General Direction: Choose the best answer from the given alternatives

1. The atoms A and B have the electronic configurations of 1s2 2s2 2p63S2and 1s2 2s 2 2p5 respectively. The
formula of the compound they form together is most likely to be;-
A .A2 B5 B.A2 B3 C.A3B D.AB2 E.A3B2
2. Of the following compounds which one contain an element that violets the octet rule
A. SO2 ..B.BCl3 C .NCl3 D.SiCl4
3. The number of sigma bonds and Pi bonds present in CH3CH=CH-CH=CH-CH3 are
A. 14 , 2 B. 11, 2 C. 15, 2 D. 4, 2
4. Which statement is not true?
A. 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds are present in CO2B. The type of orbital overlap in HCl is S-S overlap
C. The type of hybridization in CH4 is SP3D. COCl2 contain 3 sigma bonds and 1 pi bonds
5. Which of the following best describes the formation of pi (π) bonds? They are formed by the
A. side to side way overlapping of S- orbitals B. head to head overlapping of P-orbitals
C. side to side way overlapping of P- orbitals D. head to head overlapping of S-orbitals
6. Which of the following orbitals can overlap both in head to head and side to side ways
A. S-S orbitals B. S-P orbitals C. P-P orbitals D. All
7. The type of orbital overlapping and hybridization respectively in BF3 are
A. P-SP2 overlapping B. S-SP2 overlapping C.P-SP3 overlapping D. S-SP3 overlapping
8. Which of the following statement is true?
A. Two sigma bonds represent one double bond.
B. A triple bond consists of one π-bond and two sigma bonds.
C. Bonds formed from S-orbitals overlapping are always sigma bonds.
D. End to end overlapping has two region of high electron density.
9. Which one of the following types of hybridization does not exist?
A. SP3d2B. SP2 C. SP3 D. SP2d1
10. A species (molecules) cannot exist When:
A. There is less number of electrons in its antibonding orbitals
B. There are more number of electrons in its bonding orbitals
C. There is one more electron in its antibonding orbitals
D. There are equal number of electrons in its bonding and antibonding orbitals
11. All of the following molecules have the same type of hybridization except
A. H2O B. NH3 C. SO3 D. CH4
12. Which one of the following species cannot exist? A. B2+ B. F2-2C. C2+2 D. N2-2
13. Which of the following statement is not true about bond order?
A. Molecules having zero bond order cannot exist
B. The higher the bond order is the less the stable the molecule
C. All triple bonds have three bonds order
D. It is half the difference b/n bonding electrons & antibonding electrons in molecular orbitals
14. Which one is not correctly related with its number of bond order?
A. N2 → three bond order B. B2 → one bond order C. C2- → 2.5 bond order
D. O2 → 1.5 bond order
15. Which of the following molecule is not paramagnetic? A. B2 B. N2- C. C2+2 D. O2+2
By. Fikadu Guta
16. The diatomic species X2+ has the electron configuration of:
(δ 1S)2(δ *1s)2 (δ 2S)2(δ *2s)2 (δ 2Px)2 ( π 2Py)2 ( π 2Pz)2 ( π *2Py)2 ( π *2Pz)1. Which of these is the actual
diatomic species? A. F2+ B. N2+ C. C2+ D. O2-
17. Which of the ff pair of molecules is paramagnetic in nature? (Åtomic number of O=8,B=5,N=7, F=9, H =1)
A. O2 and B2 B. N2 and O2 C. N2 and F2 D. H2 and N2
18. A neutral molecule having the general formula AB2, has no any non-bonding pairs of electrons on a central atom.
What is the hybridization of the central atom? A. SP B. SP2 C. SP3 D. SP3d E. SP3d2
19. In which of the following substances will hydrogen bond notpresent?
A. CH3CH2OH B. HI C. H2O D.HNO3
20. Which species out of the following does not contain unpaired electrons? A.N2+ B. O2−¿¿ 2 C. O2 D. B2
21. Which of the following has the highest dipole moment? A. CO2 B. HI C. SO2D. H2O
22. Which of the following statements is incorrect about molecular orbitals of molecules?
A. Anti- bonding molecular orbitals are higher in energy than bonding molecular orbitals
B. Sigma molecular orbitals are symmetrical around bonding axis
C. Pi molecular orbitals are unsymmetrical around bonding axis
D. Molecular orbitals are singly occupied in diamagnetic molecules
23. All of the following species are correctly matched with their molecular geometers except:-
A. BF−¿ 4
→¿
Tetrahedral C. SO2 → angular
B. COCl2→ Trigonal planar D. I3-→ Trigonal bipyramidal
24. An element `M` when reacted with oxygen form the compound of the form M2O3. Element `M` could be:
A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. Aluminum D. Barium
25. Which of the ff ionic compound does not obey the octet rule? A. CaCl2 B. FeCl2 C. KCl D. MgCl2
26. Which of the ff ionic compound has the highest lattice energy? A. LiCl B. NaCl C. CsCl D.KCl
27. Which one the following atoms in its ground state have the highest number of unpaired electron?
A.19K B. 16S C. 20Ca D. 15P
28. Which electron configurations describe the ground state electron configuration of Ca 2+?
A.1s2 2s2 2p6 3p1 B.1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s23px23py1
29. What is the electron configuration of sulfur (Z=16)?
A. 1s22s22p63s23p4 B. 1s22s22p4 C. 1s22s23p63s23p2 D. 1s22s22p63p4
30. Except one all of the following molecules are correctly written with its type of molecular geometry
A. PH3→ Octahedral B.NCl3→Trigonal pyramidalC. COCl2 → Trigonal planar D. CS2 →Linear
31. The type of a molecule containing four bonding pairs and 2 lone pairs electrons on the central atom is
likely to be A. AX2E3 B. AX4E2 C. AX3E3 D. AX2E4
32. Except one all have a linear molecular geometry A.CO2 B. XeF2 C. ClF3 D. IF2
33. If element A has low ionization energy and element B has high electron affinity. The type of bond formed
between element A and B is
A. Coordinate covalent bond B. Covalent bond C. Ionic bond D. Metallic bond
34. Which one of the following compound containsboth ionic and covalent bonds?
A.PCl5 B. K2O C. Na2CO3 D. H3O+

By. Fikadu Guta

35. Which statement is correct among the followings
A. SO2, H2O, NH3 and SF4 are all polar molecules B. the total number of electrons in CO−2
3 are 20 C.Cu2O,

LiF, FeCl3 and KF all violet octet rule D. H2O, NH3, HI, CH3OH all contain hydrogen bond
36. Which of the following species represent a molecule? A. CO2 B. CuO C. NaCl D. Li2O
37. As the number of electrons shared between two atoms increased
A. number of bonds formed decreases B. strength of bond increases
C. bond length increasesD. more number of lone pairs left on the central atom

38. Resonance structure is not present in A. NO3- B.CO3-2 C. NH4+ D. O3

39. All of the following species do not obey the octet rule except A. ClO3 B. ICl5 C. SF2 D. BF3
40. The type of hybridization in C2H6 , C2H4 and C2H2 respectively are
A. SP,Sp2, SP3 B. SP3 , Sp2, SP C. Sp, SP3, SP2 D. SP3, SP, SP2
41. An atom has an atomic number of 31 and mass number of 70. How many electrons will it have in it’s valence shell?
B. 4 C. 3 D. 2
42. In which one of the following does the central atom achieve an octet of electrons?
A. PCl5 B. CO2 C. BH3 D. BrCl3
43. In the ground state of a cobalt atom, there are _____ unpaired electrons and the atom is _____.
A. 3, paramagnetic B. 5, paramagnetic C. 2, diamagnetic D. 2, paramagnetic
44. What are the over lapping orbitals in the formation of carbon- carbon bond in CH3CN molecules?
A. sp2- sp2B. sp3- sp C. sp- spD. sp3- sp2
45. The hybrid orbitals around a central atom in phosphorous pentachloride molecule are:-
A. sp3d B. sp2d C. sp3 D. sp3d2
46. Which one of the following compounds has non- zero dipole moment?
A, CH4 B. O2 C. CCl4 D. CH3Cl
47. Which type of attractive forces are being overcome when liquid oxygen molecules boils at certain
temperature?
A. Dipoles – dipole forces C. Dipole- induced dipole forces
B. Dispersion forces D. Covalent bonds
48. What does the correct Lewis structure for the carbonate ions (CO 2−¿¿
3 ) show?
A. 22 valence electrons C. 16 unshared electrons
B. 4 lone pairs of electrons around the carbon atom D. 3 bond pairs of electrons
49. What are the total numbers of sigma( ∝) and pi( π ) bonds present in the structure,
CH3-CH = CH - C- OH, respectively? A.11 & 2 B. 8 & 1 C. 12 & 3 D. 10 & 2
O
−¿¿
50. What is the total number of valence electrons in BrO 3 ? A.20 B. 26 C. 32 D. 40
51. The molecular geometry of a covalent molecule with four sets of electrons from which two are bonding pair
and two are lone pair is; A. Seesaw B. T - shape C. Trigonalbipyramid D. Angular
-
52. How many lone pairs of electrons are there on the sulfur atom in sulfite ion, (SO32 )?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
53. What hybridization change does the carbon atom undergo in the combustion of methane?
CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g)→ CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g) A. Sp→ Sp2 B. Sp2 → Sp3C. Sp3 → spD. Sp2 → Sp
54. The VSEPR theory predicts the molecular geometry of ICl3 as:
A. triangular planar C. triangular pyramidal
B. triangular bi pyramidal D. T -shaped
By. Fikadu Guta
55. How many sigma and pi bonds are present in the following molecule? CH3-CH=CH-CH3
A. 11 sigma bonds and 1 pi bond C. 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi bonds
B. 10 sigma bonds and 2 pi bonds D. 8 sigma bonds and 1 pi bond
56. Except one all of the followings are a non-polar covalent molecule.
A.CS2 B. I2 C. CO2 D. BF3 E. SO2
57. If the electronic configuration of an element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d2, the electrons involved in chemical
bond formation will be_____.
A. 4S2 B. 3p6, 4s2 C 3p6, 3d2 D. 3d2, 4s2
2
58. Which of the following bond angle corresponds to sp hybridization?
A.90° B. 120° C. 180° D. 109°
– –
59. Which among the following is paramagnetic?A. N2B. N22 C. C2D. O22

60. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. NaCl being an ionic compound is a good conductor of electricity in the solid state.
B. Molecular geometry and electron set arrangement for the given molecule are the same.
C. pi- orbital electrons form weaker bonds than sigma orbital electrons.
D. VSEPR theory can explain the square planar geometry of XeF4.
2-
61. What is the bond order of F2 ?A.1 B.2 C.0 D.3
62. Which of the following molecules would you expect to be non-polar?
A. NH3 B. H2O C. PH3 D. BF3
63. If a molecule has V-shape (angular), how many lone pairs of electrons are there on the central atom?
A. 0 B. 2 C. 3 D.4
64. Which of the following molecule can be described by more than one Lewis structure?
A. NH4+ B. C2H2 C. CO3-2 D. PCl5
65. Which of the following usually produces the weakest interaction between particles of similar molar mass?
A. London force B. Dipole-Dipole force C. Covalent bond D. Hydrogen bond
66. Which of the following contain species that are iso-electronic with each other?
A. 11Na+,12Mg+2,13Al ,9F-, 8O-2 B. 11Na+, 12Mg,13Al+3 ,9F-, 8O-2
C . 11Na, 12Mg,13Al+3 ,9F-, 8O-2 . D. 11Na+,12Mg+2,13Al+3 ,9F-, 8O-2
67. Atoms can attain 8 electrons on their outer valence shell by
A. Losing of electrons B. gaining of electrons C. Sharing of electrons D. all of the above
68. Which one is differ from the rest?
A. Ionic bonding B. Hydrogen bonding C. Covalent bonding D. Metallic bonding
69. Atoms in a covalent molecules can violet octet rule due to all of the followings except:
A. deficiency of electrons B. Excess of electrons
C. even number of total electrons D. odd number of total electrons
70. Which of the following ionic compounds has the smallest lattice energy?
A. MgCl2 B. CaCl2 C. AlCl3 D. KCl
71. The number of bonding pair and lone pair of electrons respectively in H2S are
A. 2 , 2 B. 2 , 3 C. 3 , 2 D. 2 , 4
72. Which of the following molecule is AX3 type? A. BrF5 B. POCl3 C. COCl2 D. PCl3
73. All molecules with AX2E3 type have a linear geometry. Which one of the following can fulfil this
condition? A. ClF3B. I3- C. SF4 D. XeF4
74. Dipole-Dipole force is not present in A. CH4 B. HCl C. HI D. HF
By. Fikadu Guta
75. A neutral molecule having a general formula of AB3 has two lone pair of electron on the central A. What
is the hybridization of A? A. SP B. SP2 C. SP3 D. SP3d E. SP3d2
76. The type of hybridization in BCl4- is A. SP B. SP2 C. SP3 D. SP3d1
77. The type of hybridization in alkanes, alkenes and alkynes respectively are
A. SP,Sp2, SP3 B. SP3 , Sp2, SP C. Sp, SP3, SP2 D. SP3, SP, SP2
78. According to molecular orbital theory, one of the following molecules does not exist. Identify it.
A. O2 B. N2 C. Be2 D. C2
79. In the following equation, what type of hybridization change occurs at the carbon atoms
CH3- CH3 + 7/2 O2 2CO2 +3H2O
A. SP3 to SP2 B. SP3 to SP C. SP3 to SP3d D. SP2 to SP
−¿¿
80. From CO2, H2O, I 3 and BeF2, which ones have the same molecular shape
−¿¿ −¿¿
A. H2O and , I 3 B. CO2, BeF2 and , I 3 C. CO2 and BeF2 D. H2O, BeF2 and CO2

