(c) Pressure of air (d) Reciprocal of density
18. When sound waves enter a different medium, the quantity that remains unchanged is:
(a) Wavelength (b) Speed (c) Frequency (d) All of them
19. Two waves of same frequency moving in the same direction produce
(a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) Beats (d) Stationary waves
20. For constructive interference, the path difference between two waves is
(a) Integral multiple of λ (b) Even multiple of λ
(c) Odd multiple of λ (d) Odd multiple of λ / 2
21. The path difference between two sound waves for destructively interference is
(a) 5 λ (b) 2.5 λ (c) 6 λ / 2 (d) 5.2 λ
22. In order to produce beats the sound waves should have:
(a) The same frequency (b) The same amplitude
(c) Slightly different frequencies (d) Slightly different amplitudes
23. Beats are produced due to
(a) Interference of sound waves (b) Polarization of waves
(c) Bernoulli’s effect (d) Diffraction of sound waves
24. Beats can be heard when difference of frequency of two sounds is not more than:
(a) 8 Hz (b) 10 Hz (c) 6 Hz (d) 4 Hz
25. Two tuning forks of frequencies 240 Hz and 243 Hz are sounded together, the number of beats per
second is:
(a) Zero (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
26. A wave is reflected from the boundary of rarer medium, its phase:
(a) Remains constant (b) Change by 90o (c) Change of 120o (d) Change of 180o
27. A wave reflects back from the boundary of denser medium with:
(a) No phase change (b) A phase change of 90o
(c) A phase change of 120o (d) A phase change of 180o
28. Superposition of two identical waves traveling in opposite direction on the same string produces:
(a) Periodic waves (b) Complex waves (c) Stationary waves (d) Transverse waves
 29. The distance between two consecutive nodes or antinodes is
(a) λ (b) λ/2 (c) λ/4 (d) 2λ
30. The distance between consecutive node and antinodes is
(a) λ (b) λ/2 (c) λ/4 (d) 2λ
31. If stretching force in the wire is increased by four times, then its frequency:
(a) Decreases by two times (b) Increases by two times
(c) Remains the same (d) Increases by four times
32. Stationary waves produced in a stretched string are:
(a) Longitudinal waves (b) Complex waves
(c) Sound waves (d) Transverse waves
33. In a stationary wave, the amplitude at the nodes is:
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Zero (d) Constant
34. A 4 m long string fixed at its ends resonates in 4 segments. The wavelength of the wave is:
(a) 4 m (b) 2 m (c) 0.5 m (d) 0.25 m
35. Stationary waves produced in air column are:
(a) Longitudinal waves (b) Complex waves
(c) Sound waves (d) Transverse waves
36. At the closed end of an air column node occurs:
(a) Never (b) Always (c) In certain cases (d) At higher temperature
37. Stationary waves are formed in a pipe closed at one end. An anti-node is formed at:
(a) Open end (b) Closed end (c) Both ends (d) None of them
38. Harmonics produced in an organ pipe closed at one end are given by:
(a) fn = nv/2l (b) fn = nv/4l (c) fn = n4l/v (d) fn = n2l/v
39. Doppler’s effect applies to:
(a) Sound wave only (b) Light wave only
(c) Both sound wave and light wave (d) Neither sound nor light waves
40. When an observer moves towards a stationary source, the relative velocity of the waves w.r.t observer
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Zero (d) Remains unchanged
41. When a source moves towards a stationary observer. Which the properties of waves change?
(a) Frequency and wavelength (b) Frequency and speed
(c) Wavelength and speed (d) None of them
42. If a star moving towards the earth shows a:
(a) Red shift (b) Yellow shift (c) Blue shift (d) Green shift
43. Stars moving away from the Earth show a:
(a) Blue shift (b) Yellow shift (c) Red shift (d) Green shift
CH # 8
Definitions Progressive Waves, Longitudinal and Transverse Waves, Effect of pressure, density
and Temp, Stationary Waves
Topics Speed of Sound in Air & Laplace Correction, Interference, Beats, Stationary Waves
in a Stretched String , Doppler’s Effect
Short Questions 8.1, 8.3, 8.4, 8.5, 8.6, 8.7, 8.9, 8.10, 8.11
Problems 8.1, 8.3, 8.4, 8.5, 8.6
Examples 8.1, 8.3, 8.4

Important MCQs of Chapter # 9

1. The locus of all points in a medium having the same phase of vibration is called:
 (a) Crest (b) Trough (c) Wavefront (d) Wavelength
2. The distance between two consecutive wavefronts is:
(a) λ (b) λ/2 (c) λ/4 (d) 3λ
3. Light reaches the earth from sun in nearly:
(a) Plane wave front (b) Cylindrical wave front
(c) Spherical wave front (d) All of these
4. Angle between ray of light and the corresponding wavefront is:
(a) 0 (b) 60 (c) 90 (d) 120
5. The phase difference between any two points on a wavefront is:
(a) 0 (b) 60 (c) 90 (d) 120
6. The shape and location of new wavefronts can be determined by:
(a) Maxwell principle (b) Huygen’s principle
(c) Michelson’s method (d) Bragg’s Law
7. Two waves are said to be coherent if they have:
(a) Same amplitude (b) Same wavelength
(c) Constant Phase difference (d) All of them
8. For constructive interference, the path difference between waves is:
(a) Even multiple of λ (b) Odd multiple of λ
(c) Integral multiple of λ (d) Odd multiple of λ/2
9. In young’s double slit experiment, the condition for constructive interference is:
(a) d sin  = m  (b) d sin  = m /2
(c) d sin  = (m − 1/2)  (d) d sin  = (m + 1/2) 
10. In young’s double slit experiment, the condition for destructive interference is:
(a) d sin  = m  (b) d sin  = m /2
(c) d sin  = (m − 1/2)  (d) d sin  = (m + 1/2) 
11. In YDS experiment, the distance between adjacent bright fringes is given by:
L L d
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
d d L
12. The fringe width in YDS experiment can be increased by decreasing:
(a) Width of slits (b) Wavelength of light
(c) Slits separation (d) Distance between slits and screen
13. Fringe spacing in YDS experiment will be maximum for:
(a) Red light (b) Green light (c) Violet light (d) Blue light
14. The thickness of thin film is comparable with the:
(a) Amplitude of light (b) Wavelength of light
(c) Frequency of light (d) Intensity of light
15. An oil film on water surface shows colours due to:
(a) Polarization (b) Reflection (c) Interference (d) Dispersion
16. Newton’s rings are formed due to:
(a) Diffraction (b) Dispersion (c) Interference (d) Polarization
17. If Newton’s rings are observed by using transmitted light, the central spot appears:
(a) Dark (b) Bright (c) Red (d) Blue
18. The blue colour of the sky is due to:
(a) Diffraction (b) Reflection (c) Polarization (d) Scattering
19. The working of Michelson interferometer is based on:
 (a) Refraction of light (b) Interference of light
(c) Diffraction of light (d) Polarization of light
20. In Michelson’s interferometer, a bright fringe will be replaced by next bright fringe if the movable mirror
is moved by a distance equal to:
 
(a)  (b) (c) (d) None of these
2 4
21. The property of bending a light around the edge of an object is called:
(a) Polarization of light (b) Diffraction of light
(c) Reflection of light (d) Dispersion of light
22. The condition for minima due to a narrow slit is:
(a) d sin θ = m λ (b) 2d sin θ = m λ (c) d sin θ = 2 m λ (d) 2 sin θ = m / λ
23. A glass plate having number of parallel equally spaced slits is called:
(a) Mirror (b) Lens (c) Grating (d) Prism
24. The formula for grating element is:
N L
(a) d = (b) d = (c) d = L N (d) d=L+N
L N
25. A diffraction grating has 500 lines per mm. Its grating element will be:
(a) 500 mm (b) 5  10−3 mm (c) 2  10−3 mm (d) 5  103 mm
26. The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of:
(a) 10 A (b) 1000 A (c) 1 A (d) 100 A
27. The Bragg’s ,equation is:
(a) d sin θ = nλ (b) 2d sin θ = n λ (c) d sin θ = 2nλ (d) 2 sin θ = n/λ
28. A beam of light in which electric or magnetic fields vibrate only in one plane is called
(a) Plane polarized light (b) Un-polarized light
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of them
29. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit:
(a) Reflection (b) Refraction (c) Diffraction (d) Polarization
30. Polaroid glasses are used as sun glasses because
(a) It reduces the light intensity (b) It is fashionable
(c) It has good colour (d) It is cheaper
CH # 9
Definitions Wave fronts, Diffraction Grating, polarization
Topics Young‘s double Experiment, Michelson’s Interferometer, Diffraction due to Narrow
Slit, Diffraction of X-ray by a Crystal,
Short Questions 9.1, 9.2, 9.3, 9.4, 9.5, 9.6, 9.9, 9,10
Problems 9.2, 9.3, 9.4, 9.5, 9.6, 9.7, 9.8, 9.9
Examples 9.1, 9.2, 9.3