81. One of the following is not the property of metals.

A. malleable and ductile C. Hard and brittle
B. good conductors of electricity D. Lustre and durable
82. How many sigma and pi bonds are present in phenol (C6H5OH) respectively?
OH

A. 10,3 B. 13,3 C. 9,3 D. 12,3

83. How many new hybrid orbitals are formed in hybridization of central atom phosphorous in PCl3?
A.3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 2
84. What are the over lapping orbitals in the formation of carbon- carbon bond in CH2=CH2 molecules?
A. sp2- sp2 B. sp3- sp C. sp- sp D. sp3- sp2
85. The bond order and magnetic nature in a molecule of CN- are
A. 3, paramagnetic B. 2, paramagnetic C. 2, diamagnetic D. 3, diamagnetic
86. Identify the compound formed by an overlap of sp3 and p orbital’s
A. H2O B. NF3 C. CH4 D. PF5
87. Which one of the following compounds has non- zero dipole moment?
A.NH3 B. H2 C. CCl4 D.Cl2
88. According to molecular orbital theory, one of the following molecules does not Exist. Identify it.
B. H2 B. C2+2 C. Ne2 D. O2-2
89. How many sigma and pi bonds are found in Ethyne (C2H2)?
A. 2δ∧¿ 2 π B. 3δ∧¿ 2 π C. 4δ∧π D. 2δ∧π
90. A neutral molecule having the general formula AX2 has two lone pairs of electrons on central atom. What
is the hybridization of A? A.Sp3 B. Sp3d C. Sp2 D. sp
91. Which of the following represent the correct electron pair arrangement and molecular shape of BrF 3
respectively? A. trigonal planar, angular C. trigonal bi pyramid, v- shape
B. trigonal planar, T- shape D. trigonal bi pyramid, T- shape
−¿¿
92. How many pairs of unshared valence electrons are present on the central atom of ICl 4 ?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
By. Fikadu Guta
93. In which of the following compounds intermolecular hydrogen bonding occurs?
A. HCl B. CH3OH C. H2CO D. COCl2
94. Which of the following ionic compound does not obey the octet rule?
A. SNO2 B. FeCl2 C. ZnO D. SrCl2
95. Which of the following molecule has trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry
A.PH3B. XeF2 C. ClF3 D. IF2
96. All of the followings are characteristics of ionic compounds in their solid phase except
A. high melting and boiling point B. solubility in water
C. high electrical conductivity D. insolubility in organic solvents
97. The molecular geometry of a covalent molecule with five sets of electrons from which three are bonding pair
and two are lone pair is; A. Seesaw B. T - shape C. Trigonalbipyramidal D. Linear
98. How many lone pairs of electrons are on the bromine atom in bromine triflouride, (BrF3)?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
99. The VSEPR theory predicts the molecular geometry of SF2 as:
A. triangular planar C. triangular pyramidal
B. triangular bi pyramidal D. V -shaped

100. Which among the following is paramagnetic? A.N2B. N22– C. C2D. O22–
101. Two atoms each contribute two electrons for bonding. The type of covalent bond formed by this way
is:
A. Single covalent bond B. double covalent bond
C. Triple covalent bond D. Coordinate covalent bond
102. Which of the following molecules would you expect to be not non-polar?
A. CO3-2 B. HCN C. IF5 D. BF3
103. If a molecule has Trigonal pyramid geometry, how many lone pairs of electrons are there on the
central atom? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D.4
104. Which of the following molecule has no Resonance Lewis structure?
A. O3 B. SO2 C. NO3- D. COCl2E. N2O4
105. Which of the following usually produces the strongest interaction between hydrogen and FON?A.
London force B. Dipole-Dipole force C. Covalent bond D. Hydrogen bond
106. The number of bonding pair and lone pair of electrons respectively in XeF4 are
A. 4, 12 B. 4 , 13 C. 4 , 12 D. 4 , 14
107. Which of the following molecule is AX2E2 type? A. BrF5 B. POCl3 C. COCl2 D. PCl3 E. H2S
108. All molecules with AX4E type have a seesawgeometry. Which one of the following can fulfil this
condition? A. IF3 B. COCl2 C. SF4D. XeF2
109. Dipole-Dipole force is present in A. CO2 B. BF3 C. HI D. PCl5
110. A neutral molecule having a general formula of A2B has two lone pair of electron on the central B.
What is the hybridization of A? A. SP B. SP2 C. SP3 D. SP3d E. SP3d2
111. The type of hybridization of carbon atoms in C3H8,C3H6 and C3H4 respectively is:-
A. Sp, SP2, Sp3 B. Sp3,Sp2, Sp C. Sp, Sp3, Sp2 D. SP3, SP, SP2
112. Which molecule is AX4E2 type [atomic number of S=16,F=9, Xe=54, Br=35 & cl=17]
A. SF4 B. XeF4 C. BrF5 D. ClF3

By. Fikadu Guta

113. Which statement is not true for the reason why atoms combine together?
A. to get a nearest noble gas electron configuration B. to lower their energy
C. to produce new substances wit new properties D. to become electrically unstable
114. Which of the following pairs of energies are totally endothermic?
A. heat of sublimation and lattice energy B. ionization energy and dissociation energy
C. electron affinity and lattice energy D. ionization energy and electron affinity
115. Which of the following is not a factor for the formation of ionic bonding?
A. Ionization energy B. Electro negativity C. Lattice energy D. Electron affinity
116. The molecular geometry of a covalent molecule with five sets of electrons from which three are
bonding pair and two are lone pair is A. Seesaw B. T - shape C. Trigonal bipyramidal D. Linear
117. If element A has low ionization energy and element B has high electron affinity. The type of bond
formed between element A and B is
A. Coordinate covalent bond B. Covalent bond C. Ionic bond D. Metallic bond
118. Which one of the following compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds?
A. PCl5 B. K2O C. Na2CO3D. H3O+
119. The change in enthalpy that occurs when an ionic solid is separated in to an isolated ions in the gas
phase is A. Ionization energy B. Sublimation energy C. Electron affinity D. Lattice energy
120. As the number of electrons shared between two atoms increase
A. number of bonds formed decreases B. strength of bond increases
C. bond length increase D. more number of lone pairs left on the central atom
121. Resonance structure is not present in A. NO3- B.CO3-2 C. NH4+ D. O3
122. All of the following species do not obey the octet rule except A. ClO3 B. ICl5 C. SF2 D. BF3
123. In which one of the following does the central atom achieve an octet of electrons?
B. PCl5 B. CO2 C. BH3 D. AlCl3
124. Except one all of the following molecules are correctly written with its types of hybridization
−¿ ¿
A. SO2→ Octahedral B. BF 4 →Tetrahedral C. COCl2 → Trigonal planar D. CS2 →Linear
125. What does the correct Lewis structure for the carbonate ions (CO 2−¿¿
3 ) show?
C. 22 valence electrons C. 16 unshared electrons
D. 4 lone pairs of electrons around the carbon atom D. 3 bond pairs of electrons
126. According to molecular orbital theory, one of the following molecules does not Exist. Identify it. A. O 2 B.
N2 C. Be2 D. C2

By. Fikadu Guta

127. Atoms take part in bond formation to
A/ attain a stable electronic configuration B/ increase their charge density
C/ increase their energy D/ neutralize their charge
128. The atoms A and B have the electronic configurations of 1s2 2s 2 2p63S2and 1s2 2s 2 2p5 each
respectively. The formula of the compound they form together is most likely to be;-
A .A2 B5 B.A2B3 C.A3B D.AB2 E.A3B2
129. Two elements Aand B belong to the same group in the periodic table. The atomic number of "B" is
twice that of 'A'. The electronegativity of A is_ A. Equal B .Lower C.Higher D. Twice
130. The type of orbital overlapping and hybridization respectively in BF3 are
A. P-SP2 overlapping B. S-SP2 overlapping C.P-SP3 overlapping D. S-SP3 overlapping
131. Which of the following is true about an atom?
A. There is an atom with more than one proton but no neutron
B. An atom has equal number of proton, electron and neutron
C. An atom of one element is differ from an atom of another element only by their physical properties.
D. Atoms of the same elements have different masses
132. “The mass of one element combining with affixed mass of the other element must be in whole number
ration” This is according to the law of
A. Conservation of mass B. Definite proportion C. Multiple proportion D. Mass action
133. The model of the atom that developed the statement that electrons can be described only interms of the
probability of their location is
A. Bohr’s model B. Rutherford’s model C. Quantum mechanical model D. Thomson’s model
134. Which of the following is the correct ground state electronic configuration for 29Cu?
A. 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P6 4S2 3d9 C. 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3Pd10
B. 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P6 4S1 3d10 D.1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P64S03d10

135. Which of the following groups of elements have the same number of electronic configuration?
A. 8O-2, 15P-3, 12Mg+2, 9F- C. 12Mg+2, 11Na+, 2Ca+2, 13Al+3
B. 19K+, 13Al+3, 14Si+4, 9F- D. 19k+, 17Cl-, 15P-3, 20ca+2
136. A certain ion of an atom has a charge of -1 and a valence electron configuration of 4S2 4p6, what is the atomic
number of the atom?
A. 35 B. 36 C. 26 D. 37
137. An element ‘A’ has only two naturally occurring isotopes. The first isotope have 29 protons and 34 neutrons
with fractional abundance of 70%. If the average atomic mass of the element ‘A’ is 63.5, the number of neutrons
present in the second isotope must be
A. 65 B. 36 C. 35 D. 29
138. Which of the following ideas is introduced by Bohr’s model of an atom?
A. The structure of an atom resembles the solar system
B. For atoms of the known elements there are four types of sublevels
C. Electrons revolve around the nucleus in a circular orbit called shell
D. Electrons are embedded in appositively charged sphere

By. Fikadu Guta

 139. The property of the element with atomic number 24 resembles that of the element with atomic number of
A. 42 B. 25 C. 29 D. 37
140. Which of the following species has the largest atomic radii?
A. 17Cl- B. 15P-3 C. 16S-2 D. 7N-3
141. An atom is electrically neutral because it contains
A. An equal number of electrons and protons
B. An equal number of electrons and neutrons
C.More electrons than protons
D. More protons than electrons
142. To which group and period of the periodic table does an elements with atomic number of 31 belongs?
A. Group IA and period 4 C. Group IIIA and period 4
B. Group IIIA and period 2 D. Group IIA and period 4
143. Which of the following statement is not true about the properties of the elements in the periodic table?
A. Elements at the left side of the period have low ionization energy
B. The reason for the increase of atomic radii down in the group is due to the
increase in nuclear charge
C. Elements at the left side of the period have large atomic size
D. Electron affinity of the elements increase from right to left across the period
144. In any groups of the periodic table elements
A. Become more reactive in moving down a group
B. Accept electron more readily as atomic number increase
C. Gain electron more readily as ionization energy decrease
D. Lose electron more readily as electron negativity decrease
145. The formula of ionic compound between group IIIA metals “M” and group VIA non-metal
“X” will be A.M3X2 B.M2X3 C.MX3 D.M2X
146. The type of bond formed between elements of low ionization energy and highly electron affinity is
A. Ionic bond B. Covalent bond C. Coordinate covalent bond D. Metallic bond
147. In the Lewis structure of PCl3 Phosphorous is surrounded by ____ bonding pairs and
_______lone pair respectively
A. 3 ,10 B.5,1 C.3,1 D.3,10
148. Which of the following molecule is polar covalent molecule?
A.CO2 B.Ccl4 C.Ncl3 D.BF3
149. Among the following which one contain ionic and covalent bond?
A.Pcl5 B.Sf6 C.K2NO3 D.Al2O3
150. The centeral atom violet an octet rule
A. CO2 B.H2S C. SF4 D. SO2
151. Which of the following forces is not intermolecular force?
A. Dipole- Dipole force B. Dispersion force
C. Coordinate covalent bond D. Hydrogen bond
152. Hydrogen bond is not present in
A.NH3 B.CH3OH C.H2O D. HCl
153. An element will atomic no. 11 would form ionic bond when bonded with an element with
atomic number of A.13 B.17 C.18 D.20

By. Fikadu Guta

 154. The type of bond formed when NH3 reacts with H+ (proton) is
A. Ionic bond B. Covalent bond C. dative bond D. dispersion force
155. Which of the following is no a chemical change?
A. Souring of milk C. heating of sugar
B. Rusting of iron D. dissolving of NaCl in water
156. In every balanced chemical equation all of the following s are conserved except
A. Number of atoms B. Number of mole C. Mass of number D. Number of charge
157. When the reaction :- A. Al2(SO4)3 +Mgcl2→Alcl3 + MgsO4 is correctly balanced, the sum of the
coefficients of the reactants and product is A.7 B.9 C.13 D.11
158. Assume that the energy of the product in a chemical reaction is 650KJ. This reaction could be
endothermic if the energy of the reactants was A.650KJ B.700KJ C.600KJ D.1000KJ
159. Which of the following is an example of synthesis reaction?
A. Nacl+ MgNO3→ NaNO3 +Mgcl2 C. 2kClO3→2kcl+2O3
B.K2O +H2O→2KOH D.2Al + 6Hcl→2Alcl3 + 3H2
160. The type of reaction in which two or more product are formed from a single reaction is
A. Combination B. Decomposition C. Metathetical D. Single displacement
161. Give the reaction :- 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3. How many grams of Al2O3 are produced when 54g of
aluminum reacts with excess oxygen?
A. 51g B. 102g C. 204g D. 78g
162. How many litres of NO2 gas at STP are required to react with water to form 11.2 litres of No
gas according to the equation
3NO2 + H2O → 2HNO3 +NO
A. 3.73 L B. 33.6L C. 4.31L D. 22.4L
163. In the reaction :- N2 + 3H2→ 2NH3, if 7 grams of N2 gas reacts with 2 grams of H2 gas, which one of
the following is not true?
A. hydrogen is the limiting reactant C. only 0.5 gram of the excess reactant is left unreacted
B.8.5 grams of NH3 is formed D. formation of NH3 depends on nitrogen
164. When 50g of CaO3 undergo decomposition by heat, 16g of CO2 gas was obtained. What was the
percentage yield of CO2? The reaction is caco3 CaO +CO2
A. 58.4% B. 72.7% C. 66.3% D. 89.27%
165. The oxidation number of phosphorous in Na4P2O7 is
A. +6 B. +2 C. +5 D. +3
166. What happens to an oxidizing agent in an oxidation- reduction reaction?
A. It is oxidized as it loss electron (s) C. It is oxidized as if gains electron (s)
B. It is reduced as it loses electron (s) D. It is reduced as if gains electron (s)
167. which of the following is not a non- redox reaction?
A. KOH + HCl Kcl+H2O C. Zn + H2SO4 ZnSO4+H2
B. CaCO3 + AlCl3 Al2 (CO3)3 +Cacl2 D. Agcl+ NaNO3 AgNO3 +Nacl
168. One of the following is not a pre- condition for a reaction to occur?
A. proper orientation B. activation energy C. nature of the reactant D. effective collision
169. Except one all of the followings can affect the rate of a reaction?
A. surface area B. temperature C. concentration D. solubility
170. Which of the following molecules has no lone pairs of electrons on the central atom?
−¿¿
A. NH3 B. OF2 C. SF2 D. BCl 4❑

By. Fikadu Guta

171. The amount of heat released when one mole of liquid is converted a solid is called
A. the amount of heat released C. molar heat of crystallization
B. Molar heat of fusion D. Molar heat of sublimation
172. Which of the following is not a characteristic of chemical equilibrium?
A. Rate of forward and reverse reactions are constant
B. The macroscopic properties are kept constant
C. The concentration of reactants and products are equal D.The reaction are dynamic

173. Given the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) + heat 2SO2(g) which change will result in a decrease in the amount of
SO3?
A. Increasing concentration of SO2 C. Decreasing pressure
B. Increasing temperature D. Decreasing volume
174. Which of the following reactions of equilibrium is not affected by pressure?
A. N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) C. H2(g) + F2(g) 2HF(g)
B. 2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(l) D. PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) PCl5(g)
175. The equilibrium constant (kc) expression for:-2H2O(l) 2H2(g) +2(g) is
A. [H2] [O2] C. [H2]2 [O2]
B. [H]2 + [O2] D. [H2]2 [O2]
176. 3 moles of (NH4)2 HPO4 contains
A. 16 moles of nitrogen C. 7 moles of oxygen atoms
B. 27 moles of hydrogen atoms D. 24 moles of hydrogen atoms
177. Which of the following changes will always increase the amount of products at equilibrium?
A. An increase in pressure C. Increase the reactant concentration
B. An increase in temperature D. Addition of catalyst
178. The volume of a certain confined gas is doubled while the pressure is held constant. What will happen
to the temperature of this gas?
A. It will decrease by half C. It will increase by four factor
B. It will be doubled D. It will remain the same
179. The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to
A. The total pressure of the gas
B. The volume occupied by the gas
C. The absolute temperature of the gas
D. The number of molecule of the gas
180. The type of physical state which occur at high temperature and low pressure
A. Solid state C. Gaseous state
B. Liquid state D. The number of moles of the gas
181. What is the density of CO2 gas at 1atm & 25oc? [R=0.082L.atm/mol.k]
A. 21.5g/L B. 1.8g/L C. 0.5g/L D. 1.2g/L
182. Oxygen gas (O2) diffuses 2 times an unknown gas. What is the molar mass of the unknown gas?
A. 128 B. 64 C. 22.6 D. 8
183. Equal volume of different gasses at constant temperature and pressure have equal number
of molecules. This is the law of stated by
A. Boyle’s B. Charle’s C. Lussac’s D. Avogadro
184. A 10 litres of gas exerts a pressure of 40 atm at constant temperature. What is the new
volume of the gas if the pressure is changed to 80 atm at constant temperature?
A. 5L B. 20L C. 2.5L D. 10L

By. Fikadu Guta

185. The volume of 64g of methane gas (CH4) at 27oc and 4atm is
A. 11.2L B. 49.2L C. 24.6L D. 2.214L
186. The first organic compound synthesized from inorganic compounds has a molecular formula of
A. NH4Cl C. AgCNO
B. NH4CNO D. (NH2)2CO
187. Isomers are different in all of the following except
A. Physical properties C. Molar Mass
B. Structure D. Arrangement of atoms
188. Which one of the following reaction is a good example of elimination rxn?
A. CH4 + 2O2→ CO2+2H2O C. CH2= CH2+H2O → CH3 CH2OH
B. CH3 CH2 CH3 +Cl2→ CH3 CH2 CH2Cl +HCl D. CH3 CH2CH2 CH3→ CH3CH= CH2+CH4
189. All of the following reactions can produce alkane except
A. CH3COONa +NaOH→ C. 2CH3Cl + 2Na→
¿
B. CH3 CH2 CH= CH2 +H2→❑ D. CH2= CH2 +H2ON → H2SO4
190. Which one of the following hydro carbon can exhibit cis – trans geometrical isomerism? cis- trans
A. Cl2C= Ccl2 B. CH2= CH2 = CH2- CH3 C. CHCl = CHBr D. CHCl= CBr2
191. The compound CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3 is
A. aldehyde C.Ester
B. Ketone D. Ether
192. Which of the following element is found in the most organic compounds combined with carbon atom?
A. Nitrogen C. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen D. Chlorine
193. Which of the following represents aternary acid? A. HF B. H2SC. HNO3 D. HCN
194. During electrolysis process
A. Cations lose electrons to form atoms C. Cations are oxidized
B. Anions are attracted to the positive electrodes D. Anions are reduced
195. Suppose that you want to electroplate a spoon made of iron with silver which of the following conditions will m
the process workout correctly?
A.The electrolyte should be made of any soluble salts of iron
B. The spoon should be made the chathode
C. The electrolyte should be made of any soluble salts of iron and silver
D. The electrolyte can be made from any soluble salts except from iron and silver
196. Which of the following is used as an electrolyte in Leclanche dry cell?
A.NH4Cl B. MnO2 C. ZnCl2 D. H2SO4
197. Which of the following process uses a Galvanic cell?
A. Purification(refining) of metals C. Lead storage battery
B. Electrolysis of brine solution D. Production of sodium from NaCl

198. Which of the following solution shows current flow in an electronic cell?
A. Molten solution of sugar C. Solid sodium chloride
B. Solution of ethanol D. Hydrochloric acid
199. Compounds that occur widely in glass, cement and ceramics are
A. Carbonates B. Chlorides C. Silicates D. Nitrates

By. Fikadu Guta

200. What substance is used as a bleaching agent to bleach the brown syrup in the sugar manufacturing process?
A. Cl2 B. SO2 C. H2O2 D. O3
201. Which of the following methods is used to reduce air pollution?
A. Recycling of agricultural wastes C. reducing emission of CO2
B. Increasing use of organic fertilizers D. Recycling of non-biodegradable materials
202. Nitrates and phosphates as water pollutant
A. Causes death of water organisms C. increase the amount of dissolved oxygen
B. Speed up water borne diseases D. accelerate the growth of plants in the water
203. The substance that deplete the ozone layers is A. CO2 B. CFCs C. Heavy metals D. oxides of nitrogen
204. Global warming is caused by the high accumulation of --------- in the air. A.SO2 B. NO2 C. CH4 D. CO2
205. Which of the following cycles is the slowest cycle?
A. Carbon cycle B. Nitrogen cycle C. Phosphorous cycle D. Sulphur cycle
206. Which of the following process is not included in the sulphur cycle?
A. Mineralization Incorporation C. Assimilation D. Oxidation
207. The permissible level of toxicity in the atmosphere is known by
A. Threshold limit value B. Dissolved oxygen C. Biological oxygen demand D. Dissolved organic matter
208. The major source of land, air and water pollutant among the followings is
A. Harmful heavy metals C. Excessive use of fertilizers
B. Non-biodegradable materials D. Un treated wastes
209. Which of the following is not a member of greenhouse gases? A. CO2 B. CH4 C. N2O D. O2& N2
210. A way of treating and cleaning wastes after it is generated is
A. Prevention B. Atom economy C. Reduce derivatives D. Design of saferchemicals

211. Which of the following is the best definition of electro negativity?

A. Electro negativity is the energy required for a gaseous atom to gain an electron.
B. Electro negativity is the attraction of an atom for a bonding pair of electrons.
C. Electro negativity is the attraction b/n the nucleus and the valence electrons of an atom.
D. Electro negativity is the ability of an atom to attract electrons from another atom.
212. Which of the following electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wave length but has highest
frequency and energy?
A. Ultraviolet (UV) rays B. microwaves C. Gamma rays D. Infrared (IR) rays
213. Ionic compounds are formed between elements of:
A. High ionization energy & high electron affinity B. Low ionization energy & low electron affinity
C. High ionization energy & low electron affinity D. Low ionization energy& high electron affinity
214. Which one is not the property of ionic compounds? Ionic compounds:
A. have high boiling & melting points at room temperature B. do not occur in molecular form
C. are aggregates of positive and negative charges D. can conduct electricity in all physical states
215. An element `M` when reacted with oxygen form the compound of the form M2O3. Element `M` could
be: A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. Aluminum D. Barium
216. Which property generally decreases down a group in the periodic table? A. atomic size valence
electron B. Number of energy level C. first ionization energy
By. Fikadu Guta
217. The energy change when an extra electron is added to an atom or ion is:A. Electro negativityB.
Ionization energy C. Electron affinity D. Electro positivity
218. Which of the following element has the lowest first ionization energy?
A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Calcium D. Aluminium
219. Which of the following is not correctly arranged based on their atomic size (radius)?
A. Al3+,F- ,Na+,Mg2+,O2-B. Al3+Mg2+, ,Na+, F-, O2-C. O2-,F-, Na+, Mg2+ ,Al3+D.F- ,O2-,Al3+, Mg2+ , Na+
220. The four possible quantum numbers for the valence shell (last electron) of Potassium (19K) is
A. n=3, l=2, ml=2, ms=+1 B. n=4, l=1, ml=0, ms=-1/2
C. n=4, l=0, ml=0, ms=+1/2 D. n=4, l=2, ml=1, ms = +1/2
221. Copper has two isotopes. These are 63Cu and 65Cu. If the average atomic mass copper is 63.546amu,
what is the percentage abundance of the two isotopes respectively?
A. 69.1% and 30.9%B. 48.67% and 51.33% C. 30.9% and 69.1% D. 51.33% and 48.67% E. None
222. The classification of elements in the modern period table is mainly based on A. mass number B.
physical property C. Electron arrangement D. Natural abundance
223. Which of the following ionic compound does not obey the octet rule?
A. Cacl2B. FeCl2C. KClD. MgCl2
224. What is the atomic number of a neutral atoms having outer most shell electron configuration of 4d 7?
A. 45 B.43 C. 51 D. 47
225. For degenerate orbitals, each must be singly occupied with an electron before any one orbital doubly
occupied. This statement refers to A. Aufbau principle B. Hund`s rule C. Pauli`s exclusion principle
D. Heisenberg`s uncertainity principle
226. Isotopes of an element has the same chemical properties due to:
A. have the same number of proton B. have different number of neutrons C. have the same atomic
number D. have the same valence electrons
227. The energy required to remove an electron from an iron atom is 7.21x10-19J. What is the wave length of
light(in nm)? A. 250 B. 300 C. 289 D. 276
228. Which of the following has the lowest electro negativity?
A. Carbon B. Beryllium C. Magnesium D. Boron
229. Which of the following is not a physical property?
A. Dissolving ionic compounds in water B. Reacting NaOH with HCl
C. Boiling of water D. Converting solid sodium to gas
230. An atom has an atomic number of 31 and a mass number of 70. How many electrons will it have in its
valence shell? A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5

By. Fikadu Guta

231. Which pairs fails to represent atomic number of elements that belong to the same group in the periodic
table? A. 20 and 56 B. 39 and 21 C. 33 and 51 D. 18 and 52
232. The electron configuration of the ion M2+ ends with 3d10. Which of the following is true about this
element? A. its atomic number is 28 B. its electron configuration is [Ar]4s23d8C. its found in period 3
and group IIB D. it is representative element
233. The subshell that is found in every main shell is A. P B. d C. f D. S
234. Which group of elements is characterized with ns2np6 outer electron configuration?
A. IVB B. VIIA C. VIA D. VA
235. Which of the following ionic compound has the highest lattice energy?
A. LiCl B. NaCl C. CsCl D.KCl
236. The branch of chemistry that study about oxides, silicates, sulphates, carbonates, nitrates,phosphates
and chlorides is A. Physical chemistry B. Analytical chemistry
C. Organic chemistry D. Inorganic chemistry
237. The basic criteria for 12Mg2+ and 9F- to be called iso-electronicis that:
A. Both have the same number of proton C. Both have the same electron figuration B. Both are found
in the same period in the periodic table D. Both are electrically charged
238. Which of the following is not a factor for the formation of ionic bonding?
A. Ionization energy B. Electro negativity C. Lattice energy D. Electron affinity
239. As the value of principal quantum number becomes larger and larger
A. Electrons move from higher to lower orbit B. The radius of the orbit decreases
C. Atoms loss more energy D. The frequency of the atom increases
240. The molecular geometry of a covalent molecule with five sets of electrons from which three are
bonding pair and two are lone pair is A. Seesaw B. T shape C. Trigonal bipyramidal D. Linear
−
241. The expression X + e− → X + energy, where X =nonmetal indicates
A. Electro negativity B. Ionization energy C. Electro positivity D. Electron affinity
242. Which one of the followings electronic configurations is reasonable for the ground state of an atom?
A. 1s22s22p63s13p1 B. 1s22s22p63s23p5 C. 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p1 D. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d84p1
243. The correct increasing order of energy of 4f, 5p, 6s and 5d orbital is:
A. 4f <5p <5d <6s B. 4f <6s< 5d< 5p C. 5p <6s <4f< 5d D. 5p< 5d <6s <4f
244. Which of the following atom in the ground state has two half filled orbital?
A. Oxygen B. Silicon C. Phosphorous D. Nitrogen
245. Which of the following quantum number is not allowed for an electron of n, l, ml and ms respectively?
A. 3, 2, -1, ½ B. 3, 0, -1, ½ C. 1, 0, 0, ½ D. 6, 5, -4, ½
246. Which sub shells with the following designations cannot exist in an atom? A. 3S B. 3P C. 3f D. 3d
247. Which sub shell notation is written correctly for a given n and l - values
A. n=4, l=2 is 4p B. n=3, l=1 is 3s C. n=4, l=2 is 4d D. n=3, l=1 is 3s
248. If an electron undergoes all the possible transitions from higher n- orbit to the second excited
state(n=3),the line produced is A.Lyman series B. Paschen series C. Balmer series D. Bracket series

By. Fikadu Guta

249. An electron drops from n=5 to n=1 and produce a continuous spectral lines called Lyman series which
is equal to A. Ultraviolet series B. Visible series C. Infrared series D. Microwaves series
250. Except one all of the following molecules are correctlrly written with its type of hybridization
A. SO2→ Octahedral B.BF4-→Tetrahedral C. COCl2 → Trigonal planar D. CS2 →Linear
251. The wave length of a photon emitted during a transition from ni =5 State to nf = 2 state in the hydrogen
atom is A.434nm B.242nm C. 138nm D. 327nm
252. If an electron makes a transition from n =2 to n= 3 in the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the energy
of the hydrogen line that corresponds to this transition is
A.4.58x10-19 J B. 3.03x10-19J C. 2.76x10-19J D. 1.96x10-19J
253. The velocity of an electron is 1x106 m/s.What is the de Broglie wave length?
A.3.27x10-9m B.6.17x10-14 m C. 7.27x10-10m D. 4.25x10-10m
254. Which of the following elements has the lowest first ionization energy?
A. Potassium B. Aluminium C. Magnesium D. Sodium
255. The type of a molecule containing four bonding pairs and 2 lone pairs electrons on the central atom is
likely to be A. AX2E3 B. AX4E2 C. AX3E3 D. AX2E4
256. Except one all have a linear molecular geometry A.CO2 B. XeF2 C. ClF3 D. IF2
257. If element A has low ionization energy and element B has high electron affinity. The type of bond
formed between element A and B is
A. Coordinat covalent bond B. Covalent bond C. Ionic bond D. Metallic bond
258. How many possible values of the azimuthal quantum numbers are there for an electron on 6P?
A. 0,1,2,3,4,5 B.6 C. 1,2,3,4,5 D.7
259. Which set of quantum number (n, l, ml, ms) is not permitted by the rules of quantum numbers
respectively? A. 3,1,0,1/2 B. 3,2, -2, ½ C. 4 , 2, -1, ½ D. 2 , 2, 1 , ½
260. For a 5p orbital, the value of n and l respectively are A. 5 , 2 B. 5, 1 C. 4, 2 D. 4 , 1
261. Which molecule is not correctly matched with its dominant intermolecular force?
A. NH3 –hydrogen bond B. Cl2 –dispersion force
C. HCl – dipole-dipole force D. CH3CH2OH- London force
262. Which statement is correct among the followings
A. SO2, H2O, NH3 and SF4 are all polar molecules B. the total number of electrons in CO3-2 are 20
C.Cu2O, LiF, FeCl3 and KF all violet octet rule D. H2O, NH3, HI, CH3OH all contain hydrogen bond
263. Which statement is not true for the reason why atoms combine together?
A. to get a nearest noble gas electron configuration B. to become electrically unstable
C. to lower their energy D. to produce new substances wit new properties
264. All of the followings are characteristics of ionic compounds in their solid phase except
A. high melting and boiling point B. solubility in water
C. high electrical conductivity D. insolubility in organic solvents
265. The change in enthalpy that occurs when an ionic solid is separated in to an isolated ions in the gas
phase is A. Ionization energy B. Sublimation energy C. Electron affinity D. Lattice energy
266. Which of the following pairs of energies are totally endothermic?
A. heat of sublimation and lattice energy B. ionization energy and dissociation energy
C. electron affinity and lattice energy D. ionization energy and electron affinity
267. Which of the following species represent a molecule? A. CO2 B. CuO C. NaCl D. Li2O
268. As the number of electrons shared between two atoms increase
A. number of bonds formed decreases B. strength of bond increases
C. bond length increase D. more number of lone pairs left on the central atom

By. Fikadu Guta

269. Which of the following atom in the ground state has two unpaired electrons?
A. Oxygen B. aluminum C. Phosphorous D. Nitrogen
270. Which of the following electronic configurations for the electrons in P-orbital of nitrogen atom satisfies
Hund`s rule? A. ↾ ⇂ ↾ B.↾ ⇂ ↾ C.↾ ↾ ↾ D. ↾ ↾ ⇂
271. Which of the following quantum number is not allowed for an electron of n, l, ml and ms respectively?
A. 3, 2, -1, ½ B. 3, 0, -1, ½ C. 1, 0, 0, ½ D. 6, 5, -4, ½
272. Which sub shells with the following designations cannot exist in an atom? A. 3S B. 3P C. 3f D. 3d
273. Which sub shell notation is written correctly for a given n and l - values
A. n=4, l=2 is 4p B. n=3, l=1 is 3s C. n=4, l=2 is 4d D. n=3, l=1 is 3s
274. If an electron undergoes all the possible transitions from higher n- orbit to the second excitedstate,the
line produced isA.Lyman series B. Paschen series C. Balmer series D. Bracket series
275. Ifan electron drops from n=5 to n=1in the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the possible number of
transitional spectral lines formed areequal to A. 5 B. 10 C, 15 D. 21
276. The wave length of a photon emitted during a transition from ni =5 energy state to nf = 2 energy state in
the hydrogen atom is A.434nm B.242nm C. 138nm D. 327nm
277. If an electron makes a transition from n =2 to n= 3 in the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the energy
of the hydrogen line that corresponds to this transition is
A.4.58x10-19 J B.3.03x10-19J C. 2.76x10-19J D. 1.96x10-19J
278. The velocity of an electron is 1x106 m/s.What is the de Broglie`s wave length?
A.3.27x10-9m B.6.17x10-14 m C. 7.27x10-10m D. 4.25x10-10m
279. How many possible values of the azimuthal quantum numbers are there for an electron for n=6?
A. 0,1,2,3,4,5 B.6 C. 1,2,3,4,5,6 D.7
280. Which one of the following compound contains ionic bond? A.PCl5 B. H2O C. Li2O D. CO2
281. Which statement is not true for the reason why atoms combine together?
A. to get a nearest noble gas electron configuration B. to lower their energy C. to produce new
substances wit new properties D. to become electrically unstable
282. All of the followings are characteristics of ionic compounds in their solid phase except
A. high melting and boiling point B. solubility in water
C. high electrical conductivity D. insolubility in organic solvents
283. Which of the following pairs of energies are totally endothermic?
A. heat of sublimation and lattice energy B. ionization energy and dissociation energy
C. electron affinity and lattice energy D. ionization energy and electron affinity
284. All of the following species in the central atom do not obey the octet rule except
A. FeCl3 B. BeF2 C. K2O D. BF3
285. How many 3d electrons are present in the ground state of chromium (Cr)? A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 10
286. Which of the following periodic properties of elements decrease down a group in main group
elements? A.Nuclear charge B. atomic size C. Electro negativity D. metallic character
287. The correct electronic configuration of P-3 is?
A.1s22s22p63s23p3 B. 1s22s22p63s2 C. 1s22s22p63s23p6 D. 1s22s22p63s23p1
288. Which of the following is not a factor for the formation of ionic bonding?
A. Ionization energy B. Electro negativity C. Lattice energy D. Electron affinity

By. Fikadu Guta

289. The electron configuration of the ion M2+ ends with 3d10. Which of the following is true about this
element?
A. its atomic number is 28 B. its electron configuration is [Ar]4s23d8
C. its found in period 3 and group IIB D. it is representative element
290. The subshell that is found in every main shell is A. P B. d C. f D. S
291. Which group of elements is characterized with ns2np6 outer electron configuration?
A. IVB B. VIIA C. VIA D. VIIIA
292. Which of the following is not a physical property?
A. Dissolving ionic compounds in water B. Reacting NaOH with HCl
C. Boiling of water D. Converting solid sodium to gas
293. An atom has an atomic number of 31 and a mass number of 70. How many electrons will it have in its
valence shell? A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5
294. A certain neutral atom has outer most shell electron configuration of 4d7. What is the atomic number of
this atom? A. 45 B.43 C. 51 D. 47
295. Which of the following is not correctly arranged based on their atomic size (radius)?
A. Al3+,F- ,Na+, Mg2+ , O2- B. Al3+Mg2+, ,Na+, F-, O2-
C. O2-,F-, Na+, Mg2+ ,Al3+ D.F- ,O2-,Al3+, Mg2+ , Na+
296. The four possible quantum numbers for the valence shell (last electron) of Potassium (19K) is
A. n=3, l=2, ml=2, ms=+1 B. n=4, l=1, ml=0, ms=-1/2
C. n=4, l=0, ml=0, ms=+1/2 D. n=4, l=2, ml=1, ms = +1/2
297. Ionic compounds are formed between elements of:
A. High ionization energy & high electron affinity B. Low ionization energy & low electron affinity
C. High ionization energy & low electron affinity D. Low ionization energy& high electron affinity
298. What is the scientific notation of a number 0.004851 in two significant figures?
A. 4.8 x 10−3 B. 4.8 x 10−2 C. 4.9 x 10−3 D. 4.851 x 10−3
299. Which of the following is not a base SI unit?
A. Kelvin B. second C. Joule D. Ampere
300. Daltons was correct in his statement that states as
A. Atoms of different element have different chemical properties
B. Matter is made up of very small particles called atoms
C. Atoms are indivisible and indestructible
D. Atoms of the same elements are alike
301. The information obtained from the following quantum number is not correctly related in
A. Principal quantum number → size of the orbital
B. Azimuthal quantum number → number of sub shells present with in any shell
C. Magnetic quantum number → Shape of the orbitals
D. Electron spin quantum number → direction of the electron

By. Fikadu Guta

 302. A compound always contains the same element in the same proportion by mass. This
statement refers to _____
A. The law of conservation of mass C. The law of indestructibility of matter
B. The law of multiple proportion D. The law of constant composition
303. In which one of the following numbers are all of the zeros significant?
A. 0.0201 B. 200.080 C. 1040 D. 0.1000
304. In the titration process, an acid or base with the unknown concentration is called
A. analyte B. titrant C. end point D. equivalent point
305. In which of the following acid- base titration, the resulting solution will have a PH less than seven (7) at
the equivalence point?
A. Strong acid- strong base titration C. weak acid- strong base titration
B. Strong acid- weak base titration D. non e of the above
306. What is the ionization constant (Ka) for a weak acid (HA) that is 1.60% ionized in a 0.005M solution?
A.1.28x10-6 B. 8 x10-5 C. 3.5 x10-8 D. 2.52 x10-4

307. Salt of a weak acid with strong base when dissolved in water gives:-
A. Acidic solution B. Basic solution C. Neutral solution D. strongly acidic solution
308. How many milliliters (Ml) of water are required to dilute 100mL of 2.5MH2SO4 to 2MH2SO4?
A. 125 B. 25 C. 80 D. 150
309. What grams of calcium metal must react with 100mL of 2MHCl according to the balanced reaction
Ca + 2HCl  CaCl2 + H2 A. 4g B. 0.4g C. 40g D. 0.04g
310. According to an Arrhenius concept, an acid is defined as any substance that
A. Donates a pair of electrons C. Donates a proton to abase
B. Releases hydrogen ion in water D. Increases the concentration of hydroxide ion in water solution
311. A solution of weak base “B” has PH of 9. If we add small amount of a salt containing the conjugate acid of
“BH+”, which of the following statement is true about the solution?
A. The PH increase and the POH decrease C. the PH decrease and the POH increase
B. Both the [OH-] and POH increase D. [OH-] increase and PH decrease
312. The conjugate acid of C6H5NH2 is
+¿¿ +¿¿
A. C6H5NH- B. C6H5NH 2❑C. C6H5NH3 D. C6H5NH 3❑
313. The PH of a solution containing 0.1M HF is (Ka= 6.8x10-4)
A. 3.43 B. 0.89 C. 1.74 D. 2.08
314. HF(Ka= 6.8 x10 ) is a weak acid and NH3(Kb= 1.8x10-5) is a weak base. A salt solution of NH4F would
-4

be A. Strongly acidic B. weakly basic C. neutral D. weakly acidic

315. Consider the following acids with their Ka values
Acids Ka values
CH3COOH 1.8x10-5
HCN 4.9X10-10
HF 6.8 x10-4
HNO2 4.5 x10-4Which of the following aqueous solutions of these acids will have the smallestPHvalue?
A. 1MCH3COOH B. 1MHCN C. 1MHF D. 1MHNO2

By. Fikadu Guta

316. The hydrogen ion concentration for a solution with POH of 9 at 250C is
A. 1x10-9M B. 1x10-7M C. 1x10-5M D. 1x 10-14M
317. Which of the following is a conjugate acid /base pair?
−¿¿ +¿¿ −¿¿
A. HCl/OCl- B. H2SO4/ HSO 3 C. H2O/ H3O+ D. NH 4 | NH 3
318. Which of the following combination cannot produce a buffer solution?
A. HCN/NaCN B. HNO3/NaNO3 C. HNO2/NaNO2 D. NH3/NH4Cl
319. Which of the following statement istrue?
A. Addition of NaOH to a solution of HNO3 will increase the POHof the solution
B. Addition of HCl to a solution of NaOH will decrease the POH of the solution
C. Addition of HNO3 to a solution of H2SO4 will decrease the POH of the solution
D. Addition of NaOH to a solution of HCl will decrease the POH of the solution
¿ −¿¿ ¿
320. What is the conjugate base of HPO2−¿
4 ? A. H3PO4 B. H2 PO 4 C. HPO2−¿
4 D. PO 3−¿¿
4

321. What is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) in solution with PH= 4at 250C?
A.4 x 10-4B. 1 x10-10 C. 1 x 10-4 D. 4x 10-10

322. Which of the following is conjugate acid- base pairs for the reaction
−¿¿ ¿
H2 PO 4 (aq) + H2O (l) → H3O+ (aq) + HPO2−¿
4

−¿¿ −¿¿ ¿
A. H2 PO 4 / PO 3−¿¿
4 B.H2O/H PO 2−¿¿
4 C.H2 PO 4 / HPO2−¿
4 D.H PO 2−¿¿
4 / PO 3−¿¿
4

323. All of the following can act as Bronsted- Lowry base EXCEPT;-
−¿ ¿ +¿¿
A. I- B. NH3 C. HCO3 D. NH 4
324. Which one of the following is not the correct feature of the strong acid- weak base titration?
A. The POHis less than seven before equivalence point
B. The PH is less than seven at equivalence point
C. The PH continues its sharp rise after equivalence point
D. Has a decreasing titration curve
325. Which of the following species can NOT act as a Lew’s acid?
A. Fe2+ B. BeCl2 C. BF3D. NH3
326. What is the molarity of a solution containing 20g of sulphuric acid (H 2SO4)in 200ml of solution
respectively?
A. 0.4M B. 1.25M C. 0.1M D. 0.5M
327. Which of the following aqueous solution will be basic ?
A. NaCl B. Na2CO3 C. Na2SO4 D. KNO3
- - -
328. Consider the following: PO43 , HPO42 , H2PO4 ,H3PO4. The term amphiprotic can be used to describe:
- - -
A. PO43 only C. HPO42 and H2PO4 only
- - - - -
B. PO43 , HPO42 , H2PO4 only D.HPO42 , H2PO4 , H3PO4 only

By. Fikadu Guta

 329. What is the [H3O+] at the equivalence point for the titration between HCl
- - -
and KOH? A. 1.0x10 9 M B. 1.0x10 7 M C. 1.0x10 5 M D. 0.01 M
330. When equal volumes of the following four 0.1M aqueous solutions are arranged in order of increasing
PH value, what is the correct order?
A. CH3COOH <HNO3< CH3COONa< KOH
B. HNO3<CH3COOH< CH3COONa< KOH
C. CH3COONa<HNO3<CH3COOH< KOH
D. KOH < CH3COONa<CH3COOH<HNO3
331. Which of the following classes of chemistry studies about inter conversion between electrical and chemical
energies? A. Thermochemistry B. Electrochemistry Thermodynamics D. Physical chemistry
332. Which of the following chemical reaction shows oxidation reaction?
A. SN+4 + 2e- → Sn+2 B. Cl2 → 2Cl- -2e- C. S-2 -2e- → S D. Mg → Mg+2 +2e-
333. A non-redox reaction among the followings is
A. Ca +H2SO4 → CaSO4 +H2 B. 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
C. Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HClO D. AgCl + KNO3 → AgNO3 + KCl
334. Reactions in which the same compound can serve as both reducing agent and oxidizing agent is called
A. Spectators B. Non-redox reactions C. Disproportionation reaction D. Overall reaction
335. In the reaction:- 2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O, the reducing agent is
A. H2S B. SO2 C. S D. H2O
336. The oxidation number of chlorine is large in A. HClO B.HClO2 C. HClO3 D. HClO4
337. After the reaction : P + HNO3 → H3PO4 + NO2 + H2O is completely balanced, the coefficients of the
reactants and products respectively are:
A. 1,5,2,5,2 B. 2,5,1,5,2 C. 2,5,2,5,2 D. 1,5,1,5,1
338. Methane (CH4) undergoes combination reaction to form CO2 and H2O. What is the ratio of the
coefficients of oxygen to methane when the reaction is completely balanced? The reaction is:
CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O A. 1:2 B. 2:1 C. 5:2 D. 1:1
339. Which of the following reaction is not balanced?
A. Cr2O7-2 + 3H2S + 8H+ → 2Cr+3 +3S +7H2O
B. 5SO3-2 + 2MnO4- + 3H2O → 5SO4-2 + 2Mn+2 +6OH-
C. 2I- + 2NO2- + 4H+ → I2+ 2NO + 2H2O
D. 5Fe + MnO4- + 8H+ → 5Fe+3 + Mn+2 + 4H2O
340. Which one of the following solutions shows current flow in an electrolytic cell?
A. water solution of sodium chloride B. solution of glucose
C. solution of sugar D. solid forms of ionic compounds

By. Fikadu Guta

341. Which one of the following is not correct about voltaic cells?
A. anode is negative B. cathode is positive
C. oxidation takes place at the anode D. redox reaction produce electricity in the cell
342. Electrolysis is not used for
A. Production of metals and non-metals B. Production of electricity
C. Purification of metals D. Electroplating of metals
343. The charge carriers in metallic (electronic) conductors are
A. freely moving ions B. anions only C. delocalized electrons D. Cations and anions
344. During the electrolysis of brine solution, the anode half reaction involves
A. the oxidation of sodium atoms in to ions
B. the reduction of chlorine atoms to give chloride ions
C. the oxidation of hydroxide ion (OH-) in to hydrogen and oxygen
D. the oxidation of chloride ions to elemental chlorine.
345. Voltaic cells and electrolytic cells are differ in that
A. anode is positive and cathode is negative in both types of cells
B. both types of cells contain two electrodes in contact with electrolysis
C. Reduction half reactions occurs at the anode and oxidation half reactions occurs at the cathode in both
types of cells
D. reduction half reactions occurs at the anode in both types of cells.
346. The conduction of electricity through each of the following substances is caused by the migration of
ions except in one case. The exception is
A. molten NaCl B. fused PbBr2 C. aqueous solution of KCl D. copper metal
347. Four different solutions of equal concentration (1M) were prepared as an electrolyte. The conduction of
electricity is least in the solution containing A. CH3COOH B. HCl C. H2SO4 D. HNO3
348. If Cl2 and Br2 are added into an electrolytic cell contains an aqueous solution of Cl- and Br-, what
amount of potential will be produced by the cell?
Given: Cl2 + 2e- 2Cl-, Eo= +1.36V
Br2 + 2e- 2Br-, Eo= +1.08V
A. -0.28V B. 0.28V C.2.44V D. -2.44V
349. Which of these processes is NOT spontaneous process?
A. The cooling of a block of hot metal to the temperature of its surroundings.
B. The expansion of a gas into a vacuum.
C. The boiling of water in an open pot at a very hot day.
D. The flow of viscous oil out of an overturned bottle.

By. Fikadu Guta

350. What amount of electric current is needed to deposit 0.52g of chromium metal from a solution of Cr 3+
in a period of 965 sec?
A. 0.408A B. 7.9A C.3A D. 0.79A
351. Which one of the following reaction represents the following cell notation?
Co(s)/Sn4+(aq)//Co2+(aq)/Sn2+(aq)
A. Co2+ (aq ) + Sn2+(aq) Co(s) + Sn4+(aq)
B. Co2+(aq) + Sn4+(aq) Co(s) + Sn2+(aq)
C. Co (s) + Sn4+ (aq) Co2+(aq) + Sn2+(aq)
D. B and C
352. Which of the following electrolysis have the same cell reaction with the electrolysis of dilute aqueous
H2SO4?
A. Electrolysis of brine solution B. Electrolysis of concentrated lead chloride salt
C. Electrolysis of concentrated HCl solution D. Electrolysis of dilute NaCl solution
353. Which of the following is not always correct?
A. Active metals are prepared by electrolytic reduction of their salt solutions
B. Metals prepared by chemical reduction of their ores are purified by electrolysis method
C. Elements with higher reduction potential are strong oxidizing agents
D. Electrolytic cells convert electrical energy to chemical energy
354. In an operating Galvanic cell, the function of a salt bridge is to
A. allow hydrolysis to occur
B. allow a non-spontaneous reaction to occur
C. allow electrical neutrality between the solutions
D. transfer electrons from the cathode to the anode
355. For the reaction: Mg(s) + Ni+2(aq) → Ni(s) + Mg+2 (aq) E0Mg+2/Mg = -2.37V and EoNi+2/Ni = -0.25v.
What is the Eocell for this reaction? A. +1.12V B. -2.62V C. -1.12v D. +2.26v
356. The correct cell notation for the balanced reaction : Fe(s) + Cu +2(aq)→ Fe+3(aq) + Cu(s)
A. Cu(s)/Cu+2(aq) // Fe+2(aq)/Fe(s) B. Fe(s)/Fe+2(aq)// Cu+2(aq)(s)/Cu(s)
C.Fe+2(aq)/Fe (s)// Cu/Cu+2(aq) D. Fe(s)/Fe+2(aq) //Cu(s)/Cu+2(aq)
357. What makes a Galvanic cell different from an electrolytic cell? In a Galvanic cell:-
A. The cell reaction is spontaneous. .
B. The transformation of electrical energy into chemical energy takes place.
C. External source of battery is needed.
D. The reaction is non-redox reaction

By. Fikadu Guta

358. Which one of the following is not correct about voltaic cells?
A. anode is negative B. cathode is positive C. oxidation takes place at the anode
D. redox reaction produce electricity in the cell
359. Which of the following is not the industrial application of electrolysis?
A. Production of metals and non-metals B. Production of electricity
C. Purification of metals D. Electroplating of metals
360. The charge carriers in metallic (electronic) conductors are
A. freely moving ions B. anions only C. delocalized electrons D. Cations and anions
361. What amount of electric current is needed to deposit 2.7g of aluminum metal from a solution of Al 3+ in
a period of 9650 sec? A.0.308A B. 1.9A C.3A D. 0.003A
362. What will happen during the electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO4 in the presence of Cu
electrodes?
A. Hydrogen gas will evolve at cathode. B. sulphate will deposit at anode
C. Oxygen gas will be released at anode. D. Copper will deposit at anode.
363. Using the data given below, E0 Cr2O72-/Cr3+ = 1.33V, E0 Cl2/Cl- = 1.36V, E0MnO4- / Mn2+= 1.51V, E0
Cr3+/ Cr, = -0.74v, Which one of the following substances is the strongest reducing agent?
A.Cr3+ B. Cl- C. Mn2+ D. Cr
364. Which of the following is not the function of salt bridge in the galvanic cell?
A. It allows the electrical contacts in the cell.
B. It allows the electrical neutrality in the process.
C. It prevents the mixing of two solutions.
D. It allows the hydrolysis reaction to occur.
365. Which one of the following statements is not true about the cell notation,
Mg / Mg2+ // Cu2+ / Cu ? (E0Cu2+/ Cu> E0Mg2+/ Mg )
A. The spontaneous cell reaction is: Mg+ Cu2+→ Cu + Mg2+
B. The non-spontaneous cell reaction is: Cu + Mg2+→Mg+ Cu2+
C. Copper acts as cathode in cell notation
D. The copper acts as cathode in electrolytic cell.
366. When the net ionic equations: Fe2+ + Cr2O72-→ Cr3+ + Fe3+isbalanced by ion electromethodin acidic
−2
medium , the coefficient of : Fe2+,Cr 2 O7 ,Cr3+,Fe3+become respectively A.6,1, 2, 6 B.3,1,2,3
C.5,1,2,5 D. 1, 1, 2, 1

By. Fikadu Guta

367. What will happen during the electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO4 in the presence of Cu
electrodes?
A. Hydrogen gas will evolve at cathode. C. Copper will dissolve at anode
B. Oxygen gas will be released at anode. D. Copper will deposit at anode.
368. Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent?
A. Al B. Cu C. Zn D. Mg
369. In the electrolysis of dilute K2SO4, what is formed at the cathode? A. O2 gas
B. H2 gas C. K2SO4 D. H2SO4
370. In the electrolysis of molten ZnCl2, using carbon electrode, the anodic half reaction is
A. Zn  Zn+2 +2e- B. Zn+2 + 2e-  Zn C. 2Cl-  Cl2
+ 2e- D. Cl2 + 2e-  2Cl-
371. What are the substances formed at the anode and cathode during the electrolysis of molten brine
(NaCl)? A. O2 & H2 B. Na & Cl2 C. Cl2 & H2 D. Cl2 & Na
372. In the electrolysis of molten NaI, which is true?
A. I- migrates to anode and gain electrons B. I- migrates to anode and lose electrons
C. Na+ migrates to anode and lose electrons D. Na+ migrates to cathode and gain electrons
373. When the cations Cu+2, Cd+2 and Zn+2 are listed from strongest to weakest oxidizing agent, the order is
A. Cd+2, CU+2, Zn+2 B. CU+2,Cd+2, Zn+2 C.
Zn+2 , Cd+2, CU+2 D. CU+2, Zn+2 , Cd+2
374. The product of the electrolysis of concentrated MgCl2 using inert electrode are
A. H2 & O2 B. Mg & O2 C. H2 & Cl2 D. Mg & Cl2
375. Which of the following reactions show the overall cell reaction?
A. 2Ag + Cu+2  Cu + 2Ag+ B. 2Ag + Cu  Cu+2 + 2Ag+
C. 2Ag+ + Cu+2  Cu + 2Ag D. 2Ag+ + Cu  Cu+2 + 2Ag
376. Which of the followings are produced at the anode and cathode respectively during the electrolysis of
aqueous Na2SO4 using carbon electrode?
A. Na & O2 B. H2 & O2 C. O2 & H2 D. S & Na
377. Which half-cell reaction correctly represents reduction (cathodic reaction)?
A. Zn  Zn+2 + 2e- B. Zn+2  Zn + 2e-
C. Zn+ 2e-  Zn+2 D. Zn+2 + 2e-  Zn

By. Fikadu Guta

378. What are the expected products of the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of molten CaCl 2?
A. Ca & H2 are deposited at cathode and Cl2 and O2 are deposited at anode
B. Ca is deposited at cathode and Cl2 at anode
C. Ca and H2 are deposited at cathode and only Cl2 is at anode
D. Ca is deposited at cathode and Cl2 and O2 at anode
379. Which of the following is an active electrode?
A. Pt B. graphite C. Gold D. Zinc
380. The best oxidizing agent among the following is
A. K+ B. Ba+2 C. Pb+2 D. Cd+2
381. Which of the following represents the same cell reaction with the electrolysis of aqueous H 2SO4?
A. electrolysis of concentrated HCl B. electrolysis of dilute NaCl
C. electrolysis of brine solution D. electrolysis of molten NaCl
382. Given the reaction: Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe + 3CO2, which is the reducing agent in this reaction?
A. Fe B. CO C. CO2 D. Fe2O3
383. If NO2 acts as a reducing agent, a possible product formed is
A. NO B. N2O C. N2O4 D. N2O5
384. Which of the following can act as an oxidizing agent but not as a reducing agent?
A. Cr B. Cl- C. Cu+1 D. Na+
385. The strongest oxidizing agent among the following is A. Na B. Al C. S D. Cl
386. Which of the following molecule is easily reduced? A. Br2 B. Cl2 C. F2 D. I2
387. Which of the following is more difficult to reduce than H+ ion?
A. Cl2 B. Ag+ C. Zn+2 D. Cu+2
388. The best oxidizing agent among the followings is
A. Na+ B. Al+3 C. Ag+ D. Cu+2
389. If NO2 undergo reduction, which one may be formed?
A. NO B. N2O4 C. N2O5 D. HNO3
390. Which of these processes is NOT spontaneous?
A. The cooling of a block of hot metal to the temperature of its surroundings.
B. The expansion of a gas into a vacuum.
C. The boiling of water in an open pot at a very hot day.
D. The flow of viscous oil out of an overturned bottle.