Important MCQs of Chapter # 10

1. The minimum distance from the eye at which an object appears to be distinct is called:
(a) Focal length (b) Wavelength (c) Near point (d) Far point
2. The least distance of distinct vision for the normal eye is:
(a) 25 cm (b) Infinite (c) Zero (d) 30 cm
3. With the increase in age, the near point distance of the observer:
 (a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Becomes infinite (d) Remains
constant
4. The ratio of size of image to size of object is called:
(a) Resolving power (b) Angular magnification
(c) Linear magnification (d) All of them
5. The ability of an instrument to reveal minor details of an object under examination is called:
(a) Resolving power (b) Angular magnification
(c) Linear magnification (d) All of them
6. The resolving power of a convex lens depends upon:
(a) Aperture of lens (b) Wavelength of light (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of them
7. The resolving power of a convex lens is given by:
1.22 D D  λ
(a) R= (b) R= (c) min = 1.22 D (d)
λ 1.22 λ 1.22 D
8. Resolving power of a diffraction grating in mth-order of diffraction is:
(a) N  m (b) N2  m (c) N  m2 (d) N/m
9. Resolving power of a diffraction grating is:
λ 2 − λ1 λ λ1 − λ 2 λ
(a) (b) (c) (d)
λ λ 2 − λ1 λ λ1 − λ 2
10. The more detail of an object can be seen by microscope under:
(a) Red light (b) Blue light (c) Yellow light (d) Green light
11. A convex lens can be used as magnifying glass when the object is placed:
(a) Between F and 2F (b) At 2F
(c) Within focal length (d) Beyond 2F
12. The magnifying power of a convex lens of focal length ‘f’ is:
d d 1+ d f
(a) (b) 1+ (c) (d) 1+
f f f d
13. The focal length of a convex lens is 10 cm. Its magnification is:
(a) 2.5 (b) 3 (c) 3.5 (d) 5
14. If magnification of object is Mo and that of eyepiece is Me, the magnifying power of compound
microscope is:
(a) Mo + Me (b) Mo  Me (c) Me − Me (d) Mo/Me
15. The final image formed by a compound microscope is:
(a) Real and inverted (b) Real and erect (c) Virtual and erect (d) Virtual and
inverted
16. The magnifying power of compound microscopic is 100. The magnifying power of objective is
5, the magnifying power of the eye-piece is:
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 50 (d) 25
17. Magnifying power of an astronomical telescope is:
fo fe
(a) f (b) fo × fe (c) f (d) fo + fe
e o

18. The length of an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment is:

fo fe
(a) f (b) fo × fe (c) f (d) fo + fe
e o
 19. In an astronomical telescope, the final image formed is formed at:
(a) Focus of objective lens (b) Focus of eye piece lens
(c) Near point (d) Infinity
20. The focal lengths of objective and eye piece are 100 cm and 20 cm respectively: the
magnification of telescope is
(a) 5 (b) 5 cm (c) 10 (d) 20
21. Which is not the essential component of spectrometer?
(a) Telescope (b) Turn table (c) Collimator (d) Microscope
22. In Michelson’s experiment, the equation used to find the speed of light is:
(a) c = 16 f d (b) c = 16 f / d (c) c = 16 d / f (d) c = f d / 16
23. In Michelson’s experiment, the angle subtended by a side of eight-sided mirror at the center
is:
(a) /4 rad (b) /8 rad (c) /2 rad (d) /6 rad
24. If the refractive index of medium increases, then the speed of the light through it:
(a) Decreases (b) Increases
(c) Remains unchanged (d) First decreases then increases
25. In optical fiber, the light is propagated by:
(a) Total internal reflection (b) Continuous refraction
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of them
26. For incident angle equal or greater than critical angle, the glass-air boundary will act as:
(a) Convex lens (b) Concave lens (c) Mirror (d) Transparent glass
27. The diameter of single mode step fibre core is:
(a) 10 m (b) 30 m (c) 5 m (d) 100 m
28. The diameter of multimode step fibre core is:
(a) 5 m (b) 30 m (c) 50 m (d) 100 m
29. The light emitted from LED has a wavelength:
(a) 1.3 m (b) 1.2 m (c) 1.4 m (d) 1.5 m
30. In newer system, repeaters are separated by a distance of:
(a) 20 km (b) 25 km (c) 30 km (d) 100 km
CH # 10
Definitions Least distance of distinct vision
Topics Simple & Compound Microscope, Telescope, Spectrometer, Speed of Light by
Michelson’s Method
Short Questions 10.1, 10.2 10.3, 10.4, 10.6, 10.7, 10.9,10.10, 10.10
Problems 10.1, 10.3, 10.4, 10.7, 10.8, 10.9
Examples 10.2