By. Fikadu Guta

391. Use these given data
Reaction E0 (V)
O2 + 2H2O + 4e- 4OH- +0.4
H2O2 + 2H3O+ + 2e- 4H2O +1.77
PbSO4 + 2e- Pb + SO42- -0.356
2H2O + 2e- H2 + 2OH- -0.827
The correct order of the substance in increasing ability of functioning as oxidizing agent is:
A. H2O2<O2 <PbSO4<H2O C. PbSO4<H2O<H2O2<O2
B. H2O<PbSO4<O2<H2O2 D. O2<H2O <PbSO4<H2O2
392. If Cl2 and Br2 are added into an electrolytic cell contains an aqueous solution of Cl-1 and Br-1, what
amount of potential will be produced by the cell?
Given: Cl2 + 2e- 2Cl-,Eo= +1.36V
Br2 + 2e- 2Br-,Eo= +1.08V
A. -0.28V B. 0.28V C. 2.44V D. -2.44V
393. What amount of electric current is needed to deposit 0.52g of chromium metal from a solution of Cr 3+
in a period of 965 sec?
A. 0.408A B. 7.9AV C. 3A D. 0.79A
394. Which one of the following reaction represent the following cell notation?
Co(s)/Sn4+(aq)//Co2+(aq)/Sn2+(aq)
A. Co2+ (aq ) + Sn2+(aq) Co(s) + Sn4+(aq)
B. Co2+(aq) + Sn4+(aq) Co(s) + Sn2+(aq)
C. Co (s) + Sn4+ (aq) Co2+(aq) + Sn2+(aq)
D. B and C
395. Two cells (KNO3 & AlCl3) are connected in series. If 120g of Aluminum is deposited on one of the cell
how much potassium is deposited on the other cell?[use mass of K=39, N=14, O=16, Al=27 &
Cl=35.5 ]A. 13.33g B. 0.075g C. 4.44g D. 0.225g E. None of the above
396. How many grams of copper are produced when 60 amperes of current are passed through copper (II)
sulphate solution for 2 hours? A. 142.13g B. 284.27g C. 46g D. 126.4g E. None
397. The anode reaction is the same in all of the ff electrolytic cells except one:
A. Elctrolysis of brine solution
B. Electrolysis of fused lead chloride
C. Electrolysis of concentrated HCl solution D. Electrolysis of dilute NaCl solution
398. Which of the ff is not correct?
A. Up on electrolysis of CuSO4 solution using copper electrodes, the solution remains unaffected
B. The products formed at the anode from the electrolysis of acidified water or dilute H 2SO4 are the same
C. Active metals are prepared by electrolytic reduction of their salt solutions
D. Metals prepared by chemical reduction of their ores are purified using electrolysis method
E. Electrolytic cells convert electrical energy to chemical energy
By. Fikadu Guta
399. During cathodic protection, the sacrificial anode
A. accepts electrons from the protected metal
B. reacts spontaneously with the protected metal
C. oxidizes more readily than the protected metal
D. causes the protected metal to become an anode
400. In order for an electrolytic cell to operate, it must have
A. voltmeter B. salt bridge C. power supply D. an aqueous solution
401. For the reaction: Ni+2(aq) + Fe(s)  Ni(s) + Fe+2(aq),
EoNi+2/Ni = -0.25V and EoFe+2/Fe = -0.44V. What is the value of EoCell?
A. -0.19V B. 0.19V C. -0.69V D. 0.69V
402. If Eo Zn+2/Zn = -0.76V, E0Cu+2/Cu = 0.34V EoSn+2/Sn = -0.14V and E0Ni+2 = -0.25V which one is the
most easily reduced? A. Zn+2 B. Cu+2 C. Ni+2 D. Sn+2
403. If EoAl+3/Al= -1.66V and EoCu+2/Cu = 0.34V, then Eocell is A. 1.32V B. 4.34v C. 2.0V D. 2.3V
404. Given the following reactions with reduction potentials as follows: EoAg+/Ag = 0.8V, EoPb+2/Pb = -
0.126V and EoV+2/V = -1.18V. Which of the following reaction will occur spontaneously?
A. V+2 _ 2Ag  V + 2Ag+ B. Pb + V+2  Pb+2 + V
C. Pb + 2Ag+  Pb+2 + 2Ag D. 2Ag+ + Pb+2  2Ag + Pb
405. Consider the following half reaction
Fe(OH)2 + 2e-  Fe + 2OH-, Eo = -0.88V
NiO2 + 2H2O + 2e-  Ni(OH)2 + 2OH-, E0 = 0.49V. What is Eocell for the above reaction?
A. -1.37V B. -0.39V C. 0.49V D. 1.37V
406. The reaction: Cu+2 + M  Cu + M+2 has Eocell = 0.75V. If Eored for Cu+2 is 0.34V, what is Eored for
M+2? A. -1.09V B. -0.41V C. 0.41V D. 1.09V
407. A solution at 250C contains the metal ions Ni+2, Pt+2 and Pd+2 all at 1M concentrations. Consider the
following standard reduction potentials EoNi+2/Ni = -0.25V, E0Pt+2/Pt = 1.2V and EoPd+2/Pd = 0.99V.
Which metal(s) to be plated out first when the solution is electrolyzed?
A. Ni B. Pd C. Pt D. Ni and Pd
408. Which metal can react spontaneously with Zn+2 ion at 25oC?
A. Cu B. Ag C. Al D. Au E. Pb
409. Given the reaction: Al + 3Ag+  Al+3 + 3Ag if EoAl+3/Al = -1.66V and EoAg+/Ag = 0.8V, then Eocell is
A. 0.86V B. 1.78V C. 2.46V D. 3.38V
410. What is the standard cell potential for the reaction: 2Cr + 3Cu+2  2Cr+3 + 3Cu if EoCu/Cu = 0.34V and
EoCr+3/Cr = -0.74V? A. -1.08V B. 0.4V C. 1.08V D. 2.5V

By. Fikadu Guta

411. Which of the following metal ions can be reduced by Cd under standard conditions?
A. Mg+2 B. Al+3 C. Ag+ D. K+
412. For the reaction: 2Au+3 + 3Ni  2Au + 3Ni+2, if EoAu+3/Au = 1.5 and EoNi+2/Ni = -.25V, what is
Eocell? A. 3.75V B. 2.25V C. 1.75V D. 1.25V
413. What is the standard potential of the cell containing Fe+2/Fe and Br2/Br- couples if EoFe+2/Fe = -0.44V
and EoBr2/Br- = 1.08V? A. -1.52V B. 2.34V C. 1.52V D. -2.34V
414. Consider the following standard voltaic cell: Fe, Fe+2 versus Au, Au+3. Which answer identifies the
cathode and gives the Eocell for the reaction if Au+3/Au = 1.5V and Fe+2/Fe = -0.44V?
A. Au, 1.06V B. Fe, -0.44V C. Au, 1.94V D. Fe, 1.94V
415. If EoAl+3/Al = -1.66V, EoSn+2/Sn = -0.14V, EoZn+2/Zn = -0.76V and EoMg+2/Mg = -2.37V, the best
reducing and oxidizing agents respectively are: A. Al, Mg+2 B. Zn, Sn+2 C. Sn, Mg+2 D. Mg, Sn+2
416. Given the potential reduction of Fe+2/Fe = -0.44V, Cu+2/Cu = 0.34V, Zn+2/Zn = -0.76V and Ni+2/Ni = -
0.25V. Which metal is used as a sacrificial anode to prevent iron from rusting?
A. Cu B. Ni C. Zn D. Cu & Zn
417. For the cell notation: Al(s)/Al+3(aq)//Ag+(aq)/Ag(s), the correct balanced equation is:
A. Al+3(aq) +3Ag+(aq)→ Al(s) + 3Ag(s) B. Al+3(aq) + 3Ag(aq)→ Al(s) + 3Ag+(aq)
C. Al(s) + Ag+(aq)→ Al+3(aq) + Ag(s) D. Al(s) +3 Ag+(aq)→ Al+3(aq) + 3Ag(s)
418. The correct cell notation for the balanced reaction : Fe(s) + Cu+2(aq)→ Fe+3 (aq) + Cu(s)
A. Cu(s)/Cu+2(aq) // Fe+2(aq)/Fe(s) B. Fe(s)/Fe+2(aq)// Cu+2(aq)(s)/Cu(s)
C.Fe+2(aq)/Fe (s)// Cu/Cu+2(aq) D. Fe(s)/Fe+2(aq) //Cu(s)/Cu+2 (aq)
419. Which element is used as a reference to measure the standard reduction potential of other the
elements? A. Carbon B. phosphorous C. Oxygen D. hydrogen
+2 +2
420. For the reaction: Mg(s) + Ni (aq) → Ni(s) + Mg (aq)
E0Mg+2/Mg = -2.37V and EoNi+2/Ni = -0.25v. What is the Eocell for this reaction?
A. +1.12V B. -2.62V C. -1.12v D. +2.26v
421. How many faradays are needed to produce 2.7g of aluminum?
A. 0.1F B. 0.3F C. 1F D. 9F
422. The number of faraday`s required to produce 3.2g of oxygen is
A. 0.025F B. 2.3F C. 2.5F D. 0.4F
423. How many grams of zinc will be deposited from a solution of ZnSO4 by a current of 4A flowing for
3hours? A. 2.5g B. 4.5g C. 3.8g D. 1.76g
424. For how long must a current of 2milliamper (2mA) be passed in electrolysis to form 0.3g of copper
from Cu+2? A. 125.7hr B.235.4hr C. 623.56hr D. 123.7hr
425. How many moles of a trivalent metal (M) would be deposited at the cathode by the electrolysis of
molten salt in a cell operated at 20A for 3hrs?
A. 1.5 moles B. 2.3 moles C. 0.52 moles D. 0.75 moles

By. Fikadu Guta

426. An aqueous solution of platinum salt is electrolyzed by passing a current of 2.5A for 2hrs. as a result
9.09g of metallic platinum are formed at the cathode. What is the charge on the platinum ion in the
solution if the molar mass of platinum is 195g/mol? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
427. A current of 1.26A is passed through an electrolytic cell containing an aqueous solution of H2SO4 for
7.44hrs. What volume of the gas is generated at the anode at STP? ( use P= 1atm, T= 273K and R=
0.082L.atm/mol.k) A. 2.3L B. 1.96L C. 0.76L D. 4.76L
428. During the electrolysis of aqueous Cu(NO3)2, what would happen to the mass of Cu+2 if the current is
doubled and time is halved of its initial?
A. Stay the same B. doubled C. decreased by a factor of ½ D. increased by a factor of ½
429. A current of 15A flowing for 1hr deposits 12g of copper at the cathode. What is the equivalent mass of
copper? A. 21.4g B. 0.05g C. 26.8g D. 5.63g
430. A lamp draws a current of 2A. What is the charge used by the lamp in 3 minutes?
A. 6C B. 360C C. 3600C D. 7200C
431. When electricity is passed through aqueous solution of AlCl3, 20.23g of Al are deposited. What must be
the number of Faraday`s required? A. 3.74F B. 0.56F C. 2.25F D. 4.76F
432. Two cells, Al(NO3)3 and CuCl2 are connected in series. If 27g of copper is deposited on one of the cell,
how much of Al is deposited on the other cell? A. 6.43g B. 7.6g C. 13.7g D. 3.27g
433. Two cells are connected in series. One contains LiNO3 and the other contains MCl3. If 5g of Li was
deposited in the cell containing LiNO3 whereas 6.43g of the unknown metal M was deposited in the cell
containing MCl3, what is the molar mass of M? A. 9g B. 21g C. 54g D. 27g
434. The rate of a reaction is expressed by unit
A. Mol-L- B. Mol-L-S- C. MolL-S- D. MolLS-
435. For gaseous substances, Increase in pressure shifts the equilibrium position to the
A. Right B. Left C. Sometimes right and sometimes left D. no any effect
436. Catalysts have no any effect on the position of the Equilibrium. A.True B. False
437. Esterification is the reaction between
A. alcohols and ketones B. Carboxylic acids and aldehydes
C. Aldehydes and alcohols D. Alcohols and carboxylic acids
438. Which of the following is not a precondition for a reaction to occur?
A. Activation energy B. Proper orientation C. Concentration D. Effective collision
439. Reduction of esters can produce
A. aldehydes B. Carboxylic acids C. primary alcohols D. Ketones

By. Fikadu Guta

440. Quick vinegar fermentation process is the industrial preparation method for
A. Ethanol B. Acetic acid C. Propanol D. butanoic acid
441. In which of the following orders of reactions, the rate of half-life reaction is independent on the
concentration of reactants?
A. First order B. Second order C. Third order D. Zero order
442. The decomposition of AB to A and B (AB → A + B) is first order reaction with rate constant of 2x10 -
7
sec-1. What is the half-life of this reaction at the same temperature?
A. 2.9 x107sec B. 4.7 x106 sec C. 3.8 x105 sec D. 3.5 x106 sec
443. For the reaction: 2A + 3B → 4D + 5E, the rate of the reaction in terms of
Δ [D] would be written as:
A. + 4 Δ[D] /Δt B. +1/4 Δ[D] /Δt C. -1/4 Δ[D] /Δ D. + Δ[D] /Δt
444. A mixture of NaCl in water is
A. Abivariant system C. a monovariant system
B. invariant system D. a one phase system
445. Consider the equilibrium reaction: Cl2(g) + 2NO(g) 2NOCl(g), Kc= 4. At Equilibrium [Cl2]= 1.0
M and [NO]= 2.0M. What is the [NOCl] at equilibrium A. 16M B. 8.0M C. 4.0M D. 2.0M
446. For the reaction X Y if we double the concentration of X, the rate is quadrupled (increase
four times), then the reaction is A. Zero order B. first order C. third order D. Second order
447. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a chemical equilibrium?
A. The concentration of reactants and products are generally equal
B. The reaction takes place in a closed vessel
C. The macroscopic properties do not change with time
D. The rate of forward reaction is equal to the rate of backward reaction
448. For the reaction:- 2C(s) + O2(g) ⇌ 2CO (g), the Kc expression is
❑ ❑ ❑
2 [ CO ] ¿
❑ 2 2 2
A. B.[ CO ] ¿ ¿ C. 2 [ CO ] ¿ ¿ D. [ CO ] ¿ ¿
2 [ C ] [ O2 ]
[ C ] ❑2 [ O2 ] [ O2 ] [O 2 ]
449. The reaction 2A B is a second order reaction in A with rate constant of 20 M −1 S−1.
What is the half- life of this reaction if the initial concentration of A is 0.05M in a unit of second?
A. 8.3 B. 0.12 C. 4.2 D. 1.0
450. Consider the mechanism for a reaction given below, which of the following statement is not correct?
Step-1: NO2+ F2NO2F+F (slow)
Step-2: NO2+FNO2F (fast)
By. Fikadu Guta
 A. Step-1 is the rate determining step C. F is an intermediate
B. the overall equation (reaction) is 2NO2+ F22NO2F
D. the molecularity of the overall reaction is bimolecular
451. How a catalyst does increase the rate for a given chemical reaction? It is by
A. lowering the activation energy C. Shifting the reaction to the right
B. Shifting the reaction to the left D. increasing the volume of the reactants and products
452. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium
CH4(g) +H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) +3H2(g), Δ H= +260kJ.
Which of the following is not the true effect on the reaction?
A. Increasing temperature favors the formation of products
B. Adding CO decreases the amount of H2
C. Removal of H2 decreases the amount of CO
D. Decreasing pressure increases the amount of CO
453. For the reaction, H2(g) + Br2(g) ⇋ 2HBr(g), Kc = 4 x 104 at 700 k. what is the value of
Kc for the reaction. 2HBr(g) ⇋ H2(g)+ Br2 (g) at the same temperature
A. 1.4 x 10−6 B. 5.04 x 109 C. 1.6 x 10−5 D. 2.5 x 10−5
454. For the reaction:- C(s)+CO2(g)⇌ 2 CO(g), if the partial pressure of CO 2 and CO are 2 atm & 4 atm
respectively, what is the value of Kp at equilibrium for this reaction?
A. 8atm B. 4atm C. 0.5atm D. 32atm
455. Which of the following is likely to be happen when pressure is applied to the following reaction at
equilibrium? A(s) ⇌ A(l)
A. More water will be formed C. water will evaporate
B. More ice will be formed D. no change occurs
456. Interms of temperature and pressure, solid state is characterized by
A. Low temperature and low pressure C. high temperature and high pressure
B. High temperature and low pressure D. low temperature and high pressure
457. The reaction between: NO and O2 [2NO(g)+O2(g)2NO2(g)] is second order in NO and
first order in O2. What change occurs in the rate of the reaction if the concentration of NO is
tripled and concentration of O2 is doubled?
A. 5 times in creased B.8 times increased C.18 times increased D. 27 times increased
458. Nitrosyl bromide (NOBr) decomposes slowly to NO & Br2 as shown below
2NOBr2NO+Br2, Rate= k[ NOBr ] ❑2. The rate constant (k) is 0.6 M −1 S−1. If the initial concentration of NO
0.1M, what will be its concentration after 5 minutes?
A. 5.5 x 10−4M B. 2.3 x 10−4 M C. 7.69 x 10−2 D. 1.82 x10−2M
459. For a one component system (C = 1), a system with three phases (P=3) is called
A. Mono variant system B. bi-variant system
C. Invariant system D. Zero variant system
By. Fikadu Guta
 460. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
A. A mixture of CaCO3 and Nacl has two phases
B. A mixture of oil and water has two phases.
C. A mixture NaCl in water has two components.
D. Ice floating on water has two components
461. For the reaction, H2(g) + Br2(g) ⇋ 2HBr(g), Kc = 7.1 x 104 at 700 k. what is the value of Kc for the
reaction. 2HBr(g) ⇋ H2(g)+ Br2 (g) at the same temperature
A. 1.4 x 10−5 B. 5.04 x 109 C. 1.4 x 10−3 D. 1.4 x 10−6
462. Which statement explains why the rate of a chemical reaction is increased when the temperature of
the reactant is increased? Because this change increases
A. The concentration of the reactant C. The collision between the reacting particles
B. The activation energy of the reactant D. the average kinetic energy of the reactant
463. For the reaction:- C5H12(l)+8O2(g) 5 CO2(g) +6H2O(l), if the rate of appearance of CO 2 is
−3 −1
10 M S , what is the rate for the appearance of H2O and disappearance of O2 respectively?
A. 2.4 x 10−3 & 3.2 x10−3 C. 1.67 x 10−3 & 1.25 x 10−3
B.1.5 x 10−3 ∧¿ 1.67 x10−3 D. 1.33 x 10−3 & 2.5 x 10−3
464. Which state of matter exists at very high temperature and small force of attraction between
particles? A. the Liquid state B. the Gaseous state C. the solid state D. the Plasma state
465. Ammonia (NH3) can be prepared industrially by the Haber process according to the following
reaction N2(g) +3H2(g) ⇋ 2NH3 (g), ∆ H= -92.1 KJ/mol. What conditions are favoured to maximize
the yield of Ammonia.
A. low temperature and high pressure C. high temperature and low pressure
B. high temperature and high pressure D. low temperature and low pressure
466. Which of the following rate expressions is valid for the gas reaction,
1
N2O5 2NO2 + O2 ?
2
∆ [ N2O ] ∆ [ O2 ] ∆ [ N 2 O ] 1 ∆ [ O2 ]
A. 5
= -2 C. 5
=
∆t ∆t ∆t 2 ∆t
∆ [ NO 2 ] ∆ [ O2 ] ∆ [ O2 ] ∆ [ N 2 O ]
B. =4 D. =2
5

∆t ∆t ∆t ∆t
467. The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction:
3H2(g) + CO(g) ↔ CH4(g) + H2O(g) is 2.5M-2. If [CO] = 2x10-3M, [H2] = 0.1M and [H2O] = 0.1M,
what is the [CH4] at equilibrium? A. 0.0421M B. 0.0452M C. 0.0481M D. 0.125M
468. For the rxn:- PCl5(g) ↔PCl3(g)+Cl2(g), ∆H = 92.5KJ at equilibrium. One can increase the yield of
PCl3(g) and Cl2(g) by
A. Increase in temperature
B. Increasing in pressure
C. Decreasing the concentration of PCl5
D. Increasing the concentration of Cl2

By. Fikadu Guta

 469. The reaction: 2C + D  F was studied and the following data were obtained
Experiments [A] in M [B] in M (Rate)o
1 4.0 4.0 1.8
2 4.0 2.0 0.9
3 2.0 2.0 0.45
What is the proper rate equation expression?
A. Rate = K[C]2[D] B. Rate = K[C][D] C. Rate = K[C][D]2 D. Rate = K[C]2[D]2 E. None
470. Which one is not a method of preparing carboxylic acids?
A. Oxidation of primary alcohols B. Oxidation of aldehydes
C. Oxidation of esters D. Oxidation of alkyl benzene
471. When carboxylic acids react with active metals, which one of the following gases is evolved?
A. Chlorine B. Nitrogen C. Hydrogen D. Carbon dioxide
472. Compounds that can be used to make artificial flavors and perfumes are
A. Alcohols B. Esters C. Ethers D. Carboxylic acids
473. the basic difference between fats and oils is that fats are
A. Saturated B. solid or semi-solid at room temperature C. obtained from animals D. all
474. Which base is used to prepare soft soaps? A. NaOH B. KOH C. Ca(OH)2 C. Al(OH)3
475. Which one of the following is not the derivative of hydrocarbons?
A. Alcohols B. Aldehydes C. Ketones D. Alkynes
476. The reaction of acid chlorides with primary alcohols produce
A. Aldehydes B. Fats and oils C. Esters D. Ketones
477. Base hydrolysis of esters is called
A. hydrolysis B. esterification C. saponification D. Emulsification
478. The commonest method of preparing esters is
A. Hydrolysis B. reduction C. esterification D. saponification
479. Of the following organic compounds which one has dual functional groups?
A. Alcohols B. carboxylic acids C. Ketones D. Esters
480. Among the followings which one has a pleasant smell and flavor odor?
A. CH3CH2OH B. CH3CH2COOH C. CH3CH2COCH3 D. CH3CH2COOCH3
481. The chemical which is used in ants as a defensive mechanism is
A. Acetic acid B. Formic acid C. Butanoic acid D. Propanoic acid
By. Fikadu Guta
 482. When beverages like `tella` and `teji` are kept for a long periods, they become sour due to the
formation of A. CH3CH3OH B. HCOOH C. CH3COOCH3 D. CH3COOH
483. Which one of the followings has the highest boiling points?
A. CH3(CH)2CH3 B. CH3(CH2)2CHO C. CH3(CH2)2OH D. CH3(CH2)2COOH
484. The volume of a certain confined gas is doubled while the pressure is held constant. What will happen
to the temperature of this gas?
C. It will decrease by half C. It will increase by four factor
D. It will be doubled D. It will remain the same
485. The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to
A. The total pressure of the gas
B. The volume occupied by the gas
C. The absolute temperature of the gas
D. The number of molecule of the gas
486. The type of physical state which occur at high temperature and low pressure
A. Solid state B. Liquid state C. Gaseous state D. Plasma state
487. If a sample of 10 litres volume of gas is heated from -73 C to 127oC at constant pressure, the new
o

volume is A. 5L B. 20L C. 15L D. 10L

488. Oxygen gas (O2) diffuses 2 times an unknown gas. What is the molar mass of the unknown gas?
A. 128 B. 64 C. 22.6 D. 8
489. Equal volume of different gasses at constant temperature and pressure have equal number
of molecules. This is the law of stated by
A. Boyle’s B. Charle’s C. Lussac’s D. Avogadro`s
490. A 10 litres of gas exerts a pressure of 40 atm at constant temperature. What is the new
volume of the gas if the pressure is changed to 80 atm at constant temperature?
A. 5L B. 20L C. 2.5L D. 10L
o
491. The volume of 64g of methane gas (CH4) at 27 c and 4atm is
A. 11.2L B. 49.2L C. 24.6L D. 2.214L

492. The amount of heat released when one mole of liquid is converted in to a solid is called
A. the amount of heat released C. molar heat of crystallization
B. Molar heat of fusion D. Molar heat of sublimation

493. which of the following is not related correctly with its method of preparation
A. Ammonia  Haber process C. sodium carbonate  Bosch process
B. B. sulfuric acid  contact process D. nitric acid  Ostwald process
494. The raw material used in the industrial preparation of nitric acid is
A. NO B. N2O5 C. NH3 D. NO2
495. A method of preparing sodium hydroxide (NaOH) by the electrolysis of brine solution is
A. Castner-kellner process C. Loewig`s process
B. Nelson diaphragm cell process D. Reacting sodium oxide with water
496. A mixture of Na2SiO3 and CaSiO3 is used to make
A. Cement B. Ceramics C. Glass D. Pulp and paper

By. Fikadu Guta

497. A method of preserving foods by keeping the original shape, taste and flavor is
A. Freezing B. Irradiation C. Vacuum packing D. Freeze-drying
A. In the preparatory stage of tannery industry, the step where the missed hair and fat are removed using
dull knife is A. Curing B. Scudding C. deliming D. soaking
498. Chemicals used to digest trees in the sulphite process of making pulp and paper are
A. NaOH and Na2S C. H2SO4 and HNO3
B. NaHSO4 and MgHSO4 D. Na2CO3 and NH3
499. Which of the following process is responsible for causing rain?

A. Evaporation B. Condensation C. Evaporation and condensation D. Filtration

500. Acid rain is mainly due to

A. presence of dust in air C.presence of water vapor in air

B. presence of carbon dioxide in air D.presence of oxides of sulfur and nitrogen in air
501. What happens to the soil after prolonged application of fertilizers and pesticides?

A. The soil retains its fertility C. The soil become alkaline

B. B. The soil becomes acidic D. The soil becomes barren of life forms
502. In the electroplating process, an external voltage is applied across a pair of electrodes causing

A. A current to flow through an electrolyte

B. An electroplate to form on an electrolyte
C. An alternating voltage in a magnetic chemical
D. A chemical to produce a negative voltage on a positive electrode
503. Chemists permit secondary cell to be rechargeable by

A. Reversing the polarity of the discharged cell

B. Alternating the electrodes with a primary cell at the same type
C. Replacing the lost chemicals in the electrolyte
D. Reversing the current flow using another energy source
504. Which of the following are characteristics of thermosetting polymers?

A. Heavily branched three dimensional cross-linked polymers.

B. Linear slightly branched long-chain molecules.
C. Become fusible on moulding so can be re -used.
D. Soften on heating and harden on cooling and hence can be re-used.
505. The synthesis of which of the following polymers necessitates the loss of tiny molecules like water on a
regular basis?
A. Polythene B. Nylon-6,6 C. polyvinyl chloride D. Teflon
506. Which of the following criteria does not apply to the classification of polymers?
A. Source B. Structure C. Method of preparation D. Number of monomers
507. Which of the following is not a thermoplastic example?
A. Polyvinyl chloride B. Bakelite C. Polyesters D. Nylon

By. Fikadu Guta

By. Fikadu Guta