Important MCQs of Chapter # 11

1. Pressure of an ideal gas can be written in terms of its density ‘ρ’
1 2 1
(a) P= ρv (b) P= ρ v2
3 2
1 2
(c) P= v (d) P = ρ v2
2ρ
2. If R is universal gas constant and NA is Avogadro’s number, then Boltzman constant K is
(a) R = K NA (b) K = R / NA (c) NA = K R (d) R = K 2 NA
3. The value of Boltzmann’s constant is:
(a) 1.38  10−23 J/K (b) 1.38  10 +23 J/K
(c) 1.38  10−23 J/mole-K (d) 1.38  10−23 J/K mole-K
4. At constant temperature, the pressure ‘P’ of an ideal gas is proportional to
(a) Velocity of molecules (b) Density of gas
(c) Square of the density (d) Square root of the velocity
5. At constant temperature, the graph between V and P is
(a) Hyperbola (b) Parabola (c) Straight line (d) Ellipse
6. The internal energy of the system is increases, when the temperature of the system
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains constant (d)None of the above
7. The work done by the gas during expansion is equal to
(a) Area under PV graph (b) Area under PT graph
(c) Area under VT graph (d) Area of circle
8. First law of thermodynamics concerns conservation of:
(a) Mass into weight (b) Work into heat
(c) Momentum into K.E (d) Heat into work
9. When 110 J of heat is added to a gaseous system, internal energy increases by 40 J; the amount of
work done is:
(a) 150 J (b) 70 J (c) 110 J (d) 40 J
10. A system does 600 J of work and at the same time has its internal energy increased by 320 J. How
much heat has been supplied?
(a) 280 J (b) 920 J (c) 600 J (d) 20 J
11. In isothermal process, the internal energy of the system
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant (d) Becomes zero
12. In thermodynamics processes, the equation Q = W represents an
(a) Isobaric Expansion (b) Isothermal compression
(c) Isothermal Expansion (d) Both (a) and (b)
13. The P-V graph of an isothermal process is a
(a) Parabola (b) Hyperbola (c) Ellipse (d) Straight line
14. During an adiabatic expansion the internal energy of the gas
(a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Remains constant (d) Becomes zero
15. In an adiabatic process:
(a) Q = U + W (b) Q = U (c) Q = W (d) Q=0
16. An adiabatic process is represented by the mathematical equation
(a) PVγ=constant (b) PV=constant (c) P/V=constant (d) P/T=constant
17. The ratio of CP to CV for a diatomic gas is:
5 4 7 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 5 3
18. The difference between Cp and Cv is equal to
(a) General gas constant (b) Plank’s constant
(c) Universal gas constant (d) Boltzman constant
19. The SI-unit of molar specific heat is:
 (a) J mol K−1 (b) J mol−1K−1 (c) J mol−1K (d) J mol−1
20. A heat engine working in between two isothermals and two adiabatic is called
(a) Diesel engine (b) Clausius engine (c) Ordinary engine (d) Carnot engine
21. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between the temperatures 227C and 127C is
(a) 20% (b) 50% (c) 60% (d) 75%
22. If temperature of the source is increased, efficiency of a Carnot engine:
(a) Remains constant (b) Decreases (c) Increases (d) None of these
23. If temperature of the sink is decreased, efficiency of a Carnot engine:
(a) Remains constant (b) Decreases (c) Increases (d) None of these
24. A heat engine operating in reverse order is called
(a) Refrigerator or heat pump (b) Steam engine
(c) Petrol engine (d) All of the above
25. The unit of thermodynamic scale is
(a) Joule (b) Celsius (c) Fahrenheit (d) Kelvin
26. The absolute temperature of the triple point of water is
(a) 273.16 oC (b) 273.16 K (c) Absolute zero (d) 0 oF
27. The efficiency of a properly tuned petrol engine is
(a) 20% to 25% (b) 25% to 30% (c) 30% to 35% (d) 35% to 40%
28. The efficiency of a diesel engine is
(a) 20% to 25% (b) 25% to 30% (c) 30% to 35% (d) 35% to 40%
29. The change in entropy of the system is measured by the relation
Q T Q
(a) S = (b) S = (c) S = (d) S= Q x T
T Q T2
30. The SI unit of entropy is
(a) J K−1 (b) J s−1 (c) J K s−1 (d) J K−2
31. The natural process tends to proceed towards a state of greater:
(a) Order (b) Disorder
(c) Both order and disorder (d) Neither order nor disorder
32. During a reversible process, the entropy of the system
(a) Remains constant (b) Increases (c) Decreases (d) Becomes zero
CH # 11
Definitions Internal energy, reversible and irreversible process, Entropy
Topics Kinetic Theory of Gases, First’s Law of Thermodynamics, Cp – Cv = R, Carnet Engine
Short Questions 11.1, 11.2, 11.5, 11.6, 11.7, 11.8, 11.9, 11.10, 11.11, 11.12,11.13
Problems 11.1, 11.2, 11.3, 11.4, 11.6, 11.7, 11.8, 11.10, 11.11
Examples 11.1, 11.2, 11.4, 11.7

